Documentos de Académico
Documentos de Profesional
Documentos de Cultura
Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dellv
Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dell Dellv
15 K
Para verificar el estado de las oportunidades que estn por vencer, debo acceder:
El cierre de este mes
Son factores importantes en la aprobacin de una oportunidad registrada (Escoja las que apliquen)
l campo Ingreso Total estimado para Dell se refiere a:
Monto a pagar a Dell sin incluir envo y manejo
Verdadero o falso? Muchas conductas que antes estaban dentro de la forma de hacer negocios, ahora son conductas ilegales
1
Selecciona todas las respuestas correctas. Son ejemplos de conductas prohibidas por Dell para hacer negocios:
cer negocios:
aciones y concursos.
KACE Demo v2
With the Reports Tab in the Reporting Module, the customer has access to a pre-defined list
FALSE
The Dell Updates Tab is part of the Distribution Module.
TRUE
The four steps to take when preparing for an Overview Demo are: 1.Know the Dell KACE K1000, 2
TRUE
The Tab for the K1000 Agent can be found in the Settings Module
TRUE
One of the components of your Overview Demo should be presenting the Dell KACE Appliance Va
TRUE
The Dell KACE Management Appliance performs behind a simple to use interface designed for sys
TRUE
With the Inventory Module, the administrator can click into an individual machine for a detaile
TRUE
The K1000 is able to track software installations and licensing details with the Software Tab in
TRUE
The Computers Tab is part of the Inventory Module, and the customer can use this to see de
FALSE
To learn more about your customers business, you should ask them if they manage/support mor
TRUE
With the Metering Tab, the K1000 allows the customer to monitor the usage of software applic
TRUE
The Assets Tab allows the customer to tie assets to users for tracking purposes.
TRUE
With the K1000, from their web browser, the customer can configure everything on the server fr
TRUE
Even with the K1000, large scale deployments across the WAN will have an impact on network tr
TRUE
One of the components of an Overview Demo should be documentation and information about th
FALSE
When interviewing your customer, a good question to ask them is: What solutions are they curr
TRUE
With the Managed Installations Tab, the K1000 is also able to inventory, label and create notif
FALSE
. With the Service Desk Module, the customer can run multiple service desks from one K1000 M
TRUE
The Managed Installations Tab is integrated with the AppDeploy.com website where IT Profess
TRUE
With the Scripts Tab in the K1000, the customer can enforce power settings on individual mach
FALSE
With the OVAL Assessment Tab, the customer has access to tests that allow them to identify vu
TRUE
The K1000 Appliance backs itself up nightly into four back-up files.
FALSE
With the Configuration Tab in the Service Desk Module, the customer can set up queues and
TRUE
With the K1000, the customer has to set up a dedicated PC or laptop from which to manage thei
FALSE
Your Overview Demo should emphasize the full life cycle of computer management that is capab
TRUE
to a pre-defined list of reports. They do not have the capability of creating customized reports.
e Dell KACE K1000, 2.Know the competition, 3.Know your customers business and their challenges, 4.Kno
an use this to see detailed information about every machine in their environment.
gs on individual machines.
n set up queues and create process work flows for incoming incident tickets.
d reports.
The focus of KACE appliances is on managing operating systems regardless of the hardware man
TRUE
The K1000 has been designed so that youre able to locate information with no more than 4-5 cli
FALSE
3. Dell KACE solutions have a simple pricing plan making them affordable for most IT departmen
TRUE
TRUE
5. With K-imaging, adding a 30 GB image that has only 1GB of data that differs from the curren
FALSE
6. With the K3000, Device Hardware Inventory shows all accessible mobile device inventory para
TRUE
7. Dell KACE is in the same category as high end software suites that require extensive and expe
FALSE
8. The K1000 provides comprehensive and easy-to-use configuration policy management and enf
FALSE
9. KACE appliances can be plugged into an existing network and immediately begin functioning.
TRUE
10. Because there are multiple options with K1000, K2000 and K3000, there will also be multiple
FALSE
11. KACE appliances include the capability of a fully functional Service Desk.
TRUE
12. The asset module on the K1000 is a Configuration Management Database or CMDB.
TRUE
13. If a system misses a patching run because it was offline, Administrators can schedule patche
TRUE
14. The K2000 queries its driver library for the correct drivers for each setup. The Administrator
FALSE
15. Scripted installation with the K2000 allows you to create an unattended installation of Windo
TRUE
16. The Software landing page provides a high level overview of the software title and number of
TRUE
17. The K3000 is capable of locking and unlocking devices, setting passcodes on Android, and con
TRUE
18. Many organizations struggle with the complexity and manual costs of OS migrations and larg
TRUE
19. With the K1000, Administrators have the ability to enforce process workflows to ensure comp
TRUE
20. With the K1000, compliance reports can be scheduled and the results can be emailed to indiv
TRUE
21. With the K2000, selected images are automatically transferred to remote sites on the custom
TRUE
22. IT Staff are required to attend an 8 hour, instructor-led class before they are authorized to in
FALSE
23. KACE appliances are targeted at commercial customers with between 1000 and 5000 comput
FALSE
24. IT Adminis
FALSE
25. KACE Appliances automatically discover hardware and software assets.
TRUE
r most IT departments.
ffers from the current image library will require the full 30GB of storage.
management and enforcement for Windows only, Mac and Linux systems are not currently compatible with
y begin functioning.
will also be multiple licenses and hardware to purchase, configure and manage.
e or CMDB.
can schedule patches to run the next time the agent communicates with the K1000.
p. The Administrator can then manually input the correct driver profiles with a few clicks.
e title and number of systems it was found on as well as real time software inventory counts.
00 and 5000 computers, and public customers with 5000 to 10,000 computers.
2. The K2000 Deployment Appliance requires some up front customization in order to get it up an
FALSE
3. The KACE K3000 can conduct a factory reset plus re-configure and redeploy mobile devices to
TRUE
4. Dell KACE appliances are easy to use by admins of all technical levels.
TRUE
5. The Dell KACE appliances offer a web-based console that makes them accessible from systems
TRUE
6. The KACE appliances cannot be plugged into an existing network immediately because they re
FALSE
7. JumpStart training sessions come in two options: Standard and Enterprise.
TRUE
8. KACE Appliances do not automatically download patches for applications as they become avail
FALSE
9. Sophisticated management suites are very comprehensive, require no customization and are v
FALSE
10. The KACE K1000 is available in 10 languages and 110 countries world wide.
TRUE
11. A typical sales cycle for Dell KACE appliances is 65 days on average.
FALSE
12. The K3000 helps IT manage mobile devices, but it cannot enforce corporate IT security polici
FALSE
13. Dell KACE customers are required to purchase from between 4 and 24 hours of consultative,
TRUE
14. With the KACE K1000 new release v5.4, we have added support for 3 new Operating Systems
FALSE
15. Dell KACE fills the systems management need between point solutions and complex, expensiv
TRUE
16. Software agents on the KACE appliances will provide a complete and detailed inventory of all
TRUE
17. The focus for Dell KACE appliances is on managing operating systems regardless of the har
TRUE
18. An open ended question will give you a yes or no response which doesnt provide you with he
FALSE
19. Dell KACE was named as a Visionary in Gartners PC Lifecycle Management Magic Quadran
TRUE
20. Dell KACE scales from 50 to 50, 000 managed clients.
FALSE
21. Version 5.4 of the KACE K1000 will not allow the addition of custom fields for service desk tic
FALSE
22. The KACE K2000 now automatically imports Dell software drivers directly.
TRUE
23. The KACE K2000 includes inventory assessment, OS imaging and deployment.
TRUE
24. Through the KACE appliance software agents, your customer will receive a complete and deta
TRUE
25. The plug-n-play architecture with KACE appliances will get your customer up and running in a
TRUE
000 computers.
essible from systems on any platform including mobile devices and tablets.
as they become available. You have to check the KACE.com website once a month.
w Operating Systems.
1. Los sistemas PDU RapidPower representan un uso de energa ms racional y eficiente ofrecido
TRUE
2. Se requiere un mnimo de ______ PSUs cuando se configura un M1000e para lograr redundanc
6
3. Cuando se habilita Dynamic Power Supply Engagement (DPSE), las unidades PSU se apagan de
FALSE
4. En la segunda mitad del 2010 se introgujeron fuentes de poder con 115V y 230V de capacidad
TRUE
5. El PowerEdge M1000e puede ser configurado con fuentes de poder hot plug de hasta 2700 wat
6
Redundancia en el cRedundancia en fuentes de poder
6. Si el M1000e se configura con seis fuentes de poder y no se utilizan las 6, puede apagar manua
TRUE
7. Cul de las siguientes opciones puede administrar los PDUs (Power Distribution Unit)?
7 Todas las anteriore Interfaz Web
8. Dynamic Power Supply Engagement (DPSE) ahorra energa usando el mnimo de PSUs necesar
TRUE
9. En la segunda mitad del 2010, fue introducida al chasis una fuente de poder de 2700W que sop
TRUE
10. El estatus del LED PSU en el M1000e indica lo siguiente: LED verde DC OK (Salida DC vlida),
Parpadea si el PSU falla.
11. Qu tecnologa habilita al PSU a cambiar de Encendido a Apagado dependiendo de las condic
al y eficiente ofrecido al ambiente de rack. Como se ha indicado, los productos estn optimizados para rack
des PSU se apagan dependiendo las condiciones de gasto de energa actual para lograr mayor eficiencia de
y 230V de capacidad.
ug de hasta 2700 watts. Los modos soportados son N+N, N+1, N+0. N+N significa ___________.
puede apagar manualmente las fuentes de poder que no estn en uso y apagar automaticamente los PSUs
ibution Unit)?
imo de PSUs necesarios para prender el chasis, en consecuencia, el incremento en el uso de PSUs en lnea
er de 2700W que soporta 230V y 115V. Dell no soporta la mezcla de 230V y 115V en el mismo gabinete. Si
K (Salida DC vlida), LED mbar de falla (___________), LED verde AC OK (Entrada AC vlida).
ptimizados para racks Dell de 42U y de 24U y son compatibles para instalacin en racks Dell anteriores.
r mayor eficiencia de poder manejando menos fuentes al mximo opuesto a la carga parcial y menos eficie
_________.
el mismo gabinete. Sin embargo Dell soporta la mexlca de fuentes de poder de 2360W y 2700W corriendo a
C vlida).
ks Dell anteriores.
3. En los servidores Dell PowerEdge, la tarjeta del sistema a menudo se denomina: ___________
Motherboard
OSI se refiere al modelo desarrollado para redes de comunicaciones. Verdadero/Falso.
TRUE
5. Cules son los beneficios de un servidor de rack optimizado?
Espacio y escalabilidad.
6. A qu tipo de memoria se refiere el trmino DDR3?
Double Data Rate
7. RAID 5 puede resistirse a mltiples fallas de discos y seguir recuperando datos. Verdadero/Fa
0
8. Las luces verdes slidas en la NIC indican ____________.
Una conexin.
9. iDRAC7 puede hacer inventario de hardware y firmware. Esto es ________ y no requiere la car
10. Algunos de los primeros pasos para determinar si existe un problema en un sistema seran __
REINICIAR, QUITAR HW Y QUITAR SW
11. La controladora RAID PERC 8 soporta cualquier proveedor de discos SATA?
0
12. Los servidores Dell PowerEdge para montake en rack estn diseados para ocupar ms espac
0
13. Los servidores 12G PowerEdge NO soportan PERC8.
0
14. BIOS es el acrnimo de:
Basic Input Output System
15. Este componente interacta con el microprocesador y memoria o el microprocesador y los dis
PERC
16. La controladora iDRAC7 con Lifecycle requiere la instalacin de agentes en cada sistema para
0
17. Un ejemplo de servidor de 1U es:
R620
18. El Backplane de PowerEdge provee un circuito de comunicacin _____________ que los com
19. Cules de las siguientes no son enfoques primarios de los servidores en rack?
24. Los servidores Dell PowerEdge para rack pueden soportar redundancia de las fuentes de pode
TRUE
25. Los servidores Dell para rack NO incluyen fuentes de poder.
0
26. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el cuarto c
Procesaro Intel
28. Algunos servidores Dell PowerEdge en formato de Torre pueden ser montados en rack. Verda
29. Cul es la metodologa para usar discos duros para compartir o abarcar informacin a travs
RAID
30. Cuando nos referimos a la memoria ECC, Qu significa la letra E?
ERROR
31. RAID 1 provee espejos de datos. Verdadero/Falso.
1
32. Qu componente no puede ser montado en la tarjeta de sistema de un servidor para rack?
Discos duros.
33. Cul es la funcin crucial del BIOS?
Llevar al sistema del modo al modo de .
34. La administracin de servidores abarca _____________ para llevar a cabo tareas simples o c
Herramientas
35. Cuando se trata de resolver un problema del sistema, nunca debe hablar con el usuario ya qu
0
36. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el primer c
Modular
38. El procesador, tambin conocido como CPU est conformado por la unidad aritmtico-lgica y
De control.
39. Cuando se mide un servidor para rack, la unidad de medida se representa con la letra:
U
40. RAID 5 puede resistirse a una falla de disco y seguir recuperando datos. Verdadero/Falso.
1
41. Un servidor PowerEdge para rack puede soportar hasta _______ DIMMs.
24
42. Cules de los siguientes son tipos de RAID soportados con PERC? Seleccione 2.
0.1
43. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el tercer ca
La generacin (12G).
44. De las tecnologas RAID soportadas, cul es la ms costosa?
10
45. El termino doble ncleo se refiere a?
2 unidades de procesamiento en un nico socket.
46. Cul de los siguientes slots PCI proveen mayor velocidad?
PCI-E
47. Como regla general, 8 servidores blade ocupan ms espacio en un rack que en un servidor de
1
48. Cul de las siguientes opciones es provista por RAID 0?
Rendimiento mejorado
49. Cule es el nombre de la herramienta de diagnstico de Dell utilizada para inducir estrs en
MP MEMORY
50. Cules de las siguientes 2 opciones proveen los cdigos QRL? Seleccionar 2.
Enlaces al soporte de Dell. Y Bsquedas de Service Tag.
51. Cul es la altura en pulgadas de un servidor para rack de 2U?
53. Cules son las ventajas de un sistema con un procesador de cuatro ncleos contra cuatro pr
omina: ____________
ero/Falso.
datos. Verdadero/Falso.
d aritmtico-lgica y la unidad____________.
a con la letra:
Verdadero/Falso.
6. Cules de las siguientes consolas de terceros puede administrar PowerEdge VRTX? (Seleccion
7. Cules de las siguientes soluciones de red son opciones para la solucin PowerEdge VRTX? (S
Mdulos Pass-thru con 8 puertos de 1GbE.
Mdulos internos de switch PowerConnect de 1GbE.
8. Un PowerEdge M520 o M620 de un chasis M1000e puede utilizarse en un PowerEdge VRTX.
0
9. La solucin Dell PowerEdge VRTX ofrece nodos de servidor, almacenamiento compartido y red
1
10. Qu caracterstica de OpenManage Essentials es nueva con la introduccin de VRTX?
Vista geogrfica
s que apliquen),
PowerEdge VRTX.
n de VRTX?
5. Cierto o Falso. Un cliente que tiene menos de 4 servidores y una proyeccin de crecimiento poc
TRUE
6. Cierto o Falso. El IDRAC7 con Controlador LyfeCycle conjunta las caractersticas de gestin del
TRUE
7. Con cuntas ranuras cuenta el gabinete M1000e?
8. Identifica los tres temas de negocio cubiertos en este curso que son abordados por los servido
Proteccin de la Inversin
Control de costos
Facilidad de uso
9. Cierto o Falso. El sistema FlexAddress permite que los servidores Dell Blade sean cambiados si
TRUE
10. Cuntos servidores Blade de altura completa caben en un gabinete/chasis M1000e?
8
11. Cierto o Falso. Un servidor Blade es un servidor de forma modular que reside en un chasis o g
TRUE
12. Cierto o Falso. Una ventaja al utilizar servidores Blade sobre servidores tradicionales en rack
TRUE
13. Cul de los siguientes servidores Blade son de la 12va. generacin?
M620
14. Cierto o Falso. El M915 en un servidor Blade basado en AMD.
TRUE
15. Cuntos servidores Blade permite una solucin de la serie M en un rack de 42U?
128
16. Los mdulos FlexIO le permiten
Opciones Multi-proveedor/tecnologa para chasis I/O
17. Qu significa para su cliente el Proteger su Inversin?
Conseguir una solucin que dure una cantidad de tiempo razonable
18. Cierto o Falso. El chasis del M1000e acepta servidores Blade de altura completa, mediana altu
TRUE
19. Cules de las siguientes necesidades son buenas oportunidades de negocio de servidores Bl
Mayor densidad
Instalacin simplificada
20. Cierto o Falso. Si el ltimo carcter del modelo de un PowerEdge es 5, significa que este cuen
TRUE
n de crecimiento poco significante puede no ser un buen candidato para una solucin Dell de servidores Bl
sticas de gestin del sistema directo en el servidor, lo que elimina herramientas en otros medios como dvd
sis M1000e?
2. Usted puede monitorear una mezcla de sistemas M1000e y VRTX usando la Consola de Adminis
0
3. Necesito algo que sea seguro. No puedo soportar tiempos de inactividad. Cmo aborda VRTX
TODOS
4. Mi negocio estpa creciendo ms rpido de lo que esperaba, pero no cuento con el tiempo ni el
VRTX es modular, y cuenta con espacio para crecer dentro del chasis de 5U, para que no tenga que detener
VRTX, proteje suTODOS
5. VRTX es adecuado para ambientes de oficina porque: (Elija todas las que apliquen.)
TODOS
6. Un PowerEdge M520 o M620 de un chasis M1000e puede ser usado en un chasis de VRTX Powe
0
8. Apoyo la red para una oficina dental en crecimiento y s que necesitamos actualizar nuestra in
TRUE
9. Dell VRTX PowerEdge ofrece todo en uno (Elija 3)
SVE
11. We're upgrading the data center in our corporate office and need to increase our server capa
NO
13. La solucin Dell VRTX PowerEdge ofrece nodos de servidor y almacenamiento y redes compar
TRUE
14. No tenemos mucho espacio. La ltimo que necesito es la expansin de mi equipo. Cmo abo
TODOS
r rendiemiento. Es muy importante para nuestro negocio. Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?
o con el tiempo ni el dinero de detener el funcionamiento para implementar nuevo equipo, eso afectara a m
no tenga que detener su operacin para ampliarse.
apliquen.)
ctura completa de TI para ellas en un pequeo armario de datos. Cada una tendr a una persona de TI para
actualizar nuestra infraestructura. Actualmente contamos con dos servidores, pero necesitamos ms servi
e nuestra infraestructura de TI, para poder enfocarnos en nuestros negocios Es esta persona, un buen pro
ease our server capacity to handle very high workloads. We have a large IT staff, a 10Gb Ethernet network
ecesidad?
ipo, eso afectara a mis clietnes y al negocio Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?
na persona de TI para su monitoreo, por lo que en cualquier cosa que nuestro departamento de TI de nues
Gb Ethernet network, and want to focus on server density because we have limited space. Es esta person
amento de TI de nuestra oficina central pueda hacer para ayudar a la administracin remota, ser de gran
espacio en la oficina para equipamiento.A16 Es esta persona, un buen prospecto de cliente para VRTX?
remota, ser de gran ayuda. El equipo que pongamos en estas oficinas, debe tener flexibilidad de crecimien
1. Which of the following might customers consider when purchaing a server? (Select all that app
TODOS
2. What is server virtualization?
A configuation of a single server to support multiple applications and operating systems.
3. What are the characteristics of Blade Servers? (Choose all that apply)
Provide highest density of servers in a small space.
Use the power, network connectivity, and coolin gof the blade enclosure to require fewer cables and conserv
4. Customer Scenario: We're a green energy company. We're upgrading our rack and tower serve
Blade servers provide the highest density of servers per rack and the lowest power consumption.
5. What is a server?
A computer connected to the network with processing power and memory to deliver applications to multiple
6. What are the characteristics of Rack Servers? (Choose all that apply)
Fit into a data center rack
Take up 1 unit to 4 units of space in the data center rack.
Provide their own power and cooling systems.
7. What are the three types of server hard drives available to your customers?
SCSI, SATA, SAS
8. What is a quad-core processor?
Four processors on a single chip
9. What are the beneifts of server virtualization? (Choose all that apply)
ALL
11. Customer Scenario: My dental practice is small, but growing, and I'm told the patient databas
We'd look at the processing speed and storage the application requires, as well as your plans for growth. A tower server is probably a goo
14. Customer Scenario: Our call center is upgrading to a new operating system and database app
Rack servers would help your processing and space issues. Depending on your growth projections, you could spend a little more to go wi
15. What are the characteristics of tower servers? (Choose all that apply)
Larger than a computer.
When multiple servers are needed, towers requiremore data or server room space than other server form factors.
Generally more affordable than other server form factors.
16. Which of the following connectivity options below would allow your customer to manage thei
DRAC - Dell Remote Access Controller
17. True or False: Non-virtualized servers can support more than one application at a time.
FALSE
18. Which of the following connectivity options alows your customer to connec ttheir server to th
NIC - Network Interface Card
19. Which of the following connectivity options below would allow your customer to add a video
PCI - Peripheral Component Interconnect slot
20. Customer Scenario: We're a large telecom company and having dedicated servers per applica
rack and tower servers to handle more users. Are there servers that can help us save space AND power con
nsumption.
d the patient database application I'm purchasing requires a server. How do I know which is right for my b
process them.
em and database application. Our current servers can't handle the load and they take up too much space! W
d spend a little more to go with 1U servers, leaving plenty of room in the rack.
tion at a time.
d servers per application is getting unmanageable for us. Is there a better way to allocate resources?
cate resources?
AppAssure Sales v3
1. What is AppAssure? (Select all that apply.)
ALL
4. Live Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique capability to provide almost immediate recovery. H
Competitors do not continuously backup changed data; data created since the last backup will be lost in the
Competitors do not continuously backup changed data; they require backup windows when data will be back
5. The DL4000 will support up to ____ VMs.
2
6. Which of the following scenarios is a better fit for Dell AppAssure 5?
Your customer is a medium to large sized business with upgrade plans for their infrastructure
7. Recovery Assure refers to AppAssure's unique ability to fully verify that the recovered data wi
Competitors only validate data, not operating systems, or applications, or mountability.
8. How can you arrange a demonstration of AppAssure for your customer? (Select all that apply.)
go to www.appassure.com\product-demos to register your customer for a live webinar
Contact your Dell representative to arrange a custom demonstration for your customer with an AppAssure e
9. The maximum number of servers supported per DL4000 appliance is ______________.
60
10. Licensing for the DL4000 will be available in _________ server increments.
5
11. What is the annual maintenance fee for AppAssure that you will need to quote to customers?
25% of the original license price to the customer
12. Which version of Dell AppAssure requires at least 8 GB RAM on the server?
Version 5
13. Live Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique capability to provide almost immediate recovery.
AppAssure continuously backs up data to a protected server or dedicated core. The protected server or dedi
14. Recovery Assure refers to AppAssure's unique ability to fully verify that the recovered data w
ALL
15. Universal Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique ability to recover from physical servers to v
Some competitors can recover virtual machines and physical servers, but not to each other.
16. Which of the following are features that have been a part of Dell Appassure since the acquisit
AppAssure Live Recovery Ensures data is back online within seconds after a failure
Universal Recovery Enables cross-platform restore to any virtual machine or dissimilar hardware
AppAssure Recovery Assure Includes advanced backup and recovery verificationAppAssure
17. Which of the following are features that are uniquely part of the new Dell AppAssure 5 releas
AppAssure's high scalability leverages multi-core hardware to support your data needs and seamlessly scale
Dell ProSupport's expert back-up and recovery technicians ensure you're back up and running quickly, availa
True global deduplication uses up to 80% less storage through integrated, inline deduplication and compress
18. How do impact questions help in the AppAssure sales cycle? (Select all that apply.)
Impact questions focus the customer on the business impact of problems that AppAssure can solve.
Impact questions focus the customer on the business value of the AppAssure solution.
lmost immediate recovery. How is this different than competitors? (Select all that apply.)
e last backup will be lost in the event of an outage.
windows when data will be backed up. Sometimes these backup windows are only every 24 hours.
eir infrastructure
y that the recovered data will work in the event of an outage. How is this different than competitors?
ountability.
ncrements.
he server?
fy that the recovered data will work in the event of an outage. How does AppAssure deliver this benefit? (S
er from physical servers to virtual servers, and vice versa. How is this different than competitors?
t to each other.
Appassure since the acquisition and will continue to be a part of the Dell AppAssure feature set? Choose th
or dissimilar hardware
an competitors?
ompetitors?
3. Retention policies can be set at a core level and may be overridden for Exchange servers.
TRUE
4. When deploying an agent, you can monitor the status of a newly deployed agent by going to th
Events
5. True or false: When creating a boot CD image, you can inject specific drivers for a particular se
TRUE
6. Virtual Standby is set up ___________________ .
In advance of a failure
8. During a live recovery, you can access specific data almost instantly once a rollback has begun
A filter driver that automatically re-prioritizes the data stream for the specific data request
9. When exporting a virtual machine, if you're creating a sandbox environment or if you need to c
One time export
10. Each core can have up to _____ repositories and each repository can contain up to 4096 stor
255
11. When restoring granular SQL data via Dell AppAssure, when mounting a volume from the cor
13. True or False: When performing a rollback, you may only rollback to the original machine as t
FALSE
14. When choosing a forced dismount in the rollback procedure for restoring a volume, the targe
Milliseconds
15. When creating a protection schedule for a set of Exchange volumes, you must set the interva
FALSE
16. Recovery Assure tests the Exchange snapshots for integrity____________________.
Each time a snapshot is generated
17. The checksum check tests each database at a granular level for corruption on a ___________
Nightly
18. Which of the following are true about the Central Console? (Select all that apply)
DEJANDO UNA
19. Scenario: You've just received a call that your CFO has just discovered he accidentally delete
Use AppAssure's Mailbox Restore utility to recover the messages in question from a prior snapshot
20. Scenario: Someone has accidentally deleted 50 GB worth of transaction data from a database
Use the local mount utility to attach to a snapshot volume from the core to the SQL server and then use a utility or a set of SQL command
21. SQL attachability tests happen ___________________ at the time you have defined for back
22. Which of the following are true about replication in Dell AppAssure5?
23. The ______________ adds a bar across the top of your normal AppAssure core server view t
Central Console
24. Which item below best describes the ideal Dell AppAssure Bare Metal Recovery process?
Restoring the system and boot partitions through the bare metal process, then rebooting the machine and u
25. Dell AppAssure 5 Installation Requirements include which of the following:
64, 2008R2 AND 8GB
26. The local mount utility can be installed on:
Any system that from which you want to access the recovery points
27. Which of the following allows you to browse the data sources that are connected to the AppA
The local mount utility
28. Unlike previous replication strategies, Dell AppAssure 5 performs replication at ___________
The block level on the volume
is generated.
change servers.
sure 5 allows for a complete backup of a production machine, allowing for a true disaster recovery scenario
a rollback has begun because once the data stream starts to recover the data, when a user requests a spe
ent or if you need to create a clone of a machine for testing purposes, which is the best method in AppAssu
volume from the core to attach to the live SQL server database you will need to use the local mount utility
a volume, the target volume will be unavailable for________________ before beginning the restore / rol
__________.
on on a _________________ basis.
e accidentally deleted a lot of critical email messages weeks ago before his trips overseas. He says they ar
rior snapshot
data from a database that you are protecting with Dell AppAssure 5. You need to retrieve that lost data and
lity or a set of SQL commands to synchronize the tables with the latest data.
re core server view that allows you to switch from one core to another core and manage them accordingly.
covery process?
ting the machine and using Live Recovery features on the data volumes to enable near instant data access
tion at ____________________.
ster recovery scenario that provides fully redundant virtual servers ready to deploy in the case of an outage
a user requests a specific block, their request is satisfied quickly due to which of the following?
st method in AppAssure 5?
he local mount utility and choose which of the following options to satisfy SQL's requirements?
seas. He says they are no longer in his deleted items cache - but he needs to get them back. They have bec
eve that lost data and still retain the transactional data that has been added since the deletion occurred. W
data access
ollowing?
rements?
m back. They have become very critical in light of a new merger opportunity. You have been protecting your
e deletion occurred. Which of the following is the best description of how to achieve the desired outcome o
been protecting your Exchange data with Dell AppAssure. What is the best way to retrieve the email he ne
he desired outcome of restoring the data without losing any of the transactions since the data was deleted?
3. How many people can attend the Compellent Admin Training on-site option?
10
4. True or False? The Use Detail MTC Display button breaks out the support costs on the quote.
TRUE
5. True or False? A registered deal means there is an approved and open registration?
TRUE
6. True or False? Both the Shipping address and the Installation address need to be verified?
TRUE
7. True or False? If you dont have an approved registration you cannot build a quote for a prosp
FALSE
8. True or False? The Quote Center tool overview is a detailed training on how to configure a Stor
FALSE
9. Selecting the top level of support allows you to get an additional support discount, how much
25%
10. True or False? The latest enclosure technology is the SC220 and SC200 enclosures?
TRUE
11. True or False? Hot spares are calculated into the number of expansion software licenses need
TRUE
12. What pricing model does the Quote Center launch page default to?
Commercial
13. What is a Channel Certified install?
An install completed by a current certified installer at a business partner.
14. Select the two Pricing Options
STANDARD
Registered
15. True or False? 24 x 7 Support Center will Priority On-Site is the top level or support.
TRUE
11. How many drives does the base software license cover?
r product?
istration?
d to be verified?
nclosures?
or support.
1. True or False. Both Dell and Xyratex enclosures come from the factory with the h
FALSE
2. What is the minimum software version required to run a Storage Center with SC
6.1
4. An SC8000 controller has 7 PCIe slots to be used for IO cards. What type of slot
4 Full Height and 3 Low Profile slots
3. True or False. On an SC8000 controller, the Eth0 port is used for controller mana
FALSE
5. True or False. SSD drives fit in both SC200 and SC220 enclosures.
TRUE
6. What is the minimum software version required to run a Storage Center with SC
6.2
7. Which front end cabling solution uses Primary and Reserve ports?
Legacy mode
8. How many units of rack space is taken up by an SC8000?
2U
9. Using Virtual Ports mode, what zone(s) need to be created on the fibre channel
two virtual
10. What is the maximum number of drives allowed on a 6Gb SAS chain connected
168
4. True or False. A historical, recently accessed page is a read only page that's bus
TRUE
5. What Storage Center core software feature manages all physical disks as a singl
Disk Virtualization
6. True or False. Dell Compellent recommends using multiple disk folders. One for e
FALSE
7. If individual drive capacities in a tier are greater than ________, best practice is
900GB
8. True or False. Data Progression occurs only on physical disks within the same di
10. What is the default parity for RAID 5 in the Storage Center?
9
2. Storage Cent
TRUE
2. True or False. To implement Boot from SAN a server's boot order must be set to
TRUE
3. Between a Copy, Mirror or a Migrate which one is used most often?
6. Which of the following information is accessed from the View link in the Storage
All of the above
7. A 500GB volume is created in Storage Center. How much physical disk space is c
0GB
8. What view from the volume level shows the amount of space available in each ti
Statistics
9. Which copy option is used to manually migrate data from one tier of storage to a
Copy/Migrate
10. True or False. It's best practice to be sure to have replays for a Windows Pagef
FALSE
2. All volumes should use the Recommended Storage Profile except __________
log volumes
3. What does RPO stand for?
Recovery Point Objective
4. True or False. Consistency group software is licensed separately from Data Insta
FALSE
5. True or False. A manual replay allows a user to create a replay at any time.
TRUE
6. What application is paused when a replay is created from a consistency group?
None of the above
1. What is the typical move time between tiers when Data Progression runs?
12 days down, 3 days up
2. Which of the following are examples of how Data Progression and Data Instant
All of the above.
3. True or False. As soon as a replay is taken for a volume, the blocks that are part
FALSE
4. From a volume's point of view, what tab in the Storage Center interface allows a
Statistics
5. True or False. Once a Storage Center is put into Manual mode, it can not be swit
TRUE
6. From what menu option in the Storage Center interface do you change to dual re
Highlight the Disk folder=>click Configure Storage
7. How often does the Data Progression data mover run?
once a day
8. Which default Storage Profile optimizes Data Progression across all tiers?
Recommended
9. True or False. There is no server agent required to run Data Progression.
TRUE
10. What percent of the outside of the disk drives are reserved for the Fast Track a
20
2. Which of the following are supported data bases for the Enterprise Manager Dat
MYSQL y SQL
3. What privilege is NOT a valid privilege for a user created in Enterprise Manager?
Read Only
ager
4. From the IO Usage tab what types of output can be saved. Select all that apply.
CSV y PDF
6. Enterprise Manager
7. Replication (Remote Instant Replay)
5. True or False. A Windows server must have the server agent loaded on it and be
FALSE
6. Which of the following are types of Threshold definitions that can be set up in En
IO USAGE, STORAGE, REPLICATION
8. True or False. Doing a Phone Home from Enterprise Manager sends the same inf
FALSE
9. Which type of threshold alert is run on demand?
Threshold query
10. What must be done in the Enterprise Manager client in order to be able to man
Add the Storage Center
1. True or False. Restore points need to be saved in order to restore a volume back
TRUE
2. What two replication formats does Storage Center support?
Asynchronous Y Synchronouos
3. True or False. Once a volume has been replicated over a Wide Area Network, it c
FALSE
4. When setting up Remote Data Instant Replay, what option is checked to only se
Deduplication
5. What transport type works best for replicating over long distances?
Iscsi
6. Where can existing replications be viewed?
All of the above
7. True or False. Live volume works with both synchronous and asychronous replic
FALSE
8. What are the two main features of Live Volume?
Data Migrations Y Planned Maintenance Outages
9. True or False. To replicate data from one Storage Center to another using Portab
TRUE
r of IO
1000ms/(Seek + Latency)
4. True or False. When sizing using DPACK it is important to size for the business h
TRUE
5. True or False. The smaller the block the more bandwidth will be consumed.
false
2. True or False. DPACK is a tool that collects data to help us make informed decisi
TRUE
3. What is the sustained transfer rate of a 15K, 2 1/2 inch drive?
122 - 160 MB/s
4. True or False. When calculating IOPS needed, a general best practice is to desig
TRUE
5. True or False. A good solution design focuses on the storage and what is connec
FALSE
6. What RAID type is recommended for 7K drives 1TB or larger?
RAID 6
7. Which of the following are characteristics of SSD drives? Select all that apply.
High performance
Low Latency
8. When considering a server's throughput requirements, what calculation is used
IOPS x Block size
9. What is a good rule of thumb for the amount of IOPS on a 7.2K drive?
80
10. Which of the following are causes of overhead in the Storage Center? Select all
RAID overhead
Internal bottlenecks
e Architect Technical v2
come from the factory with the hard drives already installed.
0 port is used for controller management and the Eth1 port is used for iSCSI traffic.
SC220 enclosures.
nd Reserve ports?
SC8000?
Data Architecture?
Replay occurs?
rage Center?
rver's boot order must be set to boot from the hard drive.
isioning solution?
existing volumes on a legacy SAN into thinly provisioned volumes on the Storage Center.
sistency group.
automatically?
play is taken?
a Progression and Data Instant Replay work together to optimize performance and storage usage in a Stor
volume, the blocks that are part of that volume move to RAID 5.
Storage Center interface allows a user to see how much Fast Track space is being used?
s for the Enterprise Manager Data Collector? Select all that apply.
efinitions that can be set up in Enterprise Manager? (Select all that apply).
rise Manager sends the same information as doing a Phone Home from the Storage Center interface.
n order to restore a volume back to the source system with its original mapping, replay and Data Progressi
er support?
hat option is checked to only send actual changes to a page rather than the complete page to the DR site?
e Center to another using Portable Volume, both Storage Centers must be visible in Enterprise Manager.
e available IOPS?
a measure of utilization?
/2 inch drive?
general best practice is to design for the peak IOP number not the average.
1TB or larger?
enter interface.
nterprise Manager.
EqualLogic Sales v3
1. Intense data growth is expected to level off in the next few years.
FALSE
2. IT managers are concerned about all of the following except one. Which is it?
The arrangement of the cooling fans.
3. iSCSI is the fast growing alternative to costly and complex Fibre Channel SANs.
TRUE
4. Select the benefits of selling Dell EqualLogic products,
All of the above
5. What Dell program is designed to provide protection for driving the sale?
Opportunity/deal registration
6. Which features are included at additional cost?
None of the above
7. Which type of drive technologies are not used in Dell EqualLogic PS Series arrays?
Tape drives
8. The PS Series storage array dynamically scales.
TRUE
9. What is the maximum number of disk drives supported by the PS6500 storage array?
4800%
10. PS Series virtualization software dynamically load balances the workload across all array me
TRUE
11. In an independent IDC survey, 98% of Dell EqualLogic customers stated they would recomme
TRUE
12. Up to 16 PS Series arrays can be combined into a single, logical group. Multiple groups can be
TRUE
13. Which would not be an attribute of a potential customer?
Have $10k in budget.
14. Choose the best answer. A good positioning statement focuses on:
All of the above.
15. Choose the best answer. A good Ease of Use solution would be:
Rapid deployment
16. Choose the best answer. A good solution for issues with investment protection would be:
Frameless, pay as you grow architecture.
17. Choose the best answer. A good solution for issues with cost containment would be:
Additional features included free
18. Current PS Series arrays will not work with older versions of the arrays.
FALSE
19. Framed architecture storage products increase in performance each time capacity is increase
FALSE
20. IT Directors are accountable for:
Both
rage array?
nt would be:
e capacity is increased.
3. Cules de estos prompts le darn una lista de comandos parciales de los comandos que comie
7. Verdadero o falso. El trfico de Capa 2 se reenva a TODOS los puertos de un VLAN, asumiendo
TRUE
8. Verdadero o falso. Puede utilizar un comando mostrar mientras se encuentra en el modo Confi
TRUE
9. Qu interfaz se est configurando en el siguiente ejemplo? Force10(conf-if-gi-5/1)#
Interfaz gigabit 1 en ranura 5
10. El beneficio de un Grupo de agregado de enlace (LAG) o Canal de puerto es:
Esta interfaz lgica ofrece redundancia al permitir el agregado de hasta 32 interfaces fsicas en una interfaz
11. Cmo se utiliza la palabra clave no en el CLI FTOS?
Para deshacer los cambios de configuracin.
12. Los CLI FTOS reconocern abreviaturas tales como conf en lugar de configurar terminal?
S
13. Seleccione todas las opciones adecuadas. Los siguientes son tipos de interfaces que se puede
all
14. Por qu un enrutador o conmutador Dell Force10 podra estar en un estado de arranque con
Fallaron los parmetros de arranque primario, secundario y predeterminado.
15. Si una unidad entra en un estado de rearranque continuo, cmo se puede recuperar?
Presione cualquier tecla cuando aparece el siguiente mensaje: Presione cualquier tecla para detener el reinic
16. Cules de los siguientes es el modo inicial por defecto?
EXEC
17. El promt Force10# , qu modo indica?
EXEC (Privileged)
18. Cmo puede ver la Configuracin de Arranque?
FORCE10# show startup-conf
opciones adecuadas.
uertos de un VLAN, asumiendo que las interfaces no estn cerradas o permite el estado.
ce10(conf-if-gi-5/1)#
de puerto es:
interfaces fsicas en una interfaz lgica. Si una interfaz fsica deja de funcionar en el canal de puerto, otra interfaz fsic
mo se puede recuperar?
alquier tecla para detener el reinicio:
n smbolo de insercin (^) le ayudar a identificar donde se encuentra el problema en su lnea de configura
su lnea de configuracin. Si obtuviera esto para un error: % Error: Entrada no vlida en el marcador ^, c