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Una oportunidad puede no ser aprobada s (Escoja las que apliquen):


No se cumplen con los requisitos mnimos
Existe un registro previo de otro partner
2. Tal vez es el campo ms importante en la decisin de la aprobacin de un oportunidad:
Justificacin para el registro
3. Se pueden registrar oportunidades de al menos:

15 K
Para verificar el estado de las oportunidades que estn por vencer, debo acceder:
El cierre de este mes

Uno de los objetivos del proceso de Registro de Oportunidades es:


Garantizar que ningn otro partner reciba cotizaciones de Dell

Para acceder a la pgina de Registro de Oportunidades debo acceder a:


El enlace de Registro de Oportunidades en el portal de partners

Para conocer el estado de una oportunidad registrada debo:


Acceder a mi Lista de Oportunidades en el portal

Son factores importantes en la aprobacin de una oportunidad registrada (Escoja las que apliquen)
l campo Ingreso Total estimado para Dell se refiere a:
Monto a pagar a Dell sin incluir envo y manejo

Al registrar una oportunidad, esta permanecer vigente por


90 DIAS

las que apliquen)

Selecciona la respuesta correcta. Qu espera Dell de sus Partners?


Que adopten la poltica Ganar con Integridad
Selecciona todas las respuestas correctas. Son excepciones para hacer licitaciones:
Adjudicacin directa
Invitaciones a 3 posibles proveedores
Selecciona todas las respuestas correctas. Son tipos de licitaciones:
todos

Verdadero o falso? Muchas conductas que antes estaban dentro de la forma de hacer negocios, ahora son conductas ilegales
1
Selecciona todas las respuestas correctas. Son ejemplos de conductas prohibidas por Dell para hacer negocios:

Verdadero o falso? Los proveedores de gobierno se seleccionan a travs de licitaciones y concursos.


1

hora son conductas ilegales.

cer negocios:

aciones y concursos.

KACE Demo v2
With the Reports Tab in the Reporting Module, the customer has access to a pre-defined list
FALSE
The Dell Updates Tab is part of the Distribution Module.
TRUE

The four steps to take when preparing for an Overview Demo are: 1.Know the Dell KACE K1000, 2
TRUE
The Tab for the K1000 Agent can be found in the Settings Module
TRUE

One of the components of your Overview Demo should be presenting the Dell KACE Appliance Va
TRUE

The Dell KACE Management Appliance performs behind a simple to use interface designed for sys
TRUE

With the Inventory Module, the administrator can click into an individual machine for a detaile
TRUE

The K1000 is able to track software installations and licensing details with the Software Tab in
TRUE

The Computers Tab is part of the Inventory Module, and the customer can use this to see de
FALSE

To learn more about your customers business, you should ask them if they manage/support mor
TRUE

With the Metering Tab, the K1000 allows the customer to monitor the usage of software applic
TRUE
The Assets Tab allows the customer to tie assets to users for tracking purposes.
TRUE

With the K1000, from their web browser, the customer can configure everything on the server fr
TRUE

Even with the K1000, large scale deployments across the WAN will have an impact on network tr
TRUE

One of the components of an Overview Demo should be documentation and information about th
FALSE

When interviewing your customer, a good question to ask them is: What solutions are they curr
TRUE

With the Managed Installations Tab, the K1000 is also able to inventory, label and create notif
FALSE

. With the Service Desk Module, the customer can run multiple service desks from one K1000 M
TRUE

The Managed Installations Tab is integrated with the AppDeploy.com website where IT Profess
TRUE

With the Scripts Tab in the K1000, the customer can enforce power settings on individual mach
FALSE

With the OVAL Assessment Tab, the customer has access to tests that allow them to identify vu
TRUE
The K1000 Appliance backs itself up nightly into four back-up files.
FALSE
With the Configuration Tab in the Service Desk Module, the customer can set up queues and
TRUE

With the K1000, the customer has to set up a dedicated PC or laptop from which to manage thei
FALSE

Your Overview Demo should emphasize the full life cycle of computer management that is capab
TRUE

to a pre-defined list of reports. They do not have the capability of creating customized reports.

e Dell KACE K1000, 2.Know the competition, 3.Know your customers business and their challenges, 4.Kno

ll KACE Appliance Value Proposition.

face designed for systems administrators of all skill levels

machine for a detailed view of that machine.

he Software Tab in the Inventory Module.

an use this to see detailed information about every machine in their environment.

manage/support more than one location.

ge of software applications in their environment.

hing on the server from initial configuration to security and proxies

mpact on network traffic.

information about the competition.

lutions are they currently using?

abel and create notifications for other network devices.

ks from one K1000 Management Appliance.

site where IT Professionals share information on how to install software titles.

gs on individual machines.

w them to identify vulnerabilities that may exist on their machines.

n set up queues and create process work flows for incoming incident tickets.

which to manage their environment.

gement that is capable with the K1000.

d reports.

heir challenges, 4.Know your customer

KACE Technical Training v2

The focus of KACE appliances is on managing operating systems regardless of the hardware man
TRUE

The K1000 has been designed so that youre able to locate information with no more than 4-5 cli
FALSE

3. Dell KACE solutions have a simple pricing plan making them affordable for most IT departmen
TRUE

TRUE

5. With K-imaging, adding a 30 GB image that has only 1GB of data that differs from the curren
FALSE

6. With the K3000, Device Hardware Inventory shows all accessible mobile device inventory para
TRUE

7. Dell KACE is in the same category as high end software suites that require extensive and expe
FALSE

8. The K1000 provides comprehensive and easy-to-use configuration policy management and enf
FALSE
9. KACE appliances can be plugged into an existing network and immediately begin functioning.
TRUE

10. Because there are multiple options with K1000, K2000 and K3000, there will also be multiple
FALSE
11. KACE appliances include the capability of a fully functional Service Desk.
TRUE
12. The asset module on the K1000 is a Configuration Management Database or CMDB.
TRUE

13. If a system misses a patching run because it was offline, Administrators can schedule patche
TRUE
14. The K2000 queries its driver library for the correct drivers for each setup. The Administrator
FALSE

15. Scripted installation with the K2000 allows you to create an unattended installation of Windo
TRUE

16. The Software landing page provides a high level overview of the software title and number of
TRUE

17. The K3000 is capable of locking and unlocking devices, setting passcodes on Android, and con
TRUE

18. Many organizations struggle with the complexity and manual costs of OS migrations and larg
TRUE

19. With the K1000, Administrators have the ability to enforce process workflows to ensure comp
TRUE

20. With the K1000, compliance reports can be scheduled and the results can be emailed to indiv
TRUE

21. With the K2000, selected images are automatically transferred to remote sites on the custom
TRUE

22. IT Staff are required to attend an 8 hour, instructor-led class before they are authorized to in
FALSE

23. KACE appliances are targeted at commercial customers with between 1000 and 5000 comput
FALSE
24. IT Adminis
FALSE
25. KACE Appliances automatically discover hardware and software assets.
TRUE

of the hardware manufacturer.

no more than 4-5 clicks of a button.

r most IT departments.

ffers from the current image library will require the full 30GB of storage.

device inventory parameters.

e extensive and expensive customization to operate.

management and enforcement for Windows only, Mac and Linux systems are not currently compatible with

y begin functioning.

will also be multiple licenses and hardware to purchase, configure and manage.

e or CMDB.

can schedule patches to run the next time the agent communicates with the K1000.

p. The Administrator can then manually input the correct driver profiles with a few clicks.

installation of Windows regardless of the hardware target.

e title and number of systems it was found on as well as real time software inventory counts.

s on Android, and conducting an Enterprise wipe and a factory reset.

S migrations and large application deployments such as Office or AutoCAD.

flows to ensure compliance through rules they set up.

n be emailed to individuals, or groups of individuals, on a recurring basis.

e sites on the customers schedule.

y are authorized to install and set up KACE appliances in their environment.

00 and 5000 computers, and public customers with 5000 to 10,000 computers.

ently compatible with KACE management appliances.

KACE Sales Training v2


1. Good target customers for Dell KACE are Public customers with 100 to 20,000 computers.
TRUE

2. The K2000 Deployment Appliance requires some up front customization in order to get it up an
FALSE
3. The KACE K3000 can conduct a factory reset plus re-configure and redeploy mobile devices to
TRUE
4. Dell KACE appliances are easy to use by admins of all technical levels.
TRUE

5. The Dell KACE appliances offer a web-based console that makes them accessible from systems
TRUE

6. The KACE appliances cannot be plugged into an existing network immediately because they re
FALSE
7. JumpStart training sessions come in two options: Standard and Enterprise.
TRUE

8. KACE Appliances do not automatically download patches for applications as they become avail
FALSE

9. Sophisticated management suites are very comprehensive, require no customization and are v
FALSE
10. The KACE K1000 is available in 10 languages and 110 countries world wide.
TRUE
11. A typical sales cycle for Dell KACE appliances is 65 days on average.
FALSE

12. The K3000 helps IT manage mobile devices, but it cannot enforce corporate IT security polici
FALSE
13. Dell KACE customers are required to purchase from between 4 and 24 hours of consultative,
TRUE

14. With the KACE K1000 new release v5.4, we have added support for 3 new Operating Systems
FALSE

15. Dell KACE fills the systems management need between point solutions and complex, expensiv
TRUE

16. Software agents on the KACE appliances will provide a complete and detailed inventory of all
TRUE

17. The focus for Dell KACE appliances is on managing operating systems regardless of the har
TRUE

18. An open ended question will give you a yes or no response which doesnt provide you with he
FALSE

19. Dell KACE was named as a Visionary in Gartners PC Lifecycle Management Magic Quadran
TRUE
20. Dell KACE scales from 50 to 50, 000 managed clients.
FALSE

21. Version 5.4 of the KACE K1000 will not allow the addition of custom fields for service desk tic
FALSE
22. The KACE K2000 now automatically imports Dell software drivers directly.
TRUE
23. The KACE K2000 includes inventory assessment, OS imaging and deployment.
TRUE

24. Through the KACE appliance software agents, your customer will receive a complete and deta
TRUE

25. The plug-n-play architecture with KACE appliances will get your customer up and running in a
TRUE

000 computers.

n order to get it up and running which can be accomplished in 1-2 days.

oy mobile devices to a new user.

essible from systems on any platform including mobile devices and tablets.

tely because they require some customization for each environment.

as they become available. You have to check the KACE.com website once a month.

tomization and are very easy to use.

ate IT security policies on individual devices.

ours of consultative, web-based training.

w Operating Systems.

nd complex, expensive management suites.

ailed inventory of all software installed on an organizations systems.

egardless of the hardware manufacturer.

t provide you with helpful details.

ment Magic Quadrant.

s for service desk tickets.

a complete and detailed inventory of all software installed on their systems.

er up and running in a day.

Dell Blade Solutions Sv3

1. Los sistemas PDU RapidPower representan un uso de energa ms racional y eficiente ofrecido
TRUE

2. Se requiere un mnimo de ______ PSUs cuando se configura un M1000e para lograr redundanc
6

3. Cuando se habilita Dynamic Power Supply Engagement (DPSE), las unidades PSU se apagan de
FALSE

4. En la segunda mitad del 2010 se introgujeron fuentes de poder con 115V y 230V de capacidad
TRUE

5. El PowerEdge M1000e puede ser configurado con fuentes de poder hot plug de hasta 2700 wat
6
Redundancia en el cRedundancia en fuentes de poder

6. Si el M1000e se configura con seis fuentes de poder y no se utilizan las 6, puede apagar manua
TRUE
7. Cul de las siguientes opciones puede administrar los PDUs (Power Distribution Unit)?
7 Todas las anteriore Interfaz Web

8. Dynamic Power Supply Engagement (DPSE) ahorra energa usando el mnimo de PSUs necesar
TRUE

9. En la segunda mitad del 2010, fue introducida al chasis una fuente de poder de 2700W que sop
TRUE
10. El estatus del LED PSU en el M1000e indica lo siguiente: LED verde DC OK (Salida DC vlida),
Parpadea si el PSU falla.

11. Qu tecnologa habilita al PSU a cambiar de Encendido a Apagado dependiendo de las condic

al y eficiente ofrecido al ambiente de rack. Como se ha indicado, los productos estn optimizados para rack

ara lograr redundancia AC.

des PSU se apagan dependiendo las condiciones de gasto de energa actual para lograr mayor eficiencia de

y 230V de capacidad.

ug de hasta 2700 watts. Los modos soportados son N+N, N+1, N+0. N+N significa ___________.

puede apagar manualmente las fuentes de poder que no estn en uso y apagar automaticamente los PSUs

ibution Unit)?

imo de PSUs necesarios para prender el chasis, en consecuencia, el incremento en el uso de PSUs en lnea

er de 2700W que soporta 230V y 115V. Dell no soporta la mezcla de 230V y 115V en el mismo gabinete. Si

K (Salida DC vlida), LED mbar de falla (___________), LED verde AC OK (Entrada AC vlida).

ndiendo de las condiciones actuales de consumo de energa?

ptimizados para racks Dell de 42U y de 24U y son compatibles para instalacin en racks Dell anteriores.

r mayor eficiencia de poder manejando menos fuentes al mximo opuesto a la carga parcial y menos eficie

_________.

maticamente los PSUs no utilizados con participacin dinmica de poder.

uso de PSUs en lnea y el incremento en la eficiencia de los mismo.

el mismo gabinete. Sin embargo Dell soporta la mexlca de fuentes de poder de 2360W y 2700W corriendo a

C vlida).

ks Dell anteriores.

parcial y menos eficiente.

W y 2700W corriendo ambas a 230V.

Dell PowerEdge Server Technical S v2

1. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el segundo c

2. Cuntos discos dedicados a paridad requiere RAID6?


2

3. En los servidores Dell PowerEdge, la tarjeta del sistema a menudo se denomina: ___________
Motherboard
OSI se refiere al modelo desarrollado para redes de comunicaciones. Verdadero/Falso.
TRUE
5. Cules son los beneficios de un servidor de rack optimizado?
Espacio y escalabilidad.
6. A qu tipo de memoria se refiere el trmino DDR3?
Double Data Rate

7. RAID 5 puede resistirse a mltiples fallas de discos y seguir recuperando datos. Verdadero/Fa
0
8. Las luces verdes slidas en la NIC indican ____________.
Una conexin.

9. iDRAC7 puede hacer inventario de hardware y firmware. Esto es ________ y no requiere la car

10. Algunos de los primeros pasos para determinar si existe un problema en un sistema seran __
REINICIAR, QUITAR HW Y QUITAR SW
11. La controladora RAID PERC 8 soporta cualquier proveedor de discos SATA?
0

12. Los servidores Dell PowerEdge para montake en rack estn diseados para ocupar ms espac
0
13. Los servidores 12G PowerEdge NO soportan PERC8.
0
14. BIOS es el acrnimo de:
Basic Input Output System

15. Este componente interacta con el microprocesador y memoria o el microprocesador y los dis
PERC

16. La controladora iDRAC7 con Lifecycle requiere la instalacin de agentes en cada sistema para
0
17. Un ejemplo de servidor de 1U es:
R620

18. El Backplane de PowerEdge provee un circuito de comunicacin _____________ que los com

19. Cules de las siguientes no son enfoques primarios de los servidores en rack?

20. Qu ventajas le proporciona un servidor blade?


Espacio, menor uso de electricidad y menor necesidad de cables.
21. Cuando se determina si una NIC est conectada a una red a menor velocidad que el mximo,
mbar
Qu tipos de licencias estn disponibles para iDRAC7? Seleccione 3.
TODO MENOS ADVANCE
23. iDRAC es acrnimo de:_________
integrated Dell Remote Access Controller

24. Los servidores Dell PowerEdge para rack pueden soportar redundancia de las fuentes de pode
TRUE
25. Los servidores Dell para rack NO incluyen fuentes de poder.
0

26. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el cuarto c
Procesaro Intel

27. Qu afirmacin define con mayor precisin a la controladora iDRAC?


Una solucin de administracin de sistemas de hardware y software que proporciona capacidades de admini

28. Algunos servidores Dell PowerEdge en formato de Torre pueden ser montados en rack. Verda

29. Cul es la metodologa para usar discos duros para compartir o abarcar informacin a travs
RAID
30. Cuando nos referimos a la memoria ECC, Qu significa la letra E?
ERROR
31. RAID 1 provee espejos de datos. Verdadero/Falso.
1
32. Qu componente no puede ser montado en la tarjeta de sistema de un servidor para rack?
Discos duros.
33. Cul es la funcin crucial del BIOS?
Llevar al sistema del modo al modo de .

34. La administracin de servidores abarca _____________ para llevar a cabo tareas simples o c
Herramientas

35. Cuando se trata de resolver un problema del sistema, nunca debe hablar con el usuario ya qu
0

36. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el primer c
Modular

37. El uso de hot spares incremente la cantidad de almacenamiento disponible en un ambiente RA


0

38. El procesador, tambin conocido como CPU est conformado por la unidad aritmtico-lgica y
De control.
39. Cuando se mide un servidor para rack, la unidad de medida se representa con la letra:
U
40. RAID 5 puede resistirse a una falla de disco y seguir recuperando datos. Verdadero/Falso.
1
41. Un servidor PowerEdge para rack puede soportar hasta _______ DIMMs.
24
42. Cules de los siguientes son tipos de RAID soportados con PERC? Seleccione 2.
0.1

43. De acuerdo al sistema de etiquetado de los servidores Dell, Qu valor representa el tercer ca
La generacin (12G).
44. De las tecnologas RAID soportadas, cul es la ms costosa?
10
45. El termino doble ncleo se refiere a?
2 unidades de procesamiento en un nico socket.
46. Cul de los siguientes slots PCI proveen mayor velocidad?
PCI-E

47. Como regla general, 8 servidores blade ocupan ms espacio en un rack que en un servidor de
1
48. Cul de las siguientes opciones es provista por RAID 0?
Rendimiento mejorado
49. Cule es el nombre de la herramienta de diagnstico de Dell utilizada para inducir estrs en
MP MEMORY
50. Cules de las siguientes 2 opciones proveen los cdigos QRL? Seleccionar 2.
Enlaces al soporte de Dell. Y Bsquedas de Service Tag.
51. Cul es la altura en pulgadas de un servidor para rack de 2U?

52. Cuntas capas estn definidas en el modelo OSI?


7

53. Cules son las ventajas de un sistema con un procesador de cuatro ncleos contra cuatro pr

resenta el segundo carcter del modelo M620?

omina: ____________

ero/Falso.

datos. Verdadero/Falso.

_ y no requiere la carga de un Sistema Operativo.

un sistema seran __________ . Seleccione 3.

ra ocupar ms espacio que los servidores en formato de torre. Verdadero/Falso.

oprocesador y los dispositivos de almacenamiento para escribir y recuperar informacin.

en cada sistema para ser monitoreado. Verdadero/Falso.

______ que los componentes electrnicos utilizan como interfaz.

dad que el mximo, qu color debe tener el indicador de enlace?

e las fuentes de poder.

presenta el cuarto carcter del modelo M620?

capacidades de administracin remota.

tados en rack. Verdader/Falso.

informacin a travs de varios dispositivos?

ervidor para rack?

bo tareas simples o complejas.

con el usuario ya que puede complicar el problema con informacin incorrecta.

presenta el primer carcter del modelo M620?

le en un ambiente RAID. Verdadero/Falso.

d aritmtico-lgica y la unidad____________.

a con la letra:

Verdadero/Falso.

presenta el tercer carcter del modelo M620?

ue en un servidor de rack. Verdadero/Falso.

ara inducir estrs en la memoria?

eos contra cuatro procesadores de un solo ncleo?

PowerEdge VRTX Technical Overview S


1. Cuntos chasis PowerEdge VRTX puede manejar un CMC?
9
2. VRTX es adecuado para ambientes de oficina porque: (Seleccione todas las que apliquen),
TODOS

3. Cul de las siguientes capacidades de almacenamiento soporta la solucin PowerEdge VRTX?


12 O 25
4. Seleccione los servidores PowerEdge serie-M disponibles para ordenar para VRTX de la lista a
520 Y 620
5. Dell PowerEdge VRTX ofrece todo en uno (Seleccione 3)
S, V Y E

6. Cules de las siguientes consolas de terceros puede administrar PowerEdge VRTX? (Seleccion

7. Cules de las siguientes soluciones de red son opciones para la solucin PowerEdge VRTX? (S
Mdulos Pass-thru con 8 puertos de 1GbE.
Mdulos internos de switch PowerConnect de 1GbE.
8. Un PowerEdge M520 o M620 de un chasis M1000e puede utilizarse en un PowerEdge VRTX.
0

9. La solucin Dell PowerEdge VRTX ofrece nodos de servidor, almacenamiento compartido y red
1
10. Qu caracterstica de OpenManage Essentials es nueva con la introduccin de VRTX?
Vista geogrfica

s que apliquen),

n PowerEdge VRTX? (Seleccione todas las que aplican).

a VRTX de la lista a continuacin. (Seleccione todos los que aplican)

dge VRTX? (Seleccione todas las que aplican)

PowerEdge VRTX? (Seleccione todas las que apliquen)

PowerEdge VRTX.

to compartido y red en una torre de 5U o en un chasis rackeable.

n de VRTX?

Dell Blade Server Solutions - Sales S v7


1. Cules de las siguientes, son caractersticas de servidores blade? (Escoja 2)
Mdulos FlexIO
FlexAddress
2. Cuntas unidades abarca un M1000e en un rack estndar?
10
3. Cierto o Falso. El portafolio de Dell incluye servidores en Torre, de Rack y Blades?
true
4. Cul de los siguientes servidores Blade cuenta con procesadores Intel?
todos los que terminan en 0

5. Cierto o Falso. Un cliente que tiene menos de 4 servidores y una proyeccin de crecimiento poc
TRUE

6. Cierto o Falso. El IDRAC7 con Controlador LyfeCycle conjunta las caractersticas de gestin del
TRUE
7. Con cuntas ranuras cuenta el gabinete M1000e?

8. Identifica los tres temas de negocio cubiertos en este curso que son abordados por los servido
Proteccin de la Inversin
Control de costos
Facilidad de uso

9. Cierto o Falso. El sistema FlexAddress permite que los servidores Dell Blade sean cambiados si
TRUE
10. Cuntos servidores Blade de altura completa caben en un gabinete/chasis M1000e?
8

11. Cierto o Falso. Un servidor Blade es un servidor de forma modular que reside en un chasis o g
TRUE

12. Cierto o Falso. Una ventaja al utilizar servidores Blade sobre servidores tradicionales en rack
TRUE
13. Cul de los siguientes servidores Blade son de la 12va. generacin?
M620
14. Cierto o Falso. El M915 en un servidor Blade basado en AMD.
TRUE
15. Cuntos servidores Blade permite una solucin de la serie M en un rack de 42U?
128
16. Los mdulos FlexIO le permiten
Opciones Multi-proveedor/tecnologa para chasis I/O
17. Qu significa para su cliente el Proteger su Inversin?
Conseguir una solucin que dure una cantidad de tiempo razonable

18. Cierto o Falso. El chasis del M1000e acepta servidores Blade de altura completa, mediana altu
TRUE

19. Cules de las siguientes necesidades son buenas oportunidades de negocio de servidores Bl
Mayor densidad
Instalacin simplificada

Mejor abastecimiento de energa y refrigeracin

20. Cierto o Falso. Si el ltimo carcter del modelo de un PowerEdge es 5, significa que este cuen
TRUE

n de crecimiento poco significante puede no ser un buen candidato para una solucin Dell de servidores Bl

sticas de gestin del sistema directo en el servidor, lo que elimina herramientas en otros medios como dvd

dados por los servidores Dell Blade.

de sean cambiados sin necesidad de reasignar su direccionamiento.

sis M1000e?

side en un chasis o gabinete.

radicionales en rack es su alta densidad.

mpleta, mediana altura y un cuarto de altura

ocio de servidores Blade? (Escoja 3)

gnifica que este cuenta con un procesador AMD.

Dell de servidores Blade.

ros medios como dvds para la administracin y la instalacin.

PowerEdge VRTX Sales Overview S

1. Quiero actualizar nuestra infraestructura de TI, ya que necesitamos mayor rendiemiento. Es m


TODOS

2. Usted puede monitorear una mezcla de sistemas M1000e y VRTX usando la Consola de Adminis
0
3. Necesito algo que sea seguro. No puedo soportar tiempos de inactividad. Cmo aborda VRTX
TODOS
4. Mi negocio estpa creciendo ms rpido de lo que esperaba, pero no cuento con el tiempo ni el
VRTX es modular, y cuenta con espacio para crecer dentro del chasis de 5U, para que no tenga que detener
VRTX, proteje suTODOS
5. VRTX es adecuado para ambientes de oficina porque: (Elija todas las que apliquen.)
TODOS

6. Un PowerEdge M520 o M620 de un chasis M1000e puede ser usado en un chasis de VRTX Powe
0

7. Estamos creando dos oficinas remotas y necesitamos intalar un infraestructura completa de TI


TRUE

8. Apoyo la red para una oficina dental en crecimiento y s que necesitamos actualizar nuestra in
TRUE
9. Dell VRTX PowerEdge ofrece todo en uno (Elija 3)
SVE

10. Necesito disminuir el tiempo y dinero invertidos en el mantenimiento de nuestra infraestruc

11. We're upgrading the data center in our corporate office and need to increase our server capa
NO

12. Yo hago funcionar esta oficina. No tengo tiempo de convertirme en un especailista de TI C


VRTX es un sistema para administrar plataformas, integrado con servidores, almacenamiento y redes, todo
En una sucursal, VRTX se puede administrar de manera centralizada por personal remoto de TI.

13. La solucin Dell VRTX PowerEdge ofrece nodos de servidor y almacenamiento y redes compar
TRUE

14. No tenemos mucho espacio. La ltimo que necesito es la expansin de mi equipo. Cmo abo
TODOS

r rendiemiento. Es muy importante para nuestro negocio. Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?

a Consola de Administracin de Chasis.

Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?

o con el tiempo ni el dinero de detener el funcionamiento para implementar nuevo equipo, eso afectara a m
no tenga que detener su operacin para ampliarse.

apliquen.)

chasis de VRTX PowerEdge.

ctura completa de TI para ellas en un pequeo armario de datos. Cada una tendr a una persona de TI para

actualizar nuestra infraestructura. Actualmente contamos con dos servidores, pero necesitamos ms servi

e nuestra infraestructura de TI, para poder enfocarnos en nuestros negocios Es esta persona, un buen pro

ease our server capacity to handle very high workloads. We have a large IT staff, a 10Gb Ethernet network

specailista de TI Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?


amiento y redes, todo en uno.
moto de TI.

ento y redes compartidas en un chasis de 5U en torre o para montaje en rack.

mi equipo. Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?

ecesidad?

ipo, eso afectara a mis clietnes y al negocio Cmo aborda VRTX esta necesidad?

na persona de TI para su monitoreo, por lo que en cualquier cosa que nuestro departamento de TI de nues

ecesitamos ms servidores y capacidad de almacenamiento, pero no tenemos mucho espacio en la oficina p

persona, un buen prospecto de cliente para VRTX?

Gb Ethernet network, and want to focus on server density because we have limited space. Es esta person

amento de TI de nuestra oficina central pueda hacer para ayudar a la administracin remota, ser de gran

espacio en la oficina para equipamiento.A16 Es esta persona, un buen prospecto de cliente para VRTX?

pace. Es esta persona, un buen prospecto de cliente para VRTX?

remota, ser de gran ayuda. El equipo que pongamos en estas oficinas, debe tener flexibilidad de crecimien

cliente para VRTX?

xibilidad de crecimiento, ya que esperamos incrementar eventualmente, el nmero de nuestras oficinas. E

nuestras oficinas. Es esta persona, un buen prospecto de cliente para VRTX?

Dell Server Basics v5

1. Which of the following might customers consider when purchaing a server? (Select all that app
TODOS
2. What is server virtualization?
A configuation of a single server to support multiple applications and operating systems.

3. What are the characteristics of Blade Servers? (Choose all that apply)
Provide highest density of servers in a small space.
Use the power, network connectivity, and coolin gof the blade enclosure to require fewer cables and conserv

4. Customer Scenario: We're a green energy company. We're upgrading our rack and tower serve
Blade servers provide the highest density of servers per rack and the lowest power consumption.

5. What is a server?
A computer connected to the network with processing power and memory to deliver applications to multiple
6. What are the characteristics of Rack Servers? (Choose all that apply)
Fit into a data center rack
Take up 1 unit to 4 units of space in the data center rack.
Provide their own power and cooling systems.
7. What are the three types of server hard drives available to your customers?
SCSI, SATA, SAS
8. What is a quad-core processor?
Four processors on a single chip

9. What are the beneifts of server virtualization? (Choose all that apply)
ALL

10. What are the three server form factors?


Blade, Rack and Tower

11. Customer Scenario: My dental practice is small, but growing, and I'm told the patient databas

We'd look at the processing speed and storage the application requires, as well as your plans for growth. A tower server is probably a goo

12. Which key components contribute to the performance of a server?

13. How does RAM support the performance of a server?


Provides space for instructions to the CPU. The more instructions available at once, the faster the CPU can process them.

14. Customer Scenario: Our call center is upgrading to a new operating system and database app

Rack servers would help your processing and space issues. Depending on your growth projections, you could spend a little more to go wi

15. What are the characteristics of tower servers? (Choose all that apply)
Larger than a computer.
When multiple servers are needed, towers requiremore data or server room space than other server form factors.
Generally more affordable than other server form factors.

16. Which of the following connectivity options below would allow your customer to manage thei
DRAC - Dell Remote Access Controller

17. True or False: Non-virtualized servers can support more than one application at a time.
FALSE

18. Which of the following connectivity options alows your customer to connec ttheir server to th
NIC - Network Interface Card
19. Which of the following connectivity options below would allow your customer to add a video
PCI - Peripheral Component Interconnect slot

20. Customer Scenario: We're a large telecom company and having dedicated servers per applica

? (Select all that apply)

wer cables and conserver energy.

rack and tower servers to handle more users. Are there servers that can help us save space AND power con
nsumption.

applications to multiple users.

d the patient database application I'm purchasing requires a server. How do I know which is right for my b

ower server is probably a good place to start.

process them.

em and database application. Our current servers can't handle the load and they take up too much space! W

d spend a little more to go with 1U servers, leaving plenty of room in the rack.

omer to manage their server off network?

tion at a time.

ec ttheir server to the network?

omer to add a video card to their server?

d servers per application is getting unmanageable for us. Is there a better way to allocate resources?

space AND power consumption?

which is right for my business?

up too much space! What are our options?

cate resources?

AppAssure Sales v3
1. What is AppAssure? (Select all that apply.)
ALL

2. In Dell AppAssure 5, archives can ______________________. Choose 2.


be created through the web GUI
benefit from deduplication and compression
3. Identifying opportunities: Who needs AppAssure? (Select all that apply.)
ALL

4. Live Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique capability to provide almost immediate recovery. H
Competitors do not continuously backup changed data; data created since the last backup will be lost in the
Competitors do not continuously backup changed data; they require backup windows when data will be back
5. The DL4000 will support up to ____ VMs.
2
6. Which of the following scenarios is a better fit for Dell AppAssure 5?
Your customer is a medium to large sized business with upgrade plans for their infrastructure

7. Recovery Assure refers to AppAssure's unique ability to fully verify that the recovered data wi
Competitors only validate data, not operating systems, or applications, or mountability.

8. How can you arrange a demonstration of AppAssure for your customer? (Select all that apply.)
go to www.appassure.com\product-demos to register your customer for a live webinar

Contact your Dell representative to arrange a custom demonstration for your customer with an AppAssure e
9. The maximum number of servers supported per DL4000 appliance is ______________.
60
10. Licensing for the DL4000 will be available in _________ server increments.
5

11. What is the annual maintenance fee for AppAssure that you will need to quote to customers?
25% of the original license price to the customer

12. Which version of Dell AppAssure requires at least 8 GB RAM on the server?
Version 5

13. Live Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique capability to provide almost immediate recovery.
AppAssure continuously backs up data to a protected server or dedicated core. The protected server or dedi

14. Recovery Assure refers to AppAssure's unique ability to fully verify that the recovered data w
ALL

15. Universal Recovery refers to AppAssure's unique ability to recover from physical servers to v
Some competitors can recover virtual machines and physical servers, but not to each other.

16. Which of the following are features that have been a part of Dell Appassure since the acquisit
AppAssure Live Recovery Ensures data is back online within seconds after a failure
Universal Recovery Enables cross-platform restore to any virtual machine or dissimilar hardware
AppAssure Recovery Assure Includes advanced backup and recovery verificationAppAssure

17. Which of the following are features that are uniquely part of the new Dell AppAssure 5 releas
AppAssure's high scalability leverages multi-core hardware to support your data needs and seamlessly scale
Dell ProSupport's expert back-up and recovery technicians ensure you're back up and running quickly, availa
True global deduplication uses up to 80% less storage through integrated, inline deduplication and compress
18. How do impact questions help in the AppAssure sales cycle? (Select all that apply.)
Impact questions focus the customer on the business impact of problems that AppAssure can solve.
Impact questions focus the customer on the business value of the AppAssure solution.

lmost immediate recovery. How is this different than competitors? (Select all that apply.)
e last backup will be lost in the event of an outage.
windows when data will be backed up. Sometimes these backup windows are only every 24 hours.

eir infrastructure

y that the recovered data will work in the event of an outage. How is this different than competitors?
ountability.

omer? (Select all that apply.)


customer with an AppAssure expert.
is ______________.

ncrements.

need to quote to customers?

he server?

almost immediate recovery. How does AppAssure deliver this benefit?


e. The protected server or dedicated core can immediately take over the duties of a downed device for near-zero recov

fy that the recovered data will work in the event of an outage. How does AppAssure deliver this benefit? (S

er from physical servers to virtual servers, and vice versa. How is this different than competitors?
t to each other.

Appassure since the acquisition and will continue to be a part of the Dell AppAssure feature set? Choose th

or dissimilar hardware

new Dell AppAssure 5 release? Choose three


ata needs and seamlessly scale to exabytes
k up and running quickly, available 24/7 and around the globe.
line deduplication and compression

ect all that apply.)


at AppAssure can solve.

an competitors?

vice for near-zero recovery times.

deliver this benefit? (Select all that apply.)

ompetitors?

eature set? Choose three.

AppAssure Technical Overview v3


1. After an agent is deployed, it _________ a reboot.
requires

2. In Dell AppAssure 5, each time a ____________ occurs, a recovery point is generated.


Snapshot based backup

3. Retention policies can be set at a core level and may be overridden for Exchange servers.
TRUE

4. When deploying an agent, you can monitor the status of a newly deployed agent by going to th
Events

5. True or false: When creating a boot CD image, you can inject specific drivers for a particular se
TRUE
6. Virtual Standby is set up ___________________ .
In advance of a failure

7. A ___________________________ export of a virtual machine in AppAssure 5 allows for a co


Continuous

8. During a live recovery, you can access specific data almost instantly once a rollback has begun
A filter driver that automatically re-prioritizes the data stream for the specific data request

9. When exporting a virtual machine, if you're creating a sandbox environment or if you need to c
One time export

10. Each core can have up to _____ repositories and each repository can contain up to 4096 stor
255

11. When restoring granular SQL data via Dell AppAssure, when mounting a volume from the cor

12. The license key for Dell AppAssure 5 is retrieved from:


The license portal at license.appassure.com

13. True or False: When performing a rollback, you may only rollback to the original machine as t
FALSE

14. When choosing a forced dismount in the rollback procedure for restoring a volume, the targe
Milliseconds

15. When creating a protection schedule for a set of Exchange volumes, you must set the interva
FALSE
16. Recovery Assure tests the Exchange snapshots for integrity____________________.
Each time a snapshot is generated

17. The checksum check tests each database at a granular level for corruption on a ___________
Nightly

18. Which of the following are true about the Central Console? (Select all that apply)
DEJANDO UNA

19. Scenario: You've just received a call that your CFO has just discovered he accidentally delete
Use AppAssure's Mailbox Restore utility to recover the messages in question from a prior snapshot

20. Scenario: Someone has accidentally deleted 50 GB worth of transaction data from a database

Use the local mount utility to attach to a snapshot volume from the core to the SQL server and then use a utility or a set of SQL command

21. SQL attachability tests happen ___________________ at the time you have defined for back

22. Which of the following are true about replication in Dell AppAssure5?

23. The ______________ adds a bar across the top of your normal AppAssure core server view t
Central Console

24. Which item below best describes the ideal Dell AppAssure Bare Metal Recovery process?
Restoring the system and boot partitions through the bare metal process, then rebooting the machine and u
25. Dell AppAssure 5 Installation Requirements include which of the following:
64, 2008R2 AND 8GB
26. The local mount utility can be installed on:
Any system that from which you want to access the recovery points

27. Which of the following allows you to browse the data sources that are connected to the AppA
The local mount utility

28. Unlike previous replication strategies, Dell AppAssure 5 performs replication at ___________
The block level on the volume

is generated.

change servers.

d agent by going to the ________________ tab.

ers for a particular server.

sure 5 allows for a complete backup of a production machine, allowing for a true disaster recovery scenario

a rollback has begun because once the data stream starts to recover the data, when a user requests a spe

ent or if you need to create a clone of a machine for testing purposes, which is the best method in AppAssu

ntain up to 4096 storage segments.

volume from the core to attach to the live SQL server database you will need to use the local mount utility

original machine as the target for the rollback.

a volume, the target volume will be unavailable for________________ before beginning the restore / rol

must set the interval for each server individually.

__________.

on on a _________________ basis.

e accidentally deleted a lot of critical email messages weeks ago before his trips overseas. He says they ar
rior snapshot

data from a database that you are protecting with Dell AppAssure 5. You need to retrieve that lost data and

lity or a set of SQL commands to synchronize the tables with the latest data.

have defined for background jobs.

re core server view that allows you to switch from one core to another core and manage them accordingly.

covery process?
ting the machine and using Live Recovery features on the data volumes to enable near instant data access

onnected to the AppAssure core server as if they were local volumes?

tion at ____________________.

ster recovery scenario that provides fully redundant virtual servers ready to deploy in the case of an outage

a user requests a specific block, their request is satisfied quickly due to which of the following?

st method in AppAssure 5?

he local mount utility and choose which of the following options to satisfy SQL's requirements?

ning the restore / rollback process.

seas. He says they are no longer in his deleted items cache - but he needs to get them back. They have bec

eve that lost data and still retain the transactional data that has been added since the deletion occurred. W

age them accordingly.

data access

the case of an outage.

ollowing?

rements?

m back. They have become very critical in light of a new merger opportunity. You have been protecting your

e deletion occurred. Which of the following is the best description of how to achieve the desired outcome o

been protecting your Exchange data with Dell AppAssure. What is the best way to retrieve the email he ne

he desired outcome of restoring the data without losing any of the transactions since the data was deleted?

trieve the email he needs?

the data was deleted?

Compellent Quote Center v3


1. How many different levels of support does Dell offer on the Storage Center product?
3
2. Where do you find time for the schedule maintenance window?
Enhancements and Upgrade section

3. How many people can attend the Compellent Admin Training on-site option?
10

4. True or False? The Use Detail MTC Display button breaks out the support costs on the quote.
TRUE
5. True or False? A registered deal means there is an approved and open registration?
TRUE
6. True or False? Both the Shipping address and the Installation address need to be verified?
TRUE

7. True or False? If you dont have an approved registration you cannot build a quote for a prosp
FALSE

8. True or False? The Quote Center tool overview is a detailed training on how to configure a Stor
FALSE
9. Selecting the top level of support allows you to get an additional support discount, how much
25%

10. True or False? The latest enclosure technology is the SC220 and SC200 enclosures?
TRUE

11. True or False? Hot spares are calculated into the number of expansion software licenses need
TRUE
12. What pricing model does the Quote Center launch page default to?
Commercial
13. What is a Channel Certified install?
An install completed by a current certified installer at a business partner.
14. Select the two Pricing Options
STANDARD
Registered

15. True or False? 24 x 7 Support Center will Priority On-Site is the top level or support.
TRUE
11. How many drives does the base software license cover?

r product?

t costs on the quote.

istration?

d to be verified?

d a quote for a prospective customer?

w to configure a Storage Center system.

discount, how much is that discount for?

nclosures?

oftware licenses needed?

or support.

Compellent Top Gun Storage Architect Technic

1. True or False. Both Dell and Xyratex enclosures come from the factory with the h
FALSE

2. What is the minimum software version required to run a Storage Center with SC
6.1

1. Storage Center Hardware

4. An SC8000 controller has 7 PCIe slots to be used for IO cards. What type of slot
4 Full Height and 3 Low Profile slots

torage Center Core Software - Part 1

3. True or False. On an SC8000 controller, the Eth0 port is used for controller mana
FALSE

1. Which of the following are components of Fluid Data Architecture?


All of the above.

5. True or False. SSD drives fit in both SC200 and SC220 enclosures.
TRUE

6. What is the minimum software version required to run a Storage Center with SC
6.2
7. Which front end cabling solution uses Primary and Reserve ports?
Legacy mode
8. How many units of rack space is taken up by an SC8000?
2U
9. Using Virtual Ports mode, what zone(s) need to be created on the fibre channel
two virtual

10. What is the maximum number of drives allowed on a 6Gb SAS chain connected
168

2. What the default data page size?


2MB
3. What are volume and server folders user for?
For organization and security

4. True or False. A historical, recently accessed page is a read only page that's bus
TRUE

5. What Storage Center core software feature manages all physical disks as a singl
Disk Virtualization

6. True or False. Dell Compellent recommends using multiple disk folders. One for e
FALSE

7. If individual drive capacities in a tier are greater than ________, best practice is
900GB

8. True or False. Data Progression occurs only on physical disks within the same di

9. What type of page is frozen as read only when a Replay occurs?


Historical

3. Storage Center Core Software - Part 2

10. What is the default parity for RAID 5 in the Storage Center?
9

1. Which of the following are advantages of Boot from SAN technology?


All of the above

Center Core Software - Part 3

2. Storage Cent

TRUE

1. True or False. A volume can only have one replay profile.


FALSE

2. True or False. To implement Boot from SAN a server's boot order must be set to
TRUE
3. Between a Copy, Mirror or a Migrate which one is used most often?

4. What is the name of Dell Compellent's Thin Provisioning solution?


Dynamic Capacity

5. True or False. Thin Write technology transforms existing volumes on a legacy SA


TRUE

6. Which of the following information is accessed from the View link in the Storage
All of the above

7. A 500GB volume is created in Storage Center. How much physical disk space is c
0GB

8. What view from the volume level shows the amount of space available in each ti
Statistics

9. Which copy option is used to manually migrate data from one tier of storage to a
Copy/Migrate

10. True or False. It's best practice to be sure to have replays for a Windows Pagef
FALSE

2. All volumes should use the Recommended Storage Profile except __________
log volumes
3. What does RPO stand for?
Recovery Point Objective

4. True or False. Consistency group software is licensed separately from Data Insta
FALSE
5. True or False. A manual replay allows a user to create a replay at any time.
TRUE
6. What application is paused when a replay is created from a consistency group?
None of the above

5. Storage Center Application Software - Part


4.1Storage Center Core

7. How does the Storage Center label a recovered replay?

8. A consistency group is used to do what task?


Create a synchronized replay of all volumes within a consistency group.
9. What can be set up to allow replays to be taken automatically?
Replay Profile
10. What happens to a volume's blocks when a Replay is taken?
The blocks are frozen as read only.

1. What is the typical move time between tiers when Data Progression runs?
12 days down, 3 days up
2. Which of the following are examples of how Data Progression and Data Instant
All of the above.

3. True or False. As soon as a replay is taken for a volume, the blocks that are part
FALSE

4. From a volume's point of view, what tab in the Storage Center interface allows a
Statistics

5. True or False. Once a Storage Center is put into Manual mode, it can not be swit
TRUE

6. From what menu option in the Storage Center interface do you change to dual re
Highlight the Disk folder=>click Configure Storage
7. How often does the Data Progression data mover run?
once a day
8. Which default Storage Profile optimizes Data Progression across all tiers?
Recommended
9. True or False. There is no server agent required to run Data Progression.
TRUE

10. What percent of the outside of the disk drives are reserved for the Fast Track a
20

1. Where is the Data Collector downloaded from?


Knowledge Center on Compellent Partner Portal

2. Which of the following are supported data bases for the Enterprise Manager Dat
MYSQL y SQL

3. What privilege is NOT a valid privilege for a user created in Enterprise Manager?
Read Only

ager

4. From the IO Usage tab what types of output can be saved. Select all that apply.
CSV y PDF

6. Enterprise Manager
7. Replication (Remote Instant Replay)

5. True or False. A Windows server must have the server agent loaded on it and be
FALSE

6. Which of the following are types of Threshold definitions that can be set up in En
IO USAGE, STORAGE, REPLICATION

7. Which of the following are software components of Enterprise Manager? Select a


Client, Data Collector y Server Agent

8. True or False. Doing a Phone Home from Enterprise Manager sends the same inf
FALSE
9. Which type of threshold alert is run on demand?
Threshold query

10. What must be done in the Enterprise Manager client in order to be able to man
Add the Storage Center

1. True or False. Restore points need to be saved in order to restore a volume back
TRUE
2. What two replication formats does Storage Center support?
Asynchronous Y Synchronouos

3. True or False. Once a volume has been replicated over a Wide Area Network, it c
FALSE

4. When setting up Remote Data Instant Replay, what option is checked to only se
Deduplication
5. What transport type works best for replicating over long distances?
Iscsi
6. Where can existing replications be viewed?
All of the above

7. True or False. Live volume works with both synchronous and asychronous replic
FALSE
8. What are the two main features of Live Volume?
Data Migrations Y Planned Maintenance Outages

9. True or False. To replicate data from one Storage Center to another using Portab
TRUE

10. What definition in Enterprise Manager determines the amount of bandwidth av

1. Seek time is defined as:


The time it takes for the head to be in the correct place.
2. In the storage industry what is considered a good average for latency?
20ms or less

r of IO

3. What is a simple equation often used to calculate available IOPS?

8. Anatomy and Behavior of IO

1000ms/(Seek + Latency)

4. True or False. When sizing using DPACK it is important to size for the business h
TRUE
5. True or False. The smaller the block the more bandwidth will be consumed.
false

6. True or False. Throughput is defined as the amount of bandwidth consumed in a


TRUE
7. What is a good rule of thumb for the amount of IOPS on a 15K drive?
170
8. Select two ways of lowering the disk queue.
increase the number of disks
Increase the speed of the disk
9. From the DPACK report, what output measures the amount of time to process?
Latency
10. From the DPACK report, what output provides a measure of utilization?
MB/Sec

1. What are the 3 primary measurements of performance?


MB/s, IOPS & Latency

2. True or False. DPACK is a tool that collects data to help us make informed decisi
TRUE
3. What is the sustained transfer rate of a 15K, 2 1/2 inch drive?
122 - 160 MB/s

4. True or False. When calculating IOPS needed, a general best practice is to desig
TRUE

5. True or False. A good solution design focuses on the storage and what is connec
FALSE
6. What RAID type is recommended for 7K drives 1TB or larger?
RAID 6
7. Which of the following are characteristics of SSD drives? Select all that apply.
High performance
Low Latency
8. When considering a server's throughput requirements, what calculation is used
IOPS x Block size
9. What is a good rule of thumb for the amount of IOPS on a 7.2K drive?
80

10. Which of the following are causes of overhead in the Storage Center? Select all
RAID overhead
Internal bottlenecks

e Architect Technical v2

come from the factory with the hard drives already installed.

to run a Storage Center with SC8000 controllers?

0 port is used for controller management and the Eth1 port is used for iSCSI traffic.

d for IO cards. What type of slots are they?

SC220 enclosures.

to run a Storage Center with SC200 or SC220 enclosures?

nd Reserve ports?

SC8000?

be created on the fibre channel switch? (select all that apply)

d on a 6Gb SAS chain connected to SC8000 controllers?

Data Architecture?

ge is a read only page that's busy in terms of reads.

ages all physical disks as a single pool of storage?

g multiple disk folders. One for each of your applications.

r than ________, best practice is to set the tier to Dual Redundancy.

physical disks within the same disk folder.

Replay occurs?

rage Center?

rom SAN technology?

rver's boot order must be set to boot from the hard drive.

s used most often?

isioning solution?

existing volumes on a legacy SAN into thinly provisioned volumes on the Storage Center.

rom the View link in the Storage Center interface?

ow much physical disk space is consumed in the SAN?

ount of space available in each tier?

data from one tier of storage to another with no downtime?

ave replays for a Windows Pagefile.

ge Profile except __________

ensed separately from Data Instant Replay software.

create a replay at any time.

ated from a consistency group?

sistency group.

automatically?

play is taken?

en Data Progression runs?

a Progression and Data Instant Replay work together to optimize performance and storage usage in a Stor

volume, the blocks that are part of that volume move to RAID 5.

Storage Center interface allows a user to see how much Fast Track space is being used?

Manual mode, it can not be switched back to Normal mode.

nterface do you change to dual redundancy?

ogression across all tiers?

to run Data Progression.

are reserved for the Fast Track application?

s for the Enterprise Manager Data Collector? Select all that apply.

r created in Enterprise Manager?

be saved. Select all that apply.

server agent loaded on it and be registered in order to create volumes on it.

efinitions that can be set up in Enterprise Manager? (Select all that apply).

s of Enterprise Manager? Select all that apply.

rise Manager sends the same information as doing a Phone Home from the Storage Center interface.

client in order to be able to manage a Storage Center?

n order to restore a volume back to the source system with its original mapping, replay and Data Progressi

er support?

d over a Wide Area Network, it can't be converted to a Live Volume.

hat option is checked to only send actual changes to a page rather than the complete page to the DR site?

over long distances?

hronous and asychronous replication types.

e Center to another using Portable Volume, both Storage Centers must be visible in Enterprise Manager.

nes the amount of bandwidth available to do a replication?

od average for latency?

e available IOPS?

portant to size for the business hour window.

andwidth will be consumed.

unt of bandwidth consumed in and out of the storage array.

IOPS on a 15K drive?

the amount of time to process?

a measure of utilization?

to help us make informed decisions.

/2 inch drive?

general best practice is to design for the peak IOP number not the average.

n the storage and what is connected to it.

1TB or larger?

D drives? Select all that apply.

ments, what calculation is used to calculate bandwidth?

IOPS on a 7.2K drive?

in the Storage Center? Select all that apply.

orage usage in a Storage Center?

enter interface.

ay and Data Progression attributes.

page to the DR site?

nterprise Manager.

EqualLogic Sales v3
1. Intense data growth is expected to level off in the next few years.
FALSE
2. IT managers are concerned about all of the following except one. Which is it?
The arrangement of the cooling fans.

3. iSCSI is the fast growing alternative to costly and complex Fibre Channel SANs.
TRUE
4. Select the benefits of selling Dell EqualLogic products,
All of the above
5. What Dell program is designed to provide protection for driving the sale?
Opportunity/deal registration
6. Which features are included at additional cost?
None of the above
7. Which type of drive technologies are not used in Dell EqualLogic PS Series arrays?
Tape drives
8. The PS Series storage array dynamically scales.
TRUE
9. What is the maximum number of disk drives supported by the PS6500 storage array?
4800%

10. PS Series virtualization software dynamically load balances the workload across all array me
TRUE

11. In an independent IDC survey, 98% of Dell EqualLogic customers stated they would recomme
TRUE

12. Up to 16 PS Series arrays can be combined into a single, logical group. Multiple groups can be
TRUE
13. Which would not be an attribute of a potential customer?
Have $10k in budget.
14. Choose the best answer. A good positioning statement focuses on:
All of the above.
15. Choose the best answer. A good Ease of Use solution would be:
Rapid deployment
16. Choose the best answer. A good solution for issues with investment protection would be:
Frameless, pay as you grow architecture.
17. Choose the best answer. A good solution for issues with cost containment would be:
Additional features included free
18. Current PS Series arrays will not work with older versions of the arrays.
FALSE

19. Framed architecture storage products increase in performance each time capacity is increase
FALSE
20. IT Directors are accountable for:
Both

rage array?

d across all array members in the group.

they would recommend the PS Series arrays to others.

ultiple groups can be managed with SAN HQ.

ection would be:

nt would be:

e capacity is increased.

Dell Force10 FTOS Technical Highlights S

1. Verdadero o falso. El archivo startup-config se encuentra almacenado en una memoria flash in


TRUE
2. Cmo puede guardar los cambios de CLI? Seleccione todas las opciones adecuadas.

3. Cules de estos prompts le darn una lista de comandos parciales de los comandos que comie

4. Cules de las siguientes teclas le permite completar un comando?


Tabulacin
5. Cules de las siguientes teclas le permite recordar un comando previo?
Flecha hacia arriba

6. Verdadero o falso. Los protocolos no estn configurados de manera predeterminada en un disp


TRUE

7. Verdadero o falso. El trfico de Capa 2 se reenva a TODOS los puertos de un VLAN, asumiendo
TRUE

8. Verdadero o falso. Puede utilizar un comando mostrar mientras se encuentra en el modo Confi
TRUE
9. Qu interfaz se est configurando en el siguiente ejemplo? Force10(conf-if-gi-5/1)#
Interfaz gigabit 1 en ranura 5
10. El beneficio de un Grupo de agregado de enlace (LAG) o Canal de puerto es:
Esta interfaz lgica ofrece redundancia al permitir el agregado de hasta 32 interfaces fsicas en una interfaz
11. Cmo se utiliza la palabra clave no en el CLI FTOS?
Para deshacer los cambios de configuracin.

12. Los CLI FTOS reconocern abreviaturas tales como conf en lugar de configurar terminal?
S

13. Seleccione todas las opciones adecuadas. Los siguientes son tipos de interfaces que se puede
all

14. Por qu un enrutador o conmutador Dell Force10 podra estar en un estado de arranque con
Fallaron los parmetros de arranque primario, secundario y predeterminado.

15. Si una unidad entra en un estado de rearranque continuo, cmo se puede recuperar?
Presione cualquier tecla cuando aparece el siguiente mensaje: Presione cualquier tecla para detener el reinic
16. Cules de los siguientes es el modo inicial por defecto?
EXEC
17. El promt Force10# , qu modo indica?
EXEC (Privileged)
18. Cmo puede ver la Configuracin de Arranque?
FORCE10# show startup-conf

19. Comprender la retroalimentacin CLI es importante para volverse un experto en la configura


Use la tecla de flecha hacia ARRIBA para repetir el comando y el signo de interrogacin para identificar las o
20. Verdadero o falso. El CLI FTOS le permite configurar ms de una interfaz por vez.
TRUE
21. Una interfaz fsica se puede configurar para admitir:
Capa 2 o Capa 3

enado en una memoria flash interna.

opciones adecuadas.

es de los comandos que comienzan con i?

era predeterminada en un dispositivo Dell Force10.

uertos de un VLAN, asumiendo que las interfaces no estn cerradas o permite el estado.

se encuentra en el modo Config si utiliza la palabra clave do delante del comando.

ce10(conf-if-gi-5/1)#

de puerto es:
interfaces fsicas en una interfaz lgica. Si una interfaz fsica deja de funcionar en el canal de puerto, otra interfaz fsic

gar de configurar terminal?

pos de interfaces que se pueden configurar a travs del CLI FTOS:

en un estado de arranque continuo? Seleccione la mejor respuesta.

mo se puede recuperar?
alquier tecla para detener el reinicio:

rse un experto en la configuracin de enrutadores y conmutadores Force10. Buscar un smbolo de insercin


nterrogacin para identificar las opciones de terminacin del comando

a interfaz por vez.

uerto, otra interfaz fsica transporta el trfico.

n smbolo de insercin (^) le ayudar a identificar donde se encuentra el problema en su lnea de configura

su lnea de configuracin. Si obtuviera esto para un error: % Error: Entrada no vlida en el marcador ^, c

a en el marcador ^, cul sera una buena tcnica para corregir su problema?

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