1.- When arriving at the impact zone, during the evaluation of the B.

Angle of jaw to base of neck

scenario, the first thing to do is: C. Angle of the mandible to sternal fork
A. Permeabilize the airway B. Cervical spine control D. Earlobe to base of neck
C. Evaluate safety D. Hemorrhage control E. Horizontal line from chin to base of neck
E. Avoiding hypothermia
The cervical collar can be applied in the following positions. Exception:
2.- During the initial evaluation, one of the following is true: A. Standing B. Sitting
A. Airway opening with cervical spine control C. From dorsal ulna D. From ventral ulna
B. Ventilation-breathing MES evaluation E . Sideways
C. Circulation with hemorrhage control
D. Neurological impairment. Evaluation of AVDN 15.- Once the cervical spine has been manually controlled, the precise
E. All are true moment in which the leading operator abandons the manual control of
this is:
3.- The initial evaluation includes: A. Never B. After placing the cervical collar
A. ABCDE B. ABC C. After placing the patient on the long spinal board
C. ABCDE, Secondary evaluation D. ABC plus immobilization D. After fitting the collar, the long spine board and the straps
E. ABC plus extrication E. After fitting the collar, long spine board, straps and side immobilizers

Basic airway management corresponds to: 16.- Assisted ventilation with resuscitation bag is indicated when the
A. Orotracheal intubation B. Combitube respiratory frequency is of:
C. Gold and nasopharyngeal cannulas D. Chin lift and A. 20 x minute
mandibular subluxation B. 12 to 20 x minute
E. C and d are true C. less than 12 and more than 20 x minute
D. when respiratory distress is detected
5.- During the initial evaluation; SER means: E. less than 10 and more than 30 x minute
A. Emergency and Rescue System Cli
B. Security, Scenario and Resources 17.- The ideal percentage of oxygen administration to the victim with
C. Security, Initial Assessment and Resources trauma is :
D. Feeling and Listening to the breath a. 21% b. 50%
E. Sentir, I listen I respond c. 30% d. 80%
e. 100%
6.- One of the following maneuvers to permeabilize the airway is
absolutely contraindicated in trauma: 18.- The highest risk area where only authorized personnel enter during
a. Mandibular traction b. Mandibular subluxation triage is:
c. Chin lift d. Neck hyperextension A. White zone B. Red Zone
e. Digital foreign body removal C. Green area D. Black zone
E. Yellow zone
7.- The first action to remove a solid foreign body from the airway is:
A. Aspiration B. Heimlich maneuver The normal respiratory frequency per minute in an adult victim is:
C. Digital extraction in hook or sweep D. Zellick maneuver A. 12 a 20 B. 10 a 12
E. None of the above C. 20 a 30 D. 72
E. 60 a 100
8.- The following are elements of basic airway management, EXCEPT:
A. Gold pharyngeal cannula B. Nasopharyngeal cannula 20.- The green classification in the START triage corresponds to the
C. Endotracheal tube D. Laryngeal mask following victim:
E. Aspirator with rigid cannula A. Aware that it does not walk B. Caught conscious
C. Not walking, not breathing, no pulse D. Not walking, conscious, no
9 .- Which of the following masks is the most recommended for radial pulse
administering oxygen in trauma: E. Walking, conscious, normal ABCD
A. Nose or moustache
B. Ventura Mask MMV 21.-The evaluation of conscience uses the acronym:
C. High-flow mask with reservoir bag A. S.E.R. B. A.V.D.N.
D. Mask with nebulizer C. M.E.S. D. P.I.R.R.R.L.
E. Positive pressure oxygen mask E. None of the above

10.- M E S means: 22.- Indicate which of the following situations has indication of
A. Movement, State, Sensitivity tourniquet:
B. Looking, Listening Feeling the breathing A. Arterial hemorrhage of an extremity
C. View and Evaluate Safety B. Venous hemorrhage of an extremity
D. Looking, Feeling and Assessing Safety C. Capillary hemorrhage of an extremity
E. None is correct D. Traumatic amputation
E .All
11.- Cervical spine control should be performed as part of the initial
evaluation. Specifically in: 23.- The anatomical reference points to immobilize a fracture of an
A. Airway opening B. Ventilation-Expiration extremity are:
C. Circulation D. Neurological impairment A. Joint proximal and distal to the fracture site
E. Exhibition B. The entire limb
C. Fracture site only
12.- In the following situation, the cervical spine must be immobilized D. Joint distal to the fracture
manually, without cervical collar: E. Joint proximal to the fracture
A. Severe pain on manual neck alignment
B. Bone crepitation 24.- They are signs of neurological focalization:
C. Joint locking A. Paraplegia B. Hemiplegia
D. Signs of neurological focalization C. Tetraplegia D. Monoparesis
E. A, b, c and d are correct. E. All of the above

13.- To measure a cervical collar, the anatomical reference points are: 25.- The friction of the periosteum in an undetected fracture and
A. Chin to sternal fork therefore not immobilized, produces:
A. Hemorrhage B. Nerve section d. None of the above.
C. Vascular section D. Cardiorespiratory arrest by vagal reflex
E. Spinal shock 10. The arrest rates to be defibrillated are?
a. AESP
1. You are in the bookstore when a gentleman who is at the desk b. Asystole and Atrial Fibrillation
collapses, he falls to the floor and does not appear to be c. FV/TV without pulse
breathing. The clerk is sent to call 911 and obtain the AED. d. FV/TV with pulse
Because he is unresponsive and does not appear to be
breathing normally you should immediately 11. trauma assessment sequence is:
a. Secondary assessment.
a. Open the airway and give four ventilations while the AED b. D,E,C,A,
arrives. c. A,C,E,F,G
b. Give 2 ventilations and 15 compressions d. A,B,C,D,E,
c. Foreign body airway obstruction. OVACE 12. A young man falls down the stairs, what should I do first?
d. Initiate CPR WITH HANDS ONLY, a. Call the ambulance and wait for it to arrive.
2. If an ADULT goes into cardiac arrest and I have no way to b. Verify response, Activate EMS, security, scene and situation
give mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, what action do I take and perform A,B,C,D,E TRAUMA
next? c. None of the above
to. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole d. All of the above.
b. Hands-only CPR
c. call the parents 13. The appropriate management of external bleeding is?
d. verify response activate the emergency system and hands- a. Direct pressure
only CPR. b.Turnstile
c. Direct pressure, compressive bandage, and
3. The main cause of respiratory arrest in a child is: tourniquet,
d. Use of hemostatic dressings
a. VACEO 14. Cranioencephalic trauma is classified as?
b. Hands-only CPR a. Serious, very serious and minimal
c. OVACE b. Bad and good
d. Asystole c. Mild, moderate and severe
4. The correct resuscitation sequence is: d. All of the above.
15. In the initial assessment, in the B that life-threatening injuries
a. 15 ventilations per 2 compressions a. Capillary hemorrhage.
b. C-.A-B 30 compressions per 2 ventilations b. Unstable chest, cardiac tamponade, tension
c. A-B-C 3 compressions for 2 ventilations pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive
d. None of the above. hemothorax.
5. If life-threatening opioids can be administered? c. All of the above.
a. Amiodarone 300 mg intravenous d. None of the above.
b. Naloxone 2 mg intranasal or 0.4 mg intramuscular. 16. A 15 year old falls from a second floor, when he arrives on the
c. Displacement, hemothorax obstruction, equipment scene he finds people screaming and calling for help, the next
failure, thing to do is to
d. All of the above.
a. Immobilize on a rigid board and transport to a
6. The frequency of compressions per minute should be? health center.
a. Approximately 100 per minute. b. Secure the area, assess the scene, activate EMS
b. A minimum frequency of 200 per minute.
by radio or telephone, perform initial assessment,
c. Approximately 200 per minute.
and transport to the appropriate medical facility.
d. A frequency of 100 -120 per minute
c. Call the fire department
d. None of the above
7. Ten minutes after an 85-year-old woman falls unconscious,
paramedics arrive and begin CPR for the first time. The
monitor shows fine VF (low amplitude). What actions should
be taken next?
17. When treating a patient with severe burns to the face, neck,
chest, and back, what is the
a. Perform CPR vigorously for at least 5 minutes before defibrillation. first priority?
b. Insert an ET tube and then initiate defibrillation. A. determine the percentage of body surface area burned
c. Apply up to 3 precordial beats while observing the patient's response B. cover burns
on the monitor. C. assess respiratory status
d. Initiate CPR cycles while preparing the defibrillator for use as soon as D. treating shock
possible.
18.- This is a child with a gunshot wound to the chest. Initial
8. What action is taken when preparing to shock the Assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, has agonal
defibrillator? respirations and no palpable pulses. What is the
next step to follow?
a. Ask the person in charge of the airway to rapidly intubate the patient
A. do not attempt to resuscitate the patient
before starting defibrillation. B. initiate CPR and complete the Detailed Exploration
b. Disconnect the monitor leads to prevent damage to the monitor as a C. initiate CPR and "load-and-carry" immediately
result of the shock. D. complete the Primary Assessment, then initiate CPR.
c. Continue administering compressions while the defibrillator is
charging.
d. Check the pulse while charging the defibrillator.

9. You have been doing compressions on the patient for over 19. In a pediatric patient, what part of the body is typically injured in a
about a minute when the employee arrives with the AED. You fall from
height?
should:
A. the extremities B. the abdomen
C. the head D. the thorax
a. 15 ventilations per 2 compressions
b. C-.A-B 30 compressions per 2 ventilations 20- A 15-year-old boy was injured when a homemade bomb he was
c. Use the AED immediately. handling exploded. The patient has cool, diaphoretic skin with weak
peripheral pulses. A metal fragment can be seen protruding about 15
centimeters from his abdomen. Which of the following is the best field
approach for management of a foreign body in the abdomen?
A. move the object gently to see how deeply it is embedded
B. remove the object if it is superficial
C. remove the object regardless of its depth
D. secure the object in place without moving it

21. With respect to patients infected with human immunodeficiency

virus (HIV) point out the TRUE statement.
A. Health care workers can usually determine which patients are
infected with HIV just by looking at them.
B. HIV is commonly transmitted to health care workers through saliva.
C. most patients with HIV are asymptomatic and appear to be normal
D. only HIV patients with symptoms of the disease can transmit the
virus to another patient.

22.. A trauma patient develops severe respiratory distress, neck vein

distension, decreased breath sounds on the right side, cyanosis and
tracheal deviation to the left. Vital signs are BP 60/40, respirations
36/min, and pulse rate
130/min. What is the most appropriate step to take?
A. intubate the patient
B. needle decompression of the right thorax
C. perform a Detailed Exploration
D. initiate intravenous access

Which of the following is located in the retroperitoneal region of the

abdomen?
A. kidney B. liver
C. stomach D. uterus

24. A 20-year-old man suffers amputation of his thumb with a knife

during a scuffle. How should the amputated part be handled?
A. leave it at the scene to assist the police with the investigation
B. place it in a container with dry ice and transport it to the hospital.
C. place her in a cup with saline solution and transport her to the
hospital.
D. place her in a plastic bag immersed in ice water and transport her
to the hospital.

25. Which of the following is the preferred method of assisted

ventilation?
A. word of mouth B. mouth to mask
C. non-recirculating mask D. high pressure demand valve

26.- A car traveling at 80 km/hr hits a solid wall. The chest of the
unbelted driver impacts the steering wheel. At the EXACT moment
when the chest hits the steering wheel, how fast were the driver's
organs moving? A. are not in motion
B. move forward at 40 km/hr
C. moving forward at 80 km/hr
D. moving forward at 160 km/hr (occupant speed + vehicle speed)

27.- How much blood can a patient with bilateral simple (closed) femur
fractures potentially lose?
A. 250 ml B. 500 ml
C. 1000 ml D. 2000 m

28. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a vehicle
struck a tree. What is the best indicator of possible injury?

a.Vehicle circumference
b.Tree diameter
c.Vehicle mass
d.Vehicle speed

The potential for death or serious injury is greatest in which of the following motor
vehicle crashes?
a. down and below
b. vehicle ejection
c. lateral compression
d. up and over

30. Bilateral femur fractures are most often associated with which type of
motorcycle accident?