DEPARTURE COMAIR PLANNING WEATHER TAKE OFF 5000 RVR (TDZ) or 1 Mile or 1600 RVR (TDZ) or mile w/ HIRL

L or CL or RCLM or 1200 RVR (TDZ), 1000 (rollout) w/ two RVRs, both controlling & CL or 600, 600, 600, two working and above 600 w/ CL & RCLM TAKEOFF ALTERNATE REQD IF: Departure airport wx is below its lowest approach minimums Within 1 hour at normal single engine cruise speed in still air ALTERNATE NEEDED IF: Destination wx at +1 hour is less than 2000- 3 (1,2,3 Rule) 2nd Alt needed if Destination and 1st alternate is less than 600- 2 2nd Alt needed if using exemption 3585 ALTERNATE MUST HAVE: One Navaid: 400-1 added to Category 1 minimums Two Navaids: 200- added to highest ceiling and visibility 3585 Conditional phrases: BECMG, PROB40, TEMPO We may dispatch Main body Wx at or above approach minimums at ETA Requires 2nd Alt Destination: TAF conditional phrase cant be below of the visibility for the Approach we plan to use. 1st Alternate: TAF cant be below of the ceiling and visibility specified in Ops Specs 2nd Alternate: METAR or TAF must be equal to or greater than ceiling and visibility specified in Ops Specs *Wx getting worse applies to beginning of time period *Wx getting better applies to the end of the time period

ENROUTE 1. Given the following information: Aircraft at 37,000 feet descend to 12,000 feet by 30 DME, when do you start your descent? (Alt. to lose) X 3 + (alt. restriction point) = DME descent point (37,000 12,000) X 3 + 30 = 105 2. On a four hour flight with no alternate required, how much fuel do you need? FAR 121.639 (4+45) Aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport that it is dispatched to then to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (when required) and thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 3. In the event of two-way communications failure, what is the squawk code? AIM 6-4-2 7600 4. Does stating minimum fuel give you priority handling? AIM 5-5-15 No, it advises ATC that your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. This is not an emergency but merely an advisory that an emergency is possible should any undue delay occur. 5. What tolerances does an ATC assigned airspeed have? AIM 5-3-3 Report to ATC any change in the average true airspeed (at cruising altitude) when it varies by 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater from that filed in the flight plan. 6. What does the term radar contact mean? AIM Glossary An aircraft is identified by ATC on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. When in radar contact, a pilot automatically discontinues reporting over compulsory reporting points. 7. What does a VFR clearance on top mean? AIM 5-5-13 Must be requested by the pilot on an IFR flight plan, and if approved, allows the pilot the choice (subject to any ATC restrictions) to select an altitude or Flight Level in lieu of an assigned altitude. Pilot assumes sole responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft and to: Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude as per FAR 91.159, comply with the VFR visibility and distance from clouds criteria (basic VFR WX minimums) and comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to the flight. 8. What are the obstacle clearances when flying IFR in mountainous and non-mountainous terrain? FAR 91.177 If no minimum altitude is stated in Part 95 or Part 97, then: Operations over designated mountainous terrain, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM. Operations over non-mountainous terrain, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM 9. What is the purpose of a MOA? AIM 3-4-5 Military Operations Area MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. 10. Where can you find the MVA? AIM 5-4-5 Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA) are established for use by ATC when ATC radar is exercised and is usually found in the ATC facility.

11. Communications are lost enroute. What routing and altitude should you fly? Altitude: (MEA) The highest of the following: Minimum altitude for IFR flight operations (MEA) or altitude advised to Expect, Assigned altitude in last clearance given. Route: AVEnue F - Assigned, Vectored, Expected and Filed Last Assigned ATC clearance, if on radar Vectors most direct route from commo failure, Expected route if there has not been a previously assigned route, without an assigned or expected route what was Filed becomes the route. (FAR 91.185) --On a radar vector, proceed to the fix specified in the vector, if no expected fix given turn to intercept cleared, expected or filed route. --At the beginning of a "Lost Commo" scenario mention that all the above procedures apply if you are IMC. If you are VMC or encounter VMC, attempt to maintain VMC and land as soon as practicable. --If your clearance limit is a fix from which the approach begins, begin descent or commence approach as close as possible to your EFC time. If no EFC received, commence at your expected arrival time. --If your clearance limit is not a fix for the approach leave at your EFC time and proceed to the approach fix and commence approach or descent as applicable. 12. Can you be vectored below the MSA? AIM 5-4-5 Yes, Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA) may be lower than the non-radar Minimum Enroute Altitudes (MEA), Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA), or other minimum altitudes depicted on charts for a given location including MSAs. MVA still gives you 1,000 obstacle clearance. 13. What does no ident on a VOR mean? AIM 1-1-13 Removal of identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received. 14. What is the width of federal airways? FAR 71.75 4 miles each side of the center line. 15. What must be done if navigational capability is lost enroute? AIM 5-3-3 Any loss of VOR, TACAN, ADF, LORAN, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communications capability should be reported to ATC. The report should include, aircraft identification, equipment affected, degree of impairment to navigation under IFR and any assistance required from ATC. 16. What is a problem with flying and navigating with internal navigation (RNAV, FMS, INS) and flying on a jet way, which is defined by two VORs very distant from each other? The shortest distance between two points on the earths surface is great circle distance. Longrange RNAV systems compute their courses as great circle routes, optimizing aircraft efficiency. Since both high and low altitude routes are straight line routes pilots must use caution since the RNAV course may place the aircraft outside of the airway limits. 17. What are the correct altitudes for eastbound flights above FL 290? Westbound? FAR 91.179 - From FL 290 up to FL 450, altitude separation increases to 2000 feet. Eastbound 4,000-foot intervals beginning at FL 290 (FL 290, FL 330, FL 370) Westbound 4,000-foot intervals beginning at FL 310 (FL 310, FL 350, FL 390)

18. You are at FL310 and have a crossing restriction to be at or below 14,000 15 DME from the DEN VOR. When will you start your descent? (Difference in altitude X 3 + Restriction) 17 x 3 = 51 + 15 = 66. Begin descent at 66 DME to be at or below 14,000 by 15 DME. If there is a speed restriction, add 1 NM for each 10 knots to lose. 19. Convert Mach number to groundspeed. Mach Mile/min Gnd speed 0.8 8 480 0.7 7 420 0.6 6 360 0.5 5 300 0.4 4 240 0.3 3 180 Mach number approximates miles per minute traveled. Miles per minute X 60 = Ground speed. 20. What is the difference between transition flight level and transition altitude? Transition Altitude is the altitude near an airport at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to MSL altitudes, FL 180 in the US (JEPP Plates) 21. What are limiting factors in selecting a cruise altitude for a turbojet airplane? Must cruise at or below an altitude that allows a buffet margin of 1.3G or more and not at an altitude greater than can allow the aircraft to be able to climb at least 300 fpm Eastbound - FL290, 330, 370, 410, 450 Westbound FL310, 350, 390, 430 22. What are considerations, not limitations, for selecting a cruise altitude? ATC Requirements, best specific range altitude/speed/Mach, wind, tropopause height (turbulence) 23. You are at FL260, and the Captain leaves the cockpit, what actions are you required to take? FAR 121.333 Must don oxygen mask when one crewmember leaves his station for any reason when operating above FL 250. 24. What should ISA be at FL350? Standard lapse rate 2 degrees C per 1,000 feet Standard temp at Sea Level 15 degrees C 35 X 2 = 70 15 = - 55 C 25. What information is shown on an en route high altitude chart? Jet routes, identification and frequencies of radio aids, selected airports, distances, time zones, special use airspace and related information. Established routes from 18,000 feet MSL to FL 450 use NAVAIDS not more than 260 NM apart. (Revised every 56 days)

HOLDING 1. What are the holding airspeeds for different altitudes in a turbojet aircraft? AIM 5-3-7 Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) through 6,000 feet Above 6,000 through 14,000 feet Above 14,000 feet 2. When does timing begin for the outbound leg? AIM 5-3-7 Outbound timing begins over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. 3. Is it required to report entering holding even if in radar contact? AIM 5-3-7 Yes, pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight level at which the aircraft reaches the clearance limit and report leaving the clearance limit. 4. How soon from the holding fix should you reduce to holding speed? AIM 5-3-7 3 minutes or less from the clearance limit, to cross the fix initially at or below the maximum holding airspeed 5. What are the standard timed leg lengths of a holding pattern at all altitudes? AIM 5-3-7 Inbound leg should be 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet MSL and 1 minutes above 14,000 feet MSL. 6. How are timing adjustments made and with relation to what? AIM 5-3-7 Timing for outbound legs should be adjusted to achieve appropriate inbound leg time. 7. What is the standard direction of turn for holding? AIM 5-3-7 Right turns 8. In NDB holding, when does timing begin? AIM 5-3-7 Outbound leg timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. 9. What are the standard holding entry procedures? AIM 5-3-7 Parallel, Teardrop and Direct 10. If holding at the IAF and communications are lost, when should you begin your descent for the instrument approach? FAR 91.185 Commence the descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time or as close as possible to the ETA as filed or amended by time enroute. (If the holding fix is not an IAF for an approach, proceed as above to a fix that is an IAF) 11. At 15,000' told to hold non-standard. What are the speeds, leg length and direction of turn? Max speed 265, 1 1/2 minute legs inbound, left turns 200 KIAS Maximum 230 KIAS Maximum 210 KIAS if published 265 KIAS

APPROACH 1. Approach Brief ASA (ICEATM) P ATIS STACK CHECK Twist NAV, Tune NAV radios, ID across panel APPROACH BRIEF ID plate and primary navaid Course inbound Entry (vectors/full approach) Altitude review (DA/DH or MDA) Times Missed approach point and instructions PRELANDING CHECKLIST 2. What are standard takeoff minimums? FAR 91.175 Weather must be at or above minimums for the IFR takeoff prescribed for that airport. If there are no takeoff minimums published, the following applies: Aircraft with two engines or less One statute mile visibility Aircraft with more than two engines statute mile visibility 3. You are on the glidepath and weather drops below minimums, what do you do? FAR 121.651 No pilot may continue an approach past the final approach fix unless the latest weather report reports the visibility to be equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure. If a pilot has begun the final approach segment, (past GS intercept/OM) that pilot may continue the approach to DH or MDA. Must still have visibility to land 4. Compute VDP using either timing or DME. Timing Drop last number in HAT, which gives the seconds (600 HAT = 60 seconds) Add time to FAF point (60 seconds from FAF would be VDP) Distance HAT divided by 300 equals the distance from the end of the runway to MAP based on where the NAVAID is located in relation to the runway threshold. (600 HAT / 300 = 2, VDP is 2 miles from the end of the runway). Rate of descent Divide groundspeed by 2 and add a 0. (Ex. GS=140kts, 140/2=70, Rate of descent = 700fpm on 3 degree glideslope) 5. How many miles out can you use a VASI and what airspace associated with the VASI will provide obstruction clearance? AIM 2-1-2 The lights are visible from 3 to 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night, it provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold. 6. What is the maximum distance and airspeed in a procedure turn? AIM 5-4-8 the normal procedure turn distance is 10 miles and maximum speed of not greater than 250 KIAS 7. When is a procedure turn not required/authorized? AIM 5-4-8 When symbol NoPT is shown, when Radar Vectoring is provided, holding pattern in lieu of PT, timed approach, or procedure turn is not authorized. 8. What is the maximum airspeed within 4 NM of a Class C primary airport? AIM 3-2-4 At or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of a primary airport of a Class C airspace area, maximum indicated airspeed is 200 KIAS.

9. When does centerline lighting begin alternating red and white? AIMS 2-1-5 at 3,000 from the end of the runway, viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with the red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all lights are red. 10. What is required to execute a visual approach/contact approach? AIM 5-4-20- Visual Approach Conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. Pilot must have the airport or preceding aircraft in sight. Must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility. Weather must be greater than 1000/3. ATC may authorize a Visual Approach when it will be operationally beneficial. AIM 5-4-22 Contact Approach Conducted on IFR flight plan, must be clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions. Must be specifically requested by pilot, reported ground visibility at destination airport is at least 1 statute mile, and the airport has a standard or special instrument approach procedure. 11. What is the MSA ring and what does it guarantee? AIM 5-4-5 Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA) is based on the primary omni directional facility on which the IAP is predicated. (LOM for ILS IAPs) MSAs are expressed in MSL and normally have a 25NM radius. MSAs provide 1,000 feet clearance over all obstructions but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage. 12. What are the course guidance parameters for a localizer? AIM 1-1-10 Localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18NM from the antenna between an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest terrain along the course line and 4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site, 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18NM and from 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10NM 13. Where is the FAF on a precision approach? AIM Glossary Glide slope intercept or when ATC directs lower than published Glide slope/Path Intercept Altitude; it is the resultant actual point of the Glide slope/Path Intercept. 14. What is a HAT? FAR 97.3 HAT means height above touchdown and used for straight in approaches. The height of DH or MDA above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone (TDZE) (first 3,000 feet of runway) 15. What is the HAA? FAR 97.3 HAA means height above airfield and used for circling approaches. The height of the MDA above the published airport elevation 16. What is TCH? AIM 1-1-10 Published glide slope threshold crossing height The height above the runway threshold that an aircrafts glide slope antenna should be, if that aircraft remains on a trajectory formed by the four mile to middle marker glide path segment.

17. What is the displaced threshold used for? AIM 2-3-3 The portion of the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction or landings from the opposite direction. 18. While shooting an approach to a short runway, what factors would you consider? ATP Test Prep Runway length, contamination, wind, aircraft weight and slope 19. What climb and descent rates does ATC expect? AIM 4-4-9 Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate between 500 and 1,500 FPM until the assigned altitude is reached. 20. When going missed approach inside the FAF but before the MAP, what should you do? AIM 5-4-19 Fly the IAP as specified on the approach chart to the missed approach the MAP at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. 21. When is descent below the MDA or the DH authorized? What defines the runway environment? FAR 121.651 A pilot may continue the approach below DH or MDA and touch down if The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard IAP being used. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (RRVATT) (RWY REIL, VASI, ALS, THRESHOLD, TDZ) Approach light system, threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, runway end identifier lights, VASI, touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings, touchdown zone lights, runway or runway markings, runway lights. 22. What are the basic components of an ILS? FAR 91.175 (LGOM-I) The basic ground components of an ILS are the localizer, glideslope, outer marker, middle marker and for CAT II or CAT III IAPs an inner marker. 23. When can an ILS RVR of 2400 be reduced to 1800? AIM 1-1-10 If there is touchdown zone and centerline lighting available. 24. On ILS glideslope headwinds increase, what adjustment must be made? Raise the nose of the aircraft and add power, thereby reducing the descent rate to maintain glideslope. 25. What is your descent rate on the glideslope given a ground speed? The descent rate in FPM for a 3-degree glideslope is roughly 5 times your groundspeed in knots. 26. When cleared for an approach, when can you descend from the last assigned altitude? AIM 5-4-7 Maintain the last assigned altitude unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC, or until the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or IAP. 27. If visual reference to a runway is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach what actions should the pilot take? AIM 5-4-19 The pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

28. How much separation is required when landing behind a heavy jet? AIM 7-3-9 Heavy behind heavy 4 miles Large/heavy behind 757 4 miles Small behind 757 5 miles Small/large behind heavy 5 miles (May have been updated to 4 miles)

29. What is RVV? AIM Glossary Runway Visibility Value. The visibility determined for a particular runway by a transmissometer. 30. What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REILS)? AIM 2-1-3 REIL provides rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. REILs are a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on either side of the runway threshold. 31. What is the significance of solid red centerline lights? AIM 2-1-5 Runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet, white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet and the lights are red for the last 1,000 feet. 32. What is the frequency range for localizers? AIM 1-1-10 There are 40 channels from 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 33. What does VASI-L mean on an approach chart? Jeppesen VASI found on the left side of the runway only, not both sides. 34. What are the CAT I, II and IIIa initial minimums? AIM 1-1-10 CAT I DH 200 feet and RVR 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet) CAT II DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. CAT IIIa- No DH or DH below 100 feet and RVR not less than 700 feet 35. What runway lighting must be operative for a CAT II approach? Jeppesen - ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 sequenced flashing lights, high intensity runway lights (HIRL), approved touchdown zone lights and runway centerline lights. 36. Define an LDA and SDF AIM 1-1-9c The Localizer type Directional Aid (LDA) is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer (3 to 6 degree course width) but does not have a glide slope and is NOT aligned with the runway. Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) may or may not be aligned with the runway, does not have a glide slope and course width is 6 or 12 degrees. 37. What does a flashing red light on a PLASI indicate? What about a steady red light? AIM 2-1-2 The slightly below glide path indication is a steady red light. If the aircraft descends further below the glide path the red light starts to pulsate. 38. What speed does ATC expect you to fly when departing in Class B airspace? (turbojet) Not less than 230 KIAS, no more than 250 KIAS below 10,000

39. In CAT I operations, once at minimums, when can you descend to 100 above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)? If the approach lights are visible and identifiable, the pilot can use them as a reference to descend. If the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable, the pilot may continue and land. In addition, if at any time the following come into view, the pilot may also continue to descend to land: the threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, runway identifier lights (REIL), VASI, TDZ or TDZ markings, TDZ lights, runway or runway markings, runway lights. (RRVATT) For dispatch a turbojet must be able to land within 60% of the effective length of the runway to be used, both destination and alternate; and must have 115% runway available of dry braking distance if the runway is expected to be wet or slippery, or vis is expected to be less than 3/4 SM or 4000' RVR. Yes, standard turbojet landing minimums are 3/4 SM, but can use 1/2 SM or 1800 RVR in Cat I operations if there is 115% dry runway braking distance and there are runway lighting operable. 40. You are IMC on the ILS and the glideslope goes out, what do you do? Go missed. The aircraft is not set up for the LOC approach profile, which will not put the aircraft in a position to make a normal approach and normal landing. (Verify IMC, if VMC use the VASI and shoot a visual approach) 41. What is the definition of a stabilized approach? Aircraft in landing configuration, engines spooled, rate of descent not to exceed 1,000FPM and airspeed Vref plus additives. Aircraft must be in stabilized approach by 1,000 AGL. 42. What are braking action reports and advisories? The quality of braking action is reported as good, fair, poor, nil or a combination of these terms. When reporting the type of braking action use descriptive terms that are easily understood (i.e. braking action poor the first half of the runway). Braking action reports are classified according to the most critical term and are issued as a NOTAM (D). In addition, ATC will include Braking action advisories are in effect on the ATIS broadcast. 43. How would you determine your descent rate on an ILS if given your airspeed? (Assuming 3 degree glideslope) 5 X Airspeed = Rate of descent. Airspeed / 2 (add 0) = Rate of descent 5 X 140 = 700 fpm 140 / 2 =70(0) =700 fpm

44. What speeds do ATC expect a turbojet to be at when above 10,000' nearing approach control, below 10,000', within 20 NM of the airport when approaching? Below 10,000 No more than 250 KIAS Between 10,000 FL 280, no less than 250 KIAS or equivalent Mach Below 10,000 No less than 210 KIAS, except within 20NM of airport of intended landing, then no less than 170 KIAS 45. Can you descend below the floor of class B airspace? Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, any person operating a large turbine powered airplane to or from a primary airport shall operate at or above the floors while within the lateral boundaries of Class B airspace. AIM 3-2-3 b 4 46. Shown a Jepp plate, ILS minimums 2400 RVR/1/2 mile, 200' DH. The weather is 100' overcast, 1/2 sm. You are outside the final approach fix can you make the approach? Under Part 121 can make the approach. The limiting factor is the visibility not ceiling. As long as the visibility is greater than or equal to the visibility prescribed for the approach you can shoot the approach.

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47. Jepp plate, does runway have any PAPI's or VASIs? What are the lengths and the widths? VISUAL DESCENT POINTS There is a very quick way of getting exact timing to the VDP that assumes a 120KT GS or 2 miles per minute. If you look at your height above touchdown [The one in parenthesis] say, 496'. Your time to subtract for precise timing to the VDP would be 49 sec. Simply use the first two digits of the HAT to get your timing. This is based on ground speed not IAS, so for an average 10kt wind down the runway you need an IAS of 130kts for this to work accurately. Glide slope wears a hat" (HAT/GS = miles out for VDP) e.g. HAT =600', glideslope is 300'/NM, 2 miles out "The 10% rule" (time out for VDP is 10%of HAT) e.g. HAT = 600', 60s Here is a good rule of thumb for calculating rate of descent for a 3-degree glide slope. Take your ground speed, divide by two then add a zero. Ex. Ground speed=140 kts. 140/2=70 Rate of Descent 700 FPM

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AIM AND FAR 1. Define Class A Airspace Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Unless otherwise authorized, all pilots must operate their aircraft under IFR. 2. Define Class B airspace. AIM 3-2-3 Generally, the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nations busiest airports, they are individually tailored and consist of a surface area and two or more layers. (Resembles upside down wedding cake) 3. What is the maximum airspeed in Class D airspace? AIM 3-2-5 Unless otherwise approved by ATC 200 knots. (Within 4NM of primary airport, and at or below 2500) 4. When is a destination alternate required under Part 121? FAR 121.619 (1,2,3 Rule) No alternate is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them indicate The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet AGL and visibility will be at least 3 miles. 5. When is a takeoff alternate required under Part 121? FAR 121.617-If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holders Operations Specifications (OPSPECS). 6. How far away can a departure alternate be for an aircraft with two engines? FAR 121.617 Not more than one hour from the departure point at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative 7. What are the instrument currency requirements? FAR 61.57 Pilot must have performed and logged, in the last 6 calendar months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems. If these requirements are not met, a pilot may not act as PIC unless he passes an instrument proficiency check representative of the instrument rating practical test. The proficiency check must be in an aircraft or flight simulator appropriate to the aircraft category. 8. When is a destination alternate required? FAR 121.169-(Domestic Operations) Within 1 hour prior to 1 hour after ETA, forecast weather must be 2000/3. (1,2,3 Rule) 9. What are the alternate weather minimums? FAR 121.617 As per the certificate holders OPSPECS FAR 91.169 Weather forecast at the estimated time of arrival must be at or above: For an airfield with a precision approach procedure-600 ceiling and 2SM visibility For an airfield with a non-precision approach procedure-800 ceiling and 2SM visibility 10. When does your medical certificate expire? FAR 61.23 First-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of the sixth month of the date of examination shown on the certificate for operations requiring an ATP.

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11. Define Special VFR. AIM 4-4-5 An ATC clearance is required before operating within Class B, C, D, or E surface area when the weather is below VFR. All special VFR flights must remain clear of clouds; visibility requirements are at least 1 SM. ATC does not provide separation after an aircraft leaves surface area airspace. SVFR is prohibited by FW aircraft between SS and SR unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR. 12. What does an alternating red/green light signal from the tower mean on that ground and in the air? FAR 91.125 (S=surface, F=flight) Steady Green S-Cleared for takeoff F-Cleared to land Flashing Green S-Cleared to taxi F-Return for landing (will be followed by steady green) Steady Red S-Stop F-Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Flashing Red S-Taxi clear of runway in use F-Airport unsafe, do not land Flashing White S-Return to starting point on airport F-NA Alternating Red and White S and F- Exercise extreme caution 13. When are shoulder harnesses required? FAR 91.105 During TO, landing and while enroute each crewmember shall be at his crew station with safety belt fastened (unless absence is necessary for the aircraft operation or physiological needs). Crewmembers will keep his shoulder harness fastened while at his assigned duty station during takeoff or landing. 14. What are the oxygen requirements for crew and passengers under Part 121? FAR 121.333 Flight Crew-While above FL 250 and at or below FL 410 each flight crewmember must be provided with an oxygen mask and shall wear the mask unless it is of a quick-donning type (within 5 seconds) (Acft with more than 30 seats of payload more than 7,500 pounds) While above FL 250, if for any reason, at any time, one pilot leaves his station at the controls, the remaining pilot shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot returns. Passengers-From 10,000 up to and including FL 250 the aircraft must be able to descend safely to a flight altitude of 14,000 feet or less within 4 minutes, oxygen must be available for a 30minute period for at least 10 percent of the passenger cabin occupants. If an aircraft cannot descend to 14,000 in 4 minutes or if it is operated above FL 250, oxygen must be available for not less than 10 percent of the passenger cabin occupants for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 up to 14,000. There must not be less than a 10-minute supply for the passenger cabin occupants. Passengers must be briefed before flight above FL 250, including necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, location and demonstration in the use of oxygen dispensing equipment. 15. Define cruise clearance. AIM Glossary- Authorizes pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. Pilot may level off at any altitude specified in the clearance or climb/descend at his discretion. If the pilot reports leaving an altitude he may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance

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16. What parts of a clearance must be read back? AIM 4-4-6- Make a written record of the clearance, the fact that ATC specifies different or additional considerations means that other aircraft are involved. Pilots should read back altitude assignments or vectors as a means of mutual verification and include the aircraft identification in all readbacks and acknowledgements. Readback altitudes, altitude restrictions and vectors in the same sequence as they are given. Do not readback altitudes in charted procedures (DPs or instrument approaches) unless specifically stated by ATC. 17. What are the tolerance limits for a VOR check on the ground and in the air? FAR 91.171-Operational check within the preceding 30 days and +or- 4 degrees on the ground, +or- 6 degrees over an airborne checkpoint, dual VOR system must be within +or- 4 degrees of each other. 18. What does TCAS II provide? AIM 4-4-15- Provides traffic advisories (TA) and resolution advisories (RA). RAs provide recommended maneuvers (climb and descend only) to avoid traffic. Aircraft with 31 passenger seats or more use TCAS II equipment 19. What factors determine the minimum number hand fire extinguishers required for flight under FAR Part 121? FAR 25.851Passenger Capacity 7.30 31.60 61.200 201.300 301.400 401.500 501.600 601.700 Extinguishers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

20. What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000? FAR 91.117- 250 KIAS 21. In an emergency, if a clearance is deviated from, how long do you have to make a report? FAR 121.557- Pilot in command shall send his report within 10 days of returning to his home base. 22. When does radar service normally terminate? AIM 5-4-10- Radar service is automatically terminated upon completion of the approach, or when the pilot is instructed to change to advisory frequency. 23. What information is contained in FDC NOTAMS? AIM 5-1-3- Information that is regulatory in nature, i.e. amendments to published IAPs or other current aeronautical charts, temporary flight restrictions due to natural disasters or large scale public events. 24. How far apart do runways have to be to conduct simultaneous approaches to parallel runways? AIM 5-4-14 Simultaneous parallel ILS/MLS approaches require radar monitoring by final monitor controllers to ensure separation between aircraft on parallel runways with centerlines separated by 4,300 to 9,000 feet.

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25. Enroute Charted IFR altitudes (MEA, MOCA, MRA, MCA and MAA) AIM Glossary Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude (MEA)- Lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. MEA applies to the entire width of the route. Communication is not necessarily guaranteed with MEA compliance. MEA can have break in signal coverage but will have note MEA GAP parallel to the affected airway. Usually bi-directional, but can be unidirectional (arrows are used to indicate one-way routes) Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)- Lowest published altitude in effect on airways, off airway routes or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR. MOCA is listed below the MEA and preceded by an asterisk. (i.e. *2500) Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA) Used with an intersection that is fixed using an off-airway NAVAID. MRA is the minimum altitude that provides signal coverage. However, if the aircraft is DME equipped and the chart indicates the intersection can be fixed using DME, the intersection could be defined without reaching the MRA. Indicated on charts by MRA followed altitude (i.e. MRA 9300) Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) Used when a higher MEA route segment is approached, usually indicates rising terrain and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised. The pilot is required to initiate a climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed. MCA is shown with Victor airway number and direction to which it applies. Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) The highest altitude at which the airway can be flown without receiving conflicting navigation signals from NAVAIDS operating on the same frequency. Chart depictions appear as MAA 15000. 26. Approach Charted Altitudes (DA, DH, MDA, MSA) Decision Altitude (DA) A specified altitude in a precision approach charted in MSL, at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference has not been established. Decision Height (DH) A specified altitude in a precision approach charted in HAT at which a decision must be made either to continue the approach or to execute a missed approach. Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)- Lowest altitude (MSL) to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle to land maneuvering in execution of a non-precision approach. Minimum Safe/Sector Altitudes (MSA)- Provide 1,000 feet clearance over all obstacles but do not necessarily assure acceptable navigation signal coverage. Published for emergency use on IAP charts, based on the primary omni directional facility on which the IAP is predicated (LOM for ILS IAP, RWY WP for RNAV, APT WP for straight-in approaches, APT WP for circling approaches, MAWP for GPS approaches). MSAs are expressed in MSL and normally have a radius of 25 NM. Ideally, it has a single sector altitude but it may be divided into as many as 4 sectors no less than 90 degree in spread. Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA)- Prepared by ATC in locations where there are numerous different minimum IFR altitudes and radar is used. Each sector boundary is at least 3 miles from the obstruction determining the MVA. (Not charted) (Standard obstacle clearance altitudes provide 1,000 above the highest obstacle in nonmountainous and 2,000 in mountainous terrain.) 27. How long must the cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder be kept in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in termination of the flight? FAR 121.343- At least 60 days or longer upon the request of the Board or Administrator. 28. Who is required to report a deviation during an emergency? FAR 121.557 The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report to the Administrator within 10 days after the date of the emergency, the pilot-in-command shall send his report within 10 days after returning to home base.

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29. If ATC instructs you to turn immediately to a designated heading on takeoff, when do you turn? AIM 4-4-9 When a heading is assigned or turn is requested by ATC pilots are expected to promptly initiate the turn, complete the turn and maintain the new heading. The term IMMEDIATELY is used to impress urgency of an imminent situation and expeditious compliance by the pilot is expected and necessary for safety. 30. Must an overseas flight in a turbojet aircraft provide a life preserver for each passenger? FAR 121.339 Yes, life preserver with an approved survivor locator light for each occupant of the airplane 31. When can you commence an approach? Part 121 operators may not commence the approach if the visibility is not at or above the minimum visibility for that approach. (Visibility is controlling, not ceiling) If the approach has commenced and the aircraft has passed the FAF, and the visibility goes below minimums, the aircraft may continue to the missed approach point and descend to minimums. HOWEVER, this does not guarantee a landing. 32. How do you determine if you have the visibility to land? If the runway has RVR, it is controlling. Reported visibility from ATIS, Use the approach lights, runway TDZ lights and their lengths to determine visibility in addition to runway markings, threshold markings, fixed distance markings, runway centerline lights, runway edge lights. (See Jepp for distances for markings and lights) 33. What radio calls are required under IFR in a radar environment? FAR 91.183 Time and altitude at designated reporting points, if requested by ATC, unforecast weather, safety of flight information, malfunction of navigational, approach or communication equipment. For holding, time and altitude reaching and leaving the clearance limit. Read back of altitudes, altitude restrictions and vectors/headings.

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WEATHER 1. Be able to read a weather strip to include METAR. AIM 7-1-11 METAR KABC 121755Z AUTO 21016G24KT 180V240 1SM R11/P6000FT RA BR BKN015 OVC025 06/04 A2990 RMK AO2 PK WND 20032/25 WSHFT 1715 VIS 3/4V1 VIS RWY11 RAB07 CIG 013V017 CIG 017 RWY11 PRESFR SLP125 P0003 60009 T00640036 10066 21012 58033 TSNO $ (WHERE, WHEN WIND) TYPE OF REPORT: METAR: hourly (scheduled) report; SPECI: special (unscheduled report. STATION IDENTIFIER KABC Four alphabetic characters, ICAO identifier. DATE/TIME 121755Z All dates and times in UTC, two digit date followed by 4 digit time in 24 hour format. REPORT MODIFIER AUTO Fully automated report. Not present when observer signed on. WIND DIRECTION AND SPEED 21016G24 180V240 Direction from TRUE north then speed in knots. G=gusts. 00000KT = calm. If direction varies by 60 degrees or more, variable wind direction group is reported (180V240) VISIBILITY 1SM Prevailing visibility in statute miles and fractions. If < reported as M . RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE R11/P6000FT 10- minute RVR value in hundreds of feet, reported if prevailing visibility is < or = 1 mile or RVR < or = 6000 feet. M or P prefix to indicate value is lower or higher than the reportable value. WEATHER PHENOMENA -RA BR RA-liquid precipitation that does not freeze, SN-frozen precip other than hail, UP-precip of unknown type. Prefix (-) light, no prefix-moderate, (+) heavy. FG-fog, FZFG-freezing fog (temp below 0 C), BR-mist, HZ-haze, SQ-squall, FC-funnel cloud/tornado/waterspout, TS-thunderstorm, GR-hail, GS-small hail <1/4 inch, FZRA-freezing rain, VA-volcanic ash. SKY CONDITION BKN015 OVC025 Cloud amount and height. SKC-clear, no clouds below 12,000 feet, FEW-few 0-2/8 coverage, SCT-scattered 3-4/8 coverage, BKN-broken 5-7/8 coverage, OVC-overcast 8/8 coverage, all followed by 3 digit height in hundreds of feet or vertical visibility (VV) TEMPERATURE/DEW POINT 06/04 Reported in degrees C, negative values reported with prefix M (minus) ALTIMETER A2990 Always prefixed with A, indicating inches of mercury. REMARKS IDENTIFIER RMK TORNADIC ACTIVITY Not in example Should include tornado, funnel cloud or waterspout, time begin/end, location and movement (TORNADO B25 N MOV E) TYPE OF AUTOMATED STATION AO2 AO2-automated station with precipitation discriminator

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PEAK WIND PK WND 20032/25 Direction in degrees, speed in knots and time. (200 degrees at 32 knots at 25 past the hour) WIND SHIFT WSHFT 1715 Wind shift at 1715Z TOWER OR SURFACE VISIBILITY Not in example Visibility reported by tower personnel, TWR VIS 2; Surface visibility reported by ASOS, SFC VIS 2 VARIABLE PREVAILING VISIBILITY VIS 3/4V1 Reported if visibility is <3 miles and variable (Visibility variable to 1 ) VARIABLE PREVAILING VISIBILITY AT SECOND LOCATION VIS RWY11 Reported if different than the reported prevailing visibility in body of report. LIGHTNING Not in example When lightning is detected the frequency and location is reported (FRQ LTG NE) BEGINNING AND ENDING OF PRECIPITATION AND THUNDERSTORMS RAB 07 Rain began at 7 minutes past the hour. VIRGA Augmented precipitation not reaching the ground. VARIABLE CEILING HEIGHT CIG 013V017 Reported if ceiling in body of report is < 3,000 feet and variable (Ceiling 1300, Variable 1700) CEILING HEIGHT AT SECOND LOCATION CIG 017 RWY 11 Reported if second ceilometer site is different from that in the body of the report. PRESSURE RISING OR FALLING RAPIDLY PRESRR OR PRESFR Pressure rising or falling rapidly at time of observation. SEA-LEVEL PRESSURE SLP 125 Sea level pressure in millibars (hectopascals) to the nearest tenth. 125 = 1012.5 millibars. Place a 10 or 9 in front of number, should be the number closest to 1000.0 HOURLY PRECIPITATION AMOUNT P0003 Precip in .01 inches since last METAR, a trace is P0000 3-AND 6-HOUR PRECIPITATION AMOUNT 60009 Precip amount in .01 inches for past 6 hours reported in 00, 06, 12 and 18 UTC observations and for past 3 hours in 03, 09, 15 and 21 UTC observations. Trace is 60000 24-HOUR PRECIPITATION AMOUNT Precip amount in .01 inches for past 24 hours reported in 12 UTC observations, e.g. 70015 HOURLY TEMPERATURE AND DEW POINT T00640036 Temperature and dew point in tenths of degrees Celsius (Temp. 6.4 C, DP 3.6 C) 6-HOUR MAXIMUM TEMPERATURE 10066 First number is 1. Maximum temperature to tenth of degree over past 6 hours. 6-HOUR MINIMUM TEMPERATURE 21012 First number is 2. Minimum temperature to tenth of degree over past 6 hours

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24-HOUR MAXIMUM AND MINIMUM TEMPERATURE 400461006 First number is 4. Maximum and minimum temperature over past 24 hours in tenth of degree Celsius. Reported at midnight local time. PRESSURE TENDENCY 58033 First number is 5. The character and change in pressure over past 3 hours. SENSOR STATUS INDICATORS RVRNO-RVR missing, PWINO-precip identifier information not available, PNO-precip amount not available, FZRANO-freezing rain information not available, TSNOthunderstorm information not available, VISNO [LOC]- visibility at secondary location not available. (VISNO RWY06) CHINO [LOC] (cloud height indicator) sky condition at secondary location not available (CHINO RWY06) MAINTENANCE CHECK INDICATOR $ Maintenance needed on the system. If an element or phenomena does not occur, is missing, or cannot be observed, the corresponding group and space are omitted from that particular report except for Sea-Level Pressure which will be reported as SLPNO. 2. What constitutes a ceiling? AIM Glossary- Lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena that is reported as broken, overcast or obscuration and not classified as thin or partial. 3. What are the different TYPES of turbulence? Clear Air Turbulence- vicinity of the jet stream Wake Turbulence- behind another aircraft Convective Turbulence- vicinity of thunderstorm activity Mechanical Turbulence- near the surface around large structures and around mountain waves at altitude. 4. Define microburst and list its visible signs. AIM 7-A microburst is a small downburst with outbursts of damaging winds extending 2.5 miles or less. An intense microburst could induce wind speeds as high as 150 knots. GENERAL- may create a severe hazard for aircraft within 1,000 of the ground, particularly the approach to landing, landing and takeoff phases. The aircraft may encounter a headwind (performance increasing) followed by a downdraft and tailwind (both performance decreasing), possibly resulting in terrain impact. The only indication of a microburst may be a wind shear PIREP. SIZE- typically less than 1 mile in diameter below the clouds to approximately 2 miles in diameter as it expands or mushrooms just above the ground INTENSITY- downdrafts can be as strong as 6,000 feet per minute. Horizontal winds near the surface as strong as 45 knots resulting in a 90-knot shear. VISUAL SIGNS- Heavy rain shaft below a thunderstorm, light rain with virga or a ring of blowing dust DURATION- individual microburst seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground to dissipation. The horizontal winds increase the most during the first 5 minutes with peak winds lasting 2 to 4 minutes. Once microburst activity starts, multiple micro bursts in the same general area are not uncommon and should be expected 5. Define a wind shear and how to give a PIREP. AIM 7-1-21 Wind shear is a change in wind speed and/or direction in a short distance resulting in a tearing or shearing effect. It can exist in a horizontal or vertical direction and occasionally in both. Thunderstorms, temperature inversions and jet stream winds are common sources for wind shear. The recommended method for wind shear reporting is to state the loss or gain of airspeed and the altitudes at which it was encountered. (DENVER TOWER, CESSNA 1234 ENCOUNTERED WIND SHEAR, LOSS OF 20 KNOTS AT 400)

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6. What are the different CATEGORIES of turbulence an how are PIREPS made? AIM 7-1-20 - Pilots are urgently requested to report turbulence to ATC as soon as practicable stating the following: aircraft location, time of occurrence in UTC, turbulence intensity, whether turbulence occurred in or near clouds, aircraft altitude or flight level, type of aircraft, duration of turbulence. (OVER OMAHA, 1232Z, MODERATE TURBULENCE, IN CLOUDS, AT FL 3110, B707). High-level turbulence, normally above 15,000MSL, not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as Clear Air Turbulence (CAT). Reporting terminology-Occasional-less than 1/3 of the time, Intermittent-1/3 to 2/3, Continuousmore than 2/3 LIGHT TURBULENCE- causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, LIGHT CHOP- causes slight, rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude. Occupants may feel a slight strain against seat belts, unsecured objects may be displaced slightly, food service may be conducted and little or no difficulty in walking. MODERATE TURBULENCE- similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity, changes in aircraft altitude and/or attitude but aircraft remains in positive control at all times, usually causes variations in indicated airspeed. MODERATE CHOP- similar to light chop but of greater intensity, causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude. Occupants feel definite strains against seat belts, unsecured objects are dislodged, foodservice and walking are difficult. SEVERE TURBULENCE- causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude, usually causes large variations in indicated airspeed, aircraft may be momentarily out of control. Occupants are forced violently against seat belts, unsecured objects are tossed about, food service and walking are impossible. EXTREME TURBULENCE- aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control, may cause structural damage. 7. What conditions are conducive to wind shear formation? Wind shear can be expected on all sides of a storm cell. Low-level wind shear may be present near fronts because of the differing wind speeds and direction within the adjacent air masses. Depending on the movement and frontal slope, this shear may exist just after a cold front passage for a period of a few minutes to a few hours. The most critical period for a warm front is the last few hours before frontal passage. Amount of shear is usually much greater in warm fronts. 8. What are the go around procedures in wind shear? Immediately apply maximum power, increase pitch attitude in order to avoid contact with terrain, hold pitch attitude until clear of the wind shear condition, maintain current flap and gear configuration until clear of wind shear. Notify ATC. 9. How are ATIS and METAR winds listed: magnetic or true? AIM 7-1-11 METAR True North AIM 4-1-13 ATIS Magnetic North 10. What is the tower visibility equivalent of 1,600 RVR and 2,400 RVR? FAR 91.175 1,600 = mile, 2,400 = mile 11. What is an embedded thunderstorm? Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer or thick haze can produce embedded thunderstorms.

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12. Steady precipitation implies what type clouds and turbulence? Stratiform clouds and smooth air 13. What are the five types of fog and how do they form? All fog is formed in stable, moist air that has been cooled to its dew point. *RADIATION FOG ground radiates heat and cools which cools air above it. Calm clear nights *ADVECTION FOG- forms by air flowing over a cooler surface. Winds up to 15 kts, clear or cloudy skies UPSLOPE FOG- forms in air moving up sloping terrain. Light to moderate winds, clear or cloudy STEAM FOG- formed when cold air moves over relatively warm water or ground. ICE FOG- composed of minute suspended particles of ice and usually occurs at very low temperatures. PRECIPITATION FOG- forms when precipitation falls into cold air. *Two most common types of fog-Radiation and Advection 14. Where do squall lines perform? With very strong cold fronts, shock waves in the air might form like the ripples ahead of a boat on calm water; these shock waves are called squall lines. They act like miniature cold fronts and can contain most severe weather, 50 to 300 miles ahead of the front. 15. What causes the greatest accumulation of structural icing? Freezing rain causes the greatest accumulation of structural icing. It takes place in the presence of large super cooled water drops (freezing rain). 16. What conditions are required for a thunderstorm? Sufficient water vapor, unstable lapse rate, and an initial boost (lifting action) to start the storm process 17. What are the three stages and characteristics of a thunderstorm? Cumulus-Updrafts of 3,000 FPM, small drops growing to large in updraft. Building stage Mature-Downdrafts of 2,500 FPM and Updrafts of 6,000 FPM, rain reaches surface. Dissipating- Downdrafts only, rain ending. 18. What is the minimum recommended distance from a thunderstorm? At least 20 miles if circumnavigating or clear the top of the storm by 1000 feet for every 10 knots of wind speed at the top of the storm. Always deviate upwind to avoid the blow off effects of the storm 19. What actions should you take if you accidentally penetrate a thunderstorm? Tighten seat belt and secure loose objects, plan and hold course that will take you through the storm in minimum time, establish a penetration altitude below the freezing level or above the level of 15C to avoid icing, verify pitot heat and anti-ice are on, establish power setting for turbulence penetration airspeed, turn cockpit lights to highest intensity to lessen temporary blindness from lightning, disconnect autopilot to prevent undue stress on airframe, maintain level flight attitude, dont reverse course once in the storm, a straight course is most likely to get you out of the hazards more quickly and it prevents undue stress on the airframe 20. What is indicative of frontal passage? A wind shift and pressure change.

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21. What weather phenomena require issue of a SIGMET? Convective SIGMET? AIRMET? SIGMET Concerns weather significant to all aircraft Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms Dust storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering surface or in-flight visibilities less than 3 miles Volcanic eruptions Convective SIGMET Concerns convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft AIRMET In-flight weather advisory issued as an amendment to the area forecast, concerning weather phenomena of operational interest to all aircraft which are potentially hazardous to aircraft with limited capability due to lack of equipment, instrumentation or pilot qualifications. 22. What are the dynamics of a low-pressure system? A low is a pressure system in which the barometric pressure decreases toward the center and the wind flow around the system is counterclockwise. (Counterclockwise = cyclonic) Conditions in a low-pressure system include, low clouds, restricted visibility by precipitation and fog, strong and gusty winds and turbulence. 23. What is falling precipitation that evaporates before hitting the ground? Virga, which is a common occurrence in an arid climate 24. What type of weather is associated with a cold, warm and stationary front? Cold fronts tend to be faster than warm fronts with an increase in pressure. Cold fronts overtake and replace warmer air and produces showers and thunderstorms. Slower moving cold fronts contain embedded thunderstorms. COLD FRONT Unstable air Cumuliform clouds Turbulent air Good visibility Showery precipitation Warm fronts tend to move at half the speed of cold fronts but with comparable winds and a decrease in pressure. WARM FRONT Stable air Stratiform clouds and fog Smooth air Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke Steady precipitation A stationary front results when neither air mass replaces the other, it has little or no movement and the winds are nearly parallel to the front. 25. What do ice pellets indicate? Freezing rain 26. What is a standing lenticular cloud and what is its significance? Lenticular clouds are lens shaped clouds that form on mountain summits as a result of mountain waves and indicate strong turbulence. Although the cloud does not appear to move, the wind moving through the cloud is quite strong and should be avoided

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27. Define a mountain wave. Mountain waves occur when air is being blown over a mountain range. When the air hits the upwind side of the range it starts to climb, thus creating a generally smooth updraft that turns into a turbulent downdraft as the wind passes over the crest of the ridge. There will be a series of downdrafts and updrafts for many miles downwind. A wind as little as 15 knots at an intersection of not less than 30 degrees will form a mountain wave. 28. How does your wind drift angle change at cruise altitude as you cross frontal boundaries? In the northern hemisphere, after passing through a front, you will notice more wind from the right (or, less wind component from the left) causing a drift angle more to the left. This is due to the characteristics of frontal formation and does not depend upon the direction from which you entered the front. 29. What does 1013.2 mb equate to in inches of mercury? Standard atmospheric pressure at sea level (1013.2 millibars) 29.92 inches of mercury 30. What is required to clear advection and radiation fog? Winds stronger than 15 Knots 31. What are QNE, QNH, and QFE? QNE- Standard Pressure, 29.92 on altimeter QNH-Barometric pressure as reported by particular station QFE-Height above airfield based on local station pressure 32. What is the ICAO definition of fog, mist and haze or smoke? Fog numerous, minute water droplets near the earths surface, suspended in the atmosphere Drizzle same as fog, only drizzle falls to the surface Mist expression for drizzle or heavy fog Haze composed of fine dust or salt particles through the atmosphere, individual particles cannot be seen with the naked eye (like dust particles) Smoke restriction to visibility resulting from combustion 33. What are the ideal conditions for standing waves and where is the most severe turbulence likely to be found? A stable air stream disturbed by the mountains, wind speed at the summit of 15 to 25 knots, wind direction at least 30 degrees perpendicular to the mountains. The most severe turbulence is found in the rotor clouds, parallel to the range and a few miles leeward of the mountains.

34. Define icing conditions on the ground and in flight.

On the ground when the TAT is 10'C (50F) or less and visible precipitation such as rain, sleet, or snow or any standing water, slush, or snow. In the air in any visible moisture (including clouds or ice crystals) and the TAT is 10'C or less 35. Why is it important to know these numbers and conditions? My understanding was that wherever you get a pressure reduction in the engine air intakes you obviously get a lower temperature due to adiabatic cooling. This cooling can lead to ice formation even with temperatures above zero; in fact, prime engine icing for turbines is +3 to -5. Above +10 they are saying even with adiabatic cooling the temperature will remain above freezing so no ice will form. At temperatures of -40 or colder, the air contains so little moisture that although ice crystals form they do not present an in-flight hazard. All temperatures above are degrees Celsius

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36. What is true of the free air temperature of the troposphere? The troposphere is characterized by an overall decrease of temperature with increasing altitude 37. How do you know that you have entered the tropopause? There will be an abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate

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AIRCRAFT SYSTEM, TECHNICAL AND SITUATIONAL 1. Define V1, Vr, V2, and Vref. V1Takeoff Decision Speed - Highest calibrated airspeed that an airplane can accelerate to and stop within the accelerate/stop distance. The speed below which the takeoff must be aborted and the aircraft brought to a stop in the event of an engine failure. Above the V1 speed, the takeoff must be continued. VR Rotation Speed - The speed at which the airplane is rotated to the takeoff attitude. VR may not be less than V1 nor less than 105% (1.15) of Vmc. VR also allows reaching V2 before the airplane reaches a height of 35 feet above the takeoff surface. The speed must guarantee that it is fast enough so the airplane can fly with an engine inoperative and reach V2 by the end of the runway. Vmc is the minimum speed that the rudder is effective enough for you to control airplanes heading. VMU Minimum Unstick Speed- The minimum speed at and above which the airplane can safely lift off the ground and continue the takeoff. VMU is usually only done during certification of an airplane. The test pilot pulls full aft on the yoke at a slow speed and rotates the airplane to drag the tailskid along the runway. The indicated speed, at which the airplane starts to fly, is Vmu. Look at it like this, you are taking off and another airplane crosses in front of you on the runway. You are too fast to stop. If you went full power and pulled back on the yoke, your airplane would fly at the Vmu speed. Vlof - Liftoff Speed The speed at which the aircraft becomes airborne. If the aircraft is rotated at its maximum practical rate, Vlof must not be less than 110% (1.10) of Vmu with all engines operating nor less than 105% (1.05) of Vmu with one engine inoperative. V2min - Minimum Takeoff Safety Speed. This speed may not be less than 120% (1.20) of Vs (stall speed), or less than 110% (1.10) of Vmc. Again, this is for engine out operations. Simply put this guarantees you can hold your heading (Vmc) and will not stall. V2 - Takeoff Safety Speed. The speed that meets the required climb gradient with one engine inoperative. It cannot be less than V2min and must be attained before reaching the height of 35 feet. Vref- Landing Reference Speed is computed for every landing and is 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration (Vso). Vref increases with aircraft weight. V1 and all of the V speeds in large turbine airplanes are variable by mostly weight. Runway length is sometimes weight and climb segment restrictive, but it all comes down to aircraft weight as the primary determination of V speeds, so V1 is not a constant or fixed speed. Wet runway performance will usually dictate a reduction from dry performance at the same weight 2. What are the implications of an abort past V1? Aborting past VI invalidates the planned takeoff data and the protection and safety factors built into the criteria. Potential problems include: stopping beyond the end of the runway, hot brakes (melting fusible plugs deflating tires), fire due to hot brakes, controllability due to hot brakes/deflated tires, increased risk of evacuation for the passengers, increased response time for crash rescue if the abort results in stopping beyond the normal runway area. 3. If the left engine is inoperative, the runway choices are 18/36 and 12/30, and the winds are 210 at 30 knots, what runway should you use? Keep the good engine upwind and avoid turning the aircraft into the dead engine. In this instance, runway 18 is the correct choice. 4. How much ice accumulation on an aircraft is allowable before takeoff? None 5. What converts AC electrical power to DC electrical power? Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)

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6. What is balanced field length? Balanced field length is the accelerate-go distance is equal to the accelerate-stop distance. This distance cannot exceed the length of the runway to include the stop way. From a standing start you accelerate the airplane and knot below V1 you elect to stop (aborted or rejected takeoff), the airplane must be able to come to a complete stop before it runs out of runway. The distance for the airplane to accelerate up to V1 and then stop in the remaining distance on one engine is the same length as for the aircraft to accelerate normally up to V1 then continue the takeoff on one engine and climb to a height of 35. You will be in the same place after an engine failure, on the runway if you reject the takeoff or 35 above the same point if you continue the takeoff. 7. What is the maximum differential cabin pressure? The Turbine Pilots Flight Manual The main measure of pressurization system efficiency, it is the maximum ratio of cabin pressure to outside air pressure that the pressurization system and vessel can sustain. Factors include, pressure vessel design, engine bleed air capacity, aircraft weight and power considerations. Max dif determines maximum operating altitude defined by the FARs. (10,000 under FAR 135, 121 and 12,500 for Part 91) 8. What factors do you consider when completing a rejected takeoff? Abort speed, runway length, runway contamination, weight, thrust reversers, anti-skid, and brake temperature. 9. What is BOW? Basic Operating Weight includes the empty weight of the aircraft plus the required crew and other standard operating items such as meals, water etc 10. What is Zero fuel weight? Zero Fuel Weight is the basic operating weight plus the payload, i.e. passengers, baggage and cargo. This is a structural limitation; fuel in the tanks favorably redistributes aircraft structural loads. 11. What does the empty weight consist of? The Empty Weight includes the weight of the airframe, engines, all permanently installed equipment, unusable fuel and undrainable oil. It does not include crew payload or any other usable fuel. 12. What affects brake temperature? Weight, temperature, frequency of use and taxi distance 13. Upon landing with full reverse the aircraft yaws right, what do you do? Take both engines out of reverse, reapply brakes and rudder pressure, slowly bring thrust reversers back in. 14. List the correct sequence of events when starting a turbine engine. Air, Ignition, Fuel 15. What does a diffuser do? The Turbine Pilots Flight Manual -A diffuser is simply a divergent duct that slows the velocity of the impellers output air; thereby, increasing the air pressure before it enters the combustion chamber.

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16. What is an electrical relay? The Turbine Pilots Flight Manual Electrical relays serve to remotely control electric circuits carrying large amounts of current. 17. If there is no pressure differential in the cabin on climb out, what is the problem? There is a pressure vessel leak. 18. What will the EPR indications be after a bleed source is turned on? The will read lower. 19. What is the corrective action for a compressor stall? Reduce power on the affected engine and possibly the angle of attack. (Turn on bleed air items??) 20. What happens to the airspeed indicator when both the ram air and drain holes in the pitot system is blocked? The airspeed indicator acts like an altimeter. 21. What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator? Hydraulic accumulators store hydraulic pressure in order to provide backup hydraulic power for key operations in the event of a pump failure. They may also be used to control power fluctuations or surges in the system, similar to a battery. 22. What is the 60-1 rule? At 60 DME, there is 1 mile between each radial; at 30 DME, there is mile between each radial. 23. What is the preferred electrical source for large airplanes? Why? The preferred electrical source for large airplanes is AC, three-phase, 115 V, and 400 Hz. AC systems keep a constant current over long distances and AC motors run more quickly than DC 24. What would be your first reaction to low oil pressure in a turbojet engine? Increase thrust or engine speed, which increases oil pressure 25. What is a CSD? How does it work? A CSD is a Constant Speed Drive Unit. It is powered by an engine accessory drive and drives the AC generator. It maintains constant speed to drive generator at constant speed to maintain 400 Hz. As the engines speed increases to increase thrust, oil pressure goes up and vice versa which controls the CSD speed. 26. What is a PAC or ACM and how does it work? A PAC is a Pneumatic Air Conditioning Unit, (ACM is a Air-Cycle Machine) which operates by bleed air from the engines. It compresses the bleed air, then allows for expansion, which cools the air, then puts this conditioned air into the cabin through the manifold duct. This heats or cools and pressurizes the cabin. 27. What is N2? The speed (RPM or percent) of the high-pressure compressor of a dual compressor engine

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28. What does engine pressure ratio (EPR) measure? EPR measures the differential pressure ratio between the compressor inlet total pressure (Pt2) and the turbine discharge total pressure (Pt5) 29. What is the primary purpose of the oil-to-fuel heat exchanger? The primary purpose is to cool the oil. However, many aircraft also depend on the warming of the fuel in the process to prevent water precipitating out of it and freezing as ice crystals on the fuel filters. 30. Which engine instruments will indicate higher than normal if the compressor has damage? High EGT, TIT or fuel flow 31. What is the purpose of chines on aircraft tires, and what type of aircraft uses chine tires? Chines are deflectors built into the outboard sidewalls of aircraft nose gear tires to deflect water away from the intakes of jet engines. Aircraft with aft mounted engines have chined tires, since these engines are closer to the fuselage and behind the gear they are more likely to ingest water spray from the nose gear during take off and landing. 32. What is the purpose of fusible plugs in aircraft wheels? Fusible plugs are installed as a safety device to prevent tires from exploding after heat buildup from an aborted takeoff or maximum braking effort during landing. This may generate so much heat that the air in the tires expands enough to cause a blowout. The heat in the wheels melts the core of the fusible plug and allows a slower and safer deflation. Tires are also filled with Nitrogen to prevent a fire in case of a blowout. 33. What is the purpose of a rotary or static inverter? Converts DC power to AC 34. What is the function of the circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system? Circuit breakers protect the wiring, instead of the lights from too much current. 35. Which section of a turbine engine typically provides air for the pressurization and air conditioning systems? The engine compressor section 36. What is the most likely condition for turbine engine icing? Ice is most likely to form on the ground at high engine speeds. Dry air between 5 and 40 degrees F, with visible moisture between 5 and 45 degrees F. 37. What items would you highlight during a crew briefing for a takeoff into known icing conditions? Preflight planning- ensure calculated takeoff speeds were based upon adverse runway conditions and specific flap settings, coordinate a change in payload if needed, brief special items for takeoff V-speeds. De-icing Brief cabin crew on procedures for deicing and inform them that the flaps may not be positioned for takeoff until just prior to takeoff, have the FO visually inspect the wings just prior to takeoff, advise that the landing gear may have to be cycled once airborne to free it of slush and advise of an engine run-up just prior to takeoff to clear the engines of ice Additional Checklist Procedures- review with FO, de-icing, visual inspection, engine run-up, holdover time, taxiway and runway conditions, takeoff speeds, flap setting, engine EPR/N1, abort considerations, engine and wing anti-ice/de-ice procedures, bleed air considerations and use of continuous ignition.

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38. What are the errors of the altimeter? P I T H B L OT Pressure Error- Pressure error arises whenever true external static pressure is not being supplied to the altimeter. An error may occur during the operation of services, e.g. flaps, airbrake or undercarriage and during flight with these extended. The size of the error depends on the position of static vents. Corrections are published in the aircraft manual if they are significant. Instrument error- Instrument error is caused by manufacturing tolerances. It is usually insignificant. Transonic Jump- If a shock wave moves past the static vents during accelerations or decelerations, a rapid change in static pressure will occur. This gives an error that is similar to pressure error but which is usually much larger. Hysteresis Error- A metal capsule has imperfect elastic properties; after being expanded or contracted it may not exactly return to its original size when subjected to the original pressure. The error is small in practice with modern materials. Barometric Error- If a pilot flies from an area of high surface pressure to an area of low surface pressure without resetting the pressure datum the altimeter will over read. Conversely, an aircraft flying from low pressure to high pressure the altimeter will under-read. HI-LO-HI conversely LO-HI-LO Lag- The response of the capsule and linkage is not instantaneous so the altimeter needle lags causing under-reading during climbs and over reading during descents. The latter could be dangerous in a rapid descent. Most modern altimeters have an electronic amplifier that senses the rate of movement and almost anticipates the needle position there by greatly reducing any lag. Orographic Errors- This is a localized barometric error due to terrain. 1. Orographic low- is a result of air to sweep around high ground producing areas of low pressure to the lee of hills. 2. Venturi effect- the air that rises over high ground experiences a constriction owing to the tropopause 'barrier' a few miles above. As a result, a drop in pressure may result due to venturi effect. 3. Funneling- Air funneling between adjacent hills or valleys may also experience a drop in pressure due to venturi. 4. Orographic temperature error- that air that rises over high ground will cool adiabatically at a rate that is higher or lower than ISA assumed in calibration. This may induce an error causing the altimeter to over-read [When hill is clear of cloud] or under-read [When hill has cloud]. Temperature Error- Even when the correct pressure setting is used the altimeter will read accurately only if the vertical density reduction occurs in exact accordance with ISA assumed in the calibration. The magnitude of the error is approx. 4ft/1000ft for every 1degC that the air differs from ISA. (See footnote) This actually has some dramatic effects. Suffice to say for the moment the HI-LO-HI rule for pressure is true for temperature. If flying from warm air to cold climate the altimeter will over-read, a dangerous situation. One final error which though not strictly an error under a serviceable altimeter is blockage and leaks. While these are unusual blockages may occur if water gets into the pipe work and freezes or there is an obstruction i.e. insects. The effect is to cause the altimeter to lag, or if totally block to stay at the reading when the blockage occurred. With a leak it depends on where the leak is, if in pressurized compartment usually causes an under-reading, while in unpressurized compartments usually produce over-reading due to aerodynamic 'suck.' Footnotes Altimeter temperature error correction: Any deviation from ISA will result in an error proportional to the ISA deviation and the height of the aircraft above the aerodrome pressure datum. Tables of corrections are published and should be added to the published heights throughout the approach. When the aerodrome temperature is 0 deg C or colder temperature error correction should be considered inside the FAF. To give an example of the error. Airfield at sea level, temperature is - 20 deg C, MDH for VOR approach is 500 ft At 20 C the ISA deviation is -35. From the correction table a deviation of 35 and a height above the airfield of 500 ft equals a correction of 80 ft

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What this means is that 80 ft needs to be added to the MDH so that when you look up at the new altitude [MDH] your true height will be 500 ft. If you had a step down fix say at 1000', the correction that needs to be applied then is 140' to maintain satisfactory separation from obstacles. When a pilot decides to apply a correction, they must advise ATC of their intention and of the correction to be used. Pilots may refuse IFR assigned altitudes if the altimeter temperature error will reduce obstacle clearance below acceptable minima. Mach Meter Errors A mach meter is an air speed indicator and altimeter combined. It measures the ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure and only those errors in the measurement of this ratio will affect the mach meter. There are only two such errors, Pressure error and instrument error. Instrument error is manufacturing tolerances. Pressure errors due to operation of services [Except airbrake] occur at a speed range where mach number is of little interest and can thus be ignored. 39. What are errors of the common airspeed indicator? PICD Pressure Error- sighting of the static vent as with the altimeter may cause errors with certain services. This will be allowed for in testing the aircraft by the test pilot to make sure the established indicated speed is safe. Instrument error- Manufacturing tolerances, usually insignificant. Compressibility Error- At low speeds air behaves as an incompressible fluid, however, above . 4M or 300 KTS TAS the air becomes increasingly compressible resulting in a greater dynamic pressure in the pitot tube and an over reading on the ASI. Density Error- the ASI is calibrated for standard MSL density, therefore for any other value of air density the ASI will not indicate True Air Speed. As altitude increases, density decreases, therefore dynamic pressure and so the indicated speed will become progressively lower then the TAS. Blockage and leaks, again while not an error on a serviceable ASI need to be thought about. The effect will be dependent whether upon the blockage or leak is in the static or the pitot system. 40. What is the definition of absolute ceiling and service ceiling? Service ceiling is that altitude which coincides with a climb rate of 100 FPM at max climb power. Absolute ceiling is when the maximum climb power can only maintain level flight. In other words there is no excess power, the power available equals the power required. 41. The Captain sends you on the walk around; you notice on both main gears that all the tires have wear on the outside but little on the inner tread. What can you reasonably deduce from this and tell the Captain? Under inflated tires will show more wear on the shoulders then in the center due to the tire buckling up from runway contact. 42. What is the emergency descent requirement of a passenger-carrying airliner? Above 10,000 feet, must have enough oxygen for a constant rate descent from the aircrafts maximum operating altitude to 10,000 feet in 10 minutes followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 feet. 43. What piece of emergency equipment must be within three feet of a fire extinguisher? Crash Ax? Megaphone? 44. How often must a crewmember operating in passenger carrying Part 121 service attend emergency training and drills? Once each 24 calendar months

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AERODYNAMICS 1. Compare indicated, calibrated true and airspeeds. INDICATED AIRSPEED-the actual instrument indication for some given flight condition. Factors such as altitude other than standard sea level, instrument errors, installation errors, compressibility etc., may create great variance between the instrument and actual flight speed. CALIBRATED AIRSPEED-the result of correcting IAS for errors mentioned above. TRUE AIRSPEED-the equivalent airspeed corrected for air-density variation from ISA. TAS increases with altitude while IAS remains the same. 2. Will landing roll be longer on a standard day or a high-density day? An increase in DA will increase the TAS but will not alter the brake action required. (3.5% landing distance increase for each 1,000 feet of altitude. 3. Define region of reverse command. It is the region of flight speeds below maximum endurance airspeed (L/Dmax) where an increase in speed requires an increase in power. 4. What is parasite and induced drag? Parasite drag is from components of the airplane (fuselage, tail, nacelles, etc.), which contribute to drag because of their own form and skin friction. Induced drag results directly from the production of lift. It is greatest at low airspeeds and decreases in a smooth curve. 5. How does Vmc change with altitude? At sealevel, Vmc increases. At high altitude, Vmc decreases. 6. Why does a tailwind increase takeoff roll? A tailwind requires the airplane to achieve a greater ground speed to attain lift off speed. (A tail wind which is 10% of the take off airspeed will increase the TO distance approximately 21%) 7. When a runway is contaminated, what speed is affected? A contaminated runway will reduce the V1 speed. With a contaminated runway, you will want to achieve V1 sooner to allow for more runway to brake if the takeoff is aborted. The term "contaminated runway" refers to weather related runway surface conditions caused by ice, snow or rain. The Part 25 and 121 term is wet or slippery for airplane performance on takeoff and landing. Most Boeing (for example) performance charts reduce V1, for any given weight for takeoff, by 15 knots on a wet or slippery runway. This reduction of V1 will provide the same stopping distance within the accelerate-stop distance of a dry runway V1 speed. Of course, there are weight limits to a given runway. 8. What is the effect of winglets? On a normal wing, air tends to flow from the under wing high-pressure area around the wing tip to the wing-top low-pressure area resulting in reduced left. Winglets restrict airflow around the wing tips, and improve the effective span of a wing and therefore its lift. Aircraft performance is improved especially at altitude. 9. When are wing-tip vortices most severe? AIM 7-3-3 Wing-tip vortices are the most severe during takeoff, climb and landing. The intensity or strength of wing-tip vortices is directly proportional to the weight of the airplane and inversely proportional to the wingspan and speed. (Heavy and slow airplane has greater AOA and stronger wing-tip vortices)

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10. When can a runway be considered essentially dry for performance when there is rain or drizzle? Considerations: Runway Length Wind Aircraft Weight Density Altitude landing distance increases 3.5 % per 1000ft of Altitude. Slope Anti-Skid and Tire Pressure (9x SQ ROOT) Dynamic Hydroplaning Brake Temp and Thrust Reverse Application Delay vs. Immediate Add this for swept wing landing on a contaminated runway. Be on target speed. Each 10 kts of excess speed can cause 500' more stopping distance. Be on glide slope. 50' high can cause 1000' more stopping distance. Land firmly. Do not try to "grease it on. Too smooth of a landing on a contaminated runway can add to landing distance and cause reverted rubber hydroplaning. Check spoilers did deploy, manually deploy them if not. Failure to deploy spoilers can increase landing distance by 250% of dry braking distance. Mains down then nose down quickly to shift the vertical weight on the main wheels for more efficient braking. Use medium braking and maximum reverse until a slower speed is reached that may cause FOD damage to the engines 11. Flying 200 knots, what bank angle would you use for a standard rate turn (3 degrees per second)? 200/10 + 10 = 30 degrees 12. What two factors affect lift in a turn? Angle of attack and airspeed (Same factors as in straight and level flight) 13. What do vortex generators do? Vortex generators are small vertically projecting wing like devices placed on top of the wing surface ahead of control surfaces. They slow the airflow over the surface of the wings to cause a small vortex so that the control surface will be more effective in high-speed flight. They delay the separation of the laminar airflow to give greater control effectiveness. 14. What are the pros and cons of a swept wing? PROS-Swept wings delay the affects of compressibility allowing the airplane to travel at a higher Mach number, while the perceived airflow over the wing is lower. (Higher critical mach) CONS1. Reduced coefficient of lift. Most jets have sophisticated high lift devices to ensure low takeoff and landing speeds. 2. Swept wing airplanes have a tendency to stall at the wing tips first because the thin outer portion of the wing is designed with a smaller angle of attack than the thicker portion near the root. As the wingtip stalls, aileron effectiveness is decreased. The nose of the airplane pitches up. 15. What is Dutch roll? If a swept wing jet yaws, the advancing wing is at a higher AOA and presents greater span to the air stream than the retreating wing. This causes the aircraft to roll in the direction of the initial yaw and simultaneously reverse it direction of yaw. After rolling in one direction, the yawing causes a roll into the opposite direction. Yaw dampers built in the rudder(s) sub-system counter Dutch roll. 16. What affects indicated stall speed? Stall speeds will vary by weight, load factor, and power. An airplane will always stall at the same angle of attack.

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17. What does a wing dihedral provide? Provides positive static lateral stability. When one wing is lower than the other, wing dihedral causes the lower wing to produce more lift, causing a rolling moment around the longitudinal axis returning the aircraft to straight and level flight. 18. What is mach tuck? Shock induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept-back wing may result in a severe diving moment due to the center of pressure moving aft on the wing and decreasing the downwash on the horizontal tail. This causes the nose of the airplane to nose down and accelerate until airframe failure. Recovery requires slowing the aircraft by throttle reduction, pitch change or increasing drag. Many aircraft have Mach trim compensators that track airspeed and automatically apply up-elevator to slow the aircraft if Mach tuck is projected. 19. Can you cruise further on one engine or two engines in a twin turbojet aircraft? In the event of an engine failure the aircraft must descend and suffer a loss of range, however turbojet airplanes is generally overpowered at L/Dmax and a loss of an engine will not cause a significant change in maximum endurance. 20. How does frost affect stall speed? Frost disrupts airflow across the wing but creates greater disturbance than ice accumulation because the frost is irregular and jagged. It is particularly hazardous at low airspeeds during take-off and landing. Frost increases stall speed. 21. What defines and determines a critical engine in a twin-engine aircraft? The loss of the engine whose thrust line is closest to the centerline of the aircraft would more adversely affect the performance and handling of the aircraft. 22. What minimum airspeed should you climb out at after losing an engine? V2 is the minimum speed for initial climb out. 23. What is load factor? The ratio of the lift developed by an airplane to its weight. 24. Define angle of attack. Angle of attack is the angle measured between the relative wind and the chord of the airfoil. 25. What are the characteristics of an aircraft loaded at the aft limit? An aircraft loaded toward, but within its aft limits has faster cruise because of tail down force. When the aircraft is loaded aft, less tail down force is required to achieve aircraft balance. Therefore, an aft-loaded aircraft requires less lift than one loaded forward does giving a faster cruise speed and a better climb rate. Advantages of rearward CG: An airplane will cruise faster with an aft CG because of reduced drag. A rearward CG requires a smaller angle of attack, reduces drag and increases fuel economy. 26. How do CG shifts affect stall and cruise speeds? The CG position influences the lift and angle of attack of the wing, the amount and direction of force on the tail, and the degree of deflection of the stabilizer needed to supply the proper tail force for equilibrium. The airplane will stall at a higher speed with a forward CG location. The increased wing loading also results in slower cruise speeds.

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27. When is wake turbulence generated? AIM 7-3-4 Wake turbulence is generated from the moment an aircraft leaves the ground until it touches down, since trailing vortices are a by-product of wing lift. 28. What are the three types of hydroplaning? Dynamic Hydroplaning: Aircraft rolls over standing water on the runway; the tire forms a bow wave, then jumps the step onto the wave and is no longer in contact with the runway. It will start at a speed 9 times the square root of the tire pressure. (I.e. airplane has a tire press of 190 psi, the square of 190 is 13.78, and multiply that by 9 = 124 knots). Viscous Hydroplaning: Thin film of water or slick runway from fuel, oil or rubber can cause hydroplaning at much lower speeds. Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning: A locked wheel skid on a damp runway. Small amounts of water trapped between the locked tire and the runway will be heated by friction, creating steam. The tire rides this pocket of steam with minimal contact with the runway. 29. What is critical Mach number? Critical Mach is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing. Subsonic: Mach below 0.75 Transonic: Mach 0.75 to 1.20 Supersonic: Mach 1.20 - 5.00 Hypersonic Mach above 5.00 30. What is the limiting Mach number? The maximum operating speed in relation to the speed of sound 31. How does altitude affect Mach number? Mach number is equal to TAS divided by the speed of sound. As altitude increases so does TAS, however, speed of sound decreases. Therefore, Mach number will increase as altitude increases. 32. What should a pilot do to maintain best range airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? Decrease cruise speed with a tailwind and increase cruise speed with a headwind 33. When are outboard ailerons used? Low speed flight of a swept wing airplane requires more control input, so when the flaps are extended, the outboard ailerons are activated. In high-speed flight, less aileron control is needed, or desired because at high speeds, the outboard ailerons create aerodynamic loads that tend to twist the wingtips. Therefore, with flaps up, the outboard ailerons are locked in the "Zero" position and are not activated. Outboard ailerons are locked out at higher airspeeds. 34. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? As a jet burns fuel, its maximum range can be maintained by climbing to improve the specific fuel consumption and by slowing down to stay closer to the optimum L/D ratio. 35. What is chord line? A straight line connecting the leading and trailing edges of an airfoil

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36. What is Boundary Layer? Air encounters resistance when flowing over a surface. This reduces the velocity of the airflow and is greatest immediately adjacent to the surface, this area is called the boundary layer. 37. What is mean camber line? The line drawn halfway between the upper and lower surfaces of an airfoil that gives two equal sections. (A curved line) 38. What is center of pressure? The point along the chord line where the distributed lift is effectively concentrated 39. What is load factor? Lift divided by total weight, measured in Gs 40. What is compressibility? The greater the speed of an object moving through the air, the greater the air density and air pressure directly in front of it and the less smooth the flow of the air around it.

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