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1
Alternative 2: $1,000 IRP
Send your $ on a
round trip to
S$/£
Step 2:
Interest Rate Parity Defined
Britain
Invest those
pounds at i£ z The scale of the project is unimportant
$1,000 Future Value =
$1,000 $1,000
× (1+ i£) $1,000×(1 + i$) = × (1+ i£) × F$/£
S$/£ S$/£
Step 3: repatriate
Alternative 1: future value to the
invest $1,000 at i$ U.S.A. F$/£
$1,000
× (1+ i£) × F$/£ (1 + i$) = × (1+ i£)
$1,000×(1 + i$) = S$/£
S$/£
IRP
Since both of these investments have the same risk, they must
have6-6the same future value—otherwise an arbitrage
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Interest Rate Parity Carefully Defined IRP and Covered Interest Arbitrage
z Depending upon how you quote the exchange rate If IRP failed to hold, an arbitrage would exist. It’s
($ per ¥ or ¥ per $) we have: easiest to see this in the form of an example.
Consider the following set of foreign and domestic
1 + i¥ F¥/$ 1 + i$ F$/¥ interest rates and spot and forward exchange rates.
= or =
1 + i$ S¥/$ 1 + i¥ S$/¥
Spot exchange rate S($/£) = $1.25/£
360-day forward rate F360($/£) = $1.20/£
…so be a bit careful about that U.S. discount rate i$ = 7.10%
British discount rate i£ = 11.56%
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2
Alternative 2: Arbitrage I
buy pounds
IRP and Covered Interest Arbitrage £1
£800
Step 2:
£800 = $1,000×
$1.25 Invest £800 at
A trader with $1,000 could invest in the U.S. at 7.1%, in one i£ = 11.56%
year his investment will be worth $1,000 £892.48 In one year £800
$1,071 = $1,000 × (1+ i$) = $1,000 × (1,071) will be worth
Step 3: repatriate £892.48 =
Alternatively, this trader could to the U.S.A. at £800 ×(1+ i£)
1. Exchange $1,000 for £800 at the prevailing spot rate, F360($/£) =
Alternative 1: $1.20/£
2. Invest £800 for one year at i£ = 11,56%; earn £892,48. invest $1,000 $1,071 F£(360)
3. Translate £892,48 back into dollars at the forward rate at 7.1% $1,071 = £892.48 ×
£1
F360($/£) = $1,20/£, the £892,48 will be exactly $1,071. FV = $1,071
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Step 2: Arbitrage I
buy pounds
£1
£800
Step 3:
Arbitrage Strategy II
£800 = $1,000×
$1.25 Invest £800 at
i£ = 11.56% If F360($/£) < $1.20/£
$1,000 £892.48 In one year £800
will be worth i. Borrow £800 at t = 0 at i£= 11.56% .
£892.48 =
£800 ×(1+ i£)
ii. Exchange £800 for $1,000 at the prevailing spot
Step 4: repatriate
to the U.S.A.
rate, invest $1,000 at 7.1% for one year to achieve
Step 1: $1,071.
borrow $1,000 More F£(360)
Step 5: Repay than $1,071 $1,071 < £892.48 ×
£1
iii. Translate $1,071 back into pounds, if
your dollar loan
with $1,071.
F360($/£) < $1.20/£, then $1,071 will be more
If F£(360) > $1.20/£ , £892.48 will be more than enough to repay
than enough to repay your debt of £892.48.
your dollar obligationCopyright
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3
Step 2:
buy dollars Arbitrage II
$1.25
£800 IRP and Hedging Currency Risk
$1,000 = £800× Step 1:
£1
borrow £800
$1,000 You are a U.S. importer of British woolens and have just ordered next
More Step 5: Repay year’s inventory. Payment of £100M is due in one year.
Step 3: your pound loan
Invest $1,000 than Spot exchange rate S($/£) = $1.25/£
£892.48 with £892.48 . 360-day forward rate F360($/£) = $1.20/£
at i$
Step 4: U.S. discount rate i$ = 7.10%
repatriate to British discount rate i£ = 11.56%
the U.K.
In one year $1,000 IRP implies that there are two ways that you fix the cash outflow to a
F£(360)
will be worth $1,071 $1,071 > £892.48 × certain U.S. dollar amount:
£1 a) Put yourself in a position that delivers £100M in one year—a long
forward contract on the pound.
You will pay (£100M)(1.2/£) = $120M in one year.
If F£(360) < $1.20/£ , $1,071 will be more than enough to repay b) Form a forward market hedge as shown below.
your dollar obligationCopyright
6-18
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4
Transactions Costs Example Purchasing Power Parity
z Try borrowing $1.000 at 5%: z Purchasing Power Parity and Exchange Rate
z Trade for € at the ask spot rate $1.01 = €1.00 Determination
Invest €990.10 at 5.5% PPP Deviations and the Real Exchange Rate
5
Expected Rate of Change in Exchange Expected Rate of Change in Exchange
Rate as Inflation Differential Rate as Interest Rate Differential
z We could also reformulate
our equations as inflation or F($/€) 1 + π$ F($/€) – S($/€) i$ – i€
= = ≈ i$ – i€
interest rate differentials: S($/€) 1 + π€ E(e) = S($/€) 1 + i€
F($/€) – S($/€) 1 + π$ 1 + π$ 1 + π€
= –1= –
S($/€) 1 + π€ 1 + π€ 1 + π€
F($/€) – S($/€) π – π€
E(e) = = $ ≈ π$ – π€
S($/€) 1 + π€
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6
International Fisher Effect International Fisher Effect
If the Fisher effect holds in the U.S. If the International Fisher Effect holds,
1 + i$ = (1 + ρ$ ) × E(1 + π$) 1 + i¥ E(1 + π¥)
=
and the Fisher effect holds in Japan, 1 + i$ E(1 + π$)
1 + i¥ = (1 + ρ¥ ) × E(1 + π¥)
and if the real rates are the same in each country and if IRP also holds
1 + i¥ F¥/$
ρ$ = ρ¥ =
1 + i$ S¥/$
then we get the F E(1 + π¥)
1 + i¥ E(1 + π¥) then forward rate PPP holds: ¥/$ =
International Fisher Effect: 1 + i = E(1 + π ) S¥/$ E(1 + π$)
$ $
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7
Technical Approach Performance of the Forecasters
z Technical analysis looks for patterns in the past z Forecasting is difficult, especially with regard to
behavior of exchange rates. the future.
z Clearly it is based upon the premise that history z As a whole, forecasters cannot do a better job of
repeats itself. forecasting future exchange rates than the forward
z Thus it is at odds with the EMH rate.
z The founder of Forbes Magazine once said:
“You can make more money selling financial
advice than following it.”
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