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* EASA Mod 13 Questions
EASA Mod 13 Questions
Thu, Sep 2 2010 01:48am IST 1
Reshmin Sakia
Reshmin Sakia
42 Posts
* Sign up Now!
c) 180
Answer:C
5. What is power at pulse?
a) Peak power
b)Pulsed power
c) Average power
Answer:A
6. What frequency increases radar relative range?
a) High
b)Low
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change
Answer:B
7. If radar pulse is reduced there is
a) increased relative range
b)reduced relative range
c) no effect
Answer:C
8. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,
resistance would be
a) 80 ohm
b)160 ohm
c) 0 ohm
Answer:
9. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
a) 3 ft error
b)6ft error
c) 12 foot error
Answer:C
10. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the
a) widest width
b)narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends
Answer:C
This is exam number 4.
1. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot
if any failure is detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a
single failure
Answer:C
2. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
a) QDH
b)QDM
c) QDR
Answer:B
3. During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
b)radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
Answer:B
4. The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
a) roll errors
b)localiser deviation errors
c) heading errors
Answer:C
5. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control
a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
b)the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
Answer:C
6. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
a) only when autopilot is engaged
b)after glideslope capture
c) at any time
Answer:B
7. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as
the
a) decision height
b)intercept height
c) alert height
Answer:A
8. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b)operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of
200 meters
Answer:C
9. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b)three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
Answer:C
10. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing
equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
b)no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
Answer:B
This is exam number 5.
1. The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response
b)produce a co-ordinated turn
c) block the Dutch roll frequency
Answer:C
2. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system
will disconnect
a) all channels
b)the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
Answer:B
5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
b)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
Answer:B
6. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed
and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
b)the electronic interface units (EIU)
c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
Answer:C
7. What type of memory do CMCs have?
a) Volatile
b)Non-volatile
c) Hard
Answer:B
8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for CofG
b)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
Answer:B
9. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
a) Higher than its IAS
b)Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
Answer:A
10. The stall margin is controlled by
a) EPR limits
b)speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position
Answer:A
This is exam number 9.
1. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle
a) only with the Flight Director selected
b)With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS)
engaged
c) only after take off
Answer:C
2. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of
a) electronic engine control unit only
b)electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
Answer:B
3. A FADEC system does not have the following system?
a) An automatic starting capability
b)Control of thrust reverser operation
c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
Answer:C
4. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?
path signals
Answer:A
9. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal
accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
b)1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8
Answer:B
10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the
a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b)ground radio aids must be at CAT III
c) ILS system must be working
Answer:C
This is exam number 10.
1. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an
autothrottle system is
a) mandatory
b)a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
Answer:A
2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated
a) automatically
b)by a selector on the throttle control panel
c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum
Answer:C
Answer:C
8. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) the system degrades to CAT II
b)the autoland is continued
c) a go-around is initiated
Answer:C
9. The order of autoland approach is
a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b)GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
Answer:A
10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
a) assist with localiser tracking
b)assist with glideslope tracking
c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
Answer:C
This is exam number 11.
Answer
1.
10
C
B
A
B
1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot
7
8
10
B
A
1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a
a) simplex system
b)duplex system
c) dual-dual system
10
B
B
C
A
1. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
b)decreased
c) is the same
2. A Master Warning is issued when
a) overspeed and cabin altitude occurs
b)cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
5
6
10
A
C
1. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
a) 50 ohms
b)20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively
2. TAS uses which inputs
a) Pitot and Static
10
A
A
C
B
1. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of
a) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively
b)1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090mhz
2. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried
out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus
a) 1 degree
b)3 degree
c) 5 degree
5
6
10
A
B
1. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to
a) excessive charging current
b)insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage
2. An autopilot interlock circuit is to
a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
b)disconnect the system if a fault appears
c) both a & b
3. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a
a) green colour
b)amber
c) red colour
b)120 nm
c) 140 nm
10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
b)090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
This is exam number 17.
Answer
1.
10
A
B
A
A
1. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is
a) an accelerometer
b)a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator
2. The units of vibration are measured in
a) phons
b)decibels
c) relative amplitude
3. A fuel flow measurement system can be adjusted for
a) maximum flow rate
b)minimum flow rate
c) cannot be adjusted
4. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
a) true north and magnetic north
7
8
10
A
A
1. During flare mode autothrottle will
a) retard throttles to idle
b)disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust
2. A CSD is monitored for
a) low temperature and high oil pressure
b)high temperature and low oil pressure
c) high temperature and high oil pressure
3. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the
reward travelling blades pitch angle?
a) Increases
b)Decreases
c) No change
4. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected
a) it is centralized by a spring
b)its control is maintained by electric trim
c) it is centralised by the airflow
5. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?
a) 115v ac
b)200v ac
c) High voltage stepped up
6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
a) zero
b)full scale deflection
c) centre scale
7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
a) increase capacitive reactance
b)increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
8. Float fuel gauge system is
a) adjusted when tanks are full
b)adjusted when tanks are empty
c) cannot be adjusted
9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
a) bulkheads
b)longerons
c) frame
10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
a) excessive electrical loading
b)high charge current
c) low charge current
This is exam number 19.
Answer
1.
10
B
C
B
B
1. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1.
a) This is normal
b)You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx
2. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would
carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
b)damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks
3. The specific gravity readings of a lead acid cell taken twice after
charging shows substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b)You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell
4. Suppressor line is required for
a) ATC and DME only
b)TCAs only
c) all L band equipments including TCAS
5. Differential GPS requires
a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b)4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter
6. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
b)4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
7. When the captain calls attendant
a) a high/low chime and pink light comes on
b)a low chime and blue light comes on
c) a high chime and pink light comes on
8. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received
a) a designated light comes on
b)a selcall light along with a chime comes on
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
b)the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected
10. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
a) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift
b)aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle
This is exam number 20.
Answer
1.
8
9
10
B
B
1. IDG output voltage
10
B
A
1. Shock stall is a flap down stallis a flap down stalloccurs at high
speeds
a) is a flap down stall occurs at high speeds
b)occurs at high speeds occurs at high speeds
forceentrifugal force
b)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
a) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
b)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
c) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal
forceentrifugal force
B
B
C
1. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
b)a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
2. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic
conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main
earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b)1 ohm
c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less
3. Mach trim in some aircraft assists
a) longitudinal stability
b)lateral stability
c) vertical stability
4. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central
Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
a) it must be installed on LH side
b)it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side
5. Main electric pitch trim is controlled by
a) a switch on control wheel
b)a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
c) a wheel on the centre pedastal
6
7
10
B
B
1. Purpose of the bellcrank is to
a) transmit motion
b)reverse direction and transmit motion
c) adjust friction
2. In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means
of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
b)to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimise power losses
3. DH is based on
a) aircraft characteristics
b)experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC
4. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is
corrected by
a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b)mercury switches on the outer ring
10
B
B
A
A
1. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
b)the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
2. Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
3. Spring Tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
b)move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
4. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of
a) 20 degrees per millisecond
b)30 degrees per millisecond
c) 15 degrees per millisecond
8
9
10
B
A
1. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
b)It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north
2. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b)When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
3. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC
a) records all faults in volatile memory
b)records all faults in non-volatile memory
c) all memory is erased when aircraft lands
4. A helicopter autopilot uses
a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b)barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
5. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Radio deviation
b)Glideslope deviation
c) Course deviation
10
B
B
C
C
1. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?
a) To prevent corrosion
b)To prevent precipitation static
c) To provide lightning protection
2. What is a versine signal attenuated with?
a) Increase in airspeed
b)Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude
3. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do
with the control switch? Select it to
a) OFF
b)AM
c) either USB or LSB
4. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
b)8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
5. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b)FROM
c) Neither
6. What does the Radar contour button do?
a) Alter the beam shape
b)Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
7. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b)25 miles
c) 40 miles
8. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
b)Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
9. What controls are used in response to PVD display?
a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b)Control wheel
c) PVD control unit
10. DME transponder transmits on receipt
a) of any interrogation
b)of pilot input command request
c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
6
7
10
A
C
1. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P
a) does not move
b)moves freely along the length of the blade
c) is insignificant
2. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is
a) 16ft
b)12ft
c) 28ft
3. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of
a) 12bits
b)64bits
c) 24bits
4. The rotor cone is formed by
a) blade alignment
b)centrifugal force and lift
c) centrifugal force only
5. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path
a) balance
b)restore
c) align
Answer
1.
10
B
B
C
C
1. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should
consider
a) power requirements
b)the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables
2. GPS has
a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b)24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9
3. Audio select panel voice switch
a) allows voice ident of DME
b)cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident
4. GPS frequency is
a) 1575 GHz
b)1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz
5. Radio switches are normally
a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b)latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
9
10
B
B
1. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
b)speed decrease
c) height decrease
2. Back beam is captured
a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b)this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
3. With a bonding meter
a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to
item
b)the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
c) it does not matter which lead goes where
4. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b)lower
c) higher or lower
5. Flight director incompatible modes are
a) VOR and glideslope
b)heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold
6. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
b)120 nm
c) 130 nm
7. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b)c/a code and P code
c) P code only
8. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a
helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
b)design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
9. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
a) rad alt to barometric
b)rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
10. On power up, the IRS obtains position
a) latitude from previous position
b)longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position
This is exam number 32.
Answer 1.
2
10
C
10
C
C
A
1. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of
a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
b)5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
b)attitude of aircraft
c) rate of yaw
8. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed
a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b)in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
c) to assist the up going aileron
9. Glideslope deviation signals are
a) DC polarity sensitive
b)AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only
10. A triplex system loses one channel
a) pilot can continue with autoland
b)pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land
This is exam number 34.
Answer
1.
2
10
C
C
1. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b)50% authority
c) 10% authority
2. Stall warning will be given
a) before stall
b)after stall
c) at stall
3. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central
maintenance function (CMF) is to
a) log relevant maintenance data
b)transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
4. How are spoilers normally operated?
a) Hydraulic actuator
b)Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
5. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to
permit the
a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude
without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel
system forces
b)pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
6. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause
a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b)one generator always comes on line before the other
c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
7. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline
battery
a) in the aircraft
b)when the battery is fully charged
c) in the charging room only
10
B
B
1. When paralleling two AC generators
a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in
sequence ABC
b)it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in
either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase
2. The neutral shift sensor ensures that
a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the
stabiliser
b)after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
3. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to
a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b)prevents slip and skid in yaw
c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
4. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signals
b)integrating deviation signals
c) integrating course error signals
5. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer
would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b)the pointer to read mid scale
c) the pointer to read full scale
6. The instantaneous VSI is designed to
a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b)use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
7. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
b)decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
8. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
b)longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
9. The glideslope equipment operates in the
a) HF band
b)UHF band
c) VHF band
10. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b)aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
This is exam number 36.
Answer
1.
10
A
A
B
C
1. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the
navigation receiver are
a) DC
b)AC
c) pulsed DC
2. Fuel quantity test set consists of
a) resistance decade
b)capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
3. EICAS provides the following
a) engine parameters
b)engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
4. The stabiliser is set to high setting when
a) the flaps are moving down
b)the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
5. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
b)passive
c) simplex
6. DSR TK (desired track) means
a) the bearing to capture the track
b)a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track
7. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from
a) the barometric alt capsule
b)a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
7
8
10
A
B
1. The normal axis on a helicopter is
a) straight down the rotor head
b)at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head
2. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used
a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
b)make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume
c) under swing
9. Loran C Uses
a) 16 Khz
b)20 Mhz
c) 100 Khz
10. The amount of travel of a series actuator is
a) 50% of control movement
b)10% of control movement
c) full control movement
This is exam number 38.
Answer
1.
10
B
A
B
C
1. GPS Telemetry consists of
a) week number and time label
b)satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information
2. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum
flap at
a) 90o
b)180o
c) 0o
3. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by
a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
b)JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
4. The rotor disc is
a) the distance between tip to tip
b)the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
5. A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
b)the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting
6. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What
is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b)0o
c) 180o
7. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation
signal is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
b)fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
8. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b)below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
8
9
10
A
B
1. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b)G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
2. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b)visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
3. During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
b)all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
4. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will
a) disconnect all channels
b)disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach
5. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will
a) retard throttle to idle.
b)disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.
6. Roll out mode occurs
a) after flare
b)before flare
c) at alert height
7. High and low signal to voter are
a) averaged
b)removed
c) added
8. Basic monitoring is function of
a) voting
b)signal comparison
c) signal summing
9. In series rudder system
a) the pilot cannot input to the system
b)the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input
10
B
A
1. In parallel rudder system,
a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
b)The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
2. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel
amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b)DC
c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
3. An increase in mach number will cause the
a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
b)Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
4. If one FMS fails in a duel system
a) system operation will not be affected
b)FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
This is exam number 41.
Answer
1.
10
C
B
1. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b)Radio deviation
c) Course deviation
2. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct
sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
b)Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
3. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
b)When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
4. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
10. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b)25 miles
c) 40 miles
This is exam number 42.
Answer
1.
10
A
A
B
B
1. With a spring balance control system you can
a) move the control surface on the ground
b)move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground
2. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
a) 50 ohms
b)20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
3. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
b)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
4. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral position
b)controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position
7
8
10
C
C
1. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?
a) 12,000ft
b)5,000ft
c) 18,000ft
2. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the
aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
a) Left Rudder
b)Right Rudder
c) No Rudder
3. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what
will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b)It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
4. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?
a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b)Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
b)Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
This is exam number 44.
Answer
1.
10
C
A
A
B
1. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b)They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They disappear out of view
2. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?
a) Normal
b)Longitudinal
c) Lateral
3. The neutral shift system augments control of the
a) stabiliser
b)elevator
c) spoilers
4. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes
a) thetwo elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up
b)all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
a) 0.5 ohms
b)1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms
This is exam number 45.
Answer
1.
5
6
10
A
10
A
C
B
A
1. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?
a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b)Control of the speed of the rotor blades
c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
2. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?
a) Disturbances
b)Velocity
c) Pressure changes
3. With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when
the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b)It moves in the same direction as the control surface
c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
4. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control
surfaces?
a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b)Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection
5. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical
Speed by
a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
b)using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
1.
6
7
10
B
C
1. ADF is
a) Rho
b)Theta
c) Rho-Theta
2. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
b)absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
3. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
a) relative air flow
b)tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
4. If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b)the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
5. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b)2 - 6 GHz
c) 100 KHz
6. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack
10
B
B
C
B
1. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?
6
7
10
A
B
1. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is
a) semi rigid
b)rigid
c) fully articulating
2. Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b)4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
3. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
b)cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
4. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b)Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature
c) Press relief valve
5. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure.
This is achieved by
a) webs
b)outer plate
c) inner plate
6. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?
a) 60
b)63
c) 1000
7. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
10
A
A
B
A
1. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
a) certain parameters
b)with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC
2. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere
9
10
C
A
1. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b)can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
2. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA
will
a) increase
b)decrease
c) remain
10
B
B
A
1. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
b)Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
2. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?
a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b)Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
3. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?
a) Heading error
b)Course error
c) Radio deviation
a) aerodynamic damping
b)the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
10. ADF operates within which frequencies?
a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b)118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32KHz - 64 KHz
This is exam number 53.
Answer
1.
10
B
C
1. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
a) Roll out
b)Flare
c) Touchdown
2. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is
a) DME Freq
b)LNAV
c) CRZ
3. Mode C response is
a) 21 microseconds
b)12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds
4. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude
reporting system?
10
A
?
1. WX radar display the time base is
a) saw tooth wave form
b)trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form
2. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost,
following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
b)stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
3. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is
a) to increase GS signal
b)to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal
4. A helicopter needs to re-trim
a) indication is shown on the API
b)indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator
10. DME how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b)Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
This is exam number 55.
Answer
1.
10
C
B
1. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a
dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohmmeter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b)200 ohms
c) more than 20 megohms
2. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect
a) ADI
b)Flight director computer
c) both of the above
3. A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
b)a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns
of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade
4. When the flaps are lowered
a) the lift vector moves forward
b)the lift vector moves rearward
10
B
A
A
1. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI
indicates
a) 90
b)180
c) 0
2. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
a) flaps are retracted
b)landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
3. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds
after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the
station?
a) 96 nautical miles
b)100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles
4. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
a) 10
b)5
c) 2.5
5. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
b)118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
6. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals
a) above the carrier signal
b)below the carrier signal
c) No sidebands present
7. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b)audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only
8. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
b)can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
9. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying
pressure
a) to the control wheel
8
9
10
B
A
1. Wing can spoilers be used
a) to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b)as ground spoilers on landing
c) to assist the elevators
2. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b)set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
3. Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b)pitch and yaw simultaneously
c) yaw and roll simultaneously
4. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the
10
B
C
C
A
1. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed
by
a) 4%
b)7%
c) 10.321%
2. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for
electrical cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
b)24 inches
c) 28 inches
3. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot
2
3
10
B
C
1. Battery trays are
a) metal for earthing purposes
b)metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
2. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
a) parallel
b)series
c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option
3
1.
10
C
C
8. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
a) stationary
b)fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
9. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b)diodes and transformers
c) zeners and transistors
10. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
a) voltage coil
b)current coil
c) voltage and current coil
This is exam number 60.
Answer
1. Increasing the real load primarily
a) decreases frequency
b)decreases output voltage
c) increases output voltage and increases frequency
2. Inductive reactive load causes
a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b)increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
10
B
B
1. Directional property is exhibited by
a) the sense antenna
b)the loop antenna
c) both the sense and loop antenna
2. In ADF system, Goniometer
a) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna
b)effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
c) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna
10
A
A
1. The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have a
midband length of
a) π/4
b)π/2
c) π
2. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip must
have a length of about
a) 29cm
b)59cm
c) 70cm
3. An isotropic radiator
a) is an end fed π/2 unipole
b)has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
c) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram
4. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected
power of 4W will be
a) 1.5:1
b)2:1
c) 2.5:1
5. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage
to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be
a) reverse R1+R2 connections only
b)reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections
c) reverse R1+S2 connections
6. The mode S squitter pulse will
a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
b)contain the aircraft identity
c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information
7. When using the GPS
a) database card must be replaced every 28 days
b)once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate
10
A
C
B
B
1. The most common type of gyro used in an INS is
a) a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping
b)a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy current
damping
c) a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to
sense rate of displacement
4
5
10
B
C
1. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the
a) battery bus bar
b)battery bus bar or ground services
c) ground services
2. Bandwidth of HF transmission is
a) 1khz
b)1.5khz
c) 3khz
3. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?
a) More deviation
b)More variation
c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only
4. GPS
a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
5. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect
a) galley services
b)IFE
c) first officers transfer bus
6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make
a) TA
b)RA
c) either RA or TA
7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
10
C
A
C
A
1. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) reactive power from the generator that does work
b)apparent power from the generator that does work
c) real power from the generator that does work
7. A split flap
a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
b)forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
8. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The
aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when
a) APP switch is pressed
b)the aircraft captures the glideslope
c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
9. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
a) in the workshop
b)by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is
obtained
10. Airspeed hold is a
a) pitch mode
b)lateral mode
c) heading mode
This is exam number 66.
Answer
1.
4
5
10
?
?
1. When servicing an RVSM aircraft
a) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable
b)the alt alert must be serviceable
c) the alt hold must be serviceable
2. An ASI compressibility error correction will be
a) Positive
b)Negative
c) Both
3. A GNS satellite system transmissions are
a) vertically polarised
b)horizontally polarised
c) right hand circular
4. An anti-servo tab
a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
b)moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the
pilot
c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist
the pilot
5. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use
a) 3 phase AC
b)Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter
c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter
6. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be
a) 300m
b)400m
c) 800m
7. ADF quadrantal error will be at
a) 0 Degrees
b)45 Degrees
c) 90 Degrees
8. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing
a) trailing edge
b)leading edge lower surface
c) leading edge upper surface
9. A plain flap
a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface
b)When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface
c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing
10. Compass error Q corrections correct
a) A error
b)B error
c) C error
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