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“The righteous shall inherit the land and dwell therein for ever.”
Who are the righteous people anyway? The word “righteous” with the
equivalent Hebrew “tsaddiyq” (tsad-deek) simply means just, which is the root
word for justification. The justification of believers during the Old Testament
period was in all respects exactly the same as the justification of New
Testament believers. Faith is the basis of this justification, thus Abel
(Heb.11:4), Enoch (Genesis 5:2), Noah (Genesis 6:9,22; 7:1) and Abraham
(Genesis 15:6) to name a few are examples of the Old Testament (OT)
characters who were righteous in the sight of God. The Doctrine of Justification
wholly by faith is founded on the Word of God. For our scriptural references
see (Romans 1:16-17; 3:21-22, 25-26; 4:1-6). In such case, to become righteous
is a judicial act of God whereby He justly declares and treats those who will
believe in our Lord Jesus Christ. The Bible speaks of it as from “…faith to
faith…” nothing less, nothing more.
Now, assuming that “the righteous will inherit the land…” do you think the WT
are qualified as they claim to be? Are they righteous enough by God’s
standards? The overwhelming fact is that the WT nevertheless believe in such
justification by faith rather they teach the doctrine of good works or loyalty to
their organization.
On this basis alone, the WT are no longer right of what they claim to be.
Assuming further, that “the righteous will inherit the land…” but why did
the O.T. righteous people did not inherit them as they were supposed to be?
Instead, these people of God were looking for the heavenly place not that
which is an earthly place (Hebrews 11:13-16).
So, the very moment they give you this verse, it is very important that
we are able to know that they were not the one of whom David was talking
about. It simply reads the righteous, the meek, and those who wait on the
LORD.
Background # 2 – “Shall”
The following rules of the word “Shall” in its English usage may sheds
light in determining the right interpretation of this text. In consideration, we
will use the 1828 Webster Dictionary.
1. Shall is primarily in the present, and in our mother tongue was followed
by a verb in the infinitive, like other verbs. "Ic sceal fram the beon
gefullod." I have need to be baptized of thee. "Ic nu sceal singan sar-
cwidas." I must now sing mornful songs.
We still use shall and should before another verb in the infinitive, without
the sign to; but significance of shall is considerably deflected from its
primitive sense. It is now treated as a mere auxiliary to other verbs,
serving to form some of the tenses. In the present tense, shall, before a
verb in the infinitive, forms the future tense; but its force and effect are
different with different persons or personal pronouns. Thus in the first
person, shall simply foretells or declares what will take place; as, I or we
shall ride to town on Monday. This declaration simply informs another of
a fact that is to take place. The sense of shall here is changed from an
expression of need or duty, to that of previous statement or information,
grounded on intention or resolution. When uttered with emphasis, "I shall
go," it expresses firm determination, but not a promise.
4. But after another verb, shall, in the third person, simply foretells. He
says that he shall leave town to-morrow. So also in the second person; you
say that you shall ride to-morrow.
5. After if, and some verbs which express condition or supposition, shall,
in all the persons, simply foretells; as,
Thus we see that Rule # 5 becomes apparent and thus, it only foretells and never
be a promise.