Common Human Diseases 1761

13. ‘Chicken pox' is caused by [CBSE PMT 1992] 28. A kind of allergy is [MP PMT 1995]
(a) Adeno virus (b) Varicella virus (a) Asthma (b) Yellow eyes
(c) SV–40 virus (d) Bacteriophage T-2 (c) Typhoid (d) Mumps
14. Out of the following one disease is caused by virus 29. Mumps is a [KCET 1994]
[DPMT 1974; CPMT 1979] (a) Viral disease (b) Fungal disease
(a) Malaria (b) Influenza (c) Bacterial disease (d) Protozoan disease
(c) Diphtheria (d) Typhoid 30. A cell–coded protein that is formed in response to infection
15. ‘Dengue fever' is caused by [CBSE PMT 1993] with most animal viruses is called [CBSE PMT 1994]
(a) Bacteria (b) Plasmodium (a) Antigen (b) Interferon
(c) Virus (d) Entamoeba histolytica (c) Histone (d) Antibody
16. ‘Encephalitis' in man is a viral disease and is transmitted by 31. Pulse–Polio programme is organised in our country
[CMC Vellore 1993] [AFMC 1996]
(a) Anopheles (b) Culex (a) To cure polio (b) To eradicate polio
(c) Aedes (d) Culex and Aedes (c) To spread polio (d) None of these
17. Which of the disease is not transmitted by house flies 32. Which one of the following is a pair of viral disease
[BHU 1985] [CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) Typhoid (b) Yellow fever (a) Tetanus and typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Dysentery (b) Syphillis and AIDS
18. The disease caused by viruses is [CPMT 1991] (c) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Small pox (d) Measles and rabbies
(c) Cholera (d) Typhoid 33. In human beings retrovirus is considered as a cause of
19. Which one of the following is a common disease caused by cancer because [CBSE PMT 1996]
virus [CPMT 1992, 93, 94] (a) In their genome oncogene is present
(a) Yellow fever (b) Typhoid (b) Their hereditary material made up of single stranded
RNA
(c) Syphilis (d) Tetanus
(c) They have a gene for reverse transcryptase
20. Which virus, for the first time, was synthesised in the form of
non-living crystals [MP PMT 1994] (d) In their genome there may be cellulor proto oncogene
(a) Bacteriophage (b) Flu virus 34. AIDS is a [MP PMT 1997, 2000]
(c) Pox virus (d) Tobacco mosaic virus (a) Cancer (b) Virus borne disease
21. The smallest virus one, which causes (c) Bacterial disease (d) Deficiency disease
(a) Measles (b) Mumps 35. The carrier of virus causing human yellow fever is
[MP PMT 1998]
(c) Rabies (d) Poliomyelitis
(a) Mosquito (b) Bug
22. Interferons curb infection of
(c) Louse (d) Beetle
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
36. Against which of the following does interferon act
(c) Cancer (d) None of the above
[MP PMT 1998]
23. Interferons are [AFMC 2002; Pb. PMT 2000; DPMT 2003]
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(a) Antiviral proteins (b) Antibacterial proteins
(c) Fungus (d) Snake venom
(c) Anticancer proteins (d) None of above
37. If a person shows production of interferons in his body, the
24. Common symptoms of measles are chances are that he has got an infection of
(a) Dew drop-like rashes on skin and high fever [CBSE PMT 1997]
(b) Erupting of small red spots and inflammation of mucous (a) Typhoid (b) Measles
membrane of nose (c) Tetanus (d) Malaria
(c) Lacerating ulcers 38. Which of the following disease is now considered nearly
(d) None of the above eradicated from India [CBSE PMT 1997]
25. The region in the body where the polio virus multiplies is (a) Plague (b) Kala azar
(a) Nerve cells (b) Intestinal cells (c) Small pox (d) Poliomyelitis
(c) Muscle cells (d) None of these 39. Dengue is transmitted by [AFMC 1997; CPMT 1998]
26. The biological agents of disease include (a) Culex (b) Male Anopheles
(a) Minerals, vitamins, proteins and carbohydrates (c) Female Anopheles (d) Tse-tse fly
(b) Viruses, bacteria, fungi, helminths and other organisms
(c) Heat, cold, humidity pressure, radiations Diseases caused by bacteria
(d) All the above
27. The pathogen of bubonic plague is transmitted through the 1. ‘Leprosy' is caused by
bite of [CPMT 1993] [CBSE PMT 1991; MDAT Bihar 1995]
(a) Pediculus humanis (b) Glossina palpalis (a) Mycobacterium (b) Salmonella
(c) Aedes (d) Xenopsylla cheapis (c) Monocystis (d) TMV
 1762 Common Human Diseases
2. ‘Cholera' is caused by [DPMT 1992] 17. Different species of the bacterium Mycobacterium cause
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria (a) T.B. and tetanus (b) T.B. and leprosy
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoan (c) Leprosy and cholera (d) Tetanus and plague
3. Widal test is used for susceptibility of [BHU 1982] 18. Salmonella typhosa causes
(a) Malaria (b) Cholera (a) An acute infection of intestine that causes high fever
(c) Yellow fever (d) Typhoid and weakness
4. ‘Tuberculosis' is caused by [BHU 1986] (b) Enlargement of spleen and pain in stomach
(a) Bacterium (b) Virus (c) Rose coloured rashes on the body
(c) Protozoan (d) Malnutrition (d) All of these
5. ‘Diphtheria' disease is connected with [AFMC 1986] 19. Leprosy is communicated by
(a) Lungs (b) Liver (a) Contact with the diseased parts
(c) Throat (d) Blood
(b) Prolonged contact with the diseased parts
6. Symptoms of diphtheria is [BHU 1986]
(c) Getting exposed to the diseased parts
(a) Suffocation (b) Hydrophobia
(d) None of these
(c) Excessive watering (d) Gum bleeding
20. Which one of the following causes plague [CBSE PMT 1995]
7. ‘Syphilis' is a sexually transmitted disease caused by
[MP PMT 1996]
(a) Salmonella typhimurum (b) Trichinella spiralis
(a) Treponema pallidum (b) Leptospira (c) Yersinia pestis (d) Leishmania donovani
(c) Pasteurella (d) Vibrio 21. Yersinia pestis is responsible for [CBSE PMT 1995]
8. Vibrio cholerae is a motile bacteria belonging to the group of (a) Plague (b) Whooping cough
[CBSE PMT 1990] (c) Leprosy (d) Syphilis
(a) Monotrichous (b) Lophotrichous 22. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched
(c) Amphitrichous (d) Peritrichous [CBSE PMT 1995]
9. The disease due to inflammation of vermifrom appendix of (a) Dangue fever – Arbovirus
the digestive system is known as [CBSE PMT 1988] (b) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(a) Amoebic dysentery (b) Appendicitis (c) Syphilis – Trichuris trichiura
(c) Intestinal cancer (d) Appendictomy (d) Sleeping sickness Trypanosoma gambiense
10. ‘Plague' is transmitted by [CPMT 1984; BHU 1980] 23. ‘Black death' is related with [MP PMT 1995]
(a) House fly (b) Tse–tse fly (a) Plague (b) Cancer
(c) Rat flea (d) Mosquito
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Measles
11. The test for ‘syphilis' was developed by [AIIMS 1988]
24. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the
(a) Robert Koch (b) Edward Jenner problems of bacteria mediated diseases is [CBSE PMT 1994]
(c) Wasserman (d) Louis Pasteur
(a) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged
12. Which one of the following sets includes the bacterial exposure to antibiotics
disease [DPMT 1986; Pb. PMT 2000]
(b) Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
(a) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(b) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(d) The development of mutant strains resistant to
(c) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
antibiotics
(d) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
25. Cholera patient is administrated by ’saline drip' because
13. Which is a water–borne disease [MP PMT 1994]
[CBSE PMT 1996]
(a) Small pox (b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera (a) Na + ions are essential for the transport of substances
across the membrane
14. The causative agent of tuberculosis is
[MP PMT 1994; J&K CET 2002] (b) Na + ions are helpful to conserving water in the body
(a) Salmonella (b) Pneumococcus (c) Cl– ions are helpful in the formation HCl for digestion
(c) Streptomyces (d) Mycobacterium (d) Cl– ions is significant component of blood plasma
15. The disease called Vishuchika in Ayurveda is 26. Biological name of insect (vector) carrying the plague
(a) Cholera (b) Diphtheria [MP PMT 1997; BVP 2003]
(c) Small pox (d) Chicken pox (a) Xenopcylla cheopis (b) Anopheles mosquito
16. Leprosy is diagnosed by which of the following set of (c) Bacillus pestis (d) Pediculus humanus
symptoms 27. Which of the following is an STD [MP PMT 1997, 98]
(a) Fever, loss of pigmentation (a) Measles (b) Syphilis
(b) Deformity of fingers, scales, ulcers, loss of pigmentation,
(c) Diphtheria (d) Cancer
wasting of body parts
28. Koch's postulates are not applicable to [CBSE PMT 1999]
(c) Frequent watery stools and deformities in fingers and
toes (a) T.B. (b) Leprosy
(d) White spots on the skin without any scales or ulcer (c) Diptheria (d) Cholera
 Common Human Diseases 1763
29. Diphtheria is caused by [CBSE PMT 1997; AFMC 1999] 9. Malarial parasites could be best obtained from a patient
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (a) An hour before rise of temperature
(c) Nematodes (d) None of these (b) When temperature rises with rigor
30. Tetanus disease is caused by [CPMT 2004] (c) When temperature comes to normal
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria (d) Few hours after the temperature reaches to normal
(c) Fungi (d) Mycoplasma 10. ‘Amoebiasis' (amoebic dysentery) is caused by
31. Cholera, leprosy and diptheria are [Pb. PMT 2004] [CPMT 1977, 78, 95; MP PMT 1993, 95;
(a) Bacterial diseases (b) Viral diseases CBSE PMT 1992; RPMT 1995]
(c) Fungal diseases (d) Functional diseases (a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba gingivalis
32. Match the following bacteria with the diseases and choose (c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Trypanosoma gambiense
the correct option [Kerala 2004] 11. Vector for ‘kala azar' disease is
Column I Column II [CPMT 1971, 86; MP PMT 2002]
A. Treponema pallidum 1. Plaque (a) Sand fly (b) House fly
B. Yersinia pestis 2. Anthrax (c) Louse (d) Bed bug
C. Bscillus anthrasis 3. Syphilis 12. Which of the following set is of vector host [CPMT 1977]
D. Vibrio 4. Cholera
(a) Sand fly, deer fly, tse–tse fly, house fly
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) Frog, lizard, snack, rabbit
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c) Leishmania, sand fly, Trypanosoma, tse–tse fly
Diseases caused by protozoa (d) Sand fly, frog, house fly
13. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness which transmits
1. The malignant tertian malaria is caused by the infective stage of which of the following parasite
[DPMT 1985; AIIMS 2000] [CPMT 1976, 81]
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium falciparum (a) Leishmania donavani (b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium ovale (d) Plasmodium malariae (c) Trypanosoma gambiense (d) Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Malaria is transmitted by ’Anopheles'. This was discovered 14. ‘Quartan fever' is caused by
by [DPMT 1985]
[Bihar 1995; RPMT 1995; MP PMT 2001]
(a) A. Laveran (b) Ronald Ross
(a) P. vivax (b) P. malariae
(c) Pasteur (d) Huxley
(c) P. falciparum (d) P. ovale
3. ‘Trypanosomiasis' is transmitted by or Carrier of
15. Plasmodium vivax causes
Trypanosoma in man is
[DPMT 1992; AFMC 1983; CPMT 1973; (a) Benign tertian malaria (b) Malignant fever
MP PMT 1996, 98] (c) Quartan fever (d) Normal malaria
(a) House fly (b) May fly 16. Time between successive hyperthermic condition in quatern
(c) Tse–tse fly (d) Fruit fly fever is
4. Entamoeba gingivalis is found in buccal cavity of man. It (a) 12 hours (b) 24 hours
causes [CPMT 1973, 75] (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
(a) Pyorrhoea (b) Amoebic dysentery 17. Schuffner's dots are related to [JIPMER 1993]
(c) Branchitis (d) No disease (a) R.B.C. of man
5. Quinine an important drug for treatment of malaria, is (b) Leucocytes of frog
extracted from [CPMT 1977]
(c) Epithelium of stomach of mosquito
(a) Calyx of Cinnamon (b) Brak of Cinchona
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Red ants (d) Brak of tulsi
18. ‘Black water fever' is a very serious complication of
6. The disease caused by Entamoeba gingivalis is transmitted
[CMC Vellore 1993; RPMT 1995]
by [DPMT 1985]
(a) P. ovale (b) P. falciparum
(a) Flies
(b) Kissing (c) P. malariae (d) P. vivax
(c) Using the same bowl 19. The secondary host of malaria parasite is [MP PMT 1994]

(d) Kissing and using the same bowl (a) Male culex (b) Male anopheles
7. ‘Glossina palpalis' is a vector for [CBSE PMT 1992] (c) Female culex (d) Female anopheles
(a) Dengue (b) Filariasis 20. Enteritis, a widespread disease in India and its infection
(c) Gambian fever (d) Plague occurs by [MP PMT 1994]

8. All the diseases are spread by housefly except (a) Viruses

[CBSE PMT 1992] (b) Mosquito bite
(a) Leprosy (b) Dysentery (c) Ingesting cysts with food and drinks
(c) Typhoid (d) Sleeping sickness (d) None of the above
 1764 Common Human Diseases
21. Kala azar is caused and transmitted respectively by 34. One of the following is an intracellular parasite of man
[MP PMT 1994, 2003; CPMT 2002; [KCET 1994]
AIIMS 2003; AFMC 2001] (a) Ancylostoma (b) Plasmodium
(a) Leishmania and Phlebatomus (c) Mosquito (d) Entamoeba
(b) Trypanosoma and sand fly 35. Infection of Entamoeba histolytica can be checked by
(c) Leishmania and tse–tse fly [CPMT 1996]
(d) Trypanosoma and Glossina palpalis (a) Bathing before taking meals
22. African sleeping sickness or Gambiense fever is caused by (b) Covering the food articles
[DPMT 1984; AFMC 1985; MP PMT 2002; (c) Washing hands before taking meals
AFMC 2003; KCET 2000] (d) Washing the vagetables before their con_sumption
(a) Entamoeba (b) Trypanosoma 36. Who discovered malarial parasite [CPMT 1996]
(c) Leishmania (d) Trichomonas (a) Ronald Ross (b) Leveran
23. The vector for causing sleeping sickness in man is (c) Grassi (d) Lansici
[MP PMT 1993] 37. Which of the following is a parasite protozoan
(a) House fly (b) Mosquito (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Paramecium cardatum
(c) Tse–tse fly (d) Butterfly (c) Euglena viridis (d) Ascaris lumbricoides
24. Which of the following diseases is endemic 38. Schizont is a stage in the life history of malaria parasite
(a) Common cold (b) Amoebiasis occurring in
(c) Hepatitis (d) Influenza (a) RBCs
25. On which day, we celebrate ’Malaria Day' (b) Stomach of Anopheles
(a) 5th June (b) 15th August (c) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(c) 20th August (d) 20th September (d) Blood of Anopheles
26. Incubation period in case of malarial parasite is 39. Which of the following has only one host
[CPMT 1998] (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Plasmodium vivax
(a) 10–11 days (b) 20 days (c) Taenia solium (d) Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) 5 days (d) 2 days 40. Malaria is caused by
27. Symptoms of shigellosis, a diarrhoeal disease are (a) Ascaris (b) Foul air
(a) Frequent passage of stools with blood and mucus (c) Plasmodium (d) Mosquito
(b) Severe cough and sputum 41. Which disease is caused by a flagellate
(c) Loss of weight and appetite (a) Sleeping sickness (b) Dysentery
(d) Severe abdominal pain and vomiting (c) Whooping cough (d) Jaundice
28. Mapacrine and pelludrine are used to cure which disease 42. Oral cancer may be caused by
[CPMT 1995] (a) Smoking (b) Running
(a) Plague (b) Malaria (c) Swimming (d) Eating betal
(c) T.B. (d) Pneumonia 43. Plasmodium in man is innoculated by [MP PMT 1997]
29. Which of the following does not cause a disease in human (a) Anopheles male and female
beings [RPMT 1995]
(b) Anopheles male
(a) Entamoeba coli (b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Anopheles female
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Entamoeba gingivalis
(d) Culex female
30. Which of the following causes malaria [MDAT Bihar 1995]
44. ‘Malaria' a common disease world wide is caused by a
(a) Plasmodium (b) Hook worm
[MP PMT 1997]
(c) Ascaris (d) Filaria worm (a) Bacterium (b) Virion
31. Which of the following is the infective stage of the malarial (c) Protozoa (d) Helminths
parasite (Plasmodium)
45. Malaria parasite completes its life-cycle in [MP PMT 1997]
[CPMT 1974, 80; AFMC 1985;
MP PMT 1993, 2001; Manipal 1995]
(a) One host (b) Two host
(a) Gametocyte (b) Merozoite (c) Three host (d) Reservoir host
(c) Sporozoite (d) Trophozoite 46. Metabolic waste responsible for malaria fever is called
[MP PMT 1997]
32. Which one of the following is found in the mouth of human
beings [MP PMT 1995] (a) Haemozoin (b) Haematin
(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Entamoeba coli (c) Melanin (d) Heparin
(c) Amoeba proteus (d) Entamoeba gingivalis 47. Haemozoin is a toxic substance formed in case of malaria. It
is produced by [MP PMT 1999; RPMT 1999]
33. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the [JIPMER 1994]
(a) Globin protein of RBC (b) Colour pigment of RBC
(a) Intestine (b) Colon
(c) Dead WBC (d) Cryptozoites
(c) Pus pockets of pyorrhoea (d) Intestines and colon
 Common Human Diseases 1765
48. Chloroquine is used for treatment of [CPMT 1998] 2. Chenopodium oil is used in [AFMC 1985]
(a) Malaria (b) Tetanus (a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid
(c) Cancer (d) AIDS (c) Ascariasis (d) Small pox
49. Malaria is spread by [CPMT 1998, 2002] 3. ‘Enterobiasis' disease is caused by [CBSE PMT 1988]
(a) Male Culex (b) Female Culex (a) Filaria worm (b) Hook worm
(c) Male Anopheles (d) Female Anopheles (c) Pin worm (d) Round worm
50. The fish used for control of malaria is [CPMT 1998] 4. Which of the following insects transmits relapsing fever
[DPMT 1984]
(a) Gambusia (b) Rohu
(a) Drosophila (b) Apis
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
(c) Cimex (d) Gryllus
51. The protozoan found in colon of human is [CPMT 1998]
5. Louse is ectoparasite of [CPMT 1977]
(a) P. vivax (b) A. egypti
(a) Fish (b) Snack
(c) E. coli (d) All of these
(c) Man (d) Whale
52. A person sufferring from malaria feel fever when
6. Parasite which is vector host also is [CPMT 1971]
[CPMT 1998]
(a) House fly (b) Fasciola
(a) Exoerythrocytic cycle is completed
(c) Ascaris (d) Bug
(b) Signet ring stage is formed
7. Cause of ’cysticercosis' is
(c) When RBC generally ruptured and haemozoin granules
(a) Semi-cooked meat of pig
are released
(b) Contaminated water and food
(d) All the above
(c) Bacteria
53. Match the incorrect pair [AFMC 1997]
(d) Virus
(a) Xenopsylla – Plague
8. Filarial larva can be collected from man's [CBSE PMT 1993]
(b) Pediculus – Typhoid
(a) Smears of intestinal contents
(c) Culex – Malaria (b) Peripheral blood at midnight
(d) Stegomyria – Yellow fever (c) Smears of spleen
54. ‘Amoebiasis’ (Amoebic dysentery) is caused by (d) Biopsy of liver
[CPMT 1977. 78, 95; MP PMT 1993, 95; 9. Which disease is caused by a nematod [AIIMS 1993]
CBSE PMT 1992; RPMT 1995; BVP 2004]
(a) Leprosy (b) Poliomyelitis
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba gingivalis (c) Amoebiasis (d) Filariasis
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (d) Trypanosoma gambiense 10. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
55. Kala – azar disease is causes by [MP PMT 2004] [BHU 1985; MP PMT 1996]
(a) Trypanosoma gambiense (b) Wuchereria bancrofti (a) Imperfectly cooked pork
(c) Tania solium (d) Leishmania denovani (b) Tse–tse fly
56. Cerebral malaria is caused by [MP PMT 2004] (c) Mosquito bite
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Plasmodium ovale (d) Contaminated water and vegetables
(c) Plasmodium falciparum (d) Plasmodium malariae 11. Filaria germ is a kind of [JIPMER 1994]
57. Which of the following is not correctly matched (a) Bacteria (b) Helminthes
[CBSE PMT 2004] (c) Mosquito (d) Protozoa
(a) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever 12. The accumulation of excess fluid in tissue space is called
(b) Anopheles culifacies – Leismaniasis [CPMT 1991; DPMT 1986]
(c) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness (a) Hodgkin's disease (b) Parkinson's disease
(d) Culex pipiens – Filariasis (c) Oedema (d) Cirrhosis
58. Fever in malaria is due to [CPMT 2004]
13. Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and
the disease
(a) Entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(a) Culex –Filariasis (b) Housefly – Yellow fever
(b) Entry of merozoites into liver cells
(c) Body louse – Typhoid (d) Sandfly – Plague
(c) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
14. Disease caused by the biting of Culex mosquito is
(d) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells [CPMT 1995]

Diseases caused by helminthes (a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever

(c) Yellow fever (d) Pneumonia
1. Which of the following is a helminth disease 15. Filaria is transmitted by
[AFMC 1982, 83, 86] [BHU 1995; JIPMER 1994; MP PMT 1999]
(a) Filaria (b) Filariasis (a) Male anopheles (b) Male culex
(c) Polio (d) Diphtheria (c) Female anopheles (d) Female culex
 1766 Common Human Diseases
16. The study of worms which cause parasitic infestations in 9. Congenital diseases are those which [CMC Vellore 1993]
man is called [Manipal 1995] (a) Occur during life time
(a) Helminthology (b) Herpetology (b) Are deficiency diseases
(c) Ichthyology (d) Malacology (c) Are present from time of birth
17. Elephantiasis (Filariasis) in man is caused by (d) Are spread from man to man
[CPMT 1980; Manipal 1995]
10. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting time is due to
(a) Ancylostoma duodenale (b) Ascaris lumbricoides the lack of plasma thromboplastin component (PTC)
(c) Dracunculus medinensis (d) Wuchereria bancrofti necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is
18. Which one spreads filaria [MP PMT 1995] [CBSE PMT 1988]
(a) House fly (b) Bed bug (a) Christmas disease (b) Hypoprothrombincamia
(c) Mosquito (d) Flea (c) Haemophilia (d) Stuart disease
19. Which of the following pairs is correct [CPMT 1998] 11. Examples of congenital diseases are [BHU 1985]
(a) House fly–Yellow fever (a) Alkaptonuria, albinism
(b) Bed bug – Kala azar (b) Albinism, sickle cell anaemia
(c) Sand fly – Amoebic dysentry
(c) Haemophilia
(d) Culex – Filariasis
(d) All the above
20. Filariasis is caused by [CPMT 1998; Pb. PMT 1999]
12. Sickle cell anaemia is due to [BHU 1988]
(a) Wuchereria (b) Amoeba
(a) Deficiency of vitamin B
(c) P. vivax (d) E. coli
(b) Deficiency of iron in the blood
21. Wuchereria bancrofti is transmitted by [CPMT 1998]
(c) A genetically determined defect of haemoglobin
(a) Sand fly (b) Tse-tse fly
synthesis
(c) Anopheles mosquito (d) Culex
(d) Increase in the number of leucocytes in the blood
22. Rocky mountain fever is caused by [AFMC 1997]
13. The disease Erythroblastosis foetalis in human embryo is
(a) Virus (b) Fungi
caused due to [MP PMT 1988]
(c) Algae (d) Tick
(a) Disadjustment of blood groups
Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases (b) Disadjustment of Rh factor
(c) Both of these
1. Which of the following is related to heart disease
(d) None of the these
(a) Cushing's syndrome (b) Edward's syndrome
14. Haemophilia is [CBSE PMT 1989; BHU 1990]
(c) Turner's syndrome (d) Pataut's syndrome
(a) A type of mosquito lacking haemocoel
2. Which one of the following can help in the diagnosis of
(b) The royal disease
genetical basis of a disorder [BHU 2003]
(a) ELISA (b) ABO Blood group (c) Faulty blood clotting
(c) PCR (d) NMR (d) (b) and (c) both
3. Which of the following diseases is not related to circulatory 15. Hereditary disease condition in which the blood fails to
system [AFMC 1986] coagulate [NCERT 1982]
(a) Hypertension (b) Coronary thrombosis (a) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Leukemia
(c) Diabetes mellitus (d) Diphtheria (c) Haemophilia (d) Alkaptonuria
4. The disease characterised by extreme muscular weakness 16. ‘Christiaan Barnard' is known for
and brownish pigmentation of buccal cavity and skin is (a) Discovery of polio vaccine
[CPMT 1991] (b) First surgical transplantation of human heart
(a) Cushing's syndrome (b) Addison's disease (c) First test tube baby birth
(c) Grave's disease (d) Myxoedema (d) Synthesis of gene
5. Which is not a gene linked disease 17. A denoid is the disease in which
(a) Haemophilia (b) Deltonism
(a) Glandular tissue at the back of nose enlarges
(c) Myxoedema (d) Alkaptoneuria
(b) Spleen enlarges
6. The presence of RBC in urine is known as
(c) Thyroid enlarges
(a) Hematuria (b) Urolithiasis
(d) Tonsils enlarges
(c) Nephritis (d) Protonuria
18. ‘Thala test' is done for the confirmation of
7. Cause of ‘Erythroblastosis foetalis' may be [BHU 1977]
(a) Adjoining of RBC (b) Bleeding (a) Malaria (b) Cholera
(c) Diapedesis (d) Haemophilia (c) Colour blindness (d) Thalassaemia
8. A non-infectious unnatural and unusual reaction of a person 19. Which of the following diseases is known as auto immune
to any substance or condition for which he is hypersensitive thyroiditis/thyroid's suicide
is termed as [AIIMS 1993] [RPMT 1995; MP PMT 2001; BHU 2002]
(a) Infection (b) Immunity (a) Addison's disease (b) Cretinism
(c) Allergy (d) Toxin (c) Hashimoto disease (d) Goitre
 Common Human Diseases 1767
20. Diabetes mellitus is due to lack of 7. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than
(a) Insulin in circulating blood normal cells because they [CMC Vellore 1993]
(b) Starch in food (a) Are undergoing rapid division
(c) Trypsin in pancreatic juice (b) Are starved by nutrition
(d) ADH reaching the kidney (c) Are different in structure
21. The ECG method is needed to detect abnormalities in heart (d) None of the above
for 8. Cancer is related to [DPMT 1984; MP PMT 1996]
(a) Coronary thrombosis (b) Heart attack (a) Uncontrolled growth of tissues
(c) Heart block (d) All the above (b) Non-malignant tumor
22. Treatment with ‘Alloxan' destroys [AIIMS 1998] (c) Controlled division of tissues
(a) STH cells (d) None of these
(b) Beta–cells of islets of Langerhans 9. Arthritis is the disease of
(c) Cells of Sertoli (a) Inflammation of abdomen
(d) Cells of Leydig (b) Inflammation of joints
23. In sickle–cell anaemia, which of the following amino acids is (c) Inflammation of liver
substituted [AFMC 1997] (d) Inflammation of neck
(a) Glutamic acid by valine in  − chain 10. The most common cancer in men in India is
(b) Valine by glutamic acid in  − chain (a) Lung cancer (b) Throat cancer
(c) Glutamic acid by valine in  − chain (c) Mouth–throat cancer (d) None of these
(d) Valine by glutamic acid in  − chain 11. Gouts, a painful disorder of joints is due to
24. Neurons of people suffering from diabetes insipidus do not (a) Damage caused to ligaments
secrete [Orissa JEE 2004] (b) Injury to tendon
(a) Enzyme (b) Steroid (c) Inflammation of synovial membrane
(c) Fatty acid (d) ADH (d) Deposition of uric acid at joints
25. Diabetes mellitus takes place only when [DPMT 2004] 12. Which is not cancer [MP PMT 1995]
(a) -cells of pancreas are in excess (a) Leukaemia (b) Glaucoma
(b) -cells of pancreas are in excess (c) Carcinoma (d) Sarcoma
(c) -cells of pancreas are in hypo 13. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ’sarcoma ' if the
disorder is in [CBSE PMT 1994]
(d) -cells of pancreas are in hypo
(a) Immune system (b) Epithelial cells
Arthrites and Cancer (c) Fibroblasts (d) Circulatory system
14. In which stage of cancer does metastitia occur
1. ‘Blood cancer' is also known as
(a) III stage (b) II stage
[DPMT 1992; CBSE PMT 1995]
(c) I stage (d) IV stage
(a) Leucopenia (b) Leucoderma
(c) Leucocytosis (d) Leukemia 15. Chemicals, which can induce cancer are called
2. The process of spreading the cancerous cells to distant site is (a) Mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour
known as (b) Carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour
(a) Hyperstasis (b) Metastasis (c) Mutagenic agents and do not produce malignant
(c) Parastasis (d) Parasitesis tumour
3. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes (d) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour
(a) Degenerated (b) Hypertrophied 16. Cell division or mitosis is a normal process in a living cell,
(c) Unchanged (d) Abnormally large but sudden and abnormal mitosis in an organ will frequently
result in a
4. Ribosomes of cancerous cells fuse together to form
(a) Zygote (b) Gastrula
(a) Ribosome complex (b) Polyribosomes
(c) New organ (d) Cancer
(c) Agglutinised (d) Degenerative ribosomes
17. Blood cancer is excess production of leucocytes. It is
5. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much
ingestion of lactic acid, the condition is termed as (a) Haemorrhage (b) Haemolysis
(a) Paralysis (b) Tonus (c) Leukemia (d) Thrombosis
(c) Fatigue (d) Tetanus 18. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as
6. Harmful ultraviolet radiations from sun cause [MP PMT 1997]
(a) Breast cancer (b) Liver cancer (a) Mutation (b) Malignancy
(c) Mouth cancer (d) Skin cancer (c) Metastasis (d) Benign tumours
 1768 Common Human Diseases
19. Which of the following is the cancerous state of blood 2. ‘Pathogens' are
[MP PMT 1998] (a) Substances produced against any disease causative
(a) Chloremia (b) Leukemia (b) Chemical substances produced by the host cells to kill
(c) Uremia (d) Proteinemia the parasite animal
(c) Disease spreading factors
20. Which disease is caused by activation of oncogenes
(d) Cells which kill the parasites
[MP PMT 1999]
3. Sickle cell aneamia is more common in South Africa. This is
(a) Cholera (b) Cancer
due to [BHU 1986, 88]
(c) T.B. (d) Viral flu (a) Change in beta–chain of haemoglobin
21. Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as (b) More population of house flies
[MP PMT 1999] (c) Change in alpha–chain of haemoglobin
(a) Metastasis (b) Oncogenes (d) Change in gamma–chain of haemoglobin
(c) Proto-oncogenes (d) Malignant neoplasm 4. ‘Bacillary dysentery' is caused by [AIIMS 1988]
22. Which type of cancer is found in lymph nodes and spleen (a) Salmonella (b) Shigella
[CBSE PMT 1999; MP PMT 2003] (c) Proteus (d) Entamoeba
(a) Carchroma (b) Sarcoma 5. ‘Haemophilia' disease is caused due to lack of [BHU 1988]
(a) ADH (b) STH
(c) Leukaemia (d) Lymphoma
(c) AHF (d) ACTH
23. Which of the following will be curable in next two decades
6. Which test confirms the scarlet fever [AIIMS 1988]
[CBSE PMT 1997]
(a) Dick test (b) ECG
(a) Cancer (b) Poliomyelitis (c) UTI test (d) Widal test
(c) Tuberculosis (d) None of these 7. A condition of failure of function of kidney to form urine is
24. Oncogenes were discovered by [AIEEE 2004] (a) Creatinine (b) Hematuria
(a) S.B. Prussiner (c) Anuria (d) Alkaptoneuria
(b) F.P. Rous 8. ‘Asthama' is due to [DPMT 1985]
(c) A. Fleming (a) Infection of trachea
(b) Infection of lungs
(d) J.M. Bishop and H.E. Vermus
(c) Bleeding into pleural cavity
25. Cancer cells are characterized by [MP PMT 2004]
(d) Spasm in bronchial muscles
(a) Uncontrolled growth
9. Symptoms of oedema is [DPMT 1990]
(b) Invasion of local tissue (a) Swelling of body part especially the legs
(c) Spreading to other body parts (b) Pain in the chest
(d) All the above (c) Cold
26. The genes concerned with the production of cancer are (d) Pain in the right leg
called [BVP 2004] 10. Cushing's syndrome which is characterised by wasting of
(a) Cancer genes (b) Carcino genes limb muscles and accumulation of fat in the trunk region is
due to hypersecretion of [CPMT 1991]
(c) Carcinomas (d) Oncogenes
(a) Corticosteroid (b) Adrenalin
27. Benign tumour is the one which [MH-CET 2004]
(c) Progesterone (d) Adrenocorticotropin
(a) Shows metastasis
11. ADH is secreted from the posterior lobe of pituitary and its
(b) Differentiated and capsulated deficiency leads to
(c) Undifferentiated and noncapsulated (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Conn's syndrome
(d) Differentiated and noncapsulated (c) Addison's disease (d) Diabetes insipidus
12. In sickle cell anaemia, the death is caused when the lethal
genes are present in [AIIMS 1992]
(a) Heterozygous condition
(b) Homozygous dominant condition
(c) Homozygous recessive condition
(d) Co–dominant condition
1. Degenerative diseases are those which develop due to 13. If the IIIrd nerve is damaged, it will lead to
[Kerala CET 2002] [CBSE PMT 1990]
(a) Malfunction of hormones (a) Loss of accomodation
(b) Degeneration of tissues (b) Dilation of pupil
(c) Malfunction of certain body organs (c) Loss of occular movements
(d) Degeneration of the infected organs (d) All of these
 Common Human Diseases 1769
14. Grave's disease is caused by the hypersecretion of thyroid 26. A boy happens to put his foot on a rusted nail and the
hormone and is associated with the doctor gives him an injection. Most likely he has given
(a) Enlargement of the thyroid gland (a) OPV (b) BCG
(b) Increased BMR and increased nervous activity (c) ATS (d) Tetanospasmin
(c) Exophthalamia
27. Epidemiology deals with the study of
(d) All of the above
(a) Mode of transmission of diseases
15. Albino condition is found in which human race
[CPMT 1977] (b) Disease causing organisms
(a) All races (b) White race (c) Development of resistance against diseases
(c) Black race (d) Mongols (d) Skin ailments
16. Filaria, malaria, dengue fever, sleeping sickness, yellow fever 28. Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic
are transmitted by [DPMT 1986] reaction [CBSE PMT 1995]
(a) Mosquitoes (b) House flies (a) Enteric fever (b) Hay fever
(c) Insects (d) Bacteria
(c) Skin cancer (d) Goitre
17. Which of the following organisms is known to form
abscesses in human liver, lungs, brain etc. [AIIMS 1993]
29. Kwashiorkar disease develops due to [MP PMT 1995]

(a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Monocystis (a) Malnutrition (b) Over-eating

(c) Plasmodium (d) Fasciola hepatica (c) Catalysis (d) Mutation
18. Black lung disease is common among 30. Swollen face, mental dullness, dry skin and loss of appetite
(a) Coal miners is the characteristics of
(b) Refinery workers (a) Goitre (b) Acromeagly
(c) Farmers (c) Tetany (d) Myxoedema
(d) Petrochemical industry workers 31. Match the names of disease listed under column I with
19. X- rays are used in [BHU 2003] meanings given under column II, choose the answer which
(a) ECG (b) EEG gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the
(c) CT –Scan (d) Endoscopy columns. [KCET 2004]
20. ‘Itaria–itaria' disease is caused by Column I Column II
(a) Cadmium (b) Manganese (Name of disease) (Meanings)
(c) Mercury (d) Zinc
A. Jaundice p Allergic inflammation of nose
21. Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of
B. Stenosis q Loss of motor functions
nitrate fertiliser [MP PMT 1996]
C. Rhinitis r Heart valve defect
(a) Jaundice (b) Methemoglobinemia
(c) Mumps (d) Septicemia D. Paralysis s Increase in bile pigments in the blood
22. Cynosis refers to [AIIMS 1988] t Septal defect of heart
(a) Bluish colouration of the body (a) A = q; B = t; C = r; D = p
(b) Reddish colouration of the body (b) A = s; B= p; C = q; D = r
(c) Pale colouration of the body (c) A = s; B = r; C = p; D = q
(d) Goose flesh of the body (d) A = s; B = t; C = p; D = q
23. Sprain is caused due to excessive pulling of
32. Dreaming occurs in [Orrisa JEE 2004]
(a) Ligaments (b) Muscles
(a) -sleep (b) REM sleep
(c) Nerves (d) Tendons
24. Dropsy means (c) Deep sleep (d) Slow wave sleep
(a) Accumulation of the watery fluid in any part of the 33. Infectious or communicable diseases
body (a) Cannot be communicated from one man to another
(b) Accumulation of toxins in the body parts (b) Can develop infection from one man to another
(c) Enlargement of kidney
(c) Can spread without any intermediate host
(d) Defective muscles of the eye
(d) Can spread with some intermediate host
25. Infantile amaurotic idiocy (Tay–Sachs disease) is
(a) The result of severe protein deficiency in diet and 34. ‘Meningitis' is a disease of
damages the muscle development in growing children (a) Respiratory system (b) Digestive system
(b) An inherited disorder in which the spinal cord and brain (c) Nervous system (d) Excretory system
are severely damaged within a few months of birth 35. A disease caused by eating fish contaminated by industrial
leading to paralysis and mental retardation, and finally waste containing mercury compounds is known as
the infant's death in 3 or 4 years
[CBSE PMT 1994; Kerela CET 2003]
(c) A genetic abnormality which appears at the age of 25–
30 years and damages the bones (a) Bright's disease (b) Minamata disease
(d) A chromosomal disorder in young children (c) Hashimoto disease (d) Osteosclerosis
 1770 Common Human Diseases
13. Assertion : Lung cancer is more common in industrial
workers.
Reason : Industrial smoke contains certain
carcinogenic pollutants.
14. Assertion : Cancer is generally associated with a
tumour.
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option Reason : Cancerous cells undergo uncontrolled
out of the options given below : growth and division.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason 15. Assertion : Adenoma is a sarcoma.
is a correct explanation of the assertion Reason : Adenoma is located in the adipose tissue.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is 16. Assertion : UV – rays are carcinogenic in nature.
not a correct explanation of the assertion
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false Reason : UV – rays rupture DNA strands and induce
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false mutations to cause cancers.
(e) If the assertion is false but reason is true 17. Assertion : Tobacco smoking is the main causes of
lung cancer.
1. Assertion : Amoebic dysentry can be diagnosed by Reason : Tobacco smoke has a carcinogen called
stool test of the patient. nicotine.
Reason : Stool of the patient has tetranucleated cysts.
18. Assertion : Intake of potato chips and french fries may
2. Assertion : Polio is known to cause paralysis and induce cancer development.
crippling in large number of children every
Reason : On heating, their carbohydrate changes
year.
into a carcinogenic chemical called
Reason : Government has started a Polio acrylamide.
Eradication Programme.
19. Assertion : Surgery has been found highly effective in
3. Assertion : Tetanus can be diagnosed by Mantoux test. lung cancer.
Reason : In Mantoux test, the dye gives colour to
Reason : Resection is possible after the thoracotomy.
tetanospasmin.
4. Assertion : Haemophilia is a congenital disease.
Reason : Haemophilia is caused by a gene mutation
during one's own life span.
5. Assertion : ORS is given to the patients suffering from
cholera.
Reason : ORS contains water, minerals and sugar to
avoid dehydration.
6. Assertion : Cattle suffering from Rinderpest disease
should be isolated. Diseases caused by viruses
Reason : Rinderpest is caused by bacterium.
7. Assertion : Bordeaux mixture is able to eradicate 1 a 2 c 3 c 4 a 5 b
many fungal diseases. 6 b 7 b 8 b 9 d 10 a
Reason : It is a fungicide which has proved to be
11 b 12 a 13 b 14 b 15 c
effective for control of disease.
8. Assertion : Pork should be properly cooked to avoid 16 b 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 d
Taenia infection. 21 d 22 d 23 a 24 b 25 b
Reason : Pork of pig contains Hexacanth and 26 b 27 d 28 a 29 a 30 b
cysticerci larvae.
31 b 32 d 33 d 34 b 35 a
9. Assertion : Rabies is also called hydrophobia.
Reason : In Rabies, the dog fears from water. 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 a

10. Assertion : Dye workers generally suffer from bladder

cancer. Diseases caused by bacteria
Reason : These are more exposed to a carcinogenic
chemical benzpyrene. 1 a 2 b 3 d 4 a 5 c
11. Assertion : Epstein – Barr virus is an oncovirus. 6 a 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 c
Reason : It stimulates the growth of cancer. 11 c 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 a
12. Assertion : Metastatic cancers are more serious.
16 b 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 c
Reason : These spread from one organ to other
21 a 22 c 23 a 24 d 25 a
body organs and there is increased
interference with metabolic functioning. 26 a 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 b
31 a 32 b
[
 Common Human Diseases 1771

Diseases caused by protozoa Assertion and Reason

1 b 2 b 3 c 4 d 5 b 1 a 2 b 3 d 4 c 5 a
6 d 7 c 8 d 9 d 10 c 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 c
11 a 12 a 13 c 14 b 15 a 11 a 12 a 13 a 14 a 15 d
16 d 17 a 18 b 19 d 20 c 16 d 17 c 18 a 19 d
21 a 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 c
26 a 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 a
31 c 32 d 33 c 34 b 35 c
36 b 37 a 38 a 39 a 40 c
41 a 42 d 43 c 44 c 45 b
46 a 47 b 48 a 49 d 50 a
51 c 52 c 53 c 54 c 55 d
Diseases caused by viruses
56 c 57 b 58 c
1. (a) Hydrophobia or rabies is an acute, usually fatal
Diseases caused by helminthes infectious viral disease of the central nervous system of
mammals. Human infection results from the bite of a
1 b 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 c rabid animal (bat, dogs, etc.).
6 d 7 a 8 b 9 d 10 d
9. (d) Tetanus and typhoid are bacterial diseases whereas
11 b 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 d
dysentery is caused by a protozoan.
16 a 17 d 18 c 19 d 20 a
12. (a) Paraplegia means paralysis of the lower part of the
21 d 22 d
body including the legs.

Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases 17. (b) Yellow fever, a viral disease is transmitted by
mosquitoes of various species of Stegomyia genera.
1 d 2 c 3 d 4 b 5 c 22. (d) Interferons curb the infection of viruses.
6 a 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 a 27. (d) Bubonic plague which affects rats and men is caused by
11 d 12 c 13 b 14 d 15 c Pasteurella pestis and is transmitted by insect vector flea
16 b 17 a 18 d 19 c 20 a xenopsylla (Xenopsylla cheapis).

21 d 22 b 23 a 24 d 25 d 37. (b) Measles is one of the most prevalent and serious

disease of children. It is caused by virus named rubeola
Arthrites and Cancer virus. Due to infection of virus, body produces antitoxin
against viral infection, which is called interferon.

1 d 2 b 3 d 4 b 5 c
38. (c) Small pox is an acute highly communicable disease. It is
caused by virus named variola virus. Now it is nearly
6 d 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 a
eradicated from India.
11 d 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 d
16 d 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 b
39. (a) Dengue is commonly called `bone breaking fever'
which is caused by a virus transmitted by Culex fatigans
21 a 22 c 23 a 24 d 25 d
and species of Aedes mosquito.
26 d 27 b

Diseases caused by bacteria

Critical Thinking Questions
1. (a) Leprosy is a communicable bacterial disease caused by
1 c 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 c Mycobacterium leprae.
6 a 7 c 8 d 9 a 10 a 2. (b) Cholera is caused by a bacteria Vibrio cholerae.
11 d 12 b 13 c 14 d 15 a 3. (d) Widal's test is the test for the presence of agglutinins to
16 c 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 a O and H antigens of Salmonella typhi and Salmonella
21 b 22 a 23 a 24 a 25 b paratyphi in the serum of patients with suspected
26 c 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 d
Salmonella infection.
31 c 32 b 33 b 34 c 35 b 4. (a) Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused by
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
 1772 Common Human Diseases
5. (c) Diphtheria is an acute infectious disease caused by
Corynebacterium diphtheriae and its toxin affecting the
membranes of the nose, throat or larynx.
22. (c) Syphillis a sexually transmitted disease (STD) is caused
by Treponema pallidum.
29. (a) Diphtheria is a serious disease caused by bacterium
Corynebacterium diphtheriae. It commonly attacks
mucous membrane of nose, throat and tonsils. The
symptoms include high fever, sore throat, difficulty in
breathing due to chocking.
Diseases caused by protozoa
1. (b) Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium
falciparum. It is also called as aestivo–autumnal or
pernicious malaria or black water fever. The fever is
often fatal to the patient as it affects the brain.
2. (b) Ronald Ross a British scientist in 1898, showed that
malarial parasite is carried by the `anopheles' mosquito.
He was awarded Nobel prize for the same in 1902.
5. (b) Quinine (C20 H 24 N 2O2 ) is an alkaloid obtained from
Cinchona bark. It suppresses the asexual erythrocytic
forms of malarial parasites and has a slight effect on the
gametocytes of Plasmodium vivax and P. malariae.
7. (c) Gambian fever or Gambian sleeping sickness is caused
by a protozoan Trypanosoma gambience and is
transmitted by Glossina palpalis (tse–tse fly).
8. (d) Sleeping sickness is spread by tse–tse fly.
10. (c) Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentery is caused by the
ingestion of quadrinucleate cyst of Entamoeba
histolytica along with contaminated food and drinks.
11. (a) Kala azar is caused by a protozoan Leishmania
donovani and it transmitted by sand fly Phlebotomus.
14. (b) Plasmodium malariae is the causitive organism of
quartan malaria which is characterized by the
recurrence of fever every fourth day as the duration of
its erythrocytic cycle is 72 hours.
15. (a) Tertian, benign tertian or vivax malaria is caused by
Plasmodium vivax and is characterized by recurrence of
fever every third day i.e. after 48 hours. This type of
malaria does not result in death of the patient and
incidence of this disease is worldwide mainly in
temperate regions.
17. (a) Schuffner's dots or granules are small red eosinophillic
granules which appear in the cytoplasm of host
corpuscles during malarial infection.
18. (b) Black water fever is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
It is also called as aestivo-autumnal or malignant tertian
malaria or pernicious malaria. The fever is often fatal to
the patient as it affects the brain.
29. (a) Entamoeba coli a protozoan found within the lumen of
colon of human beings is non–pathogenic but
occasionally leads to GIT disturbances.
33. (c) Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the buccal cavity of man.
It causes ulcers in gums; which are invaded by pus
forming bacteria. Entamoeba gingivalis feeds on
bacteria also.
35. (c) By washing the hands, we can avoid the ingestion of
cysts. Cysts are responsible for infection.
Diseases caused by helminthes
13. (a) Culex fatigans is a biological vector for Wuchereria
bancrofti.
14. (a) Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by a nematode
Wuchereria bancrofti which is transmitted through the
bite of Culex fatigans mosquito. In this disease, there is
huge enlargement of the diseased (affected) organ.
22. (d) Rocky mountain spotted fever is an acute rickettsial
disease characterised by high fever, chills, pain in
muscles and joints. It is caused by an infected tick.
Diabetes millitus and Cardiovascular diseases
1. (d) The patient of Patau's syndrome often suffers from
disorders of heart.
2. (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a method for
amplifying a specific region of DNA molecule and thus,
can help in the diagnosis of genetical basis of disorder
3. (d) Diphtheria is related to respiratory system.
16. (b) Dr. Christiaan Barnard a South African surgeon
performed first human heart transplant operation in
1967 in Capetown, South Africa. His patient survived
for 18 days.
Arthrites and Cancer
10. (a) The most widely distributed cancer is carcinoma of lung
in males of India.
12. (b) Glaucoma is not cancer but an abnormality of eye in
which there is an increase in fluid (intra-occular)
pressure which leads to permanent damage of optic
nerve fibres and consequently irreversible loss of eye–
sight.
16. (d) The cancer cells multiply by abnormal rapid and
uncontrolled mitosis.
17. (c) Leukemia is abnormal increase in number of leucocytes
which are all immature.
Critical Thinking Questions
2. (c) Any disease producing agent or micro-organism is
termed pathogen.
3. (a) Sickle cell aneamia is caused by a single gene mutation
in the sixth place of  − chain of haemoglobin where
glutamic acid is replaced by valine.

18. (a) Due to deposition of carbon particles.
19. (c) CT scan is a radiographic technique where distinct
images of internal structure are obtained by employing
beams of X- rays.
25. (b) Tay–Sachs disease is the most common GM 2
gangliosidosis, occuring almost exclusively among
north–east European Jews and specifically characterized
by infantile onset (3–6 months), doll–like facies, cherry
red macular spot (90 + percent of the infants) early
blindness, hyperacusis, macrocephaly, siezures and
hypotonia; the children die between 2 and 5 years of
age. It is caused by the deficiency of hexosaminidase A
enzyme in tissue.
26. (c) A.T.S. in the abbreviation for antitetanic serum.
27. (a) Epidemiology is the study of the relationships of various
factors determining the frequency and distribution of
diseases in the human community.
29. (a) Kwashiorkar is a nutritional deficiency disease due to
low protein diet.
34. (c) ‘Meningitis' word is composed of `meninges' and `itis'
which in greek language means membranes covering
brain and spinal cord and inflammation respectively. It
means inflammation of meninges.
Assertion and Reason
1. (a) Amoebic infection is direct and oral. The tetranucleate
cysts are ingested with contaminated food water. The
pathogen secretes a cytolysin enzyme which damages
intestinal mucosa leading to its ulceration acute
diarrhoea, blood and mucus in the stools so we can
diagnosed by stool test of the patient.
2. (b) Polio is misnomerly called in fantile paralysis pulse –
polio programme was started in December 1995 in
India. In this programme babies in the age group of 0 –
5 year are vaccinated with oral polio vaccine. It was
aimed to eradicate this crippling disease by the end of
20th century.
3. (d) Tetanus caused by the bacillus Clostridium tetani.
Montex test is performed to determine susceptibility of
tuberculosis.
5. (a) ORS is oral dehydration solution used for correcting
dehydration caused by diarrhoea in all age groups. One
liter of ORS contains 1.5 gm glucose, 3.5 gm NaCl, 2.9
gm KCl and 2.9 gm trisodium. Citrate and ORS given
to the patients who is suffering from cholera.
Common Human Diseases 1773
7. (a) Fungal disease like mycosis and thrush can be controlled
by using Bordaeux mixture (having copper sulphate).
8. (c) Human infection is direct and oral. It occurs by eating
raw or under – cooked measly pork (Pig muscle with
cysticercus larvae of taenia). Infection in vegetarians
occurs through improperly washed vegetable. So
proper cooking of pork and properly washed vegetable
to avoid taenia infection.
9. (c) Rabies is a disease caused by a rabies virus. It other
name of rabies is hydrophobia. The patient fear from
water, then he paralysed and death.
10. (c) Bladder cancer is caused by certain dyes. It is most
commonly reported in the worker who work in
industries such as dyeing and printing where these are
exposed to aniline.
11. (a) Oncoviruses are cancer – causing viruses and may be
DNA or RNA virus e.g., Epstein – Barr – Virus, Herpes
simplex type 2 virus etc. This shows that the
development of cancerous tumour is associated with
certain genes.
12. (a) Metastasis is the process of transference of cancerous
cells from the site of origin to distant parts of the body.
Such tumours are very serious and cause the death of
the patient due to increasing interference with the
metabolic functions of the body and killing of more and
more normal cells.
14. (a) Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled growth and
division of certain body tissues. So forming a tumour.
Cancer show uncontrolled mitotic divisions of cells
causing unorganized growth.
15. (d) Sarcoma are malignant growths of the connective tissue.
Adenoma is cancer of gland adenoma is located in the
gland.
16. (d) Ionising radiation's like X-rays, gamma – rays and
particulate radiations from radio active substance are
known to rupture DNA stands and induce mutations to
cause cancers.
17. (c) Cigarette and cigar tobacco smoking causes lip, mouth,
and lung cancers due to presence of a carcinogenic
agent, benzpyrene and N – nitrosodimethylene and
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. Nicotine is the
substance that causes addiction to tobacco.
18. (a) Recently Dr. Leif Busk of sweden reported that when
high carbohydrate food like potato chips and french
fries are heated then a carcinogenic chemical called
acrylamide, us formed.