@3T.I.M.E.
(AllIndia Mock CAT)
(Test Ref.: AIMCAT0808)
Test BookIet Serial No.:
Test Form No.: 111
BASIC INSTRUCTIONS
1. Please DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET TILL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.
2. Fill in the TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO. and the TEST FORM NO. given on this booklet in your ANSWER SHEET in the appropriate boxes.
3. This test booklet contains 28 pages (including the front and back covers as well as blank pages).
Immediately after opening the test booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.
4. Read the instructions given at the beginning/end of each section or at the beginning of a group of questions very carefully.
5. This test has three sections with 75 questions> 25, 25, and 25 in the first, second and third sections respectively. Each section carries 50 marks. In any section, all questions do not carry equal marks. The mark(s) carried by a question or a set of questions is/arc mentioned against the respective question or at the beginning of the respective set of questions. The TOTAL TIME available for the paper is 2'l2 hours, The student may apportion this time among various sections as he/she wishes. However, the student is expected to show hisfher competence in aU the three sections.
6. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of onefourth of the marks allotted to the respective questions.
7. Do not carry calculators, slide rules or any other calculating devices. Do not carry any other papers with you except your HALL TICKET.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR ANSWERING
I. Mark your answers on the ANSWER SHEET that is provided to you separately.
2. Use an HB pencil only for marking the answers.
3. For marking the answer, darken COMPLETELY the oval corresponding to the answer choice selected by you. If the oval is filled incompletely or it is not dark enough, your answer may not be read by the computer for correction. If you want to correct an answer already marked, erase your old answer completely and darken the correct oval. If more than one oval is darkened for a question, it will be treated as a wrong answer.
4. Do not make any other markings on your answer sheet.
5. Do any rough or scratch work on the test paper itself DO NOT use any additional paper or the Response sheet for rough work.
~T.I.M.E.
Triumphant Institute of Management Education Pvt. Ltd.
Triumphant Institute of Management Education Pvt Ltd.
~T.I.M.E.
(AllIndia Mock CAT)
(Test Ref.: AIMCAT0808)
Test BookJet Serial No.:
Test Form No.: III
BASIC INSTRUCTIONS
1. Please DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET TILL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.
2. fill in the TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO. and the TEST FORM NO. given on this booklet in your ANSWER SHEET in the appropriate boxes.
3. This test booklet contains 28 pages (including the front and back covers as well as blank pages).
Immediately after opening the test booklet, verify that all the pages are printed properly and arc in order.
4. Read the instructions given at the beginning/end of each section or at the beginning of a group of questions very carefully.
5. This test has three sections with 75 questions  25, 25, and 25 in the first, second and third sections respectively. Each section carries 50 marks. In any section, all questions do 110t carry equal marks. The mark(s) carried by a question or a set of questions is/are mentioned against the respective question or at the beginning of the respective set of questions. The TOTAL 1'1 ME available for the paper is 2'h bours. The student may apportion this time among various sections as he/she wishes. However, the student is expected to show his/her competence in all the three sections.
6. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of onefourth of the marks allotted to the respective questions.
7. Do not carry calculators, slide rules or any other calculating devices. Do not carry any other papers with you except your HALL TICKET.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR ANSWERING
I
1. Mark your answers on the ANSWER SHEET that is provided to you separately.
2. Use an HB pencil only for marking the answers.
3. For marking the answer, darken COMPLETELY the oval corresponding to the answer choice selected by you. I f the oval is filled incompletely or it is not dark enough, your answer may not be read by the computer for correction. If you want to correct an answer already marked, erase your old answer completely and darken the correct oval. If more than one oval is darkened for a question, it will be treated as a wrong answer.
4. Do not make any other markings on your answer sheet.
5. Do any rough or scratch work on the test paper itself. DO NOT use any additional paper or the Response sheet for rough work.
®T.I.M.E.
Triurnp hant Institute of Management Educat\on Pvt. Ud.
SECTION I Number of Questions = 30
Note: All questions in this section do not carry equal marks. The mark(s) carried by each question is/are mentioned in the brackets against the respective question.
For example, question 3 carries 3 marks, while question 5 carries 1 mark.
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 25: Answer the questions independently of each other.
1. Let {bd, where i is a natural number, be a sequence of real numbers. (2 marks)
If bp + q = bp + bq  pq and hg = 100, then what is the value of blS?
(1) 135
(3) 180
(5) 225
(4) 175
(2) 130
2. What is the remainder when 7700 is divided by 100?
(1 mark)
(1) 81
(3) 41
(5) 1
_(4) 21
./
(2) 61
3. Ravi wanted to buy at least 150 pens and at least 400 pencils to distribute them (3 marks)
among his classmates. When he reached the only pen store in his locality, he found
that the store did not sell pens or pencils individually but sold them only in two
types of combopacks, One type of combopack was called 'Value Pack'; each of
which contained 5 pens and 9 pencils, while the other type of combopack was
called 'Premium Pack', each of which contained 4 pens and 15 pencils. If the prices
of a 'Value Pack' and a 'Premium Pack' are Rs.21 and RS.25 respectively, find the
minimum amount that Ravi would have to spend.
(1) Rs.736
(2) Rs.778
(4) Rs.789
(5) Rs.945
(3) Rs.782
4. A parallelogram is divided into 9 regions of equal area by drawing line segments (2 marks)
parallel to one of its diagonals. What is the ratio of the length of the longest of the
line segments to that of the shortest?
(I) J2: I (4) J5: 1
(2) f3: 1
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) 2 : 1
5. If a "" tfb '" V;; '" W = if; = %, find the number of digits In the number (a x b x c x d x eiG, given that log2 = 0.3010 and log3 = 0.4771.
(1 mark)
(1) 116
(3) 118
(5) 115
(4) 119
(2) 117
6. The cost of 5 apples, 4 bananas and 3 chikkoos is Rs.50. If the cost of an apple, a banana and a chikkoo is Rs.12, how much more does an apple cost than a chikkoo?
(1 mark)
(1) Re.l (4) Rs.4
(2) Rs.2
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) Rs.3
/
7. If I! x 2! x ....... x 49! = (180)k x m, where k and m are natural numbers and m is (2 marks)
not a multiple of 5, find the value of k.
('1) 279 (4) 240
(2) 289
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) 250
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8. Mr. Ram's basic pay for a 40 hr week is Rs.20. Overtime is paid at a rate of onesixth more than the basic pay. Find the number of hours that he has to work in a week in order to earn a total of Rs.23 .50.
(1 mark)
(1) 47 (4) 43
(2) 45
/ (5) None of these
.13) 46
9. In a certain game of cards, each of four persons A, B, C and D draws a pair of cards, (3 marks)
in turn, from a wellshuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The pair of cards are
replaced in the deck after the tum of each person. In any draw, if both the cards
drawn by a person are of the same suit, the person is considered to have won the
game. Each round of the game begins with A drawing first, followed by E, C and D,
in that order. If none of them wins. in the first round of draws, they continue drawing
cards in the same order. They decide to continue the game until one of them wins
and then stop. However, there are several interruptions in the game before a player
wins and whenever the game is resumed after an interruption, it resumes with the
player whose turn it is. If immediately after the nth interruption, A's chances of
winning the game are lower than those of exactly two others, who was the person
who drew cards immediately before the nth interruption?
(l)A (4) 0
(2) B
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) C
10. If 0 + b + c = 25 and (1 + h) (0 + c) = 144, which of the following cou1d be the value of b?
(I mark)
(1) 8 (4) 18
(2) 10 (3) 17
(5) More than one of the above
11. Thomas and I bet on each game of a series of chess games playedbetween us, The (2 marks)
bet amount in each game was twice that in the previous game. The series of games
will end when I win a game. If each of us bet Rs.2 in the first game, and the
probability of Thomas winning a game against me is 9 : 1, how much did Thomas
lose or gain at the end of the series?
(1) Lost Rs.2 (2) Gained Rs.2
(3) Gained RsA (4) No loss no gain
(5) Depends on the number of games played in the series
Ti2.'Given below is a circle with centre 0 and four points ~ P, Q, R 'and S  on the \../ circle. If the chords SQ and PR intersect each other at 0 and the radius of the circle
is 8.[i em, find area (in sq.crn) of ,1PSQ.
(1 mark)
0)108.jj (2) 54 f3 (3) 81J3 (4) 96J3 (5) 154:j6
 
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13. Fourteen children are playing a game on a beach. Initially they begin the game by (3 marks)
making one huge pile of sand and then take turns to divide the pile into smaller
piles. If each child, in his Of her tum, can divide an existing pile into only m or n
smaller piles, for what value of (m, n) is it not possible to get 14 piles of sand at any
stage in the game?
(1) (2,5)
(2) (3,6)
. 13) (3,9)
(4) (4,6)
(5) (5,6)
14. PIP2 PI! is a convex polygon. Ql is a point on PIP2 such that P1QI / P1P2 = x. (3 marks)
The line through QI, parallel to PIP3 meets P2P3 in Q2. Similarly, we obtain the
points Q3, Q4, Q5 Qn, i.e., we get Q, as the point of intersection of the line
Pi Pi + I and the line through Q, I, drawn parallel to PiI P, + I. Further, we interpret Pn + I as Ph P, + 2 as P2 and so on. We can then obtain a second set of n points, QI1 + I to Q2n, by continuing with the same process, and then a third set, and so on. Which of the following is definitely true?
(1) o.. 1= QI (2) Q2n+ 1= Ql
(3) Q2n+I=QI=>X=1I2 (4) Q3n+I=QI=>X=1I3
(5) x = 114 and n = 7 => QI = Qs
15. There are n stones, weighing 1 kg, 2 kg, .... n kg. These stones are placed in three bags A, Band C, in the following manner. Bag A contains the stones weighing 1 kg, 4 kg, 7 kg ... , Bag B contain the stones weighing 2 kg,S kg, 8 kg ..... , while Bag C contains the rest of the stones. After this, the Average Weight (AW), defined as (Total Weight of stones in a bag) I (Number of stones in that bag), is calculated for each bag. It was found that the A Ws of exactly two of the three bags were same as the weight of one of the stones in the respective bags, while the A W of the other bag was different from the weight of any stone in it. Which of the following can be the value of n.
(1) 82 (4) 113
(2) 99
(5) None of these
(3) 90
16. Two trains TI and T2 are travelling on parallel tracks and in opposite directions.
MI and M2 are two persons who are travelling in TI and T2 respectively. When the two trains just start to cross each other, M], who is at the tail end of T], starts running towards the front end of T l s at a speed of 2 mIs, and M2, who is at the front end of T', starts running towards the tail end of Tj, at a speed of 3 m/s. If the lengths of TI and T2 are 340 m and 500 m respectively, and the speeds of TI and T2 are 54 km/hr and 72 krn/hr respectively, in how much time (from 'the time TI and T2 start to cross each other) will the two persons cross each other?
(1) 10 seconds (4) 20 seconds
4
(2) 9  seconds 9
(5) 17 seconds
(3) 24 seconds
(2 marks)
(2 marks)
17. A tangent PT is drawn toa circle from an external point 'P, with T as the point of (2 marks)
tangency. 0 is the centre of the circle and PO intersects the circle at M. IfOT/PT > 2,
which of the following is a possible value of OMlMP?
(1) 6 (4) 9
(2) 7
(5) None of these
(3) 8
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18. A sequence of 4 digits, when considered as a number in base lOis four times the number it represents in base 6. What is the sum of the digits of the sequence?
(3 marks)
(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8
(5) 11
19. A centercoordinator was supervising the arrangements being made for a public (3 marks)
examination. Tables, meant for individual candidates, were arranged in a big hall in
several columns, each column having the same number of tables. All the tables were
numbered, starting with a particular number on the first table at the beginning of the
first column and proceeding with successive numbers to the end of that column and
then again starting from the first table at the beginning of the second column and
proceeding to the end of that column and so on. The coordinator noticed that the
sum of the digits of the number on the table at the end of the first column was 4 and
the values of the same for the tables at the end of the 2nd, 3rd, 4th lOth columns
were 17,12 16,20,15,19,14,18 and 22 respectively. Which of the following is a possible value for the number of tables in each column?
(1) 87
(2) 75
(3) 99
(4) 72
(5) 94
20. Amar, Bhavan and Chetan bought a circular pizza. They cut it into exactly five (3 marks)
sectors, all of distinct sizes and distributed these five parts among themselves such
that each of them got at least one part but none of them got the parts of the pizza
which were adjacent. In how many ways could they have shared the pizza?
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 35
(5) 42
DIRECTIONS/or questions 21 and 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below,
For an integer x, a functionf(x) is defined as the sum of (n 1 1) terms, as given below, where n is a positive integer greater than 4.
f(x) = I x I + I x + 10 I + I x + 20 I + ........ +\ x + 1 oen  1) I + I x+ IOn I
21. If n = 6, what is the minimum value ofj(x)?
(1 mark)
(1) 210
(2) 160
(3) 130
(4) 120
(5) 119 .
22. For a given odd value of n, for how many values of x is the minimum value of j(x) (2 marks) realized?
(1) I
(2) 2
(3) 9
(4) 10
(5) II
DIRECTIONSjor questions 23 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are N identical looking (indistinguishable) coins. All the coins have the same weight, except one coin, which has a different weight. Also given is a common balance, which can take any number of coins in each of the two pans.
23. IfN = 18 and it is known that the coin which has a different weight is lighter, what is the minimum number of weighings required to be certain of identifying the lighter coin?
(1 mark)
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) 7
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24. If N = 29, what is the minimum number of weighings required to be certain of identifying the coin with the different weight?
(2 marks)
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5
(5) 7
,
25. For N 284, the minimum number of weighings required to be certain of
identifying the coin with the different weight is
(3 marks)
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
(5) 9
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SECTION II Number of Questions ;;:= 25
Note: All questions in this section do not carry equal marks. The mark(s) carried by each question or set of questions is/are mentioned in the brackets against the respective question or at the beginning of the respective set of questions.
For example, question 26 carries 1 mark, while question 39 carries 2 marks.
Questions 26 to 31 carry 1 mark each.
DIRECTIONS jor questions 26 and 27: In each question, a word with its contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from among the alternatives that is the most appropriate substitute for the question word in the given context and mark its number as your answer.
26. EQUIVOCATE: Unable to face the barrage of questions from the reporters, the minister had no option butto resort to equivocation.
(1) prevarication (2) allusion
(3) diatribe
(4) endearment
(5) suggestion
27. UNFATHOMABLE: The stoic depth of Hinduism will remam unfathomable to those who pretend to be its action heroes.
(1) inscrutable
(2) ambiguous
(3) immeasurable (4) enigmatic
(5) elusive
DIRECTIONS for questions 28 and 29: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence: is underlined. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative and mark its number as your answer.
28. India may be like the proverbial slow and steady tortoise but hardly it can afford to amble in this age of speed and 1echnoiogy, burdened by a deeprooted corruption that is not just holding it back, but is also eroding its very foundation.
(1) but hardly it can afford to amble along in this age of speed and technology (2) but it can hardly afford to amble along in this age of speed and technology (3) but hardly can it afford to amble in this age of speed and technology
(4) but it can hardly afford to amble in this age of speed and technology
(5) no change required
29. Since the 1990s, politicians and pundits predicted the imminent arrival of a digital utopia wherein robots would do the washing up and we would live in peace and harmony in an electronically connected global village  thanks to the net.
(1) pundits had predicted the imminent arrival of a digital. utopia wherein (2) pundits have predicted the imminent arrival of a digital utopia where (3) pundits have predicted the imminent arrival of a digital utopia in which (4) pundits predicted the imminent arrival of a digital utopia in which
(5) no change required
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DIRECTIONS jar questions 30 and 31: Each question has a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed c
by the capitalized pair. '
30. UNPROFESSIONAL: CONDUCT
(1) Unparalleled: Opportunity (3) Unpalatable: Truth
(5) Unpremeditated: Observation
31. OBSCENE: PORNOGRAPHY
(1) Numinous: Beauty
(3) Nondescript: Mansion (5) Newfangled: Progress
Questions 32 t034 carry 2 marks each.
(2) Unpretentious: Thoroughfare (4) Unobtrusive: Lecture
(2) Nugatory: Institution (4) Ortund : Sphere
DIRECTIONS for questions 32 and 33: Fill in the blanks in the passages below with the most appropriate word fromamong the options given for each blank. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author's overall style and meaning when you choose your answer,
32. The Rashtrapati's powers arc (A) by Article 74· of the constitution which enjoins
the President to act in accordance with the advice (B) by the Council of Ministers, alan
(C) that some of the office holders have abided by only with reluctance, on occasion testing
the limits of their powers and the government's determination.
(1) A  constricted; (2) A  circumscribed; (3) A  curtailed;
(4) A _. circumscribed; (5) A  curtailed;
B  suggested; B  rendered; B  tendered; B  tendered; B  rendered;
C  restraint C  authority C ~. authority C  restraint C approval
33. A generation that did not experience at first hand the political (A) of the Emergency is liable
to take democracy for granted, but not having lived through the (B) of partition, it can also
bring a new and refreshing (C) to the festering political legacy called Kashmir.
(1) A  autocracy;
(2) A  authoritarianism; (3) A  autocracy;
(4) A  authoritarianism; (5) A  dictatorship;
B  trauma; B trauma; B  pains; B  trauma;
B  problems;
C  dialogue C  truth
C  dialogue
C  pragmatism C  truth
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DIRECTIONS for question 34: In the question below, 'five different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage.
34. A. What meaning can, progress have in an India where its politicians ~ the very people who are supposed to help the poor and the needy ~ are the ones who deprive them of their rights and paying no heed to their woes.
B. What meaning can progress have in an India when its politicians ~ the very people who are supposed to help the poor and needy ~ are the ones depriving them of their rights and pay no heed to their woes.
C. What meaning can progress have in India when its politicians ~ the very people who are supposed to help the poor and needy =are the ones depriving them of their rights and paying no heed to their woes.
D. What meaning can progress have in India where its politicians ~ the very people who are supposed to help the poor and the needy ~ are the ones depriving them of their rights and pay no heed to their woes.
E. What meaning can progress have in an India when its politicians  the very people who are supposed to help the poor and needy ~ are the ones who deprive them of their rights paying no heed to their woes.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Questions 35 to 38 carry 3 marks each.
DIRECTIONS for questions 35 and 36: In each of the following questions, five different ways of presenting an idea are given. Choose the one that conforms most closely to standard English usage.
35. A. Ideally the country's first citizen has to be above the fray and elected by a national consensus but political contests for the office, always a reality, has taken on a sharper edge now that the polity has increasingly become fractured.
B. Ideally the country's first citizen should be above the fray and elected by a national consensus but political contests for the office, always a reality, have taken on a sharper edge now that the polity has become increasingly fractured.
c. Ideally the country's first citizen must be above the fray and elected by a national consensus but political contests for the office, always a reality, have taken on a sharper edge now that the polity has become increasingly fractured.
D. Ideally the country's first citizen should be above the fray and elected by a national consensus but political contests for the office, always a reality, have taken on a sharper edge now that the polity has become fractured increasingly.
E. Ideally the country's first citizen should be above the fray and elected by a national consensus but political contests for the office, always a reality, has taken a sharper edge now that the polity has increasingly become fractured,
(l)A
(4) D
(5) E
(2) B
(3) C
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36. A. Since it is impracticable to screen every international visitor and since those who catch the infection may take up to a week or more to develop SARS, there can be no foolproof measure  in this age of international travel  to prevent the virus from entering the country.
B. Since it is impracticable to screen every international visitor as those who catch the infection may take up to a week or more to develop SARS, there can be no foolproof measure  in this age of international travel  to prevent the virus entering the country.
C. Since it is impracticable to screen every international visitor and since those who catch the , infection may take upa week or more to develop SARS, there can be no foolproof measure  in this age of international travel preventing the virus entering the country.
O. Since it is impracticable to screen every international visitor and since those catch the infection take up a week or more to develop SARS, there can be no foolproof measure  in this age of international travel to prevent the virus from entering the country.
E. Since it is impracticable to screen every international visitor as those who catch the infection may take up a week or more to develop SARS  there can be no foolproof measure  in this age of international travel  preventing the virus from entering the country.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
DIRECTIONS/or questions 37 and 38: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
37. The Atlantic is responsible for soaking up carbon dioxide emissions of the United Kingdom and the Netherlands. A recent study shows that the ocean continues to absorbs the same quantity of the gas ~jt did 25 years ago. Yet the Atlantic seems to be working less efficiently now than it did a quarter of a century ago.
Pic,k the pair of statements either or both of which would be t}le assumptiorus) in this argument.
(A) The Atlantic's capacity for soaking up carbon dioxide is reduced because of the carbon
dioxide already dissolved in it.
(B) The United Kingdom and Netherlands have reduced their carbon dioxide emissions. (C) Carbon dioxide absorption capacity has decreased throughout the world.
(D) Carbon dioxide emissions by the United Kingdom and the Netherlands have increased over . the last quarter of a century.
(E) The volume of water in the Atlantic has increased.
(I) A and D
(2) Band D
(3) Band C
(4) DandE
(5) A and E
38. There is a common belief that eating chocolates results in tooth decay leading to several dental problems. But recent researches have found that cocoa found in chocolates actually protects gums and the teeth. Hence doctors should advise those suffering from dentalproblem to eat chocolates.
What is absurd in the way the conclusion is arrived at?
(I) The assumption that chocolates are good for teeth irrespective of the quantum eaten. (2) The assumption that chocolates can cure dental diseases.
(3) The assumption that doctors can prescribe anything other than medicine. (4) The assumption that sufficient research has been carried out in the matter.
(5) The assumption that dentists all over the world are aware of the good effects of eating chocolates.
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If
I
DIRECTIONS for questions 39 to 50: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow them.
PASSAGEI
Is there any knowledge in the world which is so certain that no reasonable man could doubt it? This question, which at first sight might not seem difficult, is really one of the most difficult that can be asked. When we have realized the obstacles in the way of a straightforward and confident answer, we shall be well launched on the study of philosophy  for philosophy is merely the attempt to answer such ultimate questions? not carelessly and dogmatically, as we do in ordinary life and even in the sciences, but critically, after exploring all that makes such questions puzzling, and after realizing all the vagueness and confusion that underlie our ordinary ideas.
In daily life, we assume as certain many things which, on a closer scrutiny, are found to be so full of apparent contradictions that only a great amount of thought enables us to know what it is that we really may believe. In the search for certainty, it is natural to begin with our present experiences, and in some sense, no doubt, knowledge is to be derived from them. But ariy statement as to what it is that our immediate experiences make us know is very likely to be wrong. It seems to me that I am now sitting in a chair, at a table of a certain shape, on which I see sheets of paper with writing or print. By turning my head I see, outside the window, buildings and clouds and the sun. I believe thatthe sun is about ninetythree million miles from the earth; that it is a hot globe many times bigger than the earth; that, owing to the earth's rotation, it rises every morning, and will continue to do so for an indefinite time in the future. I believe that, if any other normal person comes into my room, he will sec the same chairs and tables and books and papers as I see, and that the table which I see is the same as the table which I feel pressing against my arm. All this seems to be so evident as to be hardly worth stating, except in answer to a man who doubts whether I know anything. Yet all this may be reasonably doubted, and all of it requires much careful discussion before we can be sure that we have stated it in a form that is wholly true.
To make our difficulties plain, let us concentrate attention on the table. To the eye it is oblong, brown and shiny, to the touch it is smooth and cool and hard; when I tap it, itgives out a wooden sound. Any one else who sees and feels and hears the table will agree with this description, so that it might seem as if no difficulty would arise; but as soon as we try to be more precise our troubles begin. Although I believe that the table is 'really' of the same colour all over, the parts that reflect the light look much brighter than the other parts, and some parts look white because of reflected light. I know that, if I move, the parts that reflect the light will be different, so that the apparent distribution of colours on the table will change. It follows that if several people are looking at the table at the same moment, no two of them will see exactly the same distribution of colours, because no two can see it from exactly the same point of view, and any change in the point of view makes some change in the way the light is reflected.
For most practical purposes these differences are unimportant, but to the painter they are allimportant: the painter has to unlearn the habit of thinking that things seem to have the colour which common sense says they 'really' have, and to learn the habit of seeing things as they appear. Here we have already the beginning of one of the distinctions that cause most trouble in philosophy  the distinction between 'appearance' and 'reality' between what things seem to be and what they are. The painter wants to know what things seem to be, the practical man and the philosopher want to know what they are; but the philosopher's wish to know this is stronger than the practical man's, and is more.troubled by knowledge as to the difficulties of answering the question.
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To return to the table, it is evident from what we have found, that there is no colour which preeminently appe~rs to be the colour of the table, or even of anyone particular part of the table  it appears to be of different colours from different points of view, and there is no reason for regarding some of these as more really its colours than others. And we know that even from a given point of view the colour will seem different by artificial light, or to a colourblind man, or to a man wearing blue spectacles, while in the dark there will be no colour at all, though to touch and hearing the table will be unchanged. This colour is not something which is inherent in the table, but something depending upon the table and the spectator and the way the light falls on the table. When, in ordinary Iife,we speak of the colour of the table, we only mean the sort of colour which it will seem to have to a normal spectator from an ordinary point of view under usual conditions of light. But the other colours which appear under other conditions have just as good a right to be considered real; and therefore, to avoid favouritism, we are compelled to deny that, in itself, the table has anyone particular colour.
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39. Identify the statement which is true as per the passage.
(I) The difference between appearance and reality can be easily appreciated by any layman.
(2) Individual perception of physical objects can be easily influenced and thereby is prone to error.
(3) A philosopher should make a distinction between appearance and reality.
(4) Unless one encounters a distinction between appearance and reality, one continues to view objects as they appear.
(5) All philosophical troubles will end if we consider appearance and reality to be the same.
40. Whiie describing an object, 'our (philosophers') troubles' begin because
(1) we do not agree upon a common description of an object.
(2) we try to infer about that object from the repository of knowledge we already possess.
(3) our knowledge of the physical world limits the application of the same to abstract entities too.
(4) the description varies with each philosopher's personal perception of that object. (5) we want to know precisely how an object appears.
41. The statement, 'there is no reason for regarding some of these as .more really its colours than others' implies that
(I) all opinions are equally important.
(2) no single opinion expresses complete truth. (3) all perceptions are of the truth.
(4) there is concurrence at least at a certain level of truth.
(5) we should not trust the knowledge we gain through our eyes.
42. The common man
(I) takes things as they are.
(2) is not concerned about the opinion of others.
(3) relies only on immediate experience to help him get through his daily routine. (4) assumes that many things are not what they appear to be.
(5) shows an inclination to construct a real image from an apparent image.
(2 marks)
(2 marks)
(1 mark)
(1 mark)
PASSAGEII
Unaccountable success, like inexplicable failure, disconcerts. Even when our undertakings achieve their avowed objectives, we endeavour to understand them. We wonder how our projects, practices, interests, and institutions fit into the greater scheme of things, what they contribute to and derive from it. Our curiosity extends beyond our limited forays into art and science, beyond ourpaJocl1ial concerns with commerce, politics, and law. We want to comprehend the interlocking systems that support Or thwart our efforts. If we start out expecting thereby to gain fame, fortune, and the love of admirable people, many of us conclude that understanding itself is worth the candle. The epistemic quest need serve no further end.
What makes for an acceptable episternic framework depends on the kind of excellence we are after and on the functions we expect it to perform in our cognitive economy. Agents adopt a variety of cognitive stances with different kinds and degrees of intellectual merit. In doing epistemology, we discriminate among such stances, segregating out those that are worthy of intellectual esteem. Different partitions of the cognitive realm underwrite different conceptions of epistemology's goals and Vindicate the construction and employment of epistemic frameworks of different kinds.
Epistemological theories typically share an abstract characterization of their enterprise. They agree, for example, that epistemology is the study of the nature, scope, and utility of knowledge. But they disagree about how their shared characterization is concretely to be realized. So they differ over their subject's priorities and powers, resources and rewards, standards and criteria. To view them as supplying alternative answers to the same. questions is an oversimplification. For they embody disagreements about what the real questions are and what counts as answering them. We cannot hope to decide among competing positions on the basis of pointbypoint comparisons, for their respective merits and faults stubbornly refuse to line up. To understand a philosophical position and evaluate it fairly requires understanding the network of commitments that constitute it; for these commitments organize its domain, frame its problems, and supply standards for the solution of those problems.
John Rawls invokes a distinction between procedures that extends to supply. a useful classification of epistemological theories, A perfect procedure recognizes an independent criterion for a correct outcome and a method whose results  if any  are guaranteed to satisfy that criterion. Our independent criterion for the fair division of a cake, let us assume, is that a fair division is an equal one. A cakeslicing procedure is perfect, then, just in case it yields an equal division when it yields any division. A finely calibrated electronic cake slicer that partitioned each cake it divided into equally large slices would provide a perfect procedure for fairly dividing cakes. The device would not have to be capable of dividing every cake. It might, for example, be inoperative on geometrically . irregular cakes. But so long as every cake it divides is divided into equal sized slices, its use would be a perfect procedure for dividing cakes fairly. An imperfect procedure recognizes an independent
criterion for a correct outcome but has no way to guarantee that the criterion is satisfied. The criterion for a correct outcome in a criminal trial is that the defendant is convicted if, and only if, he is guilty. Trial by jury, representation by counsel, the rules of evidence, and so on, are the means used to secure that result. But the means are not perfect. Sometimes a wrong verdict is reached. A pure procedure has no independent standard for a correct outcome. The procedure itself, when properly performed, determines what result is correct, And unless the procedure is 'actually performed, there is no fact of the matter as to which outcome is correct. A tournament is best construed as a pure procedure. Other construals are sometimes offered, but they are less satisfactory. If a tournament is construed as a perfect procedure for discovering the most able competitor, it is plainly defective. Anyone can have an off day or a bad series. Sometimes the bestman doesn't win. And arguably, if it is construed as an
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imperfect procedure, it may be too imperfect. Consideration of how the parties fare overall may be a better indication of talent than hinging everything on their performance in a single game or series. But if the tournament is a pure procedure, such considerations are otiose. Winning the tournament is what makes a particular competitor the champion. A pure procedural interpretation of its function thus best explains how a tournament realize'S the goal of an athletic competition: it incontrovertibly establishes a winner.
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This tripartite division presents an attractive device for classifying epistemological theories. Extended to the epistemological realm, Rawls's division enables us to classify theories on the basis of differences in the sources and strength of epistemic justification they demand. Very roughly the difference is this: Perfect procedural epistemologies demand conclusive reasons  ones that guarantee the permanent acceptability of the judgments they vindicate. Imperfect procedural epistemologies require convincing reasons, but they recognize that convincing reasons need not be and typically are not conclusive. Pure procedural epistemologies construe reasons as constitutive. The reasons that, if true, would support a given claim, then, collectively amount to that claim. Plainly these criteria cry out for explication. It is far from obvious what makes for a reason, much less what makes for a conclusive, convincing, or constitutive reason.
43. There exist different kinds of epistemic frameworks
(2 marks)
(1) because the framework depends upon the requirements of the customer it is
intended to serve and they vary with every customer.
(2) since the scope of a single framework is too narrow to cover different aspects of
. factual knowledge of the general kind.
(3) to cater to different intellectual capabilities of different users.
(4) as we pursue those quests of gaining knowledge due to a variety of reasons.
(5) because the epistemological theories are too abstract to be defined by a single framework.
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44. What does the statement, 'But they disagree about how their shared characterisation (3 marks)
is concretely to be realised' imply? .
(1) Episterna logical theories cannot be viewed as a source of alternatives for a stated problem.
(2) The way epistemological theories are used is determined by the requirements unique to each user.
(3) The merits and demerits of different methods of gathering knowledge prevent the blanket application of epistemological theories.
(4) The variables making up a particular realm of knowledge are beyond easy comprehension.
(5) The existence of different branches under the domain of epistemology necessitate the different conceptions of epistemology's goals.
45. Which of the following does not assume the necessity of an independent criterion that describes an outcome as correct and just?
(2 marks)
(1) Perfect procedure (3) Pure procedure (5) None of the above
(2) Imperfect procedure
(4) Perfect and imperfect procedures
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46. The statement which is NOT true as understood from the passage is:
(3 marks)
(1) In case of pure procedure, the proper performance of a procedure (to realise a particular outcome) itself guarantees the realisation of the outcome.
(2) In case of an imperfect procedure, a just state of affairs as an outcome is not predetermined.
(3) In case of perfect procedure, it can be guaranteed that a particular procedure will yield a particular desired outcome.
(4) In an imperfect procedure, procedures are not absolute in themselves hence require to be dependent upon the fulfilment of certain criteria in order to make them appear to be just.
(5) In case of pure procedure, there is nonecessity for a criterion which will determine if an outcome is desired.
PASSAGE  III
Indifference has two aspects: the undifferentiated abyss, the black nothingness, the indeterminate animal in which everything is dissolved  but also the white nothingness, the once more calm surface upon which float unconnected .determinations like scattered members. The indeterminate is completely indifferent, but such floating determinations are no less indifferent to each other. Is difference intermediate between these two extremes? Or is it not rather the only extreme, the only moment of presence and precision? Difference is the state in which one can speak of determination as such. The difference 'between' two things is only empirical, and the corresponding determinations are only extrinsic. However, instead of something distinguished from .something else, imagine something which distinguished itself  and at the same time, that from which it distinguishes, from it. Lightning, for example, distinguished 'itself from the black sky but must also trail it behind, as though it were distinguishing itself from that which does not distinguish itself from it. It is as if the ground rose to the surface, without ceasing to be ground. There is cruelty, even monstrosity, on both sides of this struggle against an elusive adversary, in which the distinguished opposes something which cannot distinguish itself from it but continues to espouse that which divorces it. Difference is this state in which determination takes the form of unilateral distinction. We must therefore say that difference is made, or makes itself, as in the expression 'make the difference'. This difference or determination as such is also cruelty. The Platonists used to say that the notOne distinguished itself from the One, but not the converse, since the One does not flee that which flees it; and at the other pole, form distinguishes itself from matter or from the ground, but not the converse, since distinction itself is a form. In truth, all the forms are dissolved when they are reflected in this rising ground. It has ceased to be the coexisting or complementary determinations. The rising ground is no longer below, it acquires autonomous existence; the form reflected in this ground is no longer a form but an abstract line acting directly upon the soul. When the ground rises to the surface, the human face decomposes in this mirror in which both determinations and the indeterminate combine in a single determination which 'makes' the difference. It is a poor recipe for producing monsters to accumulate heteroclite determinations or to overdetermine the animal. It is better to raise up the ground and dissolve the form. Goya worked without aquatint and etching, the grisaille of the one and the severity of the other. Odilon Redon used chiaroscuro and the abstract line. The abstract line acquired all its force from giving up the model  that it to say, the plastic symbol of the form  and participates in the ground all the more violently in that it distinguishes itself from .it without the ground distinguishing itself from the line. At this point, in such a mirror, faces are distorted. Nor is it certain that it is, only the sleep of
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reason which gives rise to monsters: it is also the vigil, the insomnia of thought, since thought is that moment in which determination makes itself one, by virtue of maintaining a unilateral and precise relation to the indeterminate. Thought 'makes' difference, but difference is monstrous. We should not be surprised that difference should appear accursed, that it should be error, sin or the figure of evil for which there must be expiation. There is no sin other than raising the ground and dissolving the form. Recall Artaud's idea: cruelty is nothing but determination as such, that precise point at which the determined maintains its essential relation with the undetermined, that rigorous abstract line fed by chiaroscuro.
To rescue difference from its maledictory state seems, therefore, to be the project of the philosophy of difference. Cannot difference become a harmonious organism and relate determination to other determinations within a form  that is to say; within the coherent medium of an organic
. representation? There are four principal aspects to 'reason' in so far as it is the medium of representation: identity, in the form of the undetermined concept; analogy in the relation between ultimate determinable concepts; opposition, in the relation between determinations within concepts; resemblance, in the determined object of the concept itself. These forms are like the four heads or the four shackles of mediation. Difference is 'mediated' to the extent that it is subjected to the fourfold root of identity, opposition, analogy and resemblance. On the basis of a first impression (difference is evil), it is proposed to 'save' difference by representing it, and to represent it by relating it to the requirements of the concept in general. It is therefore a question of determining a propitious momentthe Greek propitious moment  at which difference is, as it were, reconciled with the concept. Difference must leave its cave and cease to be a monster; Or at least only that which constitutes only a bad encounter, a bad occasion. At this point the expression 'make the difference" changes its meaning. It now refers to a selective test which must determine which differences may be inscribed within the concept in general, and how. Such a test, such a selection, seems to be effectively realized by the Large and the Small. For the Large and the Small are not naturally said of the One, but first and foremost of difference. The question arises, therefore, how far the difference can and must extend  how large? How small?  in order to remain within the limits of the concept; neither becoming lost within nor escaping beyond it.
47. The author quotes the example of lightning
(3 marks)
(1) in order to describe the concept of difference.
(2) to bring out the type of difference that can manifest itself between organisms
that coexist.
(3) to arrive at the idea of difference based on observed features.
(4) to prove that internal differences exist even between identical animals.
(5) to explain that 'difference' is an intermediate state between indetermination and determination.
48. In the statement, 'the abstract line acquired all its force from giving up the model', (3 marks)
the phrase 'giving up the model' implies one of the following:
(l) Separating itself from another form of painting. (2) Establishing its unique identity.
(3) Reflecting the unifying aspects.
(4) Exhibiting the property of malleability.
(5) Catching the exact momerlFor~rystallisation of the difference between the indeterminate and the determinate.
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49. The 'four heads or the four shackles of mediation' facilitate in
(2 marks)
(I) determining those criteria which, if present, would reduce or reconcile differences.
(2) transforming the image concept of difference as being easily deducible.
(3) creating an organic form that best represents the difference between two identical forms.
( 4) determining the scope of the theory of difference.
(5) arriving at the propitious moment where the determinate gets reconciled with the indeterminate.
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50. The statement(s) relevant to the Platonists is/are
(2 marks)
(A) The 'One' here represents the primary form.
(B) The 'notone' is patterned as the primary form is.
(C) The concept of difference comes into play only in relation to identical objects,
(1) Only A
. (4) Only Band C
(2) Only B
(5) A, Band C
(3) Only A and C
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SECTION  III Number of Questions= 25
Note: All questions in this section do not carry equal marks. The mark(s) carried by each question is/are mentioned in the brackets against the respective question.
For example, question 51 carries 3 marks, while question 55 carries 2 marks.
DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 55: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The coach of the Indian cricket team was to be selected, bya voting process, from among the five candidates  Emburey (E), Ford (F), Whatmore (W), Chauhan (C) and Sandeep (S)  each of whose name was proposed by a club among the 198 clubs affiliated to the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
The voting process, which was according to the BeCI rules, comprised four rounds, with the candidate getting the least number of points in any round being eliminated in that round. In the first round, all the 198 clubs affiliated to the BCCI were eligible for voting and in each round of voting, each of the eligible clubs had to compulsorily vote for exactly one candidate. Once a candidate is eliminated in any round, the club which had proposed his name is not eligible to vote in any of the subsequent rounds.
For each club, the candidate it votes for in the first round is called the Mostpreferred candidate of that club. From the second round onwards, in any round, a club whose Most preferred candidate is still in the fray must vote for the same candidate in that round. Any eligible club, whose Most preferred candidate is eliminated in any round, is free to vote for any of the remaining candidates in the fray in the next round, and is also allowed to change the candidate it votes for in the subsequent rounds. For a club whose Most preferred candidate is eliminated in a round, the next candidate it votes for is called its Second most preferred candidate and if it again changes the candidate it votes for in any subsequent round, the new candidate is called the Third most preferred candidate and so on.
In any round, when a club votes for its Most preferred candidate, the value of its vote is four points and every time the club changes the candidate it votes for, the value of its vote reduces by half. So, when a club votes for its Second most preferred candidate, the value of its vote is half of four points, i.e., two points and so on for the Third most preferred candidate and the Fourth most preferred candidate.
The following table gives, for each of the four rounds, the information available regarding the total number of points in that round, the number of points won by each candidate in that round, and the order in which the candidates finished that round.
Round Total points 1 st 2nd 3rd 4th s"
1 792 E(212) F (184) W( ) C( ) S (l00)
2 E(232) F (200) C( ) W( )
3 640 F( ) C( ) E( )
4 C( ) FC )
 For example, the table shows that in the first round, of the total 792 points obtained by all the contestants in the fray, candidate E obtained 212 points and finished 1st (i.e., obtained the maximum points in that round), candidate F obtained 184 points and finished 2nd, while candidate S, who finished 5th(and was subsequently eliminated), obtained 100 points.
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Further, it was also known that,
• a club which proposed the name of a candidate must vote for that candidate as long as the candidate was still in the fray.
• all the clubs which did not vote for E in round 1 but voted for E in round 2, voted for the same candidate (not necessarily E) in round 3.
• among the clubs which voted for candidate E in round 3, more number of clubs voted for F in round 4 than those that voted for C in round 4.
• no two candidates obtained the same number of points in any round.
• if a club votes for a candidate X in any round and then votes for another candidate Y in the next round, then it cannot again vote for X in any of the subsequent rounds.
• any club which had candidate W as its Most preferred candidate, did not have a Third most preferred candidate.
51. How many of the clubs which had W as their Most preferred candidate had (3 marks) candidate £..as their Second most preferred candidate?
(1) 25 (4) 31
(2) 28
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) 30
52. In round 4, the difference in the number of points obtained by C and F was at most
(3 marks)
(1) 18 (4) 12
(2) 15
(5) None of these
(3) 13
53. The number of clubs which voted for f in round 3 but voted for C in round 4 was at least
(3 marks)
(1) 3 (4) 6
(2) 4
(5) None of these
(3) 5
54. If it is known that the difference in the number of points obtained by C and F in (3 marks) round 4 was the least possible and no club which voted for C in round 3, voted for F
in round 4, then the total value of all the votes in round 4 was
(1) 531 points. (4) 528 points.
(3) 528.5 points.
(2) 529.5 points. (5) None of these
55. The numbersf points secured by C in round 3 was
(2 marks)
(I) 213 (4) 216
(3) 215
(2) 214
(5) None of these
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DIRECTIONS/or questions 56 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In the following graph, the first stacked bar gives the gross income of each of five friends  A, B, C, 0 and E ~ as a percentage of the total gross income of all the five friends put together. The other two stacked bars in the graph give a similar break up of the total taxes paid by the five friends and the total expenses incurred by them. For example, of the total expenses incurred by all the five friends put
together, 831/3% 70% = 131/3% are the expenses incurred by D. .
(all values in percentages)
.c __ • ..........  ••• ___,_
100 100 '111100
I 83 1/3
70
1
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56
50
40 35
28 25
8 5
Gross income Taxes
DnA DB ~C OD Expenses
ImE
The tax on any gross income upto Rs. P is 10% of the gross income and for any gross income in excess ofRs. P, the tax charged will he 10% ofRs. P plus 20% of the gross income in excess ofRs. P.
Net Income = Gross Income  Taxes
Savings = Net Income  Expenses
For none of the five friends are the expenses incurred more than the net income.
56. If A paid Rs.l 000 as taxes, then what is the value of P?
(1 mark)
(1) 6,000 (4) 15,000
(2) 8,000
(5) None of these
(3) 12,000
57. B's expenses, as a percentage of his net income, are at most
(2 marks)
(1) 28.57% (4) 37.14%
(2) 32.14%
(5) Cannot he determined
(3) 35.28%
58. The person who pays the highest percentage of his gross income as taxes is
(2 marks)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
59. Among the five friends, expenses, as a percentage of net income, are the second (2 marks) highest for
(1) A (4) E
(2) B
(5) Cannot he determined
(3) D
60. A's savings, as a percentage of his gross income, are at least
(3 marks)
(1) 20% (4) 35%
(2) 25%
(5) Cannot he determined
(3) 30%
DIRECTIONS/or questions 61 to 65: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Arsene Wenger, the coach of Arsenal, was on the look out for a striker for his team after the departure of Thierry Henry to Barcelona. He had shortlisted five players  Drogba (D), Rooney (R), Eto (E), Owen (0) and Crouch (C). The coach considered the goals scored by each of these players in the last three years  2004, 2005 and 2006. For this purpose, he gathered the information regarding the number of goals scored by each of the five players in each of the three years. He then chose to represent this information as in the following diagrams:
For each of the three years, the names of the top three players (based on the number of goals scored) and the goals scored by each of them are given in the outer triangles of the diagram pertaining to that particular year. The inner triangle in each diagram denotes the total number of goals scored by the remaining two players in that year, as a percentage of the total number of goals scored by all the five players put together in that year.
Wenger then calculated two indices, the Rindex and theMindex, for each player, on the basis of the goals scored by the player in the three years. The Rindex of a player is the difference between the highest and the lowest number of goals that he scored in any of the three years, while the Mindex of a player is the middle number, if the number of goals scored by the player in each of the three years are arranged in the decreasing order. It is known that, in any year, no two players scored the same number of goals. Further, no player scored the same number of goals in two or more years
2004
2005
2006
61. Which of the given players had the lowest Rindex in the given years?
(1 mark)
(1) Drogba (4) Owen
(2) Rooney
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) Crouch
62. For how many of the given players is it possible to calculate the exact Mindex?
(1 mark)
(4) 4
(5) 5
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
63. Which player had the lowest Mindex?
(2 marks)
(1) Drogba (4) Crouch
(2) Rooney
(5) Cannot be determined
(3) Owen
64. The total number of goals scored by Rooney and Owen in the given period is at most
(2 marks)
(1) 112 (4) 142
(2) 123
(5) None of these
(3) 141
65. For how many of the given players is the total number of goals scored, in all the (2 marks) three years put together, definitely less than that scored by Eta?
(2) 1
(4) 3
(1)4
(3) 2
(5) 0
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DIRECTIONS for questions 66 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
All the students in a class of 100 attended a summer camp, organised by SAl and WHO together. At
. the camp, each of these students had the option of enrolling for coaching in at most three sports, namely Football, Cricket and Hockey.
In an attempt to find out the relative popularity of the three sports, SAl collected the number of students enrolled for each of these three sports and found that, a students had enrolled for Hockey, b for Football and c for Cricket.
WHO, on its part, collected the data "regarding the number of sports enrolled for by each of the 100 students and found that, d students had enrolled for exactly one sport, e for exactly two sports, f for exactly three sports and g students had not enrolled for any of the three sports.
66. If d > e > f and c is less than a as well as b, what is the maximum possible value of c?
(2 marks)
(1) 63 (4) 66
(2) 64
(5) None of these
(3) 65
67. If a, b, c, d, e, f and g are all distinct natural numbers, the minimum possible (3 marks) number of students who enrolled for at least one sport is
(1)9 (4) 13
. (2) 10
(5) None of these
(3) 11
68. If a is less than b as well as c, the number of students who enrolled only for hockey is at most
(1 mark)
(1) 32 (4) 50
(2) 48
(5) None of these
(3) 49
69. If a, band c are all distinct, then the least value among a, band c is at most
(1 mark)
(I) 96 (4) 99
(2) 97
(5) None of these
(3) 98
70. If a + b + C = 100, the number of students who enrolled for none of the three sports (2 marks) is at most
(1) 30 (4) 52
(2) 66. (5) 50
(3) 68
DIRECTIONS/or questions 71 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four colours  White, Blue, Green and Orange are used to paint a cube such that each face is painted in exactly one colour and each colour is painted on at least one face. The cube is now perfectly and completely cut into exactly 120 identical cuboids by making the least possible number of cuts,
''I\_~~""",", •
71. What is the maximum possible number of cuboids which have more than one face (1 mark) painted in the same colour?
(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 15
(4) 18
(5) 24
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73. What is the least possible number of cuboids which have no face painted Green?
(2 marks)
72. What is the maximum possible number of cuboids which have both Blue colour and (2 marks) Green colour on them?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 24
(4) 28
(5) 30
(1) 36
(2) 48
(3) 60
(4) 72
(5) 75
74. What is the maximum possible number of cuboids which have both Orange colour (2 marks) and Green colour on them but not Blue?
(1) ]6
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 24
(5) 27
75. What is the least possible number of cuboids which have at most one colour on (2 marks)
iliem?' .
(1) 52
(2) 56
(3) 72
(4) 76
(5) 80
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I
T .•. M.E.
Tnumpoantlnstkute of
fvianagemenl Education PIIt. Lid
(KEY AND SOLUTIONS FOR AIMCAT0808)
Key
l. 9. 2 17. 4 25. 2 33. 4 4l. 3 49. 57. 4 65 .. 4 73. 2
2. 5 10. 3 18. 4 26. 34. 3 42. 5 50. 5 58. 5 66. 3 74. 3
3. 2 11. 1 19. 5 27. 4 35. 2 43. 1 51. 3 59. 67. 5 75. 4
4. 3 12. 4 20. 3 28. 2 36. 1 44. 2 52. 4 60. 2 68. 3
5. 2 13. 3 21. 4 29. 3 37. 4 45. 3 53. 2 61. 5 69. 3
6. 2 14. 2 22. 5 30. 2 38. 2 46. 2 54. 3 62. 3 70. 2
7. 3 IS. 23. 31. 39. 3 47. 2 55. 63. 3 7 t 2
8. 3 16. 24. 32. 4 40. 4 48. 2 56. 5 64. 2 72. 3 Solutions
Section I
(iii) gives (16 x21) + (16 x 25) = Rs736 and here Ravi has only (5 x 16) + (4 x 16) '" 144 pens and (9 x 16) + (15 x 16) = 384 pencils.
Hence, Ravi is still short of 6 pens and 16 pencils. This is possible by purchasing two Value Packs or 2 Premium Packs. But, clearly two Value Packs will be cheaper. Hence, Ravi must buy 18 Value Packs and 16 Premium Packs in ail, and his minimum expenditure will
be (1&x 21) + (i6 x25) '" RS.778. Choice (2)
Solutions for questions 1 to 20;
1. Given b8 = 100
~. b,6 = be + be  64 = 136 Now b« = b. + b.  16
.~ b. = 58
Similarly h = 31 and b, = 16 .. b,e = b, + bv:  15
oc> 136 = 16 + b,S  15
=:. b'5 = 135
4. The lines must be drawn as follows
Choice (1)
2. Consider 74, whose value is 2401 .. 770D = (7')175 = (2401)175
Any power of 2401 will end with 1 as the units digit and 0 as the tens dig it.
When It is divided by 100, the remainder is 1.
Choice (5)
3.
Let the number of Value Packs and Premium Packs purchased by Ravi be v and p respectively.
Then, number of pens = 5v + 4p ~ 150· (1)
number of pencils = 9v + 15p ~ 400  (2) Ravi's total expenditure = E = 21 v + 25p
Now E must be minimised with respect to the two constraints. (1) and (2). For this, in' general, the follOWing three ordered pairs of (v, p) must checked out.
150 400
i) v = 0 and p = greater of and  (or lesser of
. 4 15
the two if they are "s" inequalities)
150 400
P = 0 and v = greater of and  (or lesser of
5 9
As EF is parallel to GH, MEF and to. AGH are similar. As the area of each part is equal, let area of MEF be x. Then 'area ·of tAGH = 4x
:. ~~ =J¥ ::: 2: 1 Choice (3)
ii)
5. a = 6'/2, b = 6, c = 63/2, d = 62, e = 65/2
(a x b x c x d x e)": [60' '""""~ r : e= log6'50 = 15010g6
= 150(log2 + log3)
= 150(0,7781) = 116.715
So the number of digits is 116 + 1 = 117. Choice (2)
the two if they are "<" inequalities}
iii) (v, p) " intersection point of (1) and (2) which are obtained (by solving) as (162/3• 162/3). So we first consider (16, 16).
In this case,
(i) gives E = 150 x 25 " 937.5 4
(ii) gives E = i.~0 x 21 ::: 933.33.and
6. Let the cost (in Rs.) of an apple, a banana and a chikoo be a, band c respectively
Given that
5a + 4b + 3c = 50 ~~ (1) and a + b + C = 12 ~~ (2)
Consider (1)  4 x (2), we get a  c '" 50  4 x 12::: 2 .'. An apple costs Rs.2 more than a chikoo.
Choice (2)
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7, 1 80 = 22 X 32 )( 5
The highest power of 5 in 11 )( 21 x 991 is 5 x [0 +
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 1~ i.e.,
5pto;'1) ~(5)]::; 250. .
The highest power of 3 is
3[ (22; 23) ~(3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19) ~ (12)J :: 279
i.e., highest powers of 5 and 9 are 250 and 279
respectively. 12.
We need not consider highest power of 4 as it will definitely be greater than 279.
Since m is not a multiple of 5, k is the highest power of
5 i.e., 250. Choice (3)
8.
23.50
(Basic) RS.20 (40 hrs)
RS.3.50 (1)
(O.T)
40 hr + RS.20 (Basic)
40 hr + i(20) (O.T)
:::::> 120 hr + RS.70 (O.T)
x hr + RS.3.5
oc>x = 6
:.A total of 40 + 6 = 46 hours. Choice (3) 9. If there are no interruptions, the probability of winning for each player is given by the infinite series given below.
A: (4/17) + (4f17) (13/17), + (4117) (13/17)8 +
B: (4117) (13/17) + (4117) (13/17)5 + .
C: (4/17) (13/17)2 + (4117) (13/17)" + .
D: (4/17) (13/17)' + (4117) (13f17)7 + .
We get these factors of 4/17 and 13/17 as follows.
Two cards are drawn by each player. The first card can be any card. The probability that the second card is of the same suit is 12/51 (or 4117).
:. The probability that A wins on first draw IS 4/17. The probability tpat B wins on his first draw is (13117) x (4117) and so on.
We can verify that the sum of these 4 Infinite series is 1, but this is not required for answering the question. Each series is an infinite·GP with the same common ratio.
:. The ratio of the infinite sums is the same as the ratio of the respective first terms.
We get the foHowing basic result. Ratio of chances of 1", 2nd, 3,0, 41h players is 17': 172(13): 17(13)2: 13' i.e .. the first player has the greatest chance followed by the second, third and fourth, in that order.
Given, A's chances are less than two of the others immediately after the nIh interruption. These two have to be C and D (i.e., C, D, A, B is the new order, for all practical and mathematical purposes, since no one has one thus far).
:. B was the last pia ye r before the nIh interruption and the game resumed with C. The player who drew cards just
before the nih interruption was B. Choice (2)
1 D. Let a + c = x
~ b + x = 25 (1)
and (1 + b)x = 144  (2) :=} 0 + b)(25  b) ;: 144
b2  24b + 119;: a
~ b = 7 or 17
Choice (3)
11. The bets in the games will be 2,4,8, ...... 2", where 2n is the amount won by me and the remaining amount is won by Thomas.
Now 2" [2 + 4 + 8 + ...... + 21"'1].
~_ 2" _l2(2n, 1)]
= 2n _ 2n + 2 = 2
2 ~1
:. Thomas lost Rs.2
Choice (1)
ASPQ is rightangled (angle in a semicircle)
LPOQ = 180"  120" :: 60" and Op::: OQ = radius (i.e.
s.J3 cm \ Hence APOO is equilateral and PO
s.J3cm
Now in ASPO, SP '" ~S02~P02 :: 24 em ;: ~(2x8J3)2 _(8./3)2 => Area of .:'!.SPQ, rightangled at P, will be
1 1 t: t:
'2 SP x PO ='2 x 24 x 8,,3 = 96,,3 sq.cm
Choice (4)
13. We can proceed from the options:
(1) (m, n) ;: (2, 5)
As one pile can be divided into 2, the number of piles can increase by steps of 1. It'll be possible to
get " 2, 3, 4, 5, piles .
(2) (m, n) ::: (3, 6)
ln any tum, the number of piles can increase by 2 or 5.
:.It can increase by four Z's and one 5, i.e., by 13. Hence, from 1 to 14.
Hence it IS possible in this case also.
(3) (m, n) = (3, 9)
In any turn, the number of piles can increase only by 2 or 8 Hence, starting from 1 pile, we can only get an odd number (any odd number) of piles, but not 14 plies at any stage Hence, it is not possible in this case.
(4) (m, n) ::: (4, 6)
In 'any turn, the number of piles can increase by 3 or 5.
:.It can increase by one 3 and two 5's, i.e., by 13 Hence, from 1 to 14.
Hence, it is possible in this case:
(5) (m, n) = (5, 6).
In any turn. the number 'of piles can increase by 4 or 5.
.:.It can increase by two 4's and one 5, I.e. by 13 (say from 1 to 14)
Hence. it is possible in this case. Choice (3)
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14. It is easy to see that P, OJ I Pj Pj +, has to be x when i is odd and 1  x when i is even. Thus for a triangle. i.e. n = 3,
If P,O, f P'P2 = x, then p,O, 1 P,P, = x while P2021 P2P3 = 1  x and for a quadrilateral, Le., n = 4,
If P,O, = x P,P2, then P.O. = (1  x) p.p" i.e. Os = 0, In short, if n is even Q,,+, '" 0" but if n is odd Qn +, = Q, only if x = 112
Now, if we proceed to go around the polygon once again to arrive at 02n and then 02n + " we see that for all n (be if odd Of even), Q2n +' = 0"
We consider the options one by one.
(1) On+' is not always equal to 0" .. False, (2) OZn+' = Q" True,
(3) OZn+ ~ '" 0, need not imply that x = 112 In fact x can be any fraction, .. False
(4) 03n+' = a, ~ an" = a, ~ n IS even or x = 1/2. . .. 'x = 1/3' is false
(5) x = 1/4 and n = 7 :=> 08", 0" .. False,
Choice (2)
15. The weights are in A.P, If we take an odd number of terms of an AP, the average of all the terms is also a term of the AP But for an even number of terms, it is not As two of the AWs are the equal to the weights of the stones in the two bags, those two bags should contain an odd number of stones and the other bag, an even number of stones,
I
., n=6k+2or6k2
Hence it can be 82, but not 99,90 or 113, Choice (1)
A B C
2k+1 2k+1 2k
2k1 2 k1 2k
16. Let the two persons be A and B, as shown below.
A 2mls B 3 mls
F3;o' ~' z z F "'500'm' "'''' "I
T, 54 kmph 72 kmph T2
7 E
The initial distance between the two persons is 340 m. The speed of person A, with respect to the tracks
= ~(54)+2 = 17 m/s (to the right)
18 .
The speed of person S, with respect to the tracks
5
= 18 (72)  3 = 17 mls (to the left)
., Time taken '" Relative distance _ ~.~_40_
Re lative speed (17 + 17)
Choice (1)
= '10 seconds.
17.
The figure above represents one limiting condition. The other possibilities that we need to consider are as T and P move closer to M (i.e., OM 1 MP increases from its lowest possible value),
In this limiting position OT = 2TP.
:. OP = J5 PT, OM = 2 TP and MP = (J5 2)TP,
., OM f MP = 21 J5  2 = 2 (J5 +2) '" 8,47
As T moves closer to M. TP decreases, i.e. OT/PT> 2, OM remains constant and, MP decreases, i.e., OM 1 MP increases, Hence, OM I MP :> 8,47
:. Among the given choices, only 9 IS a possible value
of OM I MP Choice (4)
18. Let the 4digit sequence be abed.
In base 6, this represents 216a + 36b + 6c + d and each of a, b, c, d is less than 6.
In base 10, it represents 1 aooa + lOob + 10c + d. Given 4(216a + 36b + 6e + d)
0; 1 DDoa + 1 OOb + 1 Oe + d
~ 136a '" 44b + 14c + 3d  (A) By trial a = 1, b = 2, e = 3, d = 2,
If a = 2, the LHS = 272
[If we consider b = 5, we need 272  220 or 52 from 'I4c + 3d (c, d) = (2, 8) but 8 is not a proper dIgit in base 6, If a = 3, the LHS = 408, while 44b + 14e + 3d can at the most be (44 + 14 + 3}5 or 305,
., There are no other possible values that satisfy (A)] 'r.abcd= 1232 and a + b + c + do; 8 Choice (4}
19. The sum of the digits on the last tables (for the first 10 columns) 4,17,12,16,20,15,19,14,18 and 22,
.. The 9's remainders of these numbers are 4,8,3,7,2,6,1,5,0,4
We see that the first 9 of these are all different. The number of chairs in each column, therefore, has to be relatively prime to 9, If it were not, these number would not aU be different. The only number relatively prime to
9 among the options is 94. Choice (5)
20. In order for no two of them to get adjacent parts, two of ' , them must have two parts and the third must have one
part, .
There are 5C2 ways of selecting two parts by the first person of these 5 ways will be ways of selecting adjacent parts,
:, 5C2  5 '" 5 ways will be ways of selecting nonadjacent parts,
Among the remaining three parts, two parts are adjacent. Hence the second person can choose two parts in two ways, The third person gets the remaining part .. Total number of ways = (3) (5) (2) =30,
Choice (3)
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Solutions for questions 21 and 22:
21. When n '" 6, the sum will be
j{x} '" [x] + [x + 101 + [x + 201 + [x + 301 + Ix + 401 + [x + 501 + Ix + 601
The minimum value of this sum will be when x '" 3~ .. j{30) '" 30 + 20 + 1 0 + 0 + 1 0 + 20 + 30 '" 120
Choice (4)
22. When n is odd, there will be an even number of terms.
In this case, the value of I(x) will be minimum for all
x = 10 ( n; 1) to 1 o( n ; 1 )
=:> x '" 5n  5 to 5n + 5
i.e., 'a total of 11 values.
For example, if n '" 3,/(x) integer from 10 to 20
is minimum for x '" any Choice (5)
Solutions for questions 23 to 25:
23. Let us divide these 18 corns into three groups of 6 coins 'each. First take two groups, one in each pan and weigh. If they are not equal, the group with lesser weight is to be considered. Now divide these coins into three groups of two each and weigh two groups. If they are not equal, consider the group with the lesser weight and weigh one coin in each pan, The lesser one IS the required coin But if they are equal, consider the third group in similar way as above, But if the groups in the first weighing are equal, the third group is considered in a similar way as above.
A mintmum of 3 weighings are required.
Choice (1)
24. Let us divide these 29 coins into three groups of 9, 9 and 11 coins. First compare the first two groups. If they are not equal. Replace the heavier group with nine coins from the third group, If they are not equal, the retained group has the counterfeit coin. Else the replaced group has the required coin. Now these 9 coins are divided into three groups of three coins each (and we know whether the counterfeit coin is heavier or lighter when compared to others). Compare two groups. If they are equal take one com each from the third group If they are again equal, the remaining coin is the required coin. Else, the heavier or lighter (according to the counterfeit) is the required coin. But if the two' groups are not equal, the lighter or heavier group (accordinq to the counterfeit) is to be considered in a
Similar manner .
If the first two groups are equal, the counterfeit coin is in the third group of 11 coins. Take 9 of these coins and weigh with 9 coins of first two groups. If they are equal, then weigh one of the remaining two coins. If even these are equal, the remaining com IS counterfeit.
Else, from these 9 coins, the counterfeit coin can be determined as mentioned above
., At least 4 weighings are required. Choice (1)
25. Let us divide the coins into 3 groups of 81, 81 and 122 coins. First two groups are weighed. If they are not equal, weigh the light weighed group with 81 coins of third group. If they are unequal, the counterfeit coin is lighter. From these 81 coins, three groups of 27 coins each are formed and two groups are weighed. If equal, the third group is considered, In this way in each weighing the number of coins becomes onethird,
.. 27 = 3' ~ 3 weighings.
~ A total of 6 weiphinqs. If the first two groups are equal, weigh 81 coins of 3'd group with 81 coins of first
group If they are not equal, we need n weighings where 3n = 81 ~ n '" 4
But if they are equal consider, 27 of the remaining coins of group 3 and so on.
In this way, we get at least 6 weighings to correctly
Identify the coin. Choice (2) ,
Section  II
~. ~.
Solutions for questions 26 and 27:
25. The minister is unable to answer  that doesn't mean that he will launch into a 'diatribe' (abusive language), nor would he use 'allusion' and 'suggestion'. He would be in no mood for 'endearment' (words of affection). The right word is 'prevarication (deviation from the truth).
Choice (1)
27. 'Unfathomable' is what can't be comprehended usually because it is strange or complicated and 'enigmatic' is the most appropriate word in the context.
Choice (4)
Solutions for questions 28 and 29:
2B. There are two errors in the underlined part One is in the positioning of the adverbs 'hardly'  it qualifies the verb 'afford' and hence must precede it Second it IS 'amble along' not amble. While amble means 'walk at a slow relaxed speed', 'amble along' suggests the direction (along with manner) in which it is moving Only
choice 2 has both correct. Choice (2)
29. The present perfect 'have predicted' is appropriate with the time reference 'since the 19605'. The underlined part refers to a 'digital utopia'  'in which' or 'wherein' are both correct but 'where' in choice 2 IS wrong.
Choice (3)
Solutions for questions 30 and 31:
30. 'Unprofessional conduct' is a common collocation as also 'unpalatable truth'; none of the other choices are
normal collocations. Choice (2)
31. 'Pornography' is 'obscene'; Beauty can be 'numinous' (spiritual), The other pairs do not go together. 'Nugatory' means worthless and cannot be associated with institutions, 'ortund' means pompous and has no connections with a sphere. Newfangled has a negative connotation and hence cannot be linked to progress
Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 32 and 33:
32. A The sentence talks of what the constitution says regarding the President's powers. His powers are 'circumscribed' (constrict the range of) not 'curtailed' (shortened) or 'constricted'.
B. The Council of Ministers 'tender' (present for acceptance) advice to the President. They do not 'render' (you render a service) or suggest
C. What the constitution places IS a 'restraint' on the president's powers.
Hence, A  circumscribed; B . tendered; C  restraint Choice (4)
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33. A Since the blank is preceded by 'politica!' we can rule out 'autocracy' and 'dictatorship'. The context s ug gests 'a utho rita ria nisrn'.
B. In the context of the partition of the country 'trauma' (a bodily or mental injury) is the most appropriate word  the others are too mild.
C. What 'we need to solve the Kashmir issue is 'pragmatism' (a practical approach). Since the younger generation did not suffer the trauma, they are likely to be less emotional and more practical about the Kashmir issue.
Hence, A  authoritarianism; B  trauma; C  pragmatism.
Choice (4)
Solution for question 34:
34. In the second half of the sentence we have twa phrases connected by 'and', so bath must have the same structure (parallelism). Choice 1 leaves the sentence incomplete, choices 2 and 4 have parallelism error. In enoree 5 'in an India when' is wrong  it can be 'in an India where' or 'in India where I when', only choice 3 is right. Please note that both 'the poor and needy' as well as 'the poor and the needy' are right. The former treats them as one section of the society, the latter as two
different sections. Choice (3)
Solutions for questions 35 and 36:
35. The words 'should be' is better than 'has to be' or 'must be' since the former implies moral compulsion while the latter sU9gest coersion So we rule out choices 1 and 3. In choice 5 'has taken' is incorrect in the second half since the subject is 'political contests' and hence 'have taken'. Between choices 2 and 4 only choice 2 is right because the adverb (increasingly) precedes the adjective ('fractured') which it qualifies.
Choice (2)
36. It has to be 'take up to' .and not 'take up' since the reference is to how long it could take. So we rule aut choice 3, 4 and 5. Between choices 1 and 2, the former is right since 'prevent ... from' means make it impossible
for someone to do something. Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 37 and 38:
37. If the ocean seems less 'efficient' even though it . continues to absorb the same amount of CO2  this could be one or both of 0 (ocean already ,absorbing the maximum possible, but emissions are now more than that) and E (more water has not resulted in more
absorption). Choice (4)
38. The passage only suggests that cocoa in chocolates can prevent dental problems. It has not been found to be a cure for dental problem. (2) is the correct answer choice.
The question is not one of quantum. (1) is wrong (3) is not an assumption that has gone into the conclusion. Whether or not sufficient research has been conducted in the matter, the question is about the conclusion arrived at on the basis of research done. (5) does not
make the conclusion absurd. . Choice (2)
Solutions for questions 39 to 50:
Number of words and Explanatory notes for RC:
Passage  1 : 960 Passage 11 : 893 Passage  Ill: 936
39. This question is from para 4. Choice 1 goes against the last line of para 4. Layman 'IS not concerned with reality and appearance. Choice 2 is nat mentioned in the passage  infact the passage talks about the strength of individual perception. Choice 4 is not correct because it talks about 'encountering' a distinction while the passage states that the distinction is there already. Choice 5 goes against the summary of the passage. Last line of para 4 points out the answer as choice 3.
Choice (3)
40. Choice 1 does not answer the question 'why' It is not correct also because it makes a definite statement. Choice 2 does not highlight the importance of individual opinion. Choice 3 is not mentioned in the passage. Choice 5 makes no distinction between appearance and reality which is what philosophers indulge in. Choice 4.can be got from the last hne of para 3.
Choice (4)
41. Choice 1 talks about importance but the passage uses the word 'really'. Hence it is not correct Choice 2 IS a definite statement  it would have been correct had the wording been, 'no single opinion will be able to express complete truth'. Choice 4 presents a very far fetched inference but does not catch the main point of the statement. Choice 5 talks about trust which the passage doesn't talk about Moreover, we gain knowledge not only through our eyes but through all our senses. Choice :;>, clearly expresses the idea behind the
statement. Choice (3)
42. Choice 1 does not hint at the deliberate attempts that need to be made by common man. Choice 2 is not mentioned in the passage. Choice 3 uses the word 'relies only an', hence it is wrong Choice 4 is not applicable to the case of common man. Choice 5 brings out the trap into which a common man usually falls  believmg the apparent image to be real. This is the idea contained in the first 2 sentences of para 2.
Choice (5)
43. Para 2 supplies the answer to this question. Choice 2 is not mentioned in the passage. Choice 3 focuses on intellectual capabilities of users hence wrong. Choice 4 mentions 'a variety of reasons' but an epistemic framework is to gain knowledge and put it to use for different goals. Choice 5 is not true as per the passage . The first and last lines of para 2 point at choice 1 as
answer. ChOice (1)
44. The passage says that epistemological theories 'need not' be viewed as alternatives while choice 1 says 'cannot'. Choice 3 is not true as per the passage. Choice 4 IS not correct because it talks about a different 'issue  the question is about realisation while the choice speaks about comprehension. Again choice 5 talks about goals instead of the way knowledge gets used. The line, 'For they embody' hints at unique requirements of each user and is expressed by choice 2.
Choice (2)
45. Direct question  The line 'A pure procedure has no independent standard for a correct outcome' of para 4
gives the answer as choice 3. Choice (3)
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46. Choice 1 is true as per the line. 'the procedure itself when properly performed determines what result is correct'. Choice 3 is correct as per the line, 'but 50 long as every cake it divides is divided into equal sized slices, its use would be a perfect procedure for dividing cakes fairly Choice 4 can be obtained from the example of criminal trial cases. Choice 5 can be inferred from choice 1. In case of imperfect procedure, the desired outcome is predetermined but the procedure does not guarantee it. Hence choice 2.
Choice (2)
47. Choice 1 is a broad statement that does not specify the actual point  differences between identical beings. Choice 3 talks about phYSical features which is not true as per the passage. Choice 4 is not correct because it uses the word, 'prove' which is not correct. Choice 5 is not relevant to this question. Choice 2 express the idea in the line, '\maginesomething which distinguis.hed
itself. Choice (2)
48. The later part of the line i.e. 'in that it distinguished itself from it' implies the establishment of unique identity inspite of being identical to similar style of painting (chiaroscuro). Choice 2 IS the answer. Choice 1 mentions separation from another form of painting but does not hint at the aspect of unique identity. Choice 3 IS not relevant here Choice 4 does not bring out the struggle behind establishing unique Identity. Choice 5 IS
not correct. Choice (2)
49. Direct question. Choice 1 reflects the idea of the sentence, 'at which difference is reconciled with the concept' (i.e.) you know when you can consider a situation as an example of difference. Choice 2 talks about deduction while the question is about realisation. Choice 3 mentions 'representation' which is not what the question is about. It is no! for 'determining the scope' of difference but for Identifying a situation as that exhibiting difference. The question is not about reconciliation. Hence choice 5 is not correct.
Choice (1)
50. The 'one' here is the original while the 'notone' is the copy. Since we are talking about anginal and copy, Choice C can be Inferred Hence choice 5.
Choice (5)
Section  III
Solutions for questions 51 to 55:
The total number of points in the first round is 792 Let us find the total number of points in the second round.
In the second round, the club which proposed the name of candidate S cannot vote While the value of votes of each of the 24 clubs which voted for S in round one is now only two points.
:. The total points = 740 (i.e., 792  4  (24 x 2»)
Of the total 198 votes in round 1, E got 53, F got 46 and S got 25 Of the remaining 74 yates, as W got more votes than C, W should get at least 38 and C should get at most 36. Hence the difference in points is at least 8.
Now, of the 24 persons who voted tor Sin the first round, 10 voted for E and 8 voted for F. As there are 6 votes more for W. C should get all those 12 points in the second round so that It crosses W
This can be tabulated as follows.
, .... __ .. ,,_._ .•. _ .• _._
:"~~.~ _.,,_ .. ,
_, .. , ...
Round E F W C S
1 212 184 152 144 100
212+10 184 + 8 144 +
2 votes votes' 152 6 votes 
from S from S from S In the third round as the total number of votes is given as 640, we can find the number of clubs who voted for their third preference candidate. As the value of the vote of each club which voted for candidateW in rounds 1 and 2 (presently four points) is only two in the next round, and as the club which proposed his name can't vote, the reduction
in total points should be 148 + 4 = 78. As the reduction 15
2
100 points, it means 22 clubs which opted for the second preference candidate in round two, opted for the third preference candidate in round three. As It IS g'lyen that E is eliminated, the points in the round can only be F  215, C  213 and E  212 (as E has a minimum of 212 points from his first preference votes).
Now as 22 of the 24 people who are eligible to change their candidate opted for it, to get 215 and 213 points for F and C respectively, we can see that the only possibility is Seven clubs which opted for F as the second preference opted for C as the third preference and five clubs which opted for C as the second preference opted for F as the third preference (for both the other cases, as it is given that all clubs who shifted from E opted for a single candidate, we get only even values for points obtained by F and C).
Now even in this case there are two possibilities.
Case 1: C gets 25 votes as second preference votes from dubs which opted for W in the previous round and the ten votes from clubs which opted for E in the second round.
Case 2: C get 30 votes as second preference from clubs which opted for W in the previous round and the ten votes from clubs which opted for E In the second round opted for F.
Now to decide which case actually happened, as it is given that C got the highest number of votes in the final round and that among clubs which voted for E in round three, more clubs voted for F, than for C In round four, the minimum and maximum votes of F and C respectively can be
F  215'" (27 x 2) (assuming of the 52 clubs who voted for E in round three, more clubs (at least 27) voted for F in round four. As all these are second preference votes, it is worth two points each) '" 269
C  213 + 25 x 2 = 263
Now as it is given that none of the clubs Which opted for candidate W as the first preference candidate, opted for a third preference candidate, if case (1) happens, it can be seen that F has only club which has the right to change it's candidate (all others had opted for G in the previous round and cannot opt for C any more), which means the final points of F and C would be
F  269  2 (one second preference vote lost) = 267 C  263 + 1 (one third preference vote gained) = 264
.. According to case (1) C cannot be the winner which means that case (2) had happened.
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For B, 105y<:  =;;.525y;>k 5
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:. The available information can be given in a table as follows.
Round Total 1" 2"' 3'· 4'" 5"
Points
Round 1 792 E(212) F(184) W(152) C(144) S(100)
Round 2 740 E(232) F(200) C(156) W(152)
Round 3 640 F(215) C(213) E(212)
Round 4 C F 51. As we have seen before, case (2) alone is possible which means candidate F gets 30 votes from clubs which had W as their first preference candidate.
Choice (3)
52. It is given that clubs which opted for W as first preference candidate did not opt for the third preference candidate.
Now the minimum and maximum votes respectively of F and C are as shown.
F(minimum) = 215 + (27 x 2)  2  10 (all the ten clubs who voted for S, E, and F in rounds 1, 2· and 3 respectively) = 257
C(maximum) sz 213 + (25 x· 2) + 1 + 5 (ten fourth preference votes) = 269
.. Maximum difference = 269  257 = 12
Choice (4)
53.
To find the least number of candidates who voted for F in the third round and voted for C in the fourth round,
. we have to assume that people who had votedfor E in the third round voted nearly equal (27 and 25) for F and C respectively.
.. Current points ·of F and Care
F 269
C 263
There is one club which had voted for S in the first
. round and voted for F in the second and thi~d rounds. If this club shifts, F loses two points it had gained due to this while C gains one point as the third preference of that club.
Now only the ten clubs which had voted for F as the third· preference in round three are there to be shifted
from F to C. .
.. Minimum number of shifts is 4, as shown below.
F 261 266 265 264
C 264 264.5 265 265.5
1't shift 2"d shift 3rd shift 4t" shift
Choice (2)
54. It is given that the winner was elected with the least possible margin. It was found in the previous question that if the distribution of votes of clubs, whose first preference was E, in the fourth round is 27 and 25, the lowest margin is 1.5 paints. But if among those 52, 28 voted for F and 24 for C, we can have a victory margin of 0.5 points, which is the lowest possible (no other case gives a margin of 0.5 paints remembering that a maximum of 11 clubs (one third preference and ten fourth preference) can shift from F to C.
.. Points of F and S are
F 271
C 261
We can have two cases  In the first case the club which had voted for S in the first round and F in rounds two and three could have voted for C, and we get the remaining 'shifts (E » second preference, F  third preference and C " fourth preference) as five
In case the first club (S  first preference, F  second preference, C  third preference), did not vote for C in the fourth round, we get the remaining shifts as seven
In either case the points of C is 264.5 and that of F is
264 for a total of 528.5 Choice (3)
·55. AS shown in the table, it must be 213.
Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 56 to 60;
A paid Rs.1 000 as tax.
Let the gross income of all the five persons put together be
100x and the total taxes'paid be 10oy.
E paid 50y as taxes for a gross income of 44x. D paid 15y as taxes for a gross income of 16x. C pa id 10y as taxes for a gross income of 12x. B paid 20y as taxes for a gross income of 20x. A paid 5y as taxes for a gross income of 8x.
When compared to C, D's income is more by 4x, but taxes paid is more by 5y.
When compared to D, 8's income is more bv 4x, but taxes
paid is more by 5y. . .J
Here, we can observe that the taxes on a gross incomeof 4x is 5y.
But for A, though his gross income is 8x, he is paying only 5y as taxes.
:. A must have paid the taxes at the rate of 10% and 8x must be the lim·lt for charging tax at the rate of 10% and for any amount more than ax, tax must have been 20% 10%of8x=5y
"* 8x = SOy (or) x = 6.25y
So, 20x = 125y, 12x" 75y, 16x '" 100y, 44x = 215y This can be tabulated as follows .
Person Gross income Taxes Net income
A 50. y 5_y 45y
B 125 Y 20 Y 105 Y
C 75}l 10.y 65 Y
D 100 Y 15 Y 85 y
E 275...1' 5o.y 225y 56, Given, 5 y = 100.0.
Hence, the limit of the income must be 50 y i.e. 10,000 Choice (5)
57. Let the total expenses be K. Expenses of different persons are as fOllOWS.
Person A 8 C 0 E
Expenses K/6 Kl5 Kl3 2K KJ6

15 Given, for each person, the expenses are met with his net income.
Hence,
K
For A, 45 Y <:"6 => 270. Y ?: k
K
For C, 65'12: 3" => 195 'I 2: k
58. The person with least gross income (say less than Rs.P), wiJl pay only 10% of taxes. As the person's gross income increases, the share of income on which 20% tax is levied increases and the share of Income on which 10% tax is levied decreases (or) simple the tax rate increases. Hence, the person with highest income
l.e. E pays at a higher tax rate. Choice (5)
. 2K
For D, 85y 2:  => 637.5 '12k 15
K
For E, 225y 2  => 1350'12 k 6
59. From the above tables, the expenses as a percentage of net income is the highest for C Among A, B. 0 and E, it can be seen that the ratio of expenses to net
income would be highest for A. Choice (1)
The maximum possible value of K for which the expenses of every person will be met with his net income is 195 'I.
(:. For D, 65 '12: K/3)
60. Highest possible expenses af A = 195'1 = 325'1 6
:. His savings are at least (45'1  32.5'1) = 125'1
R . d 12.5'1
.. equire percentaqe= ><100 = 25%
. 50'1
K
B's expenses can be at most  i.e. 39y
. 5
.'. Required percentaqe= 39'1 ><100::: 37.14% 105'1
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
Solutions for questions 61 to 65:
The number of goals scared by the different players in the three years are as follows
~r
r Drogba Roaney Eta Owen Crouch
2004 624 25 36 29 624
2005 30 018 27 018 25
2006 25 29 1122 1122 23 The goals scored by Drogba in the first year can be any value from 6 to 24, as the goals scored by .the top three players are given and the third highest scorer scored 25 goals that year. As 30 goals are scored by the remaining two players, the maximum he could nave scored is 24 (as no two players scored the same number of goals in an year) and the minimum is 6 (when the other player scores 24 goals).
The Mindex and Rindex for the different players are as follows
t
Orogba Rooney Eta Owen Crouch
Mindex 25 25 '.' 27 1122 2324
Rindex 624 1129 1425 11·29 2·19 Solutions for questions 66 to 70;
61. More than one player can have the lowest Rindex in
the given years. Choice (5)
62. The exact Mindex canbe calculated for three players.
Choice (3)
66. Given, d > e > f.
As c must be maximum, d = 35, e = 33, f = 32. c is at most 65 as in the following case.
63. As the maximum value of Mindex of Owen is 22, he will definitely have the lowest value of Mindex in the
tournament. Choice (3)
64. The total goals scored by Rooney and Owen in the different year is at most 25 + 29 (1'\ year) + 18
(11"" year) + 29 + 22 (111'" year) = 123 Choice (2)
65. The range of goals scored by Eta ·IS 74 to 85. Rooney, Owen and Crouch would have scored at most 72, 69 and 72 goals respectively In the given period. These three players definitely scored less number of goals
than Eta during the gIven period. Choice (4)
Hockey
Choice (3)
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We have, a + b + C = d + 2e + 3f :.d + e + f= (a+ b + c)  (e + 2f)
As a, b, c, d, e, f and 9 are distinct natural numbers, the least value of d + e .r f is 6 [1 + 2 + 3].
:.The least value of a + b + c is 15 [4 + 5 + 6].
But as the maximum value of e + 2f is 8 [2 + 2 x 3] in this case, this case IS not possible.
Take, d + e + f 0= 7 [1 + 2 + 4J
'. The least value of a + b + c is 14 [3 + 5 + 6] .. e + 2f" 7, which is not possible.
:. a + b + C = 15 [3 + 5 + 7]
=> e + 2f " 8 [4 + 2 x 2]
:.a.:: 3, b:: 5,c = 7, d :: 1, e:: 4, f = 2 and 9 = 93.
.. The least value of d + e + f is 7, which can be as shown below.
Hockey
Choice (5)
68., The maximum number of students who can. enrol for only hockey IS 49 as follows.
Football
Hockey
Choice (3)
69. If the number of students who enrolled for each sport is distinct, the number of enrolments in the sport with the least enrolments would be at most 98 as shown.
Choice (3)
70. In this case, maximum possible value of 9 is 66 as shown below.
Choice (2)
Solutions for questions 71 to 75: .
Here we have to consider the least possible number of cuts needed for getting 120 pieces.
120 = 4 x 5 ,,6
=> Least possible number of cuts :: (4 1) + (5  1) + (6 1) '" 12.
.L .L
As shown in the above figure, any face can have 30 or 24 or 20 cuboids. Any edge can have 6 or 5 or 4 cuboids.
71. To get the maximum possible number of cuboids which have more than one colour on them, we have to use one colour on three faces, such that any two faces are adjacent to each other.
:. Number of such cuboids at the corners" 1
Number of such cuboids on the edges (but not corners) =3+4+5=12
:. Total required cuboids= 13
Choice (2)
72. If blue is painted on one pair of opposite faces and green is painted On another pair of opposite faces such that the edges common to these faces have six cuboids each, we get the maximum possible number of required cubes.
:. Total required cuboids" 6 x 4 " 24
Choice (3)
73. To get the least possible number of such cuboids, green is to be painted on three facesti.a., maximum possible number of faces) such that there are least possible common edges i.e, two.
Maximum possible number of cuboids with green colour on them= 6 [(5 + 4 + 5) 2] " 72
:. The minimum number of cuboids with no green colour on them" 120 _. 72" 48
Choice (2)
74 . The cuboids with both orange and green colours on them can be at most 24 (as in solution 72).
But out of these, at most four corners can have blue colour on them.
., Total required number of cuboids" 24  4 " 20 Choice (3)
75. To get least possible number of such cuboids all the cuboids on the edges (and corners) must have more than one colour which is possible when opposite faces are painted in the same colour. (i.e., two pairs of opposite faces).
Number of cuboids with three colours on them:: B. Number of cuboids with two colours on them
:: 4 x [2 + 3 + 4] " 36
:. Number of required cuboids (i.e, with exactly one colour or no colour on them) :: 120  [36 + 8] " 76
Choice (4)
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