SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE REVISION NEET WEEKEND TEST - 1 DATE : 13-08-19
SUB : BOTANY Max. Marks : 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-
Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

01. Which of the following is defining feature of 05. The most important prerequisite in taxonomy
living organisms ? based on field and laboratory tests that
(1) Growth effects other aspects is
(2) Reproduction (1) Identification
(3) Ability to mount response to a stimulus (2) Nomenclature
(4) All the above (3) Classification
02. Ernst Mayr is not related to following branch (4) None of these
namely 06. indica, esculentum, solanum, datura, allium,
(1) Ornithology melongena
(2) Systematics How many of the above taxa are specific
(3) Zoogeography epithets ?
(4) Palynology (1) 3
03. Defining feature of life forms is (2) 4
(1) Cellular organisation (3) 2
(2) Reproduction (4) 6
(3) Growth 07. A committee governing classification and
(4) 1 and 3 nomenclature of acellular agents is
04. A human being and a cow can be (1) ICBN
differentiated in the following defined feature
(2) ICZN
(1) Growth, Reproduction
(3) ICTV
(2) Reproduction, Metabolism
(3) Cellular organization, Reproduction (4) 1 and 2
(4) Self consciousness
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08. Statement-I : Herbaria serve as quick referral (2) Biodiversity
systems in taxonomical studies. (3) Bioremediation
Statement-II : Botanical gardens have (4) Biogeochemical cycle
collections of living plants for reference. 13. Viable and visible taxon is
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Order
correct (2) Family
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is (3) Species
wrong (4) Class
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is 14. Statement-I : The properties of tissues are not
correct present in constituent cells.
Statement-II : The function of tissue is due to
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
interaction between component cells.
wrong (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
09. Statements unrelated to Systema Naturae is / correct
are (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(1) Written by Linnaeus wrong
(2) Has description of systematic (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
arrangement / classification of animals correct
(3) Animal names in this book are coined (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
following binomial nomenclature wrong
(4) Specific group of plants are described 15. The following taxon is present between class
10. “Based on similarities and dissimilarities”. and family
(1) Genus
The above phrase is applicable to
(2) Phylum
(1) Identification by keys
(3) Species
(2) Classification
(4) Order
(3) Nomenclature
16. Identify the organisms that belong to same
(4) More than one option is correct
family
11. Growth by accumulation of material on the (1) Cat, Dog, Rat
surface is observed in (2) Tiger, Leopard, Cat
(1) Living organisms (3) Tiger, Dog, Cat
(2) Non-Living organisms (4) Cat, Dog, Leopard
(3) Both living and non-living organisms 17. Pair of animals included in different families
(4) In all types of life forms based on similarities and dissimilarities are
(1) Lion, Tiger
12. Number and types of organisms present on
(2) Tiger, Leopard
earth refer to (3) Cat, Leopard
(1) Biosystematics (4) Cat, Dog
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18. True regeneration is shown by (4) Societies which indulged in
(1) Amoeba ‘anthropocentric’ view of biology
registered huge progress in biological
(2) Planaria (flat worm)
knowledge
(3) Fungi 24. The taxon ‘family’ ends with the suffix
(4) Chlamydomonas (1) ‘ales’
19. Growth and reproduction are exclusive (2) ‘ane’
events in (3) ‘aceae’
(1) Chlamydomonas (4) ‘phyceae’
(2) Escherichia coli 25. Musca domestica belongs to
(3) Rhizobium (1) Order - Diptera
(4) Spirogyra (2) Division - Chordata
20. Prerequisite to observe metabolism is (3) Class - Mammalia
(1) Growth (4) Family - Poales
(2) Cellular organisation 26. Taxonomic ‘Key’ is
(3) Reproduction (1) Taxonomical aid for identification
(4) Consciousness (2) Generally analytical in nature
21. Patient in “COMA” can show (3) Based on the contrasting characters in a
(1) Irritability pair called couplet
(2) Self consciousness (4) All the above
(3) Consciousness 27. Order Polymoniales includes plant families
(4) Metabolism (aided by Machines) Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae based on
(1) Vegetative characters only
22. The term not applicable to truely living
(2) Mainly based on floral characters
organisms is
(3) Vegetative and floral characters equally
(1) Self-replicating
(4) None of these
(2) Evolving
28. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic
(3) Self regulating
categories
(4) Inert systems
(1) Species → Phylum → Order →
23. Identify the incorrect statement
Kingdom
(1) Living world consists of amazing
diversity of living organisms (2) Genus → Species → Order →
(2) Early man could easily perceive the Kingdom
difference between inanimate and living
(3) Species → Genus → Order →
organisms
(3) Systematic description of life forms is Phylum

brought about by Identification, (4) Phylum → Genus → Order →

Nomenclature and Classification Species
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29. Statement-I : As we go higher from species (3) It did not distinguish between
to kingdom, the number of common photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic
characters, go on increasing. organisms
Statement-II : Lower the taxa, less is the (4) All the above
characteristics that the members within the 33. Organ system is found in this kingdom
taxon share. (1) Protista
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) Plantae
correct (3) Animalia
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is (4) Fungi
wrong 34. Which one of the following is not a main
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is criterion for the classification of organisms
correct by Whittaker ?
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Acellular nature
wrong (2) Phylogenetic relationships
30. A taxonomical aid having description of one (3) Reproduction
particular taxon is (4) Body organization
(1) Manual 35. Fungi differ from plants in the following
(2) Flora aspects
(3) Monograph (1) Cell wall composition
(4) Herbarium (2) Nutritional habit
31. Who was the earliest to attempt a more (3) Nucleus
scientific basis for classification ? (4) 1 and 2
(1) Theophrastus 36. Statement-I : According to Whittaker,
(2) Aristotle Kingdom Protista includes Chlorella and
(3) Linnaeus Paramoecium.
(4) Whittaker Statement-II : Paramoecium and Chlorella
32. The two kingdom system of classification are unicellular and lack cell wall.
was found inadequate due to the following (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
reason correct
(1) It did not distinguish between (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
eukaryotes and prokaryotes wrong
(2) It did not distinguish between (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
unicellular and multicellular organisms correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
wrong
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37. Most abundant micro organisms are 41. Cyanobacteria resembles higher plants in the
(1) Bacteria following aspect
(2) Protozoans (1) Presence of chlorophyll ‘a’ pigment
(3) Algae (2) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(4) Fungi (3) Diazotrophy
38. Identify the incorrect statement (4) 1 and 2
(1) Bacteria are very complex in behaviour 42. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria derive
(2) Bacteria show the most extensive the energy for the synthesis of ATP from
metabolic diversity (1) Oxidation of organic molecules
(3) The vast majority of bacteria are (2) Radiant energy
heterotrophs (3) Oxidation of inorganic molecules
(4) Bacteria can be seen by naked eye (4) Reduction of inorganic molecules
39. The following is not related to methanogens 43. The following is not a bacterial disease in
(1) They live in extreme salty areas human beings
(2) They are present in the gut of several (1) Yellow fever
ruminant animals (2) Cholera
(3) They produce biogas from the dung of (3) Typhoid
ruminant animals (4) Tetanus
(4) They belong to Archaebacteria 44. Unrelated to Mycoplasma is
40. Identify ‘A’ (1) They lack cell wall
(2) They can survive without oxygen
(3) Smallest living cells
(4) They lack ribosomes
45. Function of inclusion bodies in bacteria is
(1) Storage
(2) Respiration
(3) Excretion
(4) Replication

46. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Mucilagenous sheath (1) All sponges are marine

(2) Heterospore (2) All flatworms are endoparasites

(3) All arthropods are dieocious
(3) Heterocyst
(4) All protochordates are marine
(4) Akinete

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47. In which one of the following, the genus symmetry cuttlefish,
name and its two characters are not jellyfish
correctly matched?
(1) Ascidia (i) Pharyngeal gill-slits (3) True coelom – Dogfish , devil
fish, star fish
(ii) Retrogressive
metamorphosis
(4) Segmentation – Lancelet, leech,
(2) Torpedo (i) Electric organs liver fluke

(ii) Cycloid scales

51. Cnidarians and ctenophores share which
of the following characteristics?
(3) Myxine (i) Cartilaginous
cranium (1) Metagenesis
(2) Tissue level of organisation
(ii) Closed circulatory
(3) Cnidocytes
system
(4) Comb plates
(4) Crocodylus (i) Scutes over the body
52. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(ii) Four-chambered (1) Limulus
heart
(2) Loligo
(3) Labeo
48. Cnidocytes do not help in
(4) Lumbricus
(1) Regeneration
53. Match the following genera with their
(2) Anchorage
respective phyla.
(3) Defence
Column I Column II
(4) Prey capture
49. Which one of these animals is not a (a) Adamsia (i) Mollusca
poikilotherm?
(1) Calotes (b) Aplysia (ii) Aschelminthes
(2) Camelus
(c) Ascidia (iii) Chordata
(3) Crocodylus
(4) Clarias (d) Ancylostoma (iv) Cnidaria
50. Which of the following represents correct
Select the correct option.
match of a feature with the given set of
animals? (a) (b) (c) (d)
Feature Animals (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(1) Diploblastic – Hydra, sea (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

condition walnut, planaria
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) Bilateral – Hag fish, (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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54. In case of sponges, water enters the 60. Select the option which shows correct
spongocoel through combination of an organism and its
(1) Osculum feature.

(2) Ostia (1) Ophiura Well-developed

excretory system
(3) Hypostome
(4) Cloaca (2) Octopus Segmented body
with a head, foot
55. Which of the following is not a and visceral
characteristic feature of chordates? hump
(1) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(3) Ichthyophis Two pairs of
(2) Post-anal tail pentadactyl
(3) Notochord limbs
(4) Dorsal heart (4) Balanoglossus Body is divided
56. Which of the following animals does not into proboscis,
undergo metamorphosis? collar and trunk
(1) Tortoise
61. Which of the following is not an
(2) Toad arthropod character?
(3) Tunicate (1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(4) Tusk shell (2) Closed circulatory system
57. Which of the following has several larval (3) Jointed appendages
stages in its life history? (4) Metameric segmentation
(1) Fasciola 62. Select the correct statement about sexual
(2) Spongilla dimorphism.
(3) Catla (1) Shark: Claspers are present in male
(4) Hyla but not female
(2) Ascaris: Cloaca is present in female
58. In which of the following options, all
but not male
belong to the same phylum?
(3) Cockroach: Anal cerci are present in
(1) Pila, Sepia, Salpa
male but not female
(2) Macropus, Pteropus, Octopus
(4) Frog: Vocal sacs are present in
(3) Physalia, Aurelia, Adamsia female but nor male
(4) Wuchereria, Hirudinaria, Cucumaria 63. Which of the following are similar in their
59. Which of the following characters is basic function?
present in all mammals, without even a (1) Nephridia and parapodia –
single exception? Excretion
(1) Diaphragm (2) Air bladder and urinary bladder –
Excretion
(2) Pinnae (3) Parapodia and comb plates –
(3) Diphyodont dentition Locomotion
(4) Tympanum and operculum –
(4) Circular and biconcave RBC
Hearing
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64. Which of the following is true regarding (2) Flatworms and annelids
Nereis, Pheretima and Hirudinaria? (3) Ctenophores and hemichordates
(1) Hirudinaria is aquatic whereas the (4) Roundworms and molluscs
other two are terrestrial
69. Which of the following animal groups is
(2) Pheretima has setae which are absent
not correctly paired with its
in the other two
characteristic?
(3) Nereis is dioecious whereas the
other two are monoecious (1) Porifera : Central cavity
called
(4) Hirudinaria lacks parapodia which
spongocoel lined
are present in the other two
by choanocytes
65. Which of the following is not a similarity
between Obelia and Pleurobrachia? (2) Mollusca : True coelom is
absent
(1) Two embryonic cell layers –
ectoderm and endoderm (3) Cnidaria : Gastro-vascular
(2) Intracellular and extracellular cavity with a
digestion single opening,
mouth on
(3) Alternation of polyp and medusa hypostome.
generations
(4) Radial symmetry (4) Arthropoda : Principal body
cavity is
66. Which one of the following is not a
character of Rana? haemocoel

(1) Cloaca receives urine, faeces and 70. Presence of water vascular system is the
gametes
most distinctive feature of
(2) Skin is moist and scaly
(1) Echinodermata
(3) Body is divisible into head and
trunk (2) Hemichordata

(4) Tympanum represents ear (3) Arthropoda

67. Which of the following characteristic (4) Urochordata

features holds true for all the animals of 71. Which among these is the correct
the corresponding group? combination of marine animals?

(1) Hooks and Platyhelminthes (1) Scoliodon, Salpa, Spongilla

suckers (2) Loligo, Limulus, Labeo,
(2) Metamerism Echinodermata (3) Hilsa, Hippocampus, Hydra
(4) Pennatula, Pleurobrachia, Pristis
(3) Jointed Annelida
appendages 72. Haemocyanin is found in the blood of
(1) Lac insect
(4) Mantle Mollusca
(2) Earthworm
68. External fertilisation occurs in
(3) Pearl oyster
(1) Sponges and coelenterates
(4) Starfish
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73. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Pheretima – Nephridia help
excretion and osmoregulation
(2) Bungarus – Sheds exoskeleton as
skin cast
(3) Asterias – Ventral mouth and dorsal
anus
(4) Trygon – Air bladder regulates
buoyancy
74. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Prawn has statocysts
(2) Leech has incomplete gut
(3) Snail has calcareous shell
(4) Shark has placoid scales
75. Excretory organ of Saccoglossus is
(1) Proboscis gland
(2) Green gland
(3) Stomochord
(4) Protonephridium
76. Which one of the following is not a
general character of birds?
(1) Presence of feathers
(2) Skin is without any gland
(3) Digestive tract includes crop and
gizzard
(4) Air sacs supplement ventilation
77. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by the presence of
operculum and air bladder.
(1) Osteichthyes
(2) Chondrichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Aves
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78. Which of the following is not true about
sponges?
in
(1) Most of them are asymmetrical
(2) The cells are arranged as loose cell
aggregates
(3) Some division of labour occurs
among the cells
(4) The cells performing the same
function are arranged into tissues
79. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with regard to Ascaris?
(1) An excretory tube removes body
wastes from the body cavity
through the excretory pore
(2) Alimentary canal is complete with a
well-developed muscular intestine
(3) Female is longer than male
(4) Mesoderm is present as scattered
pouches in between ectoderm and
endoderm
80. Select the option that correctly matches a
characteristic feature with the group of
three animals.
(1) Tracheae : Scorpion, prawn,
locust
(2) Parapodia : Nereis, earthworm,
leech
(3) Flame cells : Tapeworm,
roundworm,
hookworm
(4) Radula : Chiton, squid, snail
81. Pteropus is included under the order
(1) Chiroptera
(2) Artiodactyla
(3) Perissodactyla
(4) Cetacea
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82. Match the following organisms with their Earthworm
respective characteristics. (3) Silkworm True coelom
Column I Column II Roundworm
Flying fish
(a) Canis (i) Operculum Paired
(4) Flying fox
appendages
Flying birds
(b) Catla (ii) Pneumatic bones
85. Aves originated from reptiles. Which of
(c) Columba (iii) Pinna the following is not an advancement of
birds over reptiles?
(d) Carcharodon (iv) Claspers (1) Homeothermy
(2) Complete double circulation
Select the correct option. (3) Insulated body
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Internal fertilisation
86. Which of the following characters is
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) shared by arthropods and molluscs?
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) Open circulatory system
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (4) Water vascular system
87. Choose the false statement regarding
83. Chitinous exoskeleton is one of the keys
Petromyzon.
to the success of arthropods on land
because (1) Body is devoid of scales and median
fins
(1) It must be occasionally moulted to
facilitate growth (2) It migrates to freshwater for
spawning
(2) It enhances respiration through the
body surface (3) Mouth is circular and sucking,
without jaws
(3) It prevents desiccation
(4) It has a closed type of circulatory
(4) It helps in absorption of moisture
system
84. Select the option which shows correct
88. Consider following features:
combination of three animals and their
common feature. (a) Internal fertilization
(b) A pair of jaws
Silverfish
(c) Mostly viviparous
(1) Devilfish Triploblastic
Select the correct option of animal groups
Jellyfish
which possess all the above
Sea urchin characteristics.
Entero- (1) Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes
(2) Sea horse
coelomates (2) Reptilia and Mammalia
Sea hare
(3) Amphibia and Mammalia
(4) Chondrichthyes and Mammalia
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89. Which of the following are radially 93. The graph between two temperature scales A
symmetrical? and B is shown in figure . Between upper
(1) Echinoderm larvae fixed point and lower fixed point ,there are
150 equal divisions on scale A and 100 on
(2) Aschelminthes
scale B. The relationship for conversion
(3) Platyhelminthes between the two scales is given by
(4) Coelenterates
180
90. Read the following statements and pick

Temperature (°A)
out the correct option.
A. Coelenterates and ctenophores are ∆tA=150°
symmetrical acoelomates.
B. Platyhelminthes animals are
triploblastic acoelomates.
∆tB=100°
C. Most of the poriferans are
asymmetrical acoelomates.
O Temperature (°B) 100
D. Echinoderms are segmented t A −180 t
schizocoelomates. (1) = B
100 150
(1) All A, B, C and D are true t A − 30 tB
(2) =
(2) Only A and B are true 150 100
(3) A, B and C are true t B −180 t
(3) = A
(4) A, C and D are false 150 100
t B − 40 t
91. The readings of a bath on Celsius and (4) = A
100 180
Fahrenheit thermometers are in the ratio 2 :
94. The coefficient of linear expansion of an
5. The temperature of the bath is
o inhomogenous rod changes linearly form α1
(1) – 26.66 C
to α2 from one end to the other end of the
o
(2) 40 C rod. The effective coefficient of linear
o expansion of the rod is
(3) 45.71 C
o (1) (α1 + α2 )
(4) 26.66 C
1
92. A faulty thermometer has its fixed points (2) (α1 + α2 )
2
marked 5 and 95. If the temperature of a
(3) α1α2
body as shown on the Celsius scale is 40,
then its temperature shown on this faulty (4) (α1 − α2 )
thermometer is 95. A uniform metallic rod rotates about its
o perpendicular bisector with constant angular
(1) 39
speed. If it is heated uniformly to raise its
(2) 40 o temperature slightly then
o (1) Its speed of rotation increases
(3) 41
(2) Its speed of rotation decreases
o
(4) 44.4 (3) Its speed of rotation remains same
(4) Its speed increase because its moment
of inertia increases
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96. A steel tape gives correct measurement at (1) 2.15 cm3
o
20 C. A piece of wood is being measured (2) 2.69cm3
with the steel tape at 0°C. The reading is
(3) 2.52 cm3
25cm on the tape, the real length of the given
piece of wood must be (4) 2.25 cm3
(1) 25 cm 100. A block of wood is floating on water at 0°C
(2) less than 25 cm with certain volume 'V' below the water.
When the temperature of water is slowly
(3) greater than 25 cm
raised to 10°C, the value of 'V'
(4) we cannot say (1) Increase upto 4°C and then decreases
97. A uniform metal rod is used as a bar (2) Increases continuously
pendulum. If the room temperature rises by
(3) Decreases continuously
o
10 C, and the coefficient of linear expansion
(4) Decreases upto 4°C and then increases
−6
of the metal of the rod is 2 x 10 per o C
101. A non-conducting body floats in a liquid at
then the period of the pendulum will have
percentage increase of 20 o C with 2/3 of its volume immersed in
−3 the liquid. When liquid temperature is
(1) – 2 x 10
increased to 100 o C then 3/4th of body’s
−3
(2) – 1 x 10 volume is immersed in the liquid. Then the
−3 coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is
(3) 2 x 10 (neglecting the expansion of container of the
−3 liquid)
(4) 1 x 10
−4 o
98. Two metal rods of same length and same (1) 15.6x 10 / C
area of crossection are fixed end to end (2) 156 x 10
−4 o
/ C
between rigid supports. The material of the
−4 o
rods have youngs moduli y1 and y2, and (3) 1.56x 10 / C
coefficients of linear expansions α1 and α 2 . −4 o
(4) 0.156 x 10 / C
On Heating, the Junction between the rods
does not shift, if 102. The coefficient of apparent expansion of
liquid when determined using two different
y 2y
(1) 1= 2 vessels A and B are γ1 and γ 2 respectively.
α α
1 2 If the coefficient of linear expansion of
(2) y α = y α vessel A is α , the coefficient of linear
1 2 2 1
expansion of vessel B is
(3) y α = y α
1 1 2 2 αγ1γ 2
2 2 (1)
(4) y α = y α γ1 + γ 2
1 1 2 2
99. A glass flask of volume 200 cm3 is just filled γ1 − γ 2
(2)
o
with mercury at 20 C. The amount of 2α
mercury that will overflow when the γ1 − γ 2 + α
(3)
temperature of the system is raised to 100°C 3
−5
is ( γ glass = 1.2 x 10 / o C and γ mercury (4)
γ1 − γ 2
+α
−4 o 3
=1.8 x 10 / C)
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103. A one litre flask contains some mercury. It is (3) remains same
found that at different temperatures, the (4) we cannot say
volume of empty space inside the flask
107. A gas is found to obey the law,
remains same.The volume of mercury inside
2
the flask is (for flask αg = 9 x 10-6 0C-1 , p V =constant. The initial temperature and
γHg = 1.8 x 10-4 0C-1) volume are T0 and V0 . If the gas expands
(1) 100 cc to a volume 3V0 , its final temperature
(2) 125 cc becomes
(3) 150 cc T0
(1)
(4) 175 cc 3
104. A metal cube of coefficient of linear T0
(2)
expansion α is floating in a beaker 3
containing a liquid of coefficient of real (3) 3T0
expansion γ . When the temperature is raised
(4) T0 3
by ∆ T , the depth upto which the cube is
108. An ideal gas is initially at absolute
submerged in the liquid remains unchanged.
temperature T and volume V. Its volume is
If the expansion of the beaker is ignored, the
relation between α and γ is increased by ∆V due to an increase in
temperature ∆ T , pressure remaining
γ
(1) α= constant. The quantity δ = ∆V /(V ∆T )
3
varies with temperature T is
γ (1)
(2) α=
2 δ
(3) α = 3γ
(4) α = 2γ
105. A cylindrical block of wood floats vertically T

with 80% of its volume immersed in a liquid (2)

δ
at 0°C. When the temperature of the liquid is
raised to 62.5°C, the block just sinks in the
liquid. The coefficient of real expansion of
liquid is T
(1) 1×10−3 K −1 (3)
δ
(2) 1×10−3 K −1
(3) 3×10−3 K −1
(4) 4 ×10−3 K −1 T

106. An ice cube is floating in water in a beaker. (4)

When ice melts completely , the level of δ

water in the beaker

(1) rises
(2) falls T

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109. The deviation of a real gas from the ideal one (1) Heated continuously
is minimum at (2) Cooled continuously
(1) Low pressure and high temperature (3) Heated in the beginning and cooled
(2) Low temperature and high pressure towards the end
(3) High pressure and low temperature (4) Cooled in the beginning and heated
(4) High pressure and high temperature towards end
110. p-T diagram was obtained when a given mass 113. A vessel is filled with an ideal gas at pressure
of gas was heated. During the heating
of 20 atm. and is at a temperature of 270C.
process from the state 1 to state 2, the
volume Half of the mass of the gas is removed from

p the vessel and the temperature of remaining

2
gas is increased to 870C .At this temperature
1
the pressure of the gas is
(1) 12 atm
O T
(2) 10 atm
(1) remained constant (3) 20 atm
(2) decreased (4) 21 atm
(3) increased 114. A ring shaped tube contains two ideal gases
(4) changed erratically with equal masses and relative molar masses
111. A cylinder at a certain temperature has a gas M1 = 32 and M2 = 28. The gases are
at a pressure of 50 cm of Hg. Then it is
seperated by one fixed partition P and
divided into three equal parts so that the gas
in the central part is completely transferred to another movable stoppes S which can move
either side equally. Find the pressure of the freely without friction inside the ring. The
gas in each portion
angle α in equilibrium as shown in the
(1) 10 cm
figure (in degrees) is
(2) 20 cm
(3) 75 cm
(4) 100 cm
112. The P-V graph for a gas from state 1 to state
2 is as shown. If mass of the gas is constant,
during process from 1 to 2 the gas is
P
1
(1) 291
2 (2) 219

V
(3) 192
(4) 168
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115. A vessel of volume 'V' contains an ideal gas at (2) 9150 cal
a pressure P0. The gas being removed from (3) 7150 cal
the vessel by means of piston pump with
(4) 8200 cal
stroke volume V/4. The pressure of the gas
119. Cooking is difficult on mountains because
inside the vessel after 3rd stroke of the piston
pump is (1) Water boils at low temperature
P0 (2) Water boils at high temperature
(1)
3 (3) Water does not boil
64 P0 (4) It is cool there
(2)
125 120. The fraction of ice that melts by mixing

27 P0 equal masses of ice at – 10 o C and water at

(3)
64 60 o C is
8 P0 6
(4) (1)
27 11
116. A vessel containing 10 lit of air at 5
(2)
atmospheric pressure (760 mm of Hg) is 16
connected with an evacuated 9 lit vessel. The 11
resultant air pressure will be (3)
16
(1) 1140 mm of Hg
11
(4)
(2) 760 mm of Hg 15
(3) 400 mm of Hg 121. Ice, water and steam co-exist at triple point
(4) 40 mm of Hg temperature 273.16K and pressure 4.6 mm
Hg. In a system in which the triple point
117. 100g of ice at 0 o C is mixed with 100g of conditions of temperature and pressure exist
and the pressure is increased a little while
water at 100 o C. What will be the final
keeping the temperature constant, then the
temperature of the mixture? system contains
o (1) ice only
(1) 100 C
(2) Water only
(2) 20 o C
(3) steam only
(3) 30 o C
(4) water and ice
(4) 0 o C
122. Two spheres having radii in the ratio
118. The specific heat of a substance varies as 2:3 are made of materials of densities in the
( 3t 2
+ t ) × 10−3 ca lg −1 0C −1 . What is the ratio 3 : 4 and specific heats in the ratio 4 :
5. Their thermal capacities are in the ratio
amount of heat required to raise the (1) 2 : 5
temperature of 1kg of substance from 100 C (2) 8 : 45
0
to 20 C (3) 3 : 5
(1) 2000 cal
(4) 1 : 1
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123. Two brass rods of same length but with
different diameters are heated by equal
amounts of heat. The linear expansion is
(1) Same in both rods
(2) more in thick rod
(3) more in thin rod
(4) depends on material of rods
124. Snow is more heat insulating than ice,
because
(1) Air is filled in pores of snow
(2) Ice is more bad conductor than snow
(3) Air is filled in pores of ice
(4) Density of ice is more
125. The ends of two rods of different materials
having same length with their thermal
conductivities in the raio 1:2 and radii of
cross-sections in the ratio 1:2 are maintained
at the same temperature difference. If the rate
of flow of heat in the thin rod is 4cal s-1, then
that in the thick rod will be (in cals-1)
(1) 1
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 12
126. Two rods of copper and brass having
coefficient of thermal conducitvities KC and
KB , of same length and of same area of
cross-sections are joined shown. End A is
kept at 100 o C and end B at 0 o C. if
KC > KB , then the temperature at the
junction
A Copper Brass B (1)
o (2)
(1) Will be more than 50 C
(2) Will be less than 50 o C
o less than that of across CD
(3) Will be 50 C
(4) May be more or less than 50 o C
depending upon the size of rods
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127. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of
coefficient of thermal conductivity K 1 is
surrounded by cylindrical shell of inner
radius R and outer radius 2R made of a
material of thermal conductivity K 2 . The
two ends of the combined system are
maintained at two different temp. There is
no loss of heat across cylindrical surface &
system is in the steady state. What is the
effective thermal conductivity of system?
K1 + K 2
(1)
2
K1 + 3K 2
(2)
4
3K1 + K 2
(3)
4
K1 + 3K 2
(4)
2
128. In which of the following process,
convection does not take place primarily
(1) sea and land breeze
(2) boiling of water
(3) warming of electric bulb due to filament
(4) heating air around a furnace
129. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying
cross section are maintained at 200 o C and
0 o C respectively. In steady state
Temperature difference across AB and
CD are equal
Temeperature difference across AB is
greater than that of across CD
(3) Temperature difference across AB is
(4) Temperature difference may be equal or
different depending on the thermal
conductivity of the rod
Hyderabad
130. Three rods of same dimenstions are arranged (1) 50 o C
as shown in the figure. They have the thermal
conductivities K1, K2 and K3. The points P (2) 75 o C
and Q are maintained at different o
(3) 66.6 C
temperatures for the heat to flow at the same o
rate along PRQ and PQ. Which of the (4) 33.3 C
following options is correct? 133. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact
with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends
conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The
metallic rod is melted and the material is
formed into a rod of double the radius of the
original rod. What is the amount of heat
conducted by the new rod when placed in
1
(1) K 3 = ( K1 + K 2 )
2 thermal contact with the two reservoirs in
(2) K3 = K1 + K 2 time t ?
2K1 K 2 (1) Q/4
(3) K3 =
K1 + K 2 (2) Q/16
(4) K3 = 2( K1 + K2 ) (3) 2Q
131. Water in a lake is changing into ice at (4) 16Q
o
0 C, when the atmospheric temperature is - 134. Statement (A) : Natural convection can take
o
10 C. If the time taken for 1cm thick ice
place in gravity free region
layer to be formed is 7 hour, the time
required for the thickness of ice to increase Statement (B) : Forced convection is useful
from 1cm to 2 cm is in maintaining the constant temperature of
(1) 7 hour our body
(2) 14 hour (1) A is correct, B is wrong
(3) < 7 hour (2) Both A & B are correct
(4) > 14 hour (3) A is wrong, B is correct
132. Two similar rods are joined as shown in (4) Both A & B are wrong
figure. Then temperature of junction is
(assume no heat loss through lateral surface 135. A gas at absolute temperature 300K has a
of rods and temperatures at the ends are pressure 4x10-10pa. If Boltzmann constant K
shown in steady state) is 1.38x10-23 J/K, then the number of
50°C
molecules per cm3 is of the order of
(1) 100
100°C 0°C (2) 105
(3) 108

50°C (4) 1011

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Page 17
136. For a spontaneous adsorption process, correct (1) 0.63
combination is (2) 2.52
(1) ∆H = −Ve, ∆S = −Ve, ∆H > T ∆S (3) 1.26
(2) ∆H = −Ve, ∆S = −Ve, ∆H < T ∆S (4) 3.15

(3) ∆H = +Ve, ∆S = +Ve, ∆H = T ∆S 140. Ease of physisorption per gram of charcoal is

highest for
(4) ∆H = −Ve, ∆S = +Ve, ∆H < T ∆S
(1) He
137. Incorrect statement is
(2) H2
(1) Enthalpy of chemisorptions is 80-240
(3) CH4
KJ /mole
(4) SO2
(2) At low temperatures hydrogen
141. Statement-I : For the Freundlich adsorption
molecules are physically adsorbed on
x 1
Nickel surface isotherm, = kp n , ‘1/n’ ranges from zero
m
(3) Anhydrous CaCl2 absorbs water vapour
to one
(4) Physical adsorption can never be
Statement-II : Freshly precipitated
unilayered
Mg ( OH )2 attains blue colour in presence
138. For the Freundlich adsorption isotherm the
of magneson reagent
correct relation is
(1) I and II are true
(2) I is true, II is false
(3) I is false, II is true
(4) I and II are false
142. Wrong match is
(1) CO …….poison in Haber’s process
(2) CH3COOH ……….Auto catalyst in
hydrolysis of ethyl acetate

(1) T1 < T2 < T3 (3) NO …….. catalyst in lead chamber

process
(2) T1 > T3 > T2
(4) Fe …….. promoter in Haber’s process
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 X
143. CH 4 + H 2O ←  CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) 
Y
→ HCHO .
(4) T2 > T3 > T1
X and Y are respectively are
139. 100ml of 1M crystalline oxalic acid solution
(1) Ni, Cu
is passed over two grams of activated animal
charcoal. The concentration of the solution (2) Co, Ni
after adsorption was found to be 0.8M. (3) Pt, Ni
Weight of solute molecules adsorbed by unit (4) Cu, Co
mass of charcoal will be
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
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144. Incorrect statement of the following is (3) 50 ml of 0.4 molar AgNO3 + 100 ml
(1) The ability of a catalyst to increase the of 0.1 molar KI
rate of reaction is called its activity (4) 50 ml of 0.1 molar AgNO3 + 50 ml of
(2) Selectivity of a catalyst is its ability to
0.1 molar KI
direct a reaction to form specific
149. Regarding micelles incorrect statement is
products
(1) It is formed above Kraft temperature
(3) Chemisorption of reactants on catalyst
(2) For soaps, critical micelle concentration
must be too strong
is 10-4 M to 10-3 M
(4) For hydrogenation reactions, maximum
(3) The hydrophobic part in sodium lauryl
catalytic activity is shown by 7-9 group
sulphate is CH 3 ( CH 2 )11 −
metals
145. Regarding enzymes correct statement is: (4) They are macro molecular colloids

(1) They have low molecular mass 150. Statement-I : Tyndall effect is observed only

(2) They form true solutions with water when the diameter of dispersed particles is

(3) Zymase catalyzes the conversion of not much smaller than the wavelength of the

glucose into ethylalcohol light used

(4) Urease catalyzes the hydrolysis of Statement-II : Tyndall is observed only when

acetamide the refractive index of dispersed phase and

146. Coenzyme in amylase is dispersion medium do not differ much

(1) I and II are true
(1) Co +2
(2) I is true, II is false
(2) Na +
(3) Cu +2 (3) I is false, II is true

(4) Mn +2 (4) I and II are false

147. Whipped cream is an example of 151. In an electrophoresis experiment, particles of
(1) Gel dispersed phase are migrating towards
(2) Emulsion cathode, then correct order of coagulating
(3) Foam powers of electrolyte is:
(4) Solid foam (1) Sn+4 > Fe+3 > Ca+2 > Na+
148. Which of the following forms a positive sol
(2) [Fe(CN)6]-4 = Fe+3 > Cl-1 > SO4-2
(1) 50 ml of 0.1 molar AgNO3 + 100 ml
of 0.1 molar KI (3) Fe+2 = Na+1 = Al+3

(2) 50 ml of 0.2 molar AgNO3 + 100 ml (4) [Fe(CN)6]-4 > PO4-3 > SO4-2 > Br-1
of 0.1 molar KI

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152. Which of the following has the highest (4) They can act like protective colloids for
flocculating value in the coagulation of
lyophobic colloids
Al2O3 .xH 2O ?
157. Milk is
−
(1) Cl (1) a gel
(2) SO4−2
(2) aquasol
(3) PO4−3
(3) o/w emulsion
−4
(4)  Fe ( CN )6  (4) w/o emulsion
153. Which of the following is used in 158. Which of the following is a Neutral
intramuscular injection? homoleptic mononuclear complex?
(1) Colloidal silver
(1) [Co( H 2O)3 Cl3 ]
(2) Colloidal gold
(2)  Pt ( NH 3 ) Cl2 
(3) Colloidal antimony  2 
(4) Colloidal platinum
(3)  Fe ( CO )5 
154. Which of the following is an example of
homogeneous catalysis (4) K 2 [ NiCl4 ]
(1) Ostwald’s process 159. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand
(2) Haber’s process having donar atoms belonging two different
(3) Lead chamber process groups in the periodic table
(4) Contact process (1) Glycinato
155. On which of the following properties does (2) Acetyl acetanato
the coagulating power of ion depends:
(3) Oxalato
(1) Both magnitude and sign of charge on
ion (4) Ethane 1,2-diamine
(2) Size of the ion alone 160. IUPAC name of CrCl2 ( en )2  Cl
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
(1) dichloro di(ethane 1,2-diamine)
alone
chromate (III) chloride
(4) The sign of the charge of the ion alone
(2) dichlorido bis(ethane 1,2-diamine)
156. False statement about Lyophilic sols is
chromium (III) chloride
(1) They are reversible sols
(3) di(ethylene diamine) dichloro
(2) They can be coagulated easily
chromium (III) chloride
(3) They can be prepared by mixing
(4) bis(ethane1,2-diamine) dichloro
dispersed phase and dispersion medium
chroimum (III) chloride

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20
161. Hexa ammine cobalt (III) sulphate is (2) K 2 [ PtCl6 ]
Co ( NH 3 )  SO4
(1)  6 (3) K 3  Fe ( CN )6 
(2) Co ( NH 3 )  ( SO4 )  Ni ( CO )4 
 6 2 3 (4)

(3) Co ( NH 3 )  ( SO4 ) 166. Which of the following is an example of

 6 2
inner orbital complex
(4) Co ( NH 3 )  ( SO4 )
 6
[CoF6 ]−3
4
(1)
162. All the following are ambidentate ligands
except (2)  Fe ( H 2O )6  Cl2

(1) CN − (3) [ Fe(CN )6 ]−3

(2) SCN − +2
(4)  Ni ( H 2O )6 
−
(3) NO3
167. Number of unpaired electrons in
(4) CNO − −3
163. The formula of a complex is
 Mn ( CN )6 

Co ( NH 3 ) Cl y  Clz . 0.1 moles of this (1) Two

 x 
(2) Zero
complex require 0.2 moles of AgNO3 to
(3) Four
preceptitate all the chloride ions. x,y,z (4) Three
respectively are −2
168.  Ni ( CN )4  is
(1) 5,1,2
(2) 6,0,3 (1) Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic
(3) 3,3,0 (2) Square planar, Diamagnetic
(4) 4,2,1 (3) Square planar, Paramagnetic
164. Which of the following complex shows two (4) Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic
different colours 169. Which of the following is the strongest
(1) CoCl3 .6 NH 3 ligand based on spectrochemical series

(2) CoCl3 .5 NH 3 CN
(1)
(3) CoCl3 .4 NH 3
NO2
(4) CoCl3 .3 NH 3 (2)
165. Effective atomic number is not equal to the
(3) NCS
atomic number of inert gas in

(1) Co ( NH 3 )  PO4 OH

 6 (4)

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170. ∆ t is equal to (2) must be half filled
(3) must be completely filled
9
(1) ∆o (4) can be half filled (or) vacant
4
4 176. Paramagnetic species of the following is
(2) ∆o
9 −3
2 (1) Co ( C2O4 )3 
(3) ∆o
7 −2
(2)  Ni ( CN )4 
3
(4) ∆o (3)  Fe ( CO )5 
8
171. Green coloured complex of the following is +2
(4) Cu ( NH 3 ) 
+2  4
(1)  Ni ( en )3  177. CFSE for the complex with d4 configuration
+2 in which ∆ 0 < P will be
(2)  Ni ( en )2 ( H 2O )2 
+2 (1) −0.4 ∆ 0
(3)  Ni ( en )( H 2O )4 
(2) −1.2∆ 0
+2
(4)  Ni ( H 2O )6  (3) −0.6∆ 0
172. Molar conductance is least for (4) Zero
(1) CoCl3 .6 NH 3 178. Which of the following cannot form inner
(2) CoCl3 .5 NH 3 orbital octahedral complex
(3) CoCl3 .4 NH 3 (1) Ti +2
(4) CoCl3 .3 NH 3 (2) Fe+2
173. Ethylene diamine tetraacetate is an example (3) Co +2
of (4) Ni +2
(1) Tetradentate ligand 179. Spatial arrangement of ligands around central
(2) Bidentate ligand metal ion refers to
(3) Hexadentate ligand (1) Coordination number
(4) Pentadentate ligand (2) Coordination entity
174. The bond between central metal ion and (3) Coordination poly hedra
ligands is ionic according to (4) Coordination sphere
(1) VBT 180. Statement –I : Anhydrous copper sulphate is
(2) Sidgwick theory coloured
(3) Werner’s theory Statement-II : Hexaaquatitanium (III)
(4) CFT chloride is coloured
175. According to VBT, the orbitals of central (1) I and II are true
metal ion which intermix with each other to (2) I is true, II is false
form hybrid orbitals (3) I is false, II is true
(1) must be vacant (4) I and II are false
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