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Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with
another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
HDLC
Frame Relay
3. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives
an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the
newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
5. Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by
unauthorized parties?
QoS
latency
reliability
confidentiality
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each
Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish
this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.)
7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1
initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration?
8. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the
result of this process?
9. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
11. A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information
rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to
the update traffic?
The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
The traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.
12. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default
gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
13. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has
assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router
to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
application
transport
network
data link
physical
15. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are
displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2?
16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on
R2?
All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
Telnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be
permitted any time.
17. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0
interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that
are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.
protocol type
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
20. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
21. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which
three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)
PDU #1 is a frame.
PDU #2 is an application layer PDU
PDU #3 is a segment.
PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.
The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3.
22. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
SMTP
FTP
SNMP
HTTP
TFTP
DHCP
23. Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
Telnet
SNMP
SMTP
SQL
TFTP
24. What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
25. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting
VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision
domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.)
3 collision domains
3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains
26. A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all
VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands
are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the
Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
27. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this
command:
Sw1# telnet 192.168.1.10
28. Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration
appropriate?
RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.18.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.44.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.22.1 255.255.255.0
29. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.
Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error
message?
30. A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands
and error message appear as follows:
Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode.
What is the problem?
The switch port is configured as an access mode port.
The switch port does not support trunking on this port.
The encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be placed in trunk
mode.
The no switchport trunk encapsulation auto command needs to be applied to the switch port before trunking
can be enabled.
31. Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate?
802.1Q
CDP
RIP
RSTP
32. Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers
can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would
correct the problem?
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be
used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.)
34. What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)
35. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple
VLANs to switch SW-B?
Spanning Tree
RIP v2
IEEE 802.1Q
ARP
Rapid Spanning Tree
36. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
listening
learning
blocking
disabled
forwarding
37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
designated switch
edge switch
root bridge
enabled bridge
local bridge
38. Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a
frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each
of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular
forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of
forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward
1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
hold-down timers
poison reverse
spanning tree protocol
time to live
VTP
40. Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured
on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
192.168.16.193/30
ip dhcp server
no ip domain-lookup
no logging synchronous
no show ip nat translations
42. Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of
host addresses that are required on router B?
/26
/27
/28
/29
/30
43. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/14
127.16.0.0/12
172.16.0.0/12
192.31.7.0/24
192.168.0.0/16
44. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis
router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
The default gateway configured on the network administrator's workstation is not a valid host address.
The default gateway configured on the TFTP server in incorrect.
The IP address of the TFTP server is a subnetwork address.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of the Heliopolis router is a broadcast address.
The IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same
subnet.
45. The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year.
Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses?
dual stack
6to4 tunnel
manual tunneling
NAT-PT
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this
address reside?
172.16.0.0
172.16.134.0
172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63
48. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
49. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?
to activate the OSPF neighboring process
to influence the DR/BDR election process
to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
to streamline and speed up the convergence process
50. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down.
What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the
down state? (Choose two.)
34. Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet 192.168.1.10 is typed.
The response that is given is this:
Trying 192.168.1.10….Open
Password required, but none set
What is the most likely problem?
54. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration
command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
flash
ROM
NVRAM
RAM
the configuration register
a TFTP server
55. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between
the two routers. What could be the problem?
56. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
57. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled
on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is
this command applied? (Choose two.)
58. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route
will appear in the routing table for this network if the router
has learned multiple routes?
60. Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network
environment?
ACDP, which has more bits that are used for encryption than CDP has
WPA2, which can use the more advanced AES for encryption
VTP, which is compatible with all 802.11-type wireless networks
RSA, which has a different algorithm than any of the older standards
802.1X EAP, which is the most powerful type of encryption used for both wired and wireless networks
61. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
show ip route
show processes
show running-config
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
62. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard
mask pair? (Choose two.)
most
host
all
any
some
gt
63. Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses
209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to
occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?
Because the ISP has knowledge of the directly connected 200.0.0.1 network, no route is needed.
A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 172.16.0.0 and the mask 255.255.0.0.
A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/0 or the 200.0.0.1 IP address.
A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/1 or the 200.0.0.2 IP address.
A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask
255.255.255.252.
64. What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)
65. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement?
(Choose three.)
66. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?
67. Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
68. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to
the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
69. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)
70. What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management
console
a protocol that conducts a test of the path through which a packet travels from source to destination
71. What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
72. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this
configuration on a newly installed router:
RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
Ethernet
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
73. Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)
74. A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?
client
server
domain
transparent
designated
75. What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
Spanning Tree Protocol
Time to Live
Split Horizon Protocol
Routing Information Protocol
76. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the
Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how
many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)
one broadcast domain
three broadcast domains
three collision domains
five broadcast domains
nine collision domains
ten collision domains
77. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been
assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to
either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based
on the output, what is most likely the problem?
78. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?
79. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?
80. Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN
configuration?
81. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What
is most likely the problem?
82. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both
switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs?
(Choose three.)
host B
host C
host D
host E
host F
host G
83. Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the
Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two
explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
84. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the
forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?
VLSM
PVST
802.1Q
RSTP
VTP
85. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking
mode? (Choose two.)
87. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?
88. Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
192.168.14.208
IPv4
IPv6
TCP
UDP
90. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose
three.)
10.78.103.0
10.67.32.0
10.78.160.0
10.78.48.0
172.55.96.0
172.211.100.0
FE90::1::FFFF
FD80::1::1234
FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
FEA0::100::7788:998F
FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF
93. A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements:
Network 1 - 500 hosts
Network 2 - 100 hosts
Network 3 - 1000 hosts
Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
94. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish
this? (Choose two.)
95. Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the
connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?
96. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with
OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?
97. What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?
routing table
topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table
98. What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols?
(Choose two.)
99. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is
shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up.
What is the most likely problem?
100. Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited
information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?
101. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial
interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?
application
transport
network
data link
physical
102. What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
router ospf 0
network 192.168.10.0
network 192.168.10.192
router ospf 0
network 192.168.10.0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
104. Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on
router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?
105. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route
will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?
106. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the
Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two
possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)
108. Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11i
802.11n
109. Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator
encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?
110. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
111. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
They should be placed on the destination WAN link.
113. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the
Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school
should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:
deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?
115. What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
BECN
DLCI
DE
FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP
116. Which network device is commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network?
ACL
IDS
firewall
concentrator
117. What is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router?
PPP
HDLC
Frame Relay
CHAP
IEEE 802.1Q