Preguntas Ava

0
1
1 CORRECTA, MUY BIE b a
2 FALSO b
3 FALSO c
4 FALSO 2
5 FALSO a
6 CORRECTA, MUY BIE b b
7 FALSO c
8 FALSO 3
9 FALSO a
11 FALSO c
12 FALSO 4
13 FALSO a
15 FALSO c
16 FALSO 5
17 FALSO a
18 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c b
19 FALSO c
20 FALSO 6
21 FALSO a
23 FALSO c
24 FALSO 7
25 FALSO a
26 CORRECTA, MUY BIE a b
27 FALSO c
28 FALSO 8
29 CORRECTA, MUY BIE a a
30 FALSO b
31 FALSO c
32 FALSO 9
34 FALSO b
35 FALSO c
36 FALSO 10
37 FALSO a
38 FALSO b
39 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c c
40 FALSO 11
41 FALSO a
43 FALSO c
44 FALSO 12
45 FALSO a
47 FALSO c
48 FALSO 13
49 FALSO a
50 FALSO b
52 FALSO 14
53 FALSO a
55 FALSO c
56 FALSO 15
57 FALSO a
58 FALSO b
60 FALSO 16
62 FALSO b
63 FALSO c
64 FALSO 17
65 FALSO a
67 FALSO c
68 FALSO 18
69 FALSO a
71 FALSO c
72 FALSO 19
73 FALSO a
74 FALSO b
76 FALSO 20
77 FALSO
78 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c a
79 FALSO b
80 FALSO c
81 FALSO 21
82 FALSO a
84 FALSO c
85 FALSO 22
86 FALSO a
88 FALSO c
89 FALSO 23
90 FALSO a
92 FALSO c
93 FALSO 24
94 FALSO a
95 FALSO b
97 FALSO 25
99 FALSO b
100 FALSO c
101 FALSO 26
102 FALSO a
103 FALSO b
104 CORRECTA, MUY BIE b c
105 FALSO 27
106 FALSO a
108 FALSO c
109 FALSO 28
110 FALSO a
112 FALSO c
113 FALSO 29
114 FALSO
116 FALSO b
117 FALSO c
118 FALSO 30
119 FALSO a
121 FALSO c
122 FALSO 31
123 FALSO a
125 FALSO c
126 FALSO 32
127 FALSO a
129 FALSO c
130 FALSO 33
132 FALSO b
133 FALSO c
134 FALSO 34
136 FALSO b
137 FALSO c
138 FALSO 35
140 FALSO b
141 FALSO c
142 FALSO 36
144 FALSO b
145 FALSO c
146 FALSO 37
147 FALSO a
149 FALSO c
150 FALSO 38
151 FALSO a
153 FALSO c
154 FALSO 39
155 FALSO a
157 FALSO c
158 FALSO 40
159 FALSO a
160 FALSO b
162 FALSO 41
163 FALSO a
165 FALSO c
166 FALSO 42
168 FALSO b
169 FALSO c
170 FALSO 43
171 FALSO a
173 FALSO c
174 FALSO 44
176 FALSO b
177 FALSO c
178 FALSO 45
179 FALSO a
181 FALSO c
182 FALSO 46
183 FALSO a
185 FALSO c
186 FALSO 47
187 FALSO a
189 FALSO c
190 FALSO 48
191 FALSO a
192 FALSO b
194 FALSO 49
195 FALSO a
197 FALSO c
198 FALSO 50
199 FALSO a
201 FALSO c
202 FALSO 51
203 FALSO a
205 FALSO c
206 FALSO 52
207 FALSO a
209 FALSO c
210 FALSO 53
211 FALSO a
213 FALSO c
214 FALSO 54
215 FALSO a
217 FALSO c
218 FALSO 55
220 FALSO b
221 FALSO c
222 FALSO 56
224 FALSO b
225 FALSO c
226 FALSO 57
227 FALSO a
229 FALSO c
230 FALSO 58
231 FALSO a
233 FALSO c
234 FALSO 59
235 FALSO a
237 FALSO c
238 FALSO 60
240 FALSO b
241 FALSO c
242 FALSO 61
244 FALSO b
245 FALSO c
246 FALSO 62
247 FALSO a
249 FALSO c
250 FALSO 63
252 FALSO b
253 FALSO c
254 FALSO 64
255 FALSO a
257 FALSO c
258 FALSO 65
259 FALSO a
261 FALSO c
262 FALSO 66
264 FALSO b
265 FALSO c
266 FALSO 67
267 FALSO a
269 FALSO c
270 FALSO 68
271 FALSO a
272 FALSO b
274 FALSO 69
275 FALSO a
277 FALSO c
278 FALSO 70
279 FALSO a
281 FALSO c
282 FALSO 71
283 FALSO a
285 FALSO c
286 FALSO 72
287 FALSO a
289 FALSO c
290 FALSO 73
291 FALSO a
293 FALSO c
294 FALSO 74
295 FALSO
296 FALSO a
297 FALSO b
299 FALSO 75
300 FALSO a
302 FALSO c
303 FALSO 76
304 FALSO a
306 FALSO c
307 FALSO 77
308 FALSO a
309 FALSO b
311 FALSO 78
312 FALSO a
314 FALSO c
315 FALSO 79
316 FALSO a
318 FALSO c
319 FALSO 80
321 FALSO b
322 FALSO c
323 FALSO 81
324 FALSO a
325 FALSO b
326 CORRECTA, MUY BIE a c
327 FALSO 82
328 FALSO a
330 FALSO c
331 FALSO 83
332 FALSO a
333 FALSO b
335 FALSO 84
336 FALSO a
338 FALSO c
339 FALSO 85
341 FALSO b
342 FALSO c
343 FALSO 86
344 FALSO a
346 FALSO c
347 FALSO 87
348 FALSO a
350 FALSO c
351 FALSO 88
352 FALSO a
354 FALSO c
355 FALSO 89
356 FALSO a
358 FALSO c
359 FALSO 90
360 FALSO a
361 FALSO b
363 FALSO 91
364 FALSO
366 FALSO b
367 FALSO c
368 FALSO 92
370 FALSO b
371 FALSO c
372 FALSO 93
373 FALSO a
374 FALSO b
376 FALSO 94
377 FALSO a
379 FALSO c
380 FALSO 95
381 FALSO a
382 FALSO b
384 FALSO 96
385 FALSO a
387 FALSO c
388 FALSO 97
389 CORRECTA, MUY BIE a
390 FALSO
391 FALSO
392 FALSO
393 FALSO a
394 FALSO b
395 FALSO c
396 FALSO 98
398 FALSO b
399 FALSO c
400 FALSO 99
401 FALSO a
403 FALSO c
404 FALSO 100
406 FALSO b
407 FALSO c
408 FALSO 101
409 FALSO a
410 FALSO a b
412 FALSO 102
414 FALSO b
415 FALSO c
416 FALSO 103
417 FALSO
419 FALSO b
420 FALSO c
421 FALSO 104
422 FALSO a
423 FALSO b
425 FALSO 105
426 FALSO a
427 FALSO b
429 FALSO 106
430 FALSO
431 FALSO a
432 FALSO b
434 FALSO 107
435 FALSO
436 FALSO a
438 FALSO c
439 FALSO 108
440 FALSO a
442 FALSO c
443 FALSO 109
444 FALSO a
446 FALSO c
447 FALSO 110
449 FALSO b
450 FALSO c c
451 FALSO 111
452 FALSO a
454 FALSO c
455 FALSO 112
456 FALSO
457 FALSO a
459 FALSO c
460 FALSO 113
461 FALSO a
463 FALSO c
464 FALSO 114
465 FALSO a
466 FALSO b
468 FALSO 115
469 FALSO a
470 FALSO b
472 FALSO 116
473 FALSO a
474 FALSO b
476 FALSO 117
477 FALSO
478 FALSO a
479 FALSO b
481 FALSO 118
482 FALSO a
484 FALSO c
485 FALSO 119
487 FALSO b
488 FALSO c
489 FALSO 120
490 FALSO a
492 FALSO c
493 FALSO 121
494 FALSO a
496 FALSO c
497 FALSO 122
499 FALSO b
500 FALSO c
501 FALSO 123
502 FALSO a
504 FALSO c
505 FALSO 124
506 FALSO a
508 FALSO c
509 FALSO 125
510 FALSO a
512 FALSO c
513 FALSO 126
514 FALSO a
516 FALSO c
517 FALSO 127
519 FALSO b
520 FALSO c
521 FALSO 128
522 FALSO a
524 FALSO c
525 FALSO 129
526 FALSO
527 FALSO a
529 FALSO c
530 FALSO 130
531 FALSO
532 FALSO a
534 FALSO c
535 FALSO 131
536 FALSO a
537 FALSO b
539 FALSO 132
540 FALSO a
541 FALSO b
543 FALSO 133
544 FALSO a
546 FALSO c
547 FALSO 134
548 FALSO
549 FALSO a
551 FALSO c
552 FALSO 135
553 FALSO a
555 FALSO c
556 FALSO 136
557 FALSO a
559 FALSO c
560 FALSO 137
561 FALSO a
562 FALSO b
564 FALSO 138
565 FALSO a
567 FALSO c
568 FALSO 139
569 FALSO
570 FALSO a
572 FALSO c
573 FALSO
574 FALSO 140
575 FALSO a
576 FALSO
577 FALSO b
579 FALSO
580 FALSO 141
581 FALSO a
583 FALSO c
584 FALSO 142
585 FALSO
586 FALSO a
588 FALSO c
589 FALSO 143
590 FALSO a
591 FALSO b
593 FALSO 144
594 FALSO a
595 FALSO b
596 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c
597 FALSO c
598 FALSO 145
599 FALSO a
600 FALSO b
602 FALSO 146
603 FALSO
604 FALSO a
605 FALSO b
607 FALSO 147
608 FALSO a
609 FALSO
610 FALSO b
611 CORRECTA, MUY BIE b
612 FALSO c
613 FALSO
614 FALSO 148
615 FALSO a
617 FALSO c
618 FALSO 149
619 FALSO a
621 FALSO c
622 FALSO 150
623 FALSO a
624 FALSO b
626 FALSO 151
627 FALSO a
628 FALSO b
630 FALSO 152
631 FALSO
632 FALSO a
634 FALSO c
635 FALSO 153
636 FALSO
637 FALSO a
639 FALSO c
640 FALSO 154
641 FALSO
642 FALSO a
644 FALSO c
645 FALSO 155
646 FALSO
647 FALSO a
649 FALSO c
650 FALSO 156
651 FALSO
652 FALSO a
653 FALSO b
655 FALSO 157
656 FALSO
657 FALSO a
659 FALSO c
660 FALSO 158
661 FALSO a
663 FALSO c
664 FALSO 159
665 FALSO a
667 FALSO c
668 FALSO 160
669 FALSO a
670 FALSO
671 FALSO b
672 FALSO
674 FALSO
675 FALSO 161
676 FALSO
677 FALSO
678 FALSO a
679 FALSO b
681 FALSO 162
682 FALSO
683 FALSO a
685 FALSO c
686 FALSO 163
687 FALSO
688 FALSO a
690 FALSO c
691 FALSO 164
692 FALSO a
694 FALSO c
695 FALSO 165
696 FALSO a
697 FALSO b
699 FALSO 166
700 FALSO a
702 FALSO c
703 FALSO 167
704 FALSO a
705 FALSO b
707 FALSO c
708 FALSO
709 FALSO 168
710 FALSO
712 FALSO b b
713 FALSO c
714 FALSO 169
715 FALSO a
717 FALSO c
718 FALSO 170
719 FALSO a
721 FALSO c
722 FALSO 171
723 FALSO a
725 FALSO c
726 FALSO 172
727 FALSO a
728 FALSO b
730 FALSO 173
731 FALSO a
733 FALSO c
734 FALSO 174
735 FALSO
736 FALSO a
737 FALSO b
739 FALSO c
740 FALSO 175
741 FALSO a
742 FALSO b
744 FALSO 176
745 FALSO a
746 FALSO b
748 FALSO 177
749 FALSO
750 FALSO a
752 FALSO c
753 FALSO 178
754 FALSO a
756 FALSO c
757 FALSO 179
758 FALSO
759 FALSO a
760 FALSO b
762 FALSO 180
763 FALSO a
764 FALSO b
766 FALSO 181
767 FALSO
768 FALSO a
769 FALSO
770 FALSO b
772 FALSO 182
773 FALSO
774 FALSO a
776 FALSO c
777 FALSO 183
778 FALSO a
779 FALSO
780 FALSO b
782 FALSO 184
783 FALSO a
784 FALSO b
785 FALSO c
787 FALSO 185
789 FALSO b
790 FALSO c
791 FALSO 186
792 FALSO a
793 FALSO b
795 FALSO 187
796 FALSO a
798 FALSO c
799 FALSO 188
800 FALSO a
801 FALSO b
803 FALSO 189
804 FALSO
805 FALSO a
807 FALSO c
808 FALSO 190
809 FALSO a
811 FALSO c
812 FALSO 191
813 FALSO
814 FALSO a
816 FALSO c
817 FALSO 192
818 FALSO a
819 FALSO b
821 FALSO 193
822 FALSO a
823 FALSO b
825 FALSO 194
826 FALSO
827 FALSO a
829 FALSO c
830 FALSO a 195
831 FALSO
832 FALSO a
834 FALSO c
835 FALSO 196
836 FALSO
837 FALSO a
839 FALSO c
840 FALSO
841 FALSO 197
842 FALSO
843 FALSO a
844 FALSO b
846 FALSO 198
847 FALSO a
848 FALSO b
850 FALSO 199
851 FALSO a
852 FALSO b
854 FALSO 200
855 FALSO
856 FALSO
858 FALSO b
859 FALSO c
860 FALSO 201
861 FALSO a
863 FALSO c
864 FALSO 202
865 FALSO a
867 FALSO c
868 FALSO 203
869 FALSO a
871 FALSO c
872 FALSO 204
873 FALSO a
875 FALSO c
876 FALSO 205
877 FALSO
879 FALSO a
880 FALSO
881 FALSO b
882 FALSO
883 FALSO c
884 FALSO
885 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c 206
886 FALSO a
887 FALSO b
888 FALSO c
889 FALSO 207
891 FALSO b
892 FALSO c
893 FALSO 208
895 FALSO b
896 FALSO c
897 FALSO 209
898 FALSO a
900 FALSO c
901 FALSO 210
902 FALSO c a
903 FALSO c b
904 FALSO c
905 CORRECTA, MUY BIE a 211
906 FALSO a
907 FALSO b
908 FALSO c
909 FALSO 212
910 FALSO
912 FALSO b
913 FALSO c
914 FALSO 213
915 FALSO a
917 FALSO c
918 FALSO 214
919 FALSO a
921 FALSO c
922 FALSO 215
923 FALSO a
924 FALSO b
926 FALSO 216
927 FALSO a
928 FALSO b
930 FALSO 217
931 FALSO
932 FALSO a
934 FALSO c
935 FALSO 218
936 FALSO
937 FALSO
939 FALSO b
940 FALSO c
941 FALSO 219
942 FALSO
944 FALSO a
945 FALSO
946 FALSO b
947 FALSO c
948 FALSO 220
950 FALSO b
951 FALSO c
952 FALSO 221
953 FALSO a
955 FALSO c
956 FALSO 222
957 FALSO a
959 FALSO c
960 FALSO 223
961 FALSO a
963 FALSO c
964 FALSO 224
965 FALSO
966 FALSO a
968 FALSO c
969 FALSO 225
970 FALSO a
972 FALSO c
973 FALSO 226
974 FALSO a
976 FALSO c
977 FALSO 227
978 FALSO
979 FALSO a
981 FALSO c
982 FALSO 228
984 FALSO b
985 FALSO c
986 FALSO 229
988 FALSO b
989 FALSO c
990 FALSO 230
992 FALSO b
993 FALSO c
994 FALSO 231
995 FALSO a
997 FALSO c
998 FALSO 232
1000 FALSO b
1001 FALSO c
1002 FALSO 233
1003 FALSO a
1005 FALSO c
1006 FALSO 234
1007 FALSO a
1008 FALSO b
1010 FALSO 235
1011 FALSO a
1013 FALSO c
1014 FALSO 236
1015 FALSO a
1017 FALSO c
1018 FALSO 237
1019 FALSO a
1021 FALSO c
1022 FALSO 238
1023 FALSO a
1025 FALSO
1026 FALSO c
1027 FALSO 239
1028 FALSO a
1030 FALSO c
1031 FALSO 240
1032 FALSO a
1033 FALSO b
1035 FALSO 241
1036 FALSO
1037 FALSO a
1039 FALSO c
1040 FALSO 242
1041 FALSO a
1043 FALSO c
1044 FALSO 243
1045 FALSO
1046 FALSO
1048 FALSO b
1049 FALSO c
1050 FALSO 244
1051 FALSO a
1053 FALSO c
1054 FALSO 245
1055 FALSO a
1057 FALSO c
1058 FALSO 246
1059 FALSO
1061 FALSO b
1062 FALSO c
1063 FALSO 247
1064 FALSO a
1066 FALSO b
1067 FALSO c
1068 FALSO
1069 FALSO 248
1071 FALSO b
1072 FALSO
1073 FALSO c
1074 FALSO 249
1076 FALSO b
1077 FALSO c
1078 FALSO 250
1080 FALSO b
1081 FALSO c
1082 FALSO 251
1083 FALSO a
1085 FALSO c
1086 FALSO 252
1087 FALSO a
1088 FALSO b
1090 FALSO 253
1091 FALSO a
1093 FALSO c
1094 FALSO 254
1095 FALSO a
1096 FALSO b
1098 FALSO 255
1099 FALSO a
1101 FALSO c
1102 FALSO 256
1103 FALSO
1105 FALSO b
1106 FALSO c
1107 FALSO 257
1108 FALSO a
1110 FALSO c
1111 FALSO 258
1112 FALSO a
1113 FALSO b
1115 FALSO 259
1116 FALSO a
1118 FALSO c
1119 FALSO 260
1120 FALSO a
1122 FALSO c
1123 FALSO 261
1124 FALSO
1125 FALSO a
1127 FALSO c
1128 FALSO 262
1129 FALSO a
1131 FALSO c
1132 FALSO 263
1133 FALSO a
1134 FALSO b
1136 FALSO 264
1137 FALSO a
1139 FALSO c
1140 FALSO 265
1141 FALSO
1143 FALSO b
1144 FALSO c
1145 FALSO 266
1146 FALSO
1147 FALSO a
1149 FALSO b
1150 FALSO
1151 FALSO c
1152 FALSO
1153 FALSO 267
1155 FALSO b
1156 FALSO c
1157 FALSO 268
1158 FALSO a
1159 FALSO
1161 FALSO c
1162 FALSO
1163 FALSO 269
1164 FALSO
1166 FALSO b
1167 FALSO c
1168 FALSO 270
1169 FALSO a
1171 FALSO c
1172 FALSO 271
1173 FALSO a
1175 FALSO c
1176 FALSO 272
1177 FALSO a
1179 FALSO c
1180 FALSO 273
1181 FALSO a
1183 FALSO c
1184 FALSO 274
1185 FALSO a
1187 FALSO c
1188 FALSO 275
1189 FALSO
1191 FALSO b
1192 FALSO c
1193 FALSO 276
1195 FALSO a
1196 FALSO b
1197 FALSO c
1198 FALSO 277
1200 FALSO b
1201 FALSO c
1202 FALSO 278
1203 FALSO
1205 FALSO b
1206 FALSO c
1207 FALSO 279
1208 FALSO
1210 FALSO a
1211 FALSO b
1212 FALSO c
1213 FALSO 280
1214 FALSO
1215 FALSO
1216 FALSO a
1218 FALSO c
1219 FALSO 281
1220 FALSO a
1222 FALSO c
1223 FALSO 282
1224 FALSO
1225 FALSO a
1227 FALSO c
1228 FALSO 283
1230 FALSO a
1231 FALSO b
1232 FALSO c
1233 FALSO 284
1234 FALSO
1235 FALSO
1236 FALSO a
1238 FALSO c
1239 FALSO 285
1240 FALSO a
1242 FALSO c
1243 FALSO 286
1244 FALSO
1246 FALSO b
1247 FALSO c
1248 FALSO 287
1249 FALSO
1250 FALSO a
1251 FALSO b
1253 FALSO 288
1254 FALSO a
1255 FALSO b
1257 FALSO 289
1258 FALSO a
1260 FALSO c
1261 FALSO 290
1262 FALSO a
1263 FALSO
1265 FALSO c
1266 FALSO 291
1267 FALSO a
1269 FALSO c
1270 FALSO 292
1271 FALSO a
1273 FALSO c
1274 FALSO 293
1276 FALSO b
1277 FALSO c
1278 FALSO 294
1279 FALSO a
1281 FALSO c
1282 FALSO 295
1283 FALSO
1284 FALSO a
1286 FALSO b
1287 FALSO c
1288 FALSO
1289 FALSO 296
1290 FALSO
1292 FALSO b
1293 FALSO c
1294 FALSO 297
1295 FALSO a
1297 FALSO c
1298 FALSO 298
1299 FALSO
1301 FALSO b
1302 FALSO c
1303 FALSO 299
1304 FALSO a
1306 FALSO c
1307 FALSO 300
1308 FALSO
1310 FALSO a
1311 FALSO b
1312 FALSO
1313 FALSO c
1314 FALSO 301
1316 FALSO a
1317 FALSO b
1318 FALSO c
1319 FALSO
1320 FALSO 302
1322 FALSO b
1323 FALSO c
1324 FALSO 303
1325 FALSO a
1327 FALSO c
1328 FALSO 304
1330 FALSO b
1331 FALSO c
1332 FALSO 305
1333 FALSO a
1335 FALSO c
1336 FALSO 306
1337 FALSO
1339 FALSO b
1340 FALSO c
1341 FALSO 307
1342 FALSO
1344 FALSO b
1345 FALSO c
1346 FALSO 308
1347 FALSO
1348 FALSO
1350 FALSO b
1351 FALSO c
1352 FALSO 309
1353 FALSO
1354 FALSO a
1356 FALSO c
1357 FALSO 310
1358 FALSO
1360 FALSO b
1361 FALSO c
1362 FALSO 311
1363 FALSO
1364 FALSO
1365 FALSO a
1366 FALSO
1368 FALSO c
1369 FALSO
1370 FALSO 312
1371 FALSO
1372 FALSO a
1373 FALSO b
1375 FALSO 313
1376 FALSO
1378 FALSO b
1379 FALSO
1380 FALSO c
1381 FALSO 314
1383 FALSO a
1384 FALSO
1385 FALSO b
1386 FALSO
1387 FALSO c
1388 FALSO
1389 FALSO 315
1390 FALSO
1391 FALSO a
1393 FALSO c
1394 FALSO 316
1395 FALSO
1397 FALSO b
1398 FALSO c
1399 FALSO 317
1400 FALSO a
1401 FALSO
1402 FALSO b
1404 FALSO
1405 FALSO 318
1406 FALSO
1407 FALSO a
1408 FALSO
1409 FALSO b
1410 FALSO
1412 FALSO
1413 FALSO 319
1414 FALSO
1415 FALSO a
1417 FALSO
1418 FALSO c
1419 FALSO 320
1420 FALSO a
1422 FALSO c
1423 FALSO 321
1424 FALSO
1425 FALSO a
1427 FALSO c
1428 FALSO 322
1429 FALSO
1430 FALSO
1431 FALSO
1432 FALSO a
1434 FALSO c
1435 FALSO 323
1437 FALSO b
1438 FALSO c
1439 FALSO 324
1440 FALSO a
1441 FALSO b
1443 FALSO 325
1444 FALSO a
1445 FALSO
1447 FALSO c
1448 FALSO
1449 FALSO 326
1450 FALSO a
1452 FALSO c
1453 FALSO 327
1454 FALSO
1456 FALSO b
1457 FALSO c
1458 FALSO 328
1460 FALSO b
1461 FALSO c
1462 FALSO 329
1464 FALSO b
1465 FALSO c
1466 FALSO 330
1468 FALSO b
1469 FALSO c
1470 FALSO 331
1471 FALSO a
1473 FALSO c
1474 FALSO 332
1475 FALSO
1477 FALSO b
1478 FALSO c
1479 FALSO 333
1481 FALSO b
1482 FALSO c
1483 FALSO 334
1485 FALSO b
1486 FALSO c
1487 FALSO 335
1489 FALSO a
1490 FALSO b
1491 FALSO c
1492 FALSO 336
1493 FALSO a
1494 FALSO b
1496 FALSO 337
1497 FALSO a a
1498 FALSO b
1499 FALSO c
1500 FALSO 338
1502 FALSO b
1503 FALSO c
1504 FALSO 339
1505 FALSO
1507 FALSO b
1508 FALSO c
1509 FALSO
1510 FALSO 340
1511 FALSO
1512 FALSO a
1514 FALSO c
1515 FALSO 341
1517 FALSO b
1518 FALSO c
1519 FALSO 342
1520 FALSO a
1522 FALSO c
1523 FALSO 343
1524 FALSO a
1526 FALSO c
1527 FALSO 344
1528 FALSO a
1530 FALSO c
1531 FALSO 345
1533 FALSO a
1534 FALSO b
1535 FALSO c
1536 FALSO 346
1537 FALSO a
1539 FALSO c
1540 FALSO 347
1541 FALSO a
1543 FALSO c
1544 CORRECTA, MUY BIE c 348
1545 FALSO a
1546 FALSO b
1547 FALSO c
1548 FALSO 349
1549 FALSO
1550 FALSO a
1551 FALSO c b
1553 FALSO 350
1554 FALSO
1555 FALSO
1557 FALSO 351
1558 FALSO a
1559 FALSO b
1561 FALSO 352
1562 FALSO
1563 FALSO a
1565 FALSO c
1566 FALSO 353
1568 FALSO b
1569 FALSO c
1570 FALSO 354
1572 FALSO b
1573 FALSO c
1574 FALSO 355
1575 FALSO a
1576 FALSO b
1578 FALSO 356
1579 FALSO a
1581 FALSO c
1582 FALSO 357
1583 FALSO a
1585 FALSO c
1586 FALSO 358
1587 FALSO
1588 FALSO a
1589 FALSO a b
1590 FALSO c
1591 FALSO 359
1592 FALSO a
1594 FALSO c
1595 FALSO 360
1596 FALSO a
1598 FALSO c
1599 FALSO 361
1601 FALSO b
1603 FALSO c
1604 FALSO 362
1606 FALSO b
1607 FALSO c
1608 FALSO 363
1609 FALSO
1611 FALSO b
1612 FALSO c
1613 FALSO 364
1614 FALSO a
1616 FALSO c
1617 FALSO 365
1618 FALSO
1619 FALSO a
1620 FALSO b
1622 FALSO 366
1623 FALSO a
1625 FALSO c
1626 FALSO 367
1627 FALSO
1629 FALSO b
1630 FALSO c
1631 FALSO 368
1632 FALSO
1633 FALSO a
1634 FALSO b
1636 FALSO 369
1637 FALSO
1638 FALSO
1639 FALSO a
1640 FALSO b
1642 FALSO 370
1643 FALSO
1644 FALSO
1645 FALSO a
1646 FALSO b
1648 FALSO 371
1649 FALSO a
1651 FALSO c
1652 FALSO 372
1653 FALSO
1654 FALSO a
1656 FALSO
1657 FALSO c
1658 FALSO
1659 FALSO 373
1660 FALSO
1661 FALSO a
1663 FALSO c
1664 FALSO 374
1665 FALSO
1666 FALSO a
1668 FALSO c
1669 FALSO 375
1670 FALSO a
1672 FALSO c
1673 FALSO 376
1674 FALSO a
1676 FALSO b
1677 FALSO
1678 FALSO c
1679 FALSO
1680 FALSO 377
1681 FALSO a
1682 FALSO
1683 FALSO b
1684 FALSO
1686 FALSO
1687 FALSO 378
1688 FALSO a
1690 FALSO c
1691 FALSO 379
1692 FALSO
1693 FALSO a
1695 FALSO c
1696 FALSO 380
1697 FALSO a
1699 FALSO c
1700 FALSO 381
1701 FALSO a
1702 FALSO b
1704 FALSO 382
1705 FALSO a
1706 FALSO b
1708 FALSO 383
1709 FALSO
1710 FALSO a
1711 FALSO a b
1712 FALSO c
1713 FALSO 384
1714 FALSO
1715 FALSO a
1716 FALSO b
1717 FALSO c
1718 FALSO 385
1719 FALSO a
1720 FALSO b
1721 FALSO c
1722 FALSO 386
1723 FALSO a
1724 FALSO b
1725 FALSO c
1726 FALSO 387
1727 FALSO
1728 FALSO a
1729 FALSO b
1730 FALSO c
1731 FALSO 388
1732 FALSO
1733 FALSO a
1734 FALSO b
1735 FALSO c
1736 FALSO 389
1737 FALSO a
1738 FALSO b
1739 FALSO c
1740 FALSO 390
1741 FALSO a
1742 FALSO b
1743 FALSO c
1744 FALSO 391
1745 FALSO a
1746 FALSO b
1747 FALSO c
1748 FALSO 392
1749 FALSO a
1750 FALSO b
1751 FALSO c
1752 FALSO 393
1753 FALSO a
1754 FALSO b
1755 FALSO c
1756 FALSO 394
1757 FALSO a
1758 FALSO b
1759 FALSO c
1760 FALSO 395
1761 FALSO a
1762 FALSO b
1763 FALSO c
1764 FALSO 396
1765 FALSO a
1766 FALSO b
1767 FALSO c
1768 FALSO 397
1769 FALSO a
1770 FALSO b
1771 FALSO c
1772 FALSO 398
1773 FALSO a
1774 FALSO b
1775 FALSO c
1776 FALSO 399
1777 FALSO
1778 FALSO a
1779 FALSO b
1780 FALSO c
1781 FALSO 400
1782 FALSO
1783 FALSO a
1784 FALSO b
1785 FALSO c
1786 FALSO 401
1787 FALSO a
1788 FALSO b
1789 FALSO c
1790 FALSO 402
1791 FALSO a
1792 FALSO b
1793 FALSO c
1794 FALSO 403
1795 FALSO a
1796 FALSO b
1797 FALSO c
1798 FALSO 404
1799 FALSO a
1800 FALSO b
1801 FALSO c
1802 FALSO 405
1803 FALSO
1804 FALSO a
1805 FALSO b
1806 FALSO c
1807 FALSO 406
1808 FALSO
1809 FALSO a
1810 FALSO b
1811 FALSO c
1812 FALSO 407
1813 FALSO
1814 FALSO a
1815 FALSO b
1816 FALSO c
1817 FALSO 408
1818 FALSO
1819 FALSO a
1820 FALSO b
1821 FALSO c
1822 FALSO 409
1823 FALSO a
1824 FALSO b
1825 FALSO c
1826 FALSO 410
1827 FALSO a
1828 FALSO b
1829 FALSO c
1830 FALSO 411
1831 FALSO a
1832 FALSO b
1833 FALSO c
1834 FALSO 412
1835 FALSO
1836 FALSO a
1837 FALSO b
1838 FALSO c
1839 FALSO 413
1840 FALSO a
1841 FALSO b
1842 FALSO c
1843 FALSO 414
1844 FALSO a
1845 FALSO b
1846 FALSO c
1847 FALSO 415
1848 FALSO
1849 FALSO a
1850 FALSO b
1851 FALSO c
1852 FALSO 416
1853 FALSO a
1854 FALSO b
1855 FALSO c
1856 FALSO 417
1857 FALSO
1858 FALSO a
1859 FALSO
1860 FALSO b
1861 FALSO
1862 FALSO c
1863 FALSO 418
1864 FALSO
1865 FALSO
1866 FALSO
1867 FALSO 419
1868 FALSO
1869 FALSO a
1870 FALSO b
1871 FALSO
1872 FALSO c
1873 FALSO 420
1874 FALSO
1875 FALSO a
1876 FALSO b
1877 FALSO
1878 FALSO c
1879 FALSO 421
1880 FALSO
1881 FALSO a
1882 FALSO b
1883 FALSO c
1884 FALSO
1885 FALSO 422
1886 FALSO
1887 FALSO a
1888 FALSO b
1889 FALSO c
1890 FALSO 423
1891 FALSO a
1892 FALSO b
1893 FALSO c
1894 FALSO 424
1895 FALSO
1896 FALSO a
1897 FALSO b
1898 FALSO c
1899 FALSO
1900 FALSO 425
1901 FALSO
1902 FALSO a
1903 FALSO
1904 FALSO b
1905 FALSO
1906 FALSO c
1907 FALSO 426
1908 FALSO
1909 FALSO a
1910 FALSO b
1911 FALSO c
1912 FALSO
1913 FALSO 427
1914 FALSO
1915 FALSO a
1916 FALSO b
1917 FALSO
1918 FALSO c
1919 FALSO 428
1920 FALSO
1921 FALSO a
1922 FALSO b
1923 FALSO c
1924 FALSO
1925 FALSO 429
1926 FALSO a
1927 FALSO b
1928 FALSO c
1929 FALSO 430
1930 FALSO
1931 FALSO
1932 FALSO a
1933 FALSO b
1934 FALSO c
1935 FALSO 431
1936 FALSO
1937 FALSO a
1938 FALSO b
1939 FALSO c
1940 FALSO 432
1941 FALSO
1942 FALSO
1943 FALSO a
1944 FALSO b
1945 FALSO c
1946 FALSO 433
1947 FALSO a
1948 FALSO b
1949 FALSO c
1950 FALSO 434
1951 FALSO
1952 FALSO a
1953 FALSO b
1954 FALSO c
1955 FALSO 435
1956 FALSO
1957 FALSO a
1958 FALSO b
1959 FALSO c
1960 FALSO 436
1961 FALSO
1962 FALSO a
1963 FALSO b
1964 FALSO c
1965 FALSO 437
1966 FALSO
1967 FALSO a
1968 FALSO b
1969 FALSO c
1970 FALSO 438
1971 FALSO
1972 FALSO a
1973 FALSO
1974 FALSO b
1975 FALSO c
1976 FALSO
1977 FALSO 439
1978 FALSO a
1979 FALSO b
1980 FALSO c
1981 FALSO 440
1982 FALSO
1983 FALSO a
1984 FALSO b
1985 FALSO c
1986 FALSO 441
1987 FALSO a
1988 FALSO b
1989 FALSO c
1990 FALSO 442
1991 FALSO a
1992 FALSO b
1993 FALSO c
1994 FALSO 443
1995 FALSO a
1996 FALSO b
1997 FALSO c
1998 FALSO 444
1999 FALSO a
2000 FALSO b
2001 FALSO c
2002 FALSO 445
2003 FALSO
2004 FALSO a
2005 FALSO b
2006 FALSO c
2007 FALSO 446
2008 FALSO a
2009 FALSO b
2010 FALSO c
2011 FALSO 447
2012 FALSO a
2013 FALSO b
2014 FALSO c
2015 FALSO 448
2016 FALSO a
2017 FALSO b
2018 FALSO c
2019 FALSO 449
2020 FALSO
2021 FALSO a
2022 FALSO b
2023 FALSO c
2024 FALSO 450
2025 FALSO a
2026 FALSO b
2027 FALSO c
2028 FALSO 451
2029 FALSO
2030 FALSO a
2031 FALSO b
2032 FALSO c
2033 FALSO 452
2034 FALSO
2035 FALSO a
2036 FALSO b
2037 FALSO c
2038 FALSO 453
2039 FALSO
2040 FALSO a
2041 FALSO b
2042 FALSO c
2043 FALSO 454
2044 FALSO a
2045 FALSO b
2046 FALSO c
2047 FALSO 455
2048 FALSO
2049 FALSO a
2050 FALSO b
2051 FALSO c
2052 FALSO 456
2053 FALSO a
2054 FALSO b
2055 FALSO c
2056 FALSO 457
2057 FALSO a
2058 FALSO b
2059 FALSO c
2060 FALSO 458
2061 FALSO a
2062 FALSO b
2063 FALSO c
2064 FALSO 459
2065 FALSO a
2066 FALSO b
2067 FALSO c
2068 FALSO 460
2069 FALSO
2070 FALSO a
2071 FALSO b
2072 FALSO c
2073 FALSO 461
2074 FALSO
2075 FALSO a
2076 FALSO b
2077 FALSO c
2078 FALSO 462
2079 FALSO
2080 FALSO a
2081 FALSO b
2082 FALSO c
2083 FALSO 463
2084 FALSO
2085 FALSO a
2086 FALSO b
2087 FALSO c
2088 FALSO 464
2089 FALSO
2090 FALSO a
2091 FALSO b
2092 FALSO c
2093 FALSO 465
2094 FALSO a
2095 FALSO b
2096 FALSO c
2097 FALSO 466
2098 FALSO
2099 FALSO a
2100 FALSO b
2101 FALSO c
2102 FALSO 467
2103 FALSO
2104 FALSO a
2105 FALSO b
2106 FALSO c
2107 FALSO 468
2108 FALSO
2109 FALSO a
2110 FALSO b
2111 FALSO c
2112 FALSO 469
2113 FALSO
2114 FALSO a
2115 FALSO b
2116 FALSO c
2117 FALSO 470
2118 FALSO a
2119 FALSO b
2120 FALSO c
2121 FALSO 471
2122 FALSO
2123 FALSO a
2124 FALSO b
2125 FALSO c
2126 FALSO 472
2127 FALSO a
2128 FALSO b
2129 FALSO c
2130 FALSO 473
2131 FALSO
2132 FALSO a
2133 FALSO b
2134 FALSO c
2135 FALSO 474
2136 FALSO
2137 FALSO a
2138 FALSO
2139 FALSO b
2140 FALSO
2141 FALSO c
2142 FALSO
2143 FALSO 475
2144 FALSO
2145 FALSO a
2146 FALSO b
2147 FALSO c
2148 FALSO 476
2149 FALSO
2150 FALSO a
2151 FALSO b
2152 FALSO c
2153 FALSO 477
2154 FALSO
2155 FALSO a
2156 FALSO b
2157 FALSO
2158 FALSO c
2159 FALSO 478
2160 FALSO a
2161 FALSO b
2162 FALSO c
2163 FALSO 479
2164 FALSO a
2165 FALSO b
2166 FALSO c
2167 FALSO 480
2168 FALSO a
2169 FALSO b
2170 FALSO c
2171 FALSO
2172 FALSO 481
2173 FALSO
2174 FALSO a
2175 FALSO b
2176 FALSO c
2177 FALSO 482
2178 FALSO
2179 FALSO a
2180 FALSO b
2181 FALSO c
2182 FALSO 483
2183 FALSO
2184 FALSO a
2185 FALSO b
2186 FALSO c
2187 FALSO 484
2188 FALSO a
2189 FALSO
2190 FALSO b
2191 FALSO
2192 FALSO c
2193 FALSO 485
2194 FALSO a
2195 FALSO b
2196 FALSO c
2197 FALSO 486
2198 FALSO
2199 FALSO a
2200 FALSO b
2201 FALSO c
2202 FALSO 487
2203 FALSO
2204 FALSO a
2205 FALSO b
2206 FALSO c
2207 FALSO 488
2208 FALSO a
2209 FALSO b
2210 FALSO c
2211 FALSO 489
2212 FALSO a
2213 FALSO b
2214 FALSO c
2215 FALSO 490
2216 FALSO
2217 FALSO a
2218 FALSO b
2219 FALSO c
2220 FALSO 491
2221 FALSO a
2222 FALSO b
2224 FALSO c
2225 FALSO 492
2226 FALSO
2227 FALSO a
2228 FALSO b
2229 FALSO c
2230 FALSO 493
2231 FALSO a
2232 FALSO b
2233 FALSO c
2234 FALSO 494
2235 FALSO
2236 FALSO a
2237 FALSO b
2238 FALSO c
2239 FALSO 495
2240 FALSO a
2241 FALSO b
2242 FALSO c
2243 FALSO
2244 FALSO 496
2245 FALSO a
2246 FALSO b
2247 FALSO c
2248 FALSO 497
2249 FALSO a
2250 FALSO b
2251 FALSO c
2252 FALSO 498
2253 FALSO a
2254 FALSO b
2255 FALSO c
2256 FALSO 499
2257 FALSO a
2258 FALSO b
2259 FALSO c
2260 FALSO 500
2261 FALSO a
2262 FALSO b
2263 FALSO c
2264 FALSO 501
2265 FALSO a
2266 FALSO b
2267 FALSO c
2269 FALSO 502
2270 FALSO a
2271 FALSO b
2272 FALSO c
2273 FALSO 503
2274 FALSO a
2275 FALSO b
2276 FALSO c
2277 FALSO 504
2278 FALSO a
2279 FALSO b
2280 FALSO c
2281 FALSO 505
2282 FALSO a
2283 FALSO b
2284 FALSO c
2285 FALSO 506
2286 FALSO a
2287 FALSO b
2288 FALSO c
2289 FALSO 507
2290 FALSO a
2291 FALSO b
2292 FALSO c
2293 FALSO 508
2294 FALSO a
2295 FALSO b
2296 FALSO c
2297 FALSO 509
2298 FALSO a
2299 FALSO b
2300 FALSO
2301 FALSO c
2302 FALSO
2303 FALSO 510
2304 FALSO a
2305 FALSO
2306 FALSO b
2307 FALSO c
2308 FALSO 511
2309 FALSO a
2310 FALSO b
2311 FALSO c
2313 FALSO 512
2314 FALSO
2315 FALSO a
2316 FALSO b
2317 FALSO c
2318 FALSO 513
2319 FALSO a
2320 FALSO b
2321 FALSO c
2322 FALSO 514
2323 FALSO a
2324 FALSO b
2325 FALSO c
2326 FALSO 515
2327 FALSO
2328 FALSO a
2329 FALSO b
2330 FALSO c
2331 FALSO 516
2332 FALSO a
2333 FALSO b
2334 FALSO c
2335 FALSO 517
2336 FALSO
2337 FALSO a
2338 FALSO b
2339 FALSO c
2340 FALSO 518
2341 FALSO a
2342 FALSO b
2343 FALSO c
2344 FALSO 519
2345 FALSO
2346 FALSO a
2347 FALSO b
2348 FALSO c
2349 FALSO 520
2350 FALSO a
2351 FALSO b
2352 FALSO c
2353 FALSO
2355 FALSO 521
2356 FALSO a
2357 FALSO b
2358 FALSO c
2360 FALSO 522
2361 FALSO
2362 FALSO a
2363 FALSO b
2364 FALSO c
2365 FALSO 523
2366 FALSO
2367 FALSO a
2368 FALSO b
2369 FALSO c
2370 FALSO 524
2371 FALSO
2372 FALSO a
2373 FALSO b
2374 FALSO c
2375 FALSO 525
2376 FALSO
2377 FALSO a
2378 FALSO b
2379 FALSO c
2380 FALSO 526
2381 FALSO a
2382 FALSO b
2383 FALSO c
2384 FALSO 527
2385 FALSO a
2386 FALSO b
2387 FALSO c
2388 FALSO 528
2389 FALSO
2390 FALSO
2391 FALSO a
2392 FALSO b
2393 FALSO c
2394 FALSO 529
2395 FALSO a
2396 FALSO b
2397 FALSO c
2398 FALSO 530
2399 FALSO a
2400 FALSO b
2401 FALSO c
2402 FALSO 531
2403 FALSO a
2404 FALSO b
2405 FALSO c
2406 FALSO 532
2407 FALSO
2408 FALSO
2409 FALSO
2410 FALSO 533
2411 FALSO a
2412 FALSO b
2413 FALSO c
2414 FALSO 534
2415 FALSO a
2416 FALSO b
2417 FALSO c
2418 FALSO 535
2419 FALSO a
2420 FALSO b
2421 FALSO c
2422 FALSO 536
2423 FALSO
2424 FALSO a
2425 FALSO b
2426 FALSO c
2427 FALSO 537
2428 FALSO
2429 FALSO
2430 FALSO a
2431 FALSO b
2432 FALSO c
2433 FALSO 538
2434 FALSO a
2435 FALSO b
2436 FALSO
2437 FALSO c
2438 FALSO 539
2439 FALSO
2440 FALSO a
2441 FALSO b
2442 FALSO
2443 FALSO c
2444 FALSO 540
2445 FALSO a
2446 FALSO b
2447 FALSO c
2448 FALSO 541
2449 FALSO a
2450 FALSO b
2451 FALSO c
2452 FALSO 542
2453 FALSO a
2454 FALSO b
2455 FALSO c
2456 FALSO 543
2457 FALSO a
2458 FALSO b
2459 FALSO c
2460 FALSO 544
2461 FALSO
2462 FALSO a
2463 FALSO b
2464 FALSO c
2465 FALSO 545
2466 FALSO
2467 FALSO
2468 FALSO
2469 FALSO a
2470 FALSO b
2471 FALSO c
2472 FALSO 546
2473 FALSO a
2474 FALSO b
2475 FALSO c
2476 FALSO 547
2477 FALSO
2478 FALSO a
2479 FALSO b
2480 FALSO c
2481 FALSO 548
2482 FALSO a
2483 FALSO b
2484 FALSO c
2485 FALSO 549
2486 FALSO
2487 FALSO
2488 FALSO a
2489 FALSO b
2490 FALSO c
2491 FALSO 550
2492 FALSO
2493 FALSO a
2494 FALSO b
2495 FALSO c
2496 FALSO 551
2497 FALSO
2498 FALSO a
2499 FALSO b
2500 FALSO c
2501 FALSO 552
2502 FALSO
2503 FALSO a
2504 FALSO b
2505 FALSO c
2506 FALSO 553
2507 FALSO a
2508 FALSO
2509 FALSO b
2510 FALSO
2511 FALSO c
2512 FALSO 554
2513 FALSO
2514 FALSO a
2515 FALSO b
2516 FALSO c
2517 FALSO 555
2518 FALSO a
2519 FALSO b
2520 FALSO c
2521 FALSO 556
2522 FALSO a
2523 FALSO b
2524 FALSO c
2525 FALSO 557
2526 FALSO a
2527 FALSO b
2528 FALSO c
2529 FALSO 558
2530 FALSO a
2531 FALSO b
2532 FALSO c
2533 FALSO 559
2534 FALSO a
2535 FALSO b
2536 FALSO c
2537 FALSO 560
2538 FALSO a
2539 FALSO b
2540 FALSO c
2541 FALSO 561
2542 FALSO a
2543 FALSO b
2544 FALSO c
2545 FALSO 562
2546 FALSO a
2547 FALSO b
2548 FALSO c
2549 FALSO 563
2550 FALSO
2551 FALSO a
2552 FALSO b
2553 FALSO c
2554 FALSO 564
2555 FALSO
2556 FALSO a
2557 FALSO b
2558 FALSO c
2559 FALSO 565
2560 FALSO a
2561 FALSO b
2562 FALSO c
2563 FALSO 566
2564 FALSO
2565 FALSO a
2566 FALSO b
2567 FALSO c
2568 FALSO
2569 FALSO 567
2570 FALSO
2571 FALSO a
2572 FALSO b
2573 FALSO c
2574 FALSO 568
2575 FALSO a
2576 FALSO b
2577 FALSO c
2578 FALSO 569
2579 FALSO a
2580 FALSO b
2581 FALSO c
2582 FALSO 570
2583 FALSO
2584 FALSO
2585 FALSO
2586 FALSO 571
2587 FALSO
2588 FALSO
2589 FALSO
2590 FALSO 572
2591 FALSO a
2592 FALSO b
2593 FALSO c
2594 FALSO 573
2595 FALSO
2596 FALSO a
2597 FALSO b
2598 FALSO c
2599 FALSO 574
2600 FALSO
2601 FALSO a
2602 FALSO b
2603 FALSO c
2604 FALSO 575
2605 FALSO
2606 FALSO a
2607 FALSO b
2608 FALSO c
2609 FALSO 576
2610 FALSO
2611 FALSO a
2612 FALSO b
2613 FALSO c
2614 FALSO 577
2615 FALSO a
2616 FALSO b
2617 FALSO c
2618 FALSO 578
2619 FALSO a
2620 FALSO b
2621 FALSO c
2622 FALSO 579
2623 FALSO a
2624 FALSO b
2625 FALSO c
2626 FALSO 580
2627 FALSO a
2628 FALSO b
2629 FALSO c
2630 FALSO 581
2631 FALSO
2632 FALSO a
2633 FALSO b
2634 FALSO c
2635 FALSO 582
2636 FALSO a
2637 FALSO
2638 FALSO b
2639 FALSO
2640 FALSO c
2641 FALSO
2642 FALSO 583
2643 FALSO
2644 FALSO a
2645 FALSO b
2646 FALSO c
2647 FALSO
2648 FALSO 584
2649 FALSO
2650 FALSO a
2651 FALSO b
2652 FALSO c
2653 FALSO 585
2654 FALSO a
2655 FALSO b
2656 FALSO c
2657 FALSO 586
2658 FALSO a
2659 FALSO b
2660 FALSO c
2661 FALSO 587
2662 FALSO a
2663 FALSO b
2664 FALSO c
2665 FALSO 588
2666 FALSO a
2667 FALSO b
2668 FALSO c
2669 FALSO 589
2670 FALSO
2671 FALSO a
2672 FALSO b
2673 FALSO c
2674 FALSO 590
2675 FALSO a
2676 FALSO b
2677 FALSO c
2678 FALSO 591
2679 FALSO a
2680 FALSO b
2681 FALSO c
2682 FALSO 592
2683 FALSO a
2684 FALSO b
2685 FALSO c
2686 FALSO 593
2687 FALSO a
2688 FALSO b
2689 FALSO c
2690 FALSO 594
2691 FALSO a
2692 FALSO b
2693 FALSO c
2694 FALSO 595
2695 FALSO a
2696 FALSO b
2697 FALSO c
2698 FALSO 596
2699 FALSO a
2700 FALSO b
2701 FALSO
2702 FALSO c
2703 FALSO
2704 FALSO 597
2705 FALSO
2706 FALSO a
2707 FALSO b
2708 FALSO c
2709 FALSO 598
2710 FALSO
2711 FALSO a
2712 FALSO b
2713 FALSO c
2714 FALSO 599
2715 FALSO a
2716 FALSO b
2717 FALSO c
2718 FALSO 600
2719 FALSO a
2720 FALSO b
2721 FALSO c
2722 FALSO 601
2723 FALSO a
2724 FALSO b
2725 FALSO c
2726 FALSO 602
2727 FALSO a
2728 FALSO b
2729 FALSO c
2730 FALSO 603
2731 FALSO
2732 FALSO a
2733 FALSO b
2734 FALSO c
2735 FALSO 604
2736 FALSO
2737 FALSO a
2738 FALSO b
2739 FALSO c
2740 FALSO 605
2741 FALSO
2742 FALSO a
2743 FALSO b
2744 FALSO c
2745 FALSO 606
2746 FALSO
2747 FALSO a
2748 FALSO b
2749 FALSO c
2750 FALSO 607
2751 FALSO a
2752 FALSO b
2753 FALSO c
2754 FALSO 608
2755 FALSO a
2756 FALSO b
2757 FALSO c
2758 FALSO 609
2759 FALSO a
2760 FALSO b
2761 FALSO c
2762 FALSO 610
2763 FALSO
2764 FALSO a
2765 FALSO b
2766 FALSO c
2767 FALSO 611
2768 FALSO a
2769 FALSO b
2770 FALSO c
2771 FALSO 612
2772 FALSO
2773 FALSO a
2774 FALSO b
2775 FALSO c
2776 FALSO 613
2777 FALSO a
2778 FALSO b
2779 FALSO c
2780 FALSO 614
2781 FALSO a
2782 FALSO
2783 FALSO b
2784 FALSO
2785 FALSO
2786 FALSO c
2787 FALSO
2788 FALSO
2789 FALSO 615
2790 FALSO a
2791 FALSO b
2792 FALSO c
2793 FALSO 616
2794 FALSO a
2795 FALSO b
2796 FALSO c
2797 FALSO 617
2798 FALSO a
2799 FALSO b
2800 FALSO c
2801 FALSO 618
2802 FALSO a
2803 FALSO b
2804 FALSO c
2805 FALSO 619
2806 FALSO
2807 FALSO a
2808 FALSO b
2809 FALSO c
2810 FALSO 620
2811 FALSO
2812 FALSO a
2813 FALSO
2814 FALSO b
2815 FALSO c
2816 FALSO 621
2817 FALSO
2818 FALSO a
2819 FALSO b
2820 FALSO c
2821 FALSO 622
2822 FALSO a
2823 FALSO b
2824 FALSO c
2825 FALSO 623
2826 FALSO a
2827 FALSO b
2828 FALSO c
2829 FALSO 624
2830 FALSO a
2831 FALSO b
2832 FALSO c
2833 FALSO 625
2834 FALSO a
2835 FALSO b
2836 FALSO c
2837 FALSO 626
2838 FALSO a
2839 FALSO b
2840 FALSO c
2841 FALSO 627
2842 FALSO a
2843 FALSO b
2844 FALSO c
2845 FALSO 628
2846 FALSO a
2847 FALSO b
2848 FALSO c
2849 FALSO 629
2850 FALSO a
2851 FALSO b
2852 FALSO c
2853 FALSO 630
2854 FALSO a
2855 FALSO b
2856 FALSO c
2857 FALSO 631
2858 FALSO a
2859 FALSO b
2860 FALSO c
2861 FALSO 632
2862 FALSO a
2863 FALSO b
2864 FALSO c
2865 FALSO 633
2866 FALSO a
2867 FALSO b
2868 FALSO
2869 FALSO c
2870 FALSO 634
2871 FALSO a
2872 FALSO b
2873 FALSO c
2874 FALSO 635
2875 FALSO a
2876 FALSO b
2877 FALSO c
2878 FALSO 636
2879 FALSO
2880 FALSO a
2881 FALSO b
2882 FALSO c
2883 FALSO 637
2884 FALSO
2885 FALSO a
2886 FALSO b
2887 FALSO c
2888 FALSO 638
2889 FALSO a
2890 FALSO b
2891 FALSO c
2892 FALSO 639
2893 FALSO
2894 FALSO a
2895 FALSO b
2896 FALSO c
2897 FALSO 640
2898 FALSO
2899 FALSO a
2900 FALSO b
2901 FALSO c
2902 FALSO 641
2903 FALSO a
2904 FALSO b
2905 FALSO c
2906 FALSO 642
2907 FALSO a
2908 FALSO b
2909 FALSO c
2910 FALSO 643
2911 FALSO a
2912 FALSO b
2913 FALSO c
2914 FALSO 644
2915 FALSO a
2916 FALSO b
2917 FALSO c
2918 FALSO 645
2919 FALSO
2920 FALSO a
2921 FALSO b
2922 FALSO c
2923 FALSO
2924 FALSO 646
2925 FALSO a
2926 FALSO b
2927 FALSO c
2928 FALSO 647
2929 FALSO a
2930 FALSO b
2931 FALSO c
2932 FALSO 648
2933 FALSO
2934 FALSO a
2935 FALSO b
2936 FALSO c
2937 FALSO 649
2938 FALSO a
2939 FALSO b
2940 FALSO c
2941 FALSO 650
2942 FALSO a
2943 FALSO b
2944 FALSO c
2945 FALSO 651
2946 FALSO a
2947 FALSO b
2948 FALSO c
2949 FALSO 652
2950 FALSO a
2951 FALSO b
2952 FALSO c
2953 FALSO 653
2954 FALSO
2955 FALSO a
2956 FALSO b
2957 FALSO c
2958 FALSO 654
2959 FALSO
2960 FALSO a
2961 FALSO b
2962 FALSO c
2963 FALSO 655
2964 FALSO
2965 FALSO a
2966 FALSO b
2967 FALSO c
2968 FALSO 656
2969 FALSO a
2970 FALSO b
2971 FALSO c
2972 FALSO
2973 FALSO 657
2974 FALSO a
2975 FALSO b
2976 FALSO c
2978 FALSO 658
2979 FALSO a
2980 FALSO b
2981 FALSO c
2982 FALSO 659
2983 FALSO a
2984 FALSO b
2985 FALSO c
2986 FALSO 660
2987 FALSO a
2988 FALSO b
2989 FALSO c
2990 FALSO 661
2991 FALSO a
2992 FALSO b
2993 FALSO c
2994 FALSO 662
2995 FALSO a
2996 FALSO b
2997 FALSO c
2998 FALSO 663
2999 FALSO a
3000 FALSO b
3001 FALSO c
3002 FALSO 664
3003 FALSO
3004 FALSO a
3005 FALSO b
3006 FALSO c
3007 FALSO 665
3008 FALSO
3009 FALSO a
3010 FALSO b
3011 FALSO c
3012 FALSO 666
3013 FALSO
3014 FALSO a
3015 FALSO b
3016 FALSO c
3017 FALSO 667
3018 FALSO a
3019 FALSO b
3020 FALSO c
3021 FALSO 668
3022 FALSO
3023 FALSO a
3024 FALSO b
3025 FALSO c
3026 FALSO 669
3027 FALSO a
3028 FALSO b
3029 FALSO c
3030 FALSO 670
3031 FALSO a
3032 FALSO b
3033 FALSO c
3034 FALSO 671
3035 FALSO a
3036 FALSO b
3037 FALSO c
3038 FALSO 672
3039 FALSO a
3040 FALSO b
3041 FALSO c
3042 FALSO 673
3043 FALSO a
3044 FALSO b
3045 FALSO c
3046 FALSO 674
3047 FALSO a
3048 FALSO b
3049 FALSO c
3050 FALSO 675
3051 FALSO
3052 FALSO a
3053 FALSO b
3054 FALSO c
3055 FALSO 676
3056 FALSO
3057 FALSO a
3058 FALSO b
3059 FALSO
3060 FALSO c
3061 FALSO
3062 FALSO 677
3063 FALSO a
3064 FALSO
3065 FALSO b
3066 FALSO c
3068 FALSO 678
3069 FALSO
3070 FALSO a
3071 FALSO b
3072 FALSO c
3073 FALSO
3074 FALSO 679
3075 FALSO a
3076 FALSO b
3077 FALSO c
3078 FALSO 680
3079 FALSO a
3080 FALSO b
3081 FALSO c
3082 FALSO 681
3083 FALSO a
3084 FALSO b
3085 FALSO c
3086 FALSO 682
3087 FALSO a
3088 FALSO b
3089 FALSO c
3090 FALSO 683
3091 FALSO
3092 FALSO a
3093 FALSO b
3094 FALSO c
3095 FALSO 684
3096 FALSO
3097 FALSO a
3098 FALSO b
3099 FALSO c
3100 FALSO 685
3101 FALSO
3102 FALSO a
3103 FALSO b
3104 FALSO c
3105 FALSO 686
3106 FALSO a
3107 FALSO b
3108 FALSO c
3109 FALSO 687
3110 FALSO a
3111 FALSO b
3112 FALSO c
3114 FALSO 688
3115 FALSO
3116 FALSO
3117 FALSO
3118 FALSO 689
3119 FALSO
3120 FALSO
3121 FALSO
3122 FALSO 690
3123 FALSO
3124 FALSO
3125 FALSO
3126 FALSO 691
3127 FALSO a
3128 FALSO b
3129 FALSO c
3130 FALSO 692
3131 FALSO a
3132 FALSO b
3133 FALSO c
3134 FALSO 693
3135 FALSO a
3136 FALSO b
3137 FALSO c
3138 FALSO
3139 FALSO 694
3140 FALSO a
3141 FALSO b
3142 FALSO c
3143 FALSO 695
3144 FALSO a
3145 FALSO b
3146 FALSO c
3147 FALSO 696
3148 FALSO
3149 FALSO a
3150 FALSO b
3151 FALSO c
3152 FALSO 697
3153 FALSO
3154 FALSO a
3155 FALSO b
3156 FALSO c
3158 FALSO 698
3159 FALSO
3160 FALSO a
3161 FALSO b
3162 FALSO c
3163 FALSO 699
3164 FALSO
3165 FALSO a
3166 FALSO
3167 FALSO b
3168 FALSO c
3169 FALSO 700
3170 FALSO
3171 FALSO a
3172 FALSO b
3173 FALSO c
3174 FALSO 701
3175 FALSO a
3176 FALSO b
3177 FALSO c
3178 FALSO 702
3179 FALSO
3180 FALSO a
3181 FALSO b
3182 FALSO c
3183 FALSO 703
3184 FALSO
3185 FALSO a
3186 FALSO b
3187 FALSO c
3188 FALSO 704
3189 FALSO a
3190 FALSO b
3191 FALSO c
3192 FALSO 705
3193 FALSO a
3194 FALSO b
3195 FALSO c
3196 FALSO 706
3197 FALSO
3198 FALSO a
3199 FALSO b
3200 FALSO c
3201 FALSO
3203 FALSO 707
3204 FALSO a
3205 FALSO b
3206 FALSO c
3207 FALSO 708
3208 FALSO
3209 FALSO a
3210 FALSO b
3211 FALSO c
3212 FALSO 709
3213 FALSO
3214 FALSO a
3215 FALSO b
3216 FALSO c
3217 FALSO 710
3218 FALSO
3219 FALSO
3220 FALSO a
3221 FALSO b
3222 FALSO c
3223 FALSO 711
3224 FALSO
3225 FALSO a
3226 FALSO b
3227 FALSO c
3228 FALSO 712
3229 FALSO a
3230 FALSO b
3231 FALSO c
3232 FALSO 713
3233 FALSO a
3234 FALSO b
3235 FALSO c
3236 FALSO 714
3237 FALSO a
3238 FALSO b
3239 FALSO c
3240 FALSO 715
3241 FALSO a
3242 FALSO b
3243 FALSO c
3244 FALSO 716
3245 FALSO a
3246 FALSO b
3247 FALSO c
3248 FALSO 717
3249 FALSO a
3250 FALSO b
3251 FALSO c
3252 FALSO 718
3253 FALSO a
3254 FALSO b
3255 FALSO c
3256 FALSO 719
3257 FALSO a
3258 FALSO b
3259 FALSO c
3260 FALSO 720
3261 FALSO a
3262 FALSO b
3263 FALSO c
3264 FALSO
3265 FALSO 721
3266 FALSO a
3267 FALSO b
3268 FALSO c
3269 FALSO 722
3270 FALSO a
3271 FALSO b
3272 FALSO c
3273 FALSO 723
3274 FALSO a
3275 FALSO b
3276 FALSO c
3277 FALSO
3278 FALSO 724
3279 FALSO
3280 FALSO a
3281 FALSO b
3282 FALSO c
3283 FALSO 725
3284 FALSO
3285 FALSO a
3286 FALSO b
3287 FALSO c
3288 FALSO 726
3289 FALSO a
3290 FALSO b
3291 FALSO c
3293 FALSO 727
3294 FALSO a
3295 FALSO b
3296 FALSO
3297 FALSO c
3298 FALSO 728
3299 FALSO a
3300 FALSO b
3301 FALSO c
3302 FALSO 729
3303 FALSO a
3304 FALSO b
3305 FALSO c
3306 FALSO 730
3307 FALSO a
3308 FALSO b
3309 FALSO c
3310 FALSO 731
3311 FALSO a
3312 FALSO b
3313 FALSO c
3314 FALSO
3315 FALSO 732
3316 FALSO a
3317 FALSO b
3318 FALSO
3319 FALSO c
3320 FALSO 733
3321 FALSO a
3322 FALSO b
3323 FALSO c
3324 FALSO 734
3325 FALSO
3326 FALSO a
3327 FALSO b
3328 FALSO c
3329 FALSO 735
3330 FALSO
3331 FALSO a
3332 FALSO b
3333 FALSO c
3334 FALSO 736
3335 FALSO a
3336 FALSO b
3337 FALSO c
3338 FALSO 737
3339 FALSO
3340 FALSO a
3341 FALSO b
3342 FALSO c
3343 FALSO 738
3344 FALSO a
3345 FALSO b
3346 FALSO c
3347 FALSO
3348 FALSO 739
3349 FALSO
3350 FALSO
3351 FALSO
3352 FALSO
3353 FALSO a
3354 FALSO b
3355 FALSO c
3356 FALSO 740
3357 FALSO
3358 FALSO
3359 FALSO a
3360 FALSO b
3361 FALSO c
3362 FALSO 741
3363 FALSO
3364 FALSO
3365 FALSO a
3366 FALSO b
3367 FALSO c
3368 FALSO
3369 FALSO 742
3370 FALSO
3371 FALSO a
3372 FALSO b
3373 FALSO c
3374 FALSO 743
3375 FALSO
3376 FALSO a
3377 FALSO
3378 FALSO b
3379 FALSO c
3380 FALSO
3381 FALSO 744
3382 FALSO
3383 FALSO a
3384 FALSO b
3385 FALSO
3386 FALSO c
3387 FALSO
3388 FALSO 745
3389 FALSO
3390 FALSO a
3391 FALSO b
3392 FALSO c
3393 FALSO 746
3394 FALSO
3395 FALSO a
3396 FALSO b
3397 FALSO c
3398 FALSO 747
3399 FALSO a
3400 FALSO b
3401 FALSO c
3402 FALSO 748
3403 FALSO
3404 FALSO a
3405 FALSO b
3406 FALSO c
3407 FALSO 749
3408 FALSO
3409 FALSO a
3410 FALSO b
3411 FALSO c
3412 FALSO 750
3413 FALSO
3414 FALSO a
3415 FALSO b
3416 FALSO c
3417 FALSO 751
3418 FALSO a
3419 FALSO b
3420 FALSO c
3421 FALSO 752
3422 FALSO
3423 FALSO a
3424 FALSO b
3425 FALSO c
3426 FALSO 753
3427 FALSO
3428 FALSO
3429 FALSO a
3430 FALSO b
3431 FALSO c
3432 FALSO 754
3433 FALSO
3434 FALSO
3435 FALSO
3436 FALSO a
3437 FALSO
3438 FALSO b
3439 FALSO
3440 FALSO c
3441 FALSO 755
3442 FALSO
3443 FALSO a
3444 FALSO b
3445 FALSO c
3446 FALSO 756
3447 FALSO a
3448 FALSO b
3449 FALSO c
3450 FALSO 757
3451 FALSO
3452 FALSO a
3453 FALSO b
3454 FALSO c
3455 FALSO 758
3456 FALSO a
3457 FALSO b
3458 FALSO c
3459 FALSO 759
3460 FALSO
3461 FALSO a
3462 FALSO b
3463 FALSO c
3464 FALSO 760
3465 FALSO a
3466 FALSO b
3467 FALSO c
3468 FALSO 761
3469 FALSO a
3470 FALSO
3471 FALSO b
3472 FALSO c
3473 FALSO 762
3474 FALSO
3475 FALSO a
3476 FALSO b
3477 FALSO c
3478 FALSO 763
3479 FALSO
3480 FALSO a
3481 FALSO b
3482 FALSO c
3483 FALSO 764
3484 FALSO a
3485 FALSO
3486 FALSO b
3487 FALSO
3488 FALSO c
3489 FALSO 765
3490 FALSO a
3491 FALSO b
3492 FALSO c
3493 FALSO
3494 FALSO 766
3495 FALSO
3496 FALSO a
3497 FALSO b
3498 FALSO c
3499 FALSO 767
3500 FALSO a
3501 FALSO
3502 FALSO b
3503 FALSO
3504 FALSO c
3505 FALSO
3506 FALSO 768
3507 FALSO
3508 FALSO a
3509 FALSO b
3510 FALSO c
3511 FALSO 769
3512 FALSO a
3513 FALSO b
3514 FALSO c
3515 FALSO 770
3516 FALSO a
3517 FALSO b
3518 FALSO c
3519 FALSO 771
3520 FALSO a
3521 FALSO b
3522 FALSO c
3523 FALSO 772
3524 FALSO
3525 FALSO a
3526 FALSO b
3527 FALSO c
3528 FALSO 773
3529 FALSO
3530 FALSO a
3531 FALSO b
3532 FALSO c
3533 FALSO 774
3534 FALSO
3535 FALSO a
3536 FALSO b
3537 FALSO c
3538 FALSO 775
3539 FALSO
3540 FALSO a
3541 FALSO b
3542 FALSO c
3543 FALSO 776
3544 FALSO
3545 FALSO a
3546 FALSO b
3547 FALSO c
3548 FALSO 777
3549 FALSO
3550 FALSO a
3551 FALSO b
3552 FALSO c
3553 FALSO 778
3554 FALSO a
3555 FALSO b
3556 FALSO c
3557 FALSO 779
3558 FALSO
3559 FALSO a
3560 FALSO b
3561 FALSO c
3562 FALSO 780
3563 FALSO
3564 FALSO a
3565 FALSO b
3566 FALSO c
3567 FALSO 781
3568 FALSO
3569 FALSO a
3570 FALSO b
3571 FALSO c
3572 FALSO 782
3573 FALSO a
3574 FALSO b
3575 FALSO c
3576 FALSO 783
3577 FALSO
3578 FALSO a
3579 FALSO b
3580 FALSO c
3581 FALSO 784
3582 FALSO
3583 FALSO a
3584 FALSO b
3585 FALSO c
3586 FALSO 785
3587 FALSO
3588 FALSO a
3589 FALSO b
3590 FALSO c
3591 FALSO
3592 FALSO 786
3593 FALSO
3594 FALSO a
3595 FALSO b
3596 FALSO c
3597 FALSO 787
3598 FALSO
3599 FALSO a
3600 FALSO b
3601 FALSO c
3602 FALSO 788
3604 FALSO a
3605 FALSO b
3606 FALSO c
3607 FALSO 789
3608 FALSO
3609 FALSO a
3610 FALSO b
3611 FALSO c
3612 FALSO 790
3613 FALSO
3614 FALSO a
3615 FALSO b
3616 FALSO c
3617 FALSO 791
3618 FALSO
3619 FALSO a
3620 FALSO b
3621 FALSO c
3622 FALSO 792
3623 FALSO
3624 FALSO a
3625 FALSO b
3626 FALSO c
3627 FALSO 793
3628 FALSO
3629 FALSO a
3630 FALSO b
3631 FALSO c
3632 FALSO 794
3633 FALSO
3634 FALSO a
3635 FALSO b
3636 FALSO c
3637 FALSO 795
3638 FALSO
3639 FALSO a
3640 FALSO
3641 FALSO b
3642 FALSO c
3643 FALSO 796
3644 FALSO a
3645 FALSO b
3646 FALSO c
3647 FALSO 797
3648 FALSO a
3649 FALSO
3650 FALSO b
3651 FALSO c
3652 FALSO
3653 FALSO 798
3654 FALSO a
3655 FALSO b
3656 FALSO c
3657 FALSO 799
3658 FALSO
3659 FALSO a
3660 FALSO b
3661 FALSO c
3662 FALSO 800
3663 FALSO a
3664 FALSO b
3665 FALSO
3666 FALSO c
3667 FALSO 801
3668 FALSO a
3669 FALSO b
3670 FALSO c
3671 FALSO 802
3672 FALSO a
3673 FALSO b
3674 FALSO c
3675 FALSO 803
3676 FALSO
3677 FALSO a
3678 FALSO b
3679 FALSO c
3680 FALSO 804
3681 FALSO
3682 FALSO a
3683 FALSO b
3684 FALSO c
3685 FALSO 805
3686 FALSO
3687 FALSO a
3688 FALSO b
3689 FALSO c
3690 FALSO 806
3691 FALSO a
3692 FALSO b
3693 FALSO
3694 FALSO c
3695 FALSO
3696 FALSO 807
3697 FALSO
3698 FALSO a
3699 FALSO b
3700 FALSO
3701 FALSO c
3702 FALSO 808
3703 FALSO
3704 FALSO a
3705 FALSO b
3706 FALSO c
3707 FALSO 809
3708 FALSO a
3709 FALSO b
3710 FALSO c
3711 FALSO 810
3712 FALSO
3713 FALSO a
3714 FALSO b
3715 FALSO c
3716 FALSO 811
3717 FALSO
3718 FALSO a
3719 FALSO b
3720 FALSO c
3721 FALSO 812
3722 FALSO a
3723 FALSO
3724 FALSO b
3725 FALSO
3726 FALSO c
3727 FALSO
3728 FALSO 813
3729 FALSO
3730 FALSO a
3731 FALSO
3732 FALSO b
3733 FALSO c
3734 FALSO 814
3735 FALSO
3736 FALSO a
3737 FALSO
3738 FALSO b
3739 FALSO c
3740 FALSO 815
3741 FALSO
3742 FALSO
3743 FALSO a
3744 FALSO b
3745 FALSO c
3746 FALSO 816
3747 FALSO
3748 FALSO
3749 FALSO a
3750 FALSO b
3751 FALSO c
3752 FALSO 817
3753 FALSO
3754 FALSO a
3755 FALSO b
3756 FALSO c
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coor
Thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
Use of ailerons has increased the drag.
Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.
Defines VNO as
Maximum operating limit speed.
Maximum structural cruising speed.
Never-exceed speed.
Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
Rate of turn.
Angle of bank.
True airspeed
The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by
Changes in air density
Variations in flight altitude.
Variations in airplane loading
During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift
Is momentarily decreased.
Remains the same.
Is momentarily increased.
Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time
Divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.
Divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.
Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the
Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which perpendicu
While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
Remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
Vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately.
Vary depending upon the resultant lift vector
Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all
Upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.
Forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.
Forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.
What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Ma
Gain in altitude over a given distance.
Range and maximum distance glide.
Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.
The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:
High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.
Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.
In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become
Twice as great.
Half as great.
Four times greater.
As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airpla
Decreases because of lower parasite drag.
Increases because of increased induced drag.
Increases because of increased parasite drag.
If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor w
Increase as well as the stall speed.
Decrease and the stall speed will increase.
Remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.
The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of
Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.
Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.
Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight?
These forces are equal.
Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the
Chord line.
Flightpath.
Longitudinal axis.
An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.
Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.
Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift
produced at the higher speed will be
The same as at the lower speed.
Two times greater than at the lower speed.
Four times greater than at the lower speed.
20 By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's
Lift, airspeed, and drag.
Lift, airspeed, and CG.
Lift and airspeed, but not drag
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the
Wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.
Wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.
Center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.
Stall speed is affected by
Weight, load factor, and power.
Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?
A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude tu
Is constant and the stall speed increases.
Varies with the rate of turn.
Is constant and the stall speed decreases.
If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to
Minimum control speed.
Design-maneuvering speed.
Maximum structural cruising speed.
A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiraling slipstr
Right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
Left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift
An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed, therefore, an increase in weight will require an
The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is
known as
Load factor and directly affects stall speed.
Aspect load and directly affects stall speed.
Load factor and has no relation with stall speed.
(Refer to figure 1) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by th
Green arc.
Yellow arc.
White arc.
If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the tota
3,000 pounds.
4,000 pounds.
12,000 pounds.
If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed
Positive dynamic stability.
Positive static stability.
Neutral dynamic stability.
Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its
Rudder.
Elevator.
Ailerons.
Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by
Bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
Pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and releas
Neutral longitudinal static stability.
Positive longitudinal static stability.
Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to
Increase.
Decrease.
Not vary.
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and fo
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as p
Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its
Center of gravity moves forward.
Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.
Center of gravity moves aft.
Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensa
Loss of the vertical component of lift.
Loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.
Rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.
If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The an
And angle of bank must be decreased.
Must be increased or angle of bank decreased.
Must be decreased or angle of bank increased.
Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
Power, pitch, bank, and trim.
Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.
Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airbor
Maintaining a safe airspeed.
Landing directly into the wind.
Turning back to the takeoff field.
To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should
Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.
Increase the bank and increase airspeed.
Increase the bank and decrease airspeed.
(Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall
10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.
25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configura
10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall, than in a wings-level stall with flaps up.
An airplane leaving ground effect will
Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to
Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
Provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.
Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.
The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind?
Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation.
Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation.
Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation.
The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease
The drag.
Landing speed.
The lift of the wing.
Propeller efficiency is the
Ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
Ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.
In order to achieve single engine climb performance with an engine failed in most twin prop aircraft, it is
Apply full power to the live engine (firewall)
Minimize drag (flaps, gear, feather prop)
Secure the failed engine
If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
increase,and induced drag will decrease.
decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
increase, and induced drag will increase
In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:
Bank away from the live engine up to 5º
Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator
Bank into the live engine slightly
When dealing with aerodynamics, VMC refers to:
Visual Meteorological Conditions
Minimum airspeed at which directional control can be maintained with the critical engine inoperative
Maximum airspeed at which an engine can be operated with one engine
On an aircraft without counter-rotating props, the left engine is considered to be the critical one to fail be
Zero sideslip condition, engine windmilling and aft legal C of G.
P-factor, Accelerated slipstream, Spiraling slipstream and Torque
No power available Vs power required, yaw towards the left engine and sideslip
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of
A heat exchange.
The movement of air.
A pressure differentia.
What causes wind?
The Earth’s rotation.
Air mass modification.
Pressure differences.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the
Right by Coriolis force.
Right by surface friction.
Left by Coriolis force.
Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.
Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?
Coriolis force.
Surface friction.
Pressure gradient force.
Which would increase the stability of an air mass?
Warning from below.
Cooling from below.
Decrease in water vapor.
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
Constant height above the Earth.
Abrupt change in the temperature lapse rate.
Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
A common location of clear air turbulence is
In an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.
Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.
South of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.
The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by
Dust or haze at flight level.
Long streaks of cirrus clouds.
A constant outside air temperature.
During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the
North and speed decreases.
South and speed increases.
North and speed increases.
Which type of jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?
A straight jet stream associated with a low-pressure trough.
A curving jet stream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.
A jet stream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.
Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?
Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.
Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.
Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.
The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
An anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.
A cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.
An anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.
Which is the true with a respect to a high- or low-pressure system?
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
Which is the true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.
Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dew point temperature spread? The temperature sp
Decreases as the relative humidity decreases.
Decreases as the relative humidity increases.
Increases as the relative humidity increases.
Moisture is added to a parcel of air by
Sublimation and condensation.
Evaporation and condensation.
Evaporation and sublimation.
Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below.
Cooling from below.
Decrease in water vapor.
What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend
The method by which the air is lifted.
The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.
When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is
forecast, one can expect what type of weather?
Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds.
Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.
Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds w
Cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.
Cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.
Stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures?
Fog and low stratus clouds.
Continuous heavy precipitation.
Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and
Unstable, dry air.
Stable, moist air.
Unstable, moist air.
Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Cirrus clouds.
Nimbostratus clouds.
Towering cumulus clouds.
Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good v
Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.
Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.
Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism
What are the characteristics of stable air?
Good visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.
Poor visibility, steady precipitation, stratus clouds.
Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, cumulus clouds.
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Stratiform clouds.
Fair weather cumulus clouds.
Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.
When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?
Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.
Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels.
Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility.
Which is characteristic of stable air?
Cumuliform clouds.
Excellent visibility.
Restricted visibility.
Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?
Cumuliform clouds.
Showery precipitation.
Continuous precipitation.
Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
Which is true regarding a cold from occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front
Is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
Is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
Has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.
The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of
Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.
Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.
Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.
One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
a. Below rotor clouds.
b. Above rotor clouds.
c. Below lenticular clouds.
Virga is best described as
a. Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground.
b. Wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the groun
c. Turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.
The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are genera
a. Slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.
b. Squall lines.
Fast-moving occluded fronts.
If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be
avoided by a distance of at least
20 miles.
10 miles.
5 miles.
What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorm?
Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.
Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.
Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
The start of rain.
The appearance of an anvil top.
Growth rate of clouds is maximum.
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of thunderstorm?
Roll cloud.
Continuous updraft.
Beginning of rain at the surface.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
Mature.
Developing.
Dissipating.
What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly b
20 miles.
30 miles.
40 miles.
During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2 “ thick on the
leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds al 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your
destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the
destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees
Celsius. You decide to:
Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.
Approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect
Fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the “wind chill” effect and break up the ice.
Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause.
The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.
The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.
Drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.
A characteristic of the stratosphere is
An overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.
A relatively even base altitude of approximately 35.000 feet.
Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.
Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.
A jet stream is defined as wind of
30 knots or greater.
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather is
Variation of solar energy received by the Earth’s regions.
Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.
Movement of the air masses.
If the air temperature is +8ºC at an elevation of 1.350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse
rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
3.350 feet MSL.
5.350 feet MSL.
9.350 feet MSL.
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
The movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement f warm air under cold air.
Ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.
What feature is associated with temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air.
An unstable layer of air.
Air mass thunderstorms.
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when
the relative humidity is high?
Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, r low clouds.
Light wind shear and poor visibility due t haze and light rain.
Turbulence air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.
Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right
until parallel to the isobars?
Centrifugal.
Pressure gradient.
Coriolis.
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
Water vapor condenses.
Water vapor is present.
The temperature and dew point are equal.
To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
The temperature at which dew will always form.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on
Relative humidity.
Air temperature.
Stability of air.
What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?
Advective action.
Upward currents.
Cyclonic movement.
The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon
the
Source of lift
Stability of air being lifted
Temperature of the air being lifted
Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?
Low-level winds.
Ambient lapse rate.
Atmospheric pressure.
What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
The method by which the air is lifted.
The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?
First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
Vertical clouds with increasing height.
Stratified clouds with little vertical development.
What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?
Layered clouds with little vertical development.
Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
Clouds with extensive vertical development.
Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-
type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?
Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.
Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.
Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.
The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a
Cloud with extensive vertical development.
Rain cloud.
Dark massive, towering cloud.
What are the four families of clouds
Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.
High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.
A high cloud is composed mostly of
Ozone.
Condensation nuclei.
Ice crystals.
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
Low clouds.
High clouds.
Clouds with extensive vertical development.
Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Towering cumulus.
Cumulonimbus.
Altocumulus castellanus.
Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate
An inversion.
Unstable air.
Turbulence.
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of.
A jet stream.
Very strong turbulence.
Heavy icing conditions.
Ice pellets encountred during flight normally are evidence that
A warm front has passed.
A warmfront is about to pass.
there are thunderstroms in the area
An air mass is a body of air that
Has similar cloud formations associated with it.
Creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth’s surface.
Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
A wind change.
An abrupt decrease in pressure.
Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
Constant airspeed (VA).
Level flight attitude.
Constant altitude and constant airspeed.
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design
maneuvering speed because the
Maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
Amount of excess load than can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
Airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.
A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
should report it as
Light turbulence.
Moderate turbulence.
Light chop.
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.
A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.
Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
The start of rain at the surface.
Growth rate of clouds is maximum.
Strong turbulence in the cloud.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
Cumulus.
Dissipating.
Mature.
What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the
mature stage?
The anvil top has completed its development.
Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.
A gust front forms.
Where do squall lines most often develop?
In an occluded front.
In a cold air mass.
Ahead of a cold front.
Which thunderstorm generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive.
Warm front.
Squall line.
Air mass.
What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?
Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.
Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
Lightning.
Heavy rain showers.
Supercooled raindrops.
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm
activity?
Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.
Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight
attitude.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are
failing.
When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is
colder than freezing.
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.
Frost decreases control effectiveness.
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation?
Cumulonimbus clouds.
High humidity and freezing temperature.
Freezing rain.
Where does wind shear occur?
Exclusively in thunderstorms.
Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature
inversion.
It may be associated with either a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.
Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility,
weather, and obstructions to vision in a route formal?
Area Forecast.
Terminal Forecast.
Transcribed Weather Broadcast.
The Surface Analysis Chart depicts
Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision
at the time of chart transmission.
Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions at
the valid time of the chart.
Actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage, temperature, dew point, and
wind at the time shown on the chart.
Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?
Surface Weather Map.
Radar Summary Chart.
Weather Depiction Chart.
When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the
Top of the lowest layer.
Base of the lowest layer.
Base of the highest layer.
Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future?
Freezing Level Chart.
12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart.
What is the upper limit of the low level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
30.000 feet.
24.000 feet.
18.000 feet.
The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be
obtained from the
AFSS.
ATIS broadcast.
Notices to Airman Publications.
What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI? SPECI KBOI 09185AZ 32005KT
1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK RAB12
Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky, rain began at 1912z.
Rain and mist obstructing visibility, rain began at 1812Z.
Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.
To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should
refer to
Pilot reports.
Area Forecast.
Prognostic charts.
A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
should report it as
Light chop.
Light turbulence.
Moderate turbulence.
When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that
should be reported as
Light.
Severe.
Moderate.
Turbulence that is encountered above 15.000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness,
including thunderstorms, should be reported as
Severe turbulence.
Clear air turbulence.
Convective turbulence.
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
True directions and MPH.
True directions and Knots.
Magnetic direction and knots.
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous
To all aircraft.
Particularly to heavy aircraft.
Particularly to light airplanes.
Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMETs (WST)?
They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, and large hail
stone activity.
They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone activity. The forecas
is valid for 1 hour only.
They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant
thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal 3/4 inch in diameter.
What type of in flight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the
possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and
extensive mountain obscurement?
Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs.
Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) AND SIGMETs.
AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
What single reference contains information regarding volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to
occur?
In-flight Weather Advisories.
Terminal Area Forecast (TAF).
The Hazardous In flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over service over
selected VORs that provides
SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance.
Continuous broadcast of in flight weather advisories.
SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs and AIRMETs at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour.
When are severe weather watch bulletins (AWW) issued?
Every 12 hours as required.
Unscheduled and issued as required.
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous
Particularly to light aircraft.
To all aircraft.
Only to light aircraft operations.
Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?
Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
Moderate icing.
Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.
The surface Analysis Chart depicts
Actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.
Frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision
at the time of chart transmission.
Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to
vision at the valid time of the chart.
What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other
weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
Types of precipitation.
Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with moutain wave?
Rotor Cloud
Standing Lenticular
Low Stratus
At which location does Coriolis force have the laest effect on wind direction
At the poles
Middle latitudes (30°-60°)
At the Equator.
El codigo SKC se utiliza en el METAR cuando?
La Visibilidad es menos a 10 KM. Y hay nubosidad por debajo de 5000 FT.
La visibilidad horizontal es mayor a 10 KM. Y el cielo esta despejado.
La visbilidad horizontal es menor de 10 KM. Y el viento esta despejado.
En un mapa meteorológico y en una carta de vuelo, un frente oculido se representa por?
Una linea de color púrpura, triángulos y semicirculos colocados sobre éste.
Una linea azul y triángulos alternos colocados a lo largo de éste.
Una línea de color rojo y semicirculos colocados a lo largo de éste.
En el tropico el mayor peligro para una aeronave en vuelo cerca o dentro de una CB es?
Los rayos y el granizo.
La turbulencia.
La mala visibilidad.
What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL
180?
Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be
approximated.
Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.
(Refer to Figure 4) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?
FL390.
FL300 sloping to FL 400 feet MSL.
FL340.
Which meteorological conditions are depicted by prognostic chart?
Conditions existing at the time of the observation.
Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.
Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.
(Refer to figure 5, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending
into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a
Tropical storm.
Hurricane.
Tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?
Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.
Levels of widespread cloud coverage.
Winds and temperatures aloft.
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high
level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

Existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
Which presently exist exist from the 1.000-milibar through the 700-milibar level.
Forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
(Refer to figure 6.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level
Significant Weather Prog Chart?
Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more
of the area.
Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain showers) covering half or more of the area.
Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.
(Refer to figure 5, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z
indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect
Moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.
Moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.
No turbulence is indicated.
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?
Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000 feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet
MSL.
Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.
Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?
Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.
Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.
Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than 1/8
coverage.
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?
Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.
Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.
Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.
(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?
The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.
The height of the existing layer of CAT.
The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?
1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.
Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.
2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
A ceiling is defined as the height of the
Highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
Lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.
Lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT
290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SNBLSNFG VV0008 00/M03 A2991RMK RERAE42SNB42
Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.
5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the
planned ETA?
Area Forecast.
Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is
3 knots or less.
6 knots or less.
9 knots or less.
When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as
6PSM.
P6SM.
6SMP.
What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG
OVC005=
Calm.
Unknown.
Not recorded.
From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at
your destination at your estimated time of arrival?
Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain
weather conditions?
The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when
flying between the echoes.
When is the wind-group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the
Winds and Temperature ALOFT Forecast (FD)? When the wind
Is less 5 knots.
Is less 10 knots.
At the altitude is within 1.500 feet of the station elevation.
When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?
Unscheduled and issued as required.
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous.
particularly to light aircraft.
to all aircraft.
only to light aircraft operations.
A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing.
What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the
time of departure?
Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.
The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs
Cual es la cantidad de octas de nubes cuando se reporta BKN?
De 3 a 5.
De 5 a 7.
De 1 a 2.
Una expresión “Aproximación Visual”:
La puede solicitar el piloto o ser iniciada por el controlador
La ordena el controlador
Cancelo plan instrumentos, continuo plan visual
Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden:
Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones
Vía, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones
Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Vía
La respuesta radar de un respondedor en MODO 3/A código 2000 es:
Vuelo militar en misión especial
Vuelo VFR en Colombia
Solicito asignación de código
Una aeronave llegando a Cali con FL240 y estima el VOR de CLO a las 22:20, recibe la siguente
autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de CLO, descienda y mantenga 15,000 FT, hora prevista de
aproximación 22:35", al tener una falla de comunicación….
Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado
la autorización.
Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:35 desde 15000 FT siempre y cuando haya
colacionado la autorización.
Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de CLO a las 22:20 desde FL240 siempre y cuando haya colacionado
la autorización.
En la fraseología normalizada, en la autorización a la espera en un fijo no debe faltar:
tiempo de alejamiento y EAT
Tiempo de alejamiento y ETA
Nombre de radioayuda y EAT
Si estamos volando en espacio aéreo Clase A, esperamos:
Autorizaciones para IFR
Autorizaciones IFR e información VFR
Información de aeronaves en VFR
En el contenido de una autorización IFR debemos colacionar:
Solo los SID´s, niveles y restricciones
Con decir RECIBIDO es suficiente
Toda la autorización
Bajo que situación un piloto puede cambiar su plan de vuelo IFR a VFR
Cuando lo solicite el controlador
Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase A
Si esta volando en espacio aéreo Clase D
De una aeronave secuestrada con flaps abajo después de aterrizar significa:
Déjenme solo, no intervengan
La situación esta desesperada
Pueden subir, situación controlada
Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que:
El piloto asume la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la hace ATS
El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser vuelo VFR
El piloto es responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR
what designed airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the tower at that airport is
not in operation?
Class D, which then becomes Class C.
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
Class B.
En el espacio aéreo CTR se:
Organiza el tránsito en el círculo de aeródromo
Establecen secuencias de aproximación por instrumentos
Provee separación de aeronaves en ruta
La máxima velocidad de una aeronave categoría A en un circulo de espera a 12.000 es:(OACI)
170 Kts
230 kts
240 kts
En una aproximación IFR, se llama FAF al punto donde una aeronave:
Inicia la aproximación intermedia
Esta alineada con la pista para aterrizar
Efectúa la espera en fijo primario
Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo:
NO controlado
Controlado como todo IFR
Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:
Sígame
Prosiga
Aterrice aquí
Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia del que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de
(minutos):
Una aeronave aproximando a Bogota con 170000 FT y estimando el VOR de BOG a las 09:32 UTC,
recibe la siguente autorización: "Autorizado al VOR de BOG, descienda y mantenga 13000 FT, hora
prevista de aproximación 09:55", luego sufre falla de comunicación
Inciar el descenso sobre el VOR de BOG a las 09:55 desde 13000 FT siempre y cuando haya
colacionado la autorización y esté IMC.
Iniciar descenso y aproximación tan pronto como se le presente la falla.
Aterrizar en el aeródromo adecuado mas cercano si esta en condiciones VMC.
Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration as:
Maximum certificated landing mass
Minimum certificated landing mass
Maximum certificated takeoff mass
La prioridad máxima de aterrizaje para aeronaves es?
Aeronaves VIP1.
Aeronaves ambulancia.
Aeronaves en emergencia.
What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlyning Class B airspace?
156 Knots.
200 Knots.
230 Knots.
Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within:
5° of the alignment of the runway center line
For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF LIGHT portion of an IFR plane should list VOR
navigational aids which are no more than
40 miles apart
70 miles apart
80 miles apart
The initial approach segments, commences at… and ends at…
IF and FAF
IAF and IF
IF and OM
Flight procedures for racetrack and reversal procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of:
30° Bank angle
25° Bank angle, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of 3°/second, wichever is less.
45° bank angle
While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15° doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the
station being used is
3 minutes
6 minutes
12 minutes
The optimum Glide Path angle of an ILS is:
4.0°
3.0°
1.5°
The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts) above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI:
Each required flight crewmembers is required to keep his or her shoulders harness fastened
during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft
while the crewmembers are at their station unless he or she is unable to perform requires duties
during takeoff and landing unless he or she is unable to perform required duties
En caso de una bomba abordo que se requiera de una acción inmediata se deberá utilizar el código:
Bravo Romeo
Bravo Wiskey
Bravo Tango
In class A airspace, the following flights are permitted:
VFR only
IFR only
Special VFR only
The difference between MDA and DA is:
MDA is for Precision approach and DA is for non Precision approach
MDA is Minimum departure altitude and DA is decision altitude
MDA is for non precision approach and DA is for precision approach
For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, ATC classifies aircraft as:
Heavy, large and small
A, B, C,D
Number of engines
The MINIMUM altitude to intercept the glide slope path on a precision approach is:
Minimum altitude leaving VOR in final approach
Glide Slope intercept altitude
DA value for this procedure
The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is:
PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route altitude and the other do not
PUBLISHED is for IFR flights only and UNPUBLISHED is for VFR flights only
PUBLISHED is authorized route and UNPUBLISHED is non authorized route
EXPECTED APPROACH TIME means the time:
The flight is estimating arrive at the primary navigation aid
The flight is clear for approach
In case of communication failure, it is the time at which an approach must begin.
RADAR CONTACT is defined as:
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen on a radar display.
The situation which exists when the radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a
radar display.
None of the above
Clearance limit is:
The point at which as aircraft is expected to reduce airspeed
The point until the aircraft is expected to maintain visual reference and keeps clear of clouds
The point at which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
THRESHOLD is defined as:
The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing
The beginning of that portion of the runway used for warm-up.
The beginning of that portion of the takeoff runway
If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the
groundspeed is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travle 450 NN?
112 kg
265 pounds
284 pounds
En una aproximación ADF la altura mínima de descenso es de:
500 pies
450 pies
350 pies
Los pilotos de transporte de línea y copilotos con licencia comercial de aviones deben realizar una
serie de proeficiencias y repasos al año para cumplir con los requisitos de la UAEAC, en cuanto a
simuladores de vuelo se refiere, el número de estos es de:
Dos veces al año
Tres veces al año
Cada 2 años
Como se interpreta si las luces PAPI se observan desde su avion totalmente blancas:
Voy en trayectoria .
Voy ligeramente alto.
Voy muy alto.
La UTA es un espacio aéreo:
Categoria A, con vuelos IFR y VMC.
Categoria A restringido a instrumentos.
Categoria B únicamente.
Cúal es la cantidad máxima de horas anuales que un piloto con licencia PCA, que vuela para una
empresa de servicio aereo regular y una aeronave de mas de 5700 KGS puede volar?
500 Horas
700 Horas
900 Horas
Se define como área de maniobras en un aeródromo a:
La utilizada o definida como área de vuelo para operación de aeronaves sujeta a restricciones o
limitaciones.
Todo tipo de aérea de movimiento en la cual se desplace una aeronave.
Parte del aeródromo que se utiliza para despegues, aterrizajes y rodaje de aeronaves excluyendo las
plataformas.
Se define como aerovía:
El área controlada por la torre de control
El área comprendida entre dos aeropuertos conformada por 2 radio ayudas y con un ancho de 12
Millas náuticas.
El área de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y equipada con ayudas para la navegación.
Se considera combustible básico para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para volar del aeropuerto de origen a destino.
El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más el alterno.
El suficiente para volar de origen a destino más extra.
Se considera combustible de reserva para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para volar y aterrizar en el aeropuerto alterno más lejano incluido en el plan de vuelo.
El suficiente para sostener por 30 minutos.
El suficiente para sostener por 45 minutos.
Se considera combustible mínimo para el despacho de una aeronave:
El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino.
El suficiente para llegar de origen a destino mas reserva.
La suma de combustible básico + reserva + contingencia(si aplica) + sostenimiento.
El RAC comprende:
9 partes
11 partes
24 partes
El RAC se define como:
Reglamento del aire de Colombia.
Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia
Reglamento de Aviones Colombia
La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a:
Aeródromos e instalaciones
Personal Aeronáutico
Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves
La parte Séptima del RAC corresponde a:
Personal Aeronáutico
Normas de Aeronavegabilidad y Operación de Aeronaves
Régimen Sancionatorio
Para poder servir como copiloto de una empresa de transporte aéreo regular, este debe de haber
cumplido con un chequeo de rutas dentro de un período de:
12 meses
18 meses
24 meses
La palabra Notam se define como:
Notice to the Aircraft.
Notice to the Airman
Notice to the Air maintenance operator
El Límite de horas mensuales para un tripulante de aeronaves en Colombia según el RAC es de:
80 horas
90 horas
85 horas
Una calle de rodaje de baja velocidad forma ángulo de:
120° con respecto el eje longitudinal de la pista.
90° con respecto al eje longitudinal de la pista.
90° con respecto a la torre de control.
El control de horas mensuales y anuales de un tripulante de vuelo es responsabilidad de:
El operador.
El tripulante
La Aeronáutica Civil
El tiempo máximo de servicio de un tripulante de cabina de mando para tripulación sencilla de
aeronaves de transporte aéreo regular es de:
12 horas
12:30 horas
14 horas
Espacio aéreo controlado visual por TWR:
ATZ
CTR
TMA
El RAC permite libre acceso a la cabina de mando de una aeronave comercial a:
Un controlador de tráfico aéreo
Un inspector de la UAEAC
Un inspector de la Fuerza Aérea Colombiana
La responsabilidad Final en la operación de una aeronave depende de:
La UAEAC
El piloto al mando
La empresa explotadora
El RAC exige que por encima de ___________ se debe llevar suficiente oxígeno para suministro de
todos los miembros de la tripulación en caso de una despresurización.
11.000 pies
10.000 pies
12.000 pies
De acuerdo al RAC, para despachar una aeronave cuando el aeropuerto de origen esta por debajo de
los mínimos de aterrizaje se requiere tener:
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 30 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con
un motor inoperativo.
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 45 minutos de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con
un motor inoperativo.
Un aeropuerto alterno de despegue ubicado a 1 hora de vuelo a velocidad normal de crucero con un
motor inoperativo.
La separación vertical mínima entre dos aeronaves operando en espacio aéreo RVSM es de:
500 pies
1.000 pies
2.000 pies
Se define en una aproximación de precisión como DH (Decision Height) a:
La altura mínima en la cual una aeronave debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada en caso de no tener
contacto visual.
La altura mínima a la que puede descender una aeronave con el piloto automático enganchado.
Un punto geográfico exacto, que coincide con una altura especifica en la cual una aeronave de no
tener contacto visual debe iniciar una aproximación frustrada.
De acuerdo al RAC, se pierde autonomía para actuar como piloto al mando o copiloto de una aeronave
si en los_____ días precedentes no se han efectuado _____ despegues y aterrizajes.
60 y 3
90 y 3
60 y 2
Durante una aproximación por referencia visual, se espera que:
El control ceda su responsabilidad al piloto por ser un vuelo VFR
El piloto sea responsable de la separación con otros tránsitos IFR y VFR
El piloto asuma la navegación pero la separación VFR/IFR la efectué el ATS.
Una aeronave vuela dentro de un FIR con:
Altitudes
Alturas
Niveles de vuelo
En una aproximación IFR, se denomina FAF (Final Approach Fix) al punto donde una aeronave:
Inicia la aproximación intermedia
Inicia la maniobra de aproximación frustrada
Se encuentra alineada con la pista para aterrizar
Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será un vuelo:
NO controlado
Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC
La legislación Aérea Colombiana se encuentra publicada en:
Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos
Código de comercio
AIP de Colombia
Si una aeronave militar intercepta una aeronave civil en vuelo y le hace la siguiente señal: Baja tren de
aterrizaje y mantiene luces de aterrizaje encendidos, esto significa:
sígame
Aterrice aquí
Usted esta en peligro. Sígame
Un piloto esta en la obligación de notificar a los servicios ATS respecto a la hora estimada a un punto
de notificación, cuando exista una diferencia de la que aparece en el plan de vuelo actualizado de:
1 minuto
2 minutos
3 minutos
La expresión aeronave OSCAR PAPA significa una aeronave en vuelo de:
Operación VIP presidencial
Ambulancia
Orden público
De acuerdo al RAC, el piloto al mando de una aeronave podrá desviarse de una autorización emitida
por el ATC sí:
Esta pone en riesgo la seguridad del vuelo.
Una situación de emergencia es declarada
a y b son correctas
Cuando una aeronave se encuentre en una situación de emergencia que ponga en peligro la seguridad
de las personas o de las aeronaves y se requiera de tomar medidas que infrinjan los reglamentos o
procedimientos locales, el piloto al mando deberá pasar un informe escrito dentro de los siguientes:
5 días
8 días
10 días
Para recobro de autonomía como Piloto Comercial de aviones después de un receso de 90 días, el
tripulante deberá efectuar_____ despegues y aterrizajes ante un instructor calificado, en el equipo que
desea recobrar autonomía.
El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en Colombia es principal función de:

El ministerio de transporte
La UAEAC
La secretaría de transporte Aéreo de Colombia
Para actuar como tripulante efectivo de una aeronave en Colombia, se deberá tener en posesión
siempre:
Licencia Expedida por la Aeronáutica Civil de Colombia y Certificado Medico
Certificado de Carencia de Estupefacientes y Certificado de antecedentes disciplinarios
a y b son correctas
Cuando una aeronave se aproxime de frente con otra, las dos variaran su rumbo para evitar una
colisión de acuerdo a los siguientes parámetros:
Ambas aeronaves viraran a la derecha
Ambas aeronaves viraran a la izquierda
La aeronave de mayor envergadura iniciara un ascenso y por consecuente la otra un descenso.
De acuerdo a lo establecido en el RAC, excepto cuando sea necesario para el despegue o aterrizaje
de una aeronave o cuando lo autorice la autoridad competente, no se efectuaran vuelos IFR a un nivel
inferior a la altitud mínima establecida de:
2.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno montañoso.
1.000 pies por encima del obstáculo mas alto en un radio de 5 millas en terreno no montañoso.
a y b son correctos
Las condiciones mínimas de alcance visual en Colombia por encima de 10,000 pies serán de
8 km 5 millas
5 km 3 millas
8 millas 5 kms
Cada vez que el piloto al mando de una aeronave ejerza la autoridad de emergencia, deberá reportar a
la UAEAC en los siguientes:
5 días hábiles
8 días hábiles
10 días hábiles
La responsabilidad de reportar irregularidades mecánicas que ocurran durante el tiempo de vuelo es
de:
El piloto al mando
El técnico de mantenimiento
El explotador de la aeronave
La responsabilidad de que se efectúe un prevuelo antes de iniciar un vuelo en una aeronave es de:
El piloto al mando
El copiloto
El técnico de mantenimiento
El reglamento del aire es parte de:
El Manual de Operaciones de Vuelo de un operador
El Reglamento Aeronáutico de Colombia
El Manual de Reglamentos Aeronáuticos
Se define como hora prevista de aproximación:
Hora en la que el ATC prevé que una aeronave que llega después de experimentar una demora,
abandone el fijo de espera para completar su aproximación, a fin de aterrizar
La hora en la cual se estima que una aeronave aterrice en su aeropuerto de destino
Ninguna de las anteriores
La altura mínima de decisión para una aproximación ILS categoría I es igual:
100 pies
200 pies
250 pies
Se considera como aproximación de precisión:
ILS
VOR DME
Contacto radar
Si volamos en condiciones VMC queremos decir que:
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y volando IMC
Estamos en condiciones de vuelo visual y nuestro plan de vuelo puede ser IFR
Todas las respuestas anteriores son ciertas
If on an IFR flight plan, you are advised to be in radar contact, you must:
Obey all instructions from ATC regardless
Obey all instructions from ATC only while in cloud
Follow all possible instructions and advise ATC when unable to comply.
When flying a commercial route you are familiar with and you are in congested airspace, you may
instead of reading back all clearances and instructions repetitively simply:
Say “Roger” to ATC without repeating your call sign or flight number again, once you know ATC
recognizes your voice
Simply click your mike when answering obvious things to ATC. So as to not congest the frequency
Read back all clearances including your call sign and or flight # even if this is going to congest the
frequency even more.
You must advice ATC if you cannot climb or descent to your assigned altitude if you cannot maintain at
least:
No restriction if cleared at pilot discretion
500 ft on climb and 1.500 ft on descent
500 FPM
An IFR clearance must include the following:
Dep. Airport, aircraft ID. Flight level and route
Only the aircraft ID and transponder code if advised as filed on a passenger carrying
Aircraft ID, Clearance limit, Dep. Procedure, route and transponder code
You are expected to read back clearances containing altitude assignments, radar vectors or any
instructions requiring verification:
True
False
As well as those containing wind direction and intensity
If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should:
Leave the hold at the EFC time
Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible
Stay on the hold until your EAT
You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2
way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct
route to fly you should:
Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished
Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery
before takeoff.
As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG
During preflight of a transport category aircraft that undergoes a progressive maintenance program the
ELT should:
Tested and when done, ensure the switch is selected to ARMED
Tested by selecting 243 mhz on the radio and listening for a tone when the switch is selected to ON
Selected to ARMED and if absolutely necessary to test, it should only be done by selecting it to ON for
no more than 3 seconds during ONLY the first 5 minutes of every hour
Señalar lo que es cierto
El MMEL (Master MEL) lo prepara el explotador
El MEL es más restrictivo que el MMEL (Master MEL)
El MEL es preparado por el explotador del avión
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.
What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?
Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of
assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or
VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route.
There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
At the changeover points.
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled
airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has
VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only VOR/Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared, no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure).
The pilot should
Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action
is appropriate?
Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach
fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure.
Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete
the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the
approach.
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at
a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio
communications failure?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach
upon arrival.
Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio
communications failure?
Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned
altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least
1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of
clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR
conditions the pilot should continue
By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
The flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
The flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR
conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
VFR and land as soon as practicable.
VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute
the published approach procedure.
Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must
be reported to ATC.
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb
to the assigned altitude?
Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000
foot level.
Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per
minute the last 1,000 feet.
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 fee
below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a
void time indicates that
ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off
by the void time.
ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar
environment.)
Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE
DALLAS-LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED--MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND--SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO
FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE--DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT
NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
Departure control frequency.
Destination airport and route.
Requested enroute altitude.
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given.
Any time an emergency occurs.
When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.
Contact and visual approaches.
DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the
published approach procedure.
It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000
The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including
6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance.
What action must be taken?
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment
14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Maximum landing gear operating speed.
Maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.
14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as
Maximum landing gear extended speed.
Never-exceed speed.
Maximum nose wheel extend speed.
14 CFR part 1 defines VY as
Speed for best rate of descent.
Speed for best angle of climb.
Speed for best rate of climb.
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the
airplane is controllable?
VS.
VS1.
VSO.
Define Calibrated Air Speed?
Normal operating speed.
Is the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error
Speed corrected by Warm climate.
14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
Design flap speed.
Flap operating speed.
Maximum flap extended speed.
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified
configuration?
VS.
VS1.
VSO.
Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator?
The never-exceed speed.
The power-off stall speed.
The maneuvering speed.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
The current altimeter setting.
29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
The field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn
coordinator
Is always electric, the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.
Indicates bank angle only, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
Indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and
coordination.
What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other
gyroscopic instruments?
It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.
It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.
It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.
A Standard rate turn is :
A turn at a rate of 3% min at 100 Kts
(TAS in Kts / 3º) + 5
A turn at a rate of 3º / sec
Magnetic dip is responsible for:
Northerly turning errors only in the northern hemisphere counteracted by magnetic dip
Nothing on a commercial transport category Aircraft equipped with EFIS
Errors during acceleration or turns on only magnetic compasses
Pitot static instruments are connected as follows on a high Performance aircraft:
Airspeed = pitot only, Altimeter = static only
Airspeed = pitot + static, Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = pitot + alternate Static
Airspeed = pitot + static ,Altimeter = static only, Vertical speed = static only
At higher elevation airports the indicated airspeed:
Is the same as the TAS
Is higher and so is the resultant ground speed
Remains the same but the ground speed is faster than at lower altitude airports
TAS is the actual speed your airplane moves through undisturbed air. As density altitude increases
your TAS:
Should remain the same regardless
Should increase about 2 Kts / 1.000 Ft increment
Should increase for a given TAS corrected for instrument and installation error
Pressure altitude is:
Displayed when the altimeter setting is corrected for temperature at sea level
Displayed when the altimeter setting is set on the QNH window
Displayed when 29.92 is set on the altimeter regardless of outside temp. + pressure
Density altitude is used for:
Only for flying altitudes below 18.000 Ft.
Calculating TAS with 29.92 set on the Alt.
Performance calculations with OAT charts
While on the ground with the correct altimeter setting your altimeter should read:
Within 100 Ft. for CAT I ILS approved airplanes
Within 20 Ft. of the other altimeter
Within 75 Ft. of the actual field elevation.
If on a takeoff roll below 80 Kts. one of the airspeed indicators is under reading by exactly 30 Kts., you
should:
Continue the take off and report to Maintenance at next stop as you still have 1 reliable ASI available
Continue the takeoff and consult the MEL before writing out a Maintenance report
Reject the take off, return to the gate and report to Maintenance assuming all the delay consequences
Compass correction cards
a. Are not required on EFIS equipped aircraft
b. Are not required on transport category aircraft
c. Must be current and installed on all certified aircraft
Pitch instruments are:
Attitude, vertical speed and altimeter
Altimeter, airspeed and VSI
Attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed and VSI
When performing a VOR accuracy check at a VOR test point on an airfield, the VOR can be considered
serviceable if it is within _______ of the published radial:
2º to either side
No deviations are allowed for IFR
4º to either side
If a VOR check is desired and no VOT is available, the check:
Must be made by maintenance personnel with special equipment
Is not necessary for aircraft certified for CAT II ILS approaches
Can be made between 2 VOR´S within the aircraft and the error must not exceed 4º
What information does a Mach meter present?
The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?
Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
Air temperature warmer than standard.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92"
Hg?
In warmer than standard air temperature.
In colder than standard air temperature.
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
True altitude at field elevation.
Pressure al titude at field elevation.
Pressure altitude at sea level.
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.
Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated
altitude with local temperature.
Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?
Density.
Pressure.
Standard.
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would
be approximately
7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
The field elevation.
29.92" Hg.
The current altimeter setting.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated
altitude, the true airspeed will
Decrease and true altitude will increase.
Increase and true altitude will decrease.
Increase and true altitude will increase.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Pressure altitude at sea level.
True altitude at field elevation.
Pressure altitude at field elevation.
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate
height above
Sea level.
The standard datum plane.
Ground level.
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude
change and by what value?
Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg
during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the
approximate indication upon landing?
715 feet.
1,300 feet.
Sea level.
En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly,
what will it indicate after landing?
100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210?
Indicated.
Pressure.
Calibrated.
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher
on a direct flight off airways?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92"
Hg.
Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what
pressure altitude are you flying?
24,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
26,000 feet.
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your
altimeter
On 29.92" Hg.
On the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
To the airport elevation.
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
The cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
Better vertical separation of aircraft.
More accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true
altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude
should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication,
determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude
should correspond to the change in setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual
elevation for acceptable accuracy.
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
Ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.
Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
Deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual
references, the attitude indicator
Should immediately show straight-and-level flight.
Will show a slight skid and climb to the right.
May show a slight climb and turn.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
Full bar width on the attitude indicator.
Half bar width on the attitude indicator.
Two bar width on the attitude indicator.
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to
straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?
A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraf
rolls out of a
180° turn.
270° turn.
360° turn.
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
Climb.
Descent.
Right turn.
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
Lefft turn.
Climb.
Descent.
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
Vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full
panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.
Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
Airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn - and - slip indicator to determine if the
Needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon
Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid
Ball will move freely from one end of the tube of other when the aircraft is rocked.
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Angle of bank and rate of turn.
Angle of bank.
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
Quality of the turn.
Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?
Attitude indicator
Heading indicator or magnetic compass.
Ball of the turn coordinator.
What force causes an airplane to turn?
Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component.
Horizontal lift component.
The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon
The horizontal lift component.
The vertical lift component.
Centrifugal force.
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
Increase the angle of attack.
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal
force, and load factor?
Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force is grater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated
turn?
Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
Decrease the angle of bank
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack
Decrease the angle of attack
During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered primary for bank?
Heading indicator.
Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.
Attitude indicator.
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
4 minutes.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
30 seconds
1 minute
1 minute 3 seconds
During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and
radius of turn?
Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a
heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading
of 090° to a heading of 300°?
30 seconds.
40 seconds.
50 seconds.
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?
1 minute.
1 minute 20 seconds.
1 minute 30 seconds.
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
Decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.
Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
Indicate the angle of bank.
Remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
Increase as angle of bank increases.
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “2” would result in a
coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
3
1
2
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?
2
1
3
(Refer to Figure 8.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a
coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
(Refer to Figure 8.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?
1
3
2
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR
flight?
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment
after taxi turns.
After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
a. Swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.
b. Exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.
c. Swing freely and indicate known headings.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left
from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right
from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank
of approximately 15°?
135° through 225°.
90° and 270°.
180° and 0°.
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.
Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.
The magnetic dip characteristic.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the
left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but
lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual
heading of the aircraft.
from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to th e magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of
the aircraft.
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.
Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
En route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of
30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly,
what will it indicate after landing?
100 feet MSL.
474 feet MSL.
206 feet below MSL.
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be
expected?
No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.
Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.
Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you
observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing
conditions?
The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?
The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.
The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if
the static ports were iced over?
The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside
the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.
The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be
affected?
The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside
the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter to read higher than normal.
The vertical speed to show a climb.
(Refer to Figure 9.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the
airplane to straight-and-level flight.
Static/pitot system is blocked, lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitud
indicator.
Vacuum system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed.
Electrical system has failed, reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce
airspeed.
(Refer to Figure 10.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
Climbing turn to the right.
Climbing turn to the left.
Descending turn to the right.
(Refer to Figure 11.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the
instruments has malfunctioned.
Level turn to the right.
Level turn to the left.
Straight-and-level flight.
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check.
Power control.
Aircraft control.
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control.
Instrument cross-check.
Instrument interpretation.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true
airspeed?
When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.
The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope
Must be increased if the ground speed is decreased.
Will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant.
Must be decreased if the ground speed is decreased.
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be
Decreased if the airspeed is increased.
Decreased if the ground speed is increased.
Increased if the ground speed is increased.
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon
True airspeed.
Calibrated airspeed.
Ground speed.
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted
initially?
Pitch and power.
Power only.
Pitch only.
During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will
Remain the same regardless of ground speed.
Increase as the ground speed increases.
Decrease as the ground speed increases.
The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated
straight-and-level flight?
Magnetic compass.
Attitude indicator.
Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.
What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a
constant rate?
Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
Heading indicator and attitude indicator.
Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a
constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank airspeed indicator for power.
Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Attitude indicator.
Turn coordinator.
Heading indicator.
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments
are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?
VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
Attitude indicator
VSI.
Airspeed indicator.
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?
Altimeter.
VSI.
Airspeed indicator.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using
Two bar widths on the attitude indicator.
Less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.
Less than half bar width on the attitude indicator.
What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?
Turn coordinator.
Heading indicator.
Attitude indicator.
What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from
straight-and-level flight?
Heading indicator.
Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a standard rate
turn to the left?
Attitude indicator.
Heading indicator.
Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are
primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-leve
flight?
Turn-and-slip indicator.
Attitude indicator.
Heading indicator.
Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a
level standard rate turn?
Turn coordinator and attitude indicator.
Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Altimeter and airspeed only.
Altimeter and VSI only.
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-leve
flight?
Attitude indicator.
Airspeed indicator.
Altimeter.
Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a
level turn?
Airspeed indicator and VSI.
Altimeter and attitude indicator.
Attitude indicator and VSI.
Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during
change of airspeed in a level turn?
Airspeed indicator.
Attitude indicator.
Altimeter.
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your
assigned altitude?
Altimeter and VSI.
Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
Airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
Flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
Relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of
feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?
10 percent.
20 percent.
25 percent .
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately
10 percent of the vertical speed.
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for
determining the need for a pitch change?
Altimeter.
VSI.
Attitude indicator.
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot
should
First adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the
power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
First reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a
specific rate on the VSI.
Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain
the cruising airspeed.
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made,
assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired
altitude by approximately
20 feet.
50 feet.
60 feet.
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate
level pitch attitude is reached when the
Airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
Airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its
movement.
Altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
The horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.
A zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
(Refer to Figure 12.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.
Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.
Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.
(Refer to Figure 13.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.
Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original
attitude and heading.
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which
instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?
Turn indicator and VSI.
Airspeed and altimeter.
VSI and airspeed to detect approaching V(S1) or V(MO).
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual
flight attitude?
Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure
should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being
Decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
Increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
Increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure.
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller?
As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades
to remain unchanged.
A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for
takeoffs.
The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, and in turn, the propeller RPM.
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
Volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
Weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.
To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of
the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and
Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that
will produce a
Large angle of attack and low RPM.
Small angle of attack and high RPM.
Large angle of attack and high RPM.
For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a
Small angle of attack and high RPM.
Large angle of attack and low RPM.
Large angle of attack and high RPM.
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
Permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.
Prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.
Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller,
the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and
Increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.
Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.
A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of
Altitude and RPM.
Airspeed and RPM.
Airspeed and altitude.
Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of
fuel
Decreases while the volume of air decreases.
Remains constant while the volume of air decreases.
Remains constant while the density of air decreases.
A flux value is found in:
Most hydraulic systems
Fuel control units and is an internal component not governed from the flight deck
Directional Gyro systems and has no moving parts
The intake section of a jet engine is often considered part of the fuselage. The other four parts which
are considered part of the engine are
The turbine, combustion chamber, exhaust and reversers
The compressor, combustion chamber, turbine and exhaust
The Engine struts, compressor, combustion chamber and exhaust
Hydraulic systems in modern aircraft are usually employed to
Aid in moving heavy control surfaces or accessories.
Aid in lowering the landing gear, moving the nose wheel steering and activating the passenger stairs.
Help the pilot lower the landing gear in emergency, activate the Power Transfer Unit (Sby.electrical
power) and engage the thrust reversers.
Large transport category jet airplanes employ:
Constantly heated leading edges for ground deicing
Silver colored deicing boots
Heated leading edges for de-icing / anti-icing.
The most fuel efficient type engine for commercial passenger transport is
Turbofan with afterburners
Turboprop
Jet/scramjet (used on the Concorde)
What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines
Pounds of thrust
Brake horse power
Shaft horsepower (SHP)
Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of
Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up transformers
Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems
12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static generators
Aircraft hydraulic systems use:
Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid
Hydraulic fluid
Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid
Where would a pilot find the type of engine oil a specific aircraft uses
Do not even look, call maintenance
In the approved Airplane Operating Manual (AOM) or similar
In the Certificate of Airworthiness (Powerplant subsection)
If during a preflight a pilot sees that a tire is showing just a thread of canvass, he should:
Consult with a maintenance technician
Consult the limits / tolerances in the approved AFM.
Look it up in the Maintenance section of the company’s Operations Specifications
If at an airport JET A or Jet B type fuels are not available for your aircraft, would you:
Top it up with 100/130 LL Avgas not to exceed a 50% ratio
Look in the Flight / Maintenance Manual for alternate fuels
Not use any other fuel than JET A or Jet B
Modern aircraft are usually pressurized in flight by using:
Bleed air tapped off from usually the compressor section of the engine
Auxiliary Power Units which are installed for this purpose primarily
Pressure controlled bleed air tapped off usually from the last stage turbine section of the engine
At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?
Below .75 Mach.
From .75 to 1.20 Mach
From 1,20 to 2,50 Mach
How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
Immediatly after ground contact.
Immediatly prior to touchdown.
After applying maximum wheel braking.
What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine.
Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?
Strong vibrations and loud roar.
Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.
Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when:
The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45º C
The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed
limitations
The ITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is
obtained
Turbine engines can deliver reverse thrust by.
Bringing the engine from forward thrust into a momentary stop (stationary) then spooled up into reverse
thrust.
It is merely accelerated as the exhaust is redirected forward
Starting the engine in the opposite direction of normal forward thrust.
What other term is used to classify a “Turboprop Engine”:
Propjet
Fanjet
TPE (Turbocharged Propeller Engine)
Approximately in what percentage do turboprop engines deliver thrust via the Propeller Vs turbine
exhaust:
100% propeller - 0% turbine exhaust
High-bypass ratio turbine engines can be compared in operating principle to
A turboprop engine with 200 or more small propeller blades
A regular jet engine with afterburner
A simple scramjet engine
A regular gas turbine type engine’s performance is most affected by:
Ambient pressure and humidity
Ambient temperature and pressure
Mostly humidity in the air Vs ISA conditions
If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in
shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:
Lbs of thrust
ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)
Also SHP
What is the prime advantage of a fuel injected engine Vs a carburetor type:
A fuel injector better atomizes the fuel for optimum performance
A fuel injector is better because it can be adjusted on wing.
A fuel injector is less expensive because it does not need carburetor de-icing
Turbine engines have a compression ratio of say 20:3 just like normal internal combustion engines do,
this ratio on turbine type engines is:
Air pressures at the intake Vs the exhaust stage
Air pressures at the combustor stage Vs the turbine stage
Air pressures at the turbine Vs the exhaust stage
Turbine engines have a compression ratio just like internal combustion engines
True
False
Impossible since turbine engines do not have pistons
Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most
turboprop engines because they both
Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid
Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot
Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true?
Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation.
The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip
vortices generated by airplanes.
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at
which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
Past the point where the jet touched down.
At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left
to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip
vortices by
Being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
Maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
Extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.
During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible
wind shear is monitoring the
Amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.
Heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.
Power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
29.92 Inches Hg.
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above
_____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published
in NOTAMs.
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilot
Receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
Is operating VFR on top.
Requests an amended clearance.
When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations should include
Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.
Selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.
Landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include
Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.
Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.
Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.
What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
a. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements.
b. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.
c. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it).
Light beacons producing red flashes indicate
A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling.
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.
End of runway warning at departure end.
(Refer to figure 14.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft?
Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.
(Refer to figure 14.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found
Upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
Near the approach end of ILS runways.
(Refer to figure 14.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely
clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft
Passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure.
Is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol.
Is past the solid-line side of the middle symbol.
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the
corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL
ME hazardous attitude?
It won't happen to me. It could happen to me.
Not so fast. Think first.
Follow the rules. They are usually right.
The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by
A total disregard for any alternative course of action.
Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and that may lead to a
mishap.
Imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of
these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include:
Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.
Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and operating without adequate
fuel reserves.
Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems.
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'
Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.
Early recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
Dealing with improper judgment.
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Knowing what causes stress.
Good life stress management.
Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a
reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?
Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.
The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.
If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.
While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the
rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he
elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the
INVULNERABILITY reaction?
It's too late to fix it now.
He can handle a little problem like this.
What is the worst that could happen.
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to
Assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.
Promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.
Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which
of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction?
He is not too concerned, everything will be alright.
He flies a little closer, just to show him.
He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
Be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.
Avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.
A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the
pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load.
Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?
He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.
Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.
Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.
Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
Aeronautical Decision Making?
Estimate.
Eliminate.
Evaluate.
Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and
Aeronautical Decision Making?
Identify.
Detect.
Evaluate.
The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching
Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:
Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.
Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a
Mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on
what action to take.
Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of
action for a given set of circumstances.
Decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision
making. One of these steps includes a pilot
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
Developing the 'right stuff' attitude.
Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
The 'taxiway ending' marker
Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
On a runway equipped with a precision approach, the touch down zone markings are located:
At the end of the 3.000 Ft. TDZ
Depends if it’s a CAT I, II or III ILS runway
500 Ft from the beginning of the runway
The area before a displaced threshold may be used:
Only in emergencies
For taxiing and landing rollout only
For taxiing, take off and landing rollout
A red background sign with white lettering denotes:
Warning positions for Non commercial or VFR aircraft
Instructions for military aircraft only
An entrance to a runway a critical area or an area prohibited to aircraft
A runway incursion is:
Not possible at airports with separate tower, ground and ramp controllers
A serious offence punishable to non licensed ground vehicle drivers
Any occurrence that creates a collision hazard on a runway
On a PAPI you are on a correct glide path if:
You see 2 white lights next to 2 red lights on the R side of the runway
You stay within the standard 3º glide path
You see 2 white lights on the outside and 2 red lights close to the left margin of the runway
Runway center line lights are:
White and green
White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red
Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway
Airlines may not operate aircraft in uncontrolled airspace:
True, Passenger carrying flights must always be operated in class A, B or C airspaces
False, It is allowed if the airline has foreign registered aircraft operating in Colombia
False, it is allowed so long as the OPS SPECS say so
If you are cleared to a VOR on a descent from Fl. 190 to 9.000 Ft. and your IAS is 279 Kts, when at
the VOR:
You must slow down to 200 Kts
You are legal since you did not exceed 280 Kts
You are illegal unless specifically authorized by ATC
On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the
approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should:
Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds
Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact
Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC
Intersection take offs are:
Not allowed for passenger flights
Not allowed in Colombia for foreign registered aircraft
Allowed under dry pavement conditions only
When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe,
engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes
The unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil
All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by
someone other than the manufacturer.
If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be a
the
Centerline of the main wheels.
Nose, or out in front of the airplane.
Centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.
The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?
Dividing total arms by total moments.
Multiplying total arms by total weight
Dividing total moments by total weight.
Automated flight decks or cockpits
Enhance basic pilot flight skills.
Decrease the work load in terminal areas.
Often create much larger pilot errors than traditional cockpits.
Identify REIL.
a. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.
b. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.
c. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
a. Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights.
b. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone.
c. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white and green.
Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white.
One light projector with two colors; red and white.
You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.
You are considered clear of the runway when
The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign.
The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
All parts of the aircraft hace crossed the hold line.
(Refer to Figure 15.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane’s
crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?
260° at 20 knots.
275° at 25 knots.
315° at 35 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind
component for a Rwy 08 landing?
7 knots.
15 knots.
17 knots.
(Refer to Figure 15.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy
13 landing?
19 knots.
21 knots.
23 knots.
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
-5°C.
-15°C.
+5°C.
What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?
-15°C.
-20°C.
-25°C.
W hat are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15°C and 29.92" Hg.
59°F and 1013.2" Hg.
15°C and 29.92 Mb.
The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on
Pressure/density altitude.
Cabin altitude.
True altitude.
What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine
performance?
As air density decreases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust increases.
As temperature increases, thrust decreases.
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use
Aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and
nosewheel-type airplanes.
Right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both
tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes.
Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than
normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes.
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and fo
what primary reason?
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as
possible.
A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
airborne on takeoff is
Maintaining a safe airspeed.
Landing directly into the wind.
Turning back to the takeoff field.
Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
A power-on approach and power-on landing.
A power-off approach and power-on landing.
A power-on approach and power-off landing.
A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
Direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.
Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
Increases takeoff speed.
Increases takeoff distance.
Decreases takeoff distance.
At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed
Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.
Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate
to decrease?
Sudden decrease in the headwind component.
Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
Sudden increase in a headwind component.
Which INITIAL cockpit indicatons should a pilot be awere of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
Increasing tailwind and headwind.
Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
What is the recommended technique to counter a loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?
Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum power.
Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.
When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart.
When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
Which is the definition of "severe wind shear"?
Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.
Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or
vertical speed changes greater tan 500 ft/min
Any change of airspeed greater than 20 Knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical
speed changes in excess of 100ft/min.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions
on the airport is reported?
Light and variable.
Wind shear.
Frontal passage.
Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm
wind?
Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as
1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
5,000 feet above the tropopause.
100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)
Extend flaps to decrease wind loading.
Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
Adjust airspeed to that recomended for rough air.
If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended?
Mantain a constant altitude.
Mantain a constant attitude.
Mantain constant airspeed and altitude.
Which action is recomended regarding an altitude change to get out of the jet stream turbulence?
Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
Descend if ambient temperature is rising.
Mantain altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encontered behind large aircraft is created only when that
aircraft is
Developing lift.
Operating at high airspeeds.
Using high power settings.
Which flight conditions of large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip
vortices of the greatest strength?
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has
just taken off?
The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest
period of time?
Direct tailwind.
Light quartering tailwind.
Light quartering headwind.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a desparting jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should
Lift off at a point well past the jet airplanes flight path.
Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplanes flight path.
Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.
If you take off behaind a jeavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
prior to the point where the jet touched down.
beyond the point where the jet touched down.
at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback?
Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors.
If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient.
Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a
regulation?
Read the clearance back in its entirety.
Request a clarification from ATC.
Do no accept the clearance.
What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?
Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.
Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed.
Time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed, and inbound leg length.
What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to "VERIFY 9,000" and the flight is actually
maintaining 8,000?
Immediately climb to 9000.
Report climbing to 9000.
Report maintaining 9000.
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes?
Over all designated compulsory reporting points.
Only where specifically requested by ARTCC.
When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
Wich reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
holding fix or point to which cleared.
Position reports, vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a
holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10
Knots.
Vacating and altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to
which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 Knots, and leaving and
assigned holding fix or point.
TCAS I provides
traffic and resolution advisories.
proximity warning.
recomended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.
El número de las naciones unidas asignado por el comité de expertos en transporte de MP consta de:
2 dígitos.
3 dígitos.
4 dígitos.
¿Cuántas clases de MP existen?
Un animal vivo infectado:

Podrá llevarse abordo debidamente encerrado.
Es prohibido transportarlo por vía aérea.
Esta prohibido transportarlos por vía aérea salvo dispensa de los estados interesados.
En las normas relacionadas con MP además de los idiomas exigidos por el estado de origen, debería
utilizarse:
Ruso
Español.
Inglés.
Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga
MP.
A menos que se haya certificado que los bultos satisfacen las condiciones pertinentes previstas en las
instrucciones técnicas
Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.
Todas las anteriores.
Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte
aéreo a través del servicio postal.
La OACI.
IFALPA.
La unión postal universal.
Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina:
Incompatible.
Artículo explosivo.
Liquido pirofórico.
Las sustancias tóxicas se pueden clasificar en:
Sustancias venenosas.
Sustancias explosivas
Sustancias corrosivas.
Que mercancías no se estibaran junto a otras en una aeronave:
MP incompatibles.
Mercancías capaces de reaccionar peligrosamente entre si.
A y B son correctas.
Todo bulto de MP llevara las etiquetas de manipulación apropiadas:
Siempre.
Vuelos nacionales
Vuelos internacionales.
El piloto al mando puede negarse a efectuar un transporte de MP si:
No se le ha proporcionado por escrito la información adecuada.
No se le ha solicitado la autorización oportuna.
El avión lleva VIP. abordo.
Diga que frase es cierta:
Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.
Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
¿La sigla NOTOC que significa?
Notice to company.
Notice to crew.
Notice to Captain.
¿Si desea buscar una sustancia por su nombre y hallar sus propiedades, donde la buscaría?
Manual de la aeronave.
Páginas azules de manual de regulaciones de MP de IATA.
En el manual de operaciones de vuelo.
Que significa la sigla DL:
Dosis letal.
Dosis dosificada.
Dosis limite.
¿Quien asigna el grupo de embalaje?
El expedidor.
La IATA.
El explotador.
En Las variaciones de los estados que significa la ultima letra que es una G:
Gol.
Gobierno.
Ganancia de cada estado en cuanto MP se refiere.
La letra Y en las instrucciones de embalaje significa:
Que se puede transportar igual cantidad que en una instrucción que no tenga esa letra.
La cantidad que se puede transportar es menor porque no es un embalaje aprobado para el transporte
de MP.
De acuerdo al estado se le pone la letra Y o la Z.
Un embalaje puede ser reutilizado siempre y cuando:
Sean removidas todas las etiquetas.
La sustancia a empacar no vaya a reaccionar con algún componente Anterior.
A y B son correctas
TCAS II provides
traffic and resolution advisories.
proximity warning.
maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify
ATC and
Mantain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.
Request a new ATC clearance.
expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.
Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II, resolution advisory (RA) is
expected to
Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact
Request a new ATC clearance
notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable
With no traffic identified by TCAS, you
can rest assured that no other aircraft are in the area
must continually scan for other traffic in visual conditions.
must scan only for hot air balloons.
While being radar vectored, to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot
descend to published altitudes?
Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.
When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.
Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
What action (s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR
approach?
Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.
Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.
Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is an VFR authorization.
A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact apprach is initiated by the pilot.
Both are the same but classified according to the part initiating the approach.
How should a pilot describe braking action?
00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.
Zero-zero, fifty-fift, or normal.
Nil, poor, fair or good
When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed
1 minute.
1-1/2 minutes.
1-1/2 minutes or 10 NM, whichever is less.
Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.
If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon
reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay.
This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing,
declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
What is the hijack code?
7200
7500
7777
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
When distress conditions such as fie, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
Wich range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?
0000 through 1000.

7200 and 7500 series.
7500, 7600 and 7700 series.
How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?
Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.
Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.
Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to mantain altitude?
Compensate for loss of vertical component of the lift.
Increase the horizontal component of the lift equal to the vertical component.
Compensate for increase in drag.
Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?
Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation.
Lower-than-standard air density.
Increase headwind component.
Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway?
Critical engine failure speed.
Rotation speed.
Accelerate-stop distance.
What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions
relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?
Higher than at low elevation.
Lower than at low elevation.
The same as at low elevation.
When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated
to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?
5° to 10°.
10° to 12°.
18° to 20°.
An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a
course centerline deviation of approximately
6 miles.
2 miles.
1 mile.
Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?
Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.
Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the
station.
To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to
360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.
180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to
215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.
What is the primary cause off all changes in the Earths weather?
Variations of solar energy at the Earths surface.
Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.
Movment of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?
Calm.
High pressure area.
COL.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
Freezing rain.
Clear air turbulence.
Embedded thundrestorms.
What phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
The appearance of an anvil top.
The start of rain at the surface.
Growth rate of cloud is ai its maximum.
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
Supercooled water drops.
Water vapor.
Visible water.
The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the
magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be
150°.
285°.
330°.
If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the
magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon would be
040°.
065°.
220°.
(Refer to Figure 30.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic
bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned
Left to a heading of 270°.
Right to a heading of 330°.
Right to a heading of 360°.
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
Wet snow.
Freezing rain.
Ice pellets.
Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?
Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more.

A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed.
Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.
ILS critical area sign indicates
Where aircraft are prohibited.
The edge of the ILS critical area.
The exit boundary.
Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have
yellow inscriptions on a black background.
white inscriptions on a black background.
black inscriptions on a yellow background.
Holding position signs have
white inscriptions on a red background.
red inscriptions on a white background.
yellow inscriptions on a red background.
(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
The surface.
3,823 feet MSL.
700 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated.
Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depict the
boundary of
Special VFR airspace.
Class D airspace.
Class B airspace
(Refer to figure 32, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco
International Airport is
The outer segment of Class B airspace.
An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace
from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
A Mode C veil boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains
below 8,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 31, point 9) The alert area depicted within the blue lines is an area in which
There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is
hazardous to aircraft.
The flight of aircraft is prohibited.
The flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower,
within the Class C airspace area?
Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving
facility.
(Refer to figure 31, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is
700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
(Refer to figure 31, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is
The surface.
700 feet AGL.
1,200 feet AGL.
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
(Refer to figure 14.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area
when you pass which sign?
Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.
(Refer to figure 14.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical
area when short of which symbol?
Top red.
Middle yellow.
Bottom yellow.
To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should
Rely on body sensations.
Increase the breathing rate.
Rely on aircraft instrument indications.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Insufficient oxygen.
Excessive carbon monoxide.
Insufficient carbon dioxide.
To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should
a. Swallow or yawn.
b. Slow the breathing rate.
c. Increase the breathing rate.
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
a. Drowsiness.
b. Decreased breathing rate.
c. A sense of well-being.
Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?
a. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
b. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
c. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as
Humidity decreases.
Altitude increases.
Oxygen demand increases.
Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?
At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures.
To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.
To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard
departure.
(Refer to figures 33) The final approach fix for the ILS precision approach is located at
DENAY intersection.
Glide slope intercept.
ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.
(Refer to figure 34.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure, the glide slope intercept altitude is
11,000 feet MSL.
7,000 feet MSL.
9,000 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 36) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed
approach point?
4.8 NM.
5.2 NM.
12.0 NM.
(Refer to figure 37) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM,
what MDA applies?
1,157 feet.
1,320 feet.
1,360 feet.
(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope
interception is
2,365 feet MSL.
2,400 feet MSL.
3,000 feet MSL.
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as
practical to ATC when
Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in
flight.
Requested to contact a new controlling facility.
Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A
procedure?
One VOR receiver.
One VOR receiver and DME.
Two VOR receivers and DME.
Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are
Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.
To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.
Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be
maintained until
Reaching the FAF.
Advised to begin descent.
Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN
represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Denver VORTAC.
Dymon outer marker.
Cruup I-AQD DME fix.
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized.
Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or
continue the approach unless the
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.
Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
can be made.
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the
glide slope becomes inoperative?
1,420 feet.
1,340 feet.
1,121 feet.
For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport
on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on
an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the
following weather minimums.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which
extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
8,000 feet MSL.
2,100 feet AGL.
VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC.
True, they are both the same
False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.
False, but they are correlated
Hypoxia is the result of:
The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream
The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:
1.0 DME
2.0 DME to either side of the arc
0.0. (No deviations are allowed)
If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:
6.0 Nm from the VOR
4.5 Nm from the VOR
3.0 Nm from the VOR
TERPs are a US standard used for:
All ICAO special charts
IFR departure design criteria
Non Jeppesen stars
When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
Continue flying the DP as published
Return for a landing
Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
True, except as published on STARs
False, every airport is different
True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
Departure Procedures must:
Be flown if available for that airport
Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan
Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC
On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean:
V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight
V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation
V stands or “Victor Collins” whom in 1935 invented the airways between VORs and 344 is the airway
allocation
MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:
Navigation signal
Both navigation and communications
1.500 ground clearance around mountains
When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:
Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side
Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:
MVA, MEA and MOCA
MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA
Neither, as the radio altimeter is never activated (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in mountainous
terrain
In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of
navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:
A Hi or Lo enroute chart
A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used
A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed
off from TWR:
Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code
Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code
Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code
When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:
Write a maintenance report at your next stop
Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements
Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing
Position reports when required should include:
Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point
Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you
are
Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any
You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:
Report leaving present altitude.
Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times
Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should:
Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles
If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time
Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt.
In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.
You will fly two complete racetrack patterns
You will fly three complete racetrack patterns
The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should:
Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts
Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category
Maintain the speed up so as to hold at the fastest speed possible to be the first to leave the fix and
expedite ATC
When is an IFR flight plan required?
When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone
airspace.
In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate
ATC clearance prior to
Entering controlled airspace.
Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.
Takeoff.
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received
prior to
Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.
Entering weather conditions in any airspace.
Entering controlled airspace.
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
When operating in the Class E airspace.
When operating in the Class A airspace.
When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR
flight plan and receive a clearance before
Takeoff.
Entering IFR conditions.
Entering Class E airspace.
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing
has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before
through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet
the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is
forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first
airport of intended landing,
And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a
VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR
flight plan?
800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and
landing under basic VFR.
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision
approach procedure?
400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA
for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the
minimum visibility for the approach.
600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibilit
for the approach.
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when
the airport has no approved IAP?
The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles,
respectively.
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic
VFR.
When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at
the alternate?
600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.
The landing minimums for the approach to be used.
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should
be the
Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.
Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.
Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the curren
weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.
Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix
by
The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
Direct route only.
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be
obtained from
The ATIS broadcast.
The FSS.
Notices to Airmen (Class II).
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
The point of first intended landing.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an
alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at
an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in
order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.
800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (AtlantaHartsfi
if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour
before to 1 hour after the ETA.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles,
respectively.
Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to
avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
Advise departure control upon initial contact.
Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the
designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MOCA.
MRA.
MCA.
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
22 NM of a VOR.
25 NM of a VOR.
30 NM of a VOR.
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe
the “route of flight” should be
40 NM apart.
70 NM apart.
80 NM apart.
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.
When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
MEA is an altitude which assures
Obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME
mileage.
A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above
14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?
230 knots.
265 knots.
200 knots.
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector
Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage
500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established after completing the turn to
the outbound heading.
When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix,
whichever occurs first.
When abeam the holding fix.
(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.
The localizer has an additional navigation function.
GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams
Memorial.
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated
airspeed above 14,000 feet?
220 knots.
265 knots.
200 knots.
What is the definition of MEA?
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage.
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational
signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal
coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.
To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum
indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
230 knots.
200 knots.
210 knots.
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.
Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
12 NM.
22 NM.
25 NM.
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
IFR Planning Chart.
IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better
established on course, the additional circuits can be made
At pilot’s discretion.
Only in an emergency.
Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude
crossing Gymme intersection is
6,400 feet.
6,500 feet.
7,000 feet.
Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the
designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA.
MCA.
MOCA.
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and
MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
Adequate navigation signals.
Adequate communications.
1,000-foot obstacle clearance.
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher
minimum applies?
The MEA at which the fix is approached.
The MRA at which the fix is approached.
The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.
(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS
in the Lake Charles area?
122.1, 126.4.
123.6, 122.65.
122.2, 122.3.
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
All fixes that are labeled IAF.
Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix.
The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.
(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport
elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?
15 feet.
18 feet.
22 feet.
(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the
ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
3,000 feet MSL.
1,800 feet MSL.
1,690 feet MSL.
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the
parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.
Aircraft approach categories are based on
Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.
(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the
flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet
Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER.
Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart.
Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed
approach should be initiated upon
Arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
Arrival at the middle marker.
Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport
Approach Chart?
It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and
290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.
(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when
using the localizer frequency?
Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.
(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach
for a landing on RWY 27?
A
B
C
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.
Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan.
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”
(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from
2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?
200 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight
should
Land straight in on runway 31.
Comply with straight-in landing minimums.
Begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
(Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a
minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
Denver VORTAC.
Gandi outer marker.
Denver/Stapleton International Airport.
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be
executed within
The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.
10 knots of the specified holding speed.
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is
maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
Use Category B minim ums.
Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater
than
180 knots IAS.
200 knots IAS.
250 knots IAS.
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular
airport indicate?
Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more
than two engines.
Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
On tower frequency.
On approach control frequency.
One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A straight-in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle
to land on the runway.
The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a norma
approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A procedure turn is not authorized.
Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for
the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route
facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
70 feet MSL.
54 feet MSL.
46 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
363 feet MSL.
365 feet MSL.
396 feet MSL.
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts,
represent?
The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.
(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of
descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?
(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent
will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?
1,200 fpm.
500 fpm.
800 fpm.
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land
in IFR conditions.
You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the
airport in VFR conditions.
Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP
TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the
final approach fix.
After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.
(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the
procedure turn at LABER?
4 DME miles from LABER.
10 DME miles from the MAP.
12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.
(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?
5,957 feet.
7,000 feet.
7,900 feet.
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the
pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME
RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?
Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.
When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.
After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR
separation is provided on the adjacent runway.
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive
aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but
will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot
be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground
visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be
used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning
maneuver.
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.
(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at
7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX.
Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.
CREAK outbound.
intercepting the glide slope.
(Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed
the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet
commence?
As soon as intercepting LOC inbound.
Immediately.
Only at the point authorized by ATC.
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH,
the pilot is
Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.
a
b
c
s to rotate the airplane to the
fficient lift to maintain altitude.

o
FALSO c
FALSO c

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A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

El cumplimiento de las normas aeronáuticas en Colombia es principal función de:

Un animal vivo infectado:

0000 through 1000.

Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more.

fficient lift to maintain altitude.

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