ABR Diagnostic Exam Recalls from September 9, 2005. 225 questions, 4 hours.

Study
old recalls. Good luck!!!!

1. Indium is better than Galium in the following:

a. Splenic Abscess
b. Pneumocystis carinii peumonia
c. Spinal Osteomyelitis
d. Diskistis

2. Bone scan is useful after chemotherapy if it shows which of the following:

a. Flare is bad
b. Uptake is dependent on flow
c. Decrease with expansion of sclerotic mets
d. Need osteolysis to see

3. Diffuse increased T2 uptake is seen in the subchondral, head, and intertrochanteric

femur in a patient with pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Transient Osteoperosis
b. Sarcoma
c. Mets
d. Avascular necrosis

4. The least common acetabular fracture:

a. Anterior column
b. Posterior column
c. Transverse
d. T-shaped
e. Anterior and posterior column

5. Spinal vertebral body posterior scalloping is LEAST likely found in:

a. Osteopetrosis
b. NF
c. Marfans
d. Spinal Tumor

6. Mortans Neuroma is an example of a:

a. Spindle cell tumor
b. Schwannoma
c. Muscle strain
d. Perineural fibrosis

7. Fusiform swelling of the soft tissues of the PIP joints is:

a. RA
b. Gout
c. Psoriasis
8. Renogram with MAG3, what DOES NOT cause continuous upslope:
a. Renal stenosis post Captopril
b. ATN
c. Acute ureteral obstruction
d. Pyelonephritis

9. There is a spill of radioisotope on the floor, what is the first action:

a. Remove patients from the department
b. Call housekeeping for appropriate disposal
c. Survey the area with counter
d. Place paper towel on the spill
e. Wave your hands in the air like you just don’t care

10. In a fetal US, for accurate abdominal circumference, what should be seen:
a. Left portal vein
b. Kidneys
c. L3
d. Cord insertion

11. Nuchal thickness should be measured when:

a. 12-15 weeks
b. 9-12 weeks
c. 13-16 weeks

12. A 24 y/o woman has a younger brother who died from heart problems. She has a
MRI with shows increased T1 signal in the anterior wall of the right ventricle. Most
likely cause is:
a. AHSS
b. Infarct
c. False Anuerysm

13. False aneurysm of the left ventricle is concerning because:

a. Can rupture
b. Clot can form and emobolize

14. A four chamber view on fetal US can show:

a. Tetrolagy of Fallot
b. AV canal defect
c. Double outlet right ventricle

15. A baseball pitcher has deltoid atophy and pain and numbness. The most likely cause
is:
a. Axillary nerve syndrome
b. SLAP lesion

16. SLAP lesion is mostly likely seen in:

 a. Rowers
b. Baseball pitcher
c. Bowlers

17. 12 y/o boy has a single sclerotic pedicle on T4, the most likely cause is:
a. Contralateral pars defect
b. EG
c. Mets

18. Absolute contraindication for intra-articular joint steroid injection:

a. RA
b. Gout
c. Septic Arthritis

19. In a child, the concerning the epiphysis, which is most true:

a. Most sensitive to trauma during growth period

20. Location for the first conversion for red to yellow bone marrow in the femur:
b. Epiphysis
c. Metaphysis-Epiphysis junction
d. Diaphysis-Epiphysis junction
e. Diaphysis

21. 3 week old with renal mass, most likely:

a. Unilateral multicystic kidney dysplasia
b. Wilms tumor
c. Mesoblastic Nephroma

22. Infant with unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney, most consistent with:
a. Contralateral UPJ obstruction
b. Contralateral ureterocele
c. Hepatic cysts

23. Adult with ocular hemangioma, which is FALSE:

a. Retrobulbar
b. Grows slowly over time
c. Well defined aterial supply

24. Nerve between the PCA and SCA:

a. Occulomotor
b. Optic
c. Trigeminal
d. Abducens

25. Least likely to be seen on PET:

a. TB
 b. Sarcoid
c. Fungal infection
d. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma
e. Small cell cancer

26. AP view of the circle of willis after Left ICA injection. Which is the anterior choroid
artery.

27. Which vessel feeds the cecum:

a. SMA
b. IMA
c. Right Colic
d. Iliocolic

28. Origin of the left gastroepiploic:

a. Splenic artery
b. GDA
c. SMA
d. IMA

29. Neonate with a negative 4 hour HIDA scan for biliary atresia. What is the next step:
a. Wait 24 hours, rescan
b. Give Phenobabital

30. Regarding HIDA scan:

a. Give CCK as a bolus
b. Rim sign is ????
c. 4 hr increases specificity
d. Morphine help distinguish partial from complete cystic duct obstruction

31. Choroid plexus is seen in the following location EXCEPT:

a. Body of the lateral ventricles
b. Anterior horns of the lateral ventricles
c. Posterior horns of the lateral ventricles
d. 3rd ventricle

32. Adenomyosis of the uterus, most characteristic is:

a. General low T2 signal with foci of increase T2
b. Easily differentiated from fibroids on US
c. Increased T1 and T2 within the endometrium
d. Extensive contrast enhacement

33. Endometrial thickness greater than 10 mm in a postmenopausal woman, LEAST

LIKELY cause of bleeding is:
a. Polyp
 b. Endometrial atrophy
c. Malignancy

34. Most common rib lesion in an adult:

a. Anuerysmal bone cyst
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Giant cell tumor

35. Post-menopausal woman and ovarian cyst:

a. Less than 5 cm is likely benign
b. Uncommon (less than 5%)
c. Fluctuate with hormones

36. A patient with history of coronary stent in a non-dominant RCA 2 years prior has a
cardiac stress test demonstrating a reversible defect in the posterior wall. The most likely
cause is:
a. Occlusion of RCA stent
b. Ischemia of RCA involving stent
c. Ischemia of RCA distal to stent
d. Ischemia of a new artery
e. Infarct of a new artery

37. CT of a female with a 2 cm simple ovarian cyst, the appropriate next step:
a. Follow-up in 6 weeks
b. Nothing
c. Surgery
d. Ultrasound

38. Size ovulation is expect to occur in an ovarian follicle:

a. 10 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 40 mm
e. 50 mm

40. What doesn’t have renal cysts:

a. MCKD
b. NF-1
c. Tuberous sclerosis
d. Vhl
e. echinococus

41. In acquired renal cystic disease, which is more common:

f. Increased chance of malignancy
g. Increased infection
42. In CT, best predictor of malignancy in renal cystic disease:
a. Calcium in the wall
b. Enhancement
c. Attenuation
d. Size

43. In sickle trait, which renal tumor is associated:

a. Renal Medullary Carcinoma
b. Wilms tumor
c. Renal Cell Carcinoma

44. What does not cause calcification of the bladder wall:

a. Schistosomiasis
b. TCC
c. Malakoplakia
d. Radiation therapy

45. What is associated with increased risk of ureteral cancer:

a. Malakoplakia
b. Urethritis Cystica

46. 60 y/o male with gross hematuria, flank pain. IVP demonstrates a filling defect, and
noncontrast CT shows an upper collecting system mass with 75 HU. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a. TCC
b. Fungus ball
c. Thrombus
d. Uric acid stone

47. On MRI, a mass in the right atrium is most likely:

a. Papillary muscle
b. Crista terminalis
c. Crista supraventricularis
d. Right atrial appendage

48. A patient present to the ER with chest pain. A cardiac MRI demonstrates anterior
wall enhancement on 7 minute delayed images. The most appropriate management is:
a. Medical management
b. Percutaneous Coronary Artery lytics
c. CABG

49. The muscles of the Pes Anserinus are:

a. Semitendinosus, Gracilus, Rectus Femoris
b. Semimembranosis, Semitendinosus, Gracilus
c. Sartarious, Semitendinosus, Gracilus
d. Sartorious, Gracilus, Semimembranosus
50. To evaluate ejection fraction, the MRI sequence used is:
a. Short axis cine
b. Short axis Spin Echo
c. Long axis cine
d. T1 long axis

51. Drainage of a duplicated SVC is most commonly into:

a. Pulmonary artery
b. Coronary Sinus
c. IVC
d. Right atrium

52. The greatest dysfunction in cardiac tamponade is:

a. RV systolic
b. LV systolic
c. RV diastolic
d. LV systolic

53. Congenitally corrected transposition of the great vessels is:

a. Concordant arterioventricle and discordant atrioventricle
b. Concordant arterioventricle and concordant atrioventricle
c. Discordant arterioventricle and discordant atrioventricle
d. Discordant arterioventricle and discordant atrioventricle

54. Graph of the results of fetal US, demonstrating atrial width increasing over time,
greater than 10 mm. Question states: Fetus with normal head circumference, normal
brain mantle, and above graph. Most likely diagnosis:
a. Chiari II malformation
b. Dandywalker malformation
c. Normal
d. Hydrocephaly
e. Hydranencephaly

55. In a neonate, which MOST LIKELY will contain air:

a. C-CAM
b. Sequestration
c. Bronchogenic Cyst
d. Espophageal duplication cyst
e. Teratoma

56. 25 y/o CXR shows a LUL lucency with a left hilar branching mass:
a. Segmental bronchial atresia
b. Congenital lobar emphysema
c. Pulmonary AVM
57. Most appropriate treatment for a child with pulmonary AVM is:
a. Coil
b. Et-OH
c. Gel-foam
d. Particles

58. Which is NOT a cause of pulmonary HTN:

a. Pulmonary AVM
b. Mitral valve stenosis
c. Schistosomiasis

59. Chronic prostaglandin intake in a neonate can cause:

a. Periosteal elevation
b. Subperiostial resorption
c. Endostial absorption

60. Findings in acute osteoporosis include:

a. Subperiosteal absorption
b. Ground glass
c. Cortical thickening
d. Subchondral lucencies
e. Stress fractures

61. A 1 y/o presents to the ER with bloody vomiting and CT demonstrates a pancreatic
psuedocyst. The most likely diagnosis:
a. Cystic Fibrosis
b. Child abuse
c. Pancreatitis
d. Pancreas divisum

62. Regarding pediatric trauma:

a. Injury at C1-2 more common than C6-7
b. Fractures are more common than ligamentous injury
c. Tear-drop fracture is easily missed

63. The amount of rotation at the upper limit of normal of C1 on C2 is:

a. 25 degrees
b. 35 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 55 degrees
e. 65 degrees

64. The most specific sign of a PE on CTA is:

a. Filling defect
b. Mural wall thrombus
c. Pulmonary artery wall thickening
 d. Pulmonary artery web

65. Child with hand X-ray demonstrates enlarged 2nd and 3rd finger, most likely diagnosis:
a. Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome
b. Macrodystrophia lipomatosis
c. Marfan Syndrome
d. Lymphangioma

66. Most common anterior mediastinal germ cell tumor:

a. Teratoma
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Seminoma

67. Suprasellar mass with calcification is MOST likely:

a. Rathke cleft cyst
b. Craniopharyngioma
c. Pituitary adenoma

68. Regarding parasellar masses:

a. Pituitary adenoma enhances more than normal pituitary tissue.
b. Hamartoma of Tuber Cinereum avidly enhances.

69. Stuck twin represents:

a. Dichorion and diamnion
b. Monochorion and diamnion
c. Monochorion and monoamnion
d. Dichorion and monoamnion

70. Ascending aortic aneurysm is seen most commonly with:

a. Valve disease
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Cystic medial necrosis

71. Sinus venosus is associated with:

a. Left superior vena cava
b. Interrupted IVC with azygous continuation

72. An MRI of the brain demonstrates increased T2 signal in the medial temporal lobe
and cingulated gyrus, without contrast enhancement:
a. Herpes
b. Meningitis
c. Tumor

73. 2000 screening exams are done, and 250 are brought back for further evaluation. 50
of those called back for biopsies. 40 core biopsies are done, with 30 negative and 10
positive for carcinoma. 8 surgical biopsies are done, and 5 are negative and 3 are positive
for carcinoma. What is the positive predictive value for biopsies?
a. 15%
b. 27%
c. 48%

74. In MR Spectroscopy, what is the relationship between creatine, choline, and N-acetyl
aspartate (NAA):
a. Creatine is elevated in rapid cell turnover
b. Choline is relatively constant in a wide range of pathologies
c. Choline is most recognizable in normal subjects
d. NAA is most common in neurons and axons
e. NAA is higher concentration in white matter

75. An octreotide scan is LEAST helpful in:

a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Small cell lung cancer
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Islet Cell tumor
e. Carcinoid

76. PET is currently NOT an approved indication for:

a. Glioblastoma vs abscess
b. Evaluate for recurrent colorectal cancer
c. Identify seizure focus
d. Bronchogenic cancer staging
e. Myocardial viability

77. Which is a quality control used to perform thin layer chromatography for chemical
purity:
a. Free tech and saline
b. Stanus chelate and saline
c. Hydroxy and saline
d. Free tech in acetone
e. Technetium oxide in acetone

78. 78 y/o female with long standing cough, chest CT shows consolidation in the right
middle lobe. MOST LIKELY pathogen is:
a. MAC
b. Staph
c. Strep
d. TB

79. A graph depicting uptake of radioactive I-123 vs time with 5 different lines on it
labeled A – E, and then had to state which was LEAST accurate with:
a. Subacute thyroditis
 b. Grave disease
c. Plummers

There was only one incorrectly paired with the appropriate graph, and it was subacute
thyroiditis, as it showed a line which corresponded to 40% iodine uptake (it should have
been 1%).

80. Graph showing signal vs. time, with different curves on a breast MRI. Needed to
know the expected contrast uptake and washout in a breast cancer mass.

81. Knee MRI demonstrates high T2 signal on the lateral femoral condyle, and a fracture
fragment of the medial patella. This MOST likely injury is:
a. ACL
b. Medial retinaculum
c. Laterl retinaculum
d. Ilio-tibial band

82. Pt post liver transplant, with dilated bile ducts. MOST likely injury involves:
a. Portal vein
b. Hepatic vein
c. Hepatic artery

83. What is FALSE in Alzheimers:

a. Lentiform atrophy
b. Temporal lobe atrophy
c. Most common acquired degenerative disease

84. In Huntingtons chorea, a HMPOA scan may demonstrate:

a. Decreased signal in the caudate nuclei
b. Increased signal in the caudate nuclei
c. Temporal lobe atrophy
d. Lentiform atrophy

85. The first positive lymph node in testicular cancer would be:
a. Obturator
b. Lumbar
c. Inguinal

86. Renal artery parvus tardus wave form is a sign of:

a. Stenosis proximal
b. Stenosis distal

87. A velocity encoded phase cine MR at 200 cm/sec, which of the following will cause
aliasing:
a. -200 cm/sec
b. 0 cm/sec
 c. 100 cm/sec
d. 200 cm/sec
e. 300 cm/sec

88. Endometrial thickening is seen in all EXCEPT:

a. Hyperplasia
b. Carcinoma
c. Polyp
d. Adenomyosis
e. Tamoxifen treatment

89. Initial management of a hepatic hydrothorax is:

a. Chest tube
b. Salt restriction and diuretic
c. TIPS
d. Pleurodesis
e. Shunt

90. All are associated with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome except?

A. Ovarian Cancer
B. Gastric cancer
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Pancreatic cancer
E. Transitional cell cancer

91. Which of the following is least associated with ileocolic infection?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Entameba histolytica
D. Giardia
E. Campylobacter

92. Which of the following pancreaticoduodenal malignancies is not considered

hypervascular?

A. Islet cell tumors

B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Microcystic tumor

93. Delayed 10-20 minute images is most useful for diagnosing which? (common
repeater)

A. HCC
 B. Metastatic colon CA
C. Cholangiocarcinoma
D. Fibrolamellar HCC

94. Which is least associated with autoimmune pancreatitis?

A. Diffuse enlargement of the pancreas

B. Diffuse irregular narrowing of the pancreatic duct
C. Lymphocyte infiltration and fibrosis
D. Peripancreatic inflammation

95. Which tumor most commonly involves the testicle?

A. Lung cancer
B. Colon cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Lymphoma

96. In an adult, which is the most likely cause of smooth, diffuse enlargement of the
bilateral kidneys?

A. Obstruction
B. Pyelonephritis
C. HIV
D. Chronic renal failure
E. Glomerulonephritis

97. An elderly man with longstanding hypertension and a 2 cm adrenal lesion

demonstrating signal dropout on MRI? (common repeater)

A. Non functioning adrenal adenoma and essential hypertension

B. Conn syndrome, functioning adrenal adenoma

98. 25 y/o male with cough and fever for two weeks, LLL infiltrate, new lump on left
lower back?

A. S. pneumo
B. Lung CA
C. Actinomyces
D. Nocardia
E. Fungus

99. 2 yrs s/p BMT, with progressive worsening SOB over several weeks. Normal CXR
and non-contrast CT. What should the step be?

A. Pulm angio
 B. V/Q
C. Inspiratory/Expiratory CT

100. All are positive in 3 phase bone scan except?

A. Foot infection in diabetic

B. AVN of the hip in reparative phase
C. Metastatic melanoma
D. Necrotic Toe in patient with PVD

101. Pt with metastatic small cell lung cancer with several months of mental status
changes and seizures who has increased T2 signal involving the bilateral temporal lobes
right greater then left, without associated enhancement. What is the etiology?

A. Herpes encephalitis
B. Limbic encephalitis
C. Meningeal carcinoma
D. Sarcoid
E. Raccoon-roundworm encephalitis

102. NECT showing increased density in basilar cisterns, LP shows blood. 4 vessel angio
shows no aneurysm. Likely etiology is?

A. Dural venous sinus rupture.

B. Venous malformation hemorrhage
C. AVM rupture
D. Non-aneurysmal SAH

103. Pt with lid lag and meiosis (horner syndrome). What is the most likely etiology?

A. Posterior communication artery aneurysm

B. Anterior communicating artery aneurysm
C. Cervical carotid artery dissection
D. Ophthalmoplegic migraine

104. Which statement about the facial nerve is false? (common repeater)

A. Portions can normally demonstrate enhancement

B. Exits the stylomastoid foramen
C. Supplies taste to posterior 2/3 of the tongue
D. Divides the deep and superficial parotid

105. Absolute contraindication for TIPS? (common repeater)

 A. Bud chiari
B. Right heart failure
C. Right heart block
D. Left heart block

106. Blue toe syndrome is secondary to?

A. Venous thrombosis of the deep veins

B. Microemboli from proximal atheromatous disease

107. Regarding AAA, which of the following is false?

A. For a 4 cm AAA the risk of surgery is greater then the risk of rupture
B. 90% are infrarenal
C. Commonly extend into the common iliac arteries
D. The IMA is commonly occluded at the time of diagnosis

108. The most typical angiographic appearance of angiodysplasia is?

A. Contrast extravasation in the ascending colon

B. Delayed arterial blush
C. Early appearance and persistence opacification draining vein

109. The cause of compression in May Thurner? (common repeater)

A. Right common iliac artery

B. Left common iliac artery
C. Right common iliac vein
D. Left common iliac vein

110. Removing the peel-away sheath for a central venous catheter when the pt develops
SOB. What is the likely etiology? (common repeater)

A. Dissection
B. Thromboembolus
C. Air Embolus

111. All can demonstrate enhanced through transmission except?

A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangioma
C. HCC
D. Colon CA mets
E. Focal fat
112. Pt who is post liver transplant, with dilated bile ducts, what else should be
evaluated? (common repeater)

A. Portal vein
B. Hepatic artery
C. Hepatic veins

Questions about how to calculate odds ratio, positive predictive value.

Question regarding type I and type II errors.

113. Immediately after contrast administration, your patient becomes hypotensive and
bradycardic, your initial management would include:
a. Epinephrine
b. Atropine
c. Trendelenburg
d. Call a code and run away

114. Interventional procedure in a thrombocytopenic patient, when should you start

running the platelets:
a. After procedure complete
b. At beginning of procedure
c. 1 hour prior
d. 2 hours prior
e. 3 hours prior to procedure

115. Regarding lateral epicondilitis, the main structure involved is:

a. Common flexor origin
b. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
c. LCL
d. Anconeus muscle

116. Location of Cowper’s ducts?

a. Mebranous urethra
b. Prostatic urethra
c. Bulbous urethra

117. What attaches to the base of the fifth metatarsal?

a. Peroneus brevis
b. Peroneus longus

118. Diffuse increased T2 signal in the femoral head and neck indicates?
a. Acute osteoporosis
b. Avascular necrosis

119. Patient with decreased O2 and normal CO2?

 a. Diffusion abnormality
b. PE

120. Location of the pulmonic valve in relation to the aortic valve?

a. Superior, anterior, and to the left
b. Superior, anterior, and to the right
c. Inferior, anterior, and to the left
d. Inferior, anterior, and to the right

121. Nodal or metastatic classification of ipsilateral supraclvicular node?

a. N0.
b. N1.
c. N2.
d. N3.
e. M1.

122. Need increased resolution for microcalcifications on spot view

a. Better resolution screen film combination
b. Larger compression paddle
c. Higher kvp
d. 0.3 focal spot

123. All are related to smoking except?

a. Respiratory bronchiolitis
b. Centrilobular emphysema

124. Which cranial nerve runs between the PCA and posterior superior cerebellar artery?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
e. VI
f. VII

125. What causes a hyperdense liver, spleen, and pancreas on CT?

a. Primary hemochromatosis
b. Secondary hemochromatosis

126. Which is true about the epidemiology of breast cancer?

a. A woman in her 40’s has a 1 in 8 risk
b. Number 1 cause of cancer death in women
c. Worse prognosis in African women

127. Posterior fossa mass centered in the cerebellum with cystic changes?
a. Astrocytoma
b. Ependymoma
 c. Medulloblastoma

128. What is true about branchial cleft cysts?

a. Located commonly at the angle of the mandible
b. Most commonly 1st branchial cleft

129. What is a Type II endoleak?

a. Inadequate seal at the graft ends
b. Collateral flow into the aneurysmal sac
c. Defect in the graft or between graft segments

130. Fracture at the base of the 5th metatarsal is associated with which of the following
tendons?
a. Peroneus longus
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Flexor hallucis longus

131. Tennis elbow question of some kind?

a. Flexor tendons
b. Extensor tendons

132. Best view for calculation of EF on cardiac MRI?

a. Horizontal axis
b. Short axis
c. Vertical axis

133. What is not associated with Budd-Chiari?

a. Behcet’s disease
b. Nocturnal hemoglobinuria
c. Metastasis
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma

134. Normal ultrasound findings post TIPS procedure include all of the following except?
a. High velocity turbulent flow through stent
b. Hepatofugal flow in the intrahepatic portal vein
c. Reversal of flow in the hepatic vein away from the inferior vena cava

135. Epidural hematoma is associated with all of the following except?

a. Crosses sutures
b. Crosses pleural refletions
c. Associated with rupture of middle meningeal artery

136. BI-RADS calcification of a recurrent carcinoma in an area of previous known cancer

is?
a. 0.
 b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 3.
e. 4.
f. 5.
g. 6.

137. All of the following will decrease motion unsharpness on a mammogram except?
a. Increase KVP
b. Increase compression
c. Increase film thickness
d. Increase MAS

138. Sequence needed for breast MRI is?

a. Gradient echo
b. Fat suppress sequence
c. Contrast NOT needed

139. Child with mural enhancing posterior fossa mass, most likely cause?
a. Astrocytoma
b. GBM
c. Ependymoma
d. Lymphoma

140. A really strange drawing of CC and MLO view of breast. Know the quadrants.

141. Calcification pattern on a mammogram consistent with carcinoma?

a. Scattered
b. Round lucent
c. Segmental
d. Clustered with similar size

142. Venous malformations associated with?

a. Spontaneuos hemorrhage
b. Decrease in size with age of the child
c. Cavernous malformation

143. 37 y/o female with diffuse increased T2 signal in the femoral heads, most likely is?
a. Avascular necrosis
b. Fracture
c. Transitory osteoporosis

144. Associated with schizencephaly?

a. Lined dysplastic gray matter
b. Myelomeningocele
145. All of the following are true regarding a CT of a hypotensive child except:
a. No bowel wall enhancement
b. Increased kidney enhancement
c. Collapsed IVC

146. Which transducer is best to evaluate a superficial structure?

a. Linear array
b. Curved array
c. Phased array

147. Which is true regarding PET scanning?

a. Begin imaging 20 minutes post injection
b. Give long acting insulin subq if diabetic and glucose greater than 200
c. Patient should lay quietly between injection and scanning
d. Give glucose load prior to scan

148. Examination used to diagnose Asherman’s syndrome:

a. CT
b. US
c. Hysterosalpingogram

149. CT scan demonstrates bilateral enlarged kidneys with increased enhancement, most
likely etiology:
a. HIV nephropathy
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Obstruction
d. Renal vein thrombosus

150. Most common single benign lucent rib lesion in an adult?

a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Enchondroma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Metastasis

151. Infectious etiology commonly associated with the cecum or colon?

a. Giardia
b. Yersinia
c. Campylobacter

152. The uterine artery is a branch of the?

a. External iliac artery
b. Anterior branch of the internal iliac artery
c. Posterior branch of the external iliac artery

153. Child with increased T2 signal in the superior aspect of the patella?
a. Fractured patella
 b. Subluxed patella
c. Jumpers knee

154. V/Q scan demonstrates one large unmatched and on moderate unmatched defect in a
normal chest x-ray:
a. Low probability
b. Intermediate probability
c. High probability

155. What is the antidote for benzodiazepine?

a. Flumazenil
b. Atropine
c. Epinephrine

156. In a patient with posterior urethral valves, which is considered a good prognosis?
a. Echogenic kidney cysts
b. 24 weeks
c. Urine ascites
d. Oligohydramnios

157. Which is the best location for a breast biopsy?

a. Place needle 1 cm proximal to the middle of the lesion
b. Place needle tip on skin, 1 mm away from the probe
c. Needle should be perpendicular to the long axis of the probe.

158. Where is the vestibular nerve position in the IAC?

159. Which is not likely to mimic achalasia?

a. Chagas
b. Diabetes
c. Dermatomyositis
d. Cardiac Cancer
e. Lung Cancer

160. Testicular cancer metastasizes to which?

a. Infrarenal/retrocaval lymph nodes
b. Iliac nodes

161. Patient with a SLAP lesion, mechanism most likely is?

a. Downhill skiing
b. Overhead throwing
c. Skeet shooting
d. Weight lifting
e. Tennis

162. Most common area for gastric diverticulum?

 a. Mid-greater curvature
b. Cardia
c. Distal gastric curvature

163. When evaluating the spinal canal size for narrowing, which is least important?
a. Original size of the canal
b. Osteophytes
c. Disc bulging
d. Dentate ligament

164. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is most regulated by?

a. K+
b. Increased renal artery pressure
c. Renin

165. Which is false in regards to the sella turcica?

a. Rathkes pouch typically have calcification
b. Craniopharyngiomas typically calcify
c. Normal pituitary gland has rapid enhancement

166. In an experiment, Drug A was found to be better than Drug B, which was later
proven incorrect. This is an example of what?
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Gamma error

167. Partial molar pregnancy is most often?

a. Normal dipole
b. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 22
d. 45 X

168. Orbital hemangioma, is most associated with?

a. Retrobulbar
b. Slowly increases in size
c. Well-defined on imaging
d. Most common vascular lesion in the orbit