201.

Hypotension is caused by-

a) Bradykinin
b) Actin
c) Myosin
d) Relaxin
Ans.A

202. Which vessel regulates blood flow-

a) Artery
b) Arterioles
c) Venules
d) Capillaries
Ans.B

203. Conduction velocity in AV node & SA node-

a) 0.05 meter/sec
b) 0.5 mefer/sec
c) 1 meter/sec
d) 5 meter/sec
Ans.A

204. Organ with maximum blood flow per unit mass-

a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Brain
Ans.A

205. Which of the following is true about gastrin-

a) Secreted by fundus of stomach
b) Secretion is increased by HCL
c) Principal form is G17
d) Acts through cGMP
Ans.C

206. Action of amylase secreted from pancreas-

a) Digestion of starch
b) Digestion of Maltose
c) Digestion of Maltotriose
d) Digestion of Lactulose
Ans.A

207. Delayed afterdepolarization implies-

a) Increased intracellular Ca2+
b) Excessive catecholamines
c) Digitalis toxicity
d) All of the above
Ans.D

208. True about cubulin receptors-

a) Present in small intestine
b) Prevents proteinuria
c) Prevents steatorrhea
d) All are correct
Ans.B
 Cubilin is a potential diagnostic and prognostic cancer biomarker for kidney cancer.
 Based on patient survival data, high levels of cubilin in tumor cells is a favourable
prognostic biomarker in renal cell carcinoma .
 Receptor-mediated endocytosis is responsible for protein reabsorption in the proximal
tubule. This process involves two interacting receptors, megalin and cubilin

209. PAH is used to measure-

a) Extracellular fluid
b) Glomerular filtration rate
c) Renal plasma flow
d) Plasma value
Ans.C

210.How to increase reabsorption of iso-osmolar fluid from glomerular filterate-

a) Increased peritubular capillary pressure
b) Decreased osmotic pressure in peritubular capillaries
c) Increased corticomedullary osmotic gradient
d) Increased filtered load
Ans.D

211. Slowest acting buffer system in the body -

a) PCO2 buffer
b) Respiratory buffer
c) Chemical buffer
d) Renal buffer
Ans.D

212.Maximum potassium reabsorption occurs in-

a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule
c) Cortical collecting duct
d) Medullary collecting duct
Ans.A
213. In Kidney which of the following is true-
a) Osmolarity of tubular fluid in PCT gradually increases
b) Osmolarity of fluid in DCT is more than in Bowmann's capsule
c) Fluid coming out of descending limb of loop of Henle is hypotonic
d) Osmolarity of medullary interstitium is more than plasma
Ans.D

214. Standard urea clearance in an normal adult is-

a) 20 ml
b) 50 ml
c) 100 ml
d) 200 ml
Ans.B

215. Normal urea excretion rate is-

a) 1-2 gm per day
b) 10-20 gm/day
c) 20-40 gm per day
d) 50-100 gm/day
Ans.B

216.Disulfide bonds are formed by pairs of which aminoacid?

a) Methionine
b) Homocysteine
c) Serine
d) Cysteine
Ans.D

217.Which of the following is true about HPLC and gas chromatography?

a) In Gas Chromatography, the stationary phase is always solid
b) In HPLC, the stationary phase is solid
c) In HPLC, the mobile phase is a liquid or solid
d) In Gas chromatography, the mobile phase is always gas
Ans.D

218.Which vitamin deficiency is seen in vegetarians especially -

a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B3
d) Vitamin B2
Ans.A

219. Which amino acid is required in infants and not in adults?

a) Histidine
b) Glycine
c) Isoleucine
d) Valine
Ans.A

220. Which micronutrient deficiency causes anemia-

a) Copper
b) Molybdenum
c) Selenium
d) Flurine
Ans.A

221. Which of the following is a component of Coenzyme A?

a)  Alanine
b) Glycine
c) Pyrrolysine
d) Selenocysteine
Ans.A

222.B12 deficiency causes -

a) Demyelination
b) Dermatitis
c) Burning foot syndrome
d) Beriberi
Ans.A

223. Deficiency of zinc causes all except -

a) Diarrhea
b) Acrodermatitis
c) Vitamin A deficiency
d) Neuropathy
Ans.D

224. Hemopexin binds -

a) Heme
b) Hemoglobin
c) Iron
d) Bilirubin
Ans.A

225.Common substrate for purine and pyrimidine synthesis are all except -
a) Glutamine
b) Glycine
c) Aspartate
d) Carbon dioxide
Ans.B

226. Guanine ring - True are all except -

a) It has 9 atoms
b) Aspartate acts as the amino group donor for forming guanine
c) Carbonyl group at C6 acts as a hydrogen bond acceptor
d) It forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine
Ans.B

227.The protein responsible for packing of DNA in chromosomes is -

a) Histone
b) Histamine
c) Histidine
d) Cyclin
Ans.A

228.Which of the following can carry larger genome ?

a) Plasmids
b) BAC
c) YAC
d) Cosmids
Ans.C
Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC) can carry large segments of DNA from other
species, like human

229. Pulsed gel electrophoresis is used for-

a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Ribosome
d) Protein
Ans.A

230. Which type of prevention is not used CHD-

a) Primordial
b) Primary
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary
Ans.D

231.Primordial prevention in myocardial infarction are all except -

a) Maintenance of normal body weight
b) Change in life style
c) Change in Nutritional habits
d) Screening for hypertension
Ans.D

232.WHO criteria for diagnosis of diabetes is -

a) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 200 mg/100ml
b) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 180 mg/lOOml
c) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 200 mg/100ml
d) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 180 mg/lOOml
Ans.C

233.Western equine encephalitis virus is transmitted by -

a) Anophales mosquito
b) Culex mosquito
c) Sandfly
d) Aedes mosquito
Ans.B

234.Bimodal distribution is seen in -

a) Thyroid carcinoma
b) Hodgkins lymphoma
c) Renal carcinoma
d) Liver carcinoma
Ans.B

235.Rice is deficient in which amino acid -

a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Methonine
d) Cystone
Ans.B

236. Rice protein is deficient in -

a) Methionine
b) Cysteine
c) Lysine
d) Tryptophon
Ans.C

237.Endemic ascites is caused by -

a) Crotolaria seads
b) KhesariDal
c) Lathyrus sativus
d) Claviceps fusiformis
Ans.A

238.Reagent used to detect the microrganism in milk before pasteurization –

a) Crystal violet
b) Methylene blue
c) Phosphatase
d) Nitric acid
Ans.B
239.Acceptable noise level in industries -
a) 25-30 dB
b) 30-40 dB
c) 40-50 dB
d) 60-80 dB
Ans.C

240.Replacement & periodic examination in radiation industary is recommended -

a) Every month
b) Every 2 months
c) Every 6 months
d) Every year
Ans.B

241.True about mosquito preventive nets are all except-

a) Hole size < 0.0475
b) 150 holes per square inch
c) Best pattern in circular
d) There should be no rent
Ans.C

242.Process of mixing waste with cement before disposal is known as -

a) Inertization
b) Controlled tipping
c) Sanitary landfill
d) Burial
Ans.A

243.If 25 persons are working on a project for 30 years. There is how many person-years of
employement.
a) 75
b) 750
c) 120
d) 1200
Ans.B

244. Community development block covers a population of-

a)- 3000-5000 .
b) 20000-30000
c) 30000-50000
d) 80000-120000
Ans.D

245.Drug used for euvolemic hyponatremia in patient with advanced congestive heart failure is -
a) Tolvaptan
b) Nesiritide
c) Hydrocortisone
d) Metoprolol
Ans.A

246.Which of the following drugs can be used for secondary prevention of coronary artery
disease?
a) Gemfibrozil
b) Colestipol
c) Temisartan
d) Vitamin E
Ans.A

247.Drug used in treatment of peripheral vascular disease which acts by increasing flexibility of
RBC membrane and increasing micro circulation?
a) Cyclandelate
b) Xanhinol nicotinate
c) Pentoxiphylline
d) Cilostazole
Ans.C

248.Which drug/s is/ are used to control hypertension intra operatively?

a) Nitroglycerine
b) Nitroprusside
c) Beta blockers
d) All the above
Ans.D

249.Overall action of caffeine on heart rate is -

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No effect
d) First increases then decreases
Ans.B

250.Potassium secretion is decreased by action on late distal tubule by?

a) Spironolactone
b) Thiazide
c) Furosemide
d) Acetazolamide
Ans.A

251.Which drug abolishes corticomedullary osmotic gradient -

a) Furosemide
b) Thiazide
c) Spironolactone
d) Triamterene
Ans.A

252.Thiazides and loop diuretics both have opposite action on which of the following ions -
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Calcium
d) Chloride
Ans.C

253.Which of the following anesthetic drug is contraindicated in hepatic failure?

a) Desflurane
b) Remifentanil
c) Halothane
d) Isoflurame
Ans.C

254.Opioid available as nasal spray formulation is -

a) Tramadol
b) Codiene
c) Butorphanol
d) Buprenorphine
Ans.C

255.Which of the following belongs to NaSSA group of drugs?

a) Amoxetine
b) Mirtazapine
c) Duloxetine
d) Venalafaxine
Ans.B

256.Which dopamine agonist used as antiparkinsonian drug is used as transdermal patch -

a) Pergolide
b) Rotigotine
c) Pramipexole
d) Ropinorole
Ans.B

257. Most toxic antiepileptic drug is-

a) Phenytoin
b) Valproate
c) Carbamazepine
d) Lamotrigine
Ans.C

258. Ziconotide acts by blocking -

a) Voltage gated Na channel
b) Voltage gated Ca channel
c) Ligand gated Na channel
d) Ligand gated Ca channel
Ans.B

259.Which of the following drug/s can cause hirsutism?

a) Minoxidil
b) Cyclosporine
c) Tacrolimus
d) All of the above
Ans.D

260.Neuromuscular blockade produced by rocuronium can

be reversed by -
a) Sugammadex
b) Flumazenil
c) Blood transfusion
d) Plasmapheresis
Ans.A

261.Her2/neu gene is on which chromosome?

a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 17
Ans.D

262. Hippocampal lesions shown in histopathology below are seen in?

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/4/4c/Hirano_bodies_in_the_Hippocampus_in_
an_old_person_with_Alzheimer-related_pathology%2C_HE_2.JPG

a) Rabies
b) Alzheimer's disease
c) Pick's disease
d) Viral encephalitis
Ans.B
Hirano bodies
263.Which tumor arises from organ of Zuckerkandl?
a) Paraganglioma
b) Schwannoma
c) Astrocytoma
d) Medulloblastoma
Ans.A

264.Which is the nerve sheath tumor according to WHO?

a) Schwannoma
b) Paraganglioma
c) Medulloblastoma
d) Astrocytoma
Ans.A

265.Transfusion associated graft vs host disease can be prevented by?

a) Irradiation
b) Washing
c) Chemical treatment
d) All of the above
Ans.A

266. Patient has eosinophilia , Total serum IgE 1200 IU/ml . This condition is associated with?

a) Kertagener syndrome
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Good Pasture syndrome
d) Silicosis
Ans.B
Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
A contrast-enhanced CT of the chest shows severe bronchiectasis in the midlung zones with
grossly dilated airways and cystic changes.
267.Focal length of high power objective lens of microscope?
a) 40mm
b) 16mm
c) 20mm
d) 4mm
Ans.D

268.Fracture at the angle of mandible most commonly involves which tooth?

a) Second premolar
b) First molar
c) Incisor
d) Third molars
Ans.D

269.Grey powder (chalk + mercury) is used in -

a) Poroscopy
b) Cheiloscopy
c) Dactylography
d) Palato prints
Ans.C

270.Krogmans table system is used for -

a) Age determination
b) Sex determination
c) Dental examination
d) Calculating estimated height
Ans.B
271.Xiphoid fuses with sternum by what age -
a) 30 years '
b) 35 years
c) 40 years
d) 45 years
Ans.

272. All of the following ossification centers are present at 7 months of intrauterine life except -
a) Talus
b) Calcaneum
c) Clavicle
d) Olecranon
Ans.D

273.How many superadded teeth appear in each jaw?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans.C

274. Primary dentition completes at -

a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
Ans.B

275. Which X-ray needs to be taken for 16 year old male is -

a) Wrist
b) Elbow
c) Shoulder
d) Ilium
Ans.B

276.Which is the teeth referred to if by haderup classification it is denoted as (- 4) ?

a) Upper canine
b) Lower first premolar
c) Upper second premolar
d) Lower first molar
Ans.B
https://i.pinimg.com/originals/a6/c8/8a/a6c88a6975ad1520ef27ff9dd93afb70.jpg

277.All of the following are true about bony labyrinth except -

a) Consists of utricle and saccule
b) Layer of laminar bone
c) Cochlea takes 2Vi turns
d) Each ampullated end .of semicircular canal opens independently
Ans.A

278.Cells of the Organ of Corti which are vulnerable to noise induced damage are -
a) Inner hair cells
b) Outer hair cells
c) Deiter's cells
d) Cells of Hensen
Ans.B

279. Reissner's membrane lies between -

a) Scala vestibuli and scala media
b) Scala media and scala tympani
c) Cochlea and semicircular canal
d) Saccule and utricle
Ans.A

280.Bleeding ear discharge is mostly due -

a) Glomus tumour
b) Otosclerosis
c) Otitis media with effusion
d) Acoustic neuroma
Ans.A

281.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with tinnitus, loss of balance,
hearing loss and a CP angle tumor on imaging -
a) Acoustic neuroma
b) Glomus tumor
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Osteoma
Ans.A

282.A 15 year old male has nominal aphasia. There is also history of scanty, foul smelling
discharge in the past. The patient reports of some bleeding when cleaning the
ear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Extradural abscess
b) Temporal lobe abscess
c) Cavernous thrombosis
d) Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
Ans.B

283.True about deafness due to serous otitis media is all except -

a) Speech defects
b) Profound loss of hearing
c) Type B tympanogram on impedence audiometry
d) Associated with earache
Ans.B

284.Most common cause of congenital sensineuronal hearing loss -

a) Parvovirus
b) CMV
c) Rubella
d) Toxoplasmosis
Ans.B

285. An adult diabetic man presented with sudden right facial swelling, . Contrast enhanced
MRI is shown in Figure . Most common nerve involved in this condition is –
https://storage.ning.com/topology/rest/1.0/file/get/141256855?
profile=RESIZE_930x&width=737

a) Abducens
b) Trochlear nerve
c) Oculomotor nerve
d) Facial nerve
Ans.A
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
An adult diabetic man presented with sudden right facial swelling, proptosis and complete
ophthalmoplegia. He had undergone upper tooth extraction on same side four days
previously. Contrast enhanced MRI shows the following changes on right side:
1-Ethmoiditis.
2-Periorbital inflammation (edematous enhanced skin and subcutaneous tissues).
3-Proptosis.
4-Meningeal enhancement consistent with meningitis (White arrow on axial).
5-Enhancing pterygoid muscles consistent with masticator space infection (curved arrow on
coronal).
6-Swollen non-enhancing cavernous sinus = cavernous sinus thrombosis (open arrows).
7-Narrowed internal carotid artery (green arrows).
Cavernous sinus thrombosis most commonly results from contiguous spread of infection
from the sinuses or middle third of the face, or less commonly dental abscess or orbital
cellulitis. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common infectious microbe, found in 50% to
60% of the cases. CST is a clinical diagnosis, however MRI with contrast is the modality of
choice to confirm its presence and to differentiate it from alternatives e.g. orbital cellulitis,
which may have a similar clinical presentation.

286.Prolonged blockade of Eustachian tube leads to -

a) Atelectatic ear
b) Cholesteatoma
c) Perforation
d) All of the above
Ans.D

287. Gorlins formula is used to calculate

a) Area of stenotic aortic valve
b) Amount of daily calorie intake
c) Body mass index
d) Basal metabolic rate
Ans.A

288. Which of the following is a feature of first degree AV block?

a) PR interval > 200 ms
b) Inversion of T wave
c) Progressive shortenting of PR interval
d) Presence of U wave
Ans.A

289. Which of the following is an electrocardiographic feature of pulmonary hypertention?

a) T wave inversion
b) Presence of U wave
c) SI, Q3, T3 pattern
d) PR prolongation
Ans.A

290.Which of the following is true about rheumatic fever -

a) Characteristic manifestation of carditis in previously unaffected individuals is mitral stenosis
b) Chorea occurs in the absence of other manifestations after prolonged latent period
c) Isolated aortic valve involvement is most common
d) 90% of the patients with acute rheumatic fever proceed to rheumatic eart disease
Ans.B

291. Orthodeoxia is a feature of -

a) Hepatorenal syndrome
b) Hepatopulmonary syndrome
c) Hepatic encephalopathy
d) Hepatic failure
Ans.B

292. Levine sign is seen in

a) Stable angina pectoris
b) Acute bronchial asthma
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Ans.A
https://images.slideplayer.com/23/6546628/slides/slide_33.jpg

293. Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for thrombolytic therapy in
acute ST segment elevation myocardial infarction?
a) Significant closed head injury
b) Symptoms suggestive of aortic dissection
c) Presence of metastatic intracranial malignancy
d) Pregnancy
Ans.D

294.Which of the following complications is not seen in the condition shown in 2D Echo
below ?
https://www.ahajournals.org/cms/attachment/f3695f57-fcb0-4ec8-8e5d-
e6dfe5c10e5e/263fig01.jpeg
a) Stroke
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Mitral stenosis
d) Ventricular arrhythmia
Ans.C
mitral valve prolapse

295.Which of the following included in revised jones criteria of rheumatic fever but not in the
original jones criteria?
a) Carditis
b) Polyarthritis
c) Erythema marginatum
d) C reactive protein
Ans.D

296.Intra arterial thrombolysis is indicated in-

a) Suspected occlusion of larger artery
b) History of subarachnoid hemorrhage
c) History of dementia
d) Stroke of > 6 hours duration
Ans.A

297.Valsalva maneuver increases intensity of murmur in which of the following pathologies?

a) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
b) Mitral regurgitation
c) Mitral valve prolapse
d) Aortic stenosis
Ans.A

298.Features of superior vena cava syndrome are all except which of the following?
a) Facial swelling
b) Hoarseness
c) Aggravation of symptoms in sitting position
d) Syncope
Ans.C

299. A 25 year old man presented with Stroke and DSA is shown in Figure. Which of the
following is a characteristic feature of this condition?
https://encrypted-tbn0.gstatic.com/images?
q=tbn:ANd9GcS__uQJfImWTndggDpoYLfbxABDGj5BsV4bnrVuC5fXfxJhUIA
a) Involvement of proximal internal carotid artery
b) Absence of vascular inflammation
c) Patients can be given anticoagulants without any additional risk
d) Surgical bypass from internal carotid artery to middle meningeal artery can be a treatment.
Ans.B

Moyamoya disease
http://scmag-
digi.strokeassociation.org/strokeconnection/2014winter/data/articles/img/Pc0100200.jpg
https://image.slidesharecdn.com/moyamoyadisease-130610120219-phpapp01/95/moyamoya-
disease-12-638.jpg?cb=1370865890

Moyamoya disease in a 25-year-old man.

DSA image (lateral view) shows extensive
collateral vessels from the lenticulostriate
circulation and the ophthalmic artery.
300.Modified wells criteria is used for initial assessment of patients with suspected -
a) Pulmonary embolism
b) Pleural Effusion
c) Cardiac tamponade
d) Myocardial infarction
Ans.A

51. Value of PaO2/ FiO2 chracteristic of ARDS is -

a) <200mmHg
b) 200 - 400 mmHg
c) 400 - 600 mmHg
d) 600 - 800 mmHg
Ans.A

52. Which of the following is not an evidenced based recommended therapy for the management
of acute respiratory distress syndrome
a) Low tidal volume mechanical ventilation
b) Inhaled nitric oxide
c) Minimize left atrial filling pressures
d) Prone positioning
Ans.B

53. Massive hemoptysis seen in -

a) Mitral stenosis
b) Aortic stenosis
c) Pulmonary stenosis
d) Aortic regurgitation
Ans.A

54.Investigation of choice to establish the diagnosis in case of nephrotic syndrome in adult is -

a) Renal biopsy
b) DMSA
c) CTScan
d) MRI
Ans.A

55. What is the cause of hyperkalemia in chronic kidney failure -

a) Release from cells
b) Hyperinsulinemia
c) Decreased excretion
d) Hyperaldosteronism
Ans.C

56. Routine use of recombinant erythropoietin in patients of chronic kidney disease obviates the
chances of -
a) Regular blood transfusions
b) Iron supplementation
c) Dialysis
d) Hyperkalemia
Ans.A

57. MDRD (Modification of Diet in Renal Disease) formula for estimation of GFR does not
include which of following?
a) Age
b) Sex
c) Race
d) Body weight
Ans.D

58. Arterial blood gas analysis of a patient reveals - pH 7.2, HCO3 36 mmol/L pCO2 70 mmHg.
The abnormality is -
a) Respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic acidosis
d) Respiratory acidosis with metabolic acidosis
Ans.A

59.pH 7-49, pCO2 38 mmHg, pO2 92 mmHg, HCO3 35, SaO2 97%. Which of the following
should not be used in the management of this patient?
a) Hyperventilation
b) Correction of serum potassium levels
c) Correction of extracellular fluid volume contraction
d) Use of dilute hydrochloric acid
Ans.A

60. Peritoneal dialysis uses which of the following processes?

a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Ultrafiltration
d) All the above
Ans.D

61. Most common cause of euvolemic hyponatremia is

a) SIADH
b) Burns
c) Cardiac failure
d) Acute renal failure
Ans.A

62. Hypo-osmotic dehydration is seen in -

a) Adrenocortical insufficiency
b) Decreased water intake
c) Chronic renal failure
d) SIADH
Ans.A

63. ECG changes shown in Figure are seen as a feature of –

https://litfl.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/ECG-Hyperkalaemia-peaked-T-waves-serum-
potassium-7.0.jpg
a) Conns syndrome
b) Gitelman's syndrome
c) Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2
d) Liddle syndrome
Ans.C
Hyperkalemia

64. Adverse effects of excess potassium intake can be seen in which of the following
individuals?
a) Patients with adrenal insufficiency
b) Patients with diabetes mellitus
c) Patients taking angiotensin receptor blockers
d) All the above
Ans.D

65. 28 years old male presents with fever, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia
and arthralgias. Liver is enlarged and tender and associated with right
upper quadrant discomfort. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
a) Acute viral hepatitis
b) Sickle cell disease
c) Thalasemia
d) Acute lymphocytic lymphoma
Ans.A

66. Hepatic secretory function is evaluated using -

a) Alkaline phosphatase
b) 5' nucleotidase
c) Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
d) Prothrombin time (PT)
Ans.D

67. Which antibodies are associated with autoimmune hepatitis type IIA -
a) ANA antibody
b) p ANCA
c) Anti histone antibody
d) Anti LKM antibody
Ans.D

68. A patient undergoes a lipid profile screening. On withdrawing the blood, it appears white in
colour. Which of the following is the most probable elevated lipoprotein?
a) Chylomicrons
b) HDL
c) LDL
d) Cholesterol
Ans.A

69. Typical symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease is

a) Regurgitation
b) Dysphagia
c) Chest pain
d) Cough
Ans.A

70. Bristol chart is used for?

a) Stool consistency
b) Nocturnal enuresis
c) Mental retardation
d) Cognitive development
Ans.A

71. During testing for lower motor neuron lesion involving nucleus ambiguous; uvula -
a) Is deviated to the affected side
b) Is deviated to the normal side
c) Remains in midline
d) Is not used in testing
Ans.B

72. Pseudobulbar palsy is seen with -

a) Unilateral corticobulbar lesions
b) Bilateral corticobulbar lesions
c) Cranial nerve IX involvement
d) Cranial nerve X involvement
Ans.B