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INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL, WAKAD

Date: 12/12/2018 PRELIMINARY EXAM I(2018-2019) Max.Marks:70


Standard: XII Subject: COMPUTER SCIENCE Time : 3 Hrs

General Instructions:
1.Programming Language is C++
2.All Questions are compulsory
3. There are 9 printed pages.
4.In Questions Q.1(f) ,Q.3(c) ,Q.3(d) ,Q.4(a) has Internal choices

Q.1(a) Write the type of C++ Operators (Arithmetic, Logical, and Relational Operators) from 2
the following: (i) ! (ii) == (iii) || (iv) %

(b) Write the names of the header files, which is/are essentially required to run/execute 1
the following C++ code:
void main()
{
char Msg[ ]="Mystic India";
for (int I=5;I<strlen(Msg);I++)
cout<<Msg[i];
cin.getline(Msg,20);
puts(Msg);
getch( );
}

(c ) Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any. Underline 2
each correction.
# include <iostream.h>
class Train
{
long TNo=101;
char TName[];
PUBLIC:
void Entry ( )
{
cin >>TNo; gets(TName);
}
void Display ( )
{
cout<<TNo<<“:”<<TName<<endl;
}
int getTNo(){ return TNo;}
};
void main( )
{
class Train T;
Entry. T( );
cout<<T.getTNo[ ];

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}

(d) Find the output of the following code. 3

#include<iostream.h>
#include<ctype.h>
void strcon(char *s)
{
for(int i=0,l=0;s[i]!='\0';i++,l++);

for(int j=0; j<l; j++)


{
if (isupper(s[j]))
s[j]=tolower(s[j])+2;
else if ( islower(s[j]))
s[j]=toupper(s[j])-2;
else
s[j]='@';
}
}
void main()
{
char *c="OBject Oriented Python ";
strcon(c);
cout<<"Text= "<<c<<endl;
}

(e ) Observe the following program and find output, which output(s) out of (i) to 2
(iv) will be expected from the program? What will be the minimum and the
maximum value assigned to the variable Pin?
Note: Assume all required header files are already being included in the program.
void main( )
{
randomize();
int Ar[ ]={10,7}, N;
int Pin=random(2) + 20 ;
for (int C=0;C<2;C++)
{
N=random(2) ;
cout<<Ar[N] +Pin<<”#”;
}
}
(i) 31#30# (ii) 30#28#
(iii) 30#27# (iv) 31#27#

(f ) Define a user defined function 2


void SplitArray( int a[ ],int m,int eAr[ ] ,int &eCount,int oAr[ ],int &oCount )
where a[ ] is input array with size m.
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eAr[ ] is array to store even elements of a[ ]
eCount is size of even array eAr[ ]
oAr[ ] is array to store odd elements of a[ ]
oCount is size of odd array oAr[ ]
For Example:If array a is: 2 6 3 9 4 7 5
eAr[ ] = 2 6 4
oAr[ ]= 3 9 7 5

OR
Write a function DisplayMaxMajDiag(int a[ ][ ] ,int m,int n) that displays maximum
major diagonal element of 2D Array a[][] with size mXn
For example: if 2D Array given is
12 78 65
78 34 45
23 66 86

Output should be: Maximum major Diagonal element is:86


Q.2 (a) Write any Two characteristics each of constructors and destructors of class. 2

(b ) Answer the questions (i) and (ii) after going through the following class : 2
class Hospital
{
int Pno, Dno;
public:
Hospital(int PN); //Function 1
Hospital(); //Function 2
Hospital(Hospital &H); //Function 3
void In(); //Function 4
void Disp(); //Function 5
};
void main()
{
Hospital H(20); } //Statement 1
(i) Which of the functions out of Function 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 will get
executed when Statement 1 is executed in the above code?

(ii) Write a C++ statement to declare a new object G with reference to


already existing object H using Function 3.

(c) Write the definition of a class Photo in C++ with following 4


description :
Private Members
Pno --Data member for Photo Number (an integer)
Category --Data member for Photo Category (a string)
Exhibit --Data member for Exhibition Gallery (a string)
FixExhibit ( ) --A member function to assign Exhibition Gallery as per Category ,as
shown in the following table

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Category Exhibit
Antique Zaveri
Modern Johnsen
Classic Terenida

Public Members
Register() --A function to allow user to enter values Pno, Category and call FixExhibit()
function.
ViewAll() --A function to display all the data members

(d ) Consider the following C++ code and answer the questions from (i) to (iv): 4
Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following code:
class AC
{
char Model[10];
char Date_of_purchase[10];
char Company[20];
public:
AC( );
void entercardetail( );
void showcardetail( );
};

class Accessories : protected AC


{
protected:
char Stabilizer[30];
char AC_cover[20];
public:
float Price;
Accessories( );
void enteraccessoriesdetails( );
void showaccessoriesdetails( );
};

class Dealer : public Accessories


{
int No_of_dealers;
char dealers_name[20];
int No_of_products;
public:
Dealer( );
void enterdetails( );
void showdetails( );
};

(i) How many bytes will be required by an object of class Dealer ?

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(ii) Which type of inheritance is illustrated in the above C++ code? Write the base
class and derived class name of class Accessories.

(iii) Write names of all the members which are accessible from the objects of
class Dealer.

(iv) Write names of all the members accessible from member functions of class
Dealer.

Q.3 (a) Suppose an array P containing integer elements is arranged in ascending order. Write a 3
user defined function in C++ to insert an integer element into that array. The function
should return an integer 0 to show overflow error and integer 1 to show successful
insertion. The function should have the parameters as
(i) an array P
(ii) the number DATA to be inserted
(iii) number of elements N.

(b) An array S[40][30] is stored in the memory along the column with each of the element 3
occupying 2 bytes, find out the memory location for the element S[20][10],
if the Base Address of the array is 5000.

(c ) Define a function queueDel( ) to delete a node from a dynamically allocated Queue 4


considering the following Structure definition.
struct node
{
char name[20];
int age;
node *Link;
};
class queue
{
node *front;
node *rear;
public:
queue()
{
front=NULL;
rear=NULL;
}
void queueDel( );
};

OR
Write a function to insert an element into a circular Queue. Function should handle the
overflow error.
(d ) Convert the following Infix expression to its equivalent Postfix 2
expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion :
U * V + R/(S-T)

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OR
Evaluate the following postfix notation .Show the status of stack after every step of
evaluation.
120 45 20 + 25 15 - + *
(e) Write a function in C++ which accepts a 2D array of integers and 2
its size as arguments and calculates sum of middle row and column.

For example
If the 2D array is
6 78
1 36
7 93
The following should be displayed :
Sum=7+3+9+1+3+6=29

Q.4(a) A binary file ‘‘games.dat’’ contains data of 10 games where each 1


game’s data is an object of the following class :
class game
{
int gameno;
char game_name[20];
public:
void enterdetails(){cin>>gameno; gets(game_name);}
void dispdetails(){cout<<gameno<<endl<<game_name;}
};
With reference to this information, write C++ statement in the blank given below to
move the file pointer to the end of file.
{
ifstream file;
game G;
file.open("games.dat",ios::binary|ios::in);
___________________________________

cout<<file.tellg();

}
OR
What is the difference between seekg( ) and tellg( )?

(b) Write a function spaceCount ( ) in C++, which should read each character of a text 2
file IMP.TXT, should count and display the occurrence of spaces
Example :
If the file content is as follows:
“Updated information is simplified by official websites.”
The spaceCount ( ) function should display the output as

Count = 6

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(c ) Write a definition for function DISPLAY( ) in C++ to read each record 3
of a binary file ITEMS .DAT, find and display those items, which are
priced more than 2000. Assume that the file ITEMS.DAT is created
with the help of objects of class cITEMS, which is defined below :
class cITEMS
{
int CODE;
char ITEM[20];
float PRICE;
public:
void Procure()
{
cin>>CODE; gets (ITEM);cin>>PRICE;
}
void View()
{
cout<<CODE<<”:”<<ITEM<<”:”<<PRICE<<endl;
}
float GetPrice(){return PRICE;}.
};

Q. 5 (a) How UPDATE is different from ALTER command? Explain with the proper SQL 2
Queries example.

(b ) Consider the following table EMPLOYEE and SALGRADE and answer the following 6
questions.
Table: EMPLOYEE
ECODE NAME DESIG SGRADE DOJ
101 Abdul Ahmad EXECUTIVE S03 23-MAR-2003
102 Ravi Chander HEAD-IT S02 12-FEB-2010
103 John Ken RECEPTIONIST S03 24-JUN-2009
105 Nazar Ameen GM S02 11-AUG-2006
108 Priyam Sen CEO S01 29-DEC-2004

Table : SALGRADE

SGRADE SALARY HRA


S01 56000 18000
S02 32000 12000
S03 24000 8000

Write SQL statements for the following.


i) To display all employee names along with their designation.
ii) To display total salary(i.e SALARY + HRA) of all the employees along with their
names.
iii) To display all employees names and DOJ who have joined on or before 11-AUG-2006
iv) To display total salary of SALGRADE table.
Give the output of the following SQL statements

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v) SELECT COUNT(SGRADE),SGRADE FROM EMPLOYEE GROUP BY SGRADE;
vi) SELECT MIN(DOJ),MAX(DOJ) FROM EMPLOYEE;
vii) SELECT NAME,SALARY FROM EMPLOYEE E, SALGRADE S
WHERE E.SGRADE=S.SGRADE AND E.ECODE<103;
viii) SELECT SGRADE,SALARY+HRA FROM SALGRADE WHERE SGRADE=’S02’;

Q.6( a) State and Verify Absorption Law. 2

(b) Draw the Logic Circuit for the following Boolean Expression 2
(YZ)’ + (XY)’ + (XZ)’

(c ) Derive a Canonical SOP expression for a Boolean function F, represented by the 1


following truth table :

X Y Z F(X,Y,Z)
0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1
( d) Reduce the following Boolean Expression to its simplest form using K-Map : 3
F(A,B,C,D) = π (0,1,2,3,4,10,11)
Q7
( a) What is the difference between guided and unguided media of transmission. 1

(b) Mayur opened his e-mail and found that his inbox was full of hundreds of unwanted 2
mails. It took him around two hours to delete these unwanted mails and find the
relevant ones in his inbox. What may be the cause of his receiving so many unsolicited
mails? What can Mayur do to prevent this happening in future?

(c ) What is MAC Address? 1

(d) Write the following abbreviations in their full form. 2


i) WWW ii) TCP/IP iii) CDMA iv) SIM

( e) Tech Up Corporation (TUC) is a professional consultancy company. The company is


planning to set up their new offices in India with its hub at Hyderabad. As a network
adviser, you have to understand their requirement and suggest to them the best
available solutions. Their queries are mentioned as (i) to (iv) below.

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Human Finance
Resource

Conference

Block to Block distances (in Mtrs.)

Block From Block To Distance


Human Conference 60
Resource
Human Finance 120
Resource
Conference Finance 80

Expected Number of Computers to be installed in each block

Block Computer
Human Resource 125
Finance 25
Conference 60
i) What will the most appropriate block, where TUC should plan to install their server ? 1

(ii) Draw a block to block cable layout to connect all the buildings in the most 1
appropriate manner for efficient communication.

iii) What will be the best possible connectivity out of the following, you will suggest to 1
connect the new setup of offices in Bangalore with its London based office?
a) infrared
b) Satellite Link
c) Ethernet Cable

(iv) Which of the following devices will be suggested by you to connect each computer 1
in each of the buildings?
a)Gateway
b)Switch
c) Modem

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INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL, WAKAD

Date: 11/01/2019 PRELIMINARY EXAM II(2018-2019) Max.Marks:70

Standard : XII SCI Subject: COMPUTER SCIENCE Duration:3 Hrs


SET A
General Instructions:
1.Programming Language is C++
2.All Questions are compulsory
3. There are 10 printed pages.
4.In Questions Q.1(f) ,Q.3(c) ,Q.3(d) ,Q.3( e),Q.4(a) has Internal choices

Q.1(a) Arrange the following operators in the Ascending order of their precedence i.e From 2
Lower precedence to Higher Precedence.
+ * - (Unary Minus) ++ sizeof( ) = = % !=

(b) Harini has started learning C++ and has typed the following program. When she 1
compiled the following code written by her ,she discovered that she needs to include
some header files to successfully compile and execute it.Write names of those
header files which are required to be included in the code(Do not include any header file
that is not required)
void main( )
{
int a,b;
float ans;
char name[10];
ans=(float)a+(float)b+2.5f;
cout<<ans<<endl;
cin.getline(name,10);
getche();
}

(c ) Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any. Underline 2
each correction.
Note:Assume all required header files are already included in the program.
#include<iostream.h>
#Define unsigned int size=50;

void main()
{
int big;
char flag='Y';
cin<<big;
if [big=100]
cout>>"Wrong input";
cout<<"Right input";
}

(d) Find the output of the following program: 2


void Encode(TEXT T)
{
int L=strlen(T);

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for(int C=1;C<L;C++)
{
if(isupper(T[c])
T[c]=T[c]+1;
else
if(T[C]==' ')
T[C]='#';
else
if(T[C]=='s' || T[C]=='i')
T[C]='@';
}
}

void main()
{
TEXT str="*CleanliNess is GodLineSs!”;
Encode(str);
cout<<str<<endl;
getch();
}

(e ) Study the following C++ program and select the possible output(s) from it : 2
Find the maximum and minimum value of RES.

#include<stdlib.h>
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
void main()
{
randomize();
char city[][4]={"APPLE","ORANGE","MANGO","BANANA"};
int RES;
for(int i=0 ; i<3 ; i++)
{
RES=random(2)+1;
cout<<city[RES]<<”@”;
}
}
(i) ORANGE@MANGO@BANANA@
(ii) ORANGE@MANGO@ORANGE@
(iii) MANGO@MANGO@ORANGE@
(iv) @MANGO@MANGO@ORANGE

(f ) Find the output of the following C++ program: 3


#include<iostream>
void execute(int &X ,int Y=200)
{
int TEMP=X+Y;
X+=TEMP;
if(Y!=200)
{
cout<<TEMP<<" "<<X<<" "<<Y<<endl;
}
}

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void main()
{
int A=50,B=20;
execute(B);
cout<<A<<" "<<B<<endl;
execute(A,B);
cout<<A<<" "<<B<<endl;
getch();
}

OR
Find the output of the following C++ program:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;

int x=2;
int main()
{
int x=4;
{
int x=8;
cout<< x;
cout<<endl;
}
cout<< x;
cout<<endl;
cout<< ::x;
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}

Q.2 (a) What is function overloading? Can constructors & Destructors be overloaded? 2

(b ) Observe the following C++ code and Answer the questions (i) and (ii) 2
class Customer
{
int cno;
char cname[20];
public :
Customer() // Function 1
{
cno=0;
cout<<"\nCustomer initialized with zero";
}
Customer(int pn)// Function 2
{
cno=pn;
cout<<"\nCustomer initialized";
}
~Customer( ) //Function 3
{

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cout<<"\nCustomer deinitialized";
}
};

void main()
{
Customer c1; //statement 1
Customer c2(100); //statement 2
} //function end here

i) Which functions out of Function 1 ,2 , 3 are executed when statement 1 &


statement 2 are executed? What are Function 1 & 2 called as in C++?
ii)Which function out of Function 1 ,2 , 3 is executed when C1 goes out of scope.

(c ) Define class Student in C++ with following description: 4


Private Members
A data member RNo (Registration Number) of type long
A data member Name of type string
A data member Score of type float
A data member Remarks of type string

A member function AssignRem( ) to assign Remarks as per the Score


obtained by a candidate. Score range and the respective Remarks are
shown as follows:
Score Remarks
less than 50 Selected
>=50 Not selected

Public Members
A function getStudent ( ) to allow user to enter values for RNo, Name,
Score & call function AssignRem( ) to assign the remarks.

A function dispStudent ( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data
Members.

(d ) Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following code : 4

class Teacher
{
char TNo[5], TName[20], Dept[l0];
int Workload;
protected:
float Salary;
void AssignSal(float);
public:
Teacher( ) ;
void TEntry( ) ;
void TDisplay( );
};
class Student
{
char Admno[10], SName[20], Stream[10];
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protected:
int Attendance, TotMarks;
public:
Student( );
void SEntry( );
void SDisplay( );
};

class School : public Student, public Teacher


{
char SCode[10], SchName[20];
public:
School ( ) ;
void SchEntry( );
void SchDisplay( );
};

(i) Which type of Inheritance is depicted by the above example ?


(ii) Identify the member function(s) that can be called from the object of Student class.

(iii) Write name of all the member(s) accessible from member functions of class
School.

(iv) What will be the order of execution of the constructors, when an object of class
School is created.?

Q.3 (a) Write a function SWAP_NEXT(int P[ ],int N) in C++ to modify the content of the Array 2
in such a way that the elements,which are multiples of 10 swap with the value present in
the very next position in the array.
For Example: If the content of the array is: 81 50 64 32 40 68
The content of P array should be : 81 64 50 32 68 40

(b) An array S[10][30] is stored in the memory along the row with each element occupying 2 3
bytes. Find out the memory location of S[5][10],if the element S[2][15] is stored at the
location 8200.
(c ) Write a function in C++ to delete a node containing customer’s information from a 4
dynamically allocated queue containing the objects of the following structure:

struct Customer
{
int CNo;
char CName[20];
Customer *link;
};

OR

Write a function in C++ to push a node containing customer’s information into a


dynamically allocated stack containing the objects of the following structure:
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struct Customer
{
int CNo;
char CName[20];
Customer *link;
};

(d) Write a function UPPER_SUM(int[][3],int R,int C) in C++ to display left upper diagonal 3
elements of a two dimensional array and also find & display the sum of them.
For Example : If 2 D array is
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9

Output should be:

1 2 3
5 6
9

Sum=22
OR
Write a function to convert a 2D Array of size m X n to a SD Array .
For Example : If 2 D array is
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9

SD Array should be:


1 4 7 2 5 8 3 6 9

(e) Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression showing stack 2
contents for the conversion.
A +B*( C–D )/ E

OR
Evaluate the following postfix notation .Show the status of stack after every step of
evaluation.
TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE NOT OR TRUE OR OR AND

Q.4(a) Observe the following program carefully and fill in the blanks using seekg( ) and tellg( ) 1
functions :
#include<fstream.h>
class BOOK
{ private :
char bcode[10],bname[30];
int noofbooks;
public:
void bookIn( );
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void bookOut( );
void Modify( );
};
void BOOK:: Modify ( char bookc[ ])
{
BOOK b,newb;
fstream fin(“book.dat”,ios::in|ios::out|ios::binary);
while(fin.read((char*)&b,sizeof(b))
{
if(strcmp(b.bcode,bookc) = = 0)
{
newb.bookIn( );
_______________//statement 1 to move the record pointer to the beginning of
the previous record.
_______________ //statement 2 to write new record newb to file.
fin.close( );
return;
}

OR
What are the two methods of opening files in C++? Which method is more efficient?

(b) Write a function in C++ to count and display the number of lines starting with ‘O’ or‘t’ in 2
the file “STORY.TXT”.
Example:
If the file contains:
Once a man sold his well to a farmer. Next day when a farmer went
to draw the water from that well, the man did not allow him to
draw the water from it. He said, “I have sold you the well, not
the water,
Then the output should be: 3

(c ) Given the binary file CAR.DAT, containing records of the following class CAR type: 3

class CAR
{
int C_No;
char C_Name[20];
float Milage;
public:
void enter( ) {
cin>> C_No ; gets(C_Name) ; cin >> Milage;
}
void display( )
{
cout<< C_No ; cout<<C_Name ; cout<< Milage;

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}
int RETURN_Milage( )
{
return Milage; }
};

Write a function in C++, that would read contents from the file CAR.DAT and display
the details of car with mileage between 100 to 150.

Q. 5 (a ) What is Degree & Cardinality of the following Table STUDENT ? 2


RNO NAME AVG
1 AA 89
2 BB 78
3 CC 88
4 DD 76
5 EE 99
If Two more students information is added to the above STUDENT table and a GRADE
column is added what will be the new Degree & Cardinality ?
(b ) Consider the following two tables, Write SQL commands for the 6
statements (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii)
Table :Customer

+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+
| CID| NAME | AGE | ADDRESS | SALARY |
+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+
| 1 | Ramesh | 32 | Ahmedabad | 2000.00 |
| 2 | Khilan | 25 | Delhi | 1500.00 |
| 3 | Kaushik | 23 | Kota | 2000.00 |
| 4 | Chaitali | 25 | Mumbai | 6500.00 |
| 5 | Hardik | 27 | Bhopal | 8500.00 |
| 6 | Komal | 22 | MP | 4500.00 |
| 7 | Muffy | 24 | Indore | 10000.00 |
+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+

Table : Order

+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+
|OID | DATE | CID | AMOUNT |
+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+
| 102 | 2009-10-08 00:00:00 | 3 | 3000 |
| 100 | 2009-10-08 00:00:00 | 3 | 1500 |
| 101 | 2009-11-20 00:00:00 | 2 | 1560 |
| 103 | 2008-05-20 00:00:00 | 4 | 2060 |

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+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+

i Display customers name and Age whose age is more than 25


Ii Display all customers name and address whose ADDRESS ends with either ‘i’ or ‘a’
Iii Display Customer ID,Name and Order Amount.
Iv Display Customer_ID and AMOUNT from Orders Table whose Amount is in the range of 1500 to
3000

V SELECT SUM(SALARY)
FROM CUSTOMERS
WHERE CID<=5;
Vi SELECT CID,DATE
FROM ORDERS
WHERE DATE NOT like ’2009%’;
VII SELECT AVG(AMOUNT)
FROM ORDERS;
VIII SELECT NAME,OID
FROM CUSTOMERS C, ORDERS O
WHERE C.ID=O.CUSTOMER_ID;

Q.6( a) State and verify the Associative Law of Boolean algebra . 2

(b) Write the Output of the following logical circuit. 2

(c ) Derive a Canonical POS expression for a Boolean function F, represented by the 1


following truth table :

A B C F(A,B,C)
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 1
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

( d) Reduce the following Boolean Expression to its simplest form using K-Map : 3
F(A,B,C,D) = 𝜋𝜋(0,1,3,4,5,6,7,9,10,11,13,15)

Q 7( a) Write the following abbreviations in their full form. 1


i) MAN ii) NIU iii) GSM iv) FLOSS
( b) Give TWO ways to protect computers from Virus? 1

(c ) What is HTTP? 1

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( d) Name Two unguided transmission media for networking. 1

( e) QUAD University is setting up its Academic blocks at Jay Nagar and planning to setup a
network. The University has 3 academic blocks and one Human Resource Center as
shown in the following diagram.

ARTS COMM

SCI HR CENTER

The distance between various buildings is as follows:

Buildings Distance
SCI TO ARTS 60m
SCI TO COMM 50m
SCI TO HR CENTER 60m
ARTS TO COMM 40 m
ARTS TO HR CENTER 55 m
COMM TO HR CENTER 35 m

Number of Computers in Each Building

Building Number of Computers


ARTS 25
COMM 160
SCI 60
HR CENTER 45
(a) Suggest the cable layout of connections between the buildings.
1
(b) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. building) to house the server of this University.
Provide a suitable reason.
1
(c) Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification.
· Repeater
1
· Hub / Switch
(d) University is planning to connect its admission office in the closest big city which is
more than 250km away from main university. Which type of network out of 1
LAN/WAN/MAN will be formed? Justify your answer.
f Compare open source software and proprietary software. 1
g What is URL? Name any one URL. 1

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INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL, WAKAD

Date: 11/01/2019 PRELIMINARY EXAM II(2018-2019) Max.Marks:70

Standard : XII SCI Subject: COMPUTER SCIENCE Duration:3 Hrs


SET B
General Instructions:
1.Programming Language is C++
2.All Questions are compulsory
3. There are 10 printed pages.
4.In Questions Q.1(e) ,Q.3(c) ,Q.3(d) ,Q.3( e),Q.4(a) has Internal choices

Q.1(a) Arrange the following operators in the Descending order of their precedence i.e From 2
Higher precedence to Lower Precedence.
+ * - (Unary Minus) ++ sizeof( ) = = % !=

(b) Rishu has started learning C++ and has typed the following program. When she compiled 1
the following code written by her ,she discovered that she needs to include some header
files to successfully compile and execute it.Write names of those
header files which are required to be included in the code(Do not include any header file
that is not required)
void main( )
{
int a,b;
float ans;
char name[10];
ans=(float)a+(float)b+2.5f;
cout<<ans<<endl;
cin.get(name,10);
getchar();
}

(c ) Rewrite the following program after removing the syntactical error(s), if any. Underline 2
each correction.
Note:Assume all required header files are already included in the program.
#include<iostream.h>
#Define unsigned int size=50;

void main()
{
int big;
char flag='Y';
cin<<big;
if [big=100]
cout>>"Wrong input";
cout<<"Right input";
}

(d) Find the output of the following program: 2


void Encode(TEXT T)
{
int L=strlen(T);

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for(int C=1;C<L;C++)
{
if(isupper(T[c])
T[c]=T[c]+1;
else
if(T[C]==' ')
T[C]='#';
else
if(T[C]=='s' || T[C]=='i')
T[C]='@';
}
}

void main()
{
TEXT str="*Cleanliness is Godliness!”;
Encode(str);
cout<<str<<endl;
getch();

(e ) Find the output of the following C++ program: 3


#include<iostream>
void execute(int &X ,int Y=200)
{
int TEMP=X+Y;
X+=TEMP;
if(Y!=200)
{
cout<<TEMP<<" "<<X<<" "<<Y<<endl;
}
}

void main()
{
int A=50,B=20;
execute(B);
cout<<A<<" "<<B<<endl;
execute(A,B);
cout<<A<<" "<<B<<endl;
getch();
}

OR
Find the output of the following C++ program:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;

int x=2;
int main()
{
int x=4;
{
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int x=8;
cout<< x;
cout<<endl;
}
cout<< x;
cout<<endl;
cout<< ::x;
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}

(f ) Study the following C++ program and select the possible output(s) from it : 2
Find the maximum and minimum value of RES.

#include<stdlib.h>
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
void main()
{
randomize();
char city[][4]={"APPLE","ORANGE","MANGO","BANANA"};
int RES;
for(int i=0 ; i<3 ; i++)
{
RES=random(2)+1;
cout<<city[RES]<<”@”;
}
}
(i) ORANGE@MANGO@BANANA@
(ii) ORANGE@MANGO@ORANGE@
(iii) MANGO@MANGO@ORANGE@
(iv) @MANGO@MANGO@ORANGE

Q.2 (a) What is function overloading? Can constructors & Destructors be overloaded? 2

(b ) Observe the following C++ code and Answer the questions (i) and (ii) 2
class Customer
{
int cno;
char cname[20];
public :
Customer() // Function 1
{
cno=0;
cout<<"\nCustomer initialized with zero";
}
Customer(int pn)// Function 2
{
cno=pn;
cout<<"\nCustomer initialized";
}
~Customer( ) //Function 3
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{
cout<<"\nCustomer deinitialized";
}
};

void main()
{
Customer c1; //statement 1
Customer c2(100); //statement 2
} //function end here

i) Which functions out of Function 1 ,2 , 3 are executed when statement 1 &


statement 2 are executed? What are Function 1 & 2 called as in C++?
ii)Which function out of Function 1 ,2 , 3 is executed when C1 goes out of scope.

(c ) Answer the questions (i) to (iv) based on the following code : 4

class Teacher
{
char TNo[5], TName[20], Dept[l0];
int Workload;
protected:
float Salary;
void AssignSal(float);
public:
Teacher( ) ;
void TEntry( ) ;
void TDisplay( );
};
class Student
{
char Admno[10], SName[20], Stream[10];
protected:
int Attendance, TotMarks;
public:
Student( );
void SEntry( );
void SDisplay( );
};

class School : public Student, public Teacher


{
char SCode[10], SchName[20];
public:
School ( ) ;
void SchEntry( );
void SchDisplay( );
};

(i) Which type of Inheritance is depicted by the above example ?


(ii) Identify the member function(s) that can be called from the object of Student class.
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(iii) Write name of all the member(s) accessible from member functions of class
School.

(iv) What will be the order of execution of the constructors, when an object of class
School is created.?

(d) Define class Student in C++ with following description: 4


Private Members
A data member RNo (Registration Number) of type long
A data member Name of type string
A data member Score of type float
A data member Remarks of type string

A member function AssignRem( ) to assign Remarks as per the Score


obtained by a candidate. Score range and the respective Remarks are
shown as follows:
Score Remarks
less than 50 Selected
>=50 Not selected

Public Members
A function getStudent ( ) to allow user to enter values for RNo, Name,
Score & call function AssignRem( ) to assign the remarks.

A function dispStudent ( ) to allow user to view the content of all the data
Members.

Q.3 (a) An array S[10][30] is stored in the memory along the column with each element 3
occupying 2 bytes. Find out the memory location of S[5][10],if the element S[2][15] is
stored at the location 8200.
(b) Write a function SWAP_NEXT(int P[ ],int N) in C++ to modify the content of the Array 2
in such a way that the elements,which are multiples of 10 swap with the value present in
the very next position in the array.
For Example: If the content of the array is: 81 50 64 32 40 68
The content of P array should be : 81 64 50 32 68 40

(c ) Write a function in C++ to delete a node containing customer’s information from a 4


dynamically allocated queue containing the objects of the following structure:

struct Customer
{
int CNo;
char CName[20];
Customer *link;
};

OR

Write a function in C++ to push a node containing customer’s information into a


dynamically allocated stack containing the objects of the following structure:

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struct Customer
{
int CNo;
char CName[20];
Customer *link;
};

(d) Write a function UPPER_SUM(int[][3],int R,int C) in C++ to display left upper diagonal 3
elements of a two dimensional array and also find & display the sum of them.
For Example : If 2 D array is
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9

Output should be:

1 2 3
4 5
7

Sum=22
OR
Write a function to convert a 2D Array of size m X n to a SD Array .
For Example : If 2 D array is
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9

SD Array should be:


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

(e) Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression showing stack 2
contents for the conversion.
A +B*( C–D )/ E

OR
Evaluate the following postfix notation .Show the status of stack after every step of
evaluation.
TRUE FALSE TRUE FALSE NOT OR TRUE OR OR AND

Q.4(a) Observe the following program carefully and fill in the blanks using seekg( ) and tellg( ) 1
functions :
#include<fstream.h>
class BOOK
{ private :
char bcode[10],bname[30];
int noofbooks;
public:
void bookIn( );
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void bookOut( );
void Modify( );
};
void BOOK:: Modify ( char bookc[ ])
{
BOOK b,newb;
fstream fin(“book.dat”,ios::in|ios::out|ios::binary);
while(fin.read((char*)&b,sizeof(b))
{
if(strcmp(b.bcode,bookc) = = 0)
{
newb.bookIn( );
_______________//statement 1 to move the record pointer to the beginning of
the previous record.
_______________ //statement 2 to write new record newb to file.
fin.close( );
return;
}

OR
What are the two methods of opening files in C++? Which method is more efficient?

(b) Write a function in C++ to count and display the number of lines starting with ‘O’ or‘t’ in 2
the file “STORY.TXT”.
Example:
If the file contains:
Once a man sold his well to a farmer. Next day when a farmer went
to draw the water from that well, the man did not allow him to
draw the water from it. He said, “I have sold you the well, not
the water,
Then the output should be: 3

(c ) Given the binary file CAR.DAT, containing records of the following class CAR type: 3

class CAR
{
int C_No;
char C_Name[20];
float Milage;
public:
void enter( ) {
cin>> C_No ; gets(C_Name) ; cin >> Milage;
}
void display( )
{
cout<< C_No ; cout<<C_Name ; cout<< Milage;

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}
int RETURN_Milage( )
{
return Milage; }
};

Write a function in C++, that would read contents from the file CAR.DAT and display
the details of car with mileage between 100 to 150.

Q. 5 (a ) What is Degree & Cardinality of the following Table STUDENT ? 2


RNO NAME AVG
1 AA 89
2 BB 78
3 CC 88
4 DD 76
5 EE 99
If Two more students information is added to the above STUDENT table and a GRADE
column is added what will be the new Degree & Cardinality ?
(b ) Consider the following two tables, Write SQL commands for the 6
statements (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii)
Table :Customer

+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+
| CID| NAME | AGE | ADDRESS | SALARY |
+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+
| 1 | Ramesh | 32 | Ahmedabad | 2000.00 |
| 2 | Khilan | 25 | Delhi | 1500.00 |
| 3 | Kaushik | 23 | Kota | 2000.00 |
| 4 | Chaitali | 25 | Mumbai | 6500.00 |
| 5 | Hardik | 27 | Bhopal | 8500.00 |
| 6 | Komal | 22 | MP | 4500.00 |
| 7 | Muffy | 24 | Indore | 10000.00 |
+----+----------+-----+-----------+----------+

Table : Order

+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+
|OID | DATE | CID | AMOUNT |
+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+
| 102 | 2009-10-08 00:00:00 | 3 | 3000 |
| 100 | 2009-10-08 00:00:00 | 3 | 1500 |
| 101 | 2009-11-20 00:00:00 | 2 | 1560 |
| 103 | 2008-05-20 00:00:00 | 4 | 2060 |

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+-----+---------------------+-------------+--------+

i Display customers name and Age whose age is more than 25


Ii Display all customers name and address whose ADDRESS ends with either ‘i’ or ‘a’
Iii Display Customer ID,Name and Order Amount.
Iv Display Customer_ID and AMOUNT from Orders Table whose Amount is in the range of 1500 to
3000

V SELECT SUM(SALARY)
FROM CUSTOMERS
WHERE CID>=5;
Vi SELECT CID,DATE
FROM ORDERS
WHERE DATE like ’2009%’;
VII SELECT AVG(AMOUNT)
FROM ORDERS;
VIII SELECT NAME,OID
FROM CUSTOMERS C, ORDERS O
WHERE C.ID=O.CUSTOMER_ID;

Q.6( a) State and verify the Associative Law of Boolean algebra . 2

(b) Write the Output of the following logical circuit. 2

(c ) Derive a Canonical POS expression for a Boolean function F, represented by the 1


following truth table :

A B C F(A,B,C)
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 1
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

( d) Reduce the following Boolean Expression to its simplest form using K-Map : 3
F(A,B,C,D) = Σ(0,1,3,4,5,6,7,9,10,11,13,15)

Q 7( a) Write the following abbreviations in their full form. 1


i) MAN ii) NIU iii) GSM iv) FLOSS
( b) Give TWO ways to protect computers from Virus? 1

(c ) What is HTTP? 1

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( d) Name Two unguided transmission media for networking. 1

( e) QUAD University is setting up its Academic blocks at Jay Nagar and planning to setup a
network. The University has 3 academic blocks and one Human Resource Center as
shown in the following diagram.

ARTS COMM

SCI HR CENTER

The distance between various buildings is as follows:

Buildings Distance
SCI TO ARTS 60m
SCI TO COMM 50m
SCI TO HR CENTER 60m
ARTS TO COMM 40 m
ARTS TO HR CENTER 55 m
COMM TO HR CENTER 35 m

Number of Computers in Each Building

Building Number of Computers


ARTS 25
COMM 60
SCI 125
HR CENTER 45
(a) Suggest the cable layout of connections between the buildings.
1
(b) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. building) to house the server of this University.
Provide a suitable reason.
1
(c) Suggest the placement of the following devices with justification.
· Repeater
1
· Hub / Switch
(d) University is planning to connect its admission office in the closest big city which is
more than 250km away from main university. Which type of network out of 1
LAN/WAN/MAN will be formed? Justify your answer.
f Compare open source software and proprietary software. 1
g Out of the following, identify client side script (s) and server side script(s). 1
(a) ASP (b) Java Script (c) VBScript (d) JSP

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INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune

Date : 14 /12 /18 PRELIM-1 (2018-2019) Marks : 100


Std. : XII ENGLISH Time : 3 Hr.

General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of three sections
2.All questions are compulsory
3. There are 5 printed pages
4. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION A
(READING – 30 Marks)

Q.1 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below : (20)

1. ``You swing like a girl.’’ Rocky Balboa, cinema’s favourite underdog-turned-reluctant boxing coach,
uses banter and prejudice to spur his ward Adonis. It works. Adonis goes on to do great , cathartic
things, but one wonders what our Indian girl boxers would make of the casual sexism employed in the
movie `Creed’, the millennial sequel to the celebrated Rocky series. Do they duck, parry, simply take it
on their chin? Or do they swing back? Like a girl?
2. Ask Mary Kom. She does a pretty good job of it. At the time of writing, she had just won her sixth
world title bout at the Women’s World Championship in the Capital. The diminutive mother of three has
something of a cult following in women’s boxing. Skye Nicholson, seen as a potential superstar in an
Australia currently in search of sporting heroes, looks up to the Indian legend for inspiration. In Wales,
Lauren Price turned her back on football to try and do a Mary Kom``I admire Mary Kom,”she says
simply.
3. Back home, she has inspired a new generation who, not content with simply gazing at her in awe, are
determined to emulate her. Three World Championship first-timers—Simranjeet Kaur, Sonia Chahal
and Lovlina Borgohain—have won the host nation two bronzes and one silver.
4. Simranjeet Kaur had not even discovered herself before the Delhi event. The Punjab girl has been
honing her skills under Blas Inglesias Fernandes- the avuncular Cuban coach who has been largely
responsible for the rise of Indian men’s boxing in the past decade and a half, and the first foreign coach
to be awarded the prestigious Dronacharya award in 2012. Simranjeet is a Blas student at the Punjab
Institute of Sports (PIS) in Mohali. ``Fernandes Sir has really helped my technique, strength and the
accuracy of my punches. Training under him is such an education,” gushes the boxer.
5. Fernandes too talks fondly about his ward.``Simranjeet doesn’t come from a rich family and just wants
to make her family proud through boxing. She hardly deviates from her routine, going straight from
room to training and then back to room again,”Fernandes tells the paper from Mohali.
6. The 23-year old from Chakar village in Ludhiana district took up boxing on a whim because elder sister
Amandeep, (national- level medallist) and brothers Kamalpreet and Arshdeep are also boxers. But a
family tragedy, when her father passed away suddenly this July, saw their mother Rajpal pushing her
youngest daughter into serious boxing. ``Both my brothers and sister are working and trying to support
my family since my father’s death. I want to win a medal for my late father, who always supported me,”
says Simranjeet, who was included in the squad at the insistence of women’s coach
RaffaeleBergamasco, who saw an early spark in her.
7. Then there is the tall, lanky welterweight Lovlina from Assam’s Golaghat district, 300 km from
Guwahati. Boxing’s gain has been Muay Thai’s loss. Her sisters, twins Licha and Lima still compete in
the Thai form of boxing, but Sports Authority of India (SAI) coach PardumBoro picked out Lovlina for
boxing glory. She responded with a gold at the Indian Open in January this year. Not surprisingly, she
looks up to Mary Kom for inspiration. ``Mary didi has been an inspiration for all of us youngsters. Her
tips really helped me in improving my game. Before the World Champioshipsalso,she told me a few
things which have been very helpful,” says the 21-year old.
8. Mary Kom dismisses this with a loud, infectious laugh. ``It feels great to know that I am an inspiration
for the three girls,”she says. ``All three worked really very hard to prepare for the World
Championships. The way they have performed on their debut is really commendable.”
9. For all the quiet reverence for the master, the competitive spirit shows up. Lovlina has an interesting
side story to share from their training sessions. To build stamina, the boxers had to run 3000m races on
the Jawaharlal Nehru stadium track once a week. The supremely fit Mary Kom always led the way. The
21-year old took it as a personal challenge, managed to beat Mary with a sub-13-minute run days before
the Championship began.
10. The third of the trio, featherweight Sonia comes from India’s boxing factory, Bhiwani. She has Olympic
medallists like Vijender Singh and two-time World Championships bronze medallist Kavita Chahal to
look up to. ``Ever since I saw the reception that Kavitadidi got on her return to the village in 2011( after
winning Asian Championship bronze0, I have wanted to become a boxer,” says the 21-year old whose
father is a small-time farmer while her mother sells milk door-to-door in Haryana’s Charkhi Dadri
district. ``there was so much craziness for boxing in our village, my parents never had any hesitation in
allowing me to take up the sport,” says the girl from Nimri village in Haryana. A decision that the
country can be thankful for as the rookie has already won a silver at her first-ever Women’s World
Champioship.
11. It’s a feat that bodes well for Indian boxing that always worried what would happen once Mary Kom
exited the scene. But,as always, the master has the final word.`` I am still fighting with the same passion
that I did many years ago. I believe that the three girls will carry this same passion forward. Lots to
achieve in the future, but yes, this has been a great beginning for them,” says Mary.
1.1 Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1x5=5)
a) Lauren Price gave up this game to pursue boxing.
i) swimming ii) long distance running
iii)weight- lifting iv) football
b) This place is known as the boxing factory of India.
i) Mohali ii) Bhiwani
iii) Guwahati iv) Patiala
c) The Women’s World Championship ( Boxing) 2018 were held in this country.
i) India ii) Australia
iii) Thailand iv) Wales
d) Muay Thai is a ……..
i) boxing coach ii) boxing champion
. iii)place in Thailand iv)form of boxing
e) Words `duck’, `parry’ are in reference to this sport.
i) weight-lifting ii) boxing
iii) wrestling iv) archery

1.2 Answer briefly: (1x6=6)


a) How does Rocky Balboa encourage his student Adonis?
b) How has Simranjeet Kaur benefitted under her coach at the Punjab Institute of Sports?
c) Why did Sonia Chahal not face any opposition from her family when she took up boxing?
d) Which weight categories do the boxers, Lovlina and Sonia belong to?
e) What unique distinction does coach Fernandes hold?
f) What is Mary Kom’s remarkable achievement in the field of boxing?
1.3 Answer any three in 25-30 words: (2x3=6)
a) What is the contribution of coach Blas InglesiasFernandesto Indian boxing?
b) How has Mary Kom served as an inspiration for women boxers all over the world? Give examples.
c) What made Simranjeet take up boxing seriously?
d) Give an example of boxer Lovlina’s competitive spirit?

1.4 Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following: ( 1x3=3)
a) kind and friendly towards a younger person ( Para 4)
b) a new recruit ( Para 10)
c) match a person or achievement by imitation ( Para 3)

Q. 2. Read the passage and answer the questions given below : (10)
1. Homeopathy is a system of natural health care that has been in worldwide use for over 200 years.
Homeopathy treats each person as a unique individual with the aim of stimulating their own healing ability. A
homeopath selects the most appropriate medicine based on the individual’s specific symptoms and personal
level of health.
2. It is recognized by the World Health Organisation as the second largest therapeutic system in use in the
world. While it is most popular in India and South America, over thirty million people in Europe, and millions
of others around the world, also benefit from its use.
3. The name homeopathy, coined by its originator, Samuel Hahnemann, is derived from the Greek word for
`similar suffering’ referring to the `like cures like’ principle of healing. Hahnemann was born in Germany two
hundred and fifty years ago. At this time the old world-view was being renovated and traditional beliefs, many
flimsily based upon superstition, were being increasingly subjected to the rigour of experimental scrutiny and
assessment. The practice of homeopathy is based upon science while its application is an art.
4. Homeopathy is founded on two principles that have occurred regularly throughout the history of medicine,
both in eastern and western worlds. The first principle of `like cures like’ can be looked at in several ways. One
way is to assume that the body knows what it is doing and that symptoms are the body’s way of taking action to
overcome illness. This healing response is automatic in living organisms; we term it the vital response. The
similar medicine acts as a stimulus to the natural vital response plus the medicine, giving it the information it
needs to complete its healing work. Since the initial action of the vital response plusthe medicine is to increase
the strength of the symptoms, this is our first indication of internal healing taking place, of diseases being cured
from within- pushed outwards along the established routes of past and present symptoms.
5. Before the medicines are decided upon, their curative powers are discovered by testing them out on healthy
human subjects and carefully noting emotional, mental and physical changes. This is termed as `proving’. This
information constitutes the basis for` like cures like’, for a medicine’s unique symptom picture must match up
with the individual’s unique expression of their disease, that is, the present and persisting symptoms of the
disease.
6. The second principle, that only `the minimum dose’ should be employed is based upon the understanding that
the stimulus of the medicine works from within the vitality and is not imposed from the outside. Only enough is
administered to initiate the healing process, which then carries on, driven by its own internal healing mission.
Homeopathic medicines given in minimum doses, while they do stimulate the body’s vital response, do not
produce the gross side-effects that are so often the pit-fall of conventional treatment.
7. Homeopathic treatment works with your body’s own healing powers to bring about health and well- being.
You are treated as an individual, not as a collection of disease labels. Homeopathy treats all your symptoms at
all levels of your being- spiritual, emotional, mental and physical and finds the `like cures like’ match for them.
Homeopathically prepared remedies, providing the minimum dose, are gentle, subtle and powerful. They are
non-addictive, and not tested on animals.

a) On the basis of your reading of the above passagemake notes on it, using headings and sub- headings.
Use recognizable abbreviations (minimum 4) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply a suitable
title for it.(5)
b) Write a summary of the above passage in about 100 words. (5)
SECTION B
(WRITING SKILLS- 30 Marks)

Q.3 a) You are Kala/ Kailash. You lost your folder containing important documents while travelling in a DTC
bus. Write an advertisement in not more than 50 words for the LOST column of a local daily giving relevant
details.(4)
OR
Q.3 b)You are Lalit/Lalita. You have just cleared your NIFT admission test and wish to throw a party for your
friends. Write an informal invitation for your friends giving all details in not more than 50 words.

Q.4.You are Arun/ Aruna, M.G Road, Kanpur. You had placed an order with Ram Book Depot, 4 Mall Road,
Delhi, for the supply of two books. You wanted to give them as a gift to a friend. On receiving them you are
disappointed to find that the books were damaged. Write a letter of complaint in 100-125 words, to the
Manager, about your problem. (6)
OR
Q.4 b) You are Sudha/ Sudhir, the Head girl/ Head Boy of ABC Public School, Jayanagar, Bengaluru. An
excursion has been planned from your School to Mysore. Write a letter to the Secretary, Ace Youth Hostel,
Mysore, requesting him to provide accomodationfor 15 girls and 20 boys for three days. (Word limit 100-125
words)

Q.5 a) Within a few months you will be joining college. How do you look at college life? Is it freedom from
strict discipline imposed on you by the school? A carefree life with no worries of completing assigned
homework? Or is it the beginning of responsible preparation for a successful career? Write an article in 150-200
words on what you think of college life. You are Navneet/ Nivedita. (10)

OR
Q.5 b) You are Karan/ Kripa. Your society recently organized a Diwali Mela in its premises. Write a report on
it in 150-200 words for the local daily.

Q.6. a) Mobile phones of today are no longer a mere means of communication. Music lovers are so glued to it
that they don’t pay attention even to the traffic while crossing the roads. This leads to accidents, sometimes
even fatal ones. Write a speech in 150-200 words to be delivered in the morning assembly advising students to
be careful in the use ofthis otherwise very useful gadget. Imagine you are the Principal of your school. (10)

OR
Q.6 b)You are Bipin/ Bina. You are going to participate in the English Debate Competition in your school. The
topic of the debate is` Should school proscribe (ban) uniforms’. Write this debate in 150-200 words. Write
either FOR or AGAINST the motion.

SECTION C
(LITERATURE TEXTBOOK AND LONG READING NOVEL – 40 Marks)

Q.7a. Read the extract and answer the following questions. (1x4 =4M)

“ Now we will count to twelve


and we will all keep still
for once on the face of the Earth
let’s not speak in any language,
let’s stop for one second,
and not move our arms so much.”
a) What is the significance of the number twelve?
b) Which two activities does the poet want us to stop?
c) What does the poet mean by `let’s not speak in any language’?
d) Describe the meaning of the word `arms’ in the extract.

OR
Q.7.b. Read the extract and answer the following questions.

``…….I saw my mother,


Beside me,
Doze open-mouthed, her face
Ashen like that
Of a corpse and I realized with pain………”
a) Who does `I’ refer ?
b) What did `I’ realize with pain?
c) Why was the realization painful?
d) Identify and name the figure of speech used in the above lines.

Q.8. Answer the following in 30 to 40 words (any FOUR ) (3x4=12M)


a) What did M. Hamel say to Franz when he fumbled with the rule for participles?
b) Why did the ironmaster speak kindly to the peddler and invite him home?
c) Why is Rajkumar Shukla described as resolute?
d) How did the Maharaja overcome the unforeseen hurdle, after killing 70 tigers?
e) What was the scene that made Bama want to double up with laughters?
f) How did Jo react to the story told by her father?

Q.9. Answer any one of the following question in 120 to 125 words. (1x6=6M)

a) Mukesh and Saheb are two child labourers, the author meets. What similarities and differences does she
find in their attitudes? Explain.
b) What were Sophie’s dreams and disappointments? Were they real or imaginary?Explain with reference to the
text.

Q.10. Answer any one of the following question in 120 to 125 words. (1x6= 6M)

a) Reflecting upon the story, what did you feel about Evans’ having the last laugh?
b) How did Dr. Sadao help the prisoner of war to escape? What humanitarian values did you find in that
act?

Q.11 Answer any one the following in 120-150 words. (1X6=6M)

a) Write a character sketch of Dr. Kemp.


b) Within a few days of his arrival in Iping people became suspicious of the guest at `Coach and Horses’.
Why?

Q.12 Answer any one of the following in 120-150 words. (1X6=6M)

a) How did Marvel fare at the end of the novel `THE INVISIBLE MAN’?
b) Describe Griffin’s journey as a gifted university student to an evil maniac.
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL, WAKAD
Date: /01 /2019 Prelim II Examination Max.Marks:100
Std: XII(Sci, Com) Subject: MATHEMATICS Time: 3 HR
General Instructions:
1.Total number of printed pages 4.
2. There is no overall choice but internal choice can be used.
3.All Questions are compulsory
4. Use of calculators is prohibited.
5. Section A carries 1 mark each, section B carries 2 marks each, section C carries 4 marks each, and
section D carries 6 marks each.

SECTION-A(4X1=4)

Q.1  5 3 x   5 4
T

Find x, if  = 
2 y z  12 6
Q.2 Write the principal value of

Q.3 d3y
2
d2y dy
3

Write the degree of the differential equation :  3  − 2 2  − +1 = 0


 dx   dx  dx

Q.4 x − 2 y −1 z + 3
Find the value of λ such that = = is perpendicular to the plane 3x- y -2z =7.
9 λ −6

SECTION-B (8X2=16)

Q.5 If ∗ be a binary operation on the set of natural numbers N,given by a ∗ b=LCM(a,b), ∀ a,b ∈ N then find

the value of 4 ∗ 30.

 π
a sin ( x + 1), x ≤ 0
Q.6  2
Find the value of ‘a’ for which the function ‘f” defined asf(x) = 
tan x − sin x
 , x>0
 x 3
is continuous at x = 0.

Q.7 If a and b are two unit vectors such that a + b is also a unit vector, then find the angle between a

and b .

Q.8 Solve: ∫ 5 x dx

Q.9 Find area of the triangle with vertices (1, 0), (6, 0), (4, 3).

Q.10 Find the projection of the vector a = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ on b = iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ

Page 1 of 4
Q.11 ( )
Differentiate: log x) log x w.r.t. x, x>1.

Q.12

SECTION-C (11×4=44)

Q.13 Show that the relation S in the set A = {x ∈ Z: 0 ≤ x ≤ 12} given by S = {(a, b): a, b ∈ Z, |a − b| is
divisible by 4} is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1.

Q.14 Prove that : cot−1 7 + cot−1 8 + cot−1 18 = cot−1 3.

OR

Q.15 Using properties of determinants to prove the following:

OR

b+c c + a a +b
Prove c + a a +b b + c = 2(3abc-a3 -b3 -c3 ), using properties of determinants:
a +b b+c c + a

Q.16  x +1
. 3x 
Differentiate:Sin-1  2 x
w.r.t. x.
1 + (36 ) 

Q.17 Prove that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut at right angles if 8k2 =1.

OR

Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12cm3 /s.The falling sand forms a cone on the ground in such a
way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of the
sand cone increasing when the height is 4cm?

Q.18  2 + Sin 2 x  x .
Evaluate : ∫   . e dx
 1 + Cos 2 x 
OR
−1
x
Evaluate : ∫ Sin dx.
1− x

Page 2 of 4
x
4
Q.19
Prove that ∫
0
1 − sin 2 x dx = 2 − 1

Q.20 At any point (x, y) of a curve, the slope of the tangent is twice the slope of the line segment

joining the point of contact to the point (–4, –3). Find the equation of the curve given that it

passes through (–2, 1).

Q.21 Show that the given differential equation is homogenous and solve it:

Q.22 x −1 y −2 z −3 x −4 y +1
Show that the lines = = and = = z intersect. Alsofind the
2 3 4 5 5
point of intersection.

OR

x y −2 z −3
Find the equation of perpendicular from the point (3,-1, 11) to the line = = .
2 3 4

Also find the foot of the perpendicular.

Q.23 Two cards are drawn simultaneously without replacement from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find
the probability distribution of number of red cards. Also find the mean and variance ofthe probability
distribution.

SECTION-D (6×6 = 36)

Q.24 Two cricket teams honoured theirs players for three values : excellent batting,to the point
bowling and unparalled fielding by giving Rs.x , Rs. y , Rs. z per player respectively. The first
team paid respectively2, 2 and 1 players for the above values with a total prize money of Rs.
11 lakhs, while the second team paid respectively 1, 2 and 2 players for these values with a total
prize money of Rs. 9 lakhs. If the total award money for one person each for these values
amounts to Rs. 6 lakhs, then express the above situation as a matrix equation and find award
money per person for each value.
For which of the above values, would you like to pay more?

Q.25 Find the equation of the plane which is perpendicular to the plane 5x + 3y + 6z + 8 = 0 and which

contains the line of intersection of the planes x + 2y+ 3z − 4 = 0 and 2x + y − z + 5 = 0.

Page 3 of 4
Q.26
Find the particular solution of the differential equation: (x− siny) dy + tany dx = 0 given that y =
0,when x = 0.

OR

Find the particular solution of the differential equation:

y y
(xdy – y dx) y Sin( ) = (y dx + x dy) x Cos( ) given that y= π when x = 3
x x

Q.27 Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y2 = 2x and the line x – y = 4.

OR

Find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line x = 4y – 2.

Q.28 An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of Rs. 800 is made on each
executive class ticket and a profit of Rs. 500 is made on each economy class ticket. The airline
reserves at least 20 seats for executive class. However, at least four times as many passengers
prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine how many tickets of
each type must be sold in order to maximise the profit for the airline. What is the maximum
profit ? Make the above as an L.P.P. and solve it graphically.
Do you think, more passengers would prefer to travel by such an airline than by others?

Q.29 Each of three identical jewellery boxes has two drawers. In each drawer of the first box there is a
goldwatch. In each drawer of the second box there is a silver watch. In one drawer of the third
box there is a gold watch while in the other there is a silver watch. If we select a box at random,
open one of the drawers and find it to contain a silver watch, what is the probability that the
other drawer has the gold watch ?
****************

Page 4 of 4
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL, WAKAD
Date: 0 /12 /2018 Prelim I Examination Max.Marks:100
Std: XII(Sci, Com) Subject: MATHEMATICS Time: 3 HR
General Instructions:
1. There is no overall choice but internal choice can be used.
2.All Questions are compulsory
3. Use of calculators is prohibited.
4. Section A carries 1 mark each, section B carries 2 marks each, section C carries 4 marks each, and
section D carries 6 marks each.

SECTION-A 4X1=4

Q.1 Differentiate tan x w.r.t x.

Q.2 ∫ e [cos x − sin x] dx


x
Evaluate

Q.3 Find the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are given by the vectors a = 3iˆ + ˆj + kˆ and
b = iˆ − ˆj + kˆ
Q.4 Find the direction cosines of x axis.

SECTION-B 8X2=16

Q.5 The function f : R → R is given by f ( x) = x 2 − 3 x + 2 , find the domain of f.

Q.6 
Find the value of sec  tan −1 
y
 2
x 2 3
Q.7 If ∆ = 0, find the value of x where ∆ = 1 x 1
3 2 x

Q.8 dy
If e x + e y = e x + y then show that = −e y − x
dx
Q.9 For the curve y = 5 x − 2 x 3 , if x increases at the rate of 2 units/sec, then find how fast is the slope of
the curve changing when x = 3?
Q.10 Evaluate ∫ 4 − x 2 dx

Q.11 Find the general solution of the differential equation ydx − ( x + 2 y 2 )dy = 0

Q.12 Find the angle between the pair of the lines given by r = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj − 4kˆ + λ (iˆ + 2 ˆj + 2kˆ) and
r = 5iˆ − 2 ˆj + µ (3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 6kˆ)

Page 1 of 3
SECTION-C 11X4=44

Q.13 If A= {1, 2, 3, 4}, Find the relations on the set A which are
i) Reflexive, Transitive but not symmetric.
ii) Symmetric but neither Reflexive nor Transitive.

Q.14  α  π β  sin α cos β


Show that 2 tan −1 tan tan  −  = tan −1
 2  4 2  cos α + sin β

Q.15 x−2 2x − 3 3x − 4
Use properties of determinants to find value of x if x − 4 2x − 9 3x − 16 = 0
x − 8 2 x − 27 3x − 64

Q.16 2 cos x − 1 π π 
If f ( x) = , x ≠ then find the value of f   so that f(x) is continuous at x = π/4.
cot x − 1 4 4

Q.17 Show that the equation of normal at any point on the curve x = 3 cos θ − cos 3 θ , y = 3 sin θ − sin 3 θ
( )
is 4 y cos 3 θ − x sin 3 θ = 3 sin 4θ
OR
x2 y2
Find the area of greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse + =1
a2 b2
Q.18 x2
Evaluate ∫( )(
x2 +1 x2 + 4 )
dx

OR
x +x
3
Evaluate ∫x 4
−9
dx

Q.19 Evaluate ∫[ cot x + tan x dx ]


x
 x

Q.20 Show that the differential equation 2 ye y dx +  y 2 xe y dy = 0 is homogeneous. Also find its general
 
 
solution.
OR
Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the second quadrant and touching coordinate
axes.
Q.21 Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are
r = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ + λ (iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ) and r = 4iˆ + 5 ˆj + 6kˆ + µ (2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ)


Q.22 Find the vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes r .(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) = 6

and r .(2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 4kˆ) = −5 , and the point (1, 1, 1).

Q.23 In a factory which manufactures bolts, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 25%, 35% and
40% of the bolts. Of their outputs, 5, 4 and 2 percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at
Page 2 of 3
from the product and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it is manufactured by the
machine B?
6X6=36
SECTION-D

1 2 0
Q.24  
If A = − 2 − 1 − 2 find A-1 , Use A-1 to solve the system of linear equations
 
 0 − 1 1 
x-2y = 10, -2x- y -2z = 8 and -2y + z = 7.
OR

1 2 0

Find A-1 , using elementary transformation where A = − 2 − 1 − 2

 
 0 − 1 1 
Q.25 A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircle. If its perimeter is 30 meters, find
the dimensions so that the greatest possible amount of light may be admitted.

Q.26 Find the area lying above x axis and included between the circle x 2 + y 2 = 8 x and inside of the
parabola y 2 = 4 x
OR
2
Evaluate ∫ (2 x + 5)dx as a limit of sum
1
Q.27 Find the coordinates of the point where the line through the points A(3, 4, 1) and B(5, 1, 6) crosses the
XY plane.

Q.28 An oil company has two depots A and B with capacities 7000L and 4000L respectively. The company
is to supply oil to three petrol pumps D, E, and F whose requirements are 4500L, 3000l and 3500L
respectively. The distances in km between depots and petrol pumps is given in the following table:
Distance in KM
From/To A B
D 7 3
E 6 4
F 3 2
Assuming that the transportation cost of 10 litres of oil is Rs.1 per km, how should the delivery be
scheduled in order that the transportation cost is minimum? What is the minimum cost?

Q.29 If X denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two fair dice are rolled. Find the variance and
standard deviation of X.

**********

Page 3 of 3
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune

Date : 04 /01 /19 PRELIM-2 (SET B) (2018-2019) Marks : 100


Std. : XII ENGLISH –MODEL ANS. Time : 3 Hr.

General Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of three sections
2.All questions are compulsory
3. There are 5 printed pages
4. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION A
(READING- 30 MARKS)

Q1. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: (20)

1.1 Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1x5=5)
a) The `Qissa-i-Sanjan’ recounts……
i) how the Parsi community settled in India

b) The `Damascus sword’ used in wars was made with steel technology which came from……
ii) India

c) Sanjan was captured by…


iii) Alf Khan

d) The port of Hormuz is located in……


iv) Iran

e) The leader of the …… composed sixteen Sanskrit shlokas to explain their beliefs.
i) Zoroastrians
1.2 Answer the following briefly:
SAME ANSWERS AS SET A ()
a) Why did the Zoroastrians leave Diu?
b) What did the king want to convey through the bowl filled with milk to the top?
c) What was noticed by the king about the religious rituals of the refugees?
d) Why did the Parsis establish a new settlement at Navsari?
e) What professions are associated with the Roma?
f) On what grounds are the Roma considered of Indian origin?

1.3 Answer any three in 25-30 words:


SAME ANSWERS AS SET A (2x3=6)
a) Why did many Zoroastrians flee to India?
b) Mention any two conditions laid down by the king on the Parsis in India.
c) Why is the author convinced that the Roma were not a slave community?
d) Why did the Parsi leader add some sugar to the bowl of milk?
1.4 Find words from the passage which mean the same as the following: (1x3=3)
a) a difficult situation (para 3)predicament
b) the state of lasting forever (para4) perpetuity
c) fascinating (para 8) intriguing

Q2. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: (10)
SAME ANSWERS AS SET A
a) On the basis of your understanding of the above passage make notes on it using headings and
subheadings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary-minimum four) and a format you
consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5)
b) Write a summary of the passage in about 100 words. (5)

SECTION B
(WRITING SKILLS-30 MARKS)
Q3.a) You are Naresh, Manager of Raheja Publishing House. You are going to hold a children’s book
exhibition in Town Hall, New Faridabad. Draft an advertisement in not more than 50 words to be published The
Hindustan Times, giving all relevant details. (4)
OR

Q3.b) The Literary Club of your schoolis organizing a caricature contest in the school. Draft an invitation in not
more than 50 words, inviting the famous cartoonist Paresh Nath to be the special guest of honour during the
contest.

Q4.a) Mahesh Sharma of 59, Lal Bagh, Hyderabad, sees an advertisement in The Times Ascent and decides to
apply for the job of Manager (HRD). Write an application to the Personnel Manager, K.B Publications,
Hyderabad. (6)

OR
Q4.b) You are Satish/ Sonali, the student prefect in charge of the school library. You have been asked by your
Principal to write a letter to place an order for children’s storybooks (10-13 years). Write a letter to M.S Book
Depot, Ramnagar, Bikaner, placing an order for the books. Give all necessary details.

Q5.a) You are Naman/ Neha of Marigold Public School, Chandigarh. You recently attended a seminar on `Road
Safety’. Write a report on the same in 150-200 words. (10)
OR

Q5.b) Excessive focus on academics allows little time to children to engage in hobbies. Write an article on the
`Importance of hobbies in one’s life’ in 150-200 words. You are Ravi/Ravee.

Q6.a) You are Rajan/Rima. You are going to participate in a debate competition on the topic `Nuclear families
are better than joint families’. Write your speech in 150-200 words. (10)

OR
Q6.b) In this age of growing `I, me, myself’ attitude, it is very important to teach students the value of giving
back to society. As the Principal of your school, write a speech on the benefits of community service in about
150-200 words.

SECTION C
( LITERATURE TEXTS AND LONG READING BOOK-40 MARKS)
Q7.a) Read the extract and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)
`Far, far from gusty waves these children’s faces.
Like rootless weeds, the hair torn around their pallor,
The tall girl with her weighed down head. The
paper-seeming boy, with rat’s eyes. The stunted, unlucky heir
of twisted bones, reciting a father’s gnarled disease
his lesson from his desk….
SAME ANSWERS AS SET A

a) Why does the tall girl sit with a `weighed down head’?
b) What has the boy inherited from his father?
c) What does the phrase `rootless weeds’ suggest to you?
d) Name the poet.

OR

Q7.b) Read the extract and answer the following questions:


SAME ANSWERS AS SET A

`Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen,


Bright topaz denizens of a world of green.
They do not fear the men beneath the tree;
They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.’

a) What are Aunt Jennifer’s tigers doing?


b) Describe their appearance.
c) How do we know that the tigers are fearless?
d) How do they pace?

Q8. Answer the following in30-40 words ( any FOUR) (3x4=12)

a) Why was M.Hamel wearing his ceremonial dress on that day?


M.Hamel was wearing his beautiful green coat, frilledshirt, black silk cap,embroidered—worn only on
special days--- he was wearing it because it was the last lesson of French—alsace was under the rule of
Prussians—from the following day German master would come .
b) When did the ironmaster realize that his guest was not Nils Olof?
The following Morning when the guest came down dressedin a good-looking suit of clothesbelonging to
the ironmaster, awhite shirt starched collar whole shoes his hair was cut and he was freshly shaved—the
ironmaster immediately realized his mistake.
c) How were the share croppers being exploited by the landowners?
Estates were owned by Englishmen and worked by Indian Tenants. Chief commercial crop was
indigo—landlords compelled all tenants to plant 15% of their holdings with indigo and surrender
the entire indigo harvest as rent this was done by ling-term contract. The tenants remained forever
in debt.then Germany developed synthetic indigo which was cheaper—the landowners asked for
payment from the sharecroppers to be released from the agreement—many signed but those who
did not –thugs sent to beat them--
d) What gift did the Maharaja choose for his son’s third birthday? Why?
Decided to gift a tiger to his son—made of wood of very crude craftsmanship—for rs 300—felt it a
fitting gift from a king who had successfully killed a 100 tigers and disproved the astrologers.
e) How did Roger Skunk’s friends react to his new smell?
Friends very happy that Roger skunk no longer smelled bad. Plaenty of friends –played games
liketag,baseball,football,basketball,lacrosse,hockey,soccer pick-up-sticks—till it became dark and
then went home .
f) What indignities did Zitkala-Sa have to suffer in the new school?
Her traditional Shawl was taken away from her, nobody explained anything to her as her mother
did,--behave as the paleface woman asked her to—ultimate indignity of her hair being shingled
like that of a coward’s ,forcefully

Q9. Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words: (1x6=6)


a) Describe Sophie and her family.
Sophie’s Father—man of hard physical labour—not polished—football fan—not supportive of
Sophie’s dreams
Sophie’s mother—quiet lady who did all the housework-without a word—only concession to
fashion—a neatly tied apron bow
Elder brother Geoff—worked as an apprentice in a shop across town—a prospect very thrilling
for Sophie—spoke little—brooded—but listened to Sophie’s dreams –sophie confided in him-also a
football fan
Derry—younger brother—also a football fan—enjoyed getting Sophie into trouble with her father
Sophie—about to finish school and start working in a biscuit factory—but had dreams of
pursuing a career of glamour as a designer/actress/boutique owner/ imagined a date with Danny
Casey/ rejection by him—lived in a world of fantasy.

b) Roosevelt said` All we have to fear is fear itself’. Do you agree? Express you views in the context of the
lesson ` Deep Water’.

Q10. Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words: (1x6=6)


a) Dr Sadao was a patriotic Japanese as well as a dedicated surgeon. How could he honour both these values?
Performed his duty as a surgeon first then informed the General tactfully about it—waited for the
General to send his assassins—when they did not come –took the decision of helping the POW to
escape –hence able to to do both without bringing harm to his family.
b) What change took place in Derry when he met Mr Lamb?
ANSWER SAME AS SET A
Q11. Answer any one of the following in 120-150 words:
ANSWERS SAME AS SET A (1x6=6)
a) Do you think that Griffin himself was responsible for his tragic end or did society force him to turn against
his own kind?
b) Describe the meeting of Marvel and the mariner at Port Stowe.

Q12. Answer any one of the following in120-150 words:


ANSWERS SAME AS SET A(1x6=6)(1x6=6)
a) `Mrs Hall is a courteous woman with a strong mind’. Comment.
b) Write a character sketch of Dr Kemp as the voice of social conscience in the novel `The Invisible Man’.

………………
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date :17/12/2018 Pre-Board Exams (2018-2019) Max.Marks: 70
Std. : XII Subject:Physics Time: 3:00 hrs
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory. Symbols have their usual meanings
2. Use of calculator is not permitted. However you may use log tables if required
3. Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary to explain your answer
4. k = 9 × 109 Nm2 /C2
ε 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
µo = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1
h = 6.6 × 10-34 s
e = 1.6× 10-19 C
mn = mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

Section - A

Q.1 The figure shows two large metal plates P 1 and P 2 tightly held against each other and [1]
placed between two equal and unlike point charges perpendicular to the line joining
them.
1. What will happen to the plates when they are released?
2. Draw the electric field lines for the system.

Q.2 A parallel combination of two external cells of emf ε 1 and ε 2 and internal resistances r 1 and r 2 is used to [1]
supply current to a load of resistance R. Write the expression for the current through the load in terms of
ε 1 , ε 2 , r 1 and r 2 .

Q.3 A narrow beam of protons and deuterons, each having the same momentum enters a region of uniform [1]
magnetic field directed perpendicular to the direction of the momentum. What would be the ratio of the
radii of the circular paths described by them.
OR
Two particles A and B of masses m and 2m have charges q and 2q respectively. Both these particles
moving with a velocity of v 1 and v 2 respectively in the same direction, enter a magnetic field B acting
normally to their direction of motion. If the two forces F A and F B acting on them are in the ratio of 1:2
find the ratio of their velocities.

Q.4 A bar magnet is moved in the direction as indicated by the arrow [1]
between two coils PQ and CD. Predict the directions of the
induced current in each loop. Justify your answer.

Q.5 Two metals M 1 and M 2 have work functions 2eV and 4eV respectively. Which of the two has a higher [1]
threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect?
OR
De- Broglies wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference V is λ.
What will be its wavelength when the accelerating potential is increased to 4V ?

Section – B

Q.6 Draw equipotential surfaces due to a point charge Q > 0. Are these surfaces equidistant from each other. [2]
Justify your answer.

Page 1 of 5
Q.7 The figure shows an arrangement by which current flows [2]
through the bulb X connect with coil B when A.C is passed
through A.
a) Name the phenomenon involved
b) If a copper sheet is inserted in the gap between the coils, explain how the brightness of the bulb would
change. Explain your answer.

Q.8 How does the focal length of a lens change when red light incident on it is replaced by violet light? Give [2]
reasons for your answer
OR
The ratio of intensity at maxima and minima is 25:16. What will be the ratio of the width of the two slits
in Youngs double slit experiment?

Q.9 Draw and explain the output waveforms across the load resistor [2]
R, if the input waveform is as shown in the given figure.

OR

Explain the working of a full wave rectifier with a well labelled diagram

Q.10 For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10V while the minimum [2]
amplitude is 2V. Calculate the modulation index. Why is the modulation index generally kept less than 1?

Q.11 Write an expression for frequency of an ideal LC circuit. Give two reasons, why in an actual LC circuit [2]
the oscillations ultimately die away?

Q.12 Let two conducting spheres of radii r 1 and r 2 be joined by a thin wire and a total charge of q be given to [2]
them. Prove that the charges on the spheres will be in the ratio of their radii.

Section – C

Q.13 In the figure a long potentiometer wire AB is having a constant potential [3]
gradient along its length. The null points for the two primary cells of emf ε 1 and
ε 2 connected in a manner as shown are obtained at a distance of 120 cm and 300
cm from the end A. Find (i) ε 1 / ε 2 and (ii) position of null point for ε 1 .
How is the sensitivity of the potentiometer increased?

OR
For the potentiometer shown in the figure, points X and Y represent the two
terminals of an unknown emf E’ . A student observes that when the jockey
is moved from A to B of the poentiometer wire, the deflection in the
galvanometer remains in the same direction. What may be the two possible
faults in the circuit that could lead to this observation?
If the galvanometer deflection at the end B is (i) more, (ii) less than that at
the end A, which of the two faults, listed above, would be there in the
circuit?

Page 2 of 5
Q.14 A device X is connected to an AC source. The variation of [3]
voltage, current and power in one complete cycle is shown in
the figure.
a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full
cycle?
b) What is the average power consumption over a cycle?
c) Identify the device X.

Q.15 Name the constituent radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum which [3]
a) Produce intense heating effect
b) Is absorbed by the ozone layer in the atmosphere
c) Is used for studying the crystal structure
Write one more application of each of these radiations.

OR

State how the following radiations are produced. Also give one application of each
a) Infra-red radiations
b) Gamma rays
c) Microwaves

Q.16 Red light however bright it is, cannot produce the emission of electrons from a clean zinc surface. But [3]
even weak ultraviolet radiation can do so. Why?
X-rays of wavelength λ fall on a photosensitive surface, emitting electrons. Assuming that the work
function of the surface can be neglected prove that the De- Broglie wavelength of the electrons emitted
ℎ𝜆𝜆
will be � .
2𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

Q.17 An infinitely long cylinder of radius R carries a uniform charge density ρ C/m3 . Obtain an expression for [3]
the electric field at a point (a) inside and (b) outside the cylinder.

Q.18 a) Why is communication due to line of sight mode limited to frequencies above 40MHz? [3]
b) A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32m and the height of the receiving antenna
is 50m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight
mode?
OR
Which mode of propagation is used by short wave broadcasts services having frequency range from a few
MHz to 30MHz? Explain diagrammatically how long distance communication can be achieved by this
mode. Why is there an upper limit to the frequency of waves used in this mode?

Q.19 If the nucleons of a nucleus are separated far apart from each other, the sum of the masses of all the [3]
nucleons is larger than the mass of the nucleus. Where does this mass difference come from?
Calculate the energy released in MeV if 238 U emits an α – particle.
Given : Atomic mass of 238 U = 238.0508 u
Atomic mass of 234 Th = 234.04346 u
Atomic mass of α-particle = 4.00260 u

Q.20 In the circuit shown in the figure, determine the current in the resistance CD and [3]
equivalent resistance between the points A and B, if the internal resistance of cell is
negligible.

Page 3 of 5
Q.21 In a Geiger Marsden experiment, calculate the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of Z = 80, when [3]
an α – particle of 8MeV energy impinges on it before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its
direction.
How will the distance of closest approach be affected when the kinetic energy of the α – particle is
doubled?

Q.22 With the help of a suitable ray diagram derive the relation between the object distance, image distance [3]
and radius of curvature for a convex spherical surface, when a ray of light travels from rarer to denser
medium.
OR
With the help of a suitable ray diagram derive the relation between the object distance, image distance
and radius of curvature for a concave spherical surface, when a ray of light travels from rarer to denser
medium.

Q.23 a) What happens when a diamagnetic substance is placed in a varying magnetic field? [3]
b) Name the properties of a magnetic material that make it suitable for making (i) a permanent magnet
and (ii) core of an electromagnet.

Q.24 A symmetric biconvex lens of radius of curvature R and made of glass of [3]
refractive index 1.5 is placed on a layer of liquid placed on top of a plane
mirror as shown in the figure. An optical needle with its tip on the principal
axis of the lens is moved along the axis until its real, inverted image
coincides with the needle itself. The distance of the needle from the lens is
measured to be x. On removing the liquid layer and repeating the
experiment, the distance is found to be y. Obtain an expression for the
refractive index of the liquid in terms of x and y.

Q.25 Draw a schematic diagram of a cyclotron. State its working principle. Describe briefly how it can be used [5]
to accelerate charged particles. Show that the period of revolution of an ion is independent of its speed or
radius of the orbit. Write two important uses of the cyclotron.

OR

State the Biot Savart law, giving the mathematical expression for it. Use this law to derive the expression
for the magnetic field due to circular current carrying coil at a point along its axis.
How does a circular loop carrying current behave like a magnet?

Q.26 Explain the formation of depletion layer and potential barrier in a p-n junction. [5]
You are given a circuit below. Write its truth table. Hence identify the logic operation carried out by this
circuit. Draw the logic symbol of the gate that it corresponds to.

Also draw the output waveform for the above corresponding to the inputs given below

Page 4 of 5
OR

Explain the function of the base region of a transistor. Why is this region made thin and lightly doped?
Explain with the help of neat labelled diagram how a transistor works as an amplifier and derive and
expression for the same.

Q.27 Define a wavefront. Using Huygens principle verify the laws of refraction at a plane surface. Hence prove [5]
Snells law.
When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does this imply a
reduction in energy? Explain

OR

What is meant by linearly polarized light? Which type of waves can be polarized? Briefly explain a method
for producing polarized light.
Two polaroids are placed at 90o to each other and the intensity of transmitted light is zero. What will be
the intensity of transmitted light when on more polaroid is placed between these two, bisecting the angle
between them

Page 5 of 5
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : 07/01/2018 Pre-Board Exams – SET A (2018-2019) Max.Marks: 70
Std. : XII Subject:Physics Time: 3:00 hrs
General Instructions:
1. Number of printed pages are five.
2. All questions are compulsory. However there is an internal choice in all sections.
3. Symbols have their usual meanings.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted. However you may use log tables if required.
5. Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary to explain your answers.
k = 9 × 109 Nm2 /C2
ε 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
µo = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1
h = 6.6 × 10-34 s
e = 1.6× 10-19 C
mn = mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

Section - A

Q.1 A bird perches on a bare high power line and nothing happens to the bird. A man standing on the ground [1]
touches the same line and gets a fatal shock. Why?
OR
Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But rubber tyres of an aircraft are made slightly conducting. Why is this
necessary?

Q.2 Why is Wheatstones bridge method considered unsuitable for measurement of very high resistances? [1]
OR
Under what conditions will the terminal potential difference of a cell be greater than its emf?

Q.3 Define relaxation time. What will happen to the relaxation time of electrons in a conductor if the [1]
temperature is increased?

Q.4 A magnetic needle, free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself vertically at a certain place on the Earth. [1]
What are the values of (i) horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and (ii) angle of dip at that
place?

Q.5 What happens to the wavelength of a photon after collision with a photon? Justify your answer. [1]

Q.6 Define dielectric constant of a medium. Explain briefly why the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor [2]
increases, on introducing a dielectric medium between the plates.

Q.7 The graphs (i) and (ii) represent the variation of the [2]
opposition offered by the circuit element to the flow of
alternating current with frequency of the applied emf.
Identify the element corresponding to each graph
If both these element are connected in series in a circuit,
what will be ahead in phase, voltage or current?

OR

Page 1 of 5
A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform
magnetic field to a field free region with a constant velocity ‘v’ as
shown in the figure. Explain in which loop do you expect the
induced emf to be constant during the passage out of the field
region. The magnetic field is normal to the loops.

Q.8 A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80cm. What is the area of the [2]
surface of the water through which light from a bulb can emerge out. Refractive index of water is 1.33.
(Consider the bulb to be a point source)
OR

Using the data given below, state as to which of the given lenses will you prefer to use as an (i) eyepiece
and (ii) as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope. Give reasons for your answer

Lens Power Aperture


L1 1D 0.1m
L2 10D 0.05m
L3 10D 0.02m
L4 20D 0.02m

Q.9 A change in 0.2mA in the base current causes a change of 5mA in the collector current of a common [2]
emitter amplifier.
a)Find the a.c current gain of the transistor
b)If the input resistance is 2kΩ and its voltage gain is 75, calculate the load resistor used in the circuit.

Q.10 Draw a block diagram of a simple amplitude modulation. Explain briefly how amplitude modulation is [2]
achieved.

Q.11 Derive an expression for the self inductance of a long solenoid of cross sectional area A and length l, [2]
having n turns per unit length

Q.12 The net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series in 1µF. What will be their capacitance if they [2]
are connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of the energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the same source.

Section – C

Q.13 Find the effective resistance between points A and B of the network [3]
of resistors

Page 2 of 5
Q.14 What are eddy currents? How are they produced? In what sense are eddy current considered undesirable [3]
in a transformer and how are they reduced in such a device.

OR

How is mutual inductance in a pair of coils affected when


a) Separation between the coils is increased
b) Number of turns in each coil is increased
c) A thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same?
d) Explain your answer in each case.

Q.15 In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 x 1010 H and amplitude [3]
48Vm-1 .
a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
b) What is the magnitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equal the average energy density of the B
field.
OR
Name the following constituent radiations of electromagnetic spectrum which
a) Produce intense heating effect
b) Is absorbed by the ozone layer in the atmosphere
c) Is used for studying crystal structure
Write one more application for each of these radiations.

Q.16 Obtain the expression for the wavelength of de Broglie wave associated with an electron accelerated from [3]
rest through a potential difference of V.
The two lines A and B shown in the graph plot the de Broglie wavelength (λ)
as a function of 1/√𝑉𝑉 (V is the accelerating potential) for two particles having
the same charge. Which of the two represents the particle of heavier mass?

Q.17 Two point charges q 1 and q 2 of 10-8 and -10-8 respectively are placed [3]
0.1m apart. Calculate the electric fields at A, B and C as shown in the
figure.

OR

The figure shows four point charges at the corner of a square of side
2cm. Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the center
of the square if Q = 0.02µC.

Page 3 of 5
Q.18 An AM wave is represented by C m(t) = 6(1+ 0.5cos 12560t)cos 22 x 105 t. Calculate [3]
a) Amplitude and frequency of carrier wave
b) Frequency of modulating signal
c) Modulation index
d) Maximum and minimum amplitude of the AM wave.

Q.19 What characteristic property of the nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in [3]
the range of mass number A lying 30 < A < 170?
Show that the density of nucleus over wide range of nuclei is independent of mass number A.

OR

a) Define activity of a radioactive element and state its SI unit.


b) Plot a graph showing the variation of activity of radioactive sample with time.
c) The sequence of stepwise decay of a radioactive nucleus is

If the atomic number and mass number of D 2 are 71 and 176 respectively, what are their
corresponding values for D?

Q.20 State the working principle of a meter bridge. In a meter bridge, the balance point is found at a distance l1 [3]
with resistances R and S in the left and right gap respectively. When an unknown resistance X is connected
in parallel with the resistance S, the balance point shifts to l2 . Find the expression for X in terms of l1 , l2
and S.

Q.21 a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. Which [3]
of them will result in the transition of a photon of
wavelength 275 nm?
b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of
maximum wavelength?

Q.22 A beam of light converges to point P. A lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 12 cm from P. [3]
At what point does the beam converge if Helens is
a) A convex lens of focal length 20cm
b) A concave lens of focal length 16cm
Do the required calculations.

Q.23 Three identical specimens of magnetic materials Nickel, Antimony and Aluminium are kept in a non [3]
uniform magnetic field. Draw the modification in the field lines in each case. Justify your answer.

Q.24 a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width ‘d’ is illuminated by red light of wavelength [3]
650nm. For what value of ‘d’ will
1. The first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o and
2. The first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o
b) Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central maximum?

Page 4 of 5
Q.25 Why is Zener diode considered as a special purpose semiconductor diode? [5]
Draw the I-V characteristics of a zener diode and explain briefly how the reverse bias current suddenly
increases at breakdown voltage.
Describe with the help of a circuit diagram how a zener diode works to obtain a constant dc voltage from
an unregulated output of a recitifier.

OR

Describe with the help of a diagram the role of two important processes involved in the formation of p-n
junction.
With the help of a labelled circuit diagram explain the use of p-n junction diode as a light emitting diode
and a photodiode.

Q.26 a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer. [5]
b) What is the importance of a radial magnetic field and how is it produced?
c) Why is that while using a moving coil galvanometer as a voltmeter a high resistance in series is
required whereas in an ammeter a shunt is used?

OR

a) State the Amperes circuital law.


b) Use it to derive an expression for the magnetic field inside along the axis of an air cored solenoid?
c) Sketch the magnetic field lines for a finite solenoid. How are these field lines different from the
electric field lines from an electric dipole?

Q.27 a) A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one of the faces of an equilateral triangular prism of [5]
refracting angle A. Trace the path of the ray passing through the prism. Hence derive an expression
for the refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of the angle of minimum deviation and
its refracting angle.
b) Explain briefly how the phenomenon of total internal reflection is used in optical fibres. Draw a well
labelled diagram for the same

OR

a) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of an image by a compound microscope. Define its magnifying
power. Deduce an expression for the magnifying power of the microscope.
b) Explain
i. Why must both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have short focal
lengths.
ii. While viewing through the compound microscope why should or eyes be positioned not on
the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?

Page 5 of 5
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : 07/01/2018 Pre-Board Exams - SET B (2018-2019) Max.Marks: 70
Std. : XII Subject:Physics Time: 3:00 hrs
General Instructions:
1. Number of printed pages are five.
2. All questions are compulsory. However there is an internal choice in all sections.
3. Symbols have their usual meanings.
4. Use of calculator is not permitted. However you may use log tables if required.
5. Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary to explain your answers.
k = 9 × 109 Nm2 /C2
ε 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
µo = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1
h = 6.6 × 10-34 s
e = 1.6× 10-19 C
mn = mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

Section - A

Q.1 What happens to the wavelength of a photon after collision with a photon? Justify your answer. [1]

Q.2 Define relaxation time. What will happen to the relaxation time of electrons in a conductor if the [1]
temperature is increased?

Q.3 Why is Wheatstones bridge method considered unsuitable for measurement of very high resistances? [1]
OR
Under what conditions will the terminal potential difference of a cell be greater than its emf?

Q.4 A magnetic needle, free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself vertically at a certain place on the Earth. [1]
What are the values of (i) horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and (ii) angle of dip at that
place?

Q.5 A bird perches on a bare high power line and nothing happens to the bird. A man standing on the ground [1]
touches the same line and gets a fatal shock. Why?
OR
Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But rubber tyres of an aircraft are made slightly conducting. Why is this
necessary?

Q.6 Why is the electric field always perpendicular to the surface of a metal conductor? [2]

Q.7 The graphs (i) and (ii) represent the variation of the [2]
opposition offered by the circuit element to the flow
of alternating current with frequency of the applied
emf. Identify the element corresponding to each
graph
If both these element are connected in series in a
circuit, what will be ahead in phase, voltage or
current?

OR

Page 1 of 5
A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a
uniform magnetic field to a field free region with a constant
velocity ‘v’ as shown in the figure. Explain in which loop do
you expect the induced emf to be constant during the passage
out of the field region. The magnetic field is normal to the
loops.

Q.8 Name the three different types of propagation of electromagnetic waves. Explain using a proper diagram [2]
the mode of propogation used in the frequency range of few MHz to 40MHz.

Q.9 A change in 0.2mA in the base current causes a change of 5mA in the collector current of a common [2]
emitter amplifier.
a)Find the a.c current gain of the transistor
b)If the input resistance is 2kΩ and its voltage gain is 75, calculate the load resistor used in the circuit.

Q.10 A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80cm. What is the area of the [2]
surface of the water through which light from a bulb can emerge out. Refractive index of water is 1.33.
(Consider the bulb to be a point source)
OR

Using the data given below, state as to which of the given lenses will you prefer to use as an (i) eyepiece
and (ii) as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope. Give reasons for your answer

Lens Power Aperture


L1 1D 0.1m
L2 10D 0.05m
L3 10D 0.02m
L4 20D 0.02m

Q.11 2 /R in an A.C. circuit.


Prove that an ideal resistor dissipates power of 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 [2]

Q.12 The net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series in 1µF. What will be their capacitance if they [2]
are connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of the energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the same source.

Section – C

Q.13 Find the effective resistance between points A and B of the [3]
network of resistors

Page 2 of 5
Q.14 What characteristic property of the nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in [3]
the range of mass number A lying 30 < A < 170?
Show that the density of nucleus over wide range of nuclei is independent of mass number A.

OR

a) Define activity of a radioactive element and state its SI unit.


b) Plot a graph showing the variation of activity of radioactive sample with time.
c) The sequence of stepwise decay of a radioactive nucleus is

If the atomic number and mass number of D 2 are 71 and 176 respectively, what re their
corresponding values for D?

Q.15 In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 x 1010 H and amplitude [3]
48Vm-1 .
a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
b) What is the magnitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equal the average energy density of the B
field.
OR

Name the following constituent radiations of electromagnetic spectrum which


a) Produce intense heating effect
b) Is absorbed by the ozone layer in the atmosphere
c) Is used for studying crystal structure
Write one more application for each of these radiations.

Q.16 What are eddy currents? How are they produced? In what sense are eddy current considered undesirable [3]
in a transformer and how are they reduced in such a device.

OR

How is mutual inductance in a pair of coils affected when


a) Separation between the coils is increased
b) Number of turns in each coil is increased
c) A thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same?
Explain your answer in each case.

Q.17 Two point charges q 1 and q 2 of 10-8 and -10-8 respectively are placed [3]
0.1m apart. Calculate the electric fields at A, B and C as shown in the
figure.

OR

Page 3 of 5
The figure shows four point charges at the corner of a square of side
2cm. Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the center
of the square if Q = 0.02µC.

Q.18 State the working principle of a meter bridge. In a meter bridge, the balance point is found at a distance [3]
l1 with resistances R and S in the left and right gap respectively. When an unknown resistance X is
connected in parallel with the resistance S, the balance point shifts to l2 . Find the expression for X in terms
of l1 , l2 and S.

Q.19 a) Where on the earths surface is the value of the vertical component of the earths magnetic field zero? [3]
The horizontal component of the earths magnetic field at a given place is 0.4 x 10-4 Wb/m2 and angle
of dip is 30o . Calculate the value of the (i) vertical component (ii) total intensity of the earths magnetic
field?

Q.20 What is the role of the band pass filter in amplitude modulation? Draw a block diagram of A.M signal [3]
and briefly explain how the original signal is obtained from the modulated wave.

Q.21 a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown [3]


below. Which of them will result in the transition of a
photon of wavelength 275 nm?
b) Which transition corresponds to emission of
radiation of maximum wavelength?

Q.22 a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width ‘d’ is illuminated by red light of wavelength [3]
650nm. For what value of ‘d’ will
1. The first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o and
2. The first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o
Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central maximum?

Q.23 Obtain the expression for the wavelength of de Broglie wave associated with an electron accelerated from [3]
rest through a potential difference of V.
The two lines A and B shown in the graph plot the de Broglie wavelength (λ)
as a function of 1/√𝑉𝑉 (V is the accelerating potential) for two particles having
the same charge. Which of the two represents the particle of heavier mass?

Q.24 A beam of light converges to point P. A lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 12 cm from P. [3]
At what point does the beam converge if Helens is
a) A convex lens of focal length 20cm
b) A concave lens of focal length 16cm
Do the required calculations

Page 4 of 5
Q.25 a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil galvanometer. [5]
b) What is the importance of a radial magnetic field and how is it produced?
c) Why is that while using a moving coil galvanometer as a voltmeter a high resistance in series is
required whereas in an ammeter a shunt is used?

OR

a) State the Amperes circuital law.


b) Use it to derive an expression for the magnetic field inside along the axis of an air cored solenoid?
c) Sketch the magnetic field lines for a finite solenoid. How are these field lines different from the
electric field lines from an electric dipole?

Q.26 Why is Zener diode considered as a special purpose semiconductor diode? [5]
Draw the I-V characteristics of a zener diode and explain briefly how the reverse bias current suddenly
increases at breakdown voltage.
Describe with the help of a circuit diagram how a zener diode works to obtain a constant dc voltage from
an unregulated output of a recitifier.

OR

Describe with the help of a diagram the role of two important processes involved in the formation of p-n
junction.
With the help of a labelled circuit diagram explain the use of p-n junction diode as a light emitting diode
and a photodiode.

Q.27 a) A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one of the faces of an equilateral triangular prism of [5]
refracting angle A. Trace the path of the ray passing through the prism. Hence derive an expression
for the refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of the angle of minimum deviation and
its refracting angle.
b) Explain briefly how the phenomenon of total internal reflection is used in optical fibres. Draw a well
labelled diagram for the same

OR

a) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of an image by a compound microscope. Define its magnifying
power. Deduce an expression for the magnifying power of the microscope.
b) Explain
i. Why must both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have short focal
lengths.
ii. While viewing through the compound microscope why should or eyes be positioned not on
the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?

Page 5 of 5
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : /01/2018 Pre-Board Exams (2018-2019) Max.Marks: 70
Std. : XII Subject:Physics Time: 3:00 hrs
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory. Symbols have their usual meanings
2. Use of calculator is not permitted. However you may use log tables if required
3. Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary to explain your answer
4. k = 9 × 109 Nm2 /C2
ε 0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2
µo = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1
h = 6.6 × 10-34 s
e = 1.6× 10-19 C
mn = mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

Section - A

Q.1 A bird perches on a bare high power line and nothing happens to the bird. A man standing on the ground [1]
touches the same line and gets a fatal shock. Why?
OR
Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But rubber tyres of an aircraft are made slightly conducting. Why is this
necessary?

Q.2 Why is Wheatstones bridge method considered unsuitable for measurement of very high resistances? [1]
OR
Under what conditions will the terminal potential difference of a cell be greater than its emf?

Q.3 What is the advantage of using a radial magnetic field in a moving coil galvanometer? [1]

Q.4 A magnetic needle, free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself vertically at a certain place on the Earth. [1]
What are the values of (i) horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and (ii) angle of dip at that
place?

Q.5 What happens to the wavelength of a photon after collision with a photon? Justify your answer. [1]

Q.6 Define dielectric constant of a medium. Explain briefly why the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor [2]
increases, on introducing a dielectric medium between the plates.

Q.7 The graphs (i) and (ii) represent the variation of the opposition offered by [2]
the circuit element to the flow of alternating current with frequency of the
applied emf. Identify the element corresponding to each graph
If both these element are connected in series in a circuit, what will be
ahead in phase, voltage or current?

OR
A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform
magnetic field to a field free region with a constant velocity ‘v’ as shown
in the figure. Explain in which loop do you expect the induced emf to be
constant during the passage out of the field region. The magnetic field is
normal to the loops.

Page 1 of 5
Q.8 A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80cm. What is the area of the [2]
surface of the water through which light from a bulb can emerge out. Refractive index of water is 1.33.
(Consider the bulb to be a point source)
OR
Using the data given below, state as to which of the given lenses will you prefer to use as an (i) eyepiece
and (ii) as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope. Give reasons for your answer
Lens Power Aperture
L1 1D 0.1m
L2 10D 0.05m
L3 10D 0.02m
L4 20D 0.02m

Q.9 A change in 0.2mA in the base current causes a change of 5mA in the collector current of a common [2]
emitter amplifier.
a)Find the a.c current gain of the transistor
b)If the input resistance is 2kΩ and its voltage gain is 75, calculate the load resistor used in the circuit.

Q.10 Draw a block diagram of a simple amplitude modulation. Explain briefly how amplitude modulation is [2]
achieved.

Q.11 Derive an expression for the self inductance of a long solenoid of cross sectional area A and length l, [2]
having n turns per unit length

Q.12 The net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series in 1µF. What will be their capacitance if they [2]
are connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of the energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the same source.

Section – C

Q.13 Find the effective resistance between points A and B of the network of [3]
resistors

Q.14 What are eddy currents? How are they produced? In what sense are eddy current considered undesirable [3]
in a transformer and how are they reduced in such a device.
OR
How is mutual inductance in a pair of coils affected when
a) Separation between the coils is increased
b) Number of turns in each coil is increased
c) A thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, other factors remaining the same?
d) Explain your answer in each case.

Q.15 In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 x 1010 H and amplitude [3]
48Vm-1 .
a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
b) What is the magnitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equal the average energy density of the B
field.

Page 2 of 5
OR
Name the following constituent radiations of electromagnetic spectrum which
a) Produce intense heating effect
b) Is absorbed by the ozone layer in the atmosphere
c) Is used for studying crystal structure
Write one more application for each of these radiations.

Q.16 Obtain the expression for the wavelength of de Broglie wave associated with an electron accelerated from [3]
rest through a potential difference of V.
The two lines A and B shown in the graph plot the de Broglie wavelength (λ) as a
function of 1/√𝑉𝑉 (V is the accelerating potential) for two particles having the same
charge. Which of the two represents the particle of heavier mass?

Q.17 Two point charges q 1 and q 2 of 10-8 and -10-8 respectively are placed 0.1m apart. [3]
Calculate the electric fields at A, B and C as shown in the figure.

OR
The figure shown four point charges at the corner of a square of side 2cm. Find
the magnitude and direction of the electric field at the center of the square if Q =
0.02µC.

Q.18 What is the role of the band pass filter in amplitude modulation? Draw a block diagram of A.M signal [3]
and briefly explain how the original signal is obtained from the modulated wave.

Q.19 What characteristic property of the nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in [3]
the range of mass number A lying 30 < A < 170?
Show that the density of nucleus over wide range of nuclei is independent of mass number A.

OR

a) Define activity of a radioactive element and state its SI unit.


b) Plot a graph showing the variation of activity of radioactive sample with time.
c) The sequence of stepwise decay of a radioactive nucleus is

If the atomic number and mass number of D 2 are 71 and 176 respectively, what re their
corresponding values for D?

Q.20 State the working principle of a meter bridge. In a meter bridge balance point is found at a distance l1 [3]
with resistances R and S in the left and right gap respectively. When an unknown resistance X is connected
in parallel with the resistance S, the balance point shifts to l2 . Find the expression for X in terms of l1 , l2
and S.

Q.21 a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown below. Which of them will [3]
result in the transition of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?
b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum
wavelength?

Page 3 of 5
Q.22 State the conditions under which total internal reflection takes place? [3]
One face of a prism with refracting angle 30o is coated with silver. A ray incident on another face at an
angle of 45o is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face and retraces its path. Find the reractive
index of the material of the prism

Q.23 a) Where on the earths surface is the value of the vertical component of the earths magnetic field zero? [3]
The horizontal component of the earths magnetic field at a given place is 0.4 x 10-4 Wb/m2 and angle
of dip is 30o . Calculate the value of the (i) vertical component (ii) total intensity of the earths magnetic
field?

Q.24 a) In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width ‘d’ is illuminated by red light of wavelength [3]
650nm. For what value of ‘d’ will
1. The first minimum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o and
2. The first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o
b) Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central maximum?

Q.25 Draw a schematic diagram of a cyclotron. State its working principle. Describe briefly how it can be used [5]
to accelerate charged particles. Show that the period of revolution of an ion is independent of its speed or
radius of the orbit. Write two important uses of the cyclotron.

OR

State the Biot Savart law, giving the mathematical expression for it. Use this law to derive the expression
for the magnetic field due to circular current carrying coil at a point along its axis.
How does a circular loop carrying current behave like a magnet

Q.26 Explain the formation of depletion layer and potential barrier in a p-n junction. [5]
You are given a circuit below. Write its truth table. Hence identify the logic operation carried out by this
circuit. Draw the logic symbol of the gate that it corresponds to.

Also draw the output waveform for the above corresponding to the inputs given below

OR

Explain the function of the base region of a transistor. Why is this region made thin and lightly doped?
Explain with the help of neat labelled diagram how a transistor works as an amplifier and derive and
expression for the same.

Q.27 Define a wavefront. Using Huygens principle verify the laws of refraction at a plane surface. Hence prove [5]
Snells law.
When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does this imply a
reduction in energy? Explain

Page 4 of 5
OR

What is meant by linearly polarized light? Which type of waves can be polarized? Briefly explain a method
for producing polarized light.
Two polaroids are placed at 90o to each other and the intensity of transmitted light is zero. What will be
the intensity of transmitted light when on more polaroid is placed between these two, bisecting the angle
between them

Page 5 of 5
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : 10/12/2018 Pre-Board-I- Exam (2018-2019) Marks : 70

Std. : XII Science Chemistry Time : 3 Hrs


General Instructions:

1. There are 4 printed pages.


2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A: Q.no. 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
4. Section B: Q.no. 6 to 12 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
5. Section C: Q.no. 13 to 24 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
6. Section D: Q.no. 25 to 27 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
7. There is no overall choice. However an internal choice has been provided in two questions of one mark,
two questions of two marks, four questions of three marks and all the three questions of five marks
weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
8. Use of log tables is allowed if necessary, use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

Q.1 Give cell representation of Daniel cell. [1]

Q.2 Out of NH3 & CO 2 , which gas will be adsorbed more readily on the surface of activated [1]
charcoal & why?
OR
A delta is formed at the meeting point of sea & river water. Why?

Q.3 What is meant by denticity of ligand? [1]


OR
What is meant by chelate effect?
Q.4 Draw structure of 3-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-methylpropane. [1]

Q.5 Give structure of sugar present in RNA. [1]

SECTION B

Q.6 Calculate the packing efficiency of a crystal for body face centered cubic lattice. [2]

OR
What change will occur when AgCl is doped with CaCl2 ? Explain.
Q.7 State the law that correlates pressure of gas & its solubility in liquid. Give an application of [2]
same.

Q.8 The rate of the reaction becomes four times when temperature changes from 300 K to 320 [2]
K. Calculate Ea (Energy of activation ) for given reaction assuming that it doesn’t change
1 of 4
with temperature.
OR
The rate constant for a zero order reaction in w.r.t. A is 0.0033 M sec-1 . How long will it
take for initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?

Q.9 Distinguish between multimolecular & associated colloids. [2]

Q.10 Calculate no. of unit cells in 8.1gm of Aluminum if it crystallizes in face centered cubic [2]
structure.( At. Mass Al= 27 g mol-1 )
Q.11 Why are Cd2+ salts white? [2]
Cu+ ions are not stable in an aqueous solution. Why?
Q.12 Give mechanism for the conversion of ethanol to ethyl bromide. [2]

SECTION C

Q.13 Calculate the standard cell potential, ΔG0 & equilibrium constant of a galvanic cell with [3]
given electrodes E0 Cr 3+ / Cr = -0.74 V, E0 Cd 2+ / Cd = -0.40 V.
OR
The resistance of 0.01 M NaCl solution at 250 C is 200 Ω. The cell constant of the
conductivity cell is unity. Calculate the molar conductivity of the solution.

Q.14 Define energy of activation. Prove that the time required for 99 % completion of a first [3]
order reaction is double the time required for 90% completion of reaction.
Q.15 Answer the following:- [3]
a) What is ‘copper matte’?
b) Explain role of NaCN in extraction of silver.
c) Write reactions involved in refining of Zirconium.
Q.16 Draw structures of:- [3]
a) H2 S 2 O 8 b) XeOF 4 c) H4 P 2 O 7

OR
Assign reason for the following:-
a) H2 S has lower boiling point than H2 O.
b) Reducing character decreases from SO 2 to TeO 2 .
c) NF 3 is an exothermic compound whereas NCl3 is not.

Q.17 Write the reactions involved for the following:- [3]


a) HCl is added to MnO 2 .
b) Copper is treated with nitric acid.
c) Chlorine on reaction with dry slaked lime.

Q.18 Describe how potassium dichromate is prepared from sodium chromate? [3]
Color of potassium dichromate changes with change in pH of solution. Why?

Q.19 Give IUPAC name & using valence bond theory explain hybridization, geometry & [3]
magnetic behavior of [Pt(NH3 ) 2 Cl(NO 2 )].

Q.20 Explain the following along with the reactions involved:-


a) Ethyl chloride is treated with AgNO 2 .
b) Benzoic acid on treatment with SOCl2 .
Convert Chloroethane to ethylbenzene. [3]
2 of 4
Q.21 Write equations involved in Reimer-Tiemann reaction. [3]
Name the reagent used in the following conversions:-
a) Conversion of phenol to picric acid.
b) Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde.
(OR)
Write equations involved in Williamson’s ether synthesis.
Convert:-a) Phenol to anisole b) Aniline to Phenol

Q.22 Explain the following with an example:- [3]


a)Etard reaction
b)Hell VolhardZelinsky reaction
c) Stephen reduction

Q.23 Describe following reactions with an example:- [3]


a) Hofmann bromamide reaction
b) Diazo coupling
c) Carbyl amine reaction.

Q.24 Enumerate reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by open chain structure. [3]
(OR)
What are essential & non-essential amino acids? Give an example of each.
Two strands of DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.

SECTION D

Q.25 a. Henry’s law constant for CO 2 dissolved in water is 1.67× 108 Pa at 298 K. Calculate [5]
the quantity of CO 2 in 1 L of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO 2 pressure at
298 K.

b. A compound forms hexagonal closed packed structure. What is the total number of
voids in 0.5 moles of it? How many of these are tetrahedral?

(OR)

a) 30 gm of urea (M= 60 g mol-1 ) is dissolved in 846 gm of water. Calculate the vapor


pressure of water for this solution if vapor pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8
mm Hg.

b) An element X crystallizes as a bcc lattice. If the edge length of the unit cell is found
to be 287 pm, calculate atomic radius of given element.

Q.26 a) An organic compound A(C 3 H8 O) on treatment with Cu at 573K gives B which gives [5]
positive iodoform test and forms C, but B doesn’t reduce Fehling’s solution. Identify A, B
& C. Write the reactions involved.
b)Account for the following:-

3 of 4
i. Methyl amine is more basic than Aniline.
ii. –NH2 is o/p directing but still on nitration gives significant amount of meta product.
(OR)

a) A ketone A(C 4 H8 O) on reduction gives B. B on heating with sulphuric acid gives


C.(A gives positive iodoform test)Identify A, B & C.Write reactions involved.
b) Convert:-
i. Ethylamine to methylamine.
ii. Ethanamine to N-ethylethanamide
Q.27 A) Write the name & structure of of the monomers of following polymers:- [5]
i. Buna-S
ii. PHBV
iii. Nylon-6
B) Explain with example:-
i) Antibiotics
ii) Tranquilizers.

(OR)
a) Differentiate between Thermoplastic & thermosetting polymers(2 points). Give
examples.
b) What is difference between narrow & broad spectrum antibiotics?

4 of 4
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : 14/01/2019 Pre_Board_II_Exam (2018-2019) Marks : 70

Std. : XII Science Chemistry (SET_A) Time : 3 Hrs


General Instructions:

1. There are 4 printed pages.


2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A: Q.no. 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
4. Section B: Q.no. 6 to 12 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
5. Section C: Q.no. 13 to 24 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
6. Section D: Q.no. 25 to 27 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
7. There is no overall choice. However an internal choice has been provided in two questions of one mark,
two questions of two marks, four questions of three marks and all the three questions of five marks
weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
8. Use of log tables is allowed if necessary, use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

Q.1 How can we increase the reduction potential of an electrode? [1]

Q.2 What is meant by autocatalysis? [1]


(OR)
Explain the role of desorption in the process of catalysis.

Q.3 Why do tetrahedral complexes not show geometrical isomerism? [1]


(OR)
How many geometrical isomers are possible in [Cr(NH3 ) 3 Cl3 ]

Q.4 Name the reagent used to convert methyl bromide to propyne. [1]

Q.5 What are essential amino acids? [1]

SECTION B

Q.6 A cubic solid is made up of two elements X & Y, where atoms of X occupy the corners of a [2]
cube & that of Y is present at the face center of cubic lattice. What is the formula of the
compound?
(OR)
A compound is formed by two elements M & N in such a way that N forms a cubic closed
pack structure & M occupies 1/3rd of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the
compound?
Q.7 What type of liquid mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law? Explain with [2]
example.

1 of 4
Q.8 Calculate 2/3rd life for a first order reaction in which k= 5.48×10-14 sec-1 . [2]

(OR)

131 I has a half-life period of 13.3 hrs. After 79.8 hour, what fraction of 131 I will remain?

Q.9 a. Why is Ferric chloride preferred over KCl for treatment of bleeding caused by cuts? [2]
b. How can we distinguish dispersed phase & dispersion medium in case of an
emulsion?

Q.10 What is Tollen’s reagent? Where is it used? [2]

Q.11 Yellow colour of an aqueous solution of Na 2 CrO 4 changes to orange on passing CO 2 gas. [2]
Explain with reaction.

Q.12 How can we obtain following alcohols using methanal & suitable Grignard reagent? [2]
i. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
ii. Cyclohexylmethanol

SECTION C

Q.13 Calculate the cell potential at concentration of electrolytes in two half cells as Al3+(0.001M) [3]
& Ni2+(0.50M) cell with given electrodes E0 Al 3+ / Al = -1.66 V, E0 Ni 2+ / Ni = -0.250 V.

(OR)

Aqueous solution of CuSO 4 & AgNO 3 are electrolyzed by 1 Ampere current for 10 mins in
separate electrolytic cells. Will the mass of Ag & Cu deposited at the respective electrodes
be same or different? Justify.

Q.14 With help of an example, explain what is meant by pseudo first order reaction? [3]

Q.15 Write reactions that occur in different zones during extraction of iron. [3]

Q.16 Draw structures of:- [3]


a) H2 S 2 O 3 b) XeF 4 c) H4 P 2 O 6

(OR)
Assign reason for the following:-
a) H2 S is less acidic than H2 Te but more acidic than H2 O.
b) Ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
c) Perchloric acid is a stronger acid than sulphuric acid.

Q.17 What are artificial sweetening agents? Why are they used? Name the one whose use is [3]
limited to cold foods & drinks.

Q.18 Describe the process of preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore. Under [3]
what condition does it act as powerful oxidizing agent? Explain.

Q.19 Give the IUPAC name & using valence bond theory explain hybridization, geometry & [3]
magnetic behavior of [Co(NH3 ) 6 ] & [Cr(CN) 6 ].
2 of 4
(At.No Cr=24, Co=27)

Q.20 Explain the following along with the reactions involved:-


a. Ethyl chloride is treated with alc. KOH
b. Methyl chloride is treated with AgCN.
c. Bromobenzene is treated with Mg in presence of dry ether. [3]

Q.21 Give the mechanism for the hydration of ethane to yield ethanol. [3]

(OR)

Draw the structures of all possible isomers of alcohols with the molecular formula as
C 5 H12 O. Also give their IUPAC names.

Q.22 What is Hinsberg reagent? How is it helpful to distinguish between primary, secondary & [3]
tertiary halides?

Q.23 What is the basic difference between reducing & non-reducing sugars? Which chemical test [3]
can be used to classify sugars in the above two classes?

(OR)

Define the following terms as related to proteins:-


i) Denaturation
ii) Peptide Linkage
iii) Primary structure.

Q.24 Distinguish between LDPE & HDPE. Give the reaction for formation of Teflon. [3]

SECTION D

Q.25 a. An ideal solution is prepared by mixing 32 gm methanol & 23 gm ethanol at 300 K [5]
Calculate the partial pressure of its constituents as well as the total pressure of the
solution.
b. (P0 Ethanol = 51 mm Hg, P0 Methanol = 90 mm Hg at 300 K)

c. Analysis shows that a metal oxide (M 0.96 O 1.0 ) contains M in form of M2+ & M3+.
Calculate the percentage of both ions in its crystal.

(OR)

a. When 0.6 ml of Acetic acid having density of 1.06 g /ml was dissolved in one liter of
water, the depression in freezing point was observed to be 0.02050 C. Calculate the
van’t Hoff factor & dissociation constant of the acid.

b. An element crystallizes as fcc unit cell with an edge length of 200 pm. Calculate the
density of 200 gm of this element containing 24×1023 atoms.

Q.26 a) Write chemical equations for the following :- [5]

3 of 4
i. NaOH (cold & dilute) treated with Cl2.
ii. XeF 6 treated with water.
iii. Mg is heated with N 2 .

a) Describe a method for refining of Nickel.

(OR)

a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of Cl2 with hot & conc. as well
as cold & dilute NaOH . Out of these two which one is disproportionation reaction,
Explain?

b) Explain the principle involved in zone-refining.


i.
Q.27 a) Carry out the following conversions:- [5]
i. Methanal to ethane
ii. Benzaldehyde to 1-Phenyl-ethanol.
iii. Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal.

b) Give chemical equation for the reaction between Benzene diazonium chloride &:-
i) Fluoroboric acid & heat
ii) H3 O+/ heat
(OR)

a) How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using a
chemical test:-
i. Ethanal & Propanal
ii. Acetophenone & Benzaldehyde
iii. Phenol & Benzoic acid

b) Convert:-
i) Nitrobenzene to Benzoic Acid
ii) Aniline to benzene

4 of 4
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : 14/01/2019 Pre_Board_II_Exam (2018-2019) Marks : 70

Std. : XII Science Chemistry (SET_B) Time : 3 Hrs


General Instructions:

1. There are 4 printed pages.


2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A: Q.no. 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
4. Section B: Q.no. 6 to 12 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
5. Section C: Q.no. 13 to 24 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
6. Section D: Q.no. 25 to 27 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
7. There is no overall choice. However an internal choice has been provided in two questions of one mark,
two questions of two marks, four questions of three marks and all the three questions of five marks
weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
8. Use of log tables is allowed if necessary, use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

Q.1 What is electrode potential? [1]

Q.2 What is autocatalysis? [1]


(OR)
Explain role of desorption in the process of catalysis.

Q.3 Why do tetrahedral complexes not show geometrical isomerism? [1]


(OR)
How many geometrical isomers are possible in [Cr(NH3 ) 3 Cl3 ]

Q.4 Name the product that will be obtained by dehydrohalogenation of sec-butylbromide. [1]

Q.5 Why can vitamin C not be stored in our body? [1]

SECTION B

Q.6 A cubic solid is made up of two elements X & Y, where atoms of X occupy the corners of a [2]
cube & that of Y is present at the face center of cubic lattice. What is the formula of the
compound?
(OR)
A compound is formed by two elements M & N in such a way that N forms a cubic closed
pack structure & M occupies 1/3rd of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the
compound?

1 of 4
Q.7 Define the following terms:- [2]
a) Ideal solution
b) Osmotic pressure

Q.8 Calculate 2/3rd life for a first order reaction in which k= 5.48×10-14 sec-1 . [2]
(OR)
131 I has a half-life period of 13.3 hrs. After 79.8 hour, what fraction of 131 I will remain?

Q.9 What is difference between Multimolecular & macromolecular colloids? [2]

Q.10 Write ionic equations for the reaction of potassium dichromate with:- [2]
i) H2 S
ii) Iron(II)solution

Q.11 What is Tollen’s reagent? Where is it used? [2]

Q.12 How can we obtain pentan-1-ol from:- [2]


i. Pent-1-ene
ii. 1-Bromopentane
SECTION C

Q.13 Draw structures of:- [3]


a) H2 S 2 O 3 b) XeF 4 c) H4 P 2 O 6

(OR)
Assign reason for the following:-
a) H2 S is less acidic than H2 Te but more acidic than H2 O.
b) Ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
c) Perchloric acid is a stronger acid than sulphuric acid.

Q.14 What are artificial sweetening agents? Why are they used? Name the one whose use is [3]
limited to cold foods & drinks

Q.15 Write reactions that occur in different zones during extraction of iron. [3]

Q.16 Calculate the cell potential at concentration of electrolytes in two half cells as Al3+(0.001M) [3]
& Ni2+(0.50M) cell with given electrodes E0 Al 3+ / Al = -1.66 V, E0 Ni 2+ / Ni = -0.250 V.
(OR)
Aqueous solution of CuSO 4 & AgNO 3 are electrolyzed by 1 Ampere current for 10 mins in
separate electrolytic cells. Will the mass of Ag & Cu deposited at the respective electrodes
be same or different? Justify.

Q.17 Explain the following along with the reactions involved:- [3]
a. Ethyl chloride is treated with alc. KOH
b. Methyl chloride is treated with AgCN.
c. Bromobenzene is treated with Mg in presence of dry ether.

Q.18 With help of an example, explain what is meant by pseudo first order reaction? [3]

Q.19 What is Hinsberg reagent? How is it helpful to distinguish between primary, secondary & [3]
tertiary halides?

2 of 4
Q.20 Distinguish between LDPE & HDPE. Give the reaction for formation of Teflon. [3]

Q.21 What is the basic difference between reducing & non-reducing sugars? Which chemical test [3]
can be used to classify sugars in the above two classes?
(OR)
Define the following terms as related to proteins:-
i) Denaturation
ii) Peptide Linkage
iii) Primary structure.

Q.22 Describe the process of preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore. Under [3]
what condition does it act as powerful oxidizing agent? Explain.

Q.23 Give the mechanism for the hydration of ethane to yield ethanol. [3]

(OR)

Draw the structures of all possible isomers of alcohols with the molecular formula as
C 5 H12 O. Also give their IUPAC names.

Q.24 Give the IUPAC name & using valence bond theory explain hybridization, geometry & [3]
magnetic behavior of [Co(NH3 ) 6 ] & [Cr(CN) 6 ].
(At.No Cr=24, Co=27)

SECTION D

Q.25 a) Carry out the following conversions:- [5]

i) Methanal to ethane
ii) Benzaldehyde to 1-Phenyl-ethanol.
iii) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal.

b) Give chemical equation for the reaction between Benzene diazonium chloride &:-
i) Fluoroboric acid & heat
ii) H3 O+/ heat

(OR)

a) How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using a
chemical test:-
i) Ethanal & Propanal
ii) Acetophenone & Benzaldehyde
iii) Phenol & Benzoic acid

b) Convert:-
i) Nitrobenzene to Benzoic Acid
ii) Aniline to benzene

3 of 4
Q.26 a. An ideal solution is prepared by mixing 32 gm methanol & 23 gm ethanol at 300 K [5]
Calculate the partial pressure of its constituents as well as the total pressure of the
solution.
(P0 Ethanol = 51 mm Hg, P0 Methanol = 90 mm Hg at 300 K)

b. Analysis shows that a metal oxide (M 0.96 O 1.0 ) contains M in form of M2+ & M3+.
Calculate the percentage of both ions in its crystal.

(OR)

a) When 0.6 ml of Acetic acid having density of 1.06 g /ml was dissolved in one liter of
water, the depression in freezing point was observed to be 0.02050 C. Calculate the
van’t Hoff factor & dissociation constant of the acid.

b) An element crystallizes as fcc unit cell with an edge length of 200 pm. Calculate the
density of 200 gm of this element containing 24×1023 atoms.

Q.27 a) Write chemical equations for the following :- [5]

i. NaOH (cold & dilute) treated with Cl2.


ii. XeF 6 treated with water.
iii. Mg is heated with N 2 .

c) Describe a method for refining of Nickel.

(OR)

a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of Cl2 with hot & conc. as well
as cold & dilute NaOH . Out of these two which one is disproportionation reaction,
Explain?

b) Explain the principle involved in zone-refining.

4 of 4
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune
Date : / / Prelim – 1 (2018-2019) Marks : 80
Std. : XII ECONOMICS (Set-A) Time : 3 Hrs
General Instructions:
1. There are 5 printed pages.
2. This question paper contains two parts A and B.
3. All questions are compulsory. All parts of a section should be attempted together.
4. Question No. 1-4 and 13-16, are very short answer question carrying 1 mark for each part. They are required
to be answered in one sentence each.
5. Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18, are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should not
normally exceed 60 words each.
6. Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21, are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should
not normally exceed 70 words each.
7. Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24, are long-answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should not
normally exceed 100 words each.
8. Answer should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

MICRO ECONOMICS ₹
Q1 If given the total Variable cost of producing 11 units of output is ₹2000 and for 12 units is (1)
₹3000. Find the value of Marginal Cost.
Q2 Define Average Revenue. (1)

Q3 State any two central problems under ‘problem of allocation of resources’ (1)

Q4 A firm is operating with a Total Variable Cost of 500 when 5 units of the given output are (1)
produced and the Total Fixed Costs are 200, what will be the Average Total Cost of
producing 5 units of output?

Q5 State and discuss any two factors that will shift the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)to (3)
the right.
Or
Draft a hypothetical schedule for a straight line Production Possibility Curve.

Q6 Giving reason, state the impact of each of following on demand curve of a normal good (3)
‘X’ if
i. Price of its complementary good falls. 

ii. News reports claims that consumption of product X has harmful effect 
on human
health. 

iii. Income of consumer increases. 

Q7 A consumer spends < 1,000 on a good priced at < 10 per unit. When its price falls by 20 (4)
percent, the consumer spends < 800 on the good. Calculate the price elasticity of demand
by the Percentage method.

1 of 4
Q8 Complete the following schedule (4)
TPP APP MPP
Units Produced
(in₹) (in₹) (in₹)
1 100
2 140
3 140
4 480

Q9 What is meant by Price Floor? Discuss in brief, any one consequence of imposition of (4)
floor price above equilibrium price with help of a diagram.
Or
How is the price of a commodity determined in a perfectly competitive market? Explain
with help of a diagram.

Q10 a) A consumer, Mr Aman is in state of equilibrium consuming two goods X and Y, with (2 + 4)
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
given prices Px and Py . What will happen if 𝑃𝑃 𝑋𝑋 > 𝑃𝑃 𝑌𝑌 ?
𝑋𝑋 𝑌𝑌

b) Identify which of the following is not true for the Indifference Curves theory. Give valid
reasons for choice of your answer:
i. Lower indifference curve represents lower level of satisfaction. 

ii. Two indifference curves can intersect each other. 

iii. Indifference curve must be convex to origin at the point of tangency with the budget
line at the consumer’s equilibrium. 

iv. Indifference curves are drawn under the ordinal approach to consumer equilibrium. 


Q11 Suppose the value of demand and supply curves of a Commodity-X is given by the (3+3)
following two equations simultaneously:
Qd = 200 –10p Qs = 50 + 15p
i) Find the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity of commodity X. 

ii) Suppose that the price of a factor inputs used in producing the commodity has
changed, resulting in the new supply curve given by the equation 
Qs’ = 100 + 15p
Analyse the new equilibrium price and new equilibrium quantity as against the original
equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity. 


Q12 Explain why will a producer not be in equilibrium if the conditions of equilibrium are not (6)
met.

MACRO ECONOMICS

Q13 Calculate money multiplier if LRR IS 20%. (1)

Q14 Define money supply? (1)

2 of 4
Q15 The government budget of a hypothetical economy presents the following information, (1)
which of the following value represents Budgetary Deficit. (all fig. in ₹ crores)
A. Revenue Expenditure = 25,000
B. Capital Receipts = 30,000
C. Capital Expenditure = 35,000
D. Revenue Receipts = 20,000
E. Interest Payments = 10,000
F. Borrowings = 50,000

i. ₹12.000 ii. 10,000


iii. ₹20,000 iv. None of the above

Q16 Which of the following statement is true? (1)


i) Loans from IMF is a Revenue Receipt. 

ii) Higher revenue deficit necessarily leads to higher fiscal deficit. 

iii) Borrowing by a government represents a situation of fiscal deficit. 

iv) Revenue deficit is the excess of capital receipts over the revenue receipts. 

Q17 Where is ‘borrowings from abroad’ recorded in the Balance of Payments Accounts ? Give (3)
reasons. 


Q18 What are fixed and flexible exchange rates? (3)


OR
Explain the meaning of Managed Floating Exchange Rate. 


Q19 What is meant by problem of double counting? How this problem can be avoided? (4)
Or
Discuss briefly, the circular flow of income in a two sector economy with the help of a
suitable diagram.

Q20 Use following information of an imaginary country: (4)

Year 2014 – 2015 2015– 2016 2016 - 2017


Nominal GDP 6.5 8.4 9
GDP deflator 100 140 125

i) For which year is real GDP and nominal GDP same and why?

ii) Calculate Real GDP for the given years. Is there any year for which Real GDP
falls?

Q21 How will ‘Reverse Repo Rate’ and ‘Open Market Operations’ control excess money (4)
supply in an economy?
Or
Illustrate with the help of a hypothetical numerical example the process of credit creation.

3 of 4
Q22 a) Define Externality. 
 (6)
b) Find National Income from following using expenditure method 


S.NO. PARTICULARS (₹ in crores)


1 Current transfers from rest of the world 50
2 Net Indirect taxes 100
3 Net Exports -25
4 Rent 90
5 Private Final Consumption Expenditure 900
6 Net Domestic Capital Formation 200
7 Compensation of Employees 500
8 Net Factor Income from Abroad -10
Government Final Consumption
9 Expenditure 400
10 Profit 220
11 Mixed Income of Self Employed 400
12 Interest 230

Q23 a) An economy is in equilibrium. Calculate the Investment Expenditure from the (4+2)
following: 

National Income = 800

Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.3
Autonomous Consumption = 100 

b) “Unplanned inventories accumulate when planned investment is less than planned
saving.” Do you agree with the given statement? Give reasons in support of your
answer.

Q24 What is ‘deficient demand’? Explain the role of ‘Bank Rate’ in removing it. 
 (6)
OR 

What is ‘excess demand’? Explain the role of ‘Reverse Repo Rate’ in removing it. 


***********ALL THE BEST************

4 of 4
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune

Date : 16/1/19 Prelim - 2 (2018-2019) Marks : 70


Std. : XII BIOLOGY (SET A) Time : 3 Hrs

General Instructions:
1. There are 3 printed pages.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Draw appropriate diagram wherever necessary

SECTION – A

Q 1) Write the name of the organism that is referred to as the ‘Terror of Bengal’ 1
OR
List the key tools used in recombinant DNA technology.

Q 2) Name the placental mammals corresponding to the Australian spotted Cuscus and Tasmanian ‘tiger cat’ 1
which have evolved as a result of convergent evolution.

Q 3) State the economic value of Saccharum officinarum in comparison to S. barberi. 1

Q 4) Mention the function of trophoblast in human embryo. 1

Q 5) How many chromosomes do drones of honeybee possess? Name the type of cell division involved in 1
the production of sperms by them.
OR
What are Cry genes? In which organism are they present?

SECTION – B

Q 6) Name the muscular and the glandular layers of human uterus. Which one of these layers undergoes 2
cyclic changes during menstrual cycle? Name the hormone essential for the maintainance of this layer.
OR
What was proposed by Oparin and Haldane on origin of life? How does S. L. Miller’s experiment support
their proposal?

Q 7) Why did T. H. Morgan select Drosophila melanogaster to study sex-linked genes for his lab 2
experiments?

Q 8) Draw a neat labelled sketch of a replicating fork of DNA. 2

Q 9) Why is CuT considered as a good contraceptive device to space children? 2


OR
How can healthy potato plants be obtained from a desired potato variety which is virus infected?
Explain.

Q 10) Mention and describe any three methods to overcome inbreeding depression in animal husbandry. 2

1 of 3
Q 11) Identify a, b, c, d, e and f in the table given below: 2
Sr. No. Organism Bioactive molecule Use
1 Monascus purpureus (yeast) a b
2 c d Antibiotic
3 e Cyclosporin A f

Q 12) Write the functions of 2


i) cry1Ac gene ii) RNA interference (RNAi)

SECTION – C

Q 13) Describe the structure of a 3-celled pollen grain of an angiosperm with the help of diagram. 3

Q 14) Differentiate between the following: 3


a) Promoter and terminator in a transcription unit.
b) Exon and intron in an unprocessed eukaryotic mRNA.
OR
Giving three reasons, write how Hardy Weinberg equilibrium can be affected.

Q 15) Describe the process of parturition in humans. 3

Q 16) Explain with the help of suitable example the inheritance of a trait where two different dominant alleles 3
of a trait express themselves simultaneously in the progeny. Name this kind of inheritance pattern.
OR
Describe the steps involved in producing nematode resistance tobacco plants based on the process of
RNAi.

Q 17) a) List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. 3


b) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the mortality of sperms.

Q 18) a) State what happens in the human body when malarial parasite infected RBCs burst to release the 3
parasites in the blood.
b) Mention the specific sites in the host body where production of
i)Sporozoites and
ii) Gametocytes
take place in the life cycle of the malarial parasites.

Q 19) What is a GMO? List any five possible advantages of a GMO to a farmer. 3
OR
Name and explain the type of interaction that exists in mycorrhizae and between cattle egret and cattle.

Q 20) Draw a labelled sketch of sparged -stirred-tank bioreactor. Write its application. 3

Q 21) Explain the succession of plants in xerophytic habitat until it reaches climax community. 3

Q 22) i) Name the enzyme that catalyses the transcription of hnRNA. 3


ii) Why does the hnRNA need to undergo changes?
iii) List the changes hnRNA undergoes and where in the cell such change takes place?

2 of 3
Q 23) There are many animals that have become extinct in the wild but continue to be maintained in 3
zoological parks.
a) What type of biodiversity conservation is observed in this case?
b) Explain any other two ways which help in this type of conservation.
OR
i) Why are the colourful polysterene and plastic packaging used for protecting the food, considered an
environmental menace?
ii) Write about the remedy found for the efficient use of plastic waste by Ahmed Khan of Bangalore.

Q 24) DNA being hydrophilic cannot pass through cell membranes of a host cell. Explain how does 3
recombinant DNA get introduced into the host cell to transform the latter.

SECTION – D

Q 25) Write the specific location and the functions of the following cells in human males: 5
1) Leydig cells 2) Sertoli cells 3) Primary spermatocyte
Explain the role of any two accessory glands in human male reproductive system.
OR
a) Cancer is one of the most dreaded disease. Explain’contact inhibition’ and ‘metastasis’ with respect
to the disease.
b) Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to cancer. How do
these genes cause cancer?
c) Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancer patients often given α-interferon as
part of the treatment?
d) Why are cancer patients often given α-interferon as part of the treatment?

Q 26) How do pleiotropy, incomplete dominance, co-dominance and polygenic inheritance deviate from the 5
observation made by mendel? Explain with the help of one example for each.
OR
i) Describe the characteristics a cloning vector must possess.
ii) Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain.
iii) How is a bacterial cell made ‘competent’ to take up recombinant DNA from the medium?

Q 27) 3’ A 5’ 5

5’ B 3’
a) Identify strands ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the diagram of transcription unit given above and write the basis on
which you identified them.
b) State the functions of sigma factor and Rho factor in the transcription process in a bacterium.
c) Write the functions of RNA polymerase-I and RNA polymerase-III in eukaryotes.
OR
Explain the effect on the characteristics of a river when urban sewage is discharged into it, with the
help of graph.

3 of 3
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune

Date :16 /1/19 Prelim - 2 (2018-2019) Marks : 70


Std. : XII BIOLOGY (SET B) Time : 3 Hrs

General Instructions:
1. There are 3 printed pages.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Draw appropriate diagram wherever necessary.

SECTION – A

Q 1) Why do botanists call strawberry a false fruit? 1


OR
What is point mutation? Give one example.

Q 2) How can pollen grains of wheat and rice which tend to lose viability within 30 minutes of their release 1
be made available months later for breeding programmes?

Q 3) Write the probable differences in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo erectus. 1

Q 4) Why is the enzyme cellulase used for isolating genetic material from plant cells but not for animal cells? 1

Q 5) Name the phase of menstrual cycle when a graafian follicle transforms into an endocrine structure. 1
Write its action thereafter.
OR
Name the two basic amino acids that provide positive charges to histone proteins.

SECTION – B

Q 6) Why is the possibility of human female suffering from haemophilia rare? Explain. 2
OR
Genetic codes can be universal and degenerate. Write about them, giving one example of each.

Q 7) Write the fate of the products of triple fusion in the mature fruit of coconut. 2

Q 8) Rearrange the following in increasing order of evolution: 2


Gnetales, Ferns, Zosterophyllum, Ginkgo.

Q 9) Why are plants obtained through micro propagation termed somaclones? 2


OR
Why is parturition called a neuroendocrine mechanism?

Q 10) Mention the property of plant cells that has helped them to grow into a new plant in in-vitro conditions. 2
Explain the advantages of micropropagation.

1 of 3
Q 11) Why should biological control of pests and pathogens be preferred to the conventional use of chemical 2
pesticides? Explain how the following microbes act as biocontrol agents:
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus

Q 12) a) Mention the difference in the mode of action of exonuclease and endonuclease. 2
b) How does restriction endonuclease function?

SECTION – C

Q 13) Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of the seminiferous tubule of a human. 3

Q 14) a) Anthropogenic actions have caused evolution of species. Explain with the help of two examples. 3
b) Differentiate between divergent and convergent evolution.
OR
Explain the steps involved in artificial pollination of autogamous flowers.

Q 15) Describe the packaging of DNA helix in a prokaryotic cell and an eukaryotic nucleus. 3

Q 16) Give an example of an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Explain its pattern of inheritance with the 3
help of a cross.
OR
a) Explain the basis on which the gel electrophoresis technique works.
b) Write any two ways the products obtained through this technique can be utilized.

Q 17) a) Name any two copper releasing IUDs. 3


b) Explain how do they act as effective contraceptives in human female.

Q 18) a) It is generally observed that the children who had suffered from chicken-pox in their childhood may 3
not contact the same disease in their adulthood. Explain giving reasons the basis of such an immunity in
an individual. Name this kind of immunity.
b) what are interferons? Mention their role.

Q 19) Explain the steps involved in the production of genetically engineered insulin. 3
OR
Differentiate between mutualism, parasitism and commensalism. Provide one example for each of
them.

Q 20) Why is earthworm considered a farmer’s friend? Explain humification and mineralization occurring in a 3
decomposition cycle.

Q 21) What are two types of desirable approaches to conserve biodiversity? Explain with examples bringing 3
out the difference between the two types.

Q 22) a) what are the transcriptional products of RNA polymerase III? 3


b) differentiate between ‘Capping’ and ‘Tailing’.
c) Expand hnRNA.

2 of 3
Q 23) How does a water body age naturally? Explain. State how this phenomenon of ageing of a water body 3
gets accelerated.
OR
How do snails, seeds, bears, zooplanktons, fungi and bacteria adapt to conditions unfavourable for their
survival?

Q 24) Which chromosome carry the mutant genes causing thalassaemia in humans? What are the problems 3
caused by these mutant genes?

SECTION – D

Q 25) Write the different components of a lac-operon in E. coli. Explain its expression while in an ‘open’ state 5
with the help of a diagram.
OR
Describe the asexual and sexual phases of life cycle of Plasmodium that cause malaria in humans with
the help of diagram.

Q 26) a) Explain the following phases in the menstrual cycle of a human female: 5
i) Menstrual phase
ii) Follicular phase
iii) Luteal phase
b) A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. Do you agree with
the statement? Provide reasons for your answer.
OR
a) State the arrangement of different genes that in bacteria is referred to as ‘operon’.
b) Draw a schematic labeled illustration of lac operon in ‘switched on’ state.
c) Describe the role of lactose in lac operon.

Q 27) Given below is a table showing the genotypes and phenotypes of blood groups in the human 5
population:
Sr. No. Genotype Phenotype
1 W A
2 i i
B O
Y
3 IAIB Z
4 X O
a) Identify the genotypes W and X and phenotypes Y and Z.
b) How is co-dominance different from incomplete dominance and dominance?
c) Name the pattern of inheritance exhibited by the phenotypes Y and Z in the table.
OR
i) What is trophic level in an ecosystem? What is ‘standing crop’ with reference to it?
ii) Explain the role of the ‘first trophic level’ in an ecosystem.
iii) How is the detritus food chain connected with the grazing food chain in a natural ecosystem?

3 of 3
INDIRA NATIONAL SCHOOL
Tathawade, Pune

Date :19/12/18 Prelim - 1 (2018-2019) Marks : 70


Std. : XII BIOLOGY Time : 3 Hrs

General Instructions:
1. There are 3 printed pages.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Draw appropriate diagram wherever necessary

SECTION – A
Q 1) Expand ELISA 1
Or
Why hnRNA is required to undergo splicing?
Q 2) How is presence of cyanobacteria in paddy fields providing benefit to rice farmers? 1
Q 3) How DNA is visualized in gel electrophoresis? 1
Q 4) Why is RNA more reactive in comparison to DNA? 1
Q 5) According to Hugo de Vries what is saltation ? 1
Or
Mention the name and role of molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology.

SECTION – B
Q 6) What role do macrophages play in providing immunity to humans? 2
Or
How does silencing of specific mRNA in RNA interference prevent parasitic infestation?
Q 7) List the features that make a stable biological community. 2
Q 8) Name the organism from where the thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated. State its role in genetic 2
engineering.
Q 9) Distinguish between In-situ conservation and Ex-situ conservation 2
Or
Explain what causes chill in humans during malarial attack. Name the causative organism of malignant
malaria.
Q 10) Write the binomials of two fungi and mention the products or bioactive molecules they help to 2
produce.
Q 11) a) Why does DNA replication occur in small replication fork and not in its entire length ? 2
b) Explain the importance of origin of replication in a replication fork.
Q 12) What does the comparison between the eyes of octopus and those of mammals say about their 2
ancestry and evolution?

SECTION – C
Q 13) Explain biomagnifications of DDT in an aquatic food chain with the help of flow chart. How does it affect 3
the bird population?
Q 14) Explain giving three reasons, why tropics show greatest levels of species diversity. 3
Or
Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in humans.
Q 15) Why is earthworm considered as farmer’s friend? Explain humification and mineralization occurring in a 3
decomposition cycle.

1 of 3
Q 16) Explain with the help of an example each of the three population interactions where the organisms live 3
closely together.
Or
Explain the different levels of biodiversity.
Q 17) a) What is gene therapy? 3
b) Describe the procedure of such a therapy that could be permanent cure for a disease. Name the
disease.
Q 18) Draw a schematic diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and mark the following in it: 3
ori, rop, ampicillin resistant gene, tetracycline resistant gene, restriction site BamHI, restriction site
EcoRI
Q 19) What is ‘Biofortification’? Write its importance. Mention the contribution of Indian Agricultural 3
Research Institute towards it with the help of two examples.
Or
With the help of diagram, describe a technique to obtain multiple copies of a gene of interest in vitro.
Q 20) Why are Lymph nodes and bone marrows called lymphoid organs ? Explain the function of each one. 3

Q 21) How did S.L.Miller’s experiment support the development of the earth ? Explain with the help of 3
diagram.
Q 22) Name and explain the surgical method advised to human males and females as a means of birth control. 3
Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage.
Q 23) Why is pedigree analysis done in the study of human genetics? State the conclusions that can be drawn 3
from it.
Or
How are the structural genes activated in the lac operon in E.coli?
Q 24) Compare giving reasons, the J-shaped and S-shaped models of population growth of a species. 3

SECTION – D
Q 25) A flower of brinjal plant following the process of sexual reproduction produces 360 viable seeds. 5
Answer the following questions giving reasons:
a) What is the minimum number of pollen grains that must have been involved in the pollination of its
pistil?
b) What would have been the minimum number of ovules present in the ovary?
c) How many megaspore mother cells were involved?
d) What is the minimum number of microspore mother cells involved in the above case?
e) How many male gametes were involved in this case?
OR
Explain the events taking place at the time of fertilization of an ovum in a human female. Trace the
development of the zygote upto its implantation in the uterus. Name and draw a labeled sectional view
of the embryonic stage that gets implanted.

Q 26) a) How does a chromosomal disorder differ from a Mendelian disorder? 5


b) Name any two chromosomal associated disorders.
c) List the characteristics of the disorders mentioned above that help in their diagnosis.
OR
Name and describe the technique that will help in solving a case of paternity dispute over the custody
of the child by two different families.

2 of 3
Q 27) a) Following are the responses of different animals to various abiotic factors. Describe each one with 5
the help of an example.
1) Regulate 2) Conform 3) Migrate 4)Suspend
b) If 8 individuals in a population of 80 butterflies die in a week, calculate the death rate of population
of butterflies during that period.
OR
Carbon cycle in nature is a biogeochemical event. Explain outline salient features of carbon cycling in an
ecosystem.

3 of 3

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