DATE : 18/11/2018 QUESTION PAPER CODE: JS511

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 120 Minutes Answers & Solutions Marks : 240

for
NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION
IN JUNIOR SCIENCE (NSEJS) 2018-19
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT

1. A tiny ball of mass m is initially at rest at  1 1

height H above a cake of uniform thickness h. v  2
 50 70 
At some moment the particle falls freely,
touches the cake surface and then penetrates  70 – 50 
v 2
in it at such a constant rate that its speed  3500 
becomes zero on just reaching the ground
7000
(bottom of the cake). Speed of the ball at the v
instant it touches the cake surface and its 20
retardation inside the cake are respectively v  350 m /s
H 
(a) 2gh and g  – 1 3. Two plane mirrors M 1 & M 2 have their
h 
reflecting faces inclined at . Mirror M 1
H  receives a ray AB, reflects it at B and sends it
(b) 2g(H – h) and g  – 1
h  as BC. It is now reflected by mirror M2 along
h  CD, as shown in the figure. Total angular
(c) 2gh and g  – 1 deviation  suffered by the incident ray AB is
H 
M1
h 
(d)2g(H – h) and g  – 1 D A
H  B
Answer ( b ) 1
Sol.  v  2gh

v  2g H – h   2 M2
O
Now, v 2  u2  2 as C
(a)  = 90° + 2 (b)  = 180° + 2
 
2
0 2g H – h   2 ah
(c)  = 270° – 2 (d)  = 360° – 2
2g(H – h)
a Answer ( d )
2h
Sol. D
H  H 
a  g  – 1  |a |  g  – 1
h  h  A
2. Two sound waves in air have wavelengths B
1
differing by 2 m at a certain temperature T. 1
Their notes have musical interval 1.4. Period
of the lower pitch note is 20 ms. Then, speed 2 2
of sound in air at this temperature (T) is 
O
(a) 350 m/s (b) 342 m/s C
(c) 333 m/s (d) 330 m/s 1
1 = 180 – 2
Answer ( a ) 2
2 = 180 – 2
1000 Again in OBC
S o l . f1   50 Hz
20
f2 (90 – 1) + (90 – 2) +  = 180
 1.4
f1  = 1 + 2
f2  1.4 f1  70 Hz 1) + (180 – 2
 = 1 + 2 = (180 – 2 2)
1   2  2
1 + 2)
 = 360 – 2 (
v v
 2
f1 f2  = 360 – 2


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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

4. In the adjacent figure, line AB is parallel to P1 O

u1
screen S. A linear obstacle PQ between the
two is also parallel to both. AB, PQ and screen
S are coplanar. A point source is carried from u2
A to B, along the line AB. What will happen to
the size of the shadow of PQ (cast due to the
point source) on the screen S?
P2
A 1
(a) s   a2  b2  (u12  u22 )t 2 – 2t(au1  bu2 ) 2
P
1
(b) s   a2  b2  (u12  u22 )t 2 – 2t(bu1  au2 ) 2
S
1
(c) s   a2  b2  (u12  u22 )t 2  2t(au1  bu2 )  2
Q 1
(d) s   a2 – b 2  (u12  u22 )t 2 – 2t(au1  bu2 ) 2
B
(a) It will first increase and then decrease Answer ( a )
S o l . Let at time (t) = t u1
(b) It will first decrease and then increase P1 O
x1 = a – u1t
(c) It will be of the same size for any position
y1 = b – u2t
of the point source on the line AB
S  x12  y12
(d) Umbra will increase and penumbra will u2
 a – u1t    b – u2 t 
decrease till central position 2 2
S
P2
Answer ( c ) 1
S   a2  b 2   u12  u22  t 2 – 2t  au1  bu2   2
x y
Sol. x y
P 6. An electric generator consumes some oil fuel
P P
S P and generates output of 25 kW. Calorific value
S O (amount of heat released per unit mass) of the
O
oil fuel is 17200 kcal/kg and efficiency (output
Q Q
to input ratio) of the generator is 0.25. Then,
Q Q mass of the fuel consumed per hour and
Figure-1 Figure-2 electric energy generated per ton of fuel
For figure-1 For figure-2 burnt are respectively
SPQ ~ SPQ SPQ ~ SPQ (a) 0.5 kg, 20000 kWh

SO PQ SP PQ (b) 0.5 kg, 5000 kWh

∵  ∵ 
SO PQ SP PQ (c) 5 kg, 5000 kWh
SO SP (d) 5 kg, 20000 kWh
 PQ   PQ  PQ  PQ 
SO SP Answer ( c )
xy xy S o l . Pout = 25000 J/s
PQ    PQ PQ    PQ
 x   x  C.V. = 17200 × 103 cal/kg
In every position of source, size of shadow on Pin = m × C.V.
screen remain same.
Pout
 0.25
5. Two particles P1 and P2 move towards origin O, Pin
along X and Y-axis at constant speeds u1 and u2
17200  103  m  4.2
respectively as shown in the figure. At t = 0, the  0.25
25000  3600
particles P1 and P2 are at distances a and b
m  5 kg
respectively from O. Then the instantaneous
distance s between the two particles is given Heat generated per ton of coal
by the relation Qin = 1000 × 17200 × 103 cal

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

Electricity generated (a) m-K–1

E = Qin ×  (b) m-K
E = 1000 × 17200 × 103 × 4.2 × 0.25 J (c) K–1
or E  5000 kWh (d)  is a pure number
7. Image is obtained on a screen by keeping an Answer ( c )
object at 25 cm and at 40 cm in front of a
S o l . T = Unitless
concave mirror. Image in the former case is
four times bigger than in the latter. Focal 1

length of the mirror must be ______. T
(a) 12 cm (b) 20 cm 10. A paramedical staff nurse improvises a
second’s pendulum (time period 2 s) by fixing
(c) 24 cm (d) 36 cm
one end of a string of length L to a ceiling and
Answer ( b ) the other end to a heavy object of negligible
S o l . u1 = – 25 cm size. Within 60 oscillations of this pendulum,
she finds that the pulse of a wounded soldier
u2 = – 40 cm
beats 110 times. A symptom of bradycardia is
m1 = 4m2 pulse < 60 per minute and that of tachycardia
f is > 100 per minute. Then the length of the
 m string is nearly ________ and soldier has
f –u
symptoms of _______.
f 4f

f –  – 25  f –  – 40  (a) 1 m, bradycardia (b) 4m, bradycardia

f + 40 = 4f + 100 (c) 1m, tachycardia (d) 4m, tachycardia

f = – 20 cm Answer ( a )

8. A glass cube of refractive index 1.5 and edge l

Sol.  T  2
1 cm has a tiny black spot at its center. A g
circular dark sheet is to be kept
symmetrically on the top surface so that the l
2  2
central sport is not visible from the top. g
Minimum radius of the circular sheet should
9
1 1 1
l  1m
  2
be  Given:  0.707,  0.577,  0.447 
 2 3 5  110
(a) 0.994 cm (b) 0.447 cm Number of beat per minute =  55
2
(c) 0.553 cm (d) 0.577 cm Required phenomena is bradycardia.
Answer ( b ) 11.
h
Sol.  r
2 – 1
A B
1 1 1
r 2  2  2
2
 3  –1 9 5
  –1
2 4 2
1 Each resistance in the adjacent circuit is R .
r  0.447
5 In order to have an integral value for
9. A metal rod of length L at temperature T, equivalent resistance between A & B, the
when heated to temperature T, expands to minimum value of R must be
new length L. These quantities are related as (a) 4  (b) 8 
L = L(1 + [T – T]) where  is a constant for
that material and called as coefficient of (c) 16  (d) 29 
linear expansion. Correct SI unit of  is ____. Answer ( b )

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)
Sol. 14.

C D
1.0 m 1.0 m
A B

+ +
Q Q
Two equally charged identical pith balls are
suspended by identical massless strings as
29R shown in the adjacent figure. If this set up is
Req  on Mercury (g = 3.7 m/s2), Earth (g = 9.8 m/s2)
8
Required value of R = 8  and Jupiter (g = 24.5 m/s2), then angle 2 θ will
be ______.
th
3
12. A block of wood floats on water with   of (a) Maximum on Mercury
8 (b) Maximum on Earth, as it has atmosphere
its volume above water. It is now made to
float on a salt solution of relative density 1.12. (c) Maximum on Jupiter
The fraction of its volume that remains above (d) The same on any planet as Coulomb force
the salt solution now, is nearly ________. is independent of gravity
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.44 Answer ( a )
 will increase with decrease in value of 'g'.
S o l . 2
(c) 0.67 (d) 0.56
15. Three objects of the same material coloured
Answer ( b ) white, blue and black can withstand
S o l . Let V be the volume of wood block temperatures up to 2000°C. All these are
heated to 1500°C and viewed in dark. Which
 3V 
V    1000  g  V  1.12  1000  g option is correct?
 8 
(a) White object will appear brightest
5 1000V
V    0.558 V (b) Blue object will appear brightest
8 1120 (c) Black object will appear brightest
Volume outside the liquid = (1 – 0.558)V (d) Being at the same temperature, all will
= 0.44 V look equally bright
13. Suppose our scientific community had chosen Answer ( c )
force, speed and time as the fundamental S o l . Black colour is a good absorber as well as
mechanical quantities instead of length, mass good emitter.
and time respectively and they chose the 16. A car running with a velocity of 30 m/s
respective units of magnitudes 10 N, 100 m/s reaches midway between two vertical parallel
walls separated by 360 m, when the driver
1
and s. Then the unit of mass in their sounds the horn for a moment. Speed of
100
sound in air is 330 m/s. After blowing horn, the
system is equivalent to _____ in our system. first three echoes will be heard by the driver
(a) 103 kg (b) 10–3 kg respectively at _____.
(c) 10 kg (d) 10–1 kg (a) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s (b) 1.0 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s
(c) 1.0 s, 2.0 s, 3.0 s (d) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.6 s
Answer ( b )
Answer ( b )
mdv
S o l .  F  ma  S o l .  x = 30t
dt
fdt For first echo,
m
dv 180  180 – x1
1   t1
10 N   330
m  100  360 – 30t1 = 330t1
100 360
t1  1s
m = 10–3 kg 360
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

For second echo, Answer (b)

720  x 2 117
 t2 S o l . IV   0.013 A
330 9000
720 + 30t2 = 330t2 I = IV + IR
720 IR = 0.13 – 0.013
t2   2.4 s
300
IR = 0.117
For third echo,
117
1080 – x 3 R  1000   1 k
 t3 0.117
330
19. A bar magnet is allowed to fall freely from the
1080 – 30t3 = 330t3
same height towards a current carrying loop
t3 = 3 s along its axis, as shown in the four situations
17. Choose correct option from the following I to IV. Arrows show direction of conventional
statements from electrostatics: current. Choose the situations in which the
(I) If two copper spheres of same radii, one potential energy of the magnet coil
hollow and the other solid are charged to interaction is maximum
the same electrical potential, the solid
sphere will have more charge. I N II S III N IV S

(II) A charged body can attract another S N S N

uncharged body.
(III) Electrical lines of force originating from
like charges will exert a lateral force on
each other, while those originating from (a) I, III
opposite charges can intersect each (b) I, IV
other.
(c) II, IV
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (II) is correct (d) II, III
(c) Only (I) & (II) are correct Answer ( b )
(d) All (I), (II) & (III) are correct S o l . Potential energy is maximum when
Answer ( b ) interaction between coil and bar magnet is
repulsive.
S o l . For solid and hollow conducting sphere
20. A beaker is completely filled with water at
KQ
V= 4°C. Consider the following statements.
R
So, for same potential, charge will same on (I) Water will overflow if the beaker is cooled
spheres of same radius for some time.
Two electric field lines can't inersect each (II) Water will overflow if the beaker is heated
other. for some time.

18. V Select correct option regarding (I) and (II)

(a) Only (I) is correct
A
(b) Only (II) is correct
R
Refer the adjacent circuit. The voltmeter (c) Both (I) and (II) are correct
reads 117 V and ammeter reads 0.13 A. If the (d) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
resistance of voltmeter and ammeter are
9 k and 0.015 k respectively, the value of R Answer ( c )
is _______. S o l . The density of water is maximum at 4°C, with
(a) 500  (b) 1 k increase or decrease in temperature density
(c) 1.5 k (d) 2 k of water will decrease.
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

21. P 3– has a larger radius than atom of P 23. A car battery was kept for charging and after
because getting fully charged density of the battery
acid (H2SO4) was measured and found to be
(a) There is greater coulombic attraction 1.28 g cm–3. If initial molarity of battery acid
between the nucleus and electrons in the was 4.2 M then mass percentage will be
P3– ion around_____.
(b) The core electrons in P3– exert a weaker (a) 28%
shielding force than those of a neutral
atom (b) 30%
(c) The nuclear charge is weaker in P3– than
(c) 32%
it is in P
(d) 34%
(d) The electrons in P 3– have a greater
coulombic repulsion than those in P atom
Answer ( c )
Answer ( d )
S o l . Molarity of acid = 4.2 M
Sol. P 3– contains three more electrons as
compared to atom of P. So the electrons in Number of moles of solute
P3– have a greater coulombic repulsion than Molarity =
Volume of solution (in L)
those of P atom.

22. A substance is dissolved in water, forming a

Number of moles of solute
0.5 molar solution. If 4.0 L of solution 4.2 =
1
contains 240 g of the substance, what is the
molecular mass of the substance?
Number of moles of solute = 4.2 moles
(a) 60 g/mole
Number of Molecular
(b) 120 g/mole Weight of solute = moles  weight

(c) 240 g/mole

= 4.2 × 98
(d) 480 g/mole
= 411.6 g
Answer ( b )
Now, density of battery acid = 1.28 g/cm3
S o l . Molarity of solution = 0.5 M

Volume of solution = 4.0 L Mass

Density =
Amount of substance = 240 g Volume

Molarity of solution Mass = Density × Volume

Number of moles of solute = 1.28 × 1000

=
Volume of solution (in litres)
Mass of solution = 1280 g
Weight of substance
Molarity =
Molecular × Volume of Mass of solute
weight solution Mass % of solution =  100
Mass of solution

240
0.5 = M.Wt  4 411.6
=  100
1280
240
M.Wt. =  120 g / mole
0.5  4 = 32%

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

24. Element “X” with atomic mass 10 was 27. Deepa was studying properties of gases. She
allowed to react completely with element “Y” took a flask and filled it with sulphur dioxide
of atomic mass 20 to form a compound. When gas, and weighed it at temperature T and
this compound was analysed it was found that pressure P. The weight of the flask containing
it contains 60% of X and 40% of Y by weight. the gas was found to be W1. She then flushed
The simplest formula of this compound will be the flask, cleaned and filled it with methane at
______. the same temperature and pressure. The
weight of the flask containing oxygen was
(a) X3Y (b) X2Y3 found to be W2. She repeated the process with
oxygen under the same conditions and
(c) Y3X (d) X6Y4
found the weight to be W3. The ratio of the
Answer ( a ) weights W1 : W2 : W3 is
(a) 2 : 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 1
Sol. Element Percentage Given Atomic No. of Simple
abundance mass mass (u) moles ratio (c) 4 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4
X 60 60 g 10 6 3 Answer ( c )
Y 40 40 g 20 2 1 S o l . According to Avogadro's law, “Equal volume
of all the gases under identical condition of
The simplest formula of this compound will be temperature and pressure contain equal
= X3Y number of molecules”.
25. 4.095 × 1024 nitrogen atoms are filled in an According to the question
enclosed gas cylinder of capacity two litre. W1
The number of moles of nitrogen gas in the Number of moles of SO2, 
64
cylinder is ________.
W2
(a) 14.7 (b) 6.8 Number of moles of CH4, 
16
(c) 3.4 (d) 2.9 W3
Number of moles of O2, 
32
Answer ( c )
W1 W2 W3
S o l . Number of moles of nitrogen gas (N2) Now, : :
64 16 32
Number of nitrogen atoms On comparing these
 W1 : W2 : W3 = 4 : 1 : 2
NA  2
28. Four gas jars filled with sulphur dioxide gas
4.095  1024 were inverted into troughs of water by four
  3.4 moles
6.022  1023  2 students P, Q, R, S. The following observations
and inference were reported by them.
26. When a surface tension experiment with
P: Water did not enter the gas jar and
capillary tube is performed, water rises up to
sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.
0.1 m. If the experiment is carried out in
space, water will rise in capillary tube _____. Q: Water rushed into the gas jar and sulphur
dioxide is soluble in water.
(a) Up to height of 0.1 m
R: Water did not enter in the gas jar and
(b) Up to height of 0.2 m sulphur dioxide is insoluble in water.
S: A small amount of water entered the gas
(c) Up to height of 0.98 m
jar slowly and sulphur dioxide is sparingly
(d) Along its full length soluble in water.
Then the correct set of observations and
Answer ( d )
inference is reported by,
S o l . As the experiment is carried out in the space (a) P (b) Q
so g = 0.
(c) R (d) S
Here adhesive force is much more greater Answer ( d )
than cohesive force. So water will rise in
S o l . Sulphur dioxide is sparingly soluble in water
capillary along its full length.
so observation of student ‘S’ is correct.
8
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

29. A solution of pure aluminium sulphate 30. A region of one square meter area was given
containing 0.170 g of aluminium ions is to each Suhas, Bobby, Sandy and Kimi in a
treated with excess of barium hydroxide garden. The daffodil plants grow best in the
solution. Total weight of the precipitate will soil having a pH range of 6.0 to 6.5. If the soil
be has a pH 4.5, to grow daffodils, Suhas added
common salt, Bobby added sodium phosphate,
(a) 0.5 g Sandy added aluminium sulphate and Kimi
added ammonium chloride in their allotted
(b) 2.7 g
area. Who was successful in growing daffodil?
(c) 1.7 g
(a) Suhas (b) Bobby
(d) 0.54 g (c) Sandy (d) Kimi
Answer ( b ) Answer ( b )

S o l . Required pH range = 6.0 to 6.5

S o l . Al2 (SO4 )3  3Ba(OH)2  2Al(OH)3   3BaSO4 
excess
Given pH = 4.5
2 moles Al 3+ ions are present in 1 mole of
Here Na3PO4 is the only basic salt. So, it can
Al2(SO4)3
increase the pH to required range. Hence,
54 g Al3+ ions are present in 342 g Al2(SO4)3 Bobby was successful in growing daffodil.

31. Electrons in the last shell of X, Y, W and Z are

342 2, 6, 4 and 1 respectively. Which of the
0.170 g Al3+ ions are present in  0.170
54 following statement is correct?

= 1.076 g of Al2(SO4)3 (a) Melting point of compound formed by X

and Y is more than that of by W and Z
1.076
No. of moles of Al2(SO4)3 = (b) Compound formed by X and Y is more
342
volatile than that of by W and Z
= 0.00314 mole
(c) Melting point of compound formed by X
1 mole of Al2(SO4)3 gives 2 moles of Al(OH)3 and Z is more than that of by W and Y

0.00314 mole of Al2(SO4)3 gives 0.00628 moles (d) Incomplete information so inference
of Al(OH)3 cannot be drawn

And 0.00628 moles of Al(OH)3 = 0.00628 × 78 Answer ( a )

= 0.489 g of Al(OH)3 S o l . Compound formed by elements X and Y is an

ionic compound whereas compound formed
Similarly, 0.00314 moles of Al 2(SO 4) 3 give by elements W and Z is a covalent compound.
0.00942 mole of BaSO4 Melting point of ionic compound is more than
that of covalent compounds.
And 0.00942 mole of BaSO4
32. W g of pure coal was combusted in pure dry
= 0.00942 × 233.38 oxygen. The carbon dioxide gas obtained was
absorbed in 0.1 M KOH solution. The complete
= 2.198 g of BaSO4 absorption of CO 2 required 5 cm 3 of 0.1 M
KOH. The amount of coal combusted is
Total weight of precipitate (BaSO4 + Al(OH)3)
= 0.489 + 2.198 (a) 3 mg (b) 6 mg
= 2.687 (c) 11 mg (d) 12 mg

~ 2.7 g Answer ( a )

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

S o l . C + O2  CO2 (b) 0.25 g moles of SO2 = 0.25 moles

CO2 + 2KOH  K2CO3 + H2O 2240 cm3 of ammonia contains = 0.1 mole
For complete absorbtion of CO 2, 5 cm 3 of
(c) 1680 cm3 of SO2 contains = 0.075 moles
0.1 M KOH is required.

 Number of moles of KOH = 5 × 0.1 1.7 g of NH3 contains = 0.1 moles

= 0.5 milimoles (d) 0.25 g moles of SO2 = 0.25 moles

= 5 × 10–4 moles 0.85 g of ammonia contains = 0.05 moles

Now, 2 moles of KOH is needed by 1 mole of  Option (a) is the correct answer.
CO2
34. A strip of iron with mass 15.5 g is placed in a
 5 × 10–4 moles of KOH is needed by
solution containing 21.0 g copper sulphate.
1 After some time the reaction stops. Iron strip
 5  104 = 2.5 × 10–4 moles of CO2 was found to have mass 8.5 g. The mass of
2
copper formed was found to be 8.60 g. Find
∵ 1 mole of CO2 is formed by 1 mole of coal the mass of ferrous sulphate formed in this
2.5 × 10 –4 moles of CO 2 is formed by reaction.
2.5 × 10–4 moles of coal
(a) 19.40 g
 Weight of coal = Number of moles × M. Wt.
(b) 18.40 g
= 2.5 × 10–4 × 12
(c) 17.40 g
= 30 × 10–4 g
(d) 16.40 g
= 3 × 10–3 g

= 3 mg Answer ( a )

33. Sulphur dioxide gas and ammonia gas were Sol. Fe  CuSO 4 
 FeSO 4  Cu
mixed in different proportions. The pair of (15.5 8.5)g 21.0 g xg 8.60g
7 g
gases containing same number of molecules
at NTP is _________. According to law of conservation of mass
(a) 1120 cm3 of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia
Mass of reactants = Mass of products
(b) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 2240 cm3 of ammonia
7g + 21 g = x g + 8.60 g
(c) 1680 cm3 of SO2 + 1.7 g of ammonia
x = 19.40 g
(d) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia
35. Sonu has N/2 HCl solution and Monu has N/10
Answer ( a )
HCl solution. They are asked to prepare
S o l . ∵ 22400 mL of SO2 = 1 mole of SO2 2 litres of N/5 HCl solution. What volume of
two solutions be mixed?
 1120 cm3 = 1120 mL of SO2
(a) (0.5 + 1.5) litre
1
  1120  0.05 moles of SO2
22400 (b) (1.0 + 1.0) litre
Also,
(c) (0.3 + 1.7) litre
∵ 17 g of NH3 = 1 mole of NH3
(d) (0.2 + 1.8) litre
1
 0.85 g of NH3 =  0.85  0.05 moles of NH3 Answer ( a )
17

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

S o l . Using N1V1  N2 V2  N 3 V3 S o l . Iso-octane can improve the quality of petrol.

(Sonu's (Monu's (Final
solution) solution) solution) Higher the octane number, better is the
quality of fuel.
1 1 1
x  (2  x)   2
2 10 5 38. 2KBrO3 + 12H+ + 10e–  Br2 + 6H2O + 2K+
On solving, we get, From above reaction the equivalent weight of
x = 0.5 L KBrO3 can be calculated as (M is molecular
2 – x = 1.5 L weight of KBrO3)
36. A solution (P) was prepared by dissolving M M
6.3 g of oxalic acid in 100 ml water. 25 ml of (a) (b)
5 10
this solution was taken and was further
diluted to 250 ml to prepare solution (Q). M M
(c) (d)
What weight of NaOH in ppm will be required 12 2
to neutralize 10 ml of solution (Q)?
Answer ( a )
(a) 10 ppm (b) 20 ppm
S o l . ∵ For 2 moles of KBrO3 we require 10 electrons
(c) 40 ppm (d) 80 ppm
Answer ( c )  For 1 mole of KBrO3 we require 5 electrons

6.3 Equivalent weight of KBrO3

S o l . No. of moles of oxalic acid = = 0.05 moles
126
Molecular weight
=
0.05 Number of electron lost
Molarity of solution ‘P’ =  1000
100 or gained by one mole
= 0.5 M
M
To find out molarity of solution ‘Q’ =
5
M1V1 = M2V2
(P) = (Q) 39. Shaila took about 10 cm 3 of a diluted
Potassium hydrogen carbonate solution in a
0.5 × 25 = M2 × 250
test tube. To this solution she added few drops
0.5  25 of universal indicator. The colour of the
M2 = = 0.05 M
250 solution turned :
H2 C2 O 4  2NaOH  Na2 C2 O 4  2H2 O (a) Orange (b) Green
(Oxalic acid)
(c) Blue (d) Yellow
Here, 10 ml of ‘Q’ is used.
So, number of moles of ‘Q’ used for Answer ( c )
10
neutralisation =  0.05 S o l . Potassium hydrogen carbonate (KHCO 3) is
1000 basic in nature because it is a salt of strong
= 5 × 10–4 moles base (KOH) and weak acid (H2CO3). So, the
∵ 1 mole of ‘Q’ (oxalic acid) is needed by 2 colour of the solution turns blue on adding
mole of NaOH. universal indicator.
So, 5 × 10 –4 moles of Q is needed by 10 –3 40. Which of the following is incorrect?
moles of NaOH
(a) Chalcocite - Copper
Weight of NaOH required = 40 × 10–3 g
= 40 ppm (b) Magnetite - Iron
37. Which of the following can improve the quality (c) Calamine - Aluminium
of petrol?
(d) Galena - Lead
(a) n heptane (b) Benzene
(c) n hexadecane (d) Iso-octane Answer ( c )
Answer ( d ) S o l . Calamine is an ore of zinc.

11
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

41. Let AB be a diameter of a circle C1 of radius 43. What is the largest value of the positive
30 cm and with center O. Two circles C2 and integer k such that k divides n 2 (n 2 – 1)
C 3 of radii 15 cm and 10 cm touch (n2 – n – 2) for every natural number n?
C1 internally at A and B respectively. A fourth (a) 6
circle C4 touches C1, C2 and C3. What is the
largest possible radius of C4? (b) 12
(c) 24
(a) 12 cm
(d) 48
(b) 15 cm
Answer ( d )
(c) 20 cm
S o l . On factorising n2(n2 – 1) (n2 – n –2)
(d) 30 cm
We get (n – 2) (n – 1) n2(n + 1)2 ...(i)
Answer ( c )
Since, nN,
Sol. A
If we take n = 3, 4, 5, we get 288, 2400 and
15 C2
10800 respectively
P
C1 HCF of (288, 2400, 10800) is 48
15
C4
10  (i) is always divisible by 6, 12, 24 and 48

10  Required largest value = 48

Q C3
Hence, option (d) is correct
10
44. A person kept rolling a regular (six faced) die
B until one of the numbers appeared third time
P and Q be the centres of circles of C2 and C3 on the top. This happened in 12th throw and
respectively the sum of all the numbers in 12 throws was
Diameter of circle C4 = 15 + 15 + 10 46. Which number appeared least number of
times?
= 40 cm
(a) 6 (b) 4

 Radius of circle C4 = 20 cm (c) 2 (d) 1

Answer (c) & (d) #
Hence, option (c) is correct
S o l . Clearly, till 11th throw 5 of 6 numbers would
42. A 5 × 5 × 5 cube is built using unit cubes. have come twice and one number only once.
How many different cuboids (that differ in at In 12 th throw one of 5 numbers comes 3 rd
least one unit cube) can be formed using the times.
same number of unit cubes?
 3x6 + 2x1 + 2x2 + 2x3 + 2x4 + x5 = 46
(a) 1000
 2(x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6) + x6 – x5 = 46...(i)
(b) 1728 ∵ x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 = 21 ...(ii)
(c) 2730 [∵ 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 21]
(d) 3375  x6 – x5 = 46 – 42
Answer ( d ) [From equation (i) and (ii)]

S o l . Selecting 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 cubes at a time, taken  x6 – x5 = 4

lengthwise, breadthwise and height wise.  (6, 2) and (5, 1) are the possibilities
We got total number of cuboids =  x5 = 1 or 2.
(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5)3 = 3375 Hence, either 1 or 2 will be least.
Option - (d) is correct  Option (c) and (d) are correct

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

45. In a square ABCD, a point P is inside the No. of positive divisors = (2 + 1)6 = 18
square such that ABP is an equilateral
Let n = 147 = 72 × 31
triangle. The segment AP cuts the diagonal
BD in E. Suppose AE = 2. The area of ABCD is  9n = 72 × 33

(a) 4 + 2 3 No. of positive divisors = 12

Let n = 243 = 35
(b) 5 + 2 3
 9n = 37
(c) 4 + 4 3  Number of positive divisors = 8

and many other possibilities are there

(d) 5 + 4 3
Hence, option (c) & (d) both are correct
Answer ( a )
A B ax  ax 2a
47. The value of , when x  2
ax  ax b 1
2 cm
30

is:
º

Sol. E
45º
(a) a (b) b
P (c) x (d) 0
D C
AED = 105° Answer ( * )

Let side of square be 'a' cm ax  ax

Sol.  (let)
Using sine rule, ax  ax

AD AE DE  1 ax
=    [On applying componendo
sinDEA sinADE sinDAE  1  a x
and dividendo]
AD 2
=
sin105° sin45°
Squaring both sides, we get
a 2
 =
1+ 3 1
 2  2  1 ax
2 2 2  
2
  2  1 ax
 a = 1+ 3
Again applying componendo and dividendo,

 
2
 Area of square ABCD = 1+ 3 2  1 a
we get 
2 x
 
= 4 + 2 3 sq. units

Hence, option (a) is correct 2ab

If we have, x 
46. Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 6. b2  1
Suppose n has 6 positive divisors. The number a b2  1
⇒ 
of positive divisors of 9n is x 2b
 2  1 b2  1
(a) 54 (b) 36 ⇒ 
2 2b
(c) 18 (d) 12 ⇒  b
Answer (c) & (d) #
S o l . According to question, n is not divisible by 6 But we have given
and number of divisors of n is 6.
2a
 9n = 32 × n x 2
, so we couldn't get the correct option.
b 1
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

48. Two regular polygons of different number of n –1

sides are taken. In one of them, its sides are  x
6
coloured red and diagonals are coloured
n–1 n–1
green, in the other, sides are coloured green  + 1
and diagonals are coloured red. Suppose 7 6
there are 103 red lines and 80 green lines.  6n + 36 = 7n – 7
The total number of sides the two polygons  n = 43
together have is: Sum of digits = 7
(a) 23 (b) 28 Hence, option (b) is correct
(c) 33 (d) 38 50. Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let X and Y be
points respectively on AB and CD such that
Answer ( b )
AX : XB = 1 : 2 = CY : YD. Join AY and CX; let BY
S o l . Ist regular polygon has n1 sides. intersect CX in K; let DX intersect AY in L. If
 n1 = Red m/n denotes the ratio of the area of XKYL to
that of ABCD, then m + n equals
n1 (n1  3)
 Green (a) 9 (b) 11
2
(c) 13 (d) 15
IInd regular polygon has n2 sides.
Answer ( b )
 n2 = Green
Sol. D 2 Y 1 C
n2 (n2  3)
 Re d K
2
n (n  3)
 n1  2 2  103 …(i)
2
n (n  3) L
And n2  1 1  80 …(ii)
2
A 1 X B
From equation (i) and (ii), we get 2
Now, In ABCD
1 2
 (n1  n2 )  [n2  3n2  n1  3n1 ]  23
2
AB = CD
2
n1  n2 3 ⎤ AX = CY
⎡
 (n 2  n1 ) ⎢  1   ⎥  23
 AXCY is a parallelogram.
⎣ 2 2⎦
 (n2 – n1)(n1 + n2 – 5) = 46 In DXC
 n2 – n1 = 1 or n2 – n1 = 2 LY || XC
 n1 + n2 = 51 or n1 + n2 = 28  DL : DX = 2 : 3
4
Option (b) is true.  ar(DLY) = ar  DCX 
9
49. A box contains some red and some yellow
1
balls. If one red ball is removed, one seventh  ar(YKC) = ar  DCX 
9
of the remaining balls would be red; if one
5 4
yellow ball is removed, one-sixth of the  ar(XLYK) = 1 – = ar  DCX 
remaining balls would be red. If n denotes the 9 9
ar
total number of balls in the box, then the sum ar(DCX) =  ABCD 
of the digits of n is 2
4 1
(a) 6 (b) 7  ar(XLYK) =  ar  ABCD 
9 2
(c) 8 (d) 9 2
= ar  ABCD 
Answer ( b ) 9
m = 2, n = 9
S o l . Let red balls be x and yellow balls be y
 m + n = 11
n –1
x = +1 Hence, option (b) is correct
7

14
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

51. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. The 1

bisector of BAC meets the circumcircle of S o l . a + (m – 1)d =
n
ABC in D. Suppose DB + DC = 4. The diameter
1
of the circumcircle of ABC is a + (n – 1)d =
m
(a) 4
(b) 3 3 mn
(m – n)d =
mn
(c) 2 3
1
(d) 2 d
mn
Answer ( a )
1 1 1
Sol. A  a  
n mn n

1
 a
mn
O
B C  Tmn = a + (mn –1)d
M

1 1
D  Tmn  1
mn mn
Let O be the centre of the circle and AM be
the median of ABC. Median of equilateral  Tmn = 1
triangle overlap the diameter
Hence, option (c) is correct
 ABD = ACD = 90°
53. In a triangle ABC, let AD be the median from A;
CBD = BCD = 30° let E be a point on AD such that AE : ED = 1 : 2;
and let BE extended meets AC in F. The ratio
 DB = DC = 2
AF
of is
In ABD FC
BD 1
cos 60  (a)
AD 6

1 2 1
  (b)
2 AD 5
 AD = 4 1
(c)
Hence, option (a) is correct 4

52. Let Tk denote the k-th term of an arithmetic 1

(d)
progression. Suppose there are positive 3
1 1 Answer ( c )
integers m  n such that Tm = and Tn = .
n m
S o l . Draw DG || BF
Then Tmn equals
A
1 F
(a)
mn E 
G
1 1
(b) +
m n B C
D
(c) 1
AF 1

(d) 0 FG 2
Answer ( c )  FG = 2AF …(i)
15
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

Since, DG || EF 2 2 2 2
 1  1  1  1
CG CD n2 n n n3
  1 n  n  2 n  3  n
FG BD 

n(n  2) n(n  3)
 CG = FG …(ii)
2 3
FC = FG + GC  
n(n  2) n(n  3)
 FC = 2AF + 2AF [From (i) and (ii)]
n = 12
 FC = 4AF  Sum of digits = 1 + 2 = 3
Hence, option (b) is correct
AF 1
  56. The sum of 5 numbers in geometric progression
FC 4 is 24. The sum of their reciprocals is 6. The
product of the terms of the geometric
Hence, option (c) is correct
progression is
54. If sin  and cos  are roots of the equation
(a) 36 (b) 32
px2 + qx + r = 0, then :
(c) 24 (d) 18
(a) p2 – q2 + 2pr = 0 (b) (p + r)2 = q2 – r2
Answer ( b )
(c) p2 + q2 – 2pr = 0 (d) (p – r)2 = q2 + r2
a a
Sol. 2
  a  ar  ar 2  24
Answer ( a ) r r

q ⎡ 1 r  r2  r3  r 4 ⎤
S o l . sin   cos   …(i)  a ⎢ ⎥  24
p ⎢⎣ r2 ⎥⎦
r 1 r  r2  r3  r 4 24
sin .cos     .....(i)
p r 2 a
On squaring (i), we get r2 r 1 1 1
    2 6
q2 a a a ar ar
sin2   cos2   2 sin  cos  
p2 1 ⎡ r 4  r 3  r 2  r  1⎤
 ⎢ ⎥6 .....(ii)
a ⎢⎣ r2 ⎥⎦
2r q2
 1   From (i) and (ii)
p p2
1 24
 = 6
 (p2 – q2 + 2rp = 0) a a
 a=±2
Hence, option (a) is correct
2 2
 Product of terms is   2  2r  2r 2
55. For a regular k-sided polygon, let (k) denotes r2 r
its interior angle. Suppose n > 4 is such that = 32
(n –2), (n), (n + 3) forms an arithmetic Hence, option (b) is correct.
progression. The sum of digits of n is 57. Digits a and b are such that the product
(a) 2 (b) 3 4a1  25b is divisible by 36 (in base 10). The
(c) 4 (d) 5 number of ordered pairs (a, b) is

Answer ( b ) (a) 15 (b) 8

(c) 6 (d) 4
(k - 2)180°
S o l . (k) 
k Answer (*) No option is correct

As (n – 2), (n), (n + 3) are in A.P. S o l . 4a1 25b to be divisible by 36.
(n  4)180 (n  2)180 (n  2)180 (n  1)180
   If we take b = 2, then 252 is divisible by 36
n2 n n n3
So, a = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.
16
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

One more possibility is there Sol. A

If a = 4, b = 6

 Total no. of ordered pairs = 11 M

D E
 Hence, no option is correct

58. The integer closest to 111...1  222...2 ,

where there are 2018 ones and 1009 twos, is
B C
N
1009 1009
10 1 10 1
(a) (b)
3 9 ADE ~ ABC

AD AE DE 1
102018  1 102018  1   
(c) (d) AB AC BC 4
3 9
15
ar(BDEC)  ar(ABC)
Answer ( a ) 16
ar (BNMD) = ar(NCEM)
Sol. 1111  222 2 15
 ar(BNMD) = ar(ABC)
32
2018 ones and 1009 twos.
Hence, option (d) is correct

1 60. The number of distinct integers in the

 [999  9  2(999  9)
9
⎡ 102 ⎤ ⎡ 102 ⎤ ⎡ 102 ⎤ ⎡ 102 ⎤
collection ⎢ ⎥,⎢ ⎥,⎢ ⎥ ,..., ⎢ ⎥ ,
⎣ 1 ⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ 3 ⎦ ⎣ 20 ⎦
1
 [102018  1 2(101009  1)]
9 where [x] denotes the largest integer not
exceeding x, is
1
 [(101009 )2  2(10)1009  1] (a) 20 (b) 18
9
(c) 17 (d) 15
2
⎛ 101009  1 ⎞
 ⎜ ⎟ Answer ( d )
⎝ 3 ⎠
S o l . [x] denotes the largest integer not exceeding x
10 1009
1

3 ⎡ 102 ⎤ ⎡ 102 ⎤ ⎡ 102 ⎤
⎢ ⎥,⎢ ⎥ ,..... ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ 1 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 2 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 20 ⎥⎦
Option (a) is correct.
59. In a triangle ABC, a point D on AB is such that ⎡ 100 ⎤
AD : AB = 1 : 4 and DE is parallel to BC with  100 , 50 , ⎢ ⎥ .....
⎣ 3 ⎦
E on AC. Let M and N be the midpoints of DE
and BC respectively. What is the ratio of the
⎡ 50 ⎤ ⎡ 100 ⎤
area of the quadrilateral BNMD to that of ..... ⎢ ⎥ , ⎢ ⎥ , 5
triangle ABC ? ⎣ 9 ⎦ ⎣ 19 ⎦

1 9 = 100, 50, 33, 25, 20, 16, 14, 12, 11, 10, 9, 8,
(a) (b)
4 32 7, 7, 6, 6, 5, 5, 5, 5.
7 15
(c) (d) So, distinct integer values = 15
32 32
Answer ( d ) Hence, option (d) is correct.
17
 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

61. True coelom is not present in animals of S o l . Archaea are prokaryotes. They reproduce
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida asexually by binary fission, fragmentation or
by the budding process. They have ether
(c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda
bonds with the branching of aliphatic acids in
Answer ( a ) their lipid membrane. They use flagella for
S o l . The body cavity lined by mesoderm is called motility. Their cell wall is said to be as
coelom. The animals which possess coelom pseudopeptidoglycan.
are annelids, echinoderms and arthropods, 65. Character(s) of acquired immunity is (are)
where as platyhelminthes are devoid of
(a) Differentiation between self and non-self
coelom. Hence, they are acoelomate.
(b) Specificity of antigen
62. The intracellular organelle that is responsible
for formation of acrosomal vesicle is (c) Retains memory
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) All the above
(b) Golgi apparatus Answer ( d )
(c) Mitochondrion S o l . Acquired immunity is the immunity that our
body gains over time, similar to how an
(d) None of the above
individual gains knowledge. The three
Answer ( b ) important characteristics of acquired
S o l . Acrosome is an organelle that develops over immunity are self-recognition, specificity and
the anterior half of the head in the memory.
spermatozoa. This part of the sperm cell is 66. Instead of using chemical fertilizers in a paddy
formed by an organelle known as Golgi field, a farmer thought of employing nitrogen
apparatus. fixation technique. Amongst the following
63. The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India which would be beneficial for his cause?
has been developed for (a) Glycine max - Rhizobium
(a) Enhancing shelf life (b) Cycas - Nostoc
(b) Insect-resistance (c) Casuarina - Frankia
(c) Drought-resistance (d) Azolla - Anabaena
(d) Enhancing mineral content Answer ( d )
Answer ( b ) S o l . Azolla is a fresh water pteridophyte maintains
S o l . The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India, a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing
i.e., Bt Brinjal has been developed which is cyanobacterium Anabaena. Azolla is either
resistance to shoot and fruit borer insects. incorporated into the soil before rice
64. A scientist observed few cells under a transplanting or grown as a dual crop along
microscope with following characters: with rice.
i. Cells divided by binary fission or 67. An action potential in the nerve fibre is
fragmentation, or budding produced when positive and negative charges
on outside and inside of the axon membrane
ii. Cells moved with the help of flagella
are reversed because
iii. Ether lipids were observed in cell
(a) All potassium ions leave the axon
membranes
(b) More potassium ions enter the axon as
iv. Peptidoglycans were noted in the cell
compared to sodium ions leaving it
walls
(c) More sodium ions enter the axon as
Which of the following category do the cells
compared to potassium ions leaving it
belong to?
(d) All sodium ions enter the axon
(a) Archaea
Answer ( c )
(b) Plant cells
S o l . When a stimulus is applied to a polarised
(c) Unicellular eukaryotes
membrane, the permeability of the membrane
(d) Cyanobacteria to Na+ ions is greatly increased at the point of
Answer ( a ) stimulation.

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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

As a result more Na + ions enter the axonal Albino rabbits were 50, 25 and 25
membrane than leaving it, the electrical respectively. What must have been the
potential of the membrane changes from genotypes of the parent rabbits?
negative to positive. Hence, the membrane is (a) CchCch X Cchc (b) CchCh X Cchc
said to be depolarised.
(c) Cchc X Chc (d) ChCh X CchCch
68. A geneticist was studying the pathway of
Answer ( c )
synthesis of an amino acid ‘X’ in an organism.
S o l . Here :
The presence (either synthesized de novo or
externally added) of ‘X’ is a must for the Genotype of Full Colour - CchCch
survival of that organism. She isolated several Genotype of Chinchilla - CchCh or Cchc
mutants that require ‘X’ to grow. She tested Genotype of Himalayan - ChCh or Chc
whether each mutant would grow when
Genotype of Albino - cc
different additives, P, Q, R, S and T were used.
‘+’ indicates growth and ‘–’ indicates the Parents : Cchc x Ch c
inablity to grow in the mutants tested. Find
out the correct sequence of additives in the
biosynthetic pathway of ‘X’. Gametes Cch c c
Ch
Organisms Additives
P Q R S T
Wild-type + + + + +
Mutant 1 – – – – + CchCh Cchc Ch c cc
Mutant 2 – + + + + Chinchilla Himalayan Albino
Mutant 3 – – + – + 50% 25% 25%
Mutant 4 – + + – + 70. It was observed in a group of tadpoles of a
mutant frog reared in a laboratory that their
(a) P  Q  R  S  T development was arrested at a particular
(b) P  R  S  Q  T stage. The exact tissue that was affected by
the mutation is unknown. The development
(c) T  P  Q  S  R
was then resumed and accelerated by
(d) P  S  Q  R  T injecting the tadpoles with the extracts
Answer ( d ) prepared from various tissues of the wild type
frogs. The observations of the experiment are
S o l . In additive P, none of the mutants 1, 2, 3 and
given below.
4 grow.
In additive S, only mutant 2 grows. Experiment Tissue
Observations
No. Extract
In additive Q, only the mutants 2 and 4 grow.
1 Anterior lobe of Development
In additive R, mutants 2, 3 and 4 grow. pituitary resumed
And in additive T, all the mutants 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 Posterior lobe Development
grow. of pituitary did not
resume
Therefore the correct sequence of additives
3 Thyroid gland Development
in the biosynthetic pathway of 'X' would be
resumed
P→S→Q →R→ T 4 Anterior lobe of Development
69. In a case of mammalian coat color, the pituitary + resumed
Thyroid gland
principal gene identified is ‘C’ which codes for
a tyrosinase enzyme. In case of rabbits four 5 Anterior + Development
posterior lobe of resumed
different phenotypes are observed Full Color >
pituitary
Chinchilla > Himalayan > Albino (in order of
the expression of gene ‘C’ and its alleles). In 6 Posterior lobe of Development
pituitary + did not
a progeny obtained after crossing two rabbits,
Thyroid gland resume
the percentages of Chinchilla, Himalayan and
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

From the above observations, find out the S o l . Guanfacine is a sympatholytic drug used to
tissue that is affected by the mutation. treat hypertension and attention deficit
(a) Anterior lobe of pituitary hyperactivity disorder.

(b) Posterior lobe of pituitary 73. A bacterial dsDNA molecule, 2988 bp in

length, was found to have the following
(c) Thyroid gland
composition
(d) Both pituitary and thyroid gland
T C A G
Answer ( a )
Strand I 348 X 1400
S o l . Frog requires thyroid hormone(TH) for the
Strand II 650 Y
further development. Anterior lobe of pituitary
secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH), The respective values of X and Y are
which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce (a) 1400 and 590 (b) 590 and 1400
thyroxine hormone.
(c) 590 and 590 (d) None of the above
Since, when the tadpole is given the extract
of anterior lobe of pituitary only, its Answer ( c )
development resumed, it shows that anterior Sol.
lobe of pituitary is not functioning properly but
X
its thyroid gland is functioning. T C A G
71. Strand I
Group A Group B
348 1400
Salmon Alpine salamander
Bullfrog Spiny anteater 650
Strand II
Platypus Common toad
A G T C
Bull shark Crocodile Y
Identify the odd ones from each group (A and B) In strand I number of adenine(A) = Number of
based on same criterion. thymine in strand II = 650
(a) Platypus, Alpine salamander Therefore, 'X' = 2988 – (348 + 650 + 1400)
(b) Bull shark, Alpine salamander = 2988 – 2398
(c) Bullfrog, Crocodile = 590
(d) Platypus, Common toad Similarly, in strand II numbers of A and C will
Answer ( b ) be 348 and 1400 respectively.
S o l . In Group A : Salmon, Bullfrog and Platypus Therefore, Y = 2988 – (348 + 650 + 1400)
are oviparous, while Bull shark is viviparous.
= 590
In Group B : Spiny anteater, Common toad
74. What would be the length of a polypeptide
and Crocodile are oviparous, while some
translated from mRNA which is encoded by
species of Alpine salamander are viviparous.
2988 bp of a bacterial gene?
72. A patient was administered a chemical agent
called Guanfacine hydrochloride after the (a) 989 (b) 992
patient showed the symptoms like shortness (c) 995 (d) 998
of breath and headache. Guanfacine Answer ( c )
hydrochloride is a known stimulant of central
 2 -adrenergic receptors of the medulla S o l . Three bases (called the triplet code) encode
regulating the sympathetic nervous system. one amino acid. The total number of triplet
The patient in this case must be suffering codons in the mRNA containig 2988 bp will be
from 2988/3 = 996.

(a) Hypertension (b) Hyperstimulation The terminal codon will be for stop signal
which does not code for any amino acid,
(c) Hyperpolarization (d) None of the above therefore the length of polypeptide = 996 – 1
Answer ( a ) = 995
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

75. A student recorded the data for five types of S o l . To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet
cells as geven below two criteria:
Character  It must contain at least 1500 species of
P Q R S T
vascular plants (>0.5% of the world's total)
Cell wall + + – – + as endemics.
Centrioles – – – + –  It has to have lost  70% of its original
Chloroplast – + – – – native habitat.
Mitochondrion – + – + + Since, the site B and site D have more than
1500 species of vascular plants as endemics,
Nucleus – + – + + but the habitat lost in site B is > 70% of its
Plasma membrane + + – + + original native habitat. So, the site B should be
RNA/DNA + + + + + included as a biodiversity hotspot.
+ – + + 77. A bacterium has a generation time of 50
Vacuoles +
minutes. A culture containing 108 cells per mL
The five cell types P, Q, R, S and T are: is incubated for 300 minutes. What will be the
(a) P-Bacterium, Q-Plant, R-Virus, S-Animal, number of cells after 300 minutes?
T-Fungus
(a) 64 × 103 cells (b) 6.4 × 108 cells
(b) P-Bacterium, Q-Plant, R-Virus, S-Fungus,
(c) 64 × 109 cells (d) 6.4 × 109 cells
T-Animal
Answer ( d )
(c) P-Fungus, Q-Plant, R-Bacterium, S-Animal,
T-Virus S o l . Number of generations in 300 minutes

(d) P-Plant, Q-Bacterium, R-Virus, S-Animal, 300

 6
T-Fungus 50
Answer ( a ) Therefore, number of cells after 6th generation
S o l . A prokaryotic cell (Bacterium) has cell wall, = 26 × 108
plasma-membrane, genetic material (RNA/ = 64 × 108
DNA) and vacuole. = 6.4 × 109
Plant, animal and fungal cells are eukaryotic. 78. The blood grouping system is an example of
Viruses have RNA or DNA as genetic material ‘multiple allelism’. In order to find out the
enclosed in protein coat. gene products of various gene variants,
76. An environment conservation group different enzymes (codes used for the purpose
performed a survey of some diverse location of experimentation are X and Y) from four
in the country and represented it as under blood samples were assayed. The enzymes
were quantified and the information obtained
Endemism and habitat loss
from these experiments is given in
Vascular Plants Endemic plants
265450 percentages in the following table. ‘+’
Original Habitat lost sq. km
habitat sq. km
indicates presence of an enzyme and ‘–’
190000
indicates the absence of that enzyme from
160000 the blood sample. The standard codes for
148200 132725 dominant and recessive alleles are
96000 considered. Identify the blood groups of
subjects and choose the correct option of
their genotypes from given options. (In table:
9000 11748
1562 2700 8768 5682
P means present, A means absent)
1000 1624 1285 2968 Subjects Ramesh Ali Sophia Balwinder
Site A Site B Site C Site D
Enzymes P/A % P/A % P/A % P/A %
Which amongst these sites should be included X + 50 + 50 + 100 – –
as a biodiversity hotspot? Y – – + 50 – – + 100
(a) Site A (b) Site B (a) IAi, ii, IBi, IAIB (b) IAi, IAIB, IAIA, IBIB
(c) Site C (d) Site D (c) IBi, IAIB, ii, IBi (d) IBi, ii, IAIB, IAi
Answer ( b ) Answer ( b )
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 NSEJS 2018-19 (Code JS511)

S o l . Ramesh is heterozygous dominant for enzyme 80. A millionaire Mr. Jim, died recently. Two
‘X’, therefore, his genotype will be IAi. women, Mary and Lou, claiming to have a
Ali shows codominance for both the genes as child by Jim approached the police
there is the synthesis of both the enzymes in demanding a share in his wealth. Fortunately
equal amount, therefore his genotype will be Jim's semen sample was cryopreserved. The
IAIB. scientists used DNA fingerprinting technique
to study the three highly variable
Sophia and Balwinder shows homozygous
chromosome regions. The results obtained
dominance for X and Y respectively as there is
are shown in the adjoining figure:
100% synthesis of enzymes X and Y
respectively, therefore, their blood groups are
Jim Mary Mary’s Lou Lou’s
IAIA and IBIB respectively. child child
79. In an experiment, a scientist discovered a
darkly stained chromatin body on the
periphery of nucleus of epithelial cells
obtained from an eight year old boy. This is
indicative of a particular syndrome. Find out
the best possible chromosome combination of
their parents from the options given below;
which have the highest probability of
producing the child under investigation. ‘A’
indicates autosome. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ represent the
sex chromosomes.
(a) 22AA + XY, 22AA + XXX
(b) 22AA + XXY, 22AA + XXX
(c) 22AA + XY, 22AA + XX
(d) 22AA + XXY, 22AA + XX After studying the DNA profile, which of the
alleged heirs are children of Jim?
Answer ( a )
S o l . A person with 22AA + XXY genotype will be a (a) Mary’s child
sterile male. (b) Both are children of Jim
The boy with darkly stained chromatin body (c) Lou’s child
on the periphery of nucleus of epithelial cells
indicates that the boy has extra X (d) None are children of Jim
chromosome in his cells. Therefore, the Answer ( a )
genotype of that boy is 22AA + XXY. Parents
S o l . DNA fingerprinting can be used for parental
with (22AA + XY), (22AA + XX) may produce
identification. Each child inherits one set of
such type of boys due to non-disjunction of
chromosomes from each parent.
chromosomes during gamete formation but,
highest probability of producing such a male In case of Mary’s child all the DNA bands are
child is when their genotype will be 22AA + matching either with Jim’s DNA bands or with
XY, 22AA + XXX. Mary’s DNA bands.
Here the female with genotype 22AA + XXX In case of other child (Lou’s child) some of
may have normal sexual development and are the bands are not matching with his mother
able to conceive children. nor with Jim.

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