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ForumIAS

Prelims Marathon
March, 2019

HISTORY
ECONOMICS
POLITY
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
GEOGRAPHY AND ENVIRONMENT
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History
Q.1) Arrange the following in the chronological order of arrival in India:
1. French
2. Portuguese
3. British
4. Dutch
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 2, 4, 3 and 1
b) 2, 3, 4 and 1
c) 2, 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3, 1 and 4

Q.2) which of the following Acts resulted in abolition of monopoly of Trade by East India
Company in India?
a) Charter Act of 1813
b) Regulating Act of 1773
c) Charter Act of 1833
d) Government of India Act 1858

Q.3) Consider the following events during freedom struggle of India:


1. Chauri Chaura Incident
2. Nehru Report
3. Dandi march
4. Communal award
a) 2, 1, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3, 1 and 4
d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements with reference to Gandhiji’s Fast unto death?
1. In 1918 → For an increase in the wages of mill workers in Ahmedabad.
2. In 1932 → For joint electorates for the entire Hindu populace rather than separate electorates
for untouchables
3. In 1942 → For Quit India Movement
4. In 1947→ For communal harmony during Hindu-Muslim riots
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Q.5) Mountbatten chose August 15th, as the date of Independence of India because
a) Congress wanted it.
b) It was start of Hindu calendar.
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c) It commemorated the second anniversary of Japan’s surrender to the Allied Forces.


d) It was day Queen Victoria’s Birth date.

Q.6) Consider the following statements with regard to Independence Day


15th Aug. 1947:
1. There were 562 princely states in India at the time of Independence.
2. Junagadh and Hyderabad did not join the union on 15th Aug 1947.
3. Goa was a French state when India became independent. It became a part of the Indian union
in 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Q.7) The aim of Public Safety Bill, 1928 was to:


a) Protect the Indian Peasant against eviction from landlords.
b) Providing safeguards to Religious minority.
c) Reservation of seat for Indians in Indian legislative council
d) Deport the foreigners suspected of propagating socialist and communist ideas.

Q.8) Champaran Satyagraha was launched against the:


a) Mill owners of Champaran factory.
b) Exploitation of peasants working on indigo plantations by the European planters.
c) Withdrawal of plague bonus given to the workers.
d) Increase in land revenues imposed by the colonial government in the district.

Q.9) Objective of Shimla conference of 1945 was


a) Ratification of Quit India Resolution.
b) To discuss Congress election result.
c) To discuss and approve Wavell Plan.
d) Ratification of Gandhi Irwin pact.

Q.10) Harcourt Butler Committee was set up by British Government to:


a) Examine the relations between the native states and the paramount power in future.
b) Providing safeguards to Religious minorities in India
c) Reservation of seat for Indians in Indian legislative council
d) Investigate the causes of famine and to recommend measures to prevent recurrence

Q.11) Consider the following statements with regard to Indian National Movement:
Which of the statements given below is not correct?
a) Gandhiji’s Harijan campaign included a programme of internal reform by Harijans.
b) The Revolutionaries Terrorist like Chandrasekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh turned to socialism
in later years.
c) Jawaharlal was ardent supporter of Gandhian strategy of struggle described by him as Struggle
— Truce — Struggle (S-T- S)

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d) The Government Act of 1935 was unanimously rejected by the Congress initially but accepted
later.

Q.12) Which of the following newspapers was/were launched by Mahatma Gandhi?


1. Navjivan
2. Young India
3. National Herald
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Consider the following events during freedom struggle of India:


1. Cabinet Mission
2. Wavell Plan
3. Cripps Mission
4. August offer
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of above events?
a) 2-1- 3-4
b) 3-4- 1-2
c) 4-2- 3-1
d) 4-3- 2-1

Q.14) In the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to
a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
c) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
d) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.

Q.15) What was ‘Abhinav Bharat’ during the Indian national movement?
1. A concept of Swaraj as envisaged by moderates
2. An underground revolutionary movement formed from outside India
3. A newspaper published by the extremists
4. A revolutionary secret society

Q.16) Regarding the administrative system of Vijayanagar empire, consider the following
statements:
1. Every village administration was conducted by Ayagars.
2. Soldiers were assigned pieces of land called Amaram.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.17) Consider the following statements with regard to Aurobindo Ghosh:


1. He was one of the accused in Alipore conspiracy Case.
2. He participated in the non-cooperation movement of 1920.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) The 1916 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom
Movement because the
a) Session was presided by a Lady for the First time.
b) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress.
c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched.
d) Historic Lucknow pact was signed with Muslim league.

Q.19) Which of the following were not part of fundamental rights resolution passed the Karachi
session of Indian National Congress?
a) Protection of women and peasants
b) Neutrality of state in religious affairs
c) Right to life and personal liberty
d) Free and compulsory primary education

Q.20) Which of the following provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935 was never
implemented:
a) The establishment of an All India Federation.
b) Provincial Autonomy.
c) Establishment of Federal Court.
d) Federal Legislature.

Q.21) With reference to Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following pairs:
Leader Place
1. C. Rajagoplachari: Hyderabad
2. K. Kelappan: Malabar
3. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan: Punjab
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Consider the following statements with reference to the INA Trials:
1. It took place in Indian Parliament
2. During the trial, mutiny broke out in the Royal Indian Navy in Karachi and Bombay.
3. Congress and the Muslim League aligned together for nonviolent protest against the trials
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Q.23) Self Respect Movement organised


a) A movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
b) A temple-entry movement in Gujarat
c) An anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
d) A non-Brahmin movement in Tamil Nadu

Q.24) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to ‘The Bombay Manifesto’
of 1936?
1. It was proposed to oppose socialist ideas of Congress.
2. It gained a large support from all sections of business community at Pan India Level.
Select the correct answer using code given below
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) The comment “It was a new charter of slavery” made by J.L. Nehru. Here it means
a) The government of India Act 1935
b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
c) Nehru Report
d) August Offer

Q.26) The Plan of Balkanization of India was associated with


a) Mountbatten Plan
b) Cabinet Mission
c) Cripps Proposal
d) None

Q.27) The book ‘India Today’, which made the myth of the safety-valve a staple of left-wing
opinion and claimed that the Congress was brought into existence through direct Governmental
initiative, was written by:
a) C. F Andrews
b) Rajani P Dutt
c) Girija Mukherji
d) William Wedderbrun

Q.28) Consider the following statements about the Pala School of painting?
1. It is a form of Miniature painting.
2. Pala illustrated manuscripts mostly belong to the Vajrayana School of Buddhism.
3. The Pala art came to a sudden end after the destruction of the Buddhist monasteries at the hands
of Muslim invaders in the first half of the 13th century.

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Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?


a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer Key
Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans.
1 B 11 C 21 B
2 A 12 B 22 B
3 B 13 D 23 D
4 B 14 C 24 A
5 C 15 D 25 A
6 D 16 A 26 A
7 D 17 A 27 B
8 B 18 D 28 D
9 C 19 C
10 A 20 A

Explanation
1. Entry of European powers in India:
Portuguese – 1498
English – 1600
Dutch – 1602
Danish – 1616
French – 1664
Swedish – 1731

2. Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India; however, the
company’s monopoly in trade with China and trade in tea remained intact. Company’s remaining
trade monopolies removed by Government of India Act 1833.
Some of the Feature’s of Charter Act 1813 are:
● For the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in
India.
● Made provisions to grant permission to the persons who wished to go to India for
promoting moral and religious improvements. (Christian Missionaries)
● This act regulated the company’s territorial revenues and commercial profits.
● There was also a provision that Company should invest Rs. 1 Lakh every year on the
education of Indians.

3. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on 1922 Nehru Report was prepared as an alternative to
Simon Commission. It was finalised in August 1928. Civil Disobedience Movement started on 12
March 1930 with Dandi march. Communal award was announced in 1932.

4. Only statement 3 is wrong else is correct.

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Total fast unto death timeline


Only statement 3 is wrong else is correct.
Total fast unto death timeline
1. In 1918 – For an increase in the wages of mill workers in Ahmedabad.
2. In 1932 – For joint electorates for the entire Hindu populace rather than separate electorates for
untouchables
3. In 1947 – For communal harmony during Hindu-Muslim riots
4. In 1948 – For communal harmony during Hindu-Muslim riots.
5. In 1918 – For an increase in the wages of mill workers in Ahmedabad.
6. In 1932 – For joint electorates for the entire Hindu populace rather than separate electorates for
untouchables
7. In 1947 – For communal harmony during Hindu-Muslim riots
8. In 1948 – For communal harmony during Hindu-Muslim riots.

5. Only option c is correct


All other options are incorrect
Knowledge Base:
North Korea, South Korea, Bahrain and Republic of the Congo share their independence day with
India.

6. Statement 1 and 2 are correct


Goa was a Portuguese state not French when India became independent. It became a part of the
Indian union in 1961.

7. Congress opposed the Public Safety Bill, 1928 because it was against nationalist activities

8. The European planters at Champaran in Gujarat practiced illegal methods of indigo cultivation.
They forced the Indian peasants to cultivate Indigo on 3/20th part of their land holding (Tinkathia
system). Raj Kumar Shukla, a local peasant persuaded Gandhiji to go to Champaran. Peasants of
Champaran with the help of Gandhiji and Rajendra Prasad organized Satyagraha and led to
abolition of Tinkathia system.

9. Shimla conference 1945:


Lord wavell invited 21 Indian Political leaders to Shimla, the Summer Capital of British
Government to discuss Wavell Plan. The leaders included Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, who was
the President of the Congress at that time. Mohammad Ali Jinnah also reached in the conference.

Wavell Plan:
1. Viceroy’s Executive Council would be immediately reconstituted and the number of its
members would be increased.
2. Except the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief all would be Indians in the Council.
3. Out of 14 members in the Executive Council 6 will be Muslims.

10. Harcourt Butler Committee was a three-member committee headed by Harcourt Butler,
appointed on December 16, 1927 to examine the relations between the native states and the
paramount power. It declined to define what paramountcy was, but stated that “paramountcy

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must remain paramount”. The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy, not the governor general
should remain the Crown agent in dealing with the native states.
Campbell Commission, 1886 – investigate the causes of famine and to recommend measures to
prevent recurrences in future.

11. Jawaharlal was critique of Gandhian strategy of struggle described by him as Struggle — Truce
— Struggle (S-T-S)
Nehru advocated that the Congress must maintain ‘an aggressive direct action policy’ till the end.
His strategy was Struggle-Victory (S- V) or the permanent waging of mass struggle till victory was
won.

12. Gandhiji started in all 4 newspaper Harijan,navjivan, Indian opinion and young india
.National Herald was started by Jawaharlal Nehru.

13. August Offer 1940, Cripps Mission (March 1942), Wavell Plan – 1945, Cabinet Mission – 1946

14. The principle of dyarchy was a division of government into authoritarian and popularly
responsible sections, named as reserved and transferred subjects respectively.
The reserved subjects came under the heading of law and order and included justice, the police,
land revenue, and irrigation. The transferred subjects (i.e., those under the control of Indian
ministers) included local self-government, education, public health, public works, and agriculture,
forests, and fisheries.

15. The Abhinav Bharat Society was a revolutionary secret society formed by Vinayak Damodar
Savarkar and his associates (1904).

16. Statement 1 is correct. The village was the lowest unit of administration in the Vijaynagar
Empire. Each village had an Assembly consisting the hereditary officers known as Ayagars. The
chief function of the Assembly was to decide the disputes amongst the villagers, maintain law and
order and collect revenue within its jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Nayakar system of the Vijaynagar Empire, military chiefs were
assigned certain pieces of land called Amaram. These chiefs, known as Nayaks, had revenue and
administrative rights on their lands. They were required to maintain elephants, horses and soldiers
in certain numbers which were included in the royal army during wars.

17. He was involved in many revolutionary movement of Bengal like Anushilan Samiti.
Aurobindo was arrested on charges of planning and overseeing the attack on Magistrate Kingsford
and imprisoned in solitary confinement in Alipore Jail.
In 1910, during his stay in the jail he had mystical and spiritual experiences, after which he moved
to Pondicherry, leaving politics for spiritual work.
In 1926, with the help of his spiritual collaborator, Mirra Alfassa (referred to as “The Mother”), he
founded Sri Aurobindo Ashram. He died on 5 December 1950 in Pondicherry

18. Respective year of congress session and its historic importance-


1917- Session was presided by a Lady for the First time.
1929- Attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress

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1920- Non-Cooperation Movement was launched


1916- Historic Lucknow pact was signed with Muslim league also Historic due to Re-union of the
Congress (moderates and extremist)

19. Article 21-Right to life and personal liberty was not part of Karachi session
Some important aspects of Karachi resolutions were:
Basic civil rights of freedom of speech, Freedom of Press, Freedom of assembly, Freedom of
association,
Equality before law.
Elections on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise
Free and compulsory primary education.
Substantial reduction in rent and taxes.
Better conditions for workers including a living wage, limited hours of work.
Protection of women and peasants.
Government ownership or control of key industries, mines, and transport.
Protection of Minorities.

20. The federal part of the Act and Dyarchy at the centre were never introduced but the provincial
part was soon put into operation. Provincial autonomy and Legislature came into effect from 1937.
Federal court in 1937. The first elections for provinces under the act were held in 1937.
For the implementation of All India Federation, consent of half of the princely states was required
which never happened.

21.
1. C. Rajagoplachari: Tamilnadu from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast.
2. K. Kelappan: Malabar the hero of the Vaikom Satyagraha, walked from Calicut to
Payannur to break the salt law in Malabar, modern day Kerla
3. Khan Abdul Gaafar Khan: North west Frotier Province lead a band of non-violent
revolutionaries, the Khudai Khidmatgars, popularly known as the Red Shirts. They played
an extremely active role in the Civil Disobedience Movement in Peshawar area.

22. Statement 2 and 3 are correct


The Indian National Army trials (INA trials) took place in Red Fort for
Courts-martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army (INA) between November 1945
and May 1946, for charges variously for treason, murder etc.
The Mass Support movement for the soldiers marked the last major campaign in which the forces
of the Congress and the Muslim League aligned together;
The Congress tricolour and the green flag of the League were flown together at protests.

23. The Self-Respect Movement is a movement with the aim of achieving a society where backward
castes have equal human rights, and encouraging backward castes to have self-respect in the
context of a caste-based society that considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy. It was
founded in 1925 by S.Ramanathan as a Non brahman movement who invited E. V. Ramasamy
(also called as Periyar by his devoted followers) to head the movement in Tamil Nadu.

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24. Bombay Manifesto 1936 was proposal A.D. Shroff which openly criticised the Nehru’s socialist
ideas. Basically the manifesto sought a wide support base from Bombay Business Community. It
hardly impacted the ideology of congress at pan India level.

25. The Simon Commission report submitted in 1930 became basis of GOI Act 1935. It provided a
federal type of government introduced provincial autonomy, abolished of dyarchy at provincial
level, making ministers responsible to legislative. However it was rejected this act, congress
demanded convening of Constituent Assembly basis of adult of franchise. Nehru referred ‘it was
new charter of slavery’. Though congress opposed the act yet it contested election.

26. In March 1947, Lord Mountbatten replaced Lord Wavell and came to India with plan of
Balkanisation where India would divide into small states, however it was dropped. Mountbatten
formula was to divide India but retain maximum satisfying both League and Congress.

27. Rajani Palme Dutt’s authoritative work ‘India Today’ made the myth of the safety-valve a
staple of left-wing opinion. Emphasizing the myth, Dutt wrote that the Congress was brought into
existence through direct Governmental initiative and guidance and through a plan secretly pre-
arranged with the Viceroy„ so that it (the Government) could use it as an intended weapon for
safeguarding British rule against the rising forces of popular unrest and anti-British feeling. „ It
was an attempt to defeat, or rather forestall, an impending revolution.

28. All the above statements are correct: THE PALA SCHOOL (11th to 12th centuries) The earliest
examples of miniature painting in India exist in the form of illustrations to the religious texts on
Buddhism executed under the Palas of the eastern India and the Jain texts executed in western
India during the 11th-12th centuries A.D. The Pala period (750 A.D. to the middle of the 12th
century) witnessed the last great phase of Buddhism and of the Buddhist art in India. The Buddhist
monasteries (mahaviharas) of Nalanda, Odantapuri, Vikramsila and Somarupa were great centres
of Buddhist learning and art. The Pala painting is characterised by sinuous line and subdued tones
of colour. It is a naturalistic style which resembles the ideal forms of contemporary bronze and
stone sculpture, and reflects some feeling of the classical art of Ajanta. The Pala art came to a
sudden end after the destruction of the Buddhist monasteries at the hands of Muslim invaders in
the first half of the 13th century. Some of the monks and artists escaped and fled to Nepal, which
helped in reinforcing the existing art traditions there.

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Economy
Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme
implemented by government of India:
1. Under NBS, subsidy is given based on the weights of different nutrients (N, P, K and S) in the
fertilizer.
2. Additional subsidy is also provided on fertilizers fortified with secondary nutrients and
micronutrients.
3. Urea falls under the ambit of NBS.
4. Under this scheme the maximum retail price of fertilizers has been left open and manufacturers
are allowed to fix the MRP at a reasonable level.
Which of the statements given above is/are true?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1 and 2 only

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Bharat Bill Payment System:
1. It is a centralized bill payment system which will allow the user to pay all his repetitive monthly
bills using a single website/outlet.
2. National Payment Corporation has been designated as Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit
(BBPCU)
3. It has been modelled on the lines of suggestions given by Umesh Bellur committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are true?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Which one of the following five year plans recognized human development as the core of all
developmental efforts?
a) The third five-year plan
b) The fifth five-year plan
c) The sixth five-year plan
d) The eighth five-year plan
Q.4) A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if
a) He is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income.
b) He is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income.
c) He can fulfil his need without consumption of certain items
d) He is able to locate new source of income

Q.5) Capital account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies:


a) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel
b) That the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for many major currency for the purpose of trade in
goods and services
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c) That the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading
financial assets
d) None of the above

Q.6) which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?


a) It is sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
b) It is persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
c) It is persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time

Q.7) when the reserve bank of India announces an increase of the Case Reserve Ratio, what does
it mean?
a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
b) The reserve bank of India will have less money to lend
c) The union Government will have less money to lend
d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend

Q.8) which of the following terms indicate a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing
credit to the government?
a) Cash credit ratio
b) Debt Service Obligation
c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
d) statutory liquidity ratio

Q.9) which are the following is / are treated as artificial currency?


a) ADR
b) GDR
c) SDR
d) Both ADR and SDR

Q.10) Consider the following actions by the government


1. cutting the tax rates
2. increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recessions, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the
“fiscal stimulus” package?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) Corporation Tax:


a) Is levied and appropriated by the states
b) Is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the states
c) Is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
d) Is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively

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Q.12) Bank Rate implies the rate of banks


a) Paid by the Reserve bank of India on the Deposits of Commercial Banks
b) charged by Banks on loans and advances
c) payable on Bonds
d) at which the Reverse Bank of India discounts the bills of Exchange

Q.13) The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India?
1. Currency with the public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
4. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

Q.14) Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, Collecting and distribution of
Income Tax is correct?
a) The Union Levies, collects and distributes all the proceeds of income tax between itself and the
state
b) The Union Levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax to itself
c) The Union Levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are distributed among the states
d) Only the surcharge levied on income tax is shared between the Union and the states

Q.15) Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other countries in terms of
India’s potential and size. which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
a) Distances in India are too far apart and its luxury hotels are too expensive for western tourists
b) For most of months India is too hot for western tourists to feel comfortable
c) Most of the picturesque resorts in India such as in the North-East and Kashmir are, for all
practical purposes, out of bounds
d) In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is inadequate

Q.16) Match list -1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List- 1 List-2

1. boom A. Business activity at high level with increasing income,


output and employment at macro level.

2. Recession B. Gradual fall of income, output and employment with


business activity in a low gear

3. Depression C. Unprecedented level of under employment and


unemployment, drastic fall in Income, output and
employment

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4. Recovery D. Steady rise in the general level of prices, income, output


and employment

a) A1 B2 C3 D4
b) A1 B2 C4 D3
c) A2 B1 C4 D3
d) A2 B1 C3 D4

Q.17)” instill into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense
of partnership and of cooperative performance….” The above passage related to
a) Planned Development
b) Community Development
c) Panchayati Raj System
d) Integrated Development Programme

Q.18) Gilt-edged market means


a) bullions market
b) market of Government securities
c) market of guns
d) market of pure, metals

Q.19) Which of these is/ are component(s) of internal debt?


a) Market borrowing
b) Treasury bills
c) Special securities issued to RBI
d) All of the Above

Q.20) consider the following taxes:


1. Corporation tax
2. customs duty
3. Income tax
4. excise duty
Which of these is/ are indirect taxes?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Q.21) The term National Income represents


a) Gross national product at market prices minus depreciation
b) Gross National Product at market prices minus deprecation plus net factor income from abroad
c) Gross national product at market prices minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies
d) Gross national product at market prices minus net factor income from abroad

Q.22) participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?
a) Consolidated funds of India

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b) Foreign institutional investors


c) United nations development programme
d) Kyoto protocol

Q.23) Consider the following:


1. Fringe benefit tax
2. Interest tax
3. Securities transaction tax
Which of the above is/ are Direct Tax/ Taxes?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) A “closed economy” is an economy in which


a) The money supply is fully controlled
b) deficit financing takes place
c) only exports takes place
d) Neither exports nor imports take place

Q.25) Kar Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following
theories?
a) Empirical liberalism
b) Existentialism
c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
d) Dialectical materialism

Q.26) Economic Growth is usually coupled with


a) Deflation
b) Inflation
c) stagflation
d) Hyperinflation

Answer Key
Qs Ans. Qs Ans. Qs Ans.
1 B 11 D 21 C
2 D 12 D 22 B
3 D 13 B 23 D
4 A 14 A 24 D
5 C 15 D 25 D
6 C 16 A 26 B
7 A 17 B
8 D 18 B
9 C 19 D
10 A 20 B
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Explanation
1. Government of India is implementing Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy w.e.f. 1st April 2010.
The notable features of this scheme are as follows:
● This scheme is for 22 grades of decontrolled fertilizers namely DAP, MAP, TSP, DAP Lite,
MOP, SSP, Ammonium Sulphate and 15 grades of complex fertilizers.
● These fertilizers are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based on the nutrients
(N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers.
● Additional subsidy is also provided on the fertilizers fortified with secondary and
micronutrients as per the Fertilizer Control Order such as Boron and Zinc.
● The subsidy given to the companies is fixed annually on the basis of its nutrients content
(i.e. Nitrogen, Phosphate, Potash and Sulphur).
● Under this scheme, Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of fertilizers has been left open and
manufacturers/marketers are allowed to fix the MRP at reasonable level.
● Urea does not come under NBS.

2. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) is an integrated bill payment system which will offer
interoperable bill payment service to customers online as well as through a network of agents on
the ground. The system will provide multiple payment modes and instant confirmation of
payment. Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) will be a single authorized entity operating
the BBPS. The BBPCU will set necessary operational, technical and business standards for the
entire system and its participants, and also undertake clearing and settlement activities. To start
with, the scope of BBPS will cover repetitive payments for everyday utility services such as
electricity, water, gas, telephone and Direct-to-Home (DTH). Gradually, the scope would be
expanded to include other types of repetitive payments, like school / university fees, municipal
taxes etc. Banks and non-bank entities presently engaged in any of the above bill payment activities
falling under the scope of BBPS and desirous of continuing the activity are mandatorily required
to apply for approval / authorisation to Reserve Bank of India under the Payment and Settlement
Systems (PSS) Act 2007.

3. The Eighth Five year Plan (1992- 97 was based on john W. Millar model. It recognized human
resource development as the core of all developmental initiatives. The theme of this plan was plan
with a human face.

4. Equilibrium living refers to living a dignified comfortable life in the society. Form the economic
points of view. Equilibrium is in the marginal utility derived from the goods consumed and money
paid. The consumers would be in equilibrium if he is able his need with a given level of income
then the consumer is satisfied.

5. The Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency
for the purpose of trading financial assets without any restrictions.

6. Economics, deflation is a general price level of goods and service. Deflation occurs when the
inflation rate falls below 0% (a negative inflation rate) this should not be confused with
disinflation, a slow –down the inflation rate (i.e. when inflation decline to lower level) Inflation
reduces the values of money over time; conversely deflation increase the real value of money – the
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currency of a national or regional economy. This is allows one to buy more goods with the same
amount of money over time.

7. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the amount of funds that the banks have to keep with the RBI. If
the central bank decides to increase CRR, the available amount with the bank comes down. The
RBI uses the CRR to drain out excessive money from the system. The aim here is to ensure that
banks do not run out of cash to meet the payment demands of their depositors.

8. Statutory liquidity Ratio (SLR) refers amount that the commercial banks require to maintain in
the from of gold or govt. approved securities before providing credit to the customers. Here by
approved securities we mean, bond and share of different companies. Banks prefer to keep a part
of prescribed ratio in the form of treasury bills, thus financing the government short terms
borrowing. SLR is determined and maintained by the RBI in order to control the expansion of bank
credit. It is determined as percentage of total demand and time liabilities. Time liabilities refers to
the liabilities which the commercial banks are liable to pay the customers after a certain period
mutually agreed upon and demand liabilities are such deposits for 6 months, through withdrawal
from of a cheque. Thus we can say that it is ratio of cash and some other approved liabilities
(deposits). It regulates the credit growth in India
The main objective for maintaining the SLR ratio are the following-
● To control the expansion of bank credit, by changing the level of SLR, the RBI can decrease
or decrease bank credit expansion
● To ensure the solvency of commercial banks
● To compel the commercial banks to invest in govt. securities like govt. bond.
The SLR is commonly used to contain inflation and fuel growth, by increasing or recreating it
respectively.

9. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets defined and
maintained by international Monetary Fund (IMF). SDRs may actually represent a potential claim
on IMF member countries nongold foreign exchange serves assets, which are usually held in those
currencies. While they may appear to have a more important part to play or perhaps, an important
future role, being the unit of account for the IMf has long been the main function of the SDR. It is
formally known as paper gold.
American depository receipt (ADR) –ADR is a method of trading non –U.S. stock on U.S.
exchanges. Suppose Indian Co. wants to raise money for America, by issuing shares in American
stock Exchange. But then Indian company will have to maintain accounts according to American
standards. To prevent this problem, Indian company gives its shares to American Bank gives that
Indian company gives its share to American Bank. American Bank gives that Indian company
receipts (called ADR) in return of those shares. Then Indian co. can trade those ADR receipts in
American share Market, to raise money
Global Depository Receipts (GDR) – serve as same function like ADR, but on global scale, its
helps the countries from third world, to raise money from the stock exchange in developed
countries.

10. In fiscal stimulus package either taxes are reduced or government spending is increased to
increase the purchasing power of the people. Therefore an increase in public spending or a
reduction in the level of taxation that might be performed by a government in order to encourage

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and support economic growth. Most government bailout package offered to various business
types can be considered a from of fiscal stimulates
The two main objective of providing fiscal stimulus are –
1. Tax cut – by cutting taxes, the government allows people to keep more in their pockets and
ultimately spends more. This increase economic activity
2. Government spending – Direct government spending infrastructure, social welfare or other
such things increase the government spending and helps to boost the GDP.

11. Corporation tax is a direct tax levied on the profits of companies. It is levied, collected and
appropriated by the Union or the central government.

12. Bank rate is that rate of interest at which central bank of a country provides refinancing facilities
to commercial banks. This rate at present is 9%. Every bank needs refinancing as it is very difficult
to match borrowings and flow of deposits.

13. Broad money (M3) in India Constitutes Currency with the public, Demand deposits with banks
and time deposits with banks.

14. Personal income tax is lived on incomes of individuals, Hindu families, unregistered firms and
other association of people. For taxation purpose, income from all sources is added. however, apart
from the deduction of necessary professional expenditure, rebate on account of life insurance
premium, provident fund, etc. is allowed. India has a progressive income tax like other countries.
Income tax is lived and collected by union government and distributed between itself and states.

15. India Is a preferred destination due to its culture, monuments and handicrafts. However,
tourism is quite small in India compared to many other countries because of inadequacy of
infrastructure in India.

16. Boom – Business activity at high level with increasing income, output and employment at
macro level
Recession – Gradual fall income, output and employment with business activity in a low gear
Depression – Unprecedented level of under employment and unemployment, drastic fall in
income, output and employment
Recovery – Steady rise in the general level of prices income, output, employment.

17. The passage relates to Community Development programme, started in 1952 for overall
development of rural areas.

18. The Gift-edged market means the market for government and semi-government securities
which carry fixed interest rates rate. Where it is a way of least risk of default in repayment.

19. Internal debt is that part of the total debt that is owed to lenders within the country. It is the
money the government borrows from its own citizens. The government borrows by issuing the
Government Bonds and T-Bills (Treasury Bills). It also includes the Market borrowings by the
government. The government bonds and T-Bills are traded in the market which is also known as
Gilt Market.Please note that when government borrows from the domestic sources, the increase in

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inflation is less in comparison to simply printing the money and increased the more liquid forms
of wealth (i.e., the money supply).
The major component of internal debt are market, Bonda, treasury Bills, special floating and other
advance, securities against small saving, small saving provident funds other accounts which
include postal insurances , life annuity fund , Hindu family annuity funds, borrowings against
compulsory deposit income tax annuity deposits special deposits of Non-Government provident
fund and reserve funds and deposit

20. Indirect taxes include – Excise duty, customs duty, service tax, securities and transaction taxes
etc. property tax, corporation tax and wealth tax are included in direct tax.

21. National Income = Gross national product at market prices- indirect taxes depreciation +
subsidies

22. Participatory notes are financial instruments used by investors or hedge funds that not
registered with the securities and exchange board of India to invest in India securities and
exchange Board of India to invest in Indian securities and then issue participatory notes to foreign
Institutional investors.
SEBI permitted FIIs to register and participate in Indian stock market in 1992.
Participatory notes are instruments that drive their value from an underlying financial instrument.

23. Direct tax is a tax directly payed by an individual or organistion to the imposing entity.
Example of direct tax are-
1. Corporation
2. Tax
3. Securities transaction
4. Banking cash transaction
5. Fringe benefits tax
6. Wealth tax
7. Interest tax.
Fringe benefit tax is applied to employees, for the expense made for providing services to the
employees, which cannot otherwise accounted individually
Interest tax is direct tax imposed on interest accrued in specific cases. However, it was abolished
in March 2000
Securities transaction tax is a tax applied in the transaction of stock market, during a transaction.
It’s applied both on buyers as well as sellers.
Indirect taxes are levied on entity such as seller and paid by another such as tax paid by the buyer
in a retail setting. Examples of Indirect tax – 1. Union Excise duty 2. Custom duty 3. Service tax

24. An economy in which no activity is conducted with outside economics. A closed economy is
self-sufficient, meaning that no imports are brought in and no exportsare sent out. The goal is to
provide consumers with everything that they need from within the economy’s borders. A closed
economy is the opposite of an open economy, in which a country will conduct trade with outside
regions.

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25. Dialectical materialism is a philosophy of science and nature, based on the writings of Karl
Marx and Friedrich Engels, and developed largely in Russia and the Soviet Union. The sketch of
dialectical materialism given by Karl Marx explains that Dialectical principle is of universal
application and all the development is struggle of opposites” or “conflict of opposities”

26. The idea that an increased in economic growth reduces inflation. Here’s why Inflation, as the
old saying goes, is caused by too much money “chasing” too few goods. Just as means higher
prices, fewer goods also means higher price the connection between the level of production and
level of prices also holds for the rate of change and production (that is, the rate of economic
growth) and the rate of change of prices (that is, the inflation rate). During deflation there is no
demand and no growth.

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Polity
Q.1) Consider the following statements about The Chief Information Commission:
1. The Central Information Commission is not a constitutional body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner hold the office for a term of 6 years or until they attain the age
of 65 years.
3. President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour
or incapacity.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) According to the National Human Rights Commission, consider the following statements
1. Only a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or Chief Justice of a High Court can be its Chairperson.
2. The Commission mainly has an advisory role and its recommendations are not binding on the
government.
3. The President appoints the Chairperson on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet headed by the
Prime Minister.
Select the incorrect statements from the choices given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the
warrant of precedence in Constitution of India?
a) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha- Attorney General of India-
Members of Parliament
b) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members
of Parliament
c) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members of Parliament-Deputy Chairman
of Rajya Sabha.
d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha Members
of Parliament

Q.4) Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are correctly matched?
1. 26th Amendment – Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely states
2. 21st Amendment – Curtailment of the Fundamental Right to property
3. 51st Amendment – Anti Defection Law
4. 97the Amendment – Right to form cooperatives a Fundamental Right.
Select the correct answers from the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3

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Q.5) The constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes and tribes as the scheduled
castes and scheduled tribes, is the
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Minister of Social Welfare
d) Chairman, Sc/ST Committee

Q.6) A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is seemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no
action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within
a) 10 days
b) 14 days
c) 15 days
d) 16 days

Q.7) The supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the constitution’ in
a) The Golaknath Case in 1967
b) The sajjan Singh case in 1965
c) The Shankari Prasad case in 1951
d) The kesavananda Bharati Case in 1973

Q.8) Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2,3 and 3
d) 3 and 4

Q.9) Consider the following functionaries:


1. cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their Correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:
a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
b) 4, 3, 1 and 2
c) 4, 3, 2 and 1
d) 3, 4, 1 and 2

Q.10) Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the lok Sabha and send it for consideration
within 14 Days
d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the lok Sabha for reconsideration

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Q.11) With reference to Ad hoc judges of the Supreme court, consider the following statements:
1. They are appointed when there is a lack of quorum of permanent judges to hold a session of the
Supreme Court.
2. They are appointed by the President on recommendation of the Chief Justice of India.
3. A judge of high court cannot be appointed as an ad hoc judge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of


1. Political party mergers
2. Political party splits
3. A candidate quitting political party
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only

Q.13) Which of the following category of Constitution amendments would require the ratification of
the states in India?
1. Citizenship clauses
2. Changes in the Concurrent List under Seventh Schedule.
3. Changes in the State boundaries
4. Changing the number of judges in the Supreme Court
Choose the correct answer from the codes below?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only

Q.14) Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State list subject
for giving effect to international agreements?
a) Article 249
b) Article 250
c) Article 252
d) Article 253

Q.15) Under which Article of the Indian constitution, there is provision for the election commission?
a) Article 320
b) Article 322
c) Article 324
d)Article 326

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Q.16) The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties:
a) With the consent of all the States
b) With the consent of the majority of States
c) With the consent of the States concerned
d) without the consent of any State

Q.17) The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to


a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
b) prepare the Annual Budget
c) advise the President on financial matters
d) allocate funds to various ministers of the Union and State Governments

Q.18) Consider the following about National Commission For Scheduled Caste
1. The commission presents an annual report to the Parliament.
2. It has all the powers of a criminal court trying a suit.
Which of the following are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) Joint State Public Service Commission created for two or more states is a
a) Statutory Body
b) Constitutional Body
c) Non-statutory body
d) None of the above

Q.20) which of the following National Commissions / Central Bodies is not correctly matched
Commission / Body: Falls Under
a) Central Information Commission: Ministry of Personnel
b) Inter-State Council: Ministry of Home Affairs
c) National Commission for STs: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
d) Finance Commission: Ministry of Finance

Q.21) Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List I List-II
1. Constitutional amendment 1. Article 360
2. Finance Commission 2. Article 312
3. Financial Emergency 3. Article 280
4. All India Services 4. Article 368
a) A2 B3 C4 D1
b) A4 B3 C1 D 2
c) A3 B4 C1 D 2
d) A1 B2 C3 D 4

Q.22) With reference to the Prorogation of a House of the Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. It terminates only a sitting and not a session of the house.
2. It is done by the presiding officer of the house.
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3. It does not affect the bills pending before the house.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Q.23) Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of which of the following committees of the constituent
assembly?
1. Union Powers Committee
2. States Committee
3. Union Constitution Committee
4. Rules of Procedure Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.24) Consider the following Statements about the speaker of a legislative assembly of a state in India:
1. He decides whether a bill is a Money bill and his decision on it is final
2. A resolution passed by a majority of two-third of all the then members of the house is required for
his removal from his office.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his individual discretion in appointing
Chief Minister?
1. When no political party has clear majority.
2. When the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26) Appointment of the Central Information Commissioner is recommended by a committee


consisting of
a) Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha, Home Minister, Leader
of Opposition in both the houses of parliament
b) Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
c) Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
d) Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet
Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

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Answer Key
Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans.
1 C 11 B 21 B
2 B 12 A 22 D
3 A 13 D 23 A
4 C 14 D 24 A
5 A 15 C 25 C
6 B 16 D 26 D
7 D 17 A
8 A 18 D
9 C 19 A
10 A 20 C

Explanation
1. The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005. It was
constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information
Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body. The Commission consists of a Chief Information
Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President
on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of
Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Chief
Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until
they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment. The
President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner on the
ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

2. NHRC (National Human Rights Commission) consists of:


● A Chairperson, retired Chief Justice of India
● One Member who is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court of India
● One Member who is, or has been, the Chief Justice of a High Court
● Two Members to be appointed from among persons having knowledge of, or practical
experience in, matters relating to human rights
● In addition, the Chairpersons of four National Commissions of (1. Minorities 2.SC and ST 3.
Women) serve as ex officious members.
Hence option 1 is incorrect.
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is an autonomous public body. It is a statutory
body. Its recommendations carry great value, but are not binding in nature.
Hence statement 2 is correct
Chairperson and members of the NHRC are appointed by the President of India, on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of:
● The Prime Minister (chairperson)
● The Home Minister
● The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (House of the People)
● The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
● The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (House of the People)
● The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)

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3. Ranks of some of the persons in Table of Precedence


1. President 2. Vice-President 3. Prime Minister 4. Governors of States within their respective States 5.
Former Presidents 5A. Deputy Prime Minister 6. Chief Justice of India Speaker of Lok Sabha 7. Cabinet
Ministers of the Union. Chief Ministers of States within their respective States Deputy Chairman,
Planning Commission Former Prime Ministers Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration 8. Ambassadors Extraordinary & Plenipotentiary and High
Commissioners of Commonwealth countries accredited to India; Governors of States outside their
respective States; Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States 9. Judges of the Supreme Court
10. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha 11. Attorney General of India 21. Members of Parliament

4. By 26th amendment Government decided to terminate the privy purses and privileges of the Rulers
of former Indian States. Hence option 1 is correct.
21st Amendment of the Constitution of India amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to
include Sindhi as one of the languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the
schedule to fifteen.Hence option 2 is incorrect
51st amendment was to provide reservation to Scheduled Tribes in Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram
and Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assemblies. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
Anti-defection law was introduced by 52nd Constitutional amendment act.
91st amendment added the words “or co-operative societies” after the word “or unions” in Article
19(l)(c) and insertion of article 43B i.e., Promotion of Co-operative Societies. Hence option 4 is correct.

5. Article 341 The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory and where it is a State
after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification specify the castes, races or tribes or
parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be
deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State. or Union Territory.
Article 342 The President may with respect to any State or. Union Territory and where it is a State, after
consultation with the Governor thereof by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities
or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall for the purpose of this Constitution
be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union Territory, as the case may be.

6. Money Bills are those Bills which contain only provisions dealing with all or any of the matters
specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of article 110 of the Constitution.
As per the provisions of article 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect
to Money Bills. A Money Bill after having been passed by the Lok Sabha, and sent to Rajya Sabha for
its recommendations, has to be returned to Lok Sabha by the Rajya Sabha, with in a period of
fourteen days from the date of its receipt, with or without recommendations.
It is open for the Lok Sabha, to either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya
Sabha.
1. If the Lok Sabha accepts any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is
deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Rajya
Sabha and accepted by the Lok Sabha.
2. If the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money
Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the
Lok Sabha without any of the amendments recommended by the Rajya Sabha.
3. In case a Money Bill is not returned by the Rajya Sabha to the Lok Sabha within a period of
fourteen days from the date of its receipt, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in
the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha after the expiry of said period.

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7. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati Case declared that Art.368 did not enable the
Parliament to alter the basic structure or framework of the Constitution and Parliament could not use
its amending power under Art.368 to ‘damage’, ’emasculate’, ‘destroy’, ‘abrogate’, ‘change’ or ‘alter’
the ‘basic structure’ or framework of the Constitution.
In Golaknath v. State Of Punjab, or simply the Golaknath case, Supreme Court ruled that Parliament
could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
In Sankari Prasad Singh Deo and Sajjan Singh cases Supreme Court upheld the power of Parliament
to amend any part of the Constitution including fundamental rights.

8. under art.76, the Attorney General is appointed by the President. He must have the qualification of
a judge of Supreme Court. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. He is not a Member of
parliament, as his office is an office of profit.

9. In the protocol: CJI -6th, Cabinet Ministers-8th, CEC-9th, Cabinet Secretary-11th position.

10. A Money Bill can’t be introduced in Rajya Sabha. A Money Bill can be table in the Lok Sabha only.
A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the
matters mentioned under Article 110 of the Constitution.

11. When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the
Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of
the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice
of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed
should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so
appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so
attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of
the Supreme Court.

12. The grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Laws are as follows.
(a) If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party;
(b)If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political
party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his
party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident. Finally, the 91st Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2003, changed this. So now at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be
in favour of a “merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. “The merger of the original political
party or a member of a House shall be deemed to have taken place if, and only if, not less than two
thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned have agreed to such merger,” states the Tenth
Schedule.

13. Citizenship clauses need a simple majority only in the Parliament. The same is true for changing the
boundary of states and for changing number of judges.

14. There are 5 provisions under which Parliament can legislate on a subject included in state list:
1. Article 249 if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two
thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State
List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or

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any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in
force.
2. Article 250 Parliament shall, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have power to
make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any of the matters
enumerated in the State List.
3. Article 252 If legislatures of two or more states pass a resolution, it shall be lawful for the
parliament to legislate on that subject enumerated in state list for the states that passed the
resolution.
4. Article 253 Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of
India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or
countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body
5. Article 356 (b) the President may by Proclamation declare that the powers of the Legislature of
the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.

15. Article 324 Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election
Commission. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for,
and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to
the offices of President and Vice-President held under this Constitution shall be vested in a
Commission.
The Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other
Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix and the appointment of
the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall, subject to the provisions of
any law made in that behalf by Parliament, be made by the President.

16. According to art 253 which is concerned with legislation for giving effect to international agreement,
parliament has the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for
implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision
made at international conference, association or other body.

17. Under Art.280, the Finance Commission is to advise on revenue sharing between Union and State
Other functions listed here are done by Finance Ministry.

18. Statement a) Report of the Commission


The Commission presents an annual report to the President. It can also submit a report as and when it
thinks necessary. The President places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a
memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations made by the Commission. The
memorandum should also contain the reasons for the non-acceptance of any of such recommendations.
Statement b) Powers of the Commission
The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. The Commission, while
investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a
suit and in particular in respect of the following matters:
a) summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him
on oath;
b) requiring the discovery and production of any document;
c) receiving evidence on affidavits;
d) requisitioning any public record from any court or office
e) issuing summons for the examination of witnesses and documents; and
f) Any other matter which the President may determine.

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19. The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission
(JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution,
a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned. JSPSC
is a statutory and not a constitutional body.

20. National Commission for SCs: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
National Commission for STs: Ministry of Tribal Affairs

21. Article 368. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure thereof
Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power
amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with
the procedure laid down in this article
Article 280. Finance Commission
The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at
the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary, by order
constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be
appointed by the President.
Article 312. All India Services
Notwithstanding anything in Chapter VI of Part VI or Part XI, if the Council of States has declared by
resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary
or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or
more all India services (including an all India judicial service) common to the Union and the States,
and, subject to the other provisions of this Chapter, regulate the recruitment, and the conditions of
service of persons appointed, to any such service
Article 360. Provisions as to financial emergency
If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India
or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to
that effect

22. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and the session of the house. It is done by the President of
India. It does not affect the bills pending before the house. However, all pending notices (other than
those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next.

23. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of:


1. Union Powers Committee
2. States Committee
3. Union Constitution Committee
The Rules of Procedure Committee was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

24. When the Speaker is removed from office by a resolution which is passed by a majority of all the
members of the House. While such a process is underway, the Speaker cannot preside over the House,
but can take part in the proceedings of the House.

25. When no party has a clear majority in the legislative assembly, then governor may exercise his
personal discretion in the selection and appointment of CM. In such a situation the governor usually
appoints, the leader of largest party or largest coalition party, as the CM and ask him to seek a vote of
confidence in the house within a month.

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The governor may exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointment of CM when CM
in the office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a CM, the ruling
party usually elects a new leader and governor appoints him/her as CM.

26. The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information
Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting
of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet
Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide
knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism,
mass media or administration and governance. They should not be a Member of Parliament or Member
of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory. They should not hold any other office of profit or
connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession.

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Science & Technology


Q.1) when an air bubble at the bottom of lake rises to the top, it will
a) Increase in size
b) Decrease in size
c) Maintain its size
d) Flatten into a dish like shape

Q.2) The genetic engineering approval committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of
any genetically modified crop in India, is under the union ministry of
a) Agriculture
b) Environment & forest
c) Commerce and industry
d) Rural Development

Q.3) Consider the following elements:


1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Carbon Dioxide
Which of the above is/are products of aerobic respiration?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Which one of the following describes best the concept of ‘’Die Back’ in plant biology?
a) Natural ageing of a plant
b) Seasonal shedding of leaves from a plant
c) Progressive death of twigs and branches which generally starts at the tips
d) Gradual death of a healthy plant due to excessive grazing by animals

Q.5) The characteristic odour of garlic is due to


a) a chloro compound
b) a sulphur compound
c) a fluorine compound
d) acetic acid

Q.6) Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:
a) Diamond to glass
b) Water to glass
c) Air to water
d) Air to glass

Q.7) which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’?


1. over nutrition
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2. undernutrition
3. imbalanced nutrition
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) Consider the following statement:


1. Smart card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical Communication medium such as
satellite and fibre Optic transmission
3. A digital library is collection of documents in an organized electronic from available on the
internet only.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

Q.9) The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness etc. is
a) ethyl alcohol
b) amyl alcohol
c) benzyl alcohol
d) methyl alcohol

Q.10) Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
1. Vitamin 1. Pepsin
2. Enzyme 2. Carotene
3. Hormone 3. Keratin
4. protein 4. Progesterone
a) A1 B2 C3 D4
b) A2 B1 C4 D3
c) A2 B1 C3 D4
d) A1 B2 C4 D3

Q.11) insect- resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting gene from a/an
a) virus
b) bacterium
c) insect
d) plant

Q.12) Biologists have so far known, found and identified a large number of species in the plant
and animal kingdom. In terms of number, the largest found and identified so far is from among
the

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a) fungi
b) plants
c) insects
d) bacteria

Q.13) It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by


a) applying trace element in tomato field
b) spraying mineral solution on plants
c) spraying hormones on flower
d) applying fertilizer containing radioactive elements

Q.14) the memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of kilobytes or megabytes A byte
is made up of:
a) Eight binary digit
b) eight decimal digit
c) Two binary digit
d) Two decimal digit

Q.15) Consider the following statement:


1. In nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because
2. More neutrons are released in the each of the fission reaction
3. The neutrons immediately take part in the fission process
4. The fast neutrons are slowed down by graphite
5. Every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

Q.16) Consider the following Organizations


1. Atomic minerals directorate for research & exploration
2. Heavy water board
3. Indian Rare Earth Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India
Which of these is/are under the department of Atomic Energy?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q.17) Domestic electrical wiring is basically a


a) Series connection
b) parallel connection
c) Combination of series and parallel connections
d) series connection within each room and parallel connection elsewhere

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Q.18) low temperature (cryogenics) find application in


a) space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation
b) surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry
c) space travel, surgery telemetry
d) space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry

Q.19) which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist
high temperature and also have high hardness and abrasion resistance?
a) Aluminium
b) Chromium
c) Nickel
d) Tungsten

Q.20) Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?
a) Boron
b) Zinc
c) Sodium
d) Copper

Q.21) Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet proof material?
a) Polyvinyl chloride
b) Polyamides
c) Polyethylene
d) Polycarbonates

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Answer Key
Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans.
1 A 11 B 21 D
2 B 12 C
3 C 13 C
4 C 14 A
5 B 15 B
6 A 16 D
7 D 17 B
8 B 18 A
9 B 19 B
10 B 20 C

Explanation
1. The size of the air bubble increase as its rise from the bottom of the lake to the top due to decrease
in hydrostatic pressure.

2. The genetic engineering approval committee (GEAC) is under the ministry of environment and
forests.

3. Carbon Dioxide and Water are two waste products of aerobic respiration.
Respiration is the process by which people (and other organisms) break down glucose (from
sugars and carbohydrates in their food) in order to release energy. This process requires oxygen
which we breath in.
Aerobic respiration is respiration that uses oxygen as a reactant. Aerobic respiration is much more
efficient, and produces ATP much more quickly, than anaerobic respiration (respiration without
oxygen). This is because oxygen is an excellent electron acceptor for the chemical reaction.

4. “Dieback” refers to the progressive death of twigs and branches which generally starts at the
tips. Trees and shrubs affected by the decline and dieback syndrome may die within a year or two
after symptoms first appear or in some cases survive indefinitely.
Corrective practices such as proper watering, fertilization, and pruning are not guaranteed
solutions in all cases.
Decline and dieback may be caused by many factors and is usually progressive over several years.
Trees and shrubs of all ages may be affected, although this disease complex is usually associated
with plants that have attained some size and maturity.

5. Characteristic odour of onion and garlic is due to sulphur compound Ally1 propy1 disulphide
in onion and Dially 1 disulphide in garlic

6. Total internal reflection is an optical phenomenon that happens when a ray of light strikes a
medium boundary at an angle larger than a particular critical angle with respect to the normal to
the surface. If the refractive index is lower on the other side of the boundary, no light can pass
through and all light t is reflected. The critical angle is the angle of incidence above which the total
internal reflection occurs. Total internal reflection takes place when light travels from optically

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denser medium to optically rarer medium Refractive index of diamond is very high (2.417)
whereas refractive index of glass is only in between (1.5 to 1.6) whereas in rest all options there is
no possibility of total internal reflection because refractive index of water (1.33) and air (1,008) is
less than refractive index of glass.

7. Malnutrition defines a condition that occurs when the body is not getting enough nutrients.
Whether resulting from an independent or unbalanced diet, digestive or absorption problem or
other medical conditions. Overnutrition, under nutrition and imbalanced nutrition are three forms
of malnutrition. Protein energy malnutrition PEM leads to two type of disease viz., marasmus and
kwashiorkor ‘marasmus’ is a type of pem caused by simultaneous deficiency of protein and total
food calories; whereas ‘kwashiorkor’ is caused by serve protein deficiency.

8. A smart card is a plastic card about the size of a credit card, with an embedded microchip that
can be loaded with the data, used for telephone calling, electronic cash payment, and other
applications, and then periodically refreshed for additional use,
Digital technology enables immense amount of information to be compressed on small storage
device that can be easily preserved and transported. Digitalization also quickness data
transmission speeds telecommunication had relied on digital method to transmit message. In the
early 1980s, enhanced fibre optics enabled the development of digital communication network.
communication satellites known as the direct broadcast satellite (DBS) transmitted compressed
digital signals for viewers the receive several hundred television programming choices.
A digital library is a collection of documents in organized electrons from, available on the Internet
or on CD- ROM (compact –disk –read-only memory) disks. Depending on the specific library, a
user may be able to access magazine article, books papers, image, sound files, and videos.

9. Methanol has a high toxicity in humans. If ingested, for example as little 10 ml of pure methanol
can cause permanent blindness by destruction of the optic nerve, and 30mL is potentially- fatal

10. Vitamin A group includes retinol. Their parent carotene is a vitamin substance as b carotene

11. The new gene inserted is BT gene or Bacillus thuringiensis.it was developed by Monsanto
bacterium. The new variant is called Bollgard cotton resistant to bollworm pest.

12. Class insect of the animal kingdom with 7,50,000 species reported, in the largest single group
in the both plant and animal kingdom

13. Seedless tomato fruits can be produced by parthenocarpy (the natural or artificially induced
production of fruit without fertilization of ovules. The fruit is therefore seedless

14. A computer may perform millions of calculation in solving a problem in flash second. Each
number, letter, symbol etc.put into a computer is turned into a group of eight bits (bytes) each bit
must be stored in somewhere and must ready to be retrieved at a moment notice.

15. Statement 2 is not correct. In nuclear chain reaction is controlled. In each fission of U-235 or PI-
239 atom, neutrons are produced. In nuclear reactors two neutrons of these three are absorbed
with the help of moderators e.g. Graphite, heavy water or Beryllium Oxide. the remaining ‘one’

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neutron is used immediately to break one atom of nuclear fuel and the cycle is repeated the
neutrons take part in the process, then the reaction will go out of control and the reactors will
become an atom bomb.

16. The organization under the Department of Atomic Energy are given below: -
1. Atomic Minerals directorate for research & exploration
2. Heavy water board
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India

17. Domestic electric wiring is basically done in parallel connection because electricity can be
supplied equally to all the instruments in a house and also when one circuit is broken electric
current still flows in other circuits.

18. Cryogenic engine is used for rocket propulsion particularly GSLV of space programme and
ballistic missiles
Cryosurgery is the branch of surgery which is used to destroy malignant tissue such as cancer cells
etc.
‘cryosurgery technology ‘is also used in the production of very high magnetic field and remote
sensing.

19. The hardness of steel is proportional to the percentage of chromium present. Chromium is
alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist high temperature and also have high
temperature and also have high hardness and abrasion resistance. It is called stainless steel.

20. Micronutrients or trace elements are essential mineral elements required in small quantities for
plant growth and development. They are Fe, Mn, B, Cu, Zn Mo, Ni and CL, Sodium (Na) is
required only for halophytes and not for all plants.

21. Polycarbonate is a versatile, tough plastic used for a variety of applications, from bulletproof
windows to compact disks (CDs). The main advantage of polycarbonate over other types of plastic
is unbeatable strength combined with light weight, polycarbonate is nearly unbreakable

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Geography and Environment


Q.1) Saddle Peak the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is located in
a) Great Nicobar
b) Middle Andaman
c) Little Andaman
d) North Andaman

Q.2) The Palk Bay lies between


a) Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
c) Lakshadweep and Maldive islands
d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q.3) Eco Mark is given to the Indian products that are


a) Pure and unadulterated
b) Rich in proteins
c) Environment friendly
d) Economically viable

Q.4) Consider the following rivers:


1. kishanganga
2. ganga
3. wainganga
4. Penganga
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the above given rivers when arranged from north
to south direction?
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2,1,3,4
c) 2,1,4,3
d) 1,2,4,3

Q.5) The alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to at height of 3000 meters
while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000 meter The reason for this variation
in the same mountain range is that
a) Eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas
b) Eastern Himalayas are nearer to the equator and sea coast than western Himalayas
c) Eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western Himalayas
d) Eastern Himalayas rocks are more fertile than he western Himalayas rocks

Q.6) which one of the following mountain ranges of India is limited to single state?
a) Aravalli
b) satpura
c) Ajanta
d) Sahyadri
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Q.7) Arakyanyoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in


a) Baluchistan
b) Mayanmar
c) Nepal
d) Kashmir

Q.8) Which one of the following agricultural practice is eco-friendly?


a) Organic farming
b) Shifting cultivation
c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
d) Growing plants in glass-houses

Q.9) The Water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of


a) Chlorine
b) Ozone
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen

Q.10) Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying
vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called
a) Tipis
b) Burkhans
c) Phoomdis
d) Izba

Q.11) Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?
a) Diesel
b) Coal
c) Hydrogen
d) Kerosene

Q.12) Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statement is not correct?
a) The carbon credits system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto protocol
b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below
their emission quota
c) The goal of the carbon credits system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the united nations Environment
programme

Q.13) The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one following countries?
a) Australia
b) Cuba
c) Ghana
d) Philippines

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Q.14) Which one of the following is not a lagoon?


a) Ashtamudi lake
b) Chilka lake
c) Periyar lake
d) Pulicat lake

Q.15) The palaeomagnetic result obtained. From India indicate that in the past, the Indian land
mass has moved
a) Northward
b) Southward
c) Eastward
d) Westward

Q.16) The formation of Ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could
be the reasons for the formation of this hole?
a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and
chlorofluorocarbons
d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming

Q.17) Consider the following:


1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of sulphur
Which of the above is / are the emission / emissions from coal combustion at thermal power
plants?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) Which one of the following statements is not true?


a) Ghaggar’s water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal
b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak region
c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjira river
d) Penaganga is a tributary of the Godavari

Q.19) The thermal power plant of bokaro is located in


a) Bihar
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Jharkhand
d) Orissa

Q.20) Which one of the following is located in the baster region?


a) Bandhavgarh National park

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b) Dundeli sanctuary
c) Rajaji national park
d) Indravati national park

Q.21) Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the western Ghats
meet?
a) Anaimalai Hills
b) Cardamon Hills
c) Nilgiri hills
d) Shevoroy hills

Q.22) The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge mass called
a) Jurassic land mass
b) Aryavarta
c) Indiana
d) Gondwana continent

Q.23) which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group
a) Marathi
b) Ladakhi
c) Khasi
d) Tamil

Q.24) Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift valley due to down warping?
a) Damodar
b) Mahanadi
c) Son
d) Yamuna

Q.25) which one of the following is not essential a species of Himalayan vegetation?
a) Juniper
b) Mahogany
c) Silver fir
d) Spruce

Q.26) What is the correct sequence of the rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the
descending order of their lengths?
a) Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi
b) Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi - Tapi
c) Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi
d) Narmada – Tapi – Godavari – Mahanadi

Q.27) Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
a) Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Jodhpur

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d) Nagpur

Q.28) In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
a) Andaman and Nicobar islands
b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
c) Daman and Diu
d) Lakshadweep

Answer Key
Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans.
1 D 11 C 21 C
2 B 12 D 22 D
3 C 13 A 23 C
4 A 14 C 24 A
5 C 15 A 25 B
6 C 16 B 26 B
7 B 17 D 27 B
8 A 18 A 28 A
9 D 19 C
10 C 20 D

Explanation
1. Saddle Peak (730 m) is present in North Andaman Island

2. Palk bay situated between Sri Lanka and India and lies Between Gulf of Mannar and Bay of
Bengal

3. Eco mark is given to the Indian products that are environment friendly. Any product which is
made, used or disposed of in a way that significantly reduces the harm is would otherwise cause
to the environment, are categorized as environment friendly product.

4. Kishanganga is the northernmost river among the mentioned rivers lying in Jammu and
Kashmir.
Ganga flows through Uttar Pradesh and bihar.
Wainganga and Penganga are the tributaries of Godavari located in Maharashtra. Wainganga lies
sequentially north to Panganga.

5. Eastern Himalayan region gets more monsoonal rain than the western Himalayas that’s why
alpine vegetation is found at more height say up to height of (4000) in eastern Himalaya than
western Himalayas

6. Ajanta ranges are the smallest compared to mentioned options and spread within Maharashtra,
while Aravalli mountain range spreads in Gujarat and Rajasthan. Satpura range starts from the
state of Gujarat and extend to from Maharashtra to karnataka.

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7. South eastern extension of Himalayas in Myanmar is called Arakanyoma

8. Organic farming is the form of agriculture that relies on techniques such as crop rotation, green
manure, compost and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity and control pests on a
farm. Organic farming uses bio pesticides, bio fertilizers, organic manures etc. But excludes or
strictly limits the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides like herbicides, insecticides and fungicides.
That’s why organic farming is ecofriendly.

9. Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of effluent strength in terms of the amount of


dissolved oxygen utilized by microorganisms during the oxidation of organic components in the
effluent. Polluted water has high Bod. i.e. less amount of oxygen is dissolving in it.
10. Phumdis are a series of floating islands, exclusive to the Loktak Lake in Manipur state, in
northeastern India. They cover a substantial part of the lake area and are heterogeneous masses of
vegetation, soil and organic matter, in different stages of decay.

11. Hydrogen has highest fuel value (150 KJ/g and is least harmful to the environment among
fuels, while Coal, Diesel and Kerosene on combustion releases CO2, SO2 and other Nitroge oxides
causes environmental pollution.

12. A carbon credit is a generic term for any tradable certificate or permit representing the right to
emit one tonne of carbon dioxide or the mass of another greenhouse gas with a carbon dioxide.
Carbon credits and carbon markets are a component of national and international attempts to
mitigate the growth in consternation of greenhouse gases (GHGs) one carbon credits is equal to
one metric tonne of carbon dioxide, or in some markets, carbon dioxide equivalent gases. carbon
trading approach the goal is to allow market mechanisms to drive industrial and commercial
processes in the direction of low emission or less carbon intensive approaches than those used
when there is no cost Emitting Carbon Dioxide and other GHGs into the atmosphere

13. The great barrier reef is the largest coral reef. It is situated along the west coast of Queensland
state of Australia and northern eastern coast of Australia. This reef is protected as marine park.

14. Chilka lake is situated to the south-west of Mahanadi delta. It is enclosed by the sand pit, has
an opening which permits sea connection It is largest brackish water lake in Asia. Pulicat lake is
situated on the southern border of Andhra Pradesh. Periyar lake is an inland lake located near the
border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu Ashtamudi Lake is a freshwater lake in the Kollam district of
Kerala.

15. Paleomagnetism is the study of the record of the earth ‘s magnetic field in rocks. Certain
minerals in rocks lock-in a record of the direction and intensity of the magnetic field when they
form. This record provides information on the past behavior of Earth’s magnetic field and the past
location of tectonic plates. Paleomagnetic results shows that the Indian land mass has moved
northwards.

16. The ozone hole is caused by the effect of pollutant in the atmosphere destroying stratospheric
ozone. During the Antarctic winter something special happens to the Antarctic weather. Strong
wind blowing around the continent form, this is known as the “polar Vortex” – this isolates the air

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over Antarctica from the rest of the world. Polar stratospheric clouds at about 80,000 feet altitude
these are the highest flying of all clouds and only occur in the Polar Regions where the temperature
in the upper atmosphere dips below minus 100F. They are sometime called “nacreous clouds” as
they are coloured like the nacre of mother – of – pearl with coloured bands that move the position
of cloud and observer. By the time spring arrives and the sun comes back after the long polar night,
the ozone levels are severely depleted around the Antarctic continent causing the “ozone hole”.
Unfortunately, there then follows a particularly long period of high sunshine and long days, just
to make effect of the ozone hole worse.

17. The emission gas contains carbon dioxide, water vapour, as well as substance such as nitrogen
oxides (NOx). Sulphur oxides (Sox), mercury traces of other metals and for coal fired plants, fly
ash. Solid waste ash from fired boilers must also be removed. Some coal ash can recycled for
building materials.

18. Indira Gandhi Canal starts from the Harike Berrage at Sultanpur, a few kilometers below the
confluence of Sutlej and Beas rivers in Punjab state and flows through Rajasthan. It receives water
from Sutlej and Beas River.

19. Bokaro is situated at a point between Jamshedpur and Jharia coal fields and near to RAniganj
coal fields in Jharkhand.

20. Indravati national park is situated in baster district of Chhattisgarh. Bandhav garh national
park is located in umaria district of Madhya pardesh. Rajaji national park covers Haridwar,
Dehradun and pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand.

21. Nilgiri, which literally means “Blue Mountain” in many language. The hills are separated from
the Karnataka plateau to the north by the Moyar River and from the Anaimalai Hills and palni
hills to the south by the Palghat Gap. The Nilgri district of Tamil Nadu lies within these mountains.

22. Indian subcontinent was originally part of Gondwana continent. It was separated into South
America, Africa, India, Australia and Antarctica in late cretaceous period. By drifting northward.
Indian subcontinent got separated from various other continent. Indian plate later merged with
Eurasian plate in the north.

23. Ladakhi belongs to Sino Tibetan family


Marathi belongs to Indo Aryan language family
Tamil belongs to Dravidian family
Khasi and Nicobarese language belongs to Monkhmer branch of Austric language

24. Damodar is east flowing river with rift valley due to down warping. Down Warp denotes a
segment of the Earth’s crust that is broadly bent downward.

25. Mahogany is a kind of wood the straight-grained, reddish – brown timber of three tropical
hardwood species extend throughout the western Himalayas from Afghanistan to Nepal at an
altitude of 7000ft. but not found in Himalayas. Mahogany is a commercially important lumber
prized for its beauty, durability and color, and used for paneling and to make furniture, boats,

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musical instruments. And other items.

26. Godavari – 1500 km ( flows west to east)


Mahanadi – 857 km
Narmada – 1312 km (flows from east to west)
Tapi – 721 Km

27. Kolkata (22°33’N) is the nearest city to the Tropic of cancer (23 ½ °N) latitude.

28. Famous tribe of Andaman and Nicobar are Onge, Shompen, Jarwan, Nicobaries, Andamanis
etc. They belong to the Negrto race.
Tribes Race Islands
Shompen Mangoloid Great Nicobar
Nicobaries Mangoloid Great Nicobar
Onges Negroid Little Nicobar
Sentinelese Negroid Sentinel Island
Jarawa Negroid Middle and South Andaman
Andamanis Negroid Strait Island.

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