Victory Elijah Christian College

MATHEMATICS GRADE 8 FEBRUARY MONTHLY TEST

Name: _______________________________________________ Score: ____________

I. Is it possible for a triangle to have the following sides?

1. 12, 11, 5 6. 12, 14 , 21

2. 3, 5, 8 7. 21, 23, 45

3. 14, 10, 11 8. 21, 23, 56

4. 6, 6, 12 9. 32, 45, 120

5. 21, 6, 10 10. 34, 56, 65

II. Suppose you know that ∆ XYZ ≅ ∆ LMN. Answer the following.

1. Name the three pairs corresponding vertices.

2. Name the three pairs of corresponding sides.

3. Name the three pairs of corresponding angles.

III. Identify the following.

1. SSS

2. SAS

3. ASA

4. HL

5. LL
IV. For each, state the angle relationship.

1. Angle 5 and Angle 4 5. Angle 8 and Angle 1

2. Angle 1 and Angle 5 6. Angle 3 and Angle 6

3. Angle 3 and Angle 7 7. Angle 4 and Angle 8

4. Angle 1 and Angle 8 8. Angle 2 and Angle 6

V. Find the value of x so that p II q

VI. Write true or false. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and write FALSE if
the statement is wrong.

1. Opposite angles of parallelogram are congruent.

2. A rectangle is a parallelogram with 4 right angles.
3. A trapezoid is a quadrilateral with exactly one pair of parallel sides
4. Isosceles trapezoid is a trapezoid with congruent legs.
5. A scalene trapezoid is a trapezoid with no equal sides.
6. A parallelogram is a quadrilateral with both pairs of opposite sides are
parallel.
7. Opposite sides of a parallelogram are congruent.
8. A quadrilateral is another type of polygon having four sides.
9. A trapezoid is a quadrilateral with only one pair of parallel sides.
10. A rhombus is a parallelogram with 4 equal sides.

VII. Use the parallelogram and the given information below to find the value
of x.

1. AS = 6 ; EY =
2. SY = 8.4 ; AE =
3. AS = 60 ; EY =
4. EX = 4x + 10 ; ES = 50
5. AY = 3x – 9 ; AX = 5x + 7
6. EX = 4x + 10 ; ES = 50
7. AY = 6x – 18 ; AX = 10x + 7
8. SA = 2x – 8 ; YE = x + 16
9. SA = 2x – 6 ; YE = x + 15
10. AE = 8x + 6 ; SY = 2x – 10
VIII. Refer to parallelogram SIDE. Complete each statement.

1. DE ≅

2. SE II

3. SED ≅

4. ND ≅

5. ISE is supplementary to and

6. If ED = 15, then IS =

7. If NE = 8, then IE =

8. If m IDE = 58°, then m ISE =

9. If m SED = 105°, then m ISE =

10. If m SIE = 38° and m EID = 62° , then m IDE =

 Victory Elijah Christian College
ENGLISH GRADE 8 FEBRUARY MONTHLY TEST

Name: _______________________________________________ Score: ____________

Identification : Directions: Complete the sentences with the verbs in

parentheses.

Present Real Conditionals

1. A car (wear) ________ out faster if it isn’t well cared of.
2. If Amy sees something she likes on the menu, she (order) ________ it.
3. If I work too much, I might (get) ________ very exhausted.
4. If the dog (exercise) ________ enough, she sleeps through the night.
5. It always rains if you (wash) ________ your car.
6. Students learn best if the teacher (know) ________ his or her subject well.
7. If Franz stops at the store after work, he always (get) ________ something
for the kids.
8. You get things very quickly if you (order) ________ them on the internet.
9. Grazilda always takes aspirin if she (have) ________ a headache.
10. If you (talk) ________ like her, you might not get their respect.
11. If I (buy) ________ a lottery ticket, I might win the lottery.
12. My brother usually drives to school if he (have) ________ gas in his car.
13. If it (snow) ________ tomorrow, we can go skiing.
14. If my sister (eat) ________ all of the cake, I will get angry.
15. My mother always punishes my sister if she (tell) ________a lie.

Future Real Conditionals

1. If Ellaine (go) ________ on a diet, she’ll lose ten pounds.
2. If I have the time, I (go) ________ up to the mountains this weekend.
3. If you don’t apply to the university on time, you (get not) ________ accepted.
4. We (catch) ________ the train to Busan if we arrive at the station on time.
5. You (miss) ________ your favourite TV show if you don’t get home on time.
6. If you don’t call me before Tuesday, I (call) ________ you.
7. If you don’t pull the weeds out of the garden, it (become) ________
overgrown.
8. You’ll be hungry if you (eat not) ________ your dinner.
9. Ken will sleep better if he (drink) ________ chamomile tea.
10. Ashley will pass the exam if she (review) ________ her lessons religiously.
11. If the phone (not ring) ________ this afternoon, I can take a nap.
12. We should go jogging if it (not be) ________ raining outside.
13. I will call you if she (not go) ________ to the movies, and we can go out
together.
14. We can’t learn anything if we (not do) ________ our homework.
15. If we (not go) ________ to school, my mom will get angry.

Present and Future Unreal Conditionals

1. I (hear) ________ better if you (turn) ________ up the radio.
2. If I (be) ________ Jade, I (go) ________ on a diet.
3. If it (rain) ________ more, it (be) ________ greener here.
4. If the neighbours (be) ________ quieter, the children (sleep) ________ at night.
5. Studying curls, riffs, and runs in RNB music (be) ________ difficult if you
(practise) ________ devotedly.
6. The windows (look) ________ nicer if you (clean) ________ them.
7. This town (be) ________ better if we (have) ________ wider streets.
8. We (visit) ________ you if we (see) ________ your car in front of your house.
9. You (be) ________ happy if he (call) ________.
10. You (be) ________ the best singer if you (hit) ________ high notes.
11. She be) ________happier if she (have) ________ more friends...
12. We (buy) ________a house if we (decide) ________to stay here...
13. They (have) ________ more money if they (not/buy) ________ so many
clothes...
14. We (come) ________ to dinner if we (have) ________ time...
15. She (call) ________ him if she (have) ________ his number...
16. They (go) ________to Spain on holiday if they (like) ________hot weather...
17. She (pass) ________the exam if she (study) ________more...
18. I (marry) ________someone famous if I (be) ________a movie star...
19. We (not/be) ________ late again if we (buy) ________a new car...
20. You (lose) ________weight if you (eat) ________less..

Past Unreal Conditionals

1. I (pay) ________ for the painting by now if I (have) ________ the money.
2. If Krizzel (tell) ________ the truth, everyone (not be) ________ upset with her.
3. If you (hear) ________ his voice, you (love) ________ it.
4. It (be) ________ too late if I (wait) ________ for you to come back.
5. It (rain) ________ by now if the weather report (be) ________ correct.
6. The bookstore (close) ________ before this if it (not be) ________ so busy.
7. The dinner (be) ________ ready if my sister (not call) ________.
8. The kids don’t feel sluggish and exhausted if they (eat) ________ more
nutritious food.
9. If I (speak) ________perfect English, I (have) ________ a good job.
Using Wish in Conditionals
1. I wish I (be) ________ smarter.
2. I wish I (live) ________ in London.
3. I wish I had (see) ________ Aidel when she was here.
4. I wish Novie could have (stay) ________ in this city.
5. She wishes she (be) ________ traveling to China next year.
6. Our flat is very small. I wish
It would be bigger
it was bigger
7. I have to work tomorrow. I wish
I did not have to work tomorrow
I wouldn’t have to work tomorrow
8. I have a boring job.
I wish I didn't have a boring job.
I wish I wouldn't have a boring job.
9. The neighbors are playing loud music now.
I wish they would stop.
I wish they didn't play loud music.
I wish they weren't playing loud music.
10. The neighbors play loud music.
I wish they would stop.
I wish they didn't play loud music.
11. It's cold. I wish it (was/would) __ warmer
12. It's cold. I wish it (was/would)__ get warmer
13. My brother hasn't got a job. I wish he (has/have/had) __ a job
14. My brother hasn't got a job. I wish he (would/was) __find a job
15. It's raining. I wish it (wasn’t /wouldn’t)_________ raining.
16. It's raining. I wish it (would / was) _stop raining.

Write hopes / is hoping/ hoped and wishes is wishing/wished.

1. I ____ John passed his test.
2. I ____Paula had passed her test
3. Kendra ____that she can find a new apartment quickly.
4. I ____I were 2 inches taller.
5. Randy ____ to graduate from college in only 3 years, but it took him 3 ½
6. I ____I had applied for a patent on that invention I made 5 years ago. IBM just came out
with a similar design.
7. Honey, I ____you would stop biting your nails –it’s a nervous habit.
8. I ____the cast “the Big Bang Theory” TV show had been at Danver’s Comic Con this year.
9. I ____ we can have you over for dinner again sometimes soon, Mr. and Mrs. Travis.
10. I don’t have a motorcycle, but I’ve always ____ I had one.
Directions: Rewrite each sentence as an indirect passive construction.

11. Cassiopeia gave the mother gem to Adhara.

Indirect Passive:
12. Heran fought with the Sang’gres to Etheria.
Indirect Passive:
13. Queen Amihan searched Lira from Lireo.
Indirect Passive:
14. Sang’gre Alena inundated the monsters using her water gem.
Indirect Passive:
15. Sang’greDanaya lured the Hathorians using her earth gem.
Indirect Passive:
16. Sang’grePirena gave the fire gem to King Hagorn.
Indirect Passive:
17. Adhara slayed the guards from Carcero.
Indirect Passive:
18. Lola Kap slapped Sang’grePirena in front of Hagorn.
Indirect Passive:
19. Hagorn destroyed the house of Lola Kap.
Indirect Passive:
20. Cardo shot Hagorn into his head.
Indirect Passive:

Construct your own sentences.

1. Active Voice: Indirect Passive Voice:
2. Active Voice: Indirect Passive Voice:
3. Active Voice: Indirect Passive Voice:
4. Active Voice: Indirect Passive Voice:
5. Active Voice: Indirect Passive Voice:
 Victory Elijah Christian College
SCIENCE GRADE 8 FEBRUARY MONTHLY TEST

Name: _______________________________________________ Score: ____________

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.

1. There are billions of galaxies in the universe.
2. Open star clusters contain more stars than globular star clusters.
3. A star cluster may contain one or more galaxies.
4. Galaxies are divided into types based on size.
5. Spiral galaxies are generally older than elliptical galaxies.
6. Dwarf galaxies are often found near larger galaxies.
7. Some galaxies contain over a trillion stars.
8. Our solar system is within one of the spiral arms of our galaxy.
9. Our solar system orbits the central disk of our galaxy.
10. From Earth, our galaxy looks like a giant spiral.
11. Edwin Hubble used powerful telescopes to discover other galaxies.
12. As the distance between galaxies grows, the size of each galaxy shrinks.
13. When the universe began, it was much larger than it is today.
14. In the first few moments after the Big Bang, the universe was very hot and
dense.
15. The first matter to form in the universe consisted of protons, neutrons, and
electrons.
16. Most asteroids in the solar system are located between Mars and Earth.
17. Asteroids formed after the rest of the solar system formed.
18. Small asteroids sometimes collide with Earth.
19. After a meteor hits Earth’s surface, it is called a meteorite.
20. Meteoroids are usually larger than asteroids.

Multiple choices. Direction: Write the word of the correct answer.

1. Asteroids do not have any of the following except

• Gravity.
• An atmosphere
• Internal heat.
• Geological activity
2. Which of the following statements is true about short-period comets?
• They have periods of 200 years or less.
• They come from the asteroid belt.
• The originate in the Oort cloud.
• none of the above
3. Which of the following is a dwarf planet?
• Ceres
• Makemake
• Haumea
• All of the above
4. Pluto was once called a planet. Now it has been reclassified as a dwarf
planet because
• Its gravity is too weak to clear its orbit.
• It does not have any moons.
• It consists only of gases.
• Its orbit is not elliptical.
5. The only dwarf planet located in the asteroid belt is
• Eris.
• Haumea
• Ceres.
• Makemake
6. Which dwarf planet is shaped more like an egg than a ball?
• Ceres
• Eris
• Haumea
• Pluto
7. The dwarf planet named Eris
• Is bigger than Pluto.
• Was discovered before pluto
• Has more moons than Pluto.
• Is closer to the sun than pluto
8. Types of star clusters include
• Open clusters.
• Elliptical cluster
• Spiral clusters.
• All of the above
9. Elliptical galaxies contain
• a lot of gas and dust.
• Mostly red or yellow star
• mainly young stars.
• Two of the above
10. Types of galaxies include
• spiral galaxies.
• Circular galaxies
• cluster galaxies.
• Globular galaxies
11. The stars in an open cluster are mostly
• Old stars.
• Reddish stars
• Young stars.
• Two of the above
12. Galaxies that do not have a clearly defined shape are called
• Deformed galaxies.
• Dwarf galaxies
• Irregular galaxies.
• Open galaxies
13. Scientists estimate that the Milky Way Galaxy contains about
• 40,000 stars.
• 40 million stars
• 400,000 stars.
• 400 billion stars
14. Some astronomers think that at the center of our galaxy there is a
• Neutron star.
• Red supergiant
• Supernova.
• Black hole
15. According to the Big Bang theory
• Dark matter is changing to ordinary matter throughout the universe.
• Dark energy is pulling the universe into black holes.
• The universe will someday end because of a “big bang.”
• The universe began with an enormous explosion.
16. From our point of view in the Milky Way Galaxy, all other galaxies in the
universe appear to be
• Crowding closer together.
• Getting dimmer
• Moving away from us.
• Growing larger
17. After the big bang occurred, the universe
• Shrank in size.
• Became hotter
• Became denser.
• Began to cool
18. Most scientists who study dark matter think that it is
• A mix of ordinary matter and matter we haven’t yet discovered.
• Matter that makes up black holes.
• Just a tiny fraction of all the matter that exists in the universe.
• none of the above
19. Scientists recently discovered that the universe
• Has started to contract in size.
• Is expanding even faster than before.
• Is no longer expanding or contracting.
• Will soon go through another big bang.
20. Scientists have introduced the concept of dark energy to explain the
• Rate of growth of the universe.
• Contraction of the universe.
• Origin of dark matter.
• all of the above
16. To come together from different directions; to meet
• Earthquake
• Earthquake focus
• Fault
• Coverage
17. The natural shaking of the earth due to the release as rocks move along a
fault
• Fault
• Frequency
• Earthquake
• Coverage
18. The point where an earthquake originates
• Epicenter
• Earthquake focus
• Earthquake
• MWAA
19. The location on the Earth's surface directly above the focus of an
earthquake
• Epicenter
• Earthquake
• ME
• Fault
20. a break in the earth's crust along which there is rock movement
• Frequency
• Fault
• Earthquake focus
46. A layer comprise of the earth's crust in combination with the rigid upper
mantle
• Frequency
• Lithosphere
• Mantle
47. The frequenct at which the least amount of energy is necessary to cause
a specific object to vibrate
• Plate
• Frequency
• Natural frequencies
• Earthquake
48. What type of seismic activity happens in an earthquake?
• Shocks
• rays
• Waves
• bounces
49. What event can happen when an underwater earthquake shakes the
ocean floor?
• the tide
• tsunami
• a waterspout
• an epicenter
50. What instrument would you use to measure how big an earthquake is?
• Calculator
• spectrometer
• seismograph or seismometer
• abacus
51. In what type of fault do two plates move apart?
• Fracture
• normal
• Reverse
• strike-slip
52. What is a dangerous event that is likely to occur on the side of a mountain
during an earthquake?
• Liquefaction
• subsidence
• Tsunami
• landslide
53. What do you call small tremors that follow a big earthquake?
• tectonic plates
• aftershocks
• eruptions
• P waves
54. What is the best scale to measure an earthquake?
• the Richter scale
• a manual scale
• the geological time scale
• the Mercalli Intensity scale
55. The three types of boundaries between the Earth's plates are what?
• rift valley, ocean ridge, and fault
• divergent, convergent, and transform
• seafloor, lithosphere, and seabed
• continent, trench, and magnetic field
56. What is a major fault in California?
• the San Andreas fault
• the New Madrid fault
• the Deseado fault
• the Magallanes fault
57. Where do most of the largest earthquakes on Earth occur?
• where one plate sinks below or slides past another
• where two plates pull apart
• in the center of tectonic plates
58. these steps in order to explain how the interaction of two tectonic plates
pressing against each other can produce an earthquake.
• Rocks at the edges of the plates break
• Rockes at the edges of the plates rebound
• Rocks at the edges of the plates bend
• Shock waves vibrate from rocks
59. Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during
an earthquake?
• the Modified Mercalli Scale
• the elastic rebound theory
• the principle of superposition
• the travel time difference
60. The amount of ground displacement in a earthquake is called the __ .
• Epicenter
• Dip
• Slip
• focus
61. The point where movement occurred which triggered the earthquake is
the __ .
• Dip
• Epicenter
• Focus
• strike
62. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the different arrivals from
first to last?
• P waves ... S waves .... Surface waves
• Surface waves ... P waves .... S waves
• P waves ... Surface waves ... S waves
• S waves ... P waves .... Surface waves
63. How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the
rock?
• back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
• back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
• in a rolling circular motion
• the particles do not move
64. Detailed studies of what earthquake allowed researchers to develop the
elastic rebound theory?.
• the 1906 San Francisco earthquake
• the 1964 Anchorage, Alaska earthquake
• the 1755 Lisbon, Portugal earthquake
• the 1985 Mexico CIty earthquake
65. How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of
an earthquake?
• 2
• 1
• 3
• 4
66. Earthquakes can occur with _________ faulting.
• Normal
• Reverse
• Thrust
• all of these
67. Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate
boundaries?
• 25%
• 50%
• 75%
• 90%
68. Which type of faulting would be least likely to occur along the mid-
Atlantic ridge?
• Normal
• Reverse
• Transform
• all of these could occur
69. How often do magnitude 8 earthquakes occur?
• about 5 to 10 times per year
• about once a year
• about every 5 to 10 years
• about every 50 to 100 years
70. The bulk modulus measures ______________.
• the resistance to flow of a liquid
• the resistance to change in color
• the resistance to change in volume
• the resistance to change in shape
71. The shear modulus measures _____________ .
• the resistance to flow of a liquid
• the resistance to change in shape
• the resistance to change in volume of a liquid
• the resistance to change in volume of a solid
72. If only density increases with increasing depth within the Earth, the velocity
of a P wave should ___ .
• stay the same
• increase
• decrease
73. If a P wave were to go from a solid to a liquid - what would happen to its
velocity?
• stay the same
• increase
• decrease to 0.0
• decrease
74. If an S wave were to go from a solid to a liquid - what would happen to its
velocity?
• stay the same
• increase
• decrease to 0.0
• decrease
75. Which boundary marks a change from 100% solid to 100% liquid?
• mantle ... outer core
• lithosphere ... asthenosphere
• crust ... mantle
• none of these
76. Body waves consist of the:
• P waves only
• S waves only
• P and S waves
• Surface waves
77. With increasing travel time the difference in arrival times between the P
and the S waves _________
• Increases
• Decreases
• stays constant
• none of the above
78. Earthquake A has a Richter magnitude of 7 as compared with
earthquake B's 6. The amount of ground motion is one measure of earthquake
intensity.
• A is 10X more intense than B
• A is 1000 more intense than B
• Richter magnitude does not measure intensity
• B is 0.01X as intense than A
79. In general, the most destructive earthquake waves are the __________ .
• P waves
• S waves
• Surface waves
• Q waves

80. Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter:

• directly below the epicenter
• directly above the epicenter
• in the P wave shadow zone
• n the S wave shadow zone
81. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur
at point A?
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
• deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
82. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point B?
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
• deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
83. Which of the following can be triggered by an earthquake?
• Tsunami
• intense ground shaking
• a landslide
• all of these
84. Which of the following can trigger a tsunami?
• undersea earthquakes
• undersea landslides
• the eruption of an oceanic volcano
• all of these
85. Which of the following waves is the slowest?
• P waves
• S waves
• Surface waves
• tsunami
86. Which of the following statements is false?
• Most earthquakes occur at plate boundaries
• The time and location of most major earthquakes can be predicted
several days in advance
• Earthquakes can be caused by normal, reverse and strike-slip
faulting
• P waves travel faster than both S waves and Surface waves
87. Which of the following observations may indicate a forthcoming
destructive earthquake?
• An increase in the frequency of smaller earthquakes in the region
• rapid tilting of the ground
• rapid changes in water levels in wells
• all of these
88. Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake
prediction?
• scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all
earthquakes
• scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50%
of all earthquakes
• scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but
not where
• scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but can not
yet accurately predict most earthquakes
89. What is the name of the top layer of the earth?
• Mantle
• Crust
• Outer core
90. Can a magnitude 3 earthquake destroy a house?
• Yes
• No
91. Earthquake ground motion is recorded with a ...?
• Seismograph
• Seismogram
92. When a earthquakes occurs, it releases energy in the form of waves that
radiate from the earthquake source in all directions. Which is the fastest wave?
• P-Wave
• S-Wave
• Surface wave
93. Can scientists predict earthquakes?
• Yes
• No
94. How can we protect ourselves from earthquakes?
• We can do nothing.
• We can build broader streets.
• We can build well designed and constructed houses.
95. What is an earthquake?
• An earthquake is the shaking and vibration of the Earth's crust due to
movement of the Earth's plates.
• An earthquake is the eruption of molten rock from inside the Earth's
crust.
• An earthquake is the creation of new land formed by molten rock
pushing through gaps in the Earth's crust.
96. At what sort of plate boundaries might earthquakes take place?
• Constructive plate boundaries
• Destructive plate boundaries
• Conservative plate boundaries
• Conservative and destructive plate boundaries
• All plate boundaries
97. Earthquakes are caused when tension is released inside the Earth's crust.
• Earthquakes are caused when humans extract too much material
from the Earth's crust.
• Earthquakes are caused when the Earth moves closer to the Sun.
• Earthquakes are caused when it's very hot in the middle of summer.
• Earthquakes are caused when plate boundaries pull away from
each other.
98. The point inside the Earth where the pressure is released is called the:
• Epicenter
• Aftershock
• Focus
• Cone
• inner core

Essay. Direction: Answer the following question.

1. Did comet make life on Earth possible? Why or Why not?

2. Is the study of minor heavenly bodies personally meaningful to you? Why?
Why not?