Clearias Current Affairs Capsule Dec 2018

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Current Affairs
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MCQs
Dec 2018
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Q1) Which of the following statement correctly describes the recently
launched ‘Digital Sky Platform’?
A. A network of stratospheric balloons designed to provide Internet

connectivity to rural and remote communities in India.
B. A platform supported by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) to
encourage Indian companies to take an early lead in 5G technologies.
C. A portal developed by Ministry of Civil Aviation to implement the Civil
Aviation Regulations related to Remotely Piloted Aerial Systems (RPAS).
D. A platform developed by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to access,
intercept and decrypt data on any computer in India.
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Digital Sky Platform is a first of its kind platform that
implements ‘no permission, no take-off’ (NPNT) policy under the Civil Aviation
Regulations (CAR) to enable safe flying of Remotely Piloted Aerial Systems
(RPAS) in India.
Digital Sky Platform enables registration of drones, pilots, and operators, and
provides online permission to fly drones that are micro and above categories.
Why is this question important?
Digital Sky Platform was launched recently by the Minister for Civil Aviation.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1554408
Q2) With reference to the ‘Swadesh Darshan scheme’, which of the

following statements is/are correct?
1. The scheme aims to develop thematic tourists’ circuits in the country in

a planned and prioritized manner.
2. It is an initiative for Diaspora engagement which familiarizes Indian-
origin youth aged between 18 to 30 years with their Indian roots and
contemporary India.
3. The scheme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Tourism.
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Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None of the statements given above is correct
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Swadesh Darshan scheme is one among the flagship schemes
of the Ministry of Tourism for development of thematic circuits in the country
in a planned and prioritized manner.
Under this scheme, the Government is focusing on the development of quality

infrastructure in the country with the objective of providing better experience
and facilities to the visitors on one hand and on other hand fostering the
economic growth.
The scheme was launched in 2014-15.
Recently, Union Minister for Tourism launched Tribal Circuit: Peren-Kohima-

Wokha project in Nagaland.
So far, Ministry has sanctioned 73 projects worth Rs. 5873.26 Crore under the
scheme to 30 States and UTs.
Q3) Consider the following statements about ‘Ganga Financing Forum’.
1. Ganga Financing Forum is a joint initiative of NITI Aayog and World

Bank to bring together financial institutions and investors interested in
Namami Gange programmes.
2. Ganga Financing Forum was introduced during the India Water Impact
Summit-2018.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The 2018 edition of the India Water Impact Summit introduced
the inaugural Ganga Financing Forum that will bring a number of institutions
to common knowledge, information and partnership platform. The Financing
Forum will bring together financial institutions and investors interested in
Namami Gange programmes.
India Water Impact Summit 2018 was jointly organized by the National
Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the Centre for Ganga River Basin
Management and Studies (cGanga).
Recently, Union Minister for Water Resources, River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation inaugurated India Water Impact Summit 2018 in New Delhi,
which launched Ganga Financing Forum.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=186098
Q4) The government is implementing Soil Health Card (SHC) Scheme

across the country. Which of the following is/are the likely benefit(s) of
implementing this scheme?
1. It enables the farmers to apply appropriate recommended dosages of

nutrients for crop production.
2. It creates a systematic database and allows monitoring of changes in the
soil health over the years.
3. It enables the government to promote organic farming in the country.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
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D. 1 and 2 only
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Soil Health Card Scheme has been taken up for the first time
in a comprehensive manner across the country.
The unique features of the SHC scheme are:
 Under the scheme soil health cards are provided to all farmers so as to
enable the farmers to apply appropriate recommended dosages of
nutrients for crop production and improving soil health and its fertility.
 Collecting soil samples at a grid of 2.5 ha in irrigated area and 10 ha in
un-irrigated areas.
 Uniform approach in soil testing adopted for 12 parameters viz. primary
nutrients (NPK); secondary nutrient (S); micronutrients (B, Zn, Mn, Fe &
Cu); and other (pH, EC & OC) for comprehensiveness.
 GPS enabled soil sampling to create a systematic database and allow
monitoring of changes in the soil health over the years.
In the 1st cycle which was implemented in the year 2015 to 2017, 2.53 crore
soil samples were analyzed and 10.73 crore soil health cards distributed to
farmers. The 2nd cycle (2017-19) was started from 1 st May 2017. The target is to
cover 12.04 crore farmers.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=186132
Q5) The Union Cabinet has approved the Agriculture Export Policy, 2018.
In this context consider the following statements.
1. The policy aims to double the agricultural exports by 2022 from the
current level.
2. It strives to double India’s share in world agri-exports by integrating with
global value chains.
3. The policy promotes the exports of novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic,
traditional and non-traditional Agri products.
4. It proposes an institutional mechanism to deal with sanitary and
phytosanitary issues.
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Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The Union Cabinet has approved the Agriculture Export Policy,
2018.
Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy are:
 To double agricultural exports from present ~US$ 30+ Billion to ~US$

60+ Billion by 2022 and reach US$ 100 Billion in the next few years
thereafter, with a stable trade policy regime.
 To diversify our export basket, destinations and boost high value and
value-added agricultural exports including a focus on perishables.
 To promote novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-
traditional Agri products exports.
 To provide an institutional mechanism for pursuing market access,
tackling barriers and deal with sanitary and phytosanitary issues.
 To strive to double India’s share in world agri exports by integrating with
global value chain at the earliest.
 Enable farmers to get the benefit of export opportunities in the overseas
market.
The Government has come out with a policy to double farmers’ income by
2022. Exports of agricultural products would play a pivotal role in achieving
this goal. In order to achieve the goal, the Union Cabinet recently approved the
Agriculture Export Policy, 2018.
Q6) The Government of India recently hosted the fourth edition of the
‘Partners’ Forum’. What is the objective of this forum?
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A. To discuss the concerns of developing and least developed countries
relating to the Paris Climate Agreement.
B. To accelerate efforts to reduce child and maternal mortality, improve
adolescent, child, newborn and maternal health.
C. To counter China’s Belt and Road initiative by re-connecting and re-
establishing ancient maritime routes between countries of the Indian
Ocean world.
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above is correct in this
context.
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Partners’ Forum is a global health partnership launched in

September 2005 to accelerate efforts to reduce child and maternal mortality,
improve adolescent, child, newborn and maternal health.
2018 edition is the fourth in a series of global high-level multi-country, multi-

stakeholder events aimed at sustaining global momentum for issues related to
the health of women, children and adolescents.
The Government of India, in association with the Partnership for Maternal,

Newborn and Child Health (PMNCH), hosted Partners’ Forum 2018 on 12 th and
13th December at New Delhi.
This is the second time India is hosting the Partners’ Forum. Earlier it hosted
the forum in 2010.
Q7) Which of the following statement is not correct about the Prime
Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)?
A. PMEGP is a credit-linked subsidy programme aimed at generating self-

employment opportunities.
B. Any individual above 18 years of age is eligible to avail the benefits under
the scheme.
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C. Under the scheme, the beneficiaries should possess at least tenth

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standard pass educational qualification.

D. At the national level, Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is
the nodal implementation agency.
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

is a flagship credit-linked subsidy programme of Government of India being
implemented by the Ministry of MSME.
 The Scheme is aimed at generating self-employment opportunities

through establishment of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector by
helping traditional artisans and unemployed youth in rural as well as
urban areas.
 Any individual above 18 years of age is eligible.
 For setting up of projects costing above Rs.10 lakh in the manufacturing
sector and above Rs. 5 lakh in the business /service sector, the
beneficiaries should possess at least VIII standard pass educational
qualification.
 The benefit can be availed under PMEGP for setting up of new units
only.
 Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is the nodal
implementation agency at the national level.
PMEGP was started in 2008-09. 2018-19 marks a decade of implementation of

this programme. In this period, 5,02,085 beneficiaries and projects have been
assisted under the PMEGP.
Q8) With reference to the ‘Global Findex database’, which of the following
statement(s) is/are not correct?
1. It is the world’s most comprehensive data set on how adults save,

borrow, make payments, and manage risk.
2. The Global Findex database is managed by the Bank for International
Settlements (BIS), owned by central banks of different countries.
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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Global Findex database is the world’s most comprehensive
data set on how adults save, borrow, make payments, and manage risk.
Launched with funding from the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, the
database has been published every three years since 2011.
Global Findex database is managed by the World Bank.
As per the recently published Global Findex database, India has 180 billion
bank accounts. But 48 per cent of the bank accounts has seen no transactions
in the last year.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/todays-paper/tp-
opinion/article25730436.ece
Q9) Recently, Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) notified Water

Conservation Fee (WCF) for extracting groundwater. Which of the
following has/have been exempted from paying WCF?
1. Agriculture sector
2. Defence establishments
3. All Individual households
4. Packaged drinking water Units
A. 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
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C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
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Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has revised the
guidelines for groundwater extraction and introduced the concept of water
conservation fee (WCF).
The agriculture sector, Defence establishments and users who don’t use
electricity to extract water have been granted an exemption.
Individual households that draw groundwater using a delivery pipe of a greater

than 1” diameter would need to pay a WCF. The industries that use
groundwater for packaged drinking water would also need to pay WCF.
In a bid to promote conservation of groundwater, the Central Ground Water

Authority (CGWA) has notified a water conservation fee (WCF) that industries
will need to pay on groundwater extraction starting from June 2019.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/come-june-industries-
must-pay-for-using-groundwater/article25736064.ece
Q10) With reference to ‘ECO Niwas Samhita 2018’, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. It is an Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) launched by the

Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. The code is applicable to residential buildings as well as to commercial
buildings.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
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Learning Zone: As the name suggests, the ECO Niwas Samhita 2018 is an
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Energy Conservation Building Code for Residential Buildings (ECBC-R).

The Code was launched by Ministry of Power.
The implementation of this Code will give a fillip to energy efficiency in the
residential sector. It aims to benefit the occupants and the environment by
promoting energy efficiency in the design and construction of homes,
apartments and townships.
ECBC for commercial buildings was already in place and a revised and updated
version of ECBC for commercial buildings was launched in June 2017.
ECO Niwas Samhita 2018 - an Energy Conservation Building Code for

Residential Buildings was launched on the occasion of National Energy
Conservation Day 2018.
Q11) Consider the following statements about ‘High Ambition Coalition’

(HAC).
1. It is a group of developing and developed countries that aim to raise their

emission reduction targets under the Paris Climate Agreement.
2. India is a member of High Ambition Coalition.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: In the light of a recent IPCC special report on the impact of 1.5
degree Celsius of warming across the globe, the EU and 27 countries came
together as a 'High Ambition Coalition' (HAC) and decide to raise their Paris
Agreement targets.
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The coalition also includes a few developing countries.

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Big developing countries and high current emitters like China and India are not
part of the HAC.
High Ambition Coalition is an important step in achieving the targets under the
Paris Climate Agreement. Though member countries of HAC are not formally
required to increase their targets until 2025, they have put an ambitious goal
to raise their targets substantially by 2020.
Source:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/pollution/ind
ia-china-stay-out-eu-27-nations-vow-to-cut-
pollution/articleshowprint/67100194.cms
Q12) Consider the following rights.
1. Right to a nationality
2. Right to privacy
3. Right to own property
4. Right to education
Which of the rights given above are recognized under the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, 1948?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Article 15 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948,

states that everyone has a right to nationality and no one shall be arbitrarily
deprived of his nationality nor denied the right to change his nationality.
Article 12 recognizes the right to privacy. It states that no one shall be

subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy, family, home or
correspondence, nor to attacks upon his honour and reputation. Everyone has
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the right to the protection of the law against such interference or attacks.
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Article 17 provides that everyone has the right to own property alone as well as
in association with others. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.
Article 26 states that everyone has the right to education. Education shall be
free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education
shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made
generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on
the basis of merit.
The year 2018 marked the 70th year of adoption of the Universal Declaration of
Human Rights, 1948.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/human-rights-
unesco-un-general-council-5496437/
http://www.un.org/en/universal-declaration-human-rights/
Q13) Recently ISRO launched a satellite named ‘GSAT-7A’. What is/are

the most likely benefit(s) of launching this satellite?
1. It will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft communication for

Indian Air force.
2. It helps the Indian Navy to link its ships to the command centre on the
land.
3. It enables the civilian airlines to provide in-flight internet connectivity
over the Indian airspace.
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (C)
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Learning Zone: GSAT-7A is a Military communication satellite that will add a
new space-based dimension to the way Indian Air Force interlinks, operates
and communicates with its aircraft.
The satellite using Ku band will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft

communication; and between planes that are in flight and their commanders
on the ground. Pilots can communicate much better with headquarters while
they fly. Headquarters can receive data in real time.
Since August 2013, the Navy has a satellite largely for its use, the GSAT-7, for
similarly linking its ships to command on land.
GSAT-7A is the first Indian communication satellite built primarily for the IAF
to qualitatively unify its assets and improve combined, common intelligence
during operations.
The satellite was launched recently using GSLV-F11 space vehicle.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/isros-gsat-7a-
to-add-more-heft-to-air-force/article25760116.ece
Q14) Very recently, in which of the following country has thousands of

people come on the street, initially to protest against the tax hikes on
transport fuel, which is popularly known as ‘Yellow Vests’ protests?
A. Venezuela
B. France
C. Mexico
D. Saudi Arabia
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Thousands of people in France came on street initially over an

anti-pollution tax on transport fuel.
Later the protest snowballed into wider opposition to President Macron's pro-
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business agenda and style of governing.

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This protest is popularly known as ‘Yellow Vests’ protests. President Emmanuel
Macron has announced a series of concessions to defuse the ‘yellow vest’
explosive crisis.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/printer-friendly-
version?article_id=118121500532_1
Q15) Consider the following statements about ‘Trans-Regional Maritime

Network (T-RMN)’.
1. The network facilitates information exchange on the movement of

commercial traffic on the high seas and helps in keeping a tab on any
suspicious activity.
2. It is a multilateral grouping comprising of 30 countries and is steered by
Italy.
3. India has signed the accession pact to join the Trans Regional Maritime
Network.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: India has signed the ascension agreement to the Trans
Regional Maritime Network (T-RMN) which facilitates information exchange on
the movement of commercial traffic on the high seas.
The multilateral construct comprises of 30 countries and is steered by Italy.
The pact will give India the access to information on ships which pass through
the Indian Ocean region that will greatly help the security forces in keeping a
tab on any suspicious activity.

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Recently, Cmde KM Ramakrishnan signed the agreement at Rome in Italian
Naval Headquarters on behalf of Indian Navy.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/navy-to-helm-centre-on-
maritime-security/article25758522.ece
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-signs-ascension-
pact-to-the-30-member-trans-regional-maritime-
network/printarticle/67037915.cms
Q16) In the context of ‘Bhasha Sangam Program’, which of the following

statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative under the ‘Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat’ that aims to

create awareness among the students about cultural, ethnic and
linguistic diversity of India.
2. Bhasha Sangam Program is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The Department of School Education & Literacy (Ministry of

HRD) has initiated Bhasha Sangam – A Celebration of Linguistic Diversity –
which marks the appreciation of the unique symphony of languages of our
country.
The Bhasha Sangam initiative under the ‘Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat’ aims to
make the students aware of the unique cultural, ethnic and linguistic diversity
of our country.

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The Bhasha Sangam programme was conducted from 20 th November to 21st

December 2018.
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Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1556246
Q17) Consider the following statements.
1. In India, State Governments have the power to decide the medium of

instruction in schools.
2. As per the provisions of the RTE Act, 2009 the medium of instruction in
schools shall be in the child’s mother tongue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Since education is in the Concurrent List, States have the
liberty to decide the medium of instruction in schools.
Section 29(2)(F) of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education

(RTE) Act, 2009 states that “medium of instruction shall, as far as practicable,
be in child’s mother tongue”.
The National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 emphasizes the importance

of imparting primary education in the mother tongue of the child.
The Bhasha Sangam programme of Department of School Education & Literacy

provides an opportunity to schools and educational institution to provide
multilingual exposure to students in Indian Languages.
The objective is to familiarize every child with simple dialogues in all the 22
languages under Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India, taking up one
language on each working day, to enhance linguistic tolerance and promote
national integration.
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Q18) In the context of socio-economic characteristics of the Tribal
population in India, consider the following statements.
1. In India, nearly 90 per cent of the tribal population of the country lives in
rural areas.
2. Little over two-third of the tribal population is working in the primary
sector and is heavily dependent on agriculture.
3. Numerically, Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of Tribal
population in India.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: In India, almost 90% of the tribal population of the country
lives in rural areas.
As per Census, 2011 over two-thirds of the tribal population is working in the
primary sector (as against 43% of the non-tribal population) and is heavily
dependent on agriculture either as cultivators or as agricultural labourers.
There are 90 districts or 809 blocks with more than 50% tribal population and
they account for nearly 45% of the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in the
country. In other words, almost 55% of the tribal population lives outside
these 809 tribal majority blocks.
Numerically, Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of Tribal population (15
million) in India.
As per the recent government reports, the tribal people are increasingly moving
from being cultivators to agricultural labourers. It is estimated that, in the last
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decade, about 3.5 million tribal people have left agriculture and agriculture-
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related activities to enter the informal labour market.

Q19) Consider the following statements.
1. The General Assembly (GA) is the main deliberative, policymaking and

representative organ of the United Nations.
2. In General Assembly, each permanent members of UN Security Council
have one extra vote compared to other members.
3. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit was the first woman president of the UN General
Assembly.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The General Assembly (GA) is the main deliberative,

policymaking and representative organ of the UN.
Decisions on important questions, such as those on peace and security,

admission of new members and budgetary matters, require a two-thirds
majority. Decisions on other questions are by simple majority.
Each member country of General Assembly has one vote.
India’s Vijay Lakshmi Pandit was the first woman president of the UN General
Assembly.
The current president of UN General Assembly is María Fernanda Espinosa,

former Foreign Minister of Ecuador.
She is only the fourth woman president of the UN General Assembly in 73

years.
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Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/im-not-optimistic-on-
unsc-reform-mara-fernanda-espinosa/article25765281.ece
http://www.un.org/en/ga/about/
Q20) The ‘Global Gender Gap Report’ is released by which of the

following?
A. UN Women
B. World Economic Forum
C. World Bank
D. European Institute for Gender Equality
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: Global Gender Gap Report is released by the World Economic
Forum (WEF).
The gender gap was measured across four key pillars: economic opportunity,
political empowerment, educational attainment, and health and survival.
Global Gender Gap Report 2018 was released recently. India has been ranked
108th in the gender gap index, same as 2017.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/india-
ranks-108th-in-wef-gender-gap-index-2018/articleshowprint/67145063.cms
Q21) Consider the following statements about the first ever “States’ Start-
up Ranking 2018”, released recently.
1. The objective of the ranking is to encourage States and Union Territories

to take proactive steps towards strengthening the Start-up ecosystems in
their states.
2. The state of Gujarat has emerged as the best performer in the ranking.
3. The ranking is prepared and released by the Department of Industrial
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Policy and Promotion (DIPP).

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A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: The key objective of the States’ Start-up Ranking 2018 was to
encourage States and Union Territories to take proactive steps towards
strengthening the Start-up ecosystems in their states. The methodology has
been aimed at creating healthy competition among States to further learn,
share and adopt good practices.
The state of Gujarat has emerged as the best performer in the ranking. Other
top Performers are Karnataka, Kerala, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
The ranking is prepared and released by the Department of Industrial Policy

and Promotion (DIPP), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) announced results of

the first-ever States’ Start-up Ranking 2018 at an event in New Delhi. DIPP
began this exercise from January 2016.
Q22) Consider the following statements about the term ‘Angel Tax’,
recently seen in the news.
1. It is a tax levied on the funding received by startups from an external

investor, at a valuation higher than the fair market value.
2. Angel Tax was introduced in India through the Finance Act of 2012.
A. 1 only
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B. 2 only
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C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Angel Tax is levied on the funding received by startups from an
external investor. This tax is levied when startups receive angel funding at a
valuation higher than its ‘fair market value’. It is counted as income to the
company and is taxed.
Angel tax was introduced in the Finance Act of 2012, with the purpose of
keeping money laundering in check.
Recently, many Indian Start-ups received a notice from the Income-Tax

Department over ‘angel tax’ issue.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/todays-
paper/article25794385.ece
Q23) In the Context of ‘Shell Company’, a term often seen in news, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. If a company is not carrying out any business or operation for a period of

two immediately preceding financial years, it is considered as Shell
Company.
2. In India, the Shell companies are defined under the Companies Act,
2013.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: India does not have a concrete definition of shell companies.
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Theoretically, shell companies are companies without active business

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operations or significant assets. They can be set up by business people for both
legitimate and illegitimate purposes.
The term ‘shell company’ has not been defined under the Income-tax Act, 1961
or under the Companies Act, 2013.
However, section 248(1)(c) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for removal of
name of company from the register of companies, if it is not carrying on any
business or operation for a period of two immediately preceding financial years
and has not made any application for obtaining the status of a dormant
company under section 455 of the Companies Act, 2013 within such period.
The Government has undertaken a special drive for identification of Shell

Companies and strike-off of companies by following due process of law. Around
3.26 lakhs companies were struck off from the register of companies.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1557039 ;
https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/what-are-shell-companies-all-
you-need-to-know-2361177.html
Q24) In the context of the recently released Baseline Report of the

‘Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index’, consider the following
statements.
1. The SDG India Index tracks the progress of all States and UTs on all the
17 Sustainable Development Goals adopted by the UN.
2. The Index was developed by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
3. Himachal Pradesh and Kerala were the top performing states in
achieving the SDGs.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The SDG India Index is developed by NITI Aayog in

collaboration with the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation
(MoSPI), Global Green Growth Institute and United Nations in India.
The SDG India Index tracks the progress of all States and UTs on 62 Priority
Indicators selected by NITI Aayog. The Index spans 13 out of 17 SDGs.
Progress on SDGs 12, 13 & 14 could not be measured as relevant State/UT
level data were not available and SDG 17 was left out as it focuses on
international partnerships.
Himachal Pradesh and Kerala topped the index with a score of 69 each.
The NITI Aayog recently released the Baseline Report of the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDG) India Index, which comprehensively documents the
progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards implementing
the 2030 SDG targets.
Q25) With reference to the ‘Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2016’, which of the
following statement is not correct?
A. Only Indian citizens, NRIs and PIOs are allowed to commission surrogacy
in the country.
B. Only the couples who are legally married for at least five years and
medically unfit to produce a child are allowed to commission surrogacy.
C. To be eligible to go in for surrogacy, the women must be in the age group
of 23 years to 50 years and men between 26 and 55 years.
D. As per the provisions of the bill, a woman can be a surrogate only once in
her lifetime.
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Salient features of the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2016:

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 Only altruistic surrogacy by infertile Indian couples from a "close
relative" only allowed.
 The couple also has to be legally married for at least five years and
possess a certificate from a doctor stating that they are medically unfit to
produce a child.
 Singles, homosexuals and live-in couples cannot apply for surrogacy.
 Couples who already have children will also not be allowed to opt for
surrogacy.
 Only Indian citizens can avail surrogacy. Foreigners, NRIs and PIOs are
not allowed to commission surrogacy in the country.
 Women within the age group of 23 years to 50 years and men aged
between 26 and 55 years will be eligible to go in for surrogacy.
 The child will be deemed to be the legal offspring of the intended couple.
 A woman can be a surrogate only once in her lifetime.
 Once enacted, the national surrogacy board will be constituted at the
central level, while the states and Union territories will constitute the
state surrogacy boards and state appropriate authorities within three
months of the notification by the Union government.
The Lok Sabha recently passed the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2016, aimed at
banning commercial surrogacy to protect women from exploitation.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/lok-sabha-passes-
surrogacy-regulation-bill-2016-which-bans-commercial-
surrogacy/articleshow/67165408.cms
Q26) With reference to the ‘Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)

Bill 2018’ which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The Bill provides the ‘transgender persons’ the right to self-determined

identity.
2. The Bill criminalizes begging by making it an offence for someone to
compel or entice a transgender person into seeking alms.
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3. The Bill gives effect to the directive of the Supreme Court to grant
backward class reservation to the transgender community.
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A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The term the ‘transgender persons’ is defined to cover any
person whose gender does not match the gender assigned at birth, as well as
transmen, transwomen, those with intersex variations, the gender-queer, and
those who designate themselves based on socio-cultural identities such as
hijra, aravani, kinner and jogta.
However, a district screening committee must recommend the issue of a

certificate to each transgender. This is considered as against the principle of
self-identification.
The Bill criminalizes begging by making it an offence for someone to compel or

entice a transgender person into seeking alms.
The Bill does not give effect to the far-reaching directive of the Supreme
Court to grant backward class reservation to the transgender community. In
other words, there is no provision for reservation for the transgender
community under the backward class quota.
Lok Sabha has recently passed a new Bill – Transgender Persons (Protection of
Rights) Bill 2018 – to protect transgender persons.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/rights-
revised/article25783926.ece
Q27) The term ‘Stockholm peace agreement (2018)’, often seen in the
news, in the context of
27
A. Ongoing Crisis in Yemen

B. Agreement on the Iranian nuclear program
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C. Denuclearization of North Korea
D. The multilateral peace talks on Afghanistan
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Stockholm peace agreement (2018) is an UN-mediated talk

held in Stockholm, which resulted in a ceasefire between Yemen’s Houthi
rebels and forces loyal to President Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi.
Due to the ongoing crisis in Yemen, the humanitarian situation in the country
is deteriorating. Since the Saudi intervention in 2015, at least 10,000 people
have been killed in Yemen.
The peace agreement resulted in a ceasefire in the in the port city of Hodeida.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/explainer-all-you-need-to-
know-about-the-new-peace-agreement-on-yemen/article25782579.ece
Q28) Consider the following statements about ‘Pokkali’, a variety of

paddy.
1. It is a saltwater-tolerant, single-season paddy that grows to a height of

up to 2 meters.
2. Pokkali is endemic to Kerala and has received the GI tag.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Pokkali paddy variety, which grows to a height of up to 2

meters, is a saltwater-tolerant paddy grown in the coastal fields of Alappuzha,
Ernakulam and Thrissur districts.
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It is endemic to central Kerala. The single-season paddy is raised in saltwater
fields between June and November followed by a season of fish-farming.
Pokkali paddy variety has received the prestigious GI tag.
The Pokkali variety is now grown in only over 5,000 hectares, a drop from over
25,000 hectares a few decades ago, due to high labour cost and poor returns.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/paddy-in-brine-
keralas-salt-water-tolerant-pokkali-paddy-
variety/article25808277.ece/photo/1/
Q29) In the context of ‘Voyager 2’ space probe, which of the following

statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The Voyager 2 spacecraft was built by NASA to conduct close-up studies

of Jupiter and Saturn.
2. It is the first human-made object in history to reach the edge of the solar
system.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Voyager 2 was launched in 1977 by NASA, to conduct close-up

studies of Jupiter and Saturn. However, as the mission continued, additional
flybys of the two outermost giant planets, Uranus and Neptune, proved
possible.
Voyager 2 along with its twin Voyager 1 are the NASA’s longest running
missions (41 years).
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NASA’s Voyager 2 is the second human-made object in history to reach the
edge of the solar system. While the probes have left the heliosphere, Voyager 1
and Voyager 2 have not yet left the solar system.
Recently, NASA’s Voyager 2 has become the second human-made object in

history to reach the edge of the solar system, after the spacecraft exited the
protective bubble of particles and magnetic fields created by the Sun.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/41-years-
after-launch-nasas-voyager-2-reaches-interstellar-space/article25720110.ece
Q30) Consider the following statements about ‘General Anti-Avoidance

Rule (GAAR)’, often seen in the news.
1. GAAR aims to address tax avoidance and ensures that those in different
tax brackets are taxed the correct amount.
2. It was enacted as part of the Finance Act of 2018 and will come into
effect from April 1, 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) was introduced to

address tax avoidance and ensure that those in different tax brackets are taxed
the correct amount.
It was enacted as part of the Finance Act of 2013. It came into effect from April
1, 2017.
GAAR was supposed to come into effect in April 2015. However, it was delayed
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by two years.
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General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) is seen in the news recently. Indian tax
officials are using the GAAR rule book to probe domestic companies suspected
of evading tax.
Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/concerns-arise-
as-taxman-invokes-gaar-to-question-domestic-
deals/articleshow/67221986.cms
Q31) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed to build a ‘Public
Credit Registry (PCR)’. In this context consider the following statements.
1. The Public Credit Registry will capture the details of all borrowers as well
as the wilful defaulters.
2. The Public Credit Registry would be the single point of mandatory
reporting for all loans above Rs. One Crore.
3. PCR would enable the borrowers to access their own credit information
and seek corrections to the credit information reported on them.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed to set up a wide-
based digital Public Credit Registry for capturing details of all borrowers and
wilful defaulters.
The proposed Public Credit Registry will also include data from entities like
capital markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the
corporate affairs ministry, Goods and Service Tax Network (GSTN) and the
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) to enable banks and financial
institutions to get a 360-degree profile of the existing as well as prospective
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borrowers on a real-time basis.

Page
The Public Credit Registry would be the single point of mandatory reporting for
all material events for each loan, notwithstanding any threshold in the loan
amount or type of borrower.
Besides, borrowers would also be able to access their own credit information
and seek corrections to the credit information reported on them.
RBI has announced to set up a Public Credit Registry for India to address
information asymmetry, foster access to credit and strengthen the credit
culture in the economy.
Source:
https://www.livemint.com/Companies/Vv6soSHBcY1i72vxAvPKEJ/RBI-
shortlists-TCS-Wipro-IBM-3-others-for-setting-up-Publ.html
Q32) Consider the following statements about ‘TARGET Instant Payment

Settlement (TIPS)’.
1. It is a payment service launched by the European Central Bank (ECB).

2. It enables payment service providers to offer fund transfers to their
customers in real time and around the clock, every day of the year.
3. At present, TIPS is open only to persons, banks or business in the Euro
Zone.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: TARGET Instant Payment Settlement (TIPS) is a new market

infrastructure service launched by the European Central Bank (ECB) in
November 2018.
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It enables payment service providers to offer fund transfers to their customers
in real time and around the clock, every day of the year.
TIPS system will allow consumers and businesses across the 19-nation euro
area to send and receive money in mere seconds, without the usual lags
associated with online and real-world transactions.
TIPS will initially be open to any person, bank or business in the eurozone but
could in future be expanded to other countries and currencies.
The pan-euro zone instant payment service – TARGET Instant Payment

Settlement (TIPS) – is a direct challenge to the ‘digital wallets’ provided by the
likes of Google, Apple, Amazon.
Source:
https://www.livemint.com/Industry/ZOmdVNIpT6vKsPx9Dn4sWK/ECB-
launches-instant-payment-service-in-challenge-to-tech-gi.html
Q33) Consider the following pairs.
Traditional Corresponding States/Region

Attires/Artifacts
1. Pheran : Kashmir
2. Talari : Kerala
3. Puanchei : Mizoram
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: The pheran, also spelt phiran, is a long robe worn in Kashmir
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mostly in the winter as protection against the cold.

Page
Talari is a large hat made of bamboo or cane that protects agricultural
labourers from the sun and rain when they work in the fields. It is mainly used
in Odisha.
Puanchei is a traditional dress of Mizoram is worn by women during festive

occasions or marriage ceremonies.
These traditional attires and Artifacts were in news recently.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pheran-notes-on-a-
traditional-garment-newly-in-focus-5503563/
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/a-modern-makeover-
for-the-traditional-hat/article25705094.ece
Q34) Consider the following pairs.
Regions Corresponding Country
1. Sunda Strait : Indonesia

2. Kilinochchi : Sri Lanka
3. Hodeida : Yemen
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Indonesia’s Sunda Strait was recently struck by a tsunami

triggered by a volcanic eruption that killed more than 22o people and left more
than 800 injured.
Kilinochchi district, which was the de facto capital of the rebel LTTE, has been
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affected by recent flash floods in Sri Lanka’s Northern Province.

Page
Hodeida is a port city of Yemen. The city was blockaded by the Saudi-led
coalition.
These regions were recently in news due to natural disasters and man-made a
crisis.
Sources: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/indonesia-volcano-
tsunami-anak-krakatoa-java-sumatra-5506358/;
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/thousands-affected-by-flash-
floods-in-lanka/article25814370.ece ; https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/explainer-all-you-need-to-know-about-the-new-peace-agreement-on-
yemen/article25782579.ece
Q35) FSSAI recently launched a campaign to eliminate trans-fats by 2022.

In this context consider the following statements.
1. Trans-fats can be industrially produced by adding hydrogen to liquid

vegetable oils.
2. Presence of trans-fats in oil makes them more solid and increases the
shelf life of foods.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: Trans-fats are made by adding hydrogen to liquid vegetable

oils. This makes them more solid and increases the shelf life of foods.
Trans-fats are largely present in Vanaspati, margarine and bakery shortenings,

and can be found in baked and fried foods.
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Page
FSSAI recently launched a campaign to eliminate trans-fats by 2022, a year
ahead of the global target by the World Health Organization (WHO) for the
complete elimination of trans fat.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/fssai-
launches-new-campaign-to-eliminate-trans-fats-by-2022/article25636525.ece
Q36) The ‘Global Wage Report’ is released by which of the following?
A. World Economic Forum

B. International Labour Organization
C. World Bank
D. World Justice Project
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The ‘Global Wage Report’ is released by the International

Labour Organization.
The report was recent. It underlines the need for wage expansion that is robust
and also equitable.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/wage-
drag/article25637382.ece
Q37) Recently, Scientists from Wildlife Institute of India (WII) confirmed

the presence of tigers in the certain snow-clad region of India. It is the
only second evidence of tigers in the snow, after Russia’s Amur tigers.
Which among the following could be that region?
A. Hemis National Park

B. Khangchendzonga National Park
C. Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary
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Ans: (C)
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Learning Zone: A three-year survey by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in
Arunachal Pradesh’s Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary revealed the photographic
evidence of tigers in the snow-clad peaks of the Indian part of the Eastern
Himalayas.
These tigers prey on the indigenous Takin or goat antelope of the Eastern
Himalayas. While these tigers fall under the ‘Bengal tiger’ species, they are
definitely bigger and stronger.
It is only the second evidence of tiger in the snow, after Russia’s Amur tigers.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/north-east-india/arunachal-
pradesh/stripes-in-the-snow-at-3630-meters-indias-only-snow-tigers-are-
burning-bright-5471558/
Q38) RBI has asked banks to phase out the magnetic cards and move to
EMV chip cards. In this context consider the following statements.
1. Unlike the magnetic cards, the EVM chip cards generate fresh user data
for every transaction.
2. EVM chip cards prevent skimming as they generate an encrypted code
during the transaction, which is unique and specific only to that
transaction.
3. EMV chip technology was developed by National Payments Corporation of
India.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card
37
payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who

Page
developed this technology.

 Old credit and debit cards store the data on the magnetic stripe found on
the reverse side of your card. EMV cards, in contrast, store the data on a
microprocessor chip embedded in the card.
 The EMV card generates fresh user data for every transaction, making it
impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card.
 The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a
secret PIN to complete a transaction. When EMV credit or debit card is
used at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token
or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction.
 EMV chip cards prevent such skimming because they do not reveal user
data to the terminal at the time of swiping the card and instead generate
a cryptogram.
To comply with RBI guidelines, Banks have started to deactivate magstripe-

based debit cards from December 31, 2018.
opinion/article25824383.ece
Q39) Consider the following statements about the ‘Global Nutrition

Report’.
1. The Global Nutrition Report, which assesses the state of global nutrition,
was conceived in the Nutrition for Growth Initiative Summit (N4G) in
2013.
2. World Health Organization is the lead author of the annual Global
Nutrition Reports.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Ans: (A)
Page
Learning Zone: The Global Nutrition Report is the world’s leading report on
the state of global nutrition.
The Report was conceived following the first Nutrition for Growth Initiative
Summit (N4G) in 2013 as a mechanism for tracking the commitments made by
100 stakeholders spanning governments, aid donors, civil society, the UN and
businesses.
The Global Nutrition Report is a multi-stakeholder initiative, consisting of a

Stakeholder Group, Independent Expert Group and Report Secretariat.
The World Health Organization is a Global Nutrition Report Partner, not the
lead author.
The Global Nutrition Report 2018 was released recently. It notes that a third of
the world’s stunted children under five (an estimated 46.6 million who have low
height for age) and a quarter of the children display wasting (that is, low weight
for height) live in India.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/stunted-
wasted/article25665759.ece ; https://globalnutritionreport.org/about/
Q40) In the context of ‘Katowice Partnership for Electro-mobility’, which

of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The partnership aims at an international collaboration to promote the

deployment of zero-emission vehicles on a global scale.
2. It is a joint initiative of Poland and the United Kingdom.
3. India is not a signatory country to the Katowice Partnership for Electro-
mobility.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
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D. 1, 2 and 3
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Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Katowice Partnership for Electro-mobility is a joint initiative of

Poland and the United Kingdom.
The Declaration has been signed by 40 countries including, besides Poland and
the UK, China, Japan, Indonesia, Mexico, France, and Germany.
India is not among the signatory countries.
It endorsed several steps to accelerate the transition to low emission vehicles,

including “driving demand through consumer initiatives” and “collaborating
internationally to promote the deployment of ZEVs (zero-emission vehicles) on a
global scale”.
It is one of the concrete dimensions of implementation of the Paris Agreement

and fulfilment of the Global Climate Action objectives.
The partnership agreement was signed at the recently concluded COP24.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cop24-summit-paying-
for-the-climate-change-awareness-united-nations-paris-agreement-katowice-
5480413/
Q41) Which of the following statement correctly describes the term

‘Chang’e-4’, seen in the news recently?
A. Lunar probe mission launched by China to explore the far side of the
moon
B. A space junk collector craft launched by the United Kingdom
C. A Japanese satellite dedicated to monitoring the Climate Change
D. None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above is correct in this
context
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: Chang’e-4 is humanity’s first probe to explore the far side of
40
the moon.
Page
It was launched recently by China on a Long March 3B rocket from the

southwestern Xichang launch centre.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/chinas-rover-on-
mission-to-uncover-moons-dark-side/article25699152.ece
Q42) Recently, the Union government reviewed the policy on Foreign

Direct Investment (FDI) in the e-commerce sector. In this context
consider the following statements.
1. 100% FDI under automatic route is permitted in inventory based model

of e-commerce.
2. Foreign Direct Investment is not permitted in the marketplace model of e-
commerce.
3. E-commerce marketplace entity cannot mandate any seller to sell any
product exclusively on its platform only.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the statements given above is correct
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: To provide clarity to FDI policy on e-commerce sector, the

government consolidated the FDI Policy Circular 2017.
Highlights of the circular:
 100% FDI under automatic route is permitted in marketplace model of

e-commerce.
 FDI is not permitted in inventory based model of e-commerce.
 Marketplace e-commerce entity will be permitted to enter into
transactions with sellers registered on its platform on a B2B basis.
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 E-commerce marketplace may provide support services to sellers in
respect of warehousing, logistics, order fulfilment, call centre, payment
collection and other services.
 E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership
or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold.
 In the marketplace model, any warrantee/ guarantee of goods and
services sold will be the responsibility of the seller.
 E-commerce marketplace entity will not mandate any seller to sell any
product exclusively on its platform only.
The above decision will take effect from 01 February 2019.
Q43) Consider the following statements about ‘Vaikom Satyagraha’.
1. The aim of the Satyagraha was to get permission for all sections of the
society to travel through the roads leading to a Temple at Vaikom.
2. The Satyagraha was led by T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The Vaikom Satyagraha (1924-25) movement was held in the
erstwhile princely state of Travancore (southern Kerala) to allow access to all
people to the roads leading to the Lord Shiva Temple at Vaikom, near present
Kottayam district.
Vaikom Satyagraha against untouchability was particularly aimed at getting

permission for all sections of the society cutting across caste to travel through
42
the roads leading to the Lord Shiva Temple at Vaikom.

Page
Locally, the Satyagraha was led by T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon.
Several national leaders and social reformers across the country including
Mahatma Gandhi had extended great support to the movement.
Vaikom Satyagraha was recently in news in the light of Sabarimala temple

entry issue.
Source: https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/national/2018/12/26/mds15-
rday-kerala%20float.html
Q44) The NITI Aayog recently released the Second Delta ranking for the
Aspirational Districts. Based on which of the following developmental
areas, the districts were ranked?
1. Health and Nutrition

2. Agriculture and Water Resources
3. Financial Inclusion
4. Skill Development
5. Basic Infrastructure
A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: Delta ranking for the Aspirational Districts measures the
incremental progress made by them across six developmental areas of Health
and Nutrition, Education, Agriculture and Water Resources, Financial
Inclusion, Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure.
Aspirational Districts were ranked on improved performance over the months

43
of June – October 2018. The ranking, for the first time, included validated data
from Household Surveys.
Page
In the overall ranking, the most improved district was Virudhunagar, Tamil
Nadu.
The NITI Aayog recently released the Second Delta ranking for the Aspirational
Districts.
Q45) Which of the following is authorized to grant environment

clearances in the Coastal Regulation Zone – I (CRZ-I), i.e. Ecologically
Sensitive Areas?
A. Respective State governments

B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Coastal Zone Management Authority
D. National Biodiversity Authority
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: According to the new Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)

Notification, 2018 projects, which are located in the CRZ-I (Ecologically
Sensitive Areas) and CRZ IV (area covered between Low Tide Line and 12
Nautical Miles seaward) will require the necessary clearance from the Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
The powers for clearances with respect to CRZ-II (The areas that have been
developed up to or close to the shoreline) and III (Areas that are relatively
undisturbed) have been delegated at the State level.
The Union cabinet recently approved Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)

Notification, 2018.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/states-get-greater-say-
over-coastal-regions/article25853909.ece
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Q46) RBI designates certain banks as ‘Scheduled Banks’. What is/are the
most plausible advantages/effects of this tag?
1. They can mobilize resource through the issue of the certificate of deposits
and inter-bank borrowings.
2. They can seek funds from trusts, associations, religious institutions and
mutual funds.
3. Banks will assume more responsibility for the implementation of
government schemes.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (D)
Learning Zone: With the ‘scheduled bank’ tag, banks can step up resource
mobilization through the issue of a certificate of deposits and inter-bank
borrowings at competitive rates of interest.
The banks can also seek funds from trusts, associations, religious institutions
and mutual funds. It will also enable the bank to avail higher refinance facility.
Being a scheduled bank, it will also assume more responsibility for the
implementation of government schemes and Aadhaar enrolment services.
Recently, ESAF Small Finance Bank Ltd has received the RBI’s approval for
inclusion in the second schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.
news/article25856205.ece
Q47) Consider the following sectors.

45
1. Energy sector
Page
2. Waste sector
3. Industries sector
4. Agriculture sector
Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above
sectors in terms of their share of emission of Green House Gases?
A. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
B. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
C. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
D. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: As per the second ‘Biennial Update Report’ to the UNFCCC,
India had emitted 2.607 billion tonnes of CO 2 equivalent of GHG in 2014.
Energy sector polluted the most (73% of total emission) followed by agriculture
(16%), industries (8%) and waste (3%).
India recently submitted its second ‘Biennial Update Report’ to the UNFCCC.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/global-
warming/india-on-track-to-meet-its-paris-pledges-despite-growing-
emission/articleshow/67296690.cms
Q48) The government recently approved amendments to the Protection of

Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. In this context
consider the following statements.
1. The amendments provide for the death penalty when the child is less
than 12 years and when a penetrative sexual assault is committed by a
relative.
2. Under the POCSO Act of 2012, a child is defined as any person below
eighteen years of age.

46
A. 1 only
Page
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (C)
Learning Zone: The government approved amendments to the Protection of

Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, to bring punishments for
sexual assaults on boys on a par with those against girls.
These include the provision of the death penalty when the child is less than 12
years and when a penetrative sexual assault is committed by a relative.
The POCSO Act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age.
The government recently approved amendments to the Protection of Children

from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/govt-approves-
amendments-to-pocso-act/article25850988.ece
Q49) If you want to see hangul, a critically endangered species of deer, in

their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
A. Hemis National Park

B. Dachigam National Park
C. Kanha National Park
D. Kishtwar National Park
Ans: (B)
Learning Zone: The hangul, the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir, is an
endangered species. It is mostly confined to the Dachigam National Park. The
national park is considered the last undisturbed home of the hangul, a sub-
species of the European red deer, in Kashmir.
The animal was classified as ‘critically endangered’ by the International Union

for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
47
Page

The recent discovery that the hangul has begun using an old migratory route
has given fresh hope to conservationists.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/forays-of-
the-kashmir-stag/article25854218.ece
Q50) Consider the following statements about ‘Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative

Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme’.
1. The scheme aims to attract youths into cooperative business ventures

and encourage cooperatives to venture into new and innovative areas.
2. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Youth Affairs and NITI Aayog.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (A)
Learning Zone: To cater to the needs and aspirations of the youth, the
National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) has come up with a
youth-friendly scheme ‘Yuva Sahakar-Cooperative Enterprise Support and
Innovation Scheme” for attracting them to cooperative business ventures.
The scheme would encourage cooperatives to venture into new and innovative
areas.
The scheme will be linked to Rs 1000 crore ‘Cooperative Start-up and

Innovation Fund (CSIF)’ created by the NCDC.
Union Agriculture Minister recently launched this new scheme of NCDC to

promote young entrepreneurs in cooperatives.
Source: Kurukshetra, December 2018

48
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A. A network of stratospheric balloons designed to provide Internet

Why is this question important?

Q2) With reference to the ‘Swadesh Darshan scheme’, which of the

1. The scheme aims to develop thematic tourists’ circuits in the country in

Under this scheme, the Government is focusing on the development of quality

The scheme was launched in 2014-15.

Why is this question important?

Recently, Union Minister for Tourism launched Tribal Circuit: Peren-Kohima-

Q3) Consider the following statements about ‘Ganga Financing Forum’.

1. Ganga Financing Forum is a joint initiative of NITI Aayog and World

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Why is this question important?

Q4) The government is implementing Soil Health Card (SHC) Scheme

1. It enables the farmers to apply appropriate recommended dosages of

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The unique features of the SHC scheme are:

Why is this question important?

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy are:

 To double agricultural exports from present ~US$ 30+ Billion to ~US$

Why is this question important?

Learning Zone: Partners’ Forum is a global health partnership launched in

2018 edition is the fourth in a series of global high-level multi-country, multi-

Why is this question important?

The Government of India, in association with the Partnership for Maternal,

A. PMEGP is a credit-linked subsidy programme aimed at generating self-

C. Under the scheme, the beneficiaries should possess at least tenth

standard pass educational qualification.

Learning Zone: Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)

 The Scheme is aimed at generating self-employment opportunities

Why is this question important?

PMEGP was started in 2008-09. 2018-19 marks a decade of implementation of

1. It is the world’s most comprehensive data set on how adults save,

Global Findex database is managed by the World Bank.

Why is this question important?

Q9) Recently, Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) notified Water

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Individual households that draw groundwater using a delivery pipe of a greater

Why is this question important?

In a bid to promote conservation of groundwater, the Central Ground Water

1. It is an Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) launched by the

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Energy Conservation Building Code for Residential Buildings (ECBC-R).

Why is this question important?

ECO Niwas Samhita 2018 - an Energy Conservation Building Code for

Q11) Consider the following statements about ‘High Ambition Coalition’

1. It is a group of developing and developed countries that aim to raise their

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?

The coalition also includes a few developing countries.

Why is this question important?

Q12) Consider the following rights.

Learning Zone: Article 15 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948,

Article 12 recognizes the right to privacy. It states that no one shall be

Why is this question important?

Q13) Recently ISRO launched a satellite named ‘GSAT-7A’. What is/are

1. It will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft communication for

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The satellite using Ku band will enable superior real-time aircraft-to-aircraft