Está en la página 1de 494

Paper-1 Set A Key

Regn No: ____ _____________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 23.05.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions

1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves

a) 0.1 b) 2 c) 0.4 d) 4
2. The average operating Station Heat Rate (SHR) of a Thermal Power Plants is 3000
kCal/kWh; corresponding to this the station thermal efficiency in percentage is

a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%


3. Which of the following may not be a suitable energy security option for India ?

a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation


c) increasing Renewable Energy use d) increasing oil fired thermal power stations
4. The Sector which is not a Designated consumer as per the latest Gazette is

a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings


5. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manger is
mandatory for

a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies

1
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees


6. Which of the following could be a better index of Building Energy Performance?

a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof


b) ratio of air-conditioned to total carpet area
c) kWh per unit area of the building per year(kWh /Sq. meter/year)
d) ratio of Captive generation to grid power consumed
7. Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 1 bucket (20 lit) of hot water from 30-
500C

a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh


8. Which of the following energy storage methods has the highest energy densities (kWh per
kg)?

a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery


9. The rate of energy transfer is measured in

a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above


10. A three phase induction motor is drawing 15 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.80 and the motor efficiency is 90%, then the power drawn by the
motor is

a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW


11. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor


c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
12. Water flow in pipes is measured by

a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer


13. The generally accepted energy performance parameter for thermal power plants would be

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
14. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is

a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic


15. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs


c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
16. In general Specific Energy Consumption of a process plant for a given product mix and
raw material mix

a) increases with increasing capacity utilization


b) decreases with increasing capacity utilization
c) remain almost constant irrespective of capacity utilization
d) has no relation with capacity utilization

2
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

17. Which of the following will not motivate employees to conserve energy?

a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives


18. Which of the following best defines the role of an energy manager ?

a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant


b) intermediate player between top management, energy and cost centers of the plant
c) in charge of the captive power plant and mediator between plant and Electricity boards
d) mediator between production manager and project manager
19. Ten barrels of crude oil is equivalent to

a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters


20. If feed of 100 tonnes with 40% moisture, is dried to 20% moisture, the amount of water
vapour evaporated would be

a) 20 b) 28 c) 30 d) 40
21. The force field analysis in energy action planning considers

a) positive forces only b) negative forces only


c) both negative and positive forces d) no forces
22. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 20%. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is
14 and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler
chimney in kg/ hour would be

a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660


23. Which of the following is false?

a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J


c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kCal = 1 kWh
24. The contract in which the ESCO provides financing and is paid an agreed fraction of
actual savings as they are achieved is called

a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms


c) shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
25. Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?

a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV + (1 – i)n c) NPV (1 + i)n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n


26. The cost of installation of a variable speed drive in a plant is Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings are Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is

a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%


27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions


c) capital investment d) best financing source
28. For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which of these
analysis would be the best option

3
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR


29. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate

a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation


30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 10%
interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no
money is withdrawn?

a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000


31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called

a) performance contract
b) traditional contract
c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the
plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above


33. In Project Management the critical path in the network is

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path


c) the path from start to finish d) the path where no activities have slack
34. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects is called

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT


35. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,

a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above


36. The calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/ kg. Find out the coal equivalent to replace 1 kg of
oil (Coal GCV = 16000 KJ/kg) assuming same efficiency

a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above


37. In a heat exchanger, inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water are 28 OC & 33 OC. The
cooling water circulation is 200 litres /hr. The process fluid enters the heat exchangers at
60 OC and leaves at 45 OC. Find out the flow rate of the process fluid?
(Cp of process fluid =0.95)

a) 70 b) 631 c) 63 d) 570
38. Which of these is not a duty of an energy manager

a) Report to BEE
b) Provide support to accredited energy auditing firm
c) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
d) Sign an energy policy
39. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

4
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

a) poor process control b) many forced outages


c) poor process monitoring d) none of the above
40. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

a) nothing can be said


b) energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is increasing
d) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
41. Due to high oil prices, a firm goes for substitution of oil and with biomass in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely

a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency


c) higher energy consumption d) less smoke in the stack
42. Which of the following Financial Analysis Techniques fails to consider the time value of
money

a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)


c) Net Present Value (NPV) d) none of the above
43. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of
25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available
and project technical life is the same?

a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense


44. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
company is to produced 80,000 Tons of product

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000


45. Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance

a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning


c) Loss of Biodiversity d) Suspended particulate Matter
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of annex-I countries as per Kyoto protocol
is

a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022


47. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Nitrous Oxide gas is

a) 1 b) 21 c) 270 d) 100
48. The national inventory of greenhouse gases in India indicates that about __ % of the total
CO2 emissions come from energy sector

a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible


49. Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between

a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground


c) 50 to 100 km above the ground d) 100 to 200 km above the ground
50. In CDM terminology CER means

5
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

a) Carbon Emission Reduction b) Clean Environment Rating


c) Certified Emission Reduction d) Carbon Emission Rating

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40


(i) Answer all Eight questions
(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 What is a Sankey diagram and what are its uses ? Explain with an example.

ANS The Sankey diagram is a very useful tool to proportionally represent an entire input
and output energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boilers, fired heaters,
furnaces etc. after carrying out an energy balance calculation, This diagram represents
visually various outputs and losses so that energy managers can focus on finding
improvements in prioritized manner.

Example:

S-2 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the
following data. The discount rate is 15%.

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)


0 1,00,000
1 50,000 75,000
2 75,000
6
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

3 75,000

ANS NPV = -100,000 + (75000-50000)/(1+0.15) + 75000/(1+0.15)2 + 75000/(1+0.15)3

= -100,000 + 21,739 + 56,710 + 49, 313


= Rs. 27,762

S-3 In a compressed air Dryer, electrical heater is used for regeneration of silica gel.
The present Electrical energy consumption is 100 kWh/day. The management
intends to replace the electrical heater by steam coil.
a) How much steam is need per day?
b) Calculate cost savings/year. Cost of power is Rs.4/kWh and cost of steam is
Rs. 500/ton (Assuming only latent heat of steam used. Latent heat of steam is
540 kCal/kg. Efficiency of steam heating is 70%, operating days = 300)

ANS Latent heat of steam = 540 kCal/kg


a) Amount of steam required = 100 * 860/(540*0.7)
= 227.5 kg/day

b) Cost of power = 100 * 4 = Rs.400/day


Cost of steam = 0.2275 * 500
= Rs. 113.75/day
Annual cost savings = (400 – 113.75) * 300
= 286.25*300
= Rs. 85,875/-

S-4 Renovation and Modernization (R&M) of a 210 MW coal fired thermal power plant
was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 28% to 32%. The specific
coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 8000 hours of operation per
year, and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate
a) the coal savings per year and
b) the expected avoidance of CO2 into the atmosphere in Tons/year if the
emission factor is 1.53 kg CO2/kg coal

ANS Specific coal consumption of conventional power plant = 0.7 kg/kWh


Specific coal consumption of power plant after R&M= 0.7 x (0.28/0.32)
= 0.6125 kg/kWh
Coal savings per annum = (0.7-0.6125) x 210 x 1000 x 8000
= 1,47,000 Tonnes per annum
CO2 avoidance = 1,47,000 x 1.53

= 224910 tonnes per annum

7
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

S-5 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system
and consumers?

ANS i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
during off-peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak
hours are built in.
ii. Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours
(say during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak
hours. Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and
normal period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off
peak hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
v. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in
turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
procurement charges by reduced demand

S-6 An energy meter connected to a 3 phase, 18.75 kW pump shows 108 units
consumption for six hours of operation. The load on the motor was steady. The
consumer doubted the energy meter reading and electrical parameter such as
current, voltage and power factor were measured. The measured values were
430 V line volts, 25 amps line current and 0.80 Power Factor. Find out if the
energy meter reading is correct.

ANS Energy consumption = √ 3 x 0.430 (kV) x 25(A) x 0.80(PF) x 6(hours)


= 89. 37 kWh
The consumption shown by energy meter is very high; higher by 21%

S-7 What are the three flexible mechanisms available under Kyoto protocol for
achieving GHG reduction targets. Explain briefly the mechanism applicable to
India.

ANS 1. Joint implementation


2. Emissions trading
3. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

CDM is applicable to India. It is a mechanism by which the developed countries


finance/fund projects intended to reduce GHG emissions in return for emission reduction
credits. This will help them to achieve the emission reduction targets. Alternatively the
emission reductions achieved by developing countries can also be purchased,

S-8 What is meant by the following terms ?


a) Normalising of data
b) Benchmarking

ANS a) Normalising of data

8
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the energy
efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include weather or certain
operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of removing the impact of various
factors on energy use so that energy performance of facilities and operations can be
compared.

a) Benchmarking
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a relative
understanding of where our performance ranks.

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 An agency is implementing energy efficiency measures in municipal water pumping


under ESCO route. The investment is Rs. 5 crores. Present annual electricity bill is
Rs. 4 Crores. The expected savings are 20%. (Cost of electricity = Rs. 4/ kWh,
Annual maintenance cost -10% of investment) The expected CDM revenues would
be Rs. 50 Lakhs/ year. Calculate IRR for this project over a 10 year period, after
including the CDM benefit.

ANS year outflow inflow Net flow


Rs.
Lakhs Savings CDM
0 -500 0 0 -500
1 -50 80 50 80
2 -50 80 50 80
3 -50 80 50 80
4 -50 80 50 80
5 -50 80 50 80
6 -50 80 50 80
7 -50 80 50 80
8 -50 80 50 80
9 -50 80 50 80
10 -50 80 50 80
IRR 10%

L-2 Energy saving measures was implemented in a process plant prior to Jan-2008.
Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for 6 months period of 2008.
The company produced consistently 3000 T/month in each of the six months.
9
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

Refer the graph given in table below.


The predicted Specific energy consumption for 3000 MT production is 260 kWh/MT.
It may be noted that retrofits were not functioning during March & May 2008.

Actual Specific Energy Consumption Profile

300
290 290
Consumption,kWh/MT

280 280
Specific Energy

270
260
250
240
240 239
236 235
230
220
210
200
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun

Month

ANS

Actual - Predicted Difference=


2008- SEC, SEC- Actual-
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Predicted CUSUM
Jan 240 260 - 20 -20
Feb 236 260 - 24 -44
Mar 280 260 + 20 -24
Apr 235 260 - 25 -49
May 290 260 + 30 -19
Jun 239 260 - 21 -40

= 40 kWh/MT x 3000 MT
Energy Savings for six months = 1.20 lakh kWh

L-3 Production rate from a paper machine is 340 tonnes per day (TPD). Inlet and outlet
dryness to paper machine is 50% and 95% respectively. Evaporated moisture
temperature is 80 °C. To evaporate moisture, the steam is supplied at 3.5 kg /cm 2.
Latent heat of steam at 3.5 kg /cm2 is 513 kCal/kg. Assume 24 hours/day operation.
i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated.
10
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation (per hour).


Note: Consider enthalpy of evaporated moisture as 632 kCal/kg.
ANS Production rate from a paper machine = 340 TPD
= 14.16 TPH (tonnes per hour)

Inlet dryness to paper machine = 50%


Outlet dryness from paper machine = 95%

i) Estimation of moisture to be evaporated:


Paper weight in final product = 14.16 x 0.95
= 13.45 TPH

Weight of moisture after dryer = 0.708 TPH

Paper weight before dryer on dry basis = 13.45 TPH

Weight of moisture before dryer = ((13.45 x 100)/50) – 13.45 = 13.45 TPH

Evaporated moisture quantity : 13.45 - 0.708 = 12.742 TPH

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation


Evaporated moisture temperature = 80 °C
Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 632 kCal/kg
Heat available in moisture (sensible & latent) = 632 x 12742
= 8052944 kCal /h

For evaporation minimum equivalent heat available should be supplied from


steam

Latent Heat available in supply steam (at 3.5 kg/cm2 (g)) = 513 kCal/kg

Quantity of steam required = 8052944/ 513


= 15697.75 Kg/hr
= 15.698 MT/hour

L-4 a) Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below.
b) Find out:
i. Critical Path
ii. expected project duration

Task Predecessors
Tasks
(Dependencies) Time (Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
11
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
ANS

• The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J

• The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)

L-5 a) Draw an energy balance for the DG set with following data.
A Diesel Generator trial gives Set 3.5 kWh per Liter of diesel. The cooling water
loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of fuel input are 28% and 32%
respectively. Assume calorific value of diesel as 10200 kCal/kg. The Specific
gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as percentage of input
energy.
b) Explain the following terms in heat transfer with examples.
i) Conduction ii) Convection

ANS a) Power Output = 3.5 kWh x 860 kCal/kWh = 3010 kCal/litre


Power Output as % of fuel input = (3010/(0.85x10200)x100 ~ 34.7%
Losses as % of fuel input:
Cooling Water Loss = 32%
Exhaust Flue Gas Loss = 28%
Therefore, unaccounted Loss = 100-(34.7+32+28) = 5.3%

b)
i) Conduction
The conduction of heat takes place, when two bodies are in contact with one

12
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

another. If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the
molecules in the hotter body will vibrate the molecules at the point of contact in the
cooler body and consequently result in increase in temperature.

ii) Convection The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid
such as a gas or liquid from the hot to the cold portion. There are two types of
convection: natural and forced. In case of natural convection, the fluid in contact
with or adjacent to a high temperature body is heated by conduction. As it is
heated, it expands, becomes less dense and consequently rises. This begins a fluid
motion process in which a circulating current of fluid moves past the heated body,
continuously transferring heat away from it. In the case of forced convection, the
movement of the fluid is forced by a fan, pump or other external means. A
centralized hot air heating system is a good example of forced convection.

L-6 a) Explain the functioning of an ESCO in performance contracting.


b) Name two macro and micro factors considered in the sensitivity analysis of
major energy saving projects.
Ans a)

ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and
project management services, and financing.
In performance contracting, an end-user (such as an industry, institution, or utility),
seeking to improve its energy efficiency, contracts with ESCO for energy efficiency
services and financing. An agreed portion of the savings is shared with the ESCO.
The ESCO gets back the invested money plus profit over a period of time

b)

Micro factors

13
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set A Key

• Operating expenses (various expenses items)


• Capital structure
• Costs of debt, equity
• Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
• Changing the project duration

Macro factors Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation
of the industry of which the firm operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among
others:
• Changes in interest rates
• Changes in the tax rates
• Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation
• Changes in depreciation rates
• Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
• General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
• Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
• Energy Price change
• Technology changes

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

14
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

Regn No: ____ _____________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

8th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – May, 2009


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 23.05.2009 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or
HB pencil, as per instructions

1. India’s proven oil reserves is about __% of total world reserves

a) 0.1 b) 2 c) 0.4 d) 4
2. The average operating Station Heat Rate (SHR) of a Thermal Power Plants is 3000
kCal/kWh; corresponding to this the station thermal efficiency in percentage is

a) 28.7% b) 33.3% c) 40.1% d) 15.5%


3. Which of the following may not be a suitable energy security option for India ?

a) improving Energy Efficiency b) increasing Jatropha Cultivation


c) increasing Renewable Energy use d) increasing oil fired thermal power stations
4. The Sector which is not a Designated consumer as per the latest Gazette is

a) Railways b) Iron & Steel c) Thermal Power plants d) Commercial Buildings


5. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001 appointment of BEE Certified Energy Manger is
mandatory for

a) Designated Consumers b) Urban Local Bodies


c) All Captive Power Plants d) Electrical Distribution Licensees

1
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

6. Which of the following could be a better index of Building Energy Performance?

a) solar Heat Gain factor by wall and roof


b) ratio of air-conditioned to total carpet area
c) kWh per unit area of the building per year(kWh /Sq. meter/year)
d) ratio of Captive generation to grid power consumed
7. Calculate the amount of electricity required to heat 1 bucket (20 lit) of hot water from 30-
500C

a) 465 kWh b) 1 kWh c) 0.465 kWh d) 2 kWh


8. Which of the following energy storage methods has the highest energy densities (kWh per
kg)?

a) hydrogen b) compressed air c) gasoline d) lead acid battery


9. The rate of energy transfer is measured in

a) Watts b) kCal/hr c) BTU/hr d) all of the above


10. A three phase induction motor is drawing 15 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.80 and the motor efficiency is 90%, then the power drawn by the
motor is

a) 9.14 kW b) 8.2 kW c) 10.16 kW d) 5.86 kW


11. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor


c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
12. Water flow in pipes is measured by

a) pressure gauge b) infrared imaging c) ultrasonic meters d) anemometer


13. The generally accepted energy performance parameter for thermal power plants would be

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
14. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is

a) kinetic energy b) electrostatic c) potential d) magnetic


15. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs


c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
16. In general Specific Energy Consumption of a process plant for a given product mix and
raw material mix

a) increases with increasing capacity utilization


b) decreases with increasing capacity utilization
c) remain almost constant irrespective of capacity utilization
d) has no relation with capacity utilization

2
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

17. Which of the following will not motivate employees to conserve energy?

a) training b) awareness c) enforcing targets d) incentives


18. Which of the following best defines the role of an energy manager ?

a) energy auditor and in charge of the finance department of the plant


b) intermediate player between top management, energy and cost centers of the plant
c) in charge of the captive power plant and mediator between plant and Electricity boards
d) mediator between production manager and project manager
19. Ten barrels of crude oil is equivalent to

a) 1600 liters b) 2050 litres c) 2000 litres d) 10 liters


20. If feed of 100 tonnes with 40% moisture, is dried to 20% moisture, the amount of water
vapour evaporated would be

a) 20 b) 28 c) 30 d) 40
21. The force field analysis in energy action planning considers

a) positive forces only b) negative forces only


c) both negative and positive forces d) no forces
22. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 20%. If the stoichiometric air to fuel ratio is
14 and oil consumption is 200 kg per hour then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler
chimney in kg/ hour would be

a) 3560 b) 3360 c) 3460 d) 3660


23. Which of the following is false?

a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J


c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kCal = 1 kWh
24. The contract in which the ESCO provides financing and is paid an agreed fraction of
actual savings as they are achieved is called

a) traditional contract b) extended financing terms


c) shared savings performance contract d) energy service contract
25. Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?

a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV + (1 – i)n c) NPV (1 + i)n d) NPV/ (1 + i)n


26. The cost of installation of a variable speed drive in a plant is Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings are Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is

a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%


27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions


c) capital investment d) best financing source
28. For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which of these
analysis would be the best option

a) Payback b) NPV c) ROI d) IRR


3
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

29. ROI must always be ___ than interest rate

a) lower b) higher c) equal d) no relation


30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays 10%
interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth year, if no
money is withdrawn?

a) 16105 b) 15000 c) 15500 d) 16000


31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is called

a) performance contract
b) traditional contract
c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is the
plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above


33. In Project Management the critical path in the network is

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path


c) the path from start to finish d) the path where no activities have slack
34. The technique used for scheduling the tasks and tracking of the progress of energy
management projects is called

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) CUSUM d) PERT


35. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,

a) 11.9 b) 28.92 c) 17.7 d) none of the above


36. The calorific value of oil is 10000 kCal/ kg. Find out the coal equivalent to replace 1 kg of
oil (Coal GCV = 16000 KJ/kg) assuming same efficiency

a) 0.625 kg b) 2.6 kg c) 2 kg d) none of the above


37. In a heat exchanger, inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water are 28 OC & 33 OC. The
cooling water circulation is 200 litres /hr. The process fluid enters the heat exchangers at
60 OC and leaves at 45 OC. Find out the flow rate of the process fluid?
(Cp of process fluid =0.95)

a) 70 b) 631 c) 63 d) 570
38. Which of these is not a duty of an energy manager

a) Report to BEE
b) Provide support to accredited energy auditing firm
c) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
d) Sign an energy policy
39. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

a) poor process control b) many forced outages


c) poor process monitoring d) none of the above
4
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

40. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

a) nothing can be said


b) energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is increasing
d) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
41. Due to high oil prices, a firm goes for substitution of oil and with biomass in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely

a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency


c) higher energy consumption d) less smoke in the stack
42. Which of the following Financial Analysis Techniques fails to consider the time value of
money

a) Simple Payback Period (SPB) b) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)


c) Net Present Value (NPV) d) none of the above
43. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an IRR of
25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing is available
and project technical life is the same?

a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense


44. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
company is to produced 80,000 Tons of product

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 38,000


45. Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance

a) Ozone layer depletion b) Global Warning


c) Loss of Biodiversity d) Suspended particulate Matter
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of annex-I countries as per Kyoto protocol
is

a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022


47. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Nitrous Oxide gas is

a) 1 b) 21 c) 270 d) 100
48. The national inventory of greenhouse gases in India indicates that about __ % of the total
CO2 emissions come from energy sector

a) 55% b) 15% c) 80% d) Negligible


49. Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between

a) 5 to 10 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground


c) 50 to 100 km above the ground d) 100 to 200 km above the ground
50. In CDM terminology CER means

a) Carbon Emission Reduction b) Clean Environment Rating


c) Certified Emission Reduction d) Carbon Emission Rating

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

5
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Renovation and Modernization (R&M) of a 210 MW coal fired thermal power plant
was carried out to enhance the operating efficiency from 27% to 31%. The specific
coal consumption was 0.7 kg/kWh before R&M. For 8000 hours of operation per
year, and assuming the coal quality remains the same, calculate
a) the coal savings per year and
b) the expected avoidance of CO2 into the atmosphere in Tons/year if the
emission factor is 1.53 kg CO2/kg coal

ANS Specific coal consumption of conventional power plant = 0.7 kg/kWh


Specific coal consumption of power plant after R&M= 0.7 x (0.27/0.31)
= 0.6097 kg/kWh
Coal savings per annum = (0.7-0.6097) x 210 x 1000 x 8000
= 1,51,704 Tonnes per annum
CO2 avoidance = 1,51,704 x 1.53

= 232107 tonnes per annum

S-2 An energy meter connected to a 3 phase, 18.75 kWh pump shows 108 units
consumption for six hours of operation. The load on the motor was steady. The
consumer doubted the energy meter reading and electrical parameter such as
current, voltage and power factor were measured. The measured values were
430 V line volts, 30.2 amps line current and 0.80 Power Factor. Find out if the
energy meter reading is correct.
ANS Energy consumption = √ 3 x 0.430 (kV) x 30.2(A) x 0.80(PF) x 6(hours)
= 108 kWh
The consumption shown by energy meter is correct

S-3 What is meant by the following terms ?


a) Normalising of data
b) Benchmarking

ANS a) Normalising of data

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the energy
efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include weather or certain
operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of removing the impact of various
factors on energy use so that energy performance of facilities and operations can be
compared.

6
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

a) Benchmarking
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a relative
understanding of where our performance ranks.

S-4 What are the three flexible mechanisms available under Kyoto protocol for
achieving GHG reduction targets. Explain briefly the mechanism applicable to
India.

ANS 1. Joint implementation


2. Emissions trading
3. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)

CDM is applicable to India. It is a mechanism by which the developed countries


finance/fund projects intended to reduce GHG emissions in return for emission reduction
credits. This will help them to achieve the emission reduction targets. Alternatively the
emission reductions achieved by developing countries can also be purchased,

S-5 What is a Sankey diagram and what are its uses ? Explain with an example.

ANS The Sankey diagram is a very useful tool to proportionally represent an entire input
and output energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boilers, fired heaters,
furnaces etc. after carrying out an energy balance calculation, This diagram represents
visually various outputs and losses so that energy managers can focus on finding
improvements in prioritized manner.

Example:

7
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

S-6 In a compressed air Dryer, electrical heater is used for regeneration of silica gel.
The present Electrical energy consumption is 100 kWh/day. The
management intends to replace the electrical heater by steam coil. a)
How much steam is need per day? b) Calculate cost savings/year. Cost
of power is Rs.4/kwh and cost of steam is Rs. 600/ton (Assuming only
latent heat of steam used. Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.
Efficiency of steam heating is 70%, operating days = 300)

ANS Latent heat of steam = 540 kcal/kg


a) Amount of steam required = 100 * 860/(540*0.7)
= 227.5 kg/day

b) Cost of power = 100 * 4 = Rs.400/day


Cost of steam = 0.2275 * 600
= Rs. 136.5/day
Annual cost savings = (400 – 136.5) * 300
= Rs. 79050/-

S-7 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system
and consumers?

ANS i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
during off-peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak
hours are built in.
ii. Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours
(say during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak
hours. Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and
normal period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off
peak hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
v. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in
turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
procurement charges by reduced demand

S-8 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 15%.
Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)
0 1,20,000
1 50,000 75,000
2 75,000
3 75,000

ANS NPV = -120,000 +(75000-50000)/(1+0.15) + 75000/(1+0.15)2 + 75000/(1+0.15)3

= -120,000 + 21,739 + 56,710 + 49, 313


= Rs. 7762

.……. End of Section – II ………..….


8
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 a) Draw PERT Chart for the following for the task, duration and dependency given
below.
b) Find out:
i. Critical Path
ii. expected project duration

Task Predecessors
Tasks
(Dependencies) Time (Weeks)
A - 3
B - 5
C - 7
D A 8
E B 5
F C 5
G E 4
H F 5
I D 6
J G-H 4
ANS

• The critical path is through activities C, F, H, J

• The expected project duration is 21 weeks (7+5+5+4)

9
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

L-2 a) Explain the functioning of an ESCO in performance contracting.


b) Name two macro and micro factors considered in the sensitivity analysis of
major energy saving projects.
Ans a)

ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from
assessment to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and
project management services, and financing.
In performance contracting, an end-user (such as an industry, institution, or utility),
seeking to improve its energy efficiency, contracts with ESCO for energy efficiency
services and financing. An agreed portion of the savings is shared with the ESCO.
The ESCO gets back the invested money plus profit over a period of time

b)

Micro factors

• Operating expenses (various expenses items)


• Capital structure
• Costs of debt, equity
• Changing of the forms of finance e.g. leasing
• Changing the project duration

Macro factors Macro economic variables are the variable that affects the operation
of the industry of which the firm operates. They cannot be changed by the firm’s
management. Macro economic variables, which affect projects, include among
others:
• Changes in interest rates
• Changes in the tax rates
10
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

• Changes in the accounting standards e.g. methods of calculating depreciation


• Changes in depreciation rates
• Extension of various government subsidized projects e.g. rural electrification
• General employment trends e.g. if the government changes the salary scales
• Imposition of regulations on environmental and safety issues in the industry
• Energy Price change
• Technology changes

L-3 Energy saving measures was implemented in a process plant prior to Jan-2008.
Use CUSUM technique and calculate energy savings for 6 months period of 2008.
The company produced consistently 2000 T/month in each of the six months.
Refer the graph given in table below.
The predicted Specific energy consumption for 2000 MT production is 260 kWh/MT.
It may be noted that retrofits were not functioning during March & May 2008.

Actual Specific Energy Consumption Profile

300
290 290
Consumption,kWh/MT

280 280
Specific Energy

270
260
250
240
240 239
236 235
230
220
210
200
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun

Month

ANS

Actual - Predicted Difference=


2008- SEC, SEC- Actual-
Month kWh/MT kWh/MT Predicted CUSUM
Jan 240 260 - 20 -20
Feb 236 260 - 24 -44
Mar 280 260 + 20 -24
11
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

Apr 235 260 - 25 -49


May 290 260 + 30 -19
Jun 239 260 - 21 -40

= 40 kWh/MT x 2000 MT
Energy Savings for six months = 80000 kWh

L-4 a) Draw an energy balance for the DG set with following data.
A Diesel Generator trial gives Set 3.2 kWh per Liter of diesel. The cooling water
loss and exhaust flue gas loss as percentage of fuel input are 31% and 35%
respectively. Assume calorific value of diesel as 10200 kCal/kg. The Specific
gravity of Diesel is 0.85. Calculate unaccounted loss as percentage of input
energy.
b) Explain the following terms in heat transfer with examples.
i) Conduction ii) Convection

ANS a) Power Output = 3.2 kWh x 860 kCal/kWh = 2752 kCal


Power Output as % of fuel input = (2752/(0.85x10200)x100 ~ 31.74%
Losses as % of fuel input:
Cooling Water Loss = 31%
Exhaust Flue Gas Loss = 35%
Therefore, unaccounted Loss = 100-(31.74+31+35) = 2.26%

b)
i) Conduction
The conduction of heat takes place, when two bodies are in contact with one
another. If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the
molecules in the hotter body will vibrate the molecules at the point of contact in the
cooler body and consequently result in increase in temperature.

ii) Convection The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid
such as a gas or liquid from the hot to the cold portion. There are two types of
convection: natural and forced. In case of natural convection, the fluid in contact
with or adjacent to a high temperature body is heated by conduction. As it is
heated, it expands, becomes less dense and consequently rises. This begins a fluid
motion process in which a circulating current of fluid moves past the heated body,
continuously transferring heat away from it. In the case of forced convection, the
movement of the fluid is forced by a fan, pump or other external means. A
centralized hot air heating system is a good example of forced convection.

12
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

L-5 Production rate from a paper machine is 340 tonnes per day (TPD). Inlet and outlet
dryness to paper machine is 40% and 95% respectively. Evaporated moisture
temperature is 80 °C. To evaporate moisture, the steam is supplied at 3 kg /cm 2.
Latent heat of steam at 3 kg /cm2 is 517 kCal/kg. Assume 24 hours/day operation.

i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated


ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation (per hour)

Note: Consider enthalpy of evaporated moisture as 632 kcal/kg


ANS Production rate from a paper machine = 340 TPD
= 14.16 TPH (tonnes per hour)

Inlet dryness to paper machine = 40%


Outlet dryness from paper machine = 95%

i) Estimation of moisture to be evaporated:


Paper weight in final product = 14.16 x 0.95
= 13.45 TPH

Weight of moisture after dryer = 0.708 TPH

Paper weight before dryer on dry basis = 13.45 TPH

Weight of moisture before dryer = ((13.45 x 100)/40) – 13.45 = 20.175 TPH

Evaporated moisture quantity : 20.175 - 0.708 = 19.467 TPH

ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation


Evaporated moisture temperature = 80 °C
Enthalpy of evaporated moisture = 632 kCal/kg
Heat available in moisture (sensible & latent) = 632 x 19467
= 12303144 kCal /h

For evaporation minimum equivalent heat available should be supplied from


steam

Latent Heat available in supply steam (at 3 kg/cm2) = 517 kCal/kg

Quantity of steam required = 12303144/ 517


= 23797 kg
= 23.8 MT/hour

13
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper-1 Set B Key

L-6 An agency is implementing Energy efficiency measures in municipal water pumping under
ESCO route. The investment is Rs. 6 crores. Present annual bill is Rs. 4 Crores. The
expected savings are 20%. ( Cost of power = Rs.4/kwh, Annual maintenance cost -10% of
investment) The expected CDM revenues would be Rs. 50 Lakhs/year. Calculate IRR for
this project after including the CDM benefit

ANS year outflow inflow Net flow


Rs.
Lakhs Savings CDM
0 -600 0 -600
1 -60 80 50 70
2 -60 80 50 70
3 -60 80 50 70
4 -60 80 50 70
5 -60 80 50 70
6 -60 80 50 70
7 -60 80 50 70
8 -60 80 50 70
9 -60 80 50 70
10 -60 80 50 70
IRR 3%

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

14
_____________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Regn No: _________________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

7th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – Nov. 2008


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit


Date: 22.11.2008 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 What do you understand by energy management and energy efficiency ?

Ans ENERGY MANAGEMENT:

The fundamental goal of energy management is to produce goods and provide


services with the least cost and least environmental effect.

One definition of energy management is:

“The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize


costs) and enhance competitive positions”

The objective of Energy Management is to achieve and maintain optimum


energy procurement and utilisation, throughout the organization and:
• To minimise energy costs / waste without affecting production & quality
• To minimise environmental effects.

ENERGY EFFICIENCY

Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product,


process or area of production or consumption is reduced without affecting
output, consumption or comfort levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will
contribute to energy conservation and is therefore an integral part of energy
conservation promotional policies.

S-2 In a industry’s electrical system what is meant by load factor ?

The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1400 kW. What is the load factor for that
day

It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of
energy consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy
demand if maximum load is maintained through out that time period

Load factor = 24,000/ (1400 x 24)

= 71.4 %

S-3 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to industrial consumers
by an electric supply company.

• Maximum demand charges

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

• Energy charges
• Power factor penalty or bonus
• Electricity duty charges
• Time of the day (ToD) tariffs
• Meter rentals
• Lighting and fan power consumption
• Penalty for exceeding the contract demand
• Surcharges

S-4 Investment for an energy proposal is Rs.20 lakhs. Annual savings for the first
two years is Rs. 4 lakhs each and subsequent two years Rs. 6 lakhs each and
fifth year is Rs. 7 lakhs. Considering cost of capital as 10%, what is the net
present value of the proposal? Is it worth investing in this project ?

0 1 2 3 4 5
NPV = -20/(1.10) + 4/(1.10) +4/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 7(/(1.10)
-20 + 3.64 + 3.31 + 4.51 + 4.1 + 4.35

= -20 + 19.91 = -0.09 lakhs

= Rs. 9000 (-)

It is not worth investing in the project

S-5 A thermal power plant uses 0.7 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity. If
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions. The Thermal power
plant has saved 500000 kWh in a year in auxiliary power consumption by
adopting energy conservation measures. Find out the amount of CERs (ton of
CO2/year) they would gain if the project comes under CDM

C + O2 -------------------Æ CO2

12 32 44

1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide

CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.7 x 0.52 x 44/12


= 1.33 kg of CO2/kwh

• Amount of Carbon emissions reduced by Unit = 500000 x 1.33


= 665 ton of CO2/year

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

= 665 CERs

S-6 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 5 KL/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kg/oC.and the density of
furnace.oil is 0.95.
a) How much steam per hour is needed if steam at 4 kg/cm2 with Latent heat
of 510 kcal/ kg is used.

b) if steam cost is Rs.3.50/kg and electrical energy cost is Rs.4/kWh, which type
of heating would be more economical in this particular case

Total heat required = m Cp ∆T


= (5 x1000x 0.95) * 0.22 * (90-30)
= 62,700 kcal/hr
Total heat of steam = 653 kcal/kg
a) Amount of steam required = 62700/510
= 123 kg/hr
Steam cost = 123 x Rs.3.50
= Rs.430.5/hr

b) Amount of electricity required = 62700/860


= 72.9 kWh
= 72.9 x Rs. 4
= Rs.291.6/ hr
Electric heating will be more economical

S-7
In a textile stenter the input is 1000 kg of wet cloth per hour. The cloth contains
65% moisture at inlet and 5 % moisture remains in the output cloth. Find out the
quantity of moisture removed per hour.

1000 kg of wet cloth contains

1000 x 0.65 = 650 kg of moisture


And 1000 x (1-0.65) = 350 kg of bone dry cloth

As the final cloth contains 5% moisture, the moisture in the product is 350/.95 =
368.42 kg

The moisture removed is 1000 – 368.42 = 631.58 kg/hr

S-8
Define Sustainable development and give two examples of how it can be
practiced in day to day life ?

Sustainable development is defined as 'development that meets the


needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs'.

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Any relevant answer related to Saving energy and Reducing wastes

-------- End of Section – II ---------

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L An autoclave contains 2000 cans of pea soup. It is heated to an overall


temperature of 100oC. If the cans are to be cooled to 40oC before leaving the
-
autoclave, how much cooling water is required if it enters at 15oC and leaves at
1 35oC ?

The specific heat of pea soup and the can metal are respectively 4.1 kJ/kgoC and
0.50 kJ/kgoC. The weight of each can is 50 g and it contains 0.50 kg of pea soup.
Assume that the heat content of the autoclave walls above 40oC is 1.6 x 104 kJ
and that there is no heat loss through the walls.

Heat Entering:
Heat in cans = weight of cans x specific heat x temperature above datum
3
= 2000 x 0.05 x 0.50 x (100-40) kJ = 3.0 x 10 kJ

Heat in can contents = weight pea soup x specific heat x temperature above datum
5
= 2000 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (100 - 40) = 2.46 x 10 kJ

Heat in water = weight of water x specific heat x temperature above datum


= w x 4.186 x (15-40)
= -104.6 w kJ.

Heat Leaving:
Heat in cans = 2000 x 0.05 x 0.50 x (40-40) (cans leave at datum temperature) = 0
Heat in can contents = 2000 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (40-40) = 0
Heat in water = w x 4.186 x (35-40) = -20.9 w
o
HEAT-ENERGY BALANCE OF COOLING PROCESS; 40 C AS DATUM LINE

Heat Entering (kJ) Heat Leaving (kJ)


Heat in cans 3000 Heat in cans 0
Heat in can contents 246000 Heat in can contents 0
Heat in autoclave wall 16000 Heat in autoclave wall 0
Heat in water -104.6 w Heat in water -20.9 W

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Total heat entering 265000 -104.6 w Total heat leaving -20.9 W


Total heat entering = Total heat leaving
265000 – 104.6 w = -20.9 w
w = 3166 kg
Amount of cooling water required = 3166 kg.

L The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:


a) draw a PERT chart
-
b) find out the duration of the project
2 c) identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 2
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 9
H G 8

b) The Duration of the Project = 31 days

c) The Critical Path = 1-2-3-4-7-8-9

L a) For complete combustion of 1 kg of a typical coal 12 kg of air is required. Calorific


- value of coal is 4200 kCal/kg with ash content of 25%. What is the quantity (in kg/hr)
flue gas generated by burning 100 kg coal/ hr?
3

b) The furnace oil consumption in a boiler generating steam is 160 kg/hr and the total
losses in the boiler is 22%. Calculate the amount of steam generated per hour by
considering 610 kCal is required to generate 1 kg steam. Consider GCV of furnace
oil as 10000 kCal/kg.

a) Flue gas generated by burning the coal in the presence of air is:
Flue gas quantity (per kg of coal) : combustion air + quantity of fuel- ash
: 12 + 1 - 0.25
: 12.75 kg

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Quantity of flue gas by burning 5 kg of coal : 100x 12.75 = 1275 kg.

b) FO consumption rate = 160 kg/hr


GCV of FO = 10000 Kcal/kg
Total Input energy = 160 x 10000
= 1600000 Kcal/hr
Total Loss @ 22% = 1600000 x 0.22
= 352000 Kcal/hr
Total energy available to generate steam = 1600000 x 0.78
= 12488000 Kcal/hr
Total steam generated = 12488000
------------
610

= 20472 kg/hr

L The following are the cash flows for retrofitting of a cooling tower project.
-
YEAR 0 1 2 3 4
4 Cash flow -12,30,000 3,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000

Calculate the IRR for the project

Answer

-12,30,000 = 3,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000


(1.08)1 1.082 1.083 1.084

IRR = 8. %

L Write short notes on


a) Designated consumers
-
b) Standards and labeling
5 c) Energy conservation building codes
d) Role of certified energy manager
a) Designated consumers

The main provisions of the EC Act on designated consumers are:


• The government would notify energy intensive industries and other
establishments as designated consumers;
• Schedule to the Act provides list of designated consumers which covered
basically energy intensive industries, Railways, Port Trust, Transport
Sector, Power Stations, Transmission & Distribution Companies and
Commercial buildings or establishments;
• The designated consumer to get an energy audit conducted by an
accredited energy auditor;

_________________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

• Energy managers with prescribed qualification are required to be


appointed or designated by the designated consumers;
• Designated consumers would comply with norms and standards of energy
consumption as prescribed by the central government.

b) Standards and labeling

Standards and Labeling (S & L) has been identified as a key activity for
energy efficiency improvement. The S & L program, when in place would
ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliance would be made
available to the consumers.

The main provision of EC act on Standards and Labeling are:


• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for
notified equipment and appliances.
• Prohibit manufacture, sale and import of such equipment, which does not
conform to the standards.
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment appliances
to enable consumers to make informed choices
• Disseminate information on the benefits to consumers

c) Energy conservation building codes


The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes
are:
• The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building
Codes (ECBC);
• These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other
compelling factors by the respective states for commercial buildings
erected after the rules relating to energy conservation building codes have
been notified. In addition, these buildings should have a connected load of
500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA and above and are intended to be
used for commercial purposes;
• Energy audit of specific designated commercial building consumers
would also be prescribed.

L A process industry is consuming the following energy per day


-
3000 kg of furnace oil for thermic fluid heater
6 5000 kg of coal and 3000 kg of rice husk for boiler
15,000 kWh of Purchased electricity from grid
10,000 kWh of self generated electricity through DG sets

Calorific values of fuels:

Furnace oil : 10,000 kCal/kg


Coal : 5000 Kcal/kg
Rice husk : 3000 Kcal/kg
HSD : 10,500 kCal/kg

Specific fuel consumption of DG sets: 3.5 kWh/kg of HSD

_________________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Key

Calculate input energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil


Equivalent for the industry.

Diesel consumption = 10,000/3.5 = 2857 kg of Diesel per day

(3000 x 10000) + (5000 x 5000) + (3000 x 3200) + (15,000 x 860) + (2857 x


10,500)

MTOE = (3 x 107) + (2.5 x 107) + (0.9 x 107) + (1.29 x 107) + (3 x 107)


107
= 10.69 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per day

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

Regn No: _________________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

7th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION – Nov. 2008


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit


Date: 22.11.2008 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Investment for an energy proposal is Rs.18 lakhs. Annual savings for the first
two years is Rs. 4 lakhs each and subsequent two years Rs. 6 lakhs each and
fifth year is Rs. 7 lakhs. Considering cost of capital as 10%, what is the net
present value of the proposal? Is it worth investing in this project ?
0 1 2 3 4 5
NPV = -18/(1.10) + 4/(1.10) +4/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 6(/(1.10) + 7(/(1.10)
-18 + 3.64 + 3.31 + 4.51 + 4.1 + 4.35

= -18 + 19.91 = +1.91 lakhs

It is worth investing in the project

S-2 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 5 KL/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kCal/ kg/oC and the density of
furnace.oil is 0.95.

a) How much steam per hour is needed if steam at 4 kg/cm2 with Latent heat of
510 kCal/ kg and sensible heat of. 143 kCal/ kg is used.
b) if steam cost is Rs.3.50/ kg and electrical energy is Rs.5/kWh, which type of
heating would be more economical in this particular case

Total heat required = m Cp ∆T


= (5 x1000x 0.95) * 0.22 * (90-30)
= 62,700 kcal/hr
Total heat of steam = 653 kcal/kg

a) Amount of steam required = 62700/653


= 96 kg/hr
Steam cost = 96 x Rs.3.50
= Rs.336

b) Amount of electricity required = 62700/860


= 72.9 kWh
= 72.9 x Rs. 5
= Rs.364.5

Steam heating will be more economical

S-3 Define Sustainable development and give two examples of how it can be
practiced in day to day life ?

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

Sustainable development is often defined as 'development that meets the


needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs'.

Any relevant answer related to Saving energy and Reducing wastes

S-4 In a textile stenter the input is 2000 kg of wet cloth per hour. The cloth contains
65% moisture at inlet and 5 % moisture remains in the output cloth. Find out the
quantity of moisture removed per hour.

1000 kg of wet cloth contains

2000 x 0.65 = 1300 kg of moisture


And 2000 x (1-0.65) = 700 kg of bone dry cloth

As the final cloth contains 10% moisture, the moisture in the product is 700/0.9
= 777 kg

The moisture removed is 1300 – 777 = 523 kg/hr

S-5 What do you understand by energy management and energy efficiency ?

ENERGY MANAGEMENT:

The fundamental goal of energy management is to produce goods and provide


services with the least cost and least environmental effect.

One definition of energy management is:

“The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits (minimize


costs) and enhance competitive positions”

The objective of Energy Management is to achieve and maintain optimum


energy procurement and utilisation, throughout the organization and:
• To minimise energy costs / waste without affecting production & quality
• To minimise environmental effects.

ENERGY EFFICIENCY

Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a specific product,


process or area of production or consumption is reduced without affecting
output, consumption or comfort levels. Promotion of energy efficiency will
contribute to energy conservation and is therefore an integral part of energy
conservation promotional policies.

S-6 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to industrial consumers
by an electric supply company.

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

• Maximum demand charges


• Energy charges
• Power factor penalty or bonus
• Electricity duty charges
• Time of the day (ToD) tariffs
• Meter rentals
• Lighting and fan power consumption
• Penalty for exceeding the contract demand
• Surcharges

S-7 A thermal power plant uses 0.65 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity. If
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions. The Thermal power
plant has saved 500000 kWh in a year in auxiliary power consumption by
adopting energy conservation measures. Find out the amount of CERs (ton of
CO2/year) they would gain if the project comes under CDM

C + O2 -------------------Æ CO2

12 32 44

1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide

CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.65x 0.52 x 44/12


= 1.24 kg of CO2/kwh

• Amount of Carbon emissions reduced by Unit = 500000 x 1.24


= 620 ton of CO2/year
= 620 CERs

S-8 In a industry’s electrical system what is meant by load factor ?

The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1600 kW. What is the load factor for that
day

It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of
energy consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy
demand if maximum load is maintained throughout that time period

Load factor = 24,000/ (1600 x 24)

= 62.5 %

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 The following are the cash flows for retrofitting of a cooling tower project.

YEAR 0 1 2 3 4
Cash flow -12,30,000 3,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000 4,00,000

Calculate the IRR for the project

Answer

-12,30,000 = 3,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 4,00,000


(1.08)1 1.082 1.083 1.084

IRR = 8. %

L-2 A process industry is consuming the following energy per day

3000 kg of furnace oil for thermic fluid heater


5000 kg of coal and 3000 kg of rice husk for boiler
15,000 kWh of Purchased electricity from grid
10,000 kWh of self generated electricity through DG sets

Calorific values of fuels:

Furnace oil : 10,000 kCal/kg


Coal : 5000 Kcal/kg
Rice husk : 3000 Kcal/kg
HSD : 10,500 kCal/kg

Specific fuel consumption of DG sets: 3 kWh/kg of HSD

Calculate input energy consumption in terms of Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent


for the industry.

Diesel consumption = 10,000/3 = 3333.3 kg of Diesel per day

(3000 x 10000) + (5000 x 5000) + (3000 x 3200) + (15,000 x 860) + (3333.3 x


10,500)

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

MTOE = (3 x 107) + (2.5 x 107) + (0.9 x 107) + (1.29 x 107) + (3.5 x 107)
107
= 11.19 Metric Tonnes of Oil Equivalent per day

L-3 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) draw a PERT chart


b) find out the duration of the project
c) identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 2
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 9
H G 8

b) The Duration of the Project = 31 days

c) The Critical Path = 1-2-3-4-7-8-9

L-4 Write short notes on

a) Designated consumers
b) Standards and labeling
c) Energy conservation building codes
d) Role of certified energy manager

a) Designated consumers
The main provisions of the EC Act on designated consumers are:
a. The government would notify energy intensive industries and other
establishments as designated consumers;
• Schedule to the Act provides list of designated consumers which covered
basically energy intensive industries, Railways, Port Trust, Transport
Sector, Power Stations, Transmission & Distribution Companies and
Commercial buildings or establishments;
• The designated consumer to get an energy audit conducted by an
accredited energy auditor;
• Energy managers with prescribed qualification are required to be

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

appointed or designated by the designated consumers;


• Designated consumers would comply with norms and standards of
energy consumption as prescribed by the central government.

b) Standards and labeling


Standards and Labeling (S & L) has been identified as a key activity for
energy efficiency improvement. The S & L program, when in place would
ensure that only energy efficient equipment and appliance would be made
available to the consumers.

The main provision of EC act on Standards and Labeling are:


• Evolve minimum energy consumption and performance standards for
notified equipment and appliances.
• Prohibit manufacture, sale and import of such equipment, which does
not conform to the standards.
• Introduce a mandatory labeling scheme for notified equipment
appliances to enable consumers to make informed choices
• Disseminate information on the benefits to consumers

c) Energy conservation building codes


The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes
are:
• The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building
Codes (ECBC);
• These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other
compelling factors by the respective states for commercial buildings
erected after the rules relating to energy conservation building codes
have been notified. In addition, these buildings should have a connected
load of 500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA and above and are
intended to be used for commercial purposes;
• Energy audit of specific designated commercial building consumers
would also be prescribed.

L-5 a) For complete combustion of 1 kg of a typical coal 10 kg of air is required.


Calorific value of coal is 4200 kCal/kg with ash content of 25%. What is
the quantity (in kg/hr) flue gas generated by burning 100 kg coal/ hr?

b) The furnace oil consumption in a boiler generating steam is 160 kg/hr


and the total losses in the boiler is 22%. Calculate the amount of steam
generated per hour by considering 600 kCal is required to generate 1 kg
steam. Consider GCV of furnace oil as 10000 kCal/kg.

a) Flue gas generated by burning the coal in the presence of air is:
Flue gas quantity (per kg of coal) : combustion air + quantity of fuel- ash
: 10 + 1 - 0.25
: 10.75 kg
Quantity of flue gas by burning 5 kg of coal : 100x 10.75 = 1075 kg.

_________________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

b) FO consumption rate = 160 kg/hr


GCV of FO = 10000 Kcal/kg
Total Input energy = 160 x 10000
= 1600000 Kcal/hr
Total Loss @ 22% = 1600000 x 0.22
= 352000 Kcal/hr
Total energy available to generate steam = 1600000 x 0.78
= 12488000 Kcal/hr
Total steam generated = 12488000
------------
600
= 20813 kg/hr

L-6 An autoclave contains 1500 cans of pea soup. It is heated to an overall


temperature of 100oC. If the cans are to be cooled to 40oC before leaving the
autoclave, how much cooling water is required if it enters at 15oC and leaves at
35oC ?
The specific heat of pea soup and the can metal are respectively 4.1 kJ/kgoC
and 0.50 kJ/kgoC. The weight of each can is 75 g and it contains 0.50 kg of pea
soup. Assume that the heat content of the autoclave walls above 40oC is 1.6 x
104 kJ and that there is no heat loss through the walls.

Heat Entering:
Heat in cans = weight of cans x specific heat x temperature above datum
3
= 1500 x 0.075 x 0.50 x (100-40) kJ = 3.375 x 10 kJ

Heat in can contents = weight pea soup x specific heat x temperature above
datum
5
= 1500 x 0.45 x 4.1 x (100 - 40) = 1.845 x 10 kJ

Heat in water = weight of water x specific heat x temperature above datum


= w x 4.186 x (15-40)
= -104.6 w kJ.

Heat Leaving:
Heat in cans = 1500 x 0.075 x 0.50 x (40-40) (cans leave at datum temperature) =
0
Heat in can contents = 1500 x 0.50 x 4.1 x (40-40) = 0
Heat in water = w x 4.186 x (35-40) = -20.9 w

o
HEAT-ENERGY BALANCE OF COOLING PROCESS; 40 C AS DATUM LINE
Heat Entering (kJ) Heat Leaving (kJ)
Heat in cans 3375 Heat in cans 0
Heat in can contents 184500 Heat in can contents 0

_________________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Key

Heat in autoclave wall 16000 Heat in autoclave wall 0


Heat in water -104.6 w Heat in water -20.9 W
Total heat entering 203875 -104.6 w Total heat leaving -20.9 W
Total heat entering = Total heat leaving
203875 – 104.6 w = -20.9 w
w = 2436 kg
Amount of cooling water required = 2436 kg.

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

Regn No: _________________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2006


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit


Date: 22.04.2006 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. Which process or technology is not considered a fuel extraction process?

a) mining b) oil well


c) gas well d) enrichment
2. Renewable energy is obtained from sources that are

a) exhaustible b) essentially inexhaustible


c) available for free d) none of the above
3. Which fossil fuel dominates the energy sector of India?

a) coal b) gas c) oil d) biomass


4. Which one is normally not an energy conservation measure?

a) to reduce excess air of combustion


b) to replace 60 watt incandescent light bulb by a 12 watt CFL
c) to convert an oil fired boiler to wood fired
d) to increase air conditioned room temperature by 2oC
5. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 requires designated consumers to

a) appoint/ designate certified energy manager


b) conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) comply with energy consumption norms & standards
d) all of the above

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

6. If the population of India is 1.05 Billion people and annual electricity consumption is
660 Million MWh, how much is the annual per capita consumption in kWh?

a) 63 b) 500 c) 629 d) 6,280


7. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called

a) energy ratio b) energy intensity


c) per capita consumption d) none of the above
8. Acid rain is caused by

a) CO2 emissions b) soot in the air c) NO4 emissions d) SOX emissions


9. The number of times current changes directions every minute in a 50 cycle single
phase alternating current (AC) is

a) 50 times b) 100 times c) 25 times d) none of the above


10. At the constant temperature, electrical resistance is given by

a) Current/ Voltage b) Voltage/ Current


c) Voltage X Current d) none of the above
11. Active power in an alternating current (AC) circuit is given by

a) kVA • power factor b) (kVA2 – kVAr2)1/2


c) [(kVA + kVAr) x (kVA – kVAr)]1/2 d) all of the above
12. Which of the following is false?

a) 1 calorie = 4.187J b) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh


c) 860 kcal = 1 kWh d) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ
13. Melting ice releases

a) sensible heat b) heat of vaporization c) latent heat d) super heat


14. The Second Law of Thermodynamics implies

a) energy conversion could be 100% efficient


b) energy conversion results in losses in form of heat
c) energy can be created
d) energy can be destroyed
15. The unit for heat transfer is

a) Watt b) cal c) kcal d) Watt/sec


16. One thousand litres of fuel oil cost Rs. 16,000. How much does one kg of fuel oil cost
if density is 0.95?

a) Rs. 15.2 b) Rs. 15.5 c) Rs. 17.2 d) Rs. 16.8


17. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?

a) kg/ oC b) kW/ ton of refrigeration


c) kWh/ kg yarn d) kcal/ kWh of electricity generated
18. Non-contact measurement can be carried out by

a) turbine flow meter b) infrared thermometer c) orifice meter d) pitot tube

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

19. A handheld modern combustion analyzer does not measure

a) CO2 b) CO, NOx, SOx and O2 c) O2 d) temperature


20. The law of conservation of mass implies

a) mass can be created b) mass can be lost


c) mass can be stored d) none of the above
21. Enthalpy in a boiler heat balance refers to

a) absolute zero point b) a reference level


c) – 273o Kelvin d) none of the above
22. The largest loss in the heat balance of a coal fired boiler is

a) dry flue gas loss b) loss due to Hydrogen in the fuel


c) radiation losses d) moisture in the air
23. One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% Hydrogen by weight. How much
water is evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?

a) 0.2 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.65 kg d) none of the above


24. The energy unit under the SI system is

a) Calorie b) Watt c) BTU d) Joule


25. Which of the following is not measured for the energy balance of a coal based power
plant?

a) bottom ash b) solid particles in stack gas


c) combustion air d) steam flow
26. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not include

a) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy


b) submission of technical report with recommendations
c) implementation of all the recommendations
d) action plan to reduce energy conservation
27. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts
with…

a) energy audit b) training c) seminar d) none of the above


28. A public expression of organization’s commitment to energy conservation is called

a) company policy b) energy policy


c) management philosophy d) quality policy
29. Which comparison is not an energy benchmarking exercise?

a) past performance b) industry average


c) least cost d) best practices
30. Which one is a negative force to reduce electricity consumption in a textile firm

a) top management commitment b) energy efficient technology available


c) high price of electricity d) insufficient funds to finance

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

31. The return on investment, ROI, is defined as

annual income annual net cash flow


a) b)
investment cost capital cost
capital investment
c) d) Interest rate of capital
annual income
32. IRR stands for

a) industrial rate of return b) interest return rate


c) internal rate of return d) investment return rate
33. If NPV = 1000 and i = 5% then the future value after 10 years is

a) 1,551 b) 614 c) 1,629 d) 645


34. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient
compressor in a plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 1.25 lakh. The
return on investment is

a) 15% b) 20% c) 18% d) none of the above


35. An energy audit requires

a) quantification of energy use


b) qualification of energy use
c) converting all energy use to one single unit
d) quantum reduction in power consumption
36. Which step is not necessarily part of project management?

a) project definition and scope b) project promotion


c) financing d) performance monitoring
37. The critical path is the path through the PERT network for which

a) LF = LS and ES = EF b) only EF = LF
c) ES = LS and EF = LF d) only ES = LS
38. Which one is not a time estimate in a PERT chart?

a) optimistic time b) most likely time c) pessimistic time d) average time


39. To draw a CUSUM chart, the following data is required

a) monthly energy consumption & monthly production


b) monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) monthly profits and production
d) all of the above
40. Which source of project financing is not from an internal source?

a) direct cash from company resources b) new share capital


c) payment by savings d) loans from employees
41. In the “energy versus production chart” coordinate system, the trend is

a) always a straight line going through zero point b) sometimes a curve


c) never a straight line d) always a straight line

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

42. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 2.3 lakh kWh for the period. The
average production is 20,000 tons with a specific electricity consumption of 10
kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 30,000 kWh b) 23,000 kWh c) 200,000 kWh d) none of the above


43. A firm pays Rs. 16 for 10,500 kcal of fuel oil. How much does the firm pay for 1 kWh
of fuel oil?

a) Rs. 0.76 b) Rs. 1.18 c) Rs. 1.31 d) question does not make sense
44. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) odometer


45. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 16 respectively. In the next two
months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 8. The energy savings at end of the fourth
month would be

a) 0 b) 24 c) 32 d) -8
46. Which gas has the least impact on global warming?

a) Carbon Dioxide (CO2) b) Carbon Monoxide (CO)


c) Methane (CH4) d) Nitrous Oxide (NOx)
47. The process by which Annex I countries could invest in GHG mitigation projects in
developing countries is called

a) conference of parties b) clean development mechanism


c) certified emission reduction d) green trading
48. Fuel oil contains 87% carbon by weight. How many kg of CO 2 does complete
combustion of 1 kg of oil generate?

a) 3.19 b) 2.61 c) 4.21 d) 3.67


49. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Methane is

a) 18.7 b) 270 c) 21 d) 1
50. Which country has not signed the Kyoto Protocol

a) Australia b) India c) China d) Russia

-------- End of Section - I ---------

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Explain the process of global warming and its impact.

• Solar radiation from the sun strikes the earth and earth absorbs the heat.

• The absorbed heat is emitted in the form of longwave radiation back to the
atmosphere.

• Some of this radiation is absorbed and remitted by green house gas molecules.

• The direct effect is the warming of the earth’s surface and the troposphere.

Impacts of global warming

Rise in global temperature Temperatures

Rise in sea level due to melting of polar ice caps causing floods in low lying
areas.

Loss of biodiversity

Food shortages and hunger

S-2 The quantity of heat supplied to a piece of steel to increase its temperature
depends on which factors and properties of steel?

Q = m x cp x dt

Mass , specific heat and temperature difference (initial temperature and final
temperature)

S-3 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to the industrial
consumers by a electric supply company.

• Maximum demand charges


• Energy charges
• Power factor penalty or bonus
• Fuel cost adjustment charges
• Electricity duty charges
• Meter rentals
• Lighting and fan power consumption
• Time of the day tariffs

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

• Penalty for exceeding the contract demand


• Surcharge if metering is at LT side in some of the utilities

S-4 In a steam heat exchanger, furnace oil at 40 kg/ hr. enters at 30oC and leaves at
90oC. Specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgoC. If the latent heat of steam is
540 kcal/ kg, find out the amount of steam required to heat the oil.

Heat required for heating the oil = 40 x 0.22 x (90oC - 30 oC)

528 Kcal/hr

Steam required = 528 / 540

= 0.977 kg/hr

S-5 CO2 found in the stack gas of a cement kiln comes from two sources. Explain in
words from which two sources and state the two equations of CO2 generation.

Sources of CO2

From process due to calcination of limestone

CaCo3 -------------------→ CaO + CO2

From combustion of fuel

C + O2 -------------------→ CO2

S-6 What is an energy audit and how it is classified?

Energy Audit is the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy including
submission of technical report containing recommendations for improving energy
efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to reduce energy
consumption

Energy audit can be classified into

• Preliminary energy audit


• Detailed energy audit

S-7 State the equation how to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of an investment
and identify the parameters in the equation.

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

Where NPV = Net Present Value


CFt = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘t’ (t=0,1,….n)
n = life of the project
 = Discount rate

S-8 How does a traditional contract differ from guaranteed savings performance
contract and shared savings performance contract?

Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a contractor who


procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price.

Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of savings is guaranteed by


the contractor, and all or part of the costs of equipment and/or services is paid
down out of savings as they are achieved.

Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides the financing and
is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This payment is
used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.

S-9 Explain briefly the features and use of a Sankey diagram.

The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output
energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boiler, fired heaters,
furnaces etc.

This diagram represents various outputs and losses, which will help to focus on
improvements in a prioritized manner

S-10 A thermal power plant uses 0.77 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity. If
the coal contains 52% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2 emissions/
kWh under complete combustion conditions.

C + O2 -------------------→ CO2

12 32 44

1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide

CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.77 x 0.52 x 44/12


= 1.468 kg of CO2/kwh

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 What do you understand by energy security? Mention a few strategies to ensure
energy security.

The basic aim of energy security for a nation is to reduce its dependence on the
imported energy sources for its economic growth.

Some of the strategies for energy security are:


Building stock piles
Diversification of energy supply sources
Increased capacity of fuel switching
Demand restraint,
Development of renewable energy sources.
Energy efficiency
Sustainable development
L-2 Assume that the annual per capita electricity consumption of India is 606 kWh and
the population is 1.078 Billion people.
(i) If the installed power capacity is 118,419 MW, calculate the average plant load
factor of the power mix at 606 kWh per capita consumption.
(ii) Calculate annual per capita consumption 30 years later if electricity consumption in
India goes up by 6% each year, and population growth is 1.2% annually.
(iii) How many years will it take to reach the per capita consumption of the USA at
13,500 kWh under a business as usual scenario as in (ii)?

(i) 118,419 x 1000 kW x 24 hrs x 365 days x PLF = 606 x 1.078 x 109

PLF = 0.629 = 63 %

(ii) 606 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.012)]30

2433.5 kwh per capita

(0r) long route

(iii) 606 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.012)]n = 13,500


606 (1.0474)n = 13,500
(1.0474)n = 22.28

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

n log (1.0474) = log 22.28


n = 67 years

L-3 100 numbers of fused 60 Watt incandescent light bulbs (ILB) are replaced by
same numbers of 12 Watt CFL instead of new ILB. Calculate the following for
4000 hours of operation per year.
(i) The annual “kWh saved”
(ii) The annual “kVAh saved” if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
(iii) The annual reduction in electricity costs if Rs. 4 per kWh is the energy charge and
Rs. 250 per kVA per month is the demand charge.
(iv) The simple payback period if the ILB costs Rs. 10 and the CFL costs Rs. 100
(assume life of ILB and CFL as 1000 hours and 4000 hours respectively).

(i) The annual kWh saved = 100 x (60 - 12) x 4000/1000


= 19,200 kWh/annum

(ii) The annual kVAh saved if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.

= 100 x (60 - 12/0.6) x 4000/1000


= 16,000 kVAh

(iii) Annual reduction in energy costs = 19,200 x Rs.4


= Rs. 76,800

Reduction in demand = 100 x (60 - 12/0.6)/1000


= 4 kVA
Reduction in demand charges = 4 x 250 x12
= Rs.12,000
Annual reduction in electricity costs = Rs.76,800 + Rs.12,000
= Rs.88,800/annum

(iv) Incremental investment for one CFL for 4000 hrs of operation = 100 – (10 x 4)
= Rs.60
Incremental investment for 100 CFLs for 4000 hrs of operation = Rs.60 x 100
= Rs.6000
Simple payback = 6000/88,800
= 0.067 years or 0.8 month

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

= less than a month

L-4 A reheating furnace heats steel billets (cp = 0.12 kcal/ kgoC) from 50oC to 1200oC
at a system efficiency of 25%.
(i) Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.
(ii) Calculate litres of furnace oil (with a calorific value of 10,000 kcal/ kg and a density
of 0.95 kg/litre) fired per 1 ton of steel billet.
(iii) Assume the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 25% to 30%. Calculate the
hourly furnace oil cost savings if 1 litre costs Rs. 16.
(iv) What is the simple payback period if investment is Rs. 2 Crore?
(v) How large could the investment be to improve the efficiency at an internal rate of
return of 16% and 4,800 operating hours per year over 5 years.

(i) Amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.

= m x cp x dT
= 10,000 kgs x 0.12 x (1200 –50)
= 13,80,000 kcals/hr

(ii) Litres of furnace oil fired per 1 ton of steel billet

Energy required per ton of billet = [(13,80,000/10)]

= 1,38,000 kcal
Input energy per ton of billet = 1,38,000/0.25

= 552000 Kcal
Kg of furnace oil required = 552000/10,000

= 55.2 kg

Furnace oil required in litres = 55.2/0.95

= 58.1 litres

(iii) Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton = 58.1x [(1 – (0.25/0.3)] x Rs.16
= Rs.155.2
Hourly furnace oil cost savingsfor 10 tons = Rs. 155.2 x 10
=Rs.1552

(iv) Simple payback period @4800 hrs of operation = 200,00,000/1552 x 4800

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

= 2.68 years or 32 months

(v) Net cash inflow per annum = 1552 x 4800


= Rs.74,49,600
Investment =

74,49,600 x

= Rs. 2.43 crores

L-5 Briefly describe the various financial analysis techniques for investments in energy
efficiency projects and their suitability of application.

Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation; the time


(number of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost),
considering only the Net Annual Saving:

The simple payback period is usually calculated as follows:

First Cost
Simple payback period (SPP) = ---------------------------------
Yearly Benefits – Yearly Costs

(Or) Investment /annual savings

• Simple concept: shorter payback indicate more attractive investment


• Favors project which generate substantial revenues in earlier years
• Fails to consider time value of money
• Ignores cash flow beyond payback period

Return on Investment (ROI) expresses the annual return from project as % of


capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital
investment, expressed as a percentage

Annual Net Cash Flow


ROI = --------------------------------- x 100
Capital Cost

• It does not take into account the time value of money

• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flow inflows

_________________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A Solutions

The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present values
of all the cash flows associated with it. Symbolically

Where NPV = Net Present Value


CFt = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘t’ (t=0,1,….n)
n = life of the project
 = Discount rate

• Represents benefit over and above the compensation for time and risk
• Decision associated with NPV criterion is:
o Accept the project if NPV is positive
o Reject the project if NPV is negative

• It takes into account time value of money


• It considers the cash flow stream in its project life

The internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net present
value (NPV) equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:

• Calculates rate of return that an investment is expected to yield


• IRR expresses each alternative in terms of interest (compound interest rate)
• The expected rate of return is the interest rate for which total discounted benefits
become = zero
• Criteria for selection among alternatives is to choose investment with the highest
rate of return
• It takes into account the time value of money
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Regn No: _________________


Name: ___________________
(To be written by the candidates)

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2006


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit


Date: 22.04.2006 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. Enthalpy in a boiler heat balance refers to

a) – 273o Kelvin b) a reference level


c) absolute zero point d) none of the above
2. The largest loss in the heat balance of a coal fired boiler is

a) moisture in the air b) dry flue gas loss


c) loss due to Hydrogen in the fuel d) radiation losses
3. One kg of wood contains 20% moisture and 5% Hydrogen by weight. How much
water is evaporated during complete combustion of one kg of wood?

a) 0.65 kg b) 250 gram c) 0.2 kg d) none of the above


4. The energy unit under the SI system is

a) Joule b) Calorie c) Watt d) BTU


5. Which of the following is not measured for the energy balance of a coal based power
plant?

a) steam flow b) bottom ash


c) solid particles in stack gas d) combustion air

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

6. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not include

a) action plan to reduce energy conservation


b) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) implementation of all the recommendations
7. To assess the existing situation of a plant, good energy saving strategy plan starts
with…

a) seminar b) training c) energy audit d) none of the above


8. A public expression of organization’s commitment to energy conservation is called

a) quality policy b) company policy


c) energy policy d) management philosophy
9. Which comparison is not an energy benchmarking exercise?

a) best practices b) past performance


c) industry average d) least cost
10. Which one is a negative force to reduce electricity consumption in a textile firm

a) insufficient funds to finance b) top management commitment


c) energy efficient technology available d) high price of electricity
11. In the “energy versus production chart” coordinate system, the trend is

a) always a straight line b) always a straight line going through zero point
c) sometimes a curve d) never a straight line
12. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 2.3 lakh kWh for the period. The
average production is 20,000 tons with a specific electricity consumption of 10
kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 200,000 kWh b) 23,000 kWh c) 30,000 kWh d) none of the above


13. A firm pays Rs. 16 for 10,500 kcal of fuel oil. How much does the firm pay for 1 kWh
of fuel oil?

a) Rs. 1.31 b) Rs. 1.18 c) Rs. 0.76 d) question does not make sense
14. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) odometer b) tachometer c) stroboscope d) oscilloscope


15. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 16 respectively. In the next two
months Ecalculated is more than Eactual by 8. The energy savings at end of the fourth
month would be

a) -8 b) 0 c) 24 d) 32
16. Which gas has the least impact on global warming?

a) Nitrous Oxide (NOx) b) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)


c) Carbon Monoxide (CO) d) Methane (CH4)

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

17. The process by which Annex I countries could invest in GHG mitigation projects in
developing countries is called

a) green trading b) conference of parties


c) clean development mechanism d) certified emission reduction
18. Fuel oil contains 87% carbon by weight. How many kg of CO 2 does complete
combustion of 1 kg of oil generate?

a) 4.21 b) 2.61 c) 3.19 d) 3.67


19. The Global Warming Potential (GWP) of Methane is

a) 1 b) 18.7 c) 270 d) 21
20. Which country has not signed the Kyoto Protocol

a) Russia b) Australia c) India d) China


21. At the constant temperature, electrical resistance is given by

a) Voltage X Current b) Voltage/ Current


c) Current/ Voltage d) none of the above
22. The number of times current changes directions every minute in a 50 cycle single
phase alternating current (AC) is

a) 25 times b) 100 times c) 50 times d) none of the above


23. Acid rain is caused by

a) SOX emissions b) CO2 emissions c) soot in the air d) NO4 emissions


24. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called

a) per capita consumption b) energy intensity


c) energy ratio d) none of the above
25. If the population of India is 1.05 Billion people and annual electricity consumption is
660 Million MWh, how much is the annual per capita consumption in kWh

a) 6,280 b) 63 c) 500 d) 629


26. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 requires designated consumers to

a) comply with energy consumption norms & standards


b) conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) appoint/ designate certified energy manager
d) all of the above
27. Which one is normally not an energy conservation measure?

a) to increase air conditioned room temperature by 2oC


b) to reduce excess air of combustion
c) to replace 60 watt incandescent light bulb by a 12 watt CFL
d) to convert an oil fired boiler to wood fired
28. Which fossil fuel dominates the energy sector of India?

a) biomass b) coal c) gas d) oil

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

29. Renewable energy is obtained from sources that are

a) available for free b) essentially inexhaustible


c) exhaustible d) none of the above
30. Which process or technology is not considered a fuel extraction process?

a) enrichment b) mining
c) oil well d) gas well
31. Which source of project financing is not from an internal source?

a) loans from employees b) direct cash from company resources


c) new share capital d) payment by savings
32. To draw a CUSUM chart, the following data is required

a) monthly profits and production


b) monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) monthly energy consumption & monthly production
d) all of the above
33. Which one is not a time estimate in a PERT chart?

a) average time b) optimistic time c) most likely time d) pessimistic time


34. The critical path is the path through the PERT network for which

a) only ES = LS b) LF = LS and ES = EF
c) only EF = LF d) ES = LS and EF = LF
35. Which step is not necessarily part of project management?

a) performance monitoring b) project definition and scope


c) project promotion d) financing
36. An energy audit requires

a) quantum reduction in power consumption


b) quantification of energy use
c) qualification of energy use
d) converting all energy use to one single unit
37. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient
compressor in a plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 1.25 lakh. The
return on investment is

a) 18% b) 20% c) 15% d) none of the above


38. If NPV = 1000 and i = 5% then the future value after 10 years is

a) 645 b) 1,551 c) 614 d) 1,629


39. IRR stands for

a) investment return rate b) industrial rate of return


c) interest return rate d) internal rate of return

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

40. The return on investment, ROI, is defined as

b) annual income
a) Interest rate of capital
investment cost
annual net cash flow capital investment
c) d)
capital cost annual income
41. Active power in an alternating current (AC) circuit is given by

a) [(kVA + kVAr) x (kVA – kVAr)]1/2 b) (kVA2 – kVAr2)1/2


c) kVA • power factor d) all of the above
42. Which of the following is false?

a) 1 calorie = 4.187 kJ b) 1 calorie = 4.187J


c) 1000 kWh = 1 MWh d) 860 kcal = 1 kWh
43. Melting ice releases

a) super heat b) sensible heat c) heat of vaporization d) latent heat


44. The Second Law of Thermodynamics implies

a) energy can be destroyed


b) energy conversion could be 100% efficient
c) energy conversion results in losses in form of heat
d) energy can be created
45. The unit for heat transfer is

a) Watt/sec b) Watt c) cal d) kcal


46. One thousand litres of fuel oil cost Rs. 16,000. How much does one kg of fuel oil cost
if density is 0.95?

a) Rs. 16.8 b) Rs. 15.2 c) Rs. 15.5 d) Rs. 17.2


47. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?

a) kcal/ kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC


c) kW/ ton of refrigeration d) kWh/ kg yarn
48. Non-contact measurement can be carried out by

a) pitot tube b) turbine flow meter c) infrared thermometer d) orifice meter


49. A handheld modern combustion analyzer does not measure

a) temperature b) CO2 c) CO, NOx, SOx and O2 d) O2


50. The law of conservation of mass implies

a) mass can be stored b) mass can be lost


c) mass can be created d) none of the above

-------- End of Section - I ---------

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 A thermal power plant uses 0.75 kg of coal to generate one kWh of electricity.
If the coal contains 54% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2
emissions/ kWh under complete combustion conditions.

C + O2 -------------------→ CO2

12 32 44

1 kg of carbon gives 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide

CO2 emissions/kwh = 0.75 x 0.54 x 44/12


= 1.485 kg of CO2/kwh

S-2 Explain briefly the features and use of a Sankey diagram.

The Sankey diagram is very useful tool to represent an entire input and output
energy flow in any energy equipment or system such as boiler, fired heaters,
furnaces etc.

This diagram represents various outputs and losses, which will help to focus
on improvements in a prioritized manner

S-3 How does a traditional contract differ from guaranteed savings performance
contract and shared savings performance contract?

Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a contractor who


procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price.

Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of savings is guaranteed


by the contractor, and all or part of the costs of equipment and/or services is
paid down out of savings as they are achieved.

Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides the financing


and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This
payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.

S-4 State the equation how to calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of an
investment and identify the parameters in the equation.

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Where NPV = Net Present Value


CFt = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘t’ (t=0,1,….n)
n = life of the project
 = Discount rate

S-5 Explain the process of global warming and its impact.

• Solar radiation from the sun strikes the earth and earth absorbs the heat.

• The absorbed heat is emitted in the form of longwave radiation back to the
atmosphere.

• Some of this radiation is absorbed and remitted by green house gas


molecules.

• The direct effect is the warming of the earth’s surface and the troposphere.

Impacts of global warming

Rise in global temperature Temperatures

Rise in sea level due to melting of polar ice caps causing floods in low lying
areas.

Loss of biodiversity

Food shortages and hunger

S-6 The quantity of heat supplied to a piece of steel to increase its temperature
depends on which factors and properties of steel?

Q = m x cp x dt

Mass , specific heat and temperature difference (initial temperature and final
temperature)

S-7 State any five components of the electricity bill charged to the industrial
consumers by a electric supply company.

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

• Maximum demand charges


• Energy charges
• Power factor penalty or bonus
• Fuel cost adjustment charges
• Electricity duty charges
• Meter rentals
• Lighting and fan power consumption
• Time of the day tariffs
• Penalty for exceeding the contract demand
• Surcharge if metering is at LT side in some of the utilities

S-8 In a steam heat exchanger, furnace oil at 50 kg/ hr. enters at 40oC and leaves
at 95oC. Specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgoC. If the latent heat of
steam is 540 kcal/ kg, find out the amount of steam required to heat the oil.

Heat required for heating the oil = 50 x 0.22 x (95oC - 40 oC)

= 605 Kcal/hr

Steam required = 605 / 540

= 1.12 kg/hr

S-9 CO2 found in the stack gas of a cement kiln comes from two sources. Explain
in words from which two sources and state the two equations of CO2
generation.

Sources of CO2

From process due to calcination of limestone

CaCo3 -------------------→ CaO + CO2

From combustion of fuel

C + O2 -------------------→ CO2

S-10 What is an energy audit and how it is classified?

Energy Audit is the verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy


including submission of technical report containing recommendations for
improving energy efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an action plan to
reduce energy consumption

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Energy audit can be classified into

• Preliminary energy audit


• Detailed energy audit

-------- End of Section – II ---------

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Briefly describe the various financial analysis techniques for investments in
energy efficiency projects and their suitability of application.

Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation; the time


(number of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost),
considering only the Net Annual Saving:

The simple payback period is usually calculated as follows:

First Cost
Simple payback period (SPP) = ---------------------------------
Yearly Benefits – Yearly Costs

(Or) Investment /annual savings

• Simple concept: shorter payback indicate more attractive investment


• Favors project which generate substantial revenues in earlier years
• Fails to consider time value of money
• Ignores cash flow beyond payback period

Return on Investment (ROI) expresses the annual return from project as % of


capital cost.
This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital
investment, expressed as a percentage

Annual Net Cash Flow


ROI = --------------------------------- x 100
Capital Cost

• It does not take into account the time value of money

• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash flow
inflows

The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present
values of all the cash flows associated with it. Symbolically

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Where NPV = Net Present Value


CFt = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘t’ (t=0,1,….n)
n = life of the project
 = Discount rate

• Represents benefit over and above the compensation for time and risk
• Decision associated with NPV criterion is:
o Accept the project if NPV is positive
o Reject the project if NPV is negative

• It takes into account time value of money


• It considers the cash flow stream in its project life

The internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is the discount rate, which makes its net
present value (NPV) equal to zero. It is the discount rate in the equation:

• Calculates rate of return that an investment is expected to yield


• IRR expresses each alternative in terms of interest (compound interest rate)
• The expected rate of return is the interest rate for which total discounted
benefits become = zero
• Criteria for selection among alternatives is to choose investment with the
highest rate of return
• It takes into account the time value of money
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety

L-2 A reheating furnace heats steel billets (cp = 0.12 kcal/ kgoC) from 60oC to
1200oC at a system efficiency of 25%.
(i) Calculate the amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per
hour.
(ii) Calculate litres of furnace oil (with a calorific value of 10,000 kcal/ kg and a
density of 0.95 kg/litre) fired per 1 ton of steel billet.
(iii) Assume the efficiency of the furnace is improved from 25% to 30%. Calculate
the hourly furnace oil cost savings if 1 litre costs Rs. 16.
(iv) What is the simple payback period if investment is Rs. 2 Crore?
(v) How large could the investment be to improve the efficiency at an internal rate
of return of 20% and 4,800 operating hours per year over 5 years.

(i) Amount of energy necessary to heat 10 tons of steel billets per hour.

= m x cp x dT

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

= 10,000 kgs x 0.12 x (1200 –60)


= 13,68,000 kcals/hr

(ii) Litres of furnace oil fired per 1 ton of steel billet

Energy required per ton of billet = [(13,68,000/10)]

= 1,36,800 kcal
Input energy per ton of billet = 1,36,800/0.25

= 547200 Kcal
Kg of furnace oil required = 547200/10,000

= 54.72 kg

Furnace oil required in litres = 54.72/0.95

= 57.6 litres

(iii) Hourly furnace oil cost savings/ton = 57.6 x [(1 – (0.25/0.3)] x Rs.16
= Rs.153.6
Hourly furnace oil cost savings for 10 tons = Rs. 153.6x 10
=Rs.1536

(iv) Simple payback period @4800 hrs of operation = 200,00,000/1536 x 4800


= 2.71 years or 33 months

(v) Net cash inflow per annum = 1536 x 4800


= Rs.73,72,800
Investment =

73,72,800 x [1/(1.2) + 1/1.22 + 1/1.23 + 1/1.24 + 1/1.25]

= Rs. 2.2 crores

L-3 80 numbers of fused 60 Watt incandescent light bulbs (ILB) are replaced by
same numbers of 12 Watt CFL instead of new ILB. Calculate the following for
4000 hours of operation per year.

_________________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

(i) The annual “kWh saved”


(ii) The “annual kVAh saved” if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.
(iii) The annual reduction in electricity costs if Rs. 4 per kWh is the energy charge
and Rs. 250 per kVA per month is the demand charge.
(iv) The simple payback period if the ILB costs Rs. 10 and the CFL costs Rs 100
(assume life of ILB and CFL as 1000 hours and 4000 hours respectively)

(i) The annual kWh saved = 80 x (60 - 12) x 4000/1000


= 15,360 kWh/annum

(ii) The annual kVAh saved if the power factor of the CFL is 0.6.

= 80 x (60 - 12/0.6) x 4000/1000


= 12,800 kVAh

(iii) Annual reduction in energy costs = 15,360 x Rs.4


= Rs. 61,440

Reduction in demand = 80 x (60 - 12/0.6)/1000


= 3.2 kVA
Reduction in demand charges = 3.2 x 250 x12
= Rs.9600
Annual reduction in electricity costs = Rs.61,440 + Rs.9600
= Rs.71,040/annum

(iv) Incremental investment for one CFL for 4000 hrs of operation = 100 – (10 x 4)
= Rs.60
Incremental investment for 80 CFLs for 4000 hrs of operation = Rs.60 x 80
= Rs.4800
Simple payback = 4800/71,040
= 0.068 years or 0.8 month
= less than a month

_________________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

L-4 Assume that the annual per capita electricity consumption of India is 615 kWh
and the population is 1.078 Billion people.
(i) If the installed power capacity is 118,419 MW, calculate the average plant load
factor of the power mix at 606 kWh per capita consumption.
(ii) Calculate annual per capita consumption 30 years later if electricity
consumption in India goes up by 6% each year, and population growth is 1.0%
annually.
(iii) How many years will it take to reach the per capita consumption of the USA at
13,500 kWh under a business as usual scenario as in (ii)?
(i) 118,419 x 1000 kW x 24 hrs x 365 days x PLF = 606 x 1.078 x 109

PLF = 0.629 = 63 %

(ii) 615 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.01)]30

2620.7 kwh per capita

(0r) long route Final answer may vary between 2610 and 2630 depending
on calculation

(iii) 615 [(1 + 0.06)/ (1+ 0.01)]n = 13,500


615 (1.0495)n = 13,500
(1.0495)n = 21.95
n log (1.0495) = log 21.95
n = 64 years

L-5 What do you understand by energy security? Mention a few strategies to


ensure energy security.

The basic aim of energy security for a nation is to reduce its dependence on
the imported energy sources for its economic growth.

Some of the strategies for energy security are:


Building stock piles
Diversification of energy supply sources
Increased capacity of fuel switching
Demand restraint,
Development of renewable energy sources.
Energy efficiency

_________________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B Solutions

Sustainable development

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1

Model Question Paper-2006


NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION
FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. The fuel type, which is fastest growing among world energy consumption
a) Coal b) Oil
c) Natural Gas d) Nuclear Energy
2. The percentage of primary energy consumption of India in the total world energy
consumption is
a) 3.5 % b) 7 % c) 10.5 % d) 1 %
3. What is the current Reserves/Production ratio of coal in India

a) 180 b)200 c) 230 d) 290


4. The % of crude oil import bill of India in the year 2020 will be .
a) 72. b) 77 c) 82 d) 92.
5. Which one of the following is not considered as a pollutant
a) CO2 b) SO2 c) CO dVOCs
6. The major contribution of CO pollutant In the urban area is due to
a) 90 % of industrial pollution b) 90 % of road transport
c) 90 % residential and commercial d) all of the above
7. CAGR means
a) Compound annual growth rate
b) Compound average growth rate
c) Compound annual growth ratio
d) Compound average growth ratio
8. What is the heat content of the 200 liters of water at 50oC in terms of the basic unit
of energy in K.Joules
a) 3000 b) 2388 c) 1000 d) 4187
9. What is the heat required to melt 2 kg of ice from Zero degree to liquid water at zero
degree in KJ ?
a)672 b) 6000 c) 6048 d) 8374
10. The rate of energy transfer is measured in
a) Jules/Second b) K.Cal/hr c) BTU/hr d)all of the above
11. Which of the following is most accurate instrument for surface temperature
measurement of the hot pipe line
a) Thermocouples c) Infrared Thermometer
b) Leaf type contact thermometer d) All of the above

1
Paper 1

12. Which one of the following is not considered for external benchmarking :

a) Scale of Operation b) Vintage of Technology


c) Energy Price d) Quality of Raw Material and Products
13 In inductive and resistive circuit, the effective power factor will be
a) less than 1 b) more than 1 c) zero d) one
14. Which of the following factor to be taken into account while procurement of fuel ?
a) Gross Calorific Value b) Moisture content
c)Cost at Site d) All of the above
15. A single phase 2.5 hp AC motor has the name plate details as 230v,10 amps and PF
0.8. the operating details are 220Volt, 8 amps and 0.7 PF what is the % loading of
motor
a) 67% b) 77 c) 80 d) 60
16. Which are the following is not correct as per Law of Conservation of Mass ?

a) Mass in = Mass out + Mass Stored


b) Raw material in = Product + Waste + Stored Material
c)Raw material in = Product + Waste + Stored material + Internal Recycling
d) All are the above
17 Which of the following formula is useful to determine the heat duty in
conducting heat balance?
a) Q = M.Cp.Δ T b) Q = AV c) PV = n RT d) None of the above
18 Utilization of Solar drying instead of washing machine for clothe drying
purpose is called
a) Energy substitutions b)Energy efficiency measure
c) Fuel substitution d) None of the above
19 The velocity of cold air in the air-conditioning duct can be measured by
a) pitot tube b) anemometer c) both a & b d) none of the above
20 Which one of the following is not important to the successful energy management in
all organizations?
a) Top management support b) Good Monitoring system
c) Strategic Planning d) Procuring low cost energy
21. Which one of the following is not an important duty of a certified energy manager ?
a) Report to BEE and State level designated agencies
b) Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
c) Establish an improved data recording and analysis
d) Create knowledge bank on sectoral and national development on energy
efficiency technology and information
22 Which of the following is not common normalizing factor in industrial facilities?
a) Input b) Output c) Product type d) Operating hours
23 Which of the following is a negative force in force field analysis?
a) High price of energy b) High energy share of component of production cost
c) Availability of energy efficient technology d) Competing corporate priorities
24 Which of the following equation can be used to calculate the future value from the
present value of cash.?
a) NPV = FV x (1 + i)n b) FV= NPV x (1 - i)n
c) NPV =FV/ (1 + i)n d)NON OF THE ABOVE.

2
Paper 1

25 What is the expected ROI from the project with Rs.5 lakhs investment and annual
saving of Rs.1.75 lakhs and annual operating cost of Rs.0.25 lakhs
a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40
26 ESCO means
a) Energy saving companies b) Energy service companies
c) Energy supply companies d) Energy saving corporation
27 A 500 kg of wet cloth with 50% moisture at 25o is dried to 5% moisture in stenter
steam drying machine. What is the moisture content removed from the cloth ?
a) 237 b) 263 c) 275 d) 225
28 Which of the following is not considered in CPM method Network Diagram?
a) Duration of each activities b) Dependency of activities
c) Time variation d) None of the above
29 Which of the following condition is useful to determine the critical path in the PERT
Network ?
a) ES = LS and EF = LF b) ES = LF and EF = LS
c) ES= EF and LS = LF d) None of the above
30 Which is not a fast track CDM Projects among the following ?
a) Biomass Power Plant up to 15 MW
b) Photovoltaic Power Plant up to 15 MW
c) Plantation Project upto 15 kiloTon of CO2 equivalent reduction annually
d) Energy efficiency improvement projects up to 15 MW Power Reduction annually
31 Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere between
a) 5 to 50 km above the ground b) 10 to 50 km above the ground
c) 50 to 100 km above the ground d) 10 to 100 km above the ground
32 In a heat treatment furnace 500 kg/hr. iron material is heated from 27.5oC to 850oC.
Specific heat of the material is 1.8 K.cal/ kg. oC What is the heat duty in KW?

a) 500 b) 900 c) 860 d) None of the above


33 In a chemical process reactant A and B are mixed in the ratio of 100 kg:200 kg. The
yield will be resulted in the ratio of 50 : 50 . What is the amount of yield in kg?
a) 100 b)150 c) 200 d) 300
34 Which of the following is a macro factor for sensitivity analysis?
a) change in capital structure b) change in project duration
c) changes of the firms of finance d) change in tax rates
35 Sensitivity analysis is carried out for which purpose of the following assessment?
a) Profit b) Losses
c) risk d) all of the above
36 A factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the net present value for
the expected future cash flow is:
a) Discount rate b) Internal rate of return
c) Capital Cost d) All of the above
37 The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 40 lakhs and accounts for 25% of
the total energy bill. The annual energy bill for the company
a) ) Rs. 40 lakhs b) Rs. 80 lakhs c) Rs. 160 lakhs d) none of the above
38 Critical path in a PERT network diagram
a) is the shortest path in a network
b) where all activities of long duration fall
c) path that has no slack for all activity in that path
d) none of the above.

3
Paper 1

39 Matching energy use to requirement means providing


a) just providing theoretical energy needed b) just the designers’ needs
c) energy with minimum losses d) all of the above

40 The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) Zero b) positive c) Negative d) None of the above

41 The fixed energy consumption plant is 5000 Kwh. The specific energy
consumption of the product is 1200 Kwh/Ton . What is the total energy
consumption for the production of 100 Tons / day?
a) 120,000 b) 125,000 c) 6,200 d) 50,000
42 The last step in a project development cycle is
a) Identify components of the project b) Implement the project
c) arrange finance d) Close out the project
43 For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which
of these analysis would be the best option
a) SPP b) ROI c) NPV d) none of the above
44 Data required to plot a moving annual total chart
a) Month wise production b) Month wise energy consumption
c) Both a & b d) Annual production & annual energy consumption

45 What is the “toe” of 125 Ton of coal which has GCV of 4000 K.cal / kg
a) 40 b) 50 c) 400 d) 500

46 How many molecules are destroyed by a single CFC molecules before it


depletes.
a) 101 b) 103 c) 105 d) 107

47 ODS means
a) Ozone depleting substances b) Ozone diluting substances
c) Ozone disturbed space d) None of the above

48 GWP of Nitrous Oxide component CO2


a) 21 b) 210 c) 27 d) 270

49 India comes under which of the following category as per Kyoto protocol
a) Annex I Parties b) Annex 2 Parties
c) Annex 1 & 2 Parties d) Non Annex Parties
50 What is the size of the market for emission reduction in the world is
a) one million ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2008-2012
b) one billion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2008-2012
c) one billion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2005-2010
d) one trillion ton of carbon reduction by during the commitment period 2005-2010

4
Paper 1

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 (i) List down the role of state and central govt in implementation of Energy
conservation act 2001?
(ii) What is energy conservation building s code?

i) The role of Central and State Government is envisaged in the Act:


• Central - to notify rules and regulations under various provisions of the Act, provide
initial financial assistance to BEE and EC fund, Coordinate with various State
Governments for notification, enforcement, penalties and adjudication.
• State - to amend energy conservation building codes to suit the regional and local
climatic condition, to designate state level agency to coordinate, regulate and enforce
provisions of the Act and constitute a State Energy Conservation Fund for promotion
of energy efficiency.

ii) The main provisions of the EC Act on Energy Conservation Building Codes are:

The BEE would prepare guidelines for Energy Conservation Building Codes (ECBC).
These would be notified to suit local climate conditions or other compelling
factors by the respective states for commercial buildings erected after the rules
relating to energy conservation building codes have been notified.
Buildings should have a connected load of 500 kW or contract demand of 600 kVA
and above and are intended to be used for commercial purposes;

S-2 What are the different phases of detailed energy audit and list down the aims of
the preliminary site visit?

i) Detailed energy auditing is carried out in three phases such as


Phase I - Pre Audit Phase
Phase II - Audit Phase
Phase III - Post Audit Phase

ii) The main aims of this visit are: -


• To finalize Energy Audit team
• To identify the main energy consuming areas to be surveyed during the audit.
• To identify any existing instrumentation/ additional instrumentation required for
carrying out the audit.
• To plan with time frame
• To collect macro data on plant energy resources, major energy consuming centers
• To create awareness through meetings/ programme
.

5
Paper 1

S-3 An insulated Electric heater of 6 KW was replaced with low pressure steam
heater for furnace oil heating in Thermic fluid heating system .The avg
electricity consumption per day is 120 kwh. Find out the quantity of steam
consumption if steam at temperature 121oc with enthalpy of 642 kcal/kg and
per day. Electricity cost is 4Rs/unitPlant steam cost is Rs 0.50/kg. What is cost
reduction per day?

Steam consumption per day= 120x860/(642-121) =166.18 kg/day


Cost reduction per day = (120x4 – 166.18x0.5) =397 Rs/day

S-4 What is an objective of the energy policy in an organization? List down the
typical format of energy policy


Energy Policy provides top management's support and articulates the
organization's commitment to energy efficiency for employees, shareholders,
and other stakeholders.
• A public expression of the organization's commitment to energy conservation
and environmental protection
• A working document to guide the energy management practices and provides
continuity.
Typical Format of an Energy Policy
• Declaration of top management's commitment to, and senior and middle
management's involvement in, energy management.
• Statement of policy.
• Statement of objectives, separated into short and long-term goals.

S-5 Explain Quantitative Reviews and Qualitative Reviews while analyzing after
conducting energy audit?

There are a variety of ways by which data can be analyzed depending upon the needs
of the organization. The following analyses provide a guideline:
a) Quantitative Reviews
• Develop use profiles -Identify energy consumption peaks and valleys, and
determine how they relate to operations or key events.
• Compare performance -Compare the use and performance data of similar
facilities in your industry.
• Assess the financial impacts -Identify areas of high-cost energy use.
• Identify data gaps -Determine areas where more information is needed.
b) Qualitative Reviews
• Conduct interviews -Seek informed opinions from colleagues, lessons learned,
systems-specific information (e.g., HVAC, lighting, refrigeration), and in-house
audits or surveys.
• Review policies and procedures -Review organizational policies and operating
procedures to determine their impact on energy use.

6
Paper 1

S-6 Define the IRR of a project and indicate its limitation and advantages.

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.

(i) The internal rate of return is the discount rate, d at which the Net Present
Value, NPV, becomes zero.

(ii) NPV = _ C0 + C1 + …. Cn = 0
(1+d)0 (1+d)1 1 + d)n
with Ci = Cash flow occurring in the year i,
n = life of project in years;
d = discount rate as a fraction and not in %
Limitations
• The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between lending and
borrowing and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be a
desirable feature.
Advantages
• It takes into account the time value of money.
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety.

S-7 Cold Air at 25oC is supplied through a square duct to a air-conditioning


building . The velocity and quantity of cold air flow are 2 m/s and 250 m3/ hr.
respectively. Find out the size of the square duct in mm.

Flow of cold air, Q = Area of a square duct x Velocity of air


250 / 3,600 m3/sec. = Area x 2 m/sec
Area = 0.186 mtr.
Size of the square duct = 186 mm. X 186 mm.

S-8 What are the 3 time estimate used for constructing PERT Network? One of the
activity has 3 time estimate of 4 weeks, 5 weeks and 6 weeks in a PERT
Network diagram. Find out the expected time to complete the activity and it’s
variance of the activity

i) Three time estimates are:

a) Optimistic time
b) Most likely time
c) Pessimistic time

o Expected time = (OT + 4 X MT + PT)/ 6


o ( 4 + 4 x 5 + 6) / 6 = 5
o
o Variance = { (PT – OT / 6 ) }2 =1/9

7
Paper 1

S-9 What are the Global warming implications and how India could affect by this
climatic change?

Global Warming (Climate Change) Implications


Rise in global temperature
There is strong evidence now that most of the observed warming over the last 50 years
is caused by human activities. Climate models predict that the global temperature will
rise by about 6 °C by the year 2100.
Rise in sea level
The mean sea level is expected to rise 9 - 88 cm by the year 2100, causing flooding of
low lying areas and other damages.
Food shortages and hunger
Water resources will be affected as precipitation and evaporation patterns change
around the world. This will affect agricultural output. Food security is likely to be
threatened and some regions are likely to experience food shortages and hunger.

India could be more at risks than many other countries


• Models predict an average increase in temperature in India of 2.3 to 4.8°C for the
benchmark doubling of Carbon-dioxide scenario.
• It is estimated that 7 million people would be displaced, 5700 km2 of land and
4200 km of road would be lost, and wheat yields could decrease significantly.

S-10 (i) What is the sensitivity analysis? List down 4 micro factors that are
considered in the above analysis.

i) Sensitivity analysis is an assessment of risk. Because of the uncertainty in assigning


values to the analysis, it is recommended that a sensitivity analysis be carried out -
particularly on projects where the feasibility is marginal. How sensitive is the project's
feasibility to changes in the input parameters? What if one or more of the factors in the
analysis is not as favourable as predicted? How much would it have to vary before the
project becomes unviable? What is the probability of this happening?
Suppose, for example, that a feasible project is based on an energy cost saving that
escalates at 10% per year, but a sensitivity analysis shows the break-even is at 9% (i.e.
the project becomes unviable if the inflation of energy cost falls below 9%). There is a
high degree of risk associated with this project - much greater than if the break-even
value was at 2%. Switching values showing the change in a variable required for the
project decision to change from acceptance to rejection are presented for key variables
and can be compared with post evaluation results for similar projects.

ii) Micro factors


• Operating expenses (various expenses items)
• Capital structure
• Costs of debt, equity
• Changing the project duration

-------- End of Section - II ---------

8
Paper 1

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions (ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Find out the mass fraction and mole fraction of Carbon dioxide in the
Carbonated soft drink preparation. If 2 volume of CO2 is mixed with 1 volume
of water at 0o and atmospheric pressure gas content = 0.08206.

Basis 1 m3 of water = 1000kg


Volume of CO2 added = 2 m3
From Gas equation PV = nRT
PV = nRT
1 x 2 = n x0.08206 x273
n = 0.0893 mole
Molecular wt of CO2 44
Wt of CO2 added 0.0893 x 44 = 3.9292 kg.
Mass fraction of CO2 3.9292
= 3.91 x 10 – 3
(1000 + 3.9292)

mole fraction of CO2 = 0.0893


= 1.604x10 – 3
1000 /18 + 0.0893

L-2 What are the elements of monitoring and targeting system ? Explain how to
draw moving annual total method. What is the inference of this method?
i) The essential elements of M&T system are:
• Recording ,• Analysing , • Comparing • Setting Targets ,• Monitoring
• Reporting ,• Controlling
ii) Having more than twelve months of production and energy data, we can plot a
moving annual total. For this chart, each point represents the sum of the previous
twelve months of data. In this way, each point covers a full range of the seasons,
holidays, etc. The Figure shows a moving annual total for energy and production data.

This technique also smoothens out errors in the timing of meter readings. If we just
plot energy we are only seeing part of the story - so we plot both energy and
production on the same chart - most likely using two y-axes. Looking at these charts,
both energy and productions seem to be "tracking" each other - this suggests there is no
major cause for concern. But we will need to watch for a deviation of the energy line to
pick up early warning of waste or to confirm whether energy efficiency measures are
making an impact.

9
Paper 1

L-3 A company has invested Rs.20 lakhs for installing WHR Boiler to recover
waste heat from the flue gas in DG Set. Find out the IRR if the annual net
savings cash flow accrued for 6 years as given below: The company got a
bank loan for the investment at 8% interest rate. Whether the company can
recover the investment and repay the bank loan.

Year Annual Net


Saving, Rs.
lakhs
1 6
2 6
3 7
4 7
5 8
6 8

(i)
NPV at = - 20. 6 6 7 7 8 8
(1.24)o +(1.24)1 +(1.24)2 +(1.24)3 (1.2) 4 +(1.24)5 +(1.24)6
24%
= (+) 0.299

NPV = - 20. 6 6 7 7 8 8
(1.26)o + (1.26)1 +(1.26)2 +(1.26)3 (1.26) 4 +(1.26)5 + (1.26)6
26%
= -20 + 19.334
= - (-) 0.666
NPV at 24% (+) 0.299 Positive
NPV at 26 % (-) 0.666 Negative
By weighted avg. method
= 0. 24 + (.26 -. 24) . 299
0.299 - (-666)

= 0.24 + 0.02 x .299 = 0.2461


.965

IRR = 24.61%
(ii) The company got the loan @ 8% and IRR is 24.61% which is more than
capital cost. Therefore this project is most feasible

10
Paper 1

L-4 Construct a PERT Diagram for the following projects and find out the critical
path. If an activity duration of G is reduced by 2 days, what is the new critical
path and completion of time.?

Activity Duration Precedent


in Days
A 2 Start
B 3 A
C 5 A
D 4 B
E 6 B
F 5 C
G 7 D
H 3 E
I 1 F, G, H

i) What is the critical path?


ii) What is the total duration required to complete the project?
iii) What is the available slack period in days for activity C & E?
iv) If duration of activity G is reduced by 2 days by crashing, what is the
new critical path and it’s duration of the project completion?

PERT Diagram
C/5 F/5

A B D G I
2 3 4 7 1
H
E 3
6

Answer
1. Critical path is = A - B - D - G - I
2. Total completion of the project = 17 days
3. Slack time available for C = 5 days
4. Slack time available for E = 4 days
5. If the duration of activity of G is
reduced by 2 days, then also the critical path is A - B- D - G - I

11
Paper 1

L-5 How CDM works and what are the CDM initiatives in India

An investor from a developed country, can invest in, or provide finance for a project in
a developing country that reduces greenhouse gas emissions so that they are lower
than they would have been without the extra investment. The investor then gets
carbon credits - for the reductions and can use those credits to meet their Kyoto
target.

For example, a French company needs to reduce its emissions as part of its
contribution to meeting France's emission reduction target under the Kyoto Protocol.
Instead of reducing emissions from its own activities in France, the company provides
funding for the construction of a new biomass plant in India that would not have been
able to go ahead without this investment. This, they argue, prevents the construction
of new fossil-fueled plants in India, or displaces consumption of electricity from
existing ones, leading to a reduction in greenhouse gas emissions in India. The
French investor gets credit for those reductions and can use them to help meet their
reduction target in France.

Projects starting in the year 2000 are eligible to earn Certified Emission Reductions
(CERs) if they lead to "real, measurable, and long-term" GHG reductions, which are
additional to any that would occur in the absence of the CDM project. This includes
afforestation and reforestation projects, which lead to the sequestration of carbon
dioxide.

Indian Initiatives on CDM


Government of India has been willing to fulfill its responsibility under the CDM. It has
undertaken various capacity building activities like holding of workshops, initiation of
various studies, and briefing meeting with the stakeholders. India has been actively
participating in the CDM regime and has already approved projects for further
development. Under CDM, projects such as energy efficient hydrocarbon refrigerators,
modernization of small scale foundry units and renovation, modernization of thermal
power stations etc. are being taken up.

-------- End of Section - III ---------

12
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 2006

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER-I: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT
Duration: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 150

Section-I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 1×50 = 50


i) Each question carries one mark
Put a (√ ) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1 Which fuel dominates the energy mix in Indian energy scenario?–


a) Oil b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Nuclear
2 Indian per capita energy consumption is ____ of the world average.
a) 4% b) 20% c) 1% d) 10%
3 India’s energy intensity is ___ times of world average.
a) 1.5 b) 2.5 c) 3.6 d) 10
4 Name the Act, which is proposed to bring the qualitative transformation of the electricity
sector:
a) Regulatory Commission Act 1998 b) Indian Electricity Act 1910
c) Supply Act 1948 d) Electricity Act 2003
5 Projected temperature increase by the year 2100 due to climate change is:
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
6 Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor


c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
7 Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor


c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
8 The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) increases with decreasing temperature
9 Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.
a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
10 The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is
termed as -----
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
11 In an utility steam boiler, heat loss due to radiation normally is in the range of
a) 10% b) 14% c) 1% d) 8%
12 In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1000 kg. The ash content in the coal is
3%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 50 kg b) 300 kg c) 33 kg d) 720 kg
13 Which of the following is a speed measuring device
a) Fyrite b) Stroboscope c) Periscope d) Power analyser
14 Energy supplied by electricity, Q in kCal is equal to _____ .
a) kWh x 8.6 b) kWh x 86 c) kWh x 860 d) none
15 In material and energy balance, which of the following may not be considered

a) raw materials b) rejects c) production d) cost


16 An energy policy is preferably signed by the
a) top management b) energy Manager
c) energy auditor d) Electrical manager
17 Providing information to BEE is the role of energy manager as per
a) Energy Conservation Act 2003 b) Energy Conservation Act 2004
c) Energy Conservation Act 2002 d) Energy Conservation Act 2001
18 In energy action planning, Monitoring and targeting is only a part of the comprehensive
information systems. State True or False?
19 Under Energy Conservation of Act 2001, data on energy consumed & action on
recommendations of accredited energy auditor should be reported to
a) BEE and state level agency once a year
b) BEE and state level agency twice year
c) BEE only
d) State level designated agency only
20 Which one of them is a positive force towards achieving goal of reduced energy
consumption?
a) tax on energy consumption
b) competing corporate priorities
c) Insufficient financial resources to fund
d) Absence of corporate energy policy
21 For all the expenditures in the plant, the value of cash flow at the end of the year will be
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Nil d) None of the above
22 The internal rate of return cannot distinguish between ____________
a) Lending b) Borrowing c) Both a & b d) None
23 The present value of a Rs. 1000 cost in year “0” projected to 10 years at an escalation rate of
5% and a 10% interest rate is:
a) Rs. 4225 b) Rs. 628 c) Rs. 1 d) Rs. 2.33
24 What is ESCO?
a) Energy saving company b) Energy sourcing company
c) Energy service company d) Energy section of company
25 The key to the successful involvement of an ESCO in performance contracting is:
a) Monitoring b) Verification c) Both a & b d) None
26 Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
27 The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart
28 Performance is done after implementation. State True or false
29 In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness activity
completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review Technique
(PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False
30 Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
31 The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..
a) Text format b) Graphical representation
c) Oral communication d) None
32 What is CUSUM?
a) Cumbersome b) Cumulative Sum c) Calculated Sum d) None
33 To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required
a) Monthly energy consumption& monthly production
b) Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c) Monthly profits and production
d) None
34 Energy and production data is useful to calculate……
a) Specific Energy Consumption b) Specific Fuel consumption
c) Specific Cost d) None
35 What do you mean by “toe”
a) Total oil equivalent b) Tons of effluent
c) Tons of oil equivalent d) none of the above
36 The predicted raise in mean sea level due to global warming by the year 2100 ____
a) 1 m b) 1 cm c) 2 m d) 9 -88 cm
37 What is COP?
a) Conference of Parties b) Coefficient of Pollution
c) Coalition of Parties d) Convention of People
38 Which country emits maximum CO2?
a) Australia b) Iceland c) Norway d) USA
39 CDM stands for
a) Carbon Depletion Mechanism
b) Clean Development Mechanism
c) Clear Development Mechanism
d) Carbon Depletion Machinery
40 The first project GOI approved under prototype carbon fund is_____
a) SWERF b) NICE c) Asia-Urbs d) ICT

41 The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
42 The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish
time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time
43 Non contact flow measurements can be carried out by
a) Magnetic flow meter b) Orifice flow meter
c) Ultrasonic flow meter d) Pitot tube
44 Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor
c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
45 The energy used by any manufacturing process varies with
a) production volume b) type of process
c) resource input d) All the above
46 The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
47 In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product.
a) 100 b) 120 c) 130 d) 114.3
48 In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
49 The predicted raise in mean sea level due to global warming by the year 2100 ____
a) 1 m b) 1 cm c) 2 m d) 9 -88 cm
50 The agency to look after the climate changes and for action to cut GHG ____
a) UNFCCC b) WHO c) DOE d) GOI
Section-II: SHORT QUESTIONS Marks: 5×10 = 50

ii) Answer any TEN of the following


iii) Each question carries FIVE marks

1 What is greenhouse gas effect?


The heating up of earth’s atmosphere due to trapping of long wavelength infrared rays by the
carbon di- oxide layer in the atmosphere is called green house effect.

2 A three phase induction 75 kW motor operates at 55 kW. The measured voltage


is 415 V, current is 80 amps. Calculate the power factor of the motor?

Power consumption = 3 x V x I x Cos ǿ

(55 x 1000) = 3 x 415 x 80 x Cos ǿ

Power factor (Cos ǿ) = (55 x 1000)/( 3 x 415 x 80)


= 0.96

3 What are the few important technical feasibility parameters that one should
consider during analysis of energy conservation opportunities?
The technical feasibility should address the following issues:
• Technology availability, space, skilled manpower, reliability, service etc
• The impact of energy efficiency measure on safety, quality, production or
process.
• The maintenance requirements and spares availability

4 List any three energy loss components in chemical plant.


Energy loss components in chemical plants are:
1. Flue / exhaust gas losses (from boilers, reactors etc.)
2. Evaporation loss (from cooling tower, condenser)
3. Surface heat losses (boilers, process equipment etc.)

5 Describe briefly in three or four lines the actions which you take to bring
awareness on energy management program?
One of the most successful means of motivating employees is through “awareness”.
Inform them of
(1) the amount of energy they are using (2) the costs involved (3) the critical part that energy
plays in the continued viability of their job (4) the many ways they can save energy in their
operation (5) the relationship between production rate and energy consumption.
6 List down at least three effects of acid rain?
The effects of acid rains are as follows:
⬧ Acidification of lakes, streams and soils.
⬧ Direct and indirect affects (release of metals, for e.g. aluminium which
washes away plant nutrients
⬧ Killing of wild life.
⬧ Decay of building materials, paints, statues and sculptures.
⬧ Health problems (respiratory, burning skin and eyes)

7 Why short term payback is an inadequate yardstick for assessing longer


term benefits?
The benefits arising from some energy saving measures may continue long after
their payback periods. Such measures do not need to be written off using fast
discounting rates but can be regarded as adding to the long term value of the assets.
For this reason, short term payback is an inadequate yardstick for assessing longer
term benefits

8 What are the different types of contracts involved in project


management system.
➢ Traditional contract
➢ Extended technical guarantee/service
➢ Extended financing terms
➢ Guaranteed savings performance contract
➢ Shared savings performance contract

9 What do you understand by CUSUM?


CUSUM represents the difference between the base line (expected or “standard”
consumption) and the actual consumption data points over the base line period of
time. A CUSUM graph therefore follows a trend, which represents the random
fluctuations of energy consumption and should oscillate about zero. This trend will
continue until something happens to alter the pattern of consumption such as the
effect of an energy saving measure or, conversely, a worsening in energy efficiency
(poor control, housekeeping or maintenance).

10 Write about chemistry of ozone?


Ozone formed by combination of three oxygen atoms, is a very unstable molecule.
The combination is brought about by high intensity ultra violet rays of the sun in
the upper atmosphere.
Section-III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10×5 = 50

i) Answer any FIVE of the following


ii) Each question carries TEN marks

1 How energy pricing is done in India?


Coal: Grade wise basic price of coal at the pithead excluding statutory levies for
run-of-mine (ROM) coal are fixed by Coal India Ltd from time to time. The
pithead price of coal in India compares favourably with price of imported coal. In
spite of this, industries still import coal due to its higher calorific value and low
ash content.
Oil: As part of the energy sector reforms, the government has attempted to bring
prices for many of the petroleum products (naphtha, furnace oil, LSHS, LDO and
bitumen) in line with international prices. The most important achievement has
been the linking of diesel prices to international prices and a reduction in subsidy.
However, LPG and kerosene, consumed mainly by domestic sectors, continue to
be heavily subsidised. Subsidies and cross-subsidies have resulted in serious
distortions in prices, as they do not reflect economic costs at all in many cases.
Natural Gas: The government has been the sole authority for fixing the price of
natural gas in the country. It has also been taking decisions on the allocation of gas
to various competing consumers.
Electricity: Electricity tariffs in India are structured in a relatively simple manner.
While high tension consumers are charged based on both demand (kVA) and
energy (kWh), the low-tension (LT) consumer pays only for the energy consumed
(kWh) as per tariff system in most of the electricity boards. In addition to the base
tariffs, some of the State Electricity Boards have additional recovery from
customers in form of fuel surcharges, electricity duties and taxes.
2 Describe the merits of using steam in industries.

Steam has been a popular mode of conveying energy, since the industrial
revolution. The following characteristics of steam make it so popular and useful to
the industry:

• Highest specific heat and latent heat


• Highest heat transfer coefficient
• Easy to control and distribute
• Cheap and inert

Steam is used for generating power and also used in process industries, such as,
sugar, paper, fertilizer, refineries, petrochemicals, chemical, food, synthetic fiber
and textiles. In the process industries, the high pressure steam produced in the
boiler, is first expanded in a steam turbine for generating power. The extraction or
bleed from the turbine, which are generally at low pressure, are used for the
process. This method of producing power, by the steam generated for process in
the boiler, is called "cogeneration."

3 Discuss the procedure followed during energy and mass balance


calculation.
The energy and mass balance is a calculation procedure that basically checks if
directly or indirectly measured energy and mass flows are in agreement with the
energy and mass conservation principles
This balance is of the utmost importance and is an indispensable tool for a clear
understanding of the energy and mass situation achieved practice.
In order to use it correctly, the following procedure should be used:
• Clearly identify the problem to be studied.
• Define a boundary that encloses the entire system or sub-system to be
analysed. Entering and leaving mass and energy flows must be measured
at the boundary.
• The boundary must be chosen in such a way that:
a) All relevant flows must cross it, all non-relevant flows being
within the boundary.
b) Measurements at the boundary must be possible in an easy and
accurate manner.
• Select an appropriate test period depending on the type of process and
product.
• Carry out the measurements.
• Calculate the energy and mass flow.
• Verify an energy and mass balance. If the balances are outside acceptable
limits, then repeat the measurements.
• The energy release or use in endothermic and exothermic processes should
be taken into consideration in the energy balance.
4 An energy auditor recommended to replace an old air fan and
incompetently designed air delivery duct system causing Rs 23 lakh a
year in electricity cost by changing the system with a modern backward
curved fan with adequately designed duct system for total investment
costs of Rs 2.2 lakh. Expected electricity cost reduction is 5%.
Considering over 15 years sustained savings, calculate ‘IRR’

Life of the modified system : 15 years

Expected annual savings : 5%

: 0.05 x 2300000

Rs. 1,15,000 / year

Investment : Rs 2,20,000/-

(1 + i ) n xi
S= xI
(1 + i ) n − 1

S = annual energy savings

I = Investment

N = years

I = Internal rate of return

115000 (1 + i ) 15 xi
=
220000 (1 + i ) 15 − 1

By trial and error method, I = 52%


5 What are the several types of contracts used in project management
and explain in brief?
 Traditional Contract: All project specifications are provided to a
contractor who procures and installs equipment at cost plus a mark-
up or fixed price.
 Extended Technical Guarantee/Service: The contract offers
extended guarantees on the performance of selected equipment,
and/or offers service/maintenance agreements.
 Extended Financing Terms: The contractor provides the option of
an extended lease or other financing vehicle in which the payment
schedule can be based on the expected savings.
 Guaranteed Saving Performance Contract: All or part of
savings is guaranteed by the contractor, and all or part of the costs of
equipment and/or services is paid down out of savings as they are
achieved.
 Shared Savings Performance Contract: The contractor provides
the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they
are achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of
equipment and/or services.
Model Question Paper – 2006

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
PAPER-I: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Duration: 3 Hrs. Max. Marks: 150

Section-I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 1×50 = 50

i) Each question carries one mark


ii) Put a (√ ) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1 Which of the following is commercial energy source?


a) Electricity b) Nuclear Energy c) Hydel d) Solar
2 Which country has the largest share of the global coal reserves?
a) Russia b) China c) USA d) India
3 World oil reserves are estimated to last over
a) 45 years b) 60 years c) 200 years d) 75 years
4 The global primary energy consumption (2002) was equivalent to
a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe
5 The world average per person energy consumption is equivalent to _____tonnes of coal
a) 3 b) 2.2 c) 4.5 d) 1.0
6 The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is
a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
7 Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the
following relations.
a) 3 x V x I b) 3 x V2 x I x cos
c) 3 x V x I2 x Cos d) 3 x V x I x Cos
8 The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
9 kVA is also called as
a) reactive power b) apparent power
c) active power d) captive power
10 The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as
a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
11 “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive
positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation b) Energy management
c) Energy policy d) Energy Audit

12 The objective of energy management includes


a) Minimising energy costs b) minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation d) all the above
13 Replacement of steam based hot water generation by solar system is an example of
a) matching energy usage to the requirement
b) maximising system efficiency
c) Energy substitution
d) Performance improvement
14 The benchmarking parameter for air conditioning equipment is
a) kW/Ton of Refrigeration b) kW/ kg of refrigerant handled
c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) Differential temperature across chiller
15 Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas?
a) Combustion analyzer b) Power analyzer
c) Pyrometer d) Fyrite

16 The objective of material and energy balance is to assess the:


a) input-output b) conversion efficiency
c) losses d) all the above e) none of the above
17 In material balance of a process, recycle product is always considered as
a) input to process b) output to process c) both (a) and (b) d) none of them
18 Sankey diagram shows in graphics ___.
a) energy input b) energy output c) energy balance d) all the above
19 In a furnace, the lower the exhaust temperature ____ is the furnace efficiency.
a) lower b) moderate c) higher d) none of above
20 In a heat treatment furnace the material is heated up to 800 °C from ambient temperature
of 30 ° C considering the specific heat of material as 0.13 kCal / kg °C. What is the energy
content in one kg of material after heating?
a) 150 kCal b) 250 kCal c) 350 kCal 4) 100 kCal

21 The force field analysis in energy action planning deals with barriers having
a) Positive forces only b) negative forces only
c) Both negative and Positive forces d) no forces
22 In force field analysis of energy action-planning, one of the actions below do not fall under
positive force?
1) high price of energy 2) energy efficient technology available
3) top management commitment 4) lack of awareness
23 The support for energy management is expressed in a formal written declaration of
commitment. This is called
a) Company policy b) Management policy
c) Energy policy d) Energy efficiency policy
24 The term “Energy is a relatively high component of product cost”, which motivates plant to
take measures for energy conservation? This is a positive force in a field analysis towards
achievement of goal. State True or False?
25 “An integrated energy purchase and energy management budget should be developed as
part of the energy management action plan”. This statement holds good for the company’s
a) Safety b) Accountability c) Reliability d) Stability
26 Simple pay back period is equal to:
a) Ratio of First cost/net yearly savings b) Ratio of Annual gross cash flow/capital cost
n
CFt
c)  (1 + k )
t =0
t
d) All the above

27 Which of the following equation is used to calculate the future value of the cash flow?
a) NPV (1 – i)n b) NPV (1 + i)n
c) NPV + (1 – i)n b) NPV/ (1 + i)n
28 The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 5 lakh. The net annual cash flow is Rs 1.25 lakh. The return on investment is:
a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%

29 The broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment is __
a) NPV b) IRR
c) ROI d) Discount factor
30 The factor that reflects the risk of the project while evaluating the present value of the
expected future cash flow is ________________
a) Life of the project b) Discount rate
c) Capital cost d) All the above
31 Project financing is the first step of project management- State True or False

32 The term ‘energy services contract’ in a project comes under


a) Financing b) contracting c) monitoring d) evaluation

33 The contract in which project specifications are provided to a contractor who procures and
installs equipment at cost plus a mark-up or fixed price is called
a) Extended Financing terms b) guaranteed saving performance contract
c) shared saving performance contract d) Traditional contract

34 CPM predicts the time required to complete the project— State True or False

35 The path through the project network in which none of the activities have slack is called
a) start time b) slack time c) critical path d) delay time

36 Which of the following statements about critical path analysis (CPA) is true?
a) The critical path is the longest path through the network
b) The critical path is the shortest path through the network
c) Tasks with float will never become critical
d) The network should remain constant throughout the project
37 The network model that allows for randomness in activity completion times is called
(a) CUSUM (b) CPM (c) PERT (d) Gantt chart

38 Performance is done after implementation. State True or false


39 In project management system, Critical Path Method CPM) allows for randomness activity
completion time deterministic method while Programme Evaluation Review Technique
(PERT) uses fixed time estimate for each activity. State True or False.
40 Which of the following does not belongs to project planning technique?
a) CPM b) PERT
c) Gantt chart d) IRR (internal rate of return)
41 Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”.

a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption”

b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate”


c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure”

d) None of the above.


42 Which of the variable does not contribute to energy consumption?

a) Production b) Hours c) Climate d) none of the above


43 Level of production may have an effect on specific energy consumption. State True or False
44 The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy
consumed for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly
related to production; X= production for same period).

a) X=Y+MC b) Y=Mx+C c) M=Cx+Y d) None of above


45 1 kg LPG = _____ kcal.

a) 12,000 kcal b) 8000 kCal c) 6000 kCal d) 4000 kCal


46 The spread of the ‘Stratosphere’ above the Earth’s surface is______
a) Below 15 km b) 10 to 50 km c) above 50 km d) above 100 km
47 The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as an efficient filter for ____
a) Solar UV- B rays b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) UV-A
rays
48 The compounds that can easily break ozone molecules are______
a) Chlorine b) Bromine c) Both a & b d) None
49 The main source of CFCs in household sector is___________
a) Televisions b) Refrigerators c) Washing machines d) All
50 Global warming is due to release of
a) SO2 b) greenhouse Gases c) inert gases d) free chlorine
Section-II: SHORT QUESTIONS Marks: 5×10 = 50

i) Answer any TEN of the following


ii) Each question carries FIVE marks
iii) Each answer should not exceed more than 8 lines ( ½ page)

1 Classify the types of the energy available on the earth?


Energy can be classified into several types based on the following criteria as:
• Primary and Secondary energy
• Commercial and Non commercial energy
• Renewable and Non-Renewable energy

2 A 250 W sodium vapor lamp is installed on a street. The supply voltage for a
street light is 230 V and it operates for around 12 hours in a day. Considering
the current of 2 amps and power factor 0.85 calculate the energy
consumption per day
Energy consumption = V x I x Cos ǿ x no. of hours
= 230 x 2 x 0.85 x 12
= 4692 watts or 4.692 kW

3 What are the few comparative factors need to be looked in to for external
benchmarking used for inter-unit comparison and group of similar units?
Few comparative factors, which need to be looked into while benchmarking externally
are:
• Scale of operation
• Vintage of technology
• Raw material specifications and quality
• Product specifications and quality

4 What is the purpose of material and energy balance?


The basic purpose of material and energy balance is
• to quantify all the material, energy and waste streams in a process or a system.
• to find out the difference between calculated/designed values and measured/actual
values thereby making it possible to identify previously unknown losses and
emissions.

5 What are the vital elements for a successful energy management


programme?
The four vital elements for a successful energy management program are:
⬧ Top management support
⬧ Well charted strategy plan
⬧ An effective monitoring system, and
⬧ Adequate technical ability for analysing and implementing energy saving options

6 Why organizations hesitant to invest money on energy conservation


projects?
i. Organization typically gives priority to investing in what they see as their core or
profit-making activities in preference to energy efficiency
ii. Even when they do invest in saving energy, they tend to demand faster rates of
return than they require from other kinds of investment.

7 Briefly explain shared saving performance contract.


Shared Savings Performance Contract is the contractor, which provides the financing and
is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings as they are achieved. This payment is used to
pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.

8 Why CUSUM technique is most useful?

CUSUM technique is a simple but remarkably powerful statistical method which


highlights small differences in energy efficiency performances. Regular use of the
procedure allows energy manger to follow his plant performance and to spot any trends
at an early date.

9 Write the importance of ozone layer?


The ozone layer is highly beneficial to plant and animal life on earth filtering out the
dangerous part of sun’s radiation and allowing only the beneficial part of reach earth.
Any disturbance or depletion of this layer would result in an increase of harmful
radiation reaching the earth’s surface leading to dangerous consequences.

10 How do you relate plant maintenance to achieve energy efficiency in a plant?


There is a clear dependence relationship between energy efficiency and maintenance.
This operates at two levels:
❖ Initially, improving energy efficiency is most cost-effectively done in existing
facilities through normal maintenance procedures
❖ Subsequently, unless maintenance is regularly undertaken, savings from installed
technical measure, whether in new-build or existing facilities, may not be realized.
Section-III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10×5 = 50

i) Answer any FIVE of the following


ii) Each question carries TEN marks
iii) Each answer should not exceed more than 20 lines ( 1 page)

1 List the strategies for better energy security of the nation?


Some of the strategies that can be used to meet future challenges to Nation’s energy
security are:
• Building stockpiles
• Diversification of energy supply sources
• Increased capacity of fuel switching
• Demand restraint
• Development of renewable energy sources
• Energy efficiency
• Sustainable development

2 What is heat transfer? Briefly explain three primary modes of heat


transfer.
The rate of energy transfer is called heat transfer.
Heat is transferred by three primary modes:
o Conduction (Energy transfer in a solid)
o Convection (Energy transfer in a fluid)
o Radiation (Does not need a material to travel through)
Conduction
The conduction of heat takes places, when two bodies are in contact with one another.
If one body is at a higher temperature than the other, the motion of the molecules in
the hotter body will agitate the molecules at the point of contact in the cooler body and
consequently result in increase in temperature.
Convection
The transfer of heat by convection involves the movement of a fluid such as a gas or
liquid from the hot to the cold portion.
Thermal Radiation
Thermal radiation is a process in which energy is transferred by electromagnetic
waves similar to light waves. These waves may be both visible (light) and invisible.
3 Give a typical energy audit reporting format.
After successfully carried out energy audit energy manager/energy auditor should
report to the top management for effective communication and implementation. A
typical energy audit reporting contents and format are given below. The following
format is applicable for most of the industries. However the format can be suitably
modified for specific requirement applicable for a particular type of industry.
⬧ Acknowledgement
⬧ Executive summary - Energy audit options at a glance and recommendations
⬧ Introduction about the plant
⬧ Production process description
⬧ Energy and utility system description
- List of utilities
- Brief description of each utility
⬧ Detailed process flow diagram and energy and material balance
⬧ Energy efficiency in utility and process systems
⬧ Energy conservation options and recommendations
- List of options in terms of no cost / low cost, medium cost, and high investment
cost, annual energy and cost savings, and pay back
- Implementation plan for energy saving measures / projects
⬧ Annexures

4 Explain in brief the “position of energy manager” and “Energy committee”


in an organisation? In your own words, explain what do you expect as
support from top management?

The energy management function, whether vested in one “energy manager or


coordinator” or distributed among a number of middle managers, usually resides
somewhere in the organization between senior management and those who control
the end-use of energy. Exactly how and where that function is placed is a decision that
needs to be made in view of the existing organisational structure.
Because energy concerns different departments within a firm, an effective energy
management programme must involve a number of people. In many companies, a
committee is formed to include representatives of important departments.
It can encourage communications and the sharing of ideas amongst various
departments throughout the company. It can serve to obtain agreements on energy
conservation projects, which affect more than one department. It can provide a
stronger voice to the top management than a single manager normally could. The
composition of the energy committee will vary from one company to another,
depending on the existing management structure, the type and quantity of energy
used and other company-specific factors.
One of the roles of the top management is to publish a formal statement of its energy
policy, which can be used to define company activities in energy matters for its
employees.
Further, top managements must,
• Involve in all energy committee meetings.
• Empower those given with responsibility for implementing the energy management
programme.
• Ensure resources of manpower, budgets etc.
• Encourage discussion on energy in Staff/employee meetings

5 Explain the limitations with ‘Simple Payback Period’ technique with an


example.

The limitations are:

• It fails to consider the time value of money. Cash inflows, in the payback
calculation, are simply added without suitable discounting. This violates
the most basic principle of financial analysis, which stipulates that cash
flows occurring at different points of time can be added or subtracted only
after suitable compounding/discounting.

• It ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. This leads to


discrimination against projects that generate substantial cash inflows in
later years.

To illustrate, consider the cash flows of two projects, A and B:

Investment Rs. (100,000) Rs.(100,000)


Savings in Year Cash Flow of A Cash flow of B
1 50,000 20,000
2 30,000 20,000
3 20,000 20,000
4 10,000 40,000
5 10,000 50,000
6 - 60,000

The payback criterion prefers A, which has a payback period of 3 years, in comparison
to B, which has a payback period of 4 years, even though B has very substantial cash
inflows in years 5 and 6.

• It is a measure of a project’s capital recovery, not profitability.

• Despite its limitations, the simple payback period has advantages in that it
may be useful for evaluating an investment.
Paper 1 – Set A

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2005


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
Question Papers & Model solutions to the Question Papers
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 28.05.2005 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. Primary energy sources are,

a) electricity b) converted into secondary energy sources


c) used in diesel generator sets d) LPG, petrol & diesel
2. Eighty percent of the worlds’ population lives in developing countries and consumes
approximately ……… of the world’s total energy consumption

a) 80 % b) 60 % c) 40 % d) 20 %
3. Energy consumption per unit GDP is called

a) energy ratio b) energy intensity c) per capita consumption d) all of the above
4. Identify the wrong statement for a measure to reduce energy costs in a furnace by
substitution of a fuel.

a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency.


b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency.
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs.
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption.
5. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not require designated consumers to

a) appoint/designate certified energy manager


b) conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) comply with energy consumption norms & standards
d) invest in all energy conservation measures

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

6. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 includes

a) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy


b) submission of technical report with recommendations
c) action plan to reduce energy consumption d) all of the above
7. An example of stored mechanical energy is

a) water in a reservoir b) an arrow in a stretched bow


c) an air-borne aeroplane d) you on top of a mountain
8. Mega Volt Ampere (MVA) in a three phase electrical circuit could be written as

a) Voltage x Ampere b) Voltage x Ampere


1000 1,000,000
c) Voltage x Ampere x1,000 d) none of the above
9. When the current lags the voltage in an alternating current system, it is caused
mainly due to

a) resistive load b) capacitive load c) inductive load d) none of the above


10. The phase change from solid state to a liquid state is called

a) fission b) enthalpy c) latent heat d) fusion


11. The “superheat” of steam is expressed in a technical report as

a) degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature


b) critical temperature of the steam
c) the temperature of the steam d) none of the above
12. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in

a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per Second d) none of the above.


13. The electrical power unit GigaWatt (GW) may be written as

a) 1,000,000,000 MW b) 1,000 x MW c) 1,000 x kW d) 1,000,000 x W


14. CO2 measurement with a Fyrite kit is based on

a) weight basis (dry) b) volume basis (dry)


c) weight basis (wet) d) volume basis (wet)
15. A good coal has a Gross Calorific Value of 26,000 MJ/ton. Expressed in kCal/kg the
Gross Calorific Value is

a) 621000 b) 62100 c) 6210 d) 621


16. The annual energy consumption of a plant in the reference year 2003/2004 was
1 Lakh GJ. In the next year 2004/2005 it was 1.1 Lakh GJ. The plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity in ____

a) –10% b) 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above


17. An oil fired furnace is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 72%. How much more, or less energy, in percent is spent to
generate same amount of steam.

a) 10% more b) 12.2% more c) 13.9% less d) 13.9% more

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

18. Portable combustion analyzers may have built in chemical cells for measurement of
stack gas components. Which combination of chemical cells is not possible?

a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2 ,O2 c) O2, NOx, SOx, CO d) O2 ,CO

19. Non contact flow measurement can be carried out by

a) orifice meter b) turbine flow meter


c) ultrasonic flow meter d) magnetic flow meter
20. Two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used in a chemical process. If
conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then the weight of the
product formed is ____

a) 150 kg b) 200 kg c) 250 kg d) 400 kg


21. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted by

a) Energy Manager b) Accredited energy auditor


c) Certified Energy Auditor d) Designated agencies
22. Which energy source is indirect in an overall energy balance in the generation of
electricity by a photovoltaic cell?

a) commercial energy b) wave energy c) sun light d) none of the above


23. In the material balance of a process which compound will not be considered on the
input side

a) chemicals b) air and water c) recycled product d) by-product


24. Which process emits the most CO2 per ton of coal burned

a) cogeneration b) power generation c) cement manufacture d) coal gasification


25. Which task is not considered as a duty of an energy manager

a) prepare an annual activity plan b) establish an improved data recording system


c) conduct mandatory energy audit d) prepare information material
26. Fill in the missing word. An energy policy provides the __________ for setting
performance goal and integrating energy management into an organization’s culture.

a) budget b) delivery mechanism c) action plan d) foundation


27. Which one is not a step in energy action planning

a) make commitments b) implement action plan


c) set goals d) report results to designated agency of the state
28. PERT/ CPM provides the following benefits

a) graphical view of the project


b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) predicts the time required to complete the project d) all the above
29. What does normalization of data mean?

a) comparing data with respect to performance of a specific year


b) removing the impact of various factors on data
c) indexing performance of process data d) benchmarking performance

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

30. Benchmarking helps to

a) track performance change over time b) compare with best/average performance


c) both a & b d) none of the above
31. One of the basic indicators of financial investment appraisal is

a) risk assessment b) trending of fuel costs


c) interest rate d) simple payback
32. What does the concept of time value of money imply

a) present value of money b) future value of money


c) discounting of cash flows d) all of the above
33. Return on Investment (ROI) as a fraction means

a) initial investment / annual return b) annual cost / cost of capital


c) annual net cash flow / capital cost d) none of the above.
34. The net present value (NPV) is

a) equal to the sum of the present values of all cash flows


b) equal to the sum of returns
c) equal to the sum of all cash flows d) none of the above
35. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR), of an investment is calculated by

a) selecting a discount rate so that NPV = 0


b) equating total discounted costs with total discounted benefits
c) making sure the benefit / cost ratio equals unity d) all of the above
36. Which one is not a macro factor in a sensitivity analysis?

a) change in interest rates b) technology changes


c) cost of debt d) change in tax rates
37. Which service is normally not part of an ESCO contract?

a) financing of measures b) engineering analysis and design


c) project development and supervision d) obtaining operation permits
38. In Project Management, what does the 80/20 Rule say?

a) 20% is trivial and 80% is vital work


b) 20% of work consumes 80% of time and resources
c) the first 20% of work consumes 80% of your time and resources
d) none of the above.
39. Which subject is not so important in the screening of projects in a need identification

a) cost-effectiveness b) availability of technology


c) sustainability of the savings d) implementation period
40. A firm switches from a low ash and low moisture fuel to a less expensive high ash
and high moisture fuel by retrofitting a furnace. The most likely impact of the
measure is

a) saves fuel cost and reduces energy consumption


b) saves fuel cost but increases energy consumption
c) increases fuel costs and energy consumption d) none of the above.

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

41. Critical path in a CPM network diagram

a) is the longest path in a network


b) is the shortest path in a network
c) where all activities of long duration fall
d) none of the above.
42. PERT stands for _____

a) Project Evaluation Research Technique


b) Programme Evaluation & Review Technique
c) Power & Energy Reforms Techniques
d) none of the above
43. Drawing a Gantt chart does not require

a) to know cost of the activities b) duration of activity


c) to know beginning of the activities d) to know the interdependency of the tasks
44. Pie chart of the fuel mix on energy consumption represents

a) percentage share of fuels based on costs


b) percentage share of fuels based on energy bill
c) percentage share of fuels based on volume content
d) percentage share of fuels based on common unit of energy
45. In an CUSUM chart, if the graph is horizontal for two consecutive periods then

a) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same


b) actual energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is the same
d) each one of the above may be true
46. In an industry the electricity consumed for a period is 1,00,000 kWh. The production
in this period is 10,000 tons with a variable energy consumption of 7 kWh/ton. The
fixed kWh consumption of the plant is

a) 30000 b) 23000 c) 7000 d) 10000


47. Which is a greenhouse gas

a) Sulfur Dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Nitrous Oxide d) none of the above


48. Which country was the latest to recently ratify the Kyoto Protocol

a) USA b) Australia c) Russia d) Germany


49. One of the flexible instrument as stated in the Kyoto Protocol is

a) CO2 adaptation b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)


c) CO2 sequestration mechanism d) none of the above
50. Methane traps about ____ times more heat than Carbon Dioxide

a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28

-------- End of Section - I ---------

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 (i) State two obvious measures, which may reduce the ratio of energy
consumption to gross domestic product (GDP) in the Indian economy.
(ii) What is roughly the ratio under present conditions?

(i) All energy efficiency measures and all national programmes to


promote low energy-intensive sectors of the Indian economy will
obviously lower energy intensity.
(ii) The present ratio is cited as 1.5, based on Book 1. Any answer
between 0.7 and 1.5 should be seen as correct.

S-2 Define Dew Point.

It is the temperature at which condensation of water vapour from the air


begins, as the temperature of the air-water vapour mixture falls.

S-3 State the key elements of an energy audit as defined in the Energy
Conservation Act 2001.

There are six key elements mentioned in the original text of the Act.

“Energy audit” means the (i) verification, (ii) monitoring and analysis of
use of energy, including (iii) submission of technical report, (iv)
containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with, (v)
cost benefit analysis and an, (vi) action plan to reduce energy
consumption.

S-4 During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was
200,000 m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was a little bit
higher at 210,000 m3 per hour. Dust load at the inlet was 6 gram/ m3 , and at
the outlet 0.1 gram/ m3 . How much dust in kg/hour was collected in the bag
filter bin?

Dust (gas in ) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)


200,000 x 6 = 210,000 x 0.1 + x and it follows

x = 1,179,000 gram/hour = 1,179 kg/hour.

S-5 List 5 positive forces of a force field analysis in support of the goal: “Reduce
energy consumption per unit production”.

(i) high price of energy


(ii) energy efficient technology available
(iii) top management commitment to energy conservation
(iv) energy is high component of product cost
(v) incentives for energy conservation available

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

S-6 Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.

(i) The internal rate of return is the discount rate, d, at which the Net
Present Value, NPV, becomes zero.

(ii) or NPV = C0 + C1 + …. Cn = 0
(1+d)0 (1+d)1 (1 + d)n
with Ci = Cash flow occurring in the year i,
n = life of project in years;
d = discount rate as a fraction and not in %

S-7 List 5 steps in a PERT planning process

(i) identify specific activities and milestones.


(ii) determine the proper sequence of the activities
(iii) construct a network diagram.
(iv) estimate the time required for each activity.
(v) determine the critical path
(vi) update the PERT chart as the project progresses.

S-8 A company consumes 1.3 x 105 kWh of electricity and 11.18 x 107 kCal of
furnace oil per month. Draw the pie chart of percentage share of fuels based
on consumption in kCal. (1 kWh = 860 kcal)

The pie chart is split in half (50% oil and 50% electricity) because 1 kWh
= 860 kCal and therefore 130,000 x 860 = 11.18 x 107 kCal

S-9 The company “Save Electricity the Smart Way” sells a gadget that lowers
voltage of your electric water storage heater by 20% and saves electricity by
20%. The heater is rated 2 kW at 230 V. Do you agree with the claim of the
company? Support your opinion.

The answer is “No electricity is saved.” (ii) There are no calculations


necessary. The given information about the water is not needed. Due to
the lower voltage the kW load will go down. Therefore the process to
heat the water will take longer based on the energy balance. Since the
gadget to lower the voltage consumes itself electricity the electricity
consumption in fact goes slightly up on paper.

S-10 (i) Why is the Ozone layer important to plant, animal and human life on earth?
(ii) which substances are destroying it, and
(iii) by which process?

(i) Ozone (O3) is a filter for harmful Ultra Violet -B rays.


(ii) Chlorine and bromine compounds, such as CFC’s, and HCFC’s
are destroying Ozone.
(iii) Ozone is highly reactive and can be easily broken down. If UV rays
hit CFC’s and HCFC’s the chlorine (Cl) atom is separated from the
carbon atom and this Cl atom reacts with Ozone, breaking it apart.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 The following table shows the import bill of fossil fuels in million metric tonnes
(MMT) and its cost in Crores Rupees over the last eight years.
(i) calculate the average annual percentage increase of fossil fuel imports
(ii) calculate the average annual percentage increase of the import bill
(iii) calculate the average costs for the last eight years, in Rs. Per metric
ton of imported fossil fuels.

Import bill of fossil fuels


Year Quantity (MMT) Value (Rs.Crore)
1996-97 33.90 18,337
1997-98 34.49 15,872
1998-99 39.81 19,907
1999-00 57.80 40,028
2000-01 74.10 65,932
2001-02 84.90 80,116
2002-03 90.00 85,042
2003-04 95.00 93,159

There are seven years to consider

(i) 95 / 33.90 = 2.80236 folded increase over 7 years. It follows to solve the
equation (1. x)7 = 2.80236 by introducing the exponent 1/7 of each side
we get 1.x = 2.802361/7 or 1.x = 1.15859 or 15.86%. By trial and error one
should get close to the result as well. Any number between 15.5% and
16% should count as correct

(ii) 93,159 / 18,337 = 5.0804 folded increase over 7 year. Similar to (i) it
follows 26.14%. Any answer between 26.0% and 26.3% should count as
correct.

(iii) The sum of all imports is 510 Million metric tons over this time period.
The value is Rs 418,393 Crore. Consequently average costs are
calculated as (418,393 x 10,000,000)/510,000,000 = 8,203.78 Rs per metric
ton.

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

L-2 An energy manager or energy auditor is trying to establish the power factor of
a 15 HP induction motor. The instrument to measure electric parameters
displays the three numbers 5 kW and 2 kVAr and PF = 92.8%. Do you fully
agree with the instrument display and its correctness?

Rectangular triangle and Pythagoras yields (kVA) 2 = (kW)2 + (kVAr)2 .


Furthermore PF = kW/kVA, and consequently
kVA =(kVAr)2 + (kW)2 =(2)2 + (5)2 = 5.38516 and PF = 5/5.38516 = 0.928

This calculation agrees with the display of 92.8%.

However it is unlikely that a 10 kW motor operating at 50% load will ever


achieve PF = 0.928. Consequently something is suspicious with the
instrument. Therefore the answer is NO, because it is also unlikely that a
15 HP induction motor is compensated in such a way that this power
factor is achieved at 50% load.

L-3 Fuel substitution from a high cost fuel to a low cost fuel in boilers is common to
reduce energy bill. For the following situations calculate:

(i) annual reduction in energy costs in Crore Rs.


(ii) annual change in energy consumption in %. (Calorific value of fuels not
required for calculations)

Before substitution:

Steam output = 6 tons/hour


Fuel consumption = 1 ton oil per 13 tons of steam.
Operating hours = 6400 / Year
Fuel costs = Rs.13,000 /ton of oil
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average)= 82%

After Substitution:

Steam output = 6 tons/hour


Fuel consumption = 3 tons of waste wood per 13 tons of steam
Fuel costs = Rs.2,000 / ton of waste wood
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average) = 74%

Oil consumption before substitution was 6 x 6400/13 = 2,953.85 tons/y.


The annual oil costs were 2,953.85 x 13,000= 38,400,050 = Rs 3.84 Crore

Wood consumption after substitution is 6 x 6400x 3/13 =8,861.54 tons/y


The annual waste wood costs are 8,861.54 x 2,000 = 1.77 Crore Rs.
(i) The annual reduction in fuel costs is Rs 2.07 Crore.

(ii) More energy is used because the boiler efficiency drops


the change is 100 x (74-82)/74 = 10.8% more energy

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

L-4 A company invests Rs.10 lakhs and completes an energy efficiency project at
the beginning of year 1. The firm is investing its own money and expects an
internal rate of return, IRR, of at least 26% on constant positive annual net
cash flow of Rs.2 lakhs, over a period of 10 years, starting with year 1.

(i) Will the project meet the firm’s expectations?


(ii) What is the IRR of this measure?

Solution
(i) Use the NPV formula with d = 0.26 and check to what extent NPV > 0
at n = 10 years.

NPV = -1,000,000 + 200,000 + 200,000 + ……200,000 =


1.261 (1.26)2 (1.26)10

= - 1,000,000 + 158,730 + 125,976 + 99,981 + 79,350 + 62,976 + 49,981 + 39,668 +


31,482 + 24,986 + 19,830 = MINUS 307,040

Since NPV is negative at 26%, project will not meet the firm’s expectations,
because this means that the factor of 1.26 must be selected smaller in order to
have NPV = 0 (7 marks)

(ii) The IRR is 15.1%. Any result between 14.5 and 15.5 is valid

L-5 (i) Construct a CPM diagram for the data given below
(ii) Identify the critical path. Also compute the earliest start, earliest finish,
latest start & latest finish of all activities

Activity Precedent Time, weeks


A Start 3
B A 4
C A 1
D C 3
E Start 2
F B 2
Finish D, E, F --

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set A

Solution

(i)
3
B
4 F
A 2
1 2 C
3 4
1
D
3
E
2

ii) critical Path

A B F

3 4 2
1 2 3 5

Total time on critical path: 9 weeks

Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)

S.no Activity Duration ES EF LS LF


1 A 3 0 3 0 3
2 B 4 3 7 3 7
3 C 1 3 4 5 6
4 D 3 4 7 6 9
5 E 2 0 2 7 9
6 F 2 7 9 7 9

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2005


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS
Question Papers & Model solutions to the Question Papers
PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 28.05.2005 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. Methane traps about ____ times more heat than Carbon Dioxide

a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28
2. One of the flexible instrument as stated in the Kyoto Protocol is

a) CO2 adaptation b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)


c) CO2 sequestration mechanism d) none of the above
3. Which country was the latest to recently ratify the Kyoto Protocol

a) USA b) Australia c) Russia d) Germany


4. Which is a greenhouse gas

a) Sulfur Dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Nitrous Oxide d) none of the above


5. In an industry the electricity consumed for a period is 1,00,000 kWh. The production
in this period is 10,000 tons with a variable energy consumption of 7 kWh/ton. The
fixed kwh consumption of the plant is

a) 30000 b) 23000 c) 7000 d) 10000


6. In an CUSUM chart, if the graph is horizontal for two consecutive period then

a) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same


b) actual energy consumption is reduced
c) specific energy consumption is the same
d) each one of the above may be true

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

7. Pie chart of a fuel mix on energy consumption represents

a) percentage share of fuels based on costs


b) percentage share of fuels based on energy bill
c) percentage share of fuels based on volume content
d) percentage share of fuels based on common unit of energy
8. Drawing a Gantt chart does not require

a) to know cost of the activities b) duration of activity


c) to know beginning of the activities d) to know the interdependency of the tasks
9. Critical path in a CPM network diagram

a) is the longest path in a network


b) is the shortest path in a network
c) where all activities of long duration fall
d) none of the above.
10. PERT stands for _____

a) Project Evaluation Research Technique


b) Programme Evaluation & Review Technique
c) Power & Energy Reforms Techniques
d) none of the above
11. Benchmarking helps to

a) track performance change over time b) compare with best/average performance


c) both a & b d) none of the above
12. One of the basic indicators of financial investment appraisal is

a) risk assessment b) trending of fuel costs


c) interest rate d) simple payback
13. What does the concept of time value of money imply

a) present value of money b) future value of money


c) discounting of cash flows d) all of the above
14. Return on Investment (ROI) as a fraction means

a) annual return / initial investment b) annual cost / cost of capital


c) annual net cash flow / capital cost d) none of the above.
15. The net present value (NPV) is

a) equal to the sum of the present values of all cash flows


b) equal to the sum of returns
c) equal to the sum of all cash flows d) none of the above
16. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR), of an investment is calculated by

a) selecting a discount rate so that NPV = 0


b) equating total discounted costs with total discounted benefits
c) making sure the benefit / cost ratio equals unity d) all of the above

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

17. Which one is not a macro factor in a sensitivity analysis?

a) change in interest rates b) technology changes


c) cost of debt d) change in tax rates
18. Which service is normally not part of an ESCO contract?

a) financing of measures b) engineering analysis and design


c) project development and supervision d) obtaining operation permits
19. In Project Management, what does the 80/20 Rule say?

a) 20% is trivial and 80% is vital work


b) 20% of work consumes 80% of time and resources
c) the first 20% of work consumes 80% of your time and resources
d) none of the above.
20. Which subject is not so important in the screening of projects in a need identification

a) cost-effectiveness b) availability of technology


c) sustainability of the savings d) implementation period
21. A firm switches from a low ash and low moisture fuel to a less expensive high ash
and high moisture fuel by retrofitting a furnace. The most likely impact of the
measure is

a) saves fuel cost and reduces energy consumption


b) saves fuel cost but increases energy consumption
c) increases fuel costs and energy consumption
d) none of the above.
22. The “superheat” of steam is expressed in a technical report as

a) degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature


b) critical temperature of the steam
c) the temperature of the steam d) none of the above
23. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in

a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per Second d) none of the above.


24. The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as

a) 1,000,000,000 MW b) 1,000 x MW c) 1,000 x kW d) 1,000,000 x W


25. CO2 measurement with a Fyrite kit is based on

a) weight basis (dry) b) volume basis (dry)


c) weight basis (wet) d) volume basis (wet)
26. A good coal has a Gross Calorific Value of 26,000 MJ/ton. Expressed in kCal/kg the
Gross Calorific Value is

a) 621000 b) 62100 c) 6210 d) 621


27. The annual energy consumption of a plant in the reference year 2003/2004 was 1
Lakh GJ. In the next year 2004/2005 it was 1.1 Lakh GJ. Calculate the plant energy
performance (PEP), assuming no change in product mix and output quantity.

a) –10% b) 10% c) –9.1% d) none of the above

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

28. An oil-fired furnace is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 72%. How much more, or less energy, in percent is spent to
generate same amount of steam.

a) 10% more b) 12.2% more c) 13.9% less d) 13.9% more


29. Portable combustion analyzers may have built in chemical cells for measurement of
stack gas components. Which combination of chemical cells is not possible?

a) CO, SOx, O2 b) CO2 ,O2 c) O2, NOx, SOx, CO d) O2 ,CO

30 Non contact flow measurement can be carried out by

a) orifice meter b) turbine flow meter


c) ultrasonic flow meter d) magnetic flow meter
31. Two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used in a chemical process as
reactants. If conversion is 50% and A and B reacts in equal proportion then calculate
the weight of the product formed.

a) 150 kg b) 200 kg c) 250 kg d) 400 kg


32. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted by

a) Energy Manager b) Accredited energy auditor


c) Certified Energy Auditor d) Designated agencies
33. Which energy source is indirect in an overall energy balance in the generation of
electricity by a photovoltaic cell?

a) commercial energy b) wave energy c) sun light d) none of the above


34. In the material balance of a process which compound will not be considered on the
input side

a) chemicals b) air and water c) recycled product d) by-product


35. Which process emits the most CO2 per ton of coal burned

a) cogeneration b) power generation c) cement manufacturing d) coal gasification


36. Which task is not considered a major duty of an energy manager

a) prepare an annual activity plan b) establish an improved data recording system


c) conduct mandatory energy audit d) prepare information material
37. Fill in the missing word. An energy policy provides the __________ for setting
performance goal and integrating energy management into an organization’s culture.

a) budget b) delivery mechanism c) action plan d) foundation


38. Which one is not a step in energy action planning

a) make commitment b) implement action plan


c) set goals d) report result to designated agency
39. PERT/ CPM provides the following benefits

a) graphical view of the project


b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) predicts the time required to complete the project d) all the above

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

40. What does normalization of data mean?

a) comparing data with respect to performance of a specific year


b) removing the impact of various factors on data
c) indexing performance of process on data d) benchmarking performance
41. Primary energy sources are,

a) electricity b) converted into secondary energy sources


c) used in diesel generator sets d) LPG, petrol & diesel
42. Eighty percent of the worlds’ population lives in developing countries and consumes
approximately …….. of the world’s total energy consumption

a) 80 % b) 60 % c) 40 % d) 20 %
43. Energy consumption per unit of GDP is called

a) energy ratio b) energy intensity c) per capita consumption d) all of the above
44. Identify the wrong statement for a measure to reduce energy costs in a furnace by
substitution of a fuel.

a) fuel switching may improve energy efficiency


b) fuel switching may reduce energy efficiency.
c) fuel switching may reduce energy costs.
d) fuel switching always reduces energy consumption.
45. The Energy Conservation Act 2001 does not require all notified designated
consumers to

a) appoint/designate certified energy manager


b) conduct an energy audit through an accredited energy auditor
c) comply with energy consumption norms & standards
d) invest in all energy conservation measures
46. An energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act 2001 includes

a) verification, monitoring and analysis of use of energy


b) submission of technical report with recommendations
c) action plan to reduce energy consumption d) all of the above
47. An example of stored mechanical energy is

a) water in a reservoir b) an arrow in a stretched bow


c) an air-borne aeroplane d) you on top of a mountain

48. Mega Volt Ampere (MVA) in a three phase electrical circuit could be written as

a) Voltage x Ampere b) Voltage x Ampere


1000 1,000,000
c) Voltage x Ampere x1,000 d) none of the above
49. When the current lags the voltage in an alternating current system, it is mainly due to

a) resistive load b) capacitive load c) inductive load d) none of the above


50. The phase change from solid state to a liquid state is called

a) fission b) enthalpy c) latent heat d) fusion

-------- End of Section - I ---------

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 List 5 negative forces of a force field analysis, which are a barrier to the
objective “reduce energy consumption per unit production”

(i) Low price of energy


(ii) Technology not available
(iii) Top management not committed
(iv) Energy is low component of product cost
(v) No incentives for energy conservation available
(vi) Firm makes enough profit
(vii) Lack of awareness throughout company
(viii) Absence of corporate energy policy
(ix) Insufficient financial resources to find measure.

S-2 Define Latent Heat

It is the (i) change in (ii) heat (energy) content of a substance, when its
(iii) physical state is changed (iv) without change in (v) temperature.

S-3 Distinguish between Gross Colorific Value (GCV) and Net Calorific Value
(NCV) of a fuel.

The difference between GCV and NCV is the (i) heat of vaporization of the
water that is either (ii) physically present in the fuel as moisture or (iii)
formed from the Hydrogen in the fuel during the combustion process.
(iv) NCV does not account for the heat of vaporization and is therefore
always smaller than GCV if a fuel contains hydrogen or moisture.

S-4 During an air pollution monitoring study, the inlet gas stream to a bag filter was
100,000 m3 per hour. The outlet gas stream from the bag filter was a little bit
higher at 120,000 m3 per hour. Dust load at the inlet was 5 gram/ m3 , and at
the outlet 0.2 gram/ m3 . How much dust was in kg/hour was collected in the
bag filter bin?

Dust (gas in ) = dust (in gas out) + dust (in bin)


100,000 x 5 = 120,000 x 0.2 + x and it follows

x = 476,000 gram/hour = 476 kg/hour.

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

S-5 (i) State two obvious measures which may reduce the ratio of energy
consumption to gross domestic product (GDP) in the Indian economy.
(ii) What is roughly the ratio under present conditions?

(i) All energy efficiency measures and all national programmes to


promote less energy-intensive sectors of the Indian economy will
obviously lower energy intensity.
(ii) The present ratio is 1.5 based on Book 1 and any answer between 0.7
and 1.5 should be seen as correct.

S-6 List 5 sources of greenhouse gases which are either naturally occurring or are
caused by human activities.

(i) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide), (ii) CH4 (Methane), (iii) NOx (Nitrous Oxides),
(iv) H2 O(g) (Water in vapor form), (v) HFCs (Hydro Fluor Carbons),
(vii) SF6 (Sulfur Hexafluoride), (viii) PFCs (Pero Fluoro Carbons)

(OR)

Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, agriculture, industry, transport.

S-7 The company “Save Electricity the Smart Way” sells you a gadget that lowers
voltage of your electric water storage heater by 10% and saves electricity by
10%. The heater is rated at 2 kW at 230 V. Do you agree with the claim of
the company? Support your opinion.

The answer is “No electricity is saved.” There are no calculations


necessary. The given information about the water is not needed. Due to
the lower voltage the kW load will go down. Therefore the process to
heat the water will take longer based on the energy balance. Since the
gadget to lower the voltage consumes itself electricity the electricity
consumption in fact goes slightly up on paper.

S-8 A company consumes 5,000 tons of furnace oil per year (GCV =10,200
kCal/kg), as well as 29,651 MWh of electricity per year. Draw the pie-chart of
percentage share of fuels based on consumption in kCal (1kWh = 860 kcal)

5,000 tonnes x 10,200 kCal x1000 = 5.10 x 1010 kCal


29,651 MWh = 29,651,000 kWh
= 29,651,000 x 860 kCal
= 2.55 x 1010 kCal

Total consumption 5.10 + 2.55 = 7.65 x 1010 of which 2/3 (66.7%) is oil and
1/3 (33.3%) is electricity.

66.7% oil

33.3%

Electricity

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

S-9 Define the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) and write it’s equation.

(i) The Internal Rate of Return is the discount rate d at which the net
present value NPV becomes zero.

(ii) or, NPV = C0 + C1 + …. Cn =0


(1+d)0 (1+d)1 (1 + d)n

with Ci = Cash flow occurring in the year i,


n = life of project in years;
d = discount rate as a fraction and not in %

S-10 State the key elements of an energy audit as defined in the Energy
Conservation Act 2001.

There are six key elements mentioned in the original text of the Act.

“Energy audit” means the (i) verification, (ii) monitoring and analysis of
use of energy, including (iii) submission of technical report, (iv)
containing recommendations for improving energy efficiency with, (v)
cost benefit analysis and an, (vi) action plan to reduce energy
consumption.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 An energy auditor or an energy manager is trying to establish the power factor
of a 7.5 HP induction motor. The instrument to measure electric parameters
displays the three numbers 2.5 kW and 1 kVAr and PF = 92.9%. Do you fully
agree with the instrument display and its correctness?

Right angle triangle and Pythagoras yields (kVA)2 = (kW)2 + (kVAr)2.


Furthermore PF = kW/kVA, and consequently
kVA =(kVAr)2 + (kW)2 =(1)2 + (2.5)2 = 2.69 and PF = 2.5/2.69 = 0.928

This calculation agrees with the display of 92.9%

However it is unlikely that a 5.5 kW motor operating at 50% load will ever
achieve PF = 0.929. Consequently something is suspicious with the
instrument. Therefore the answer is NO, because it is also unlikely that a
7.5 HP induction motor is compensated in such a way that this power
factor is achieved at 50% load.

_________________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

L-2 The following table shows the import bill of fossil fuels in million tonnes and its
cost in Crores Rupees over the last eight years.
(i) calculate the average annual percentage increase of fossil fuel imports
(ii) calculate the average annual percentage increase of the import bill
(iii) calculate the average costs for the last eight years, in Rs. Per metric
ton of imported fossil fuels.

Import bill of fossil fuels


Year Quantity (MMT) Value (Rs.Crore)
1996-97 33.90 18,337
1997-98 34.49 15,872
1998-99 39.81 19,907
1999-00 57.80 40,028
2000-01 74.10 65,932
2001-02 84.90 80,116
2002-03 90.00 85,042
2003-04 95.00 93,159

There are seven years to consider

(i) 95 / 33.90 = 2.80236 folded increase over 7 years. It follows to solve the
equation (1. x)7 = 2.80236 by introducing the exponent 1/7 of each side
we get 1.x = 2.802361/7 or 1.x = 1.15859 or 15.86%. By trial and error one
should get close to the result as well. Any number between 15.5% and
16% should count as correct

Give 2 marks if the average is calculated as the arithmetic average by


summation the increase over each year. Result is 16.67%

(ii) 93,159 / 18,337 = 5.0804 folded increase over 7 year. Similar to (i) it
follows 26.14%. Any answer between 26.0% and 26.3% should count as
correct.

Give 2 marks if the arithmetic average is formed out of the sum of yearly
increases. The result is 29.37%

(iii) The sum of all imports is 510 Million metric tons over this time period.
The value is Rs 418,393 Crore. Consequently average costs are
calculated as (418,393 x 10,000,000)/510,000,000 = 8,203.78 Rs per metric
ton.

L-3 Fuel substitution from a high cost fuel to a low cost fuel is common to reduce
energy bill. For the following situations calculate:
(i) annual reduction in energy costs in Crore Rs .
(ii) annual change in energy consumption in %. (Calorific value of fuels
not required for calculations)

Before substitution:

_________________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

Steam output = 5 tons/hour


Fuel consumption = 1 ton oil per 13 tons of steam.
Operating hours = 6000 / Year
Fuel costs = Rs.13,000 /ton of oil
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average)= 84%

After Substitution:

Steam output = 5 tons/hour


Fuel consumption = 2.5 tons of shells per 13 tons of steam
Fuel costs = Rs.2,800 / ton of shells
Boiler thermal efficiency (yearly average) = 72%

Oil consumption before substitution was 5 x 6000/13 = 2,307.69 tons/y.


The annual oil costs were 2,307.69 x 13,000= 29,999,970 = Rs 3 Crore

Shell consumption after substitution is 5 x 6000x 2.5/13 = 5,769.23 tons/y


The annual shell costs are 5,769.23 x 2,800 = Rs 1.615 Crore
(i) The annual reduction in fuel costs is Rs 1.385 Crore.

(ii) More energy is used because the boiler efficiency drops


the change is 100 x (72-84)/72 = 16.7% more energy

L-4 (i) Construct a CPM diagram for the example below


(ii) Identify the critical path. Also compute the earliest start, earliest finish,
latest start & latest finish of all activities?

Activity Precedent Time,


weeks
A Start 3
B A 4
C B 1
D C 3
E Start 2
F B 1
Finish D, E, F --

_________________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

(i)

4
C
A B
1 D
1 2 3 3
3 4
F

2E 1 5

ii) Critical Path:


A B C D
1 2 3 4 5
3 4 1 3

Total time on critical path: 11 weeks

Early start (ES), Early Finish (EF), Latest start (LS), Latest finish (LF)

S.no Activity Duration ES EF LS LF


1 A 3 0 3 0 3
2 B 4 3 7 3 7
3 C 1 7 8 7 8
4 D 3 8 11 8 11
5 E 2 0 2 9 11
6 F 1 7 8 10 11

L-5 A company invests Rs.6 lakhs and completes an energy efficiency project at
the beginning of year 1. The firm is investing its own money and expects an
internal rate of return, IRR, of at least 20% on constant positive annual net
cash flow of Rs. 1 lakh, over a period of 10 years, starting with year 1.

(i) Will the project meet the firm’s expectations?


(ii) What is the IRR of this measure?

Solution

(i) Use the NPV formula with d = 0.20 and check to what extent NPV > 0
at n = 10 years.

_________________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 – Set B

(ii) NPV = - 600,000 + 100,000 + 100,000 + …… 100,000 =


1.201 (1.20)2 (1.20)10

= - 600,000 + 83,333 + 69,444 + 57,870 + 48,225 + 40,188 + 33,490 + 27,908 +


23,257 + 19,381 + 16,151 = Minus 180,753

Since NPV is negative at 20%, the expectation of the project will not met the
firm’s expectations, because this means that the factor of 0.20 must be selected
smaller in order to have NPV = 0

The IRR is 10.56%. Any result between 10.2% and 10.7 is valid

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004


FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a (√) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. India’s share of the world’s total primary energy consumption in 2002 was

a) 2.1% b) 3.5% c) 5.4% d) 10.6%


2. The second major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is

a) Industry b) Agriculture c) Residential d) Transport


3. Non-commercial energy is

a) not available in the market b) no definite price set c) always traded for free
d) always ignored in energy accounting
4. If Rs. 1 Crore = US$ 200,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around

a) 1.6 Billion US$ b) 12 Billion US$ c) 16 Billion US$ d) 4 Billion US$


5. If the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of
2001 and is increased annually by 7%, then the installed capacity requirement
10 years later will be

a) 215,804 MW b) 183,846 MW c) 210,485 MW d) 196,715 MW


6. A person can do the following with solar energy

a) destroy it b) convert it c) create it d) burn it


7. Select the source of stored mechanical energy

a) compressed spring b) electricity c) water stored in reservoir d) coal

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

8. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1o C is


known as

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat


9. A three phase induction motor is drawing 12 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.85 and the motor efficiency is 96%, then the
mechanical shaft power output of the motor is

a) 7.46 kW b) 7.77 kW c) 5.3 kW d) 23.4 kW


10. The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = 1.732 x V x I x ?

a) sin phi b) cos phi c) efficiency d) a constant


11. Electrical resistance is defined as

a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage x Current c) Ohm x Voltage d) Voltage/Current


12. Energy management involves…

a) combination of technical and managerial skills b) managerial skills


c) technical skills d) energy audit skills
13. Water flow in pipes is measured by

a) pitot tube b) x-rays c) doppler effect d) electric fields


14. The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is

a) kW/kg of refrigerant handled b) kW/ton of refrigeration


c) kcal/m3 of chilled water d) kWh/ton of refrigeration
15. One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in Btu ?

a) 860 b) 3412 c) 746 d) 12000


16. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs


c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
17. In a chemical process two reactants A (200 kg) and B (200 kg) are used. If
conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product
formed is

a) 300 kg b) 150 kg c) 400 kg d) 200 kg


18. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or
system is know as

a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram c) psychrometric chart


d) balance diagram
19. Coal with 30% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 50 tonnes on a specific
day. Clinker is formed by 1% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of
ash are going out of the boiler on this day.

a) 14.85 b) 15 c) 15.15 d) 13.5


20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 15%. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 1000 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is
diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour
would be

a) 3,990 b) 14,010 c) 8,050 d) 7,650

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

21. In a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a positive force

a) high price of energy b) energy efficient technology available


c) salary of staff d) lack of awareness
22. Which of the following is least important of a good energy information system

a) data accuracy b) data relevance c) data volume d) data validation


23. The first vital step in an energy management programme is

a) top management commitment b) measurements c) setting goals


d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is

a) energy balance b) energy policy c) energy audit d) energy savings


25. What is not the duty of an energy manager

a) conduct an energy audit b) prepare an annual activity plan


c) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
d) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
26. The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present
value of the expected future cash flow is

a) life of project b) fuel cost inflation c) loan interest rate d) discount rate
27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions c) capital investment


d) best financing source
28. The Return of Investment, ROI, is expressed as

a) (first cost/first year benefits) x100 b) NPV/ IRR


c) annual costs/capital cost d) (annual net cash flow/capital cost) x100
29. The Net Present Value of a project at a discount rate of 16% with an investment of
Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 23,000 and Rs 36,000
at the end of the first and second year, respectively is

a) 6,581 b) -246 c) 862 d) 3,419


30. A sum of Rs 10,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
6% interest annually. How much money is in the bank account at the end of the fifth
year, if no money is withdrawn?

a) 13,382 b) 12,625 c) 13,000 d) 10,937


31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is
called

a) performance contract b) traditional contract


c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. A path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF= earliest
finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if

a) ES=EF or EF=LF b) ES=LS and EF=LF


c) ES=LS or EF=LF d) LF=EF and EF=LS

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

33. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the total
energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year. How high is
the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a) Rs 30.46 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38.42 lakhs d) none of the above


34. In Project Management the critical path in the network is

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path c) the path from start to finish
d) the path where no activities have slack
35. CPM in project management refers to

a) critical periodic management b) critical project monitoring


c) critical path method d) cost project management
36. The major difference between CPM and PERT is

a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not


b) CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates
c) CPM is an expansion of PERT
d) PERT is an expansion of CPM
37. The calorific value of coal is 4000 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 100 kg of
coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg

a) 40 kg b) 56 kg c) 52 kg d) None of the above


38. Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

a) bar chart b) vertical line chart c) pie chart d) X Y coordinate system


39. Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 200 kWh for 20
tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is… (No graph is needed to
arrive at correct answer).

a) 10 b) 40 c) 20 d) None of the above


40. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

a) poor process control b) many forced outages


c) poor process monitoring d) none of the above
41. The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called

a) energy intensity b) specific energy consumption


c) production energy ratio d) specific production ratio
42. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

a) nothing can be said b) energy consumption is reduced


c) specific energy consumption is increasing
d) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
43. A firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely

a) higher fuel cost b) better boiler efficiency


c) higher energy consumption d) less smoke in the stack
44. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an
IRR of 25% and NPV of 200,000. Which project would you implement first if financing
is available and project technical life is the same?

a) B b) A c) cannot be decided d) question does not make sense

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

45. Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring

a) data recording b) data analysis


c) data reporting d) energy costing
46. The commitment period for emission reductions of industrialized countries as per
Kyoto protocol is

a) since 2001 b) 2008 – 2012 c) there is none d) 2012 -2022


47. Global warming is mostly caused by emission of

a) sulfur dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) carbon dioxide d) methane


48. Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by

a) 0% b) + 8% c) -8% d) 12%
49. The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest
into or buy certified emission reductions is called.

a) cleaner development mechanism b) clean development mechanism


c) prototype carbon trading d) none of the above
50. The ozone depletion process is due to

a) Carbon Dioxide b) UV light breaking the ozone


c) Nitrogen d) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Classify the types of energy available on earth.

S-2 List five forms of energy with examples.

S-3 A 10 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 85%. Actual input
measurement at a particular loading shows 415 Volt, 10 Amps, and PF of
0.68. Find out the motor loading in percentage.

S-4 Explain the difference between specific heat and heat capacity.

S-5 Give any five bench marking parameters followed for either equipment or
industrial production.

S-6 State definition of energy audit as defined in the Energy Conservation Act
2001.

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

S-7 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with one
investment of Rs 50,000 at the beginning of the first year and a second
investment of Rs 30,000 at the beginning of the second year and fuel cost
savings of Rs 40,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is
16%.

S-8 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 40 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 30o C
to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgo C. How much steam
per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.

S-9 Explain briefly PERT.

S-10 List at least 5 steps involved in CUSUM analysis.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency,
and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy
consumption goes up.

L-2 A plant is using 4 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of
the coal is 4000 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 2,000/tonne. The plant
substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of
3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at
300 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 78%
on coal to 72% on rice husks.

L-3 In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 90% and pump
operating efficiency is 80%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 20%
loss; moreover 28% are lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase
motor operates at a power factor of 0.85, 440 Volt and 17 Ampere.
(I) Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.
(II) Calculate the overall system efficiency.

L-4 An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the


beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings
expected over 4 years are Rs. 10,000, Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 35,000
respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4th year, if the
discount rate is 18%. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your decision.

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set A

L-5 Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings
for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production
can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


Jan 252 265
Feb 238 265
Mar 287 300
Apr 287 265
May 359 310
Jun 276 265

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004


FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a (√) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. The global primary energy consumption in 2002 was equivalent to

a) 21,842 Mtoe b) 15,360 Mtoe c) 9,405 Mtoe d) 12,396 Mtoe


2. The sector with the lowest commercial energy consumption out of four major
sectors in the country is

a) Industry b) Agriculture c) Residential d) Transport


3. Non-commercial energy is

a) not available in the market b) always traded for free


c) no definite price set d) always ignored in energy accounting
4. If Rs 1 Lakh = US$ 2,000, then the annual current oil import bill of India is around

a) 12 Billion US$ b) 1.6 Billion US$ c) 16 Billion US$ d) 4 Billion US$


5. If the total installed power capacity in India was 100,000 MW at the beginning of
2001 and is increased annually by 8% then the installed capacity requirement
10 years later will be

a) 215,312 MW b) 215,892 MW c) 183,846 MW d) 210,485 MW


6. A person can do the following with solar energy

a) destroy it b) create it c) burn it d) harvest it

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

7. Select the source of stored mechanical energy

a) gas b) electricity c) compressed air d) water stored in reservoir


8. The viscosity of furnace oil...

a) decreases with increasing temperature


b) decreases with decreasing temperature
c) increases with increasing temperature
d) remains same
9. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the
mechanical shaft power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above


10. The term missing in the following equation: Active Power = ? x V x I x cos phi

a) kV b) kW c) efficiency d) a constant
11. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of

a) active power/reactive power b) apparent power/active power


c) active power/apparent power d) reactive power/active power
12. Energy manager should be well versed with

a) managerial and technical skills b) processing and technical skills


c) managerial and commercial skills d) energy audit skills
13. Carbon Dioxide measurement drawing the cold flue gas into a Fyrite kit is based on

a) weight basis wet b) volume basis dry


c) volume basis wet d) weight basis dry
14. The benchmark for energy performance parameter for air conditioning equipment is

a) kW/kg refrigeration b) kW/ton of refrigeration


c) kWh/ton of refrigeration d) kcal/m3 of chilled water
15. One kWh of electricity is equivalent to how many heat units in GJ

a) 0.0036 b) 0.036 c) 0.36 d) None of the above


16. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs


c) less than what is needed d) energy with minimum losses
17. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If
conversion is 50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product
formed is.

a) 300 kg b) 350 kg c) 400 kg d) 700 kg


18. Energy supplied by combustion of fuel is equal to

a) fuel mass x density b) fuel mass x specific heat


c) fuel mass x calorific value d) fuel mass x heat capacity

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

19. Coal with 35% ash is fired in a boiler. Coal consumption is 70 tonnes on a specific
day. Clinker is formed by 2% of the ash sticking to boiler tubes. How many tonnes of
ash are going out of the boiler on this day.

a) 24.0 b) 24.5 c) 25.0 d) 25.5


20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 25%. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 14 and oil consumption is 400 kg per hour and 50% of the flue gas is
diverted to a dryer, then the mass of flue gas leaving the boiler chimney in kg/ hour
would be

a) 6000 kg b) 3934 kg c) 3.237 ton d) 3500 kg


21. In a force field analysis one of the indicators below is not considered a negative
force

a) low price of energy b) energy efficient technology available


c) low salary of staff d) insufficient financial resources
22. Which of the following is least important in a good energy information system

a) data availability b) data relevance c) data volume d) data accuracy


23. Which of the following is not a requirement for energy audit planning

a) feedback b) publicity c) metering d) budgeting


24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment on energy conservation is

a) energy balance b) energy policy c) energy audit d) energy savings


25. What is not the duty of an energy manager

a) prepare an annual activity plan


b) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
c) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy d) conduct an energy audit
26. The factor that reflects best on the risk of the project while evaluating the present
value of the expected future cash flow is

a) life of project b) fuel cost inflation


c) discount rate d) loan interest rate
27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions


c) capital investment d) best financing source
28. The sum of present values of all the cash flows associated with a project is called

a) NPV b) PV c) Internal rate of return d) return on investment


29. The Net Present Value (in Rs.) of a project at a discount rate of 18% with an
investment of Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year, and savings of Rs 55,000
and Rs 60,000 at the end of the first and second year, respectively is

a) 27,458 b) 28,091 c) 45,000 d) 19,701


30. There are Rs 100,000 deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank
pays 7% interest annually. How much money (in Rs.) is in the bank account at the
end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?

a) 131,080 b) 135,000 c) 140,255 d) None of the above

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is
called

a) performance contract b) guaranteed savings performance contract


c) traditional contract d) extended technical guarantee contract
32. A path is characterized by 4 parameters such as ES = earliest start time, EF=
earliest finish time, LF = latest finish time, LS = latest start time. A path is critical if

a) ES=EF or EF=LF b) ES=LS and EF=LF


c) ES=LS or EF=LF d) LF=EF and EF=LS
33. The annual electricity bill for a plant is Rs 25 lakhs and accounts for 28% of the total
annual energy bill. Furthermore the total energy bill increases by 5% each year.
How high is the plant’s annual energy bill at the end of the third year?

a) Rs 89 lakhs b) Rs 98 lakhs c) Rs 103 lakhs d) None of the above


34. In Project Management the critical path in the network is

a) the path where no activities have slack b) the quickest path


c) the shortest path d) the path from start to finish
35. CPM in project management refers to

a) critical periodic management b) critical project monitoring


c) cost project management d) critical path method
36. The major difference between CPM and PERT is

a) CPM provides graphic and PERT does not b) CPM is an expansion of PERT
c) PERT is an expansion of CPM
d) CPM uses fixed time estimates while PERT uses several time estimates
37. The calorific value of coal is 3,200 kcal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of
coal if the calorific value of oil is 41,870 kJ/ kg

a) 64 kg b) 62 kg c) 66 kg d) None of the above


38. Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

a) bar chart b) X Y coordinate system c) vertical line chart d) pie chart


39. Energy consumed for the period is given as 110 kWh for 10 tons and 180 kWh for
20 tons of production. The fixed energy consumption in kWh is .... (No graph is
needed to arrive at correct answer).

a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 30
40. Large scattering on production versus energy consumption trend line indicates

a) many forced outages b) poor process monitoring


c) poor process control d) none of the above
41. What is the definition of specific energy consumption?

a) energy input/rupee turnover b) energy consumption per month


c) energy cost/total cost d) none of the above
42. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is horizontal, then

a) nothing can be said b) actual and calculated energy consumption are the same
c) energy consumption is reduced d) specific energy consumption is going up

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

43. A firm substitutes (replaces) expensive oil and starts firing wood in a boiler. The
following scenario is most likely

a) higher energy consumption b) higher fuel cost


c) better boiler efficiency d) less smoke in the stack
44. Assume project A has an IRR of 85% and NPV of Rs 15,000 and project B has an
IRR of 25% and NPV of Rs. 200,000. Which project would you implement first if
financing is available and project technical life is the same?

a) Neither A nor B b) B c) A d) cannot be decided


45. Which of the following is not a part of energy consumption monitoring

a) data recording b) data analysis c) energy costing d) data reporting


46. The commitment period of industrialized countries for emission reductions as per
Kyoto protocol is

a) since 2001 d) there is none c) 2008 – 2012 d) 2012 -2022


47. Global warming is due to release of

a) sulfur dioxide b) greenhouse gases c) free chlorine d) ozone


48. Under the Kyoto Protocol India has to cut emissions by

a) + 8% b) -8% c) 12% d) 0%
49. The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest
into or buy certified emission reductions is called.

a) cleaner development mechanism b) clean development mechanism


c) prototype carbon trading d) none of the above
50. The ozone depletion process is due to

a) Carbon Dioxide b) chlorine atoms destroying ozone molecules


c) UV light breaking the ozone d) Nitrogen

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Classify the types of energy available on earth.

S-2 Explain the importance of time of day tariff (TOD).

S-3 A 7.5 kW rated motor has a full load efficiency of 84%. Actual input
measurement shows 415 Volt, 12 Amps, and PF of 0.83. Find out the motor
loading in percent.

S-4 Explain the difference between latent heat of vaporization and super heat.

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B

S-5 Explain the significance of an energy policy in an organisation?

S-6 Classify energy conservation measures in financial terms such as costs and
return.

S-7 Calculate the Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with one
investment of Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year and a second
investment of Rs 40,000 at the beginning of the second year and fuel cost
savings of Rs 70,000 each in the second and third year. The discount rate is
16%.

S-8 In a heat exchanger steam is used to heat 80 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 35o C
to 85o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/ kgo C. How much steam
per hour is needed? Latent heat of steam is 540 kcal/ kg.

S-9 List at least four different types of contracts involved in project management.

S-10 What do you understand by CUSUM chart?

-------- End of Section - II ---------

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS


Marks: 5 x 10 = 50
(i) Answer all Five questions
(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency,
and state one example where energy costs are reduced but energy
consumption goes up.

L-2 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of
the coal is 4,500 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 1,600/tonne. The plant
substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of
3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at
280 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 82%
on coal to 78% on rice husks.

L-3 In a pumping system the motor operating efficiency is 85% and pump
operating efficiency is 75%. The pump discharge flow is throttled causing 18%
loss; moreover 20% is lost through friction in pipe fittings. The three phase
motor operates at a power factor of 0.82, 440 Volt and 20 Ampere.
(I) Calculate the water power available at the end of the piping system.
(II) Calculate the overall system efficiency.

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EA1 – Energy Auditor – Set B
L-4 An investment of Rs 1 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings
expected over 4 years are Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000, Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 45,000
respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4th year, if the
discount rate is 22 %. Would you invest in this measure? Explain your
decision.

L-5 Use CUMSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings
for a 6 months period. For calculating total energy saving, average production
can be taken as 4000 MT per month. Refer to field data given in table below.

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


Jan 252 265
Feb 238 265
Mar 287 265
Apr 285 260
May 255 260
Jun 245 265

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS

PAPER – EM1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 6 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a (√) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. Among the world’s coal producers, India’s position is

a) 10th b) 17th c) 4th d) 26th


2. The major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is

a) Industry b) Agriculture c) Residential d) Transport


3. Which energy is not a commercial energy

a) electricity b) lignite c) oil d) solar hot water


4. The annual current oil import bill of India is around Rs....

a) 8,000 crores b) 80,000 crores c) 800,000 crores d) 20,000 crores


5. India’s total installed power plant capacity requirement in MW in 2012 is estimated as

a) 107,236 MW b) 150,804 MW c) 215,804 MW d) 300,000 MW


6. A person can do the following with electricity

a) destroy it b) create it c) burn it d) convert it


7. Select the source of stored chemical energy

a) electricity b) water c) coal d) compressed air


8. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1o C
is known as

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat d) calorific value

_________________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

9. A three phase induction motor is drawing 12 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.85, then the power drawn by the motor is

a) 7.8 kW b) 4.5 kW c) 5.3 kW d) 23.4 kW


10. The term missing in the following equation (kVA) = (kW) + ( ? )2 is
2 2

a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVAr d) kVArh


11. Electrical resistance is defined as

a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage/Current
c) Voltage x Current d) Ohm x Voltage
12. Energy management involves

a) combination of technical and managerial skills b) managerial skills


c) technical skills d) energy audit skills
13. Air velocity in ducts is measured by

a) stroboscope b) pitot tube c) lux meter d) fyrite


14. An energy audit team is formed during

a) post audit phase b) audit phase


c) pre-audit phase d) the time of study
15. Having an energy policy…

a) shows top management commitment b) satisfying regulations


c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of other policies
16. Matching energy usage to requirement means providing

a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the design needs


c) energy with minimum losses d) less than what is needed
17. A mass balance for energy conservation does consider the following substance

a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) all of the above


18. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or
system is know as

a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram


c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
19. Coal with 40% ash is fired in a boiler. The daily coal consumption is 80 tonnes. The
ash going out of the boiler per day would be

a) 32 tonnes b) 40 tonnes c) 48 tonnes d) 3.2 tonnes


20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 15%. If the stochiometic air to fuel ratio
is 14 kg of air per kg of oil and oil consumption is 100 kg per hour, then the mass of
flue gas liberated in kg/ hour would be

a) 1320 b) 1400 c) 1190 d) 1610


21. An analysis which helps to bring into focus the positive and negative forces in an
organisation is

a) energy action planning b) force field analysis


c) energy policy d) energy analysis

22. Which of the following is the least important of a good energy information system

a) data accuracy b) data relevance c) data volume d) data validation

_________________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

23. The first vital step in an energy management programme is

a) measurements b) setting goals


c) top management commitment d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment of energy conservation is

a) energy balance b) energy policy c) energy audit d) energy savings


25. What is not the duty of an energy manager

a) conduct an energy audit b) prepare an annual activity plan


c) report to BEE and state level designated agency once a year
d) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
26. Based on the following Net Present Value, which of the projects seems to be the
most attractive for investment

a) - Rs 2123 b) Rs 0 c) + Rs 15 d) + Rs 1830
27. A sensitivity analysis is an assessment of

a) cash flows b) risks due to assumptions


c) capital investment d) best financing source

28. The Return on Investment, ROI, is expressed as

a) (first cost/first year benefits) x100 b) NPV/ IRR


c) annual costs/capital cost d) (annual net cash flow/capital cost) x100
29. Cost of a heat exchanger is Rs. 1.0 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual operating cost of Rs 15,000 is

a) 0.75 b) 2.22 c) 1.66 d) 6.6


30. A sum of Rs 100,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank
pays 6% interest annually. How much money, in Rs., is in the bank account at the
end of the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?

a) 126,247 b) 133,823 c) 130,000 d) 109,368


31. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is
called

a) performance contract b) traditional contract


c) extended technical guarantee contract
d) guaranteed savings performance contract
32. The following is not a step in PERT planning

a) estimate one time required for each activity b) determine the critical path
c) construct a network diagram d) identify activities and milestones
33. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs 10 lakhs which accounts for 38% of the
total monthly energy bill. How high is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 315.73 lakhs b) Rs 26.32 lakhs c) Rs 38 lakhs d) Rs 380 lakhs


34. In Project Management, the critical path in the network is

a) the quickest path b) the shortest path


c) the path from start to finish d) the path where no activities have slack
35. CPM in project management refers to

a) critical periodic management b) critical project monitoring


c) critical path method d) cost project management

_________________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

36. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking progress is

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) PERT d) CumSum


37. The Calorific Value of coal is 4000 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 100 kg of
coal if the Calorific Value of oil is 10,000 kCal/ kg

a) 100 kg b) 250 kg c) 40 kg d) 25 kg
38. The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called

a) energy intensity b) specific energy consumption


c) production energy ratio d) specific production ratio
39. Energy consumed for the period is

a) fixed consumption + variable consumption X production


b) fixed consumption X production
c) variable consumption X production
d) (fixed consumption + variable consumption) X production
40. The fixed energy consumption of a company is 1000 kWh per month. The line slope
of the energy(y) versus production(x) chart is 0.3. The energy consumed in kWh per
month for a production level of 80,000 tons/month is

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 24,100 d) 38,000


41. Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

a) bar chart b) vertical line chart c) pie chart d) X Y coordinate system


42. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is going up, it means

a) energy consumption is increasing b) energy consumption is reducing


c) specific energy consumption is increasing d) nothing can be said
43. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 16 respectively. In the next two
months calculated energy consumption is more than actual energy consumption by 8
for each month. This means the energy savings at the end of the fourth month would
be

a) 24 b) 32 c) – 8 d) 0
44. In an industry the energy consumed for a period is 2.3 lakh kWh. The production in
this period is 20,000 tonnes with a specific energy consumption of 10 kWh/ tonne.
The fixed energy consumption of the plant is

a) 30,000 b) 23,000 c) 7,000 d) 10,000


45. Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring

a) data recording b) data analysis


c) data reporting d) energy efficiency equipment financing
46. The ozone layer exists in

a) stratosphere b) troposphere c) atmosphere d) at sea level


47. Global warming is mostly caused by emission of

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide


c) Carbon Dioxide d) Methane
48. Which is not a Greenhouse gas

a) Methane b) Nitrous Oxide c) Carbon Dioxide d) Sulphur Dioxide

_________________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

49. The process under the Kyoto Protocol by which industrialized countries may invest
into or buy certified emission reductions is called.

a) cleaner development mechanism b) clean development mechanism


c) prototype carbon trading d) none of the above
50. Which of the following gas damages the ozone layer

a) CFC’s b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) Argon

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 What do you understand by the term Reserve to Production ratio (R/P) in the
field of exploration of fossil fuels?

S-2 What is energy intensity and what does it indicate?

S-3 The energy consumed by a plant was 18,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1000 kW. Calculate the load factor on that
day.

S-4 How is the Calorific Value of fuel measured in a laboratory?

S-5 What is the significance of an energy policy and what general aims and
specific targets does it relate to?

S-6 Explain how matching energy use to actual requirements can enhance energy
efficiency, and state one example with solution.

S-7 Describe important features of a Sankey diagram.

S-8 In a heat exchanger, steam is used to heat 40 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 30o
C to 90o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.22 kcal/kg oC. The latent heat
of steam is 540 kcal/ kg. How much steam per hour is needed?

S-9 Explain the objective of a force field analysis and how such an analysis is
structured.

S-10 On an energy efficiency investment of Rs 30,000/- the annual savings are Rs.
85,000/- and annual operating costs are Rs. 10,000/-. Calculate the simple
pay back period (SPP) for the investment.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

_________________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set A

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Discuss the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency.

L-2 A plant is using 4 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of
the coal is 4000 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 2,000/tonne. The plant
substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of
3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 700/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at
300 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 78%
on coal to 72% on rice husks.

L-3 In a pumping system the motor efficiency is 90% and pump efficiency is 80%.
The pump discharge is throttled causing 20% loss; moreover 28% are lost
through friction in pipe fittings. The motor draws 34 kW. Calculate the net
water power available at the end of the piping system.

L-4 An investment of Rs 1.0 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings
expected over 4 years are Rs. 30,000, Rs. 30,000, Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 45,000
respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4th year, if the
discount rate is 12%.

L-5 Construct a CPM diagram for the example below

Activity Precedent Time, weeks


A Start 3
B Start 4
C A 1
D A 2
E B 2
F C 3
Finish F,E,D -

-------- End of Section - III ---------

_________________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS

PAPER – EM1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Date: 22.05.2004 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 6 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a (√) tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. World oil known reserves are presently estimated to last for another

a) 65 years b) 45 years c) 90 years d) 25 years


2. The major commercial energy consuming sector in the country is

a) Transport b) Agriculture c) Industry d) Residential


3 A three phase induction motor is drawing 7.8 kW at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.85, then the current drawn by the motor is

a) 12 A b) 10 A c) 7.8 A d) 15 A
4. The country that accounts for nearly 25% of world commercial energy consumption is

a) China b) India c) USA d) Russia


5. India’s total installed power plant capacity requirement in MW in 2012 is estimated as

a) 107,236 MW b) 150,804 MW c) 215,804 MW d) 300,000 MW


6. Wind energy may be

a) burned b) created c) destroyed d) converted


7. Select the source of stored mechanical energy

a) electricity b) water c) coal d) compressed air


8. The quantity of heat required to convert one kg of a solid into a liquid without change
of temperature is called

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat of fusion d) heat capacity

______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

9. Which energy is not a commercial energy

a) electricity b) lignite c) oil d) solar hot water


10. The term missing in the following equation C = (? -32) x 5/9 is

a) F b) RH c) K d) V
11. Electrical resistance is defined as

a) Current/Voltage b) Voltage/Current c) Voltage x Current d) Ohm x Voltage


12. Energy management involves

a) energy audit skills b) managerial skills


c) combination of technical and managerial skills d) technical skills
13. Oxygen or Carbon Dioxide in the flue gas may be measured with

a) stroboscope b) pitot tube c) lux meter d) fyrite apparatus


14. An energy audit team is formed during

a) the time of study b) pre-audit phase c) audit phase d) post audit phase
15. Energy management does not include

a) energy conservation b) satisfying regulations


c) decreasing unavoidable losses d) fuel substitution
16. An energy audit of a boiler will usually reveal opportunities for

a) energy savings b) blow down reduction


c) energy cost reduction d) all of them
17. A heat balance does not normally consider the following energy flow

a) steam b) lubrication oil c) fuel d) flue gas


18. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m3/hour from a reservoir. The efficiency of the pump is
70%. The flow at the discharge side would be

a) 12 m3/hour b) 8.4 m3/hour c) 17.1 m3/hour d) 3.6 m3/hour


19. A system uses 100 kg of raw material -1, 200 kg of raw material -2 and 220 kg of raw
material – 3. The mix is cured at 220 C. Air is blown to cool the mix which carries
away 40% of the raw material -1 through a chimney. The output product would be

a) 432 kg b) 440 kg c) 480 kg d) 460 kg


20. An oil fired boiler operates at an excess air of 25 %. If the stochiometric air to fuel
ratio is 13 kg of air per kg of oil and oil consumption is 300 kg per hour, then the
mass of flue gas liberated in kg/ hour would be

a) 4830 b) 2925 c) 4875 d) 3613


21. An analysis which helps to bring into focus the positive and negative forces in an
organisation is

a) energy policy b) energy action planning


c) energy analysis d) force field analysis
22. Improved energy efficiency requires for sure

a) energy audit b) energy policy c) budget d) data validation

______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

23. The first vital step in an energy management programme is

a) measurements b) setting goals


c) top management commitment d) energy audit
24. A public expression of an organization’s commitment of energy conservation is

a) energy balance b) energy policy c) energy audit d) energy savings


25. In a cumulative sum chart, if the graph is going up, it means

a) energy consumption is increasing b) energy consumption is reducing


c) specific energy consumption is increasing d) nothing can be said
26. An investment of Rs 96,000 has a simple payback period of two years. The monthly
savings must be

a) Rs 8,000 b) Rs 4,000 c) Rs 9,600 d) Rs 12,000


27. For an investment which has fluctuating annual savings over its project life, which of
the following financial analysis techniques is the best?

a) Simple payback period b) ROI c) NPV d) IRR


28. ESCO stands for

a) Energy supply company b) Energy service company


c) Energy standards company d) Energy sourcing company
29. Cost of a high efficiency fan is Rs. 2.1 lakhs. The simple payback period (SPP) in
years considering annual savings of Rs 75,000 and annual maintenance cost of
Rs 5,000 is

a) 2.8 b) 3.0 c) 2.6 d) 2.4


30. A sum of Rs 50,000 is deposited in a bank at the beginning of a year. The bank pays
6% interest annually. How much money in Rs. is in the bank account at the end of
the fifth year, if no money is withdrawn?

a) 63,245 b) 63,123 c) 66,911 d) 65,000


31. The ozone layer exists in

a) stratosphere b) troposphere c) atmosphere d) at sea level


32. The following is not a step in PERT planning

a) estimate one time required for each activity b) determine the critical path
c) construct a network diagram d) identify activities and milestones
33. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs 5 lakhs which accounts for 24% of the
total monthly energy bill. How high is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 6.58 lakhs b) Rs 16.57 lakhs c) Rs 20.83 lakhs d) Rs 13.16 lakhs


34. The first step in a project development cycle is

a) identify project components b) implement the project


c) arrange for financing d) start training
35. Fixed energy consumption can be determined from a

a) bar chart b) vertical line chart c) pie chart d) X Y coordinate system

______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

36. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking progress is

a) CPM b) Gantt chart c) PERT d) CumSum


37. The Calorific Value of coal is 3,200 kCal/ kg. Find out the oil equivalent of 200 kg of
coal if the Calorific Value of oil is 10,000 kCal/ kg

a) 32 kg b) 96 kg c) 64 kg d) 128 kg
38 The ratio of energy consumption to corresponding production is called

a) production energy ratio b) specific production ratio


c) energy intensity d) specific energy consumption
39. Energy consumed for the period is described by the following equation

a) C + M x production b) C x M + production
c) (C +M) x production d) None of the above
40. The fixed energy consumption of a company is 1000 kWh per month. The line slope
of the energy (y) versus production (x) chart is 0.2. The energy consumed in kWh per
month for a production level of 80,000 tons/month is

a) 18,000 b) 16,000 c) 17,000 d) 80,200


41. CPM in project management refers to

a) critical periodic management b) critical path method


c) cost project management d) critical project monitoring
42. What is not a duty of an energy manager?

a) report to BEE or State level designated agency


b) provide support to accredited energy auditor firm
c) sign an energy policy
d) prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy
43. In the first two months the cumulative sum is 8 and 16 respectively. In the next two
months calculated energy consumption is more than actual energy consumption by 8
for each month. This means the energy savings at the end of the fourth month would
be

a) 24 b) 32 c) – 8 d) 0
44. In an industry the energy consumed for a period is 1.3 lakhs kWh. The production in
this period is 10,000 tonnes with a specific energy consumption of 8 kWh/ tonne. The
fixed energy consumption of the plant is

a) 30,000 b) 50,000 c) 80,000 d) 10,000


45. Which of the following is not part of energy monitoring

a) data recording b) data analysis


c) data reporting d) energy efficient equipment financing
46. A contract in which the costs are paid from all or part of the energy cost savings is
called

a) performance contract b) guaranteed savings performance contract


c) traditional contract d) extended technical guarantee contract

47. Global warming is mostly caused by emission of

a) Carbon Dioxide b) Sulphur Dioxide c) Carbon Monoxide d) Methane

______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

48. Which is not a Greenhouse gas

a) Methane b) Nitrous Oxide c) Carbon Dioxide d) Sulphur Dioxide


49. Which of the following is not an environmental issue of global significance

a) Ozone layer depletion b) global warming c) loss of biodiversity


d) suspended particle matter
50. The Prototype Carbon Fund has been established by

a) United Nations b) United States c) World Bank d) Japan

-------- End of Section - I ---------

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Explain the difference between Gross Calorific Value (GCV) and Net Calorific
Value (NCV) of a fuel.

S-2 What are the limitations of a simple pay back period (SPP)?

S-3 The energy consumed by a plant was 24,000 kWh over a day. The maximum
load recorded during this time was 1400 kW. Calculate the load factor on that
day.

S-4 List four important factors involved in deciding final cost of purchased
electricity.

S-5 What do you mean by energy audit?

S-6 What is reactive power and active power?

S-7 Explain the meaning of fuel substitution and energy substitution with two
examples each.

S-8 In a heat exchanger, steam is used to heat 30 kg/ hour of furnace oil from 35o
C to 85o C. The specific heat of furnace oil is 0.24 kcal/kg oC. The latent heat
of steam is 540 kcal/ kg. How much steam per hour is needed?

S-9 Explain what is meant by Greenhouse effect.

S-10 Calculate the future value of a cash flow with NPV = Rs 1 Lakh at the end of
the 7th year if the interest rate is 5%.

-------- End of Section - II ---------

______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper EM1 – Energy Manager – Set B

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Explain the difference between energy conservation and energy efficiency.

L-2 A plant is using 5 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam. The calorific value of
the coal is 3200 kcal/ kg. The cost of coal is Rs. 2,200/tonne. The plant
substitutes coal with rice husks, as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of
3000 kcal/ kg and cost Rs. 900/tonne. Calculate the annual cost savings at
300 days of operation, assuming that the boiler efficiency decreases from 78%
on coal to 72% on rice husks.

L-3 In a pumping system the motor efficiency is 95% and pump efficiency is 70%.
The pump discharge is throttled causing 15% loss; moreover 24% are lost
through friction in pipe fittings. The motor draws 42 kW. Calculate the net
water power available at the end of the piping system.

L-4 An investment of Rs 1.5 Lakh is made for a variable speed drive at the
beginning of the year, which is also the date of first operation. Savings
expected over 4 years are Rs. 40,000, Rs. 45,000, Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 55,000
respectively. Find out the Net Present Value at the end of the 4th year, if the
discount rate is 16%.

L-5 Construct a CPM diagram for the example below

Activity Precedent Time, weeks


A Start 3
B Start 4
C A 1
D B 2
E B 2
F C 3
Finish F,E,D -

-------- End of Section - III ---------

______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
2nd NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2005
FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS AND ENERGY AUDITORS

MODEL TEST SERIES-1


PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY AUDIT

Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50


(i) Answer all 50 questions
(ii) Each question carries one mark

1. Which of the following is not a Primary Energy Source?

a) Oil b) Natural Gas c) Electricity d) Wood

2. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?

a) Bitumen b) Solar Energy c) Coal d) Natural Gas

3. Which of the following States in India does not have proven coal reserve?

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Kerala d) West Bengal

4. At present the share of hydro power in the country’s total generated units is around

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35%

5. Greenhouse effect refers to increase in

a) Global temperature. b) Carbon monoxide c) atmospheric pressure


d) Greenery

6. The nodal agency for coordinating the energy conservation activities under EC act in
India is

a) Bureau of Indian Standards b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency


c) Bureau of Energy Education d) Bureau of Energy and Environment

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 1 of 14


7. X-Ray is a form of
a. Chemical Energy
b. Radiant Energy
c. Thermal Energy
d. Potential Energy

8. Ratio of maximum demand to connected load is termed as:


a. Load factor
b. Power factor
c. Demand factor
d. Form factor

9. When heat is added or subtracted, resulting in a change of temperature is called as


a. Sensible heat
b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat capacity

10. The objective of energy management is


a) To minimize energy costs
b) To minimize environmental effects
c) a & b
d) None of the above

11. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required
a) Current year’s production
b) Reference year production
c) Reference year energy use
d) Capacity utilization

12. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress is
a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) CUSUM

13. Moderation of chilled water temperature for process is


a) Matching energy usage to requirement
b) Increasing system efficiency
c) None of the above
d) a & b

14. Which of the following is used to represent energy balance of a system?

a) Sankey Diagram
b) Flow Chart
c) Single line Diagram
d) Block Diagram

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 2 of 14


15. Among the following, which is most important for carrying out a material balance

a) Temperature of Products
b) Mass
c) Waste Quantity
d) Pressure

16. In PV = nRT, Value of R is

a) 0.008206 m3 atm / mole K


b) 0.8206 m3 atm / mole K
c) 0.08206 m3 atm / mole K
d) 0.09206 m3 atm / mole K

17. Energy available in fuels is stored as


a) Heat Energy b) Chemical Energy c) Atomic Energy d) Explosive Energy

18. In continuous process which is considered for carrying out mass balance

a) Material Flow b) Time c) Both a and b d) None of the above

19. Reactive Power is required for


a. Inductive load
b. Resistive load
c. Capacitive load
d. All of the above

20. In a purely resistive circuit the reactive kVAR will be


a) less than 1 b) more than 1 c) zero d) one
21. Which one is the key element for successful Energy Management?

a) Top management support b) Planning c) Monitoring d) Training


22. Capital costs are the costs associated with
a) Design
b) Installation & Commissioning of project
c) a & b
d) Savings from project

23. What is the NPV of a project , (life 2 year) which requires an investment of
Rs.50000 & yield Rs.30000 in the 1st year and Rs.40000/- in the next year, if the
interest rate is 10%
a) 10330
b) (10330)
c) 20660
d) (30660)

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 3 of 14


24. Which is not a general practice of financing in-house energy management
a) From a central budget
b) Bank loan
c) Money from stock market
d) Hire purchase

25. The first step in a project development cycle is


a) Identify components of the project b) Implement the project c) arrange finance d)
Training
26. For an investment which has a fluctuating savings over its project life which of these
analysis would be the best option
a) Payback b) NPV c)ROI d) IRR
27. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years if the interest rate is 10%?
a) 1610
b) 3221
c) 1331
d) 2420
28. If asset depreciation is considered, then tax cash flow would be
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) No effect
d) None of these
29. ESCO stands for
a) Energy supply company b) Energy service company c) Energy standards
company d) Energy sourcing company
30. Which of the following is not an external source of fund
a) Bank loans
b) Leasing arrangement
c) Revenue budget
d) Private Finance
31. Event in a project network diagram represents
a) Task
b) Milestone
c) a & b
d) none of the above
32. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is

a) Recording b) Reporting c) Controlling d) All the above

33. Which is not a green house gas


a) Methane b) Nitrous oxide c) Carbon di oxide d) Sulphur di oxide
34. If LPG has GCV of 12000 Kcal / kg, then 12 KWh is equivalent to --------kg LPG

a) 0.96 b) 0.86 c) 8.6 d) 86

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 4 of 14


35. Percentage share of different energy consumption in an industry can be best shown
by a

a) Pie Chart b) Bar Chart c) Line Diagram

36. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil
37. In the equation, Energy consumed = C + (M x Production) , where ‘C’ is

a) Variable energy consumption b) Fixed energy consumption


c) Specific energy Consumption d) None of the above

38. Based on the following Net present values, which of the projects is attractive for
investment
a) –2199 b) + 23 c) 0 d) +13
39. While plotting a ‘CUSUM Chart’, it is observed that “CUSUM’ during previous
month was 8, the same during this month will be

a)  8 b)  8 c) = 8 d) Can’t be said

40. Specific energy Consumption can be expressed in which of the following units.

a) Tone / Kwh b) KCal / Kg c) Kcal / Kwh d) None of the above

41. The Ozone layer in the atmosphere acts as an efficient filter for

a) X-Rays b) UV-A Rays c) UV-B Rays d) Intra red Rays

42. Which of the following does not damage ozone layer?

a) CFC b) CCl3 c) HCFC d) HFC

43. Which gas causes global warming among the following?

a) CFC b) SO2 c) O2 d) Argon

44. Ozone has


a) Three oxygen atoms b) Two oxygen atoms c) Two chlorine atoms d) Two
bromine atoms
45. GHG emissions are presented in ------------ Units

a) MMTOE b) MMTCE c) MMTME d) MMT

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 5 of 14


46. The major source of electrical power generation in India is
a) thermal b) Hydel c) Nuclear d) Wind
b)
47. The quantity of heat required to raise 1 kg of a substance by 1oC is known as
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) latent heat d) calorie
48. Matching energy use to requirement means providing
a) just theoretical energy needed b) just the designers’ needs c) energy with
minimum losses d) less than what is needed
49. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) Zero b) +ve c) –ve d) Less than 1
50. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 10 lakhs and accounts for 38% of the
total energy bill. The annual energy bill for the company
a) Rs. 315 lakhs b) Rs. 26 lakhs c) Rs. 38 lakhs d) Rs. 380 lakhs

Section - II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

1 What are the immediate term energy strategies recommended?

The immediate term energy strategies recommended are:


• Rationalizing the tariff structure of various energy products
• Optimum utilization of existing assets
• Efficiency in production systems and reduction in distribution losses, including
those in traditional energy sources.
• Promoting R & D, transfer and use of technologies and practices for
environmentally sound energy systems, including new and renewable energy
sources.

2 A 3  AC Load draws 8 KW power at 400 V supply voltage and 15 A line current.


Calculate the power factor of the load.

Supply Voltage of the System (VL) = 400


Line Current (IL) -=15 A
Apparent Power = 3 x VL x IL

= 3 x 0.400 x 15

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 6 of 14


= 10.392 KVA

Active Power = 3 x VL x IL x (Cos ) KW

Given, active power of the Load = 8 KW

Hence, 10.392 COS  = 8 KW

8
P.F , Cos = = 0.77
10.392

3 How benchmarking of energy consumption internally and externally may be useful.

Benchmarking of energy consumption internally and externally (historical/trend


analysis) are two powerful tools for performance assessment and logical evolution of
avenues for improvement. Historical data well documented helps to bring out
energy consumption and cost trends month-wise/day-wise trend analysis of energy
consumption, cost, relevant production features, specific energy consumption help to
understand effects of capacity utilization on energy use efficiency and costs on a
broader scale.
4 Why steam is used as a popular mode of conveying energy?

The following characteristics of steam make it very popular and useful to convey
energy in the industries.

• High Specific heat and latent heat


• High heat transfer coefficient
• Easy to control and distribute
• Cheap and inert
5 In a chlora-alkali plant, the inlet brine concentration to cell house is 300 gpl and the
outlet concentration is 260 gpl. If 3 MT Salt is added per hour, find out the brine
flow rate to the Cell House.

Answer :
Inlet concentration of brine = 300 gpl
Outlet concentration of brine = 260 gpl
Salt consumption per litre of Flow = (300-260) gm
= 40 gm = 0.040 Kg
For 3 MT/hr Salt consumption, flows = 3 x 1000 Kg /hr
----------------------
0.040 Kg/lit

= 75,080 Lit/hr
= 75 m3/hr

6 What are the duties and responsibilities (five each) of Energy Manager as per the

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 7 of 14


Energy Conservation Act 2001?

Responsibilities

• Prepare an annual activity plan and present to management concerning


financially attractive investments to reduce energy costs
• Establish an energy conservation cell within the firm with management’s
consent about the mandate and task of the cell.
• Initiate activities to improve monitoring and process control to reduce energy
costs.
• Analyze equipment performance with respect to energy efficiency
• Ensure proper functioning and calibration of instrumentation required to
assess level of energy consumption directly or indirectly.

Duties

• Report to BEE and State level Designated Agency once a year the
information with regard to the energy consumed and action taken on the
recommendation of the accredited energy auditor, as per BEE Format.
• Establish an improved data recording, collection and analysis system to keep
track of energy consumption.
• Provide support to Accredited Energy Audit Firm retained by the company
for the conduct of energy audit
• Provide information to BEE as demanded in the Act, and with respect to the
tasks given by a mandate, and the job description.
• Prepare a scheme for efficient use of energy and its conservation and
implement such scheme keeping in view of the economic stability of the
investment in such form and manner as may be provided in the regulations of
the Energy Conservation Act.
7 Explain Net Prevent Value and how NPV is calculated.

Net Present Value:


The net present value (NPV) of a project is equal to the sum of the present values of
all the cash flows associated with it.
- CF0 CF1 CFn n CFt
NPV = (1 + k)0 +
(1 + k)1 + ---- +
(1 + k)n =
Σ (1 + k)t
t=0
Where NPV = Net Present Value
CF t = Cash flow occurring at the end of year ‘ t ‘ (t = 0,1, ….n)
n = Life of the project
k = Discount rate
The discount rate (k) employed for evaluating the present value of the expected
future cash flows should reflect the risk of the project.
8 Define project and mention various steps involved in Project Management

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 8 of 14


A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service.
A project is temporary in that there is a defined start (the decision to proceed) and a
defined end (the achievement of the goals and objectives)

Steps in Project Management:


The various steps in a project management are:
a) Project definition and scope
b) Technical Design
c) Financing
d) Contracting
e) Implementation
Performance Monitoring
9 Calculate fixed energy consumption for a rolling mill consuming 3,00,000 units
electricity to produce 500 MT product per month and having specific energy
consumption of 500 Kwh/MT.

Total energy consumed = Fixed Energy Consumption + (Specific Energy


Consumption x Production)
Fixed energy consumption = Total energy consumed – (Specific energy
consumption x Production)
Given,
Total Energy Consumption = 3,00,000 Kwh
Specific energy Consumption = 500 Kwh / MT
Total Production = 500 Mt
Fixed Energy Consumption = 300000 – (500 x 500)
= 5000 Units

10 Explain briefly about Emission Trading?

Article 17 of the Kyoto protocol opens up for emissions trading between countries
that have made commitments to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The countries
have option to delegate this right of emissions trading to companies or other
organizations.

In a system for emissions trading, the total amount of emissions permitted is pre-
defined. The corresponding emissions allowances are then issued to the emitting
installations through auction or issued freely. Through trading, installations with
low costs for reductions are stimulated to make reductions and sell their surplus of
emissions allowances to organizations where reductions are more expensive. Both
the selling and buying company wins on this flexibility that trades offers with
positive effects on economy, resource efficiency and climate. The environmental

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 9 of 14


advantage is that one knows, in advance, the amount of greenhouse gases that will
be emitted. The economical advantage is that the reductions are done where the
reduction costs are the lowest. The system allows for a cost effective way to reach a
pre-defined target and stimulates environmental technology development.

Section - III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

1 Explain in detail the difference between Energy Conservation and Energy efficiency
and its relevance

Energy Conservation and Energy Efficiency are separate, but related concepts.
Energy conservation is achieved when growth of energy consumption is reduced,
measured in physical terms. Energy Conservation can, therefore, be the result of
several processes or developments, such as productivity increase or technological
progress. On the other hand Energy efficiency is achieved when energy intensity in a
specific product, process or area of production or consumption is reduced without
affecting output consumption or comfort levels.
Promotion of energy efficiency will contribute to energy conservation and is therefore
an integral part of energy conservation promotional policies.

Energy efficiency is often viewed as a resource option like coal, oil or natural gas.
Energy efficiency provides additional economic value by preserving the resource
base and reducing pollution. For example, replacing traditional light bulbs with
Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) will use only ¼ of the energy to light a room.

Apart from the economic benefits, energy conservation and energy efficiency
measures would assist in controlling the CO2 emission.
2 Explain in detail the methodology for conducting a detailed energy audit.

A detailed energy audit is carried out in three phases:


a) Pre-audit phase
b) Audit phase &
c) Post Audit phase

Pre Audit Phase:


A structured methodology to carryout an energy audit is necessary for efficient
working. An initial study of the site is essential, which will give an energy auditor an
opportunity to meet the personnel concerned to familiarize the site and assess the
procedures necessary to carry out the energy audit. The main aim of this visits are:

• To identify the main energy consuming areas/plant items to be surveyed during


the audit.

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 10 of 14


• To identify any existing instrumentation/additional metering required
• To decide whether any meters will have to be installed prior to the audit e.g. Kwh
steam, oil or gas meters.
• To identify the instrumentation required for carrying out the audit

Audit Phase:
As a first step during the audit phase, Energy Auditor would collect the base line
data, preparation of process flow charts etc. The monitoring and measurement will be
next stage. As per the field observations, detailed trials may be conducted for
selected energy guzzlers in the plant. Once all the operating data and design data and
other operational practices are collected/observed, detailed analysis of the data will
have to be done. Based on the analyses, Energy Conservation opportunities may be
developed and the economic viability of the options has to be established. The study
has to properly documented and the suggestions and findings are to be presented to
the top management

Post-Audit Phase:
In post audit phase the energy Auditor/Engineer may assist and implement the energy
conservation recommendation measures and monitor the performance.

3 During a ESP performance evaluation study, the inlet gas stream to ESP is
289920NM3/hr and the dust loading is 5500 mg/ NM3. The outlet gas stream from
ESP is 301100M3/hr and the dust loading is 110 mg/NM3. How much fly ash is
collected in the system?

Based on Mass balance,

Inlet gas stream dust = Outlet Gas stream dust + Fly ash

a) Inlet gas stream flow = 289920 NM3/hr


Dust Concentration = 5500 mg/NM3
Inlet dust quantity = 289920 x 5500
-----------
1000000
= 1594.50 kg/hr

b) Outlet dust quantity = 301100 (NM3/hr) x 110 (mg/NM3) x 1


----------
1000000
= 33.12 kg/hr
c) Fly Ash = Inlet gas stream dust – Outlet gas stream dust
= 1594.56 – 33.12 = 1561.44 kg/hr

4 Explain the following stating the advantages and limitations if any


a) Simple Pay Back Period

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 11 of 14


b) Return on Investment
c) Internal rate of return

Simple Payback Period (SPP) represents, as a first approximation: the time (number
of years) required to recover the initial investment (First Cost), considering only the
Net Annual Saving:
The simple payback period is usually calculated as follows:
Examples First cost
Simple payback period = Yearly benefits – Yearly costs
Advantages:
A widely used investment criterion, the payback period seems to offer the following
advantages:
• It is simple, both in concept and application. Obviously a shorter payback
generally indicates a more attractive investment. It does not use tedious
calculations.
• It favours projects, which generate substantial cash inflows in earlier years, and
discriminates against projects, which bring substantial cash inflows in later years
but not in earlier years.
Limitations:
• It fails to consider the time value of money.
• It ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. This leads to discrimination
against projects that generate substantial cash inflows in later years.
Return on Investment (ROI)
ROI expresses the “annual return” from the project as a percentage of capital cost.
The annual return takes into account the cash flows over the project life and the
discount rate by converting the total present value of ongoing cash flows to an
equivalent annual amount over the life of the project, which can then be compared to
the capital cost.
Limitations:
• It does not take into account the time value of money
• It does not account for the variable nature of annual net cash inflows.
Internal Rate of Return:
This method calculates the rate of return that the investment is expected to yield. The
internal rate of return (IRR) method expresses each investment alternative in terms of
a rate of return (a compound interest rate).
popular discounted cash flow method, the internal rate of return criterion has several
advantages:
• It takes into account the time value of money
• It considers the cash flow stream in its entirety
• It makes sense to businessmen who prefer to think in terms of rate of return and
find an absolute quantity, like net present value, somewhat difficult to work with.
Limitations:
The internal rate of return figure cannot distinguish between lending and borrowing

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 12 of 14


and hence a high internal rate of return need not necessarily be a desirable feature.

5 Explain in detail about Ozone Layer depletion process ad its various effects

Ozone is highly reactive and easily broken down by man-made chlorine and bromine
compounds. These compounds are found to be most responsible for most of ozone
layer depletion.

The ozone depletion process begins when CFCs (used in refrigerator and air
conditioners) and other ozone depleting substances (ODS) are emitted into the
atmosphere. Winds efficiently mix and evenly distribute the ODS in the troposphere.
These ODS compounds do not dissolve in rain, are extremely stable, and have a long
life span. After several years, they reach the stratosphere by diffusion.

Strong UV light breaks apart the ODS molecules. CFCs, HCFCs, carbon
tetrachloride, methyl chloroform release chlorine atoms, and halons and methyl
bromide release bromine atoms. It is the chlorine and bromine atom that actually
destroys ozone, not the intact ODS molecule. It is estimated that one chlorine atom
can destroy from 10,000 to 100,000 ozone molecules before it is finally removed from
the stratosphere.

Effects on Human and Animal Health :

Increased penetration of solar UV-B radiation is likely to have high impact on human
health with potential risks of eye diseases, skin cancer and infectious diseases.

Effects on Terrestrial Plants :

In forests and grasslands, increased radiation is likely to change species composition


thus altering the bio-diversity in different ecosystems. It could also affect the plant
community indirectly resulting in changes in plant form, secondary metabolism, etc.

Effects pm Aquatic Ecosystems:

High levels of radiation exposure in tropics and subtropics may affect the distribution
of phytoplanktons, which form the foundation of aquatic food webs. It can also cause
damage to early development stages of fish, shrimp, crab, amphibians and other
animals, the most severe effects being decreased reproductive capacity and impaired
larval development.

Effects on Bio-geo-chemical Cycles : Increased solar UV radiation could affect


terrestrial and aquatic bio-geo-chemical cycles thus altering both sources and sinks of
greenhouse and important trace gases, e.g. carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide
(CO), carbonyl sulfide (COS), etc. These changes would contribute to biosphere-
atmosphere feedbacks responsible for the atmosphere build-up of these greenhouse
gases.

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 13 of 14


Effects on Air-Quality : Reduction of stratospheric ozone and increased penetration
of UV-B radiation result in higher photo dissociation rates of key trace gases that
control the chemical reactivity of the troposphere. This can increase both production
and destruction of ozone and related oxidants such as hydrogen peroxide, which are
known to have adverse effects on human health, terrestrial plants and outdoor
materials.

Paper-1/Model Test Series-1 Dr. Ambedkar Institute of Productivity, NPC-Chennai. Page 14 of 14


Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

18th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2017

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 23.09.2017 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen, as per
instructions

1. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?

a) CFCs b) SO2 c) PFC d) SF6


2. Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of

a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide


c) only ethane d) none of these
3. In a boiler, fuel substitution of coal with rice husk results in

a) energy conservation
b) energy efficiency
c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency
d) carbon neutrality
4. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow
Energy conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its

a) connected load is 120 kW and above


b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above
c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and above

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA


5. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation
Act, 2001?

a) monitoring and analysis of energy use


b) verification of energy use
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by
review
6. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumer?

a) designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor


b) adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as notified
c) submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d) conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
7. Which of the following is an energy security measure?

a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources


b) diversifying energy supply source
c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible
d) all of the above
8. Which of the following statements are true?

i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of
inductive devices
ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work
iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor
iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor

a) i & iv b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv


9. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are true?

i) ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC


ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount
of heat is retained in ETC
iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient temperature

i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

10. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due
to Hydrogen in the fuel?

a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil


11. Assume CO equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
2
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO 2
emissions will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr
12. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is

a) kW / kg of refrigerant used b) kcal / m3 of chilled water


c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration
13. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in

a) kcal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.


14. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as

a) commercial energy b) primary energy


c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
15. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water
is evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?

a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above


16. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1
17. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is required to
be appointed/designated by the

a) state designated agencies b) all industrial consumers


c) designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
18. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called .

a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink


c) carbon capture d) carbon adsorption
19. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

a) lead b) mercury c) water d) alcohol


20. The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual savings

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

is Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on investment is

a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%


21. is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the
relationship between variables and enables standard equations to be established for
energy consumption.

a) linear regression analysis b) time-dependent energy analysis


c) moving annual total d) CUSUM

22. The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of 3 m3/sec
with a head of 14 meters and with a system efficiency of 55% is

a) 226.6 kW b) 76.4 kW c) 23.1 kW d) none of the above

23. Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of Kaizen for
energy conservation?

i) Kaizen events are structured for reduction of only energy wastes


ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get involved in
energy conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and approval of
top management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area may
result in significant savings in overall energy use

a) ii & iv b) i & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv


24. The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as

a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W


25. The producer gas basically consists of

a) Only CH4 b) CO & CH4 c) CO, H2 & CH4 d) Only CO & H2


26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?

a) Time between its earliest start time and earliest finish time
b) Time between its latest start time and latest finish time
c) Time between latest start time and earliest finish time
d) Time between earliest finish time and latest finish time
27. The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers should get
energy audits conducted periodically by

a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

c) accredited energy auditor d) state Designated Agencies


28.
The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2 is

a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh


29.
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0oC. If the latent heat of fusion of ice is
335 kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

a) 1.49 b) 83.75 c) 5.97 d) None of the above


30. An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in an
industry. How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from 30oC to
85oC ignoring losses?.

a) 1.3 b) 78.18 c) 275 d) none of the above


31. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating is:

a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above


32. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 oC is
known as:

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat


33. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench Marking?

a) scale of operation b) energy pricing


c) raw materials and product quality d) vintage of technology
34. A sling psychrometer is used to measure :

a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature


c) both a & b d) relative humidity
The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------
35.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
36. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature if the supply
voltage is reduced to 220 V.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
37. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month: Production -
1200 pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece; variable energy
consumption - 950 kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of the plant for the month

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

is -------

a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh


38. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?

a) CO2 b) CFC
c) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)
39. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is known
as

a) apparent power b) active power


c) reactive power d) none of the above
40. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal efficiency
drops from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in energy consumption to
generate the same output

a) 12% increase b) 14.6% increase


c) 17.1% decrease d) 17.1% increase
41. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating
power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical
shaft power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
42. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on

a) solar energy insolation b) inverter


c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power output
43. To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas needs to
be done?

a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO


44. An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is

a) wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature


c) density of air d) dry bulb temperature
45. Which of the following is false?

a) electricity is high-grade energy


b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact
c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals rather
than heating water for bath

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the molecules
of carbon in coal
46. Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels?

a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow.


b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature
c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value
d) viscous fuels need heat tracing
47. The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a plant
was Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on investment is:

a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above


48. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?

a) kcal/kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC.


c) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kWh/kg of yarn
49. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as

a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
50. In project financing ,sensitivity analysis is applied because

a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty


b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters
c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) all the above situation

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
consumers?
Ans  In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-
peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in. Many

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will
record peak, off-peak and normal period consumption, separately.
 TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour
tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher
line losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by
reduced demand
…………………..5 marks
( each point consider 1.5 marks)

S- 2 In a chemical factory where dyes are made, wet cake at 30 OC consisting of 60% moisture
is put in a dryer to obtain an output having only 5% moisture, at atmospheric pressure. In
each batch about 120 kgs of material is dried.

a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch.

b. What is the total quantity ( sensible & latent) of heat required to evaporate the
moisture, if the latent heat of water is 540 kcal/kg at atmospheric conditions,
Ignore heat absorbed by the solids

c. Find the quantity of steam required for the drying process (per batch), if steam
at 4 kg/cm2 is used for generating hot air in the dryer and the dryer efficiency
is 80%. Latent heat of steam at 4 kg/cm2 is 520 kcal/kg.

Ans Given that


 Qty of material dried per batch - 120 Kgs
 Moisture at inlet - 60%
a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch.

 Water quantity in a wet batch - 120 x 0.6 = 72 Kgs.


 Quantity of bone dry material - 120 – 72 = 48 Kgs.
 Moisture at outlet - 5%
 Total weight of dry batch output - 48/0.95 = 50.5 Kgs.
 Equivalent water in a dry batch - 50.5 - 48 = 2.5 Kgs.

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

 Total water removed in drying - 72 – 2.5 = 69.5 Kgs./batch


…………………….1.5 marks
b. The total quantity of heat required to evaporate the moisture.

To evaporate the moisture at atmospheric pressure, the material has to be first heated
up to 100 OC.

The total heat required would be;

Sensible heat - 72 x 1 x (100 – 30) = 5040 Kcal/batch


Latent heat - 69.5 x 540 = 37530 Kcal/batch
Total heat required - 5040 + 37530 = 42570 Kcal/batch

…………………….2 marks

c. The quantity of steam required for the drying process

Dryer Efficiency - 80%

Heat input to dryer - 42570/0.8 = 53212.50 Kcal/batch


Latent heat in 4 Kg/cm2 steam - 520 Kcal/Kg
Steam quantity required - 53212.50 / 520 = 102.3 Kgs / batch
…………………….1.5 marks
S-3 Explain PAT scheme and why it is a market based mechanism?

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to
enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive
large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be
traded. The genesis of the PAT mechanism flows out of the provision of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010).

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for
the most energy intensive industries in sectors as listed below.
Sector
1. Aluminium
2. Cement
3. Chlor-Alkali
4. Fertilizer
5. Iron and Steel
6. Pulp and Paper
7. Textile
8. Thermal Power Plant

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is depended on its operating
efficiency and the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient and more for the less efficient units.

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement
targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve
superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to
trade the additional certified energy savings certificates with other designated
consumers who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy
consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be
tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank
them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in which they have been issued.
The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the quantum of energy
saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year.

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3
to 7% are set and need to be accomplished during the 3 year cycle; after which new cycle
with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption
targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-compliance under Section
26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). For ensuring the
compliance with the set targets, system of verification and check-verification will be
carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
…………………….5 marks

Refer Book 1: Pg no 40-41


S-4 Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).
Ans Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
power was introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation
 It is a performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
generators owned and controlled by the central government.
 It is also a new system of scheduling and dispatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day - ahead schedule.
 It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a half
hours in advance.
 The order emphasizes prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action.
…………………….5 marks

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

S –5 In a heat treatment shop, steel components are heat-treated in batches of 80 Tons. The
heat treatment cycle is as follows;

 Increase temperature from 30 OC to 850 OC in 3 hours.

 Maintain 850 OC for 1 hour (soaking time).

 Cool the material to 60 OC in 4 hours.

a) Calculate the efficiency of the furnace, if the specific heat of steel is 0.12 kcal/kg OC
and fuel oil consumption per batch is 1400 litres.

 GCV of fuel oil - 10200 kcal/kg,


 Cost of fuel oil - Rs. 46,000/kL,
 Sp. gr. of fuel oil - 0.92.

b) Due to high cost of oil, the plant management decides to convert to a lower operating
cost LPG fired furnace lined on the inside with ceramic fibre insulation and with an
operating efficiency of 80%, for same requirement. The investment towards installation of
the new furnace is Rs. 50 lakhs. Calculate the Return on Investment, if the plant operates
two batches per day and 250 days in a year.

 Cost of LPG - Rs. 75/kg,


 GCV of LPG - 12500 kcal/kg.

Ans Quantity of steel treated per batch - 80 Tons

a. Efficiency of Furnace:
Useful heat supplied to steel - 80000 x 0.12 x (850 – 30)
= 7872000 kcal/batch
…………………….1 mark
Total heat supplied by fuel - 1400 x 0.92 x 10200
= 13137600 kcal/batch
Efficiency of Furnace - 7872000/12067824 = 59.9%
…………………….1 mark
b. Return on Investment (RoI):
Cost of operating fuel oil furnace - 1400 x 46 = Rs. 64400/batch
Efficiency of new LPG furnace - 80%
Heat supplied in new LPG furnace - 7872000/0.8

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

= 9840000 kcal/batch
Equivalent LPG consumption - 9840000/12500
= 787.2 kg/batch
…………………….1 mark
Cost of operating LPG Furnace - 787.2 x 75
=Rs. 59040/batch
Cost saving per batch - 64400 – 59040 =Rs. 5360/-
Annual cost saving - 5360 x 2 x 250
=Rs. 26,80,000/-
…………………….1 mark
Investment for new furnace - Rs. 50 Lakhs
Return on Investment (RoI) - (26.8/50)*100 = 53.6%
…………………….1 mark
S–6 In a 100 TPD Sponge Iron plant, the sponge iron is fed to the Induction melting furnace,
producing molten steel at 88% yield. The Energy consumption details are as follows:

Coal Consumption : 130 TPD


GCV of coal : 4500 kcal/kg
Power Purchased from Grid : 82400 kWh / day
Specific Energy consumption for Kiln producing Sponge Iron: 120 kWh / ton sponge iron
82400 kWh/day
from Grid

Factory Boundary
Electricity for
Induction Melting
130 TPD Coal Furnace
4500 kcals/kg
100 TPD Sponge
Induction Melting
Iron Ore Iron Molten
Sponge Iron Kiln Furnace
steel
Grid Electricity Yield: 88%
120 kWh/t of
Sponge iron

Calculate the following


1. Specific Energy Consumption of Induction melting furnace in terms of kWh/ton of
molten steel

2. Specific Energy Consumption of the entire plant, in terms of kcal/kg of molten


steel (product).

3. Total Energy Consumption of Plant in Tons of Oil Equivalent (TOE )

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

Ans a) Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace

Molten Steel Production from the Induction melting furnace per day

= 100 x 88/100 = 88 TPD

Total Energy Consumption of the Plant = 82400 kWh

Electrical Energy Consumption in Sponge Iron Making = 120 x 100


= 12000 kWh per day

Electrical Energy Consumption in Induction Melting Furnace = 82400-12000


= 70400 kWh/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace= 70400 / 88
= 800 kWh/ton of molten steel
…………………….1 mark
b)Total Energy Consumption of the Plant:

(82400x860) + (130x1000x4500) = (70864000+585000000)


= 655864000 kcal/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption in terms of kcal/kg of Molten metal
=655864000/88000 =7453 kcal/kg of molten metal
…………………….1 mark
c) Total Energy consumption of Plant in ToE

= 655864000/107 = 65.586 ToE


…………………….1 mark
S- 7 A manufacturing industry plans to improve its energy performance under PAT through
implementation of an energy conservation scheme. After implementation, calculate the
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) with 2015-16 as the reference year. What is your
inference?
Given that:
 The current year (2016-17 ) Annual Production – 28,750 T ,
 Current year (2016-17 ) Annual Energy Consumption– 23,834 MWh,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) production - 34,000 T,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) Energy consumption - 27,200 MWh.

Ans Production factor (PF) = 28750/34000 = 0.846


…………………….1 mark
Ref year equivalent energy (RYEE) = Ref Year Energy Use (RYEU) x PF
= 27,200 x 0.846= 23011MWh

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

…………………….1 mark
PEP = (RYEE – current year energy)/RYEE = (23011 – 23834)/23011
= (-) 0.0369 ie (-) 3.7 %
…………………….1.5 marks
Since the PEP is negative, it implies that the energy conservation measure did not yield
reduction in energy consumption, action to be taken to improve the plant performance.
…………………….1.5 marks
S-8 List down any five Designated Consumers notified under the Energy Conservation Act.
Ans
(1) Aluminium, (2) Cement, (3) Chloralkali, (4) Fertiliser, (5) Steel, (6) Pulp & Paper,
(7)Thermal Power Plants, (8) Textile, (9) Railways.
…………………….5 marks
( any 5 of the above and each one carries one mark)

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L - 1 Saturated steam at 1 atm is discharged from a turbine at 1200 kg/h. Superheated steam at 300 0C
and 1 atm is needed as a feed to a heat exchanger. To produce it, the turbine discharge stream is
mixed with superheated steam at 400 0C, 1 atm and specific volume of 3.11 m3/kg.
Calculate the amount of superheated steam at 300 0C produced and the volumetric flow rate of the
400 0C steam.

Ans Solution
1. Mass balance of water
1200 + m1 = m2 ………………………………………… (1)
…………………….1 mark
2. Energy balance
(1200 kg/h)(2676 kJ/kg) + m1(3278 kJ/kg)

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

= m2(3074 kJ/kg) ……………………………………. …. (2)


…………………….1 mark
Eqs. (1) and (2) are solved simultaneously
3211200 + 3278m1 = (1200 + m1)3074
m1 = 2341.2 kg/h
m2 = 1200 + 2341.2 = 3541.2 kg/h (superheated steam produced)

…………………….4 marks
o
3. Volumetric flow rate of 400 C steam
The specific volume of steam at 400 C and 1 atm is 3.11 m3/kg. The volumetric flow rate is
calculated as follows:
(2341.2 kg/h)(3.11 m3/kg)
= 7281.1 m3/h
…………………….4 marks
L –2 The energy consumption and production patterns in a chemical plant over a 9 month period is provided in
the table below;
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Production in Tonnes / month 493 297 381 479 585 440 234 239 239
Energy Consumption MWh /month 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1

th
Estimate the cumulative energy savings at end of the 9 month and give your inference on the
result ? ( consider 9 month data for evaluation for predicted energy consumption)
Ans It is required to use the equations Y= mX + C and
nC + mΣX = ΣY
cΣX + mΣX2 = ΣXY

X=
Y =Energy
Production in
Month Consumption MWh X2 XY
Tonnes /
/month
month
1 493 78.2 243049 38574.12
2 297 75.7 88209 22479.51
3 381 76.3 145161 29076.88
4 479 76.1 229441 36436.09
5 585 78.1 342225 45671.42
6 440 70.7 193600 31110.53
7 234 73.7 54756 17240.63
8 239 64.4 57121 15402.96
9 239 72.1 57121 17228.98
3387 665.3 1410683 253221

_______________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

Therefore, the normal equations become;


9c + 3387m = 665.3 ……….i

3387C + 1410683m = 253221.1 ……… ii

…………………….2 marks

c = (665.3-3387m)/9

Substituting in Eq. ii,

m = 0.021 and

c = 66.1

The best-fit straight line equation is;

y = 0.021x + 66.1
…………………….3 marks

Production in E cal Y =
Tonnes / 0.021x + Difference
Month month x Eactual 66.1 CUSUM
1 493 78.2 76.45 1.75 1.75
2 297 75.7 72.34 3.36 5.11
3 381 76.3 74.10 2.20 7.31
4 479 76.1 76.16 -0.06 7.25
5 585 78.1 78.39 -0.28 6.97
6 440 70.7 75.34 -4.64 2.33
7 234 73.7 71.01 2.69 5.01
8 239 64.4 71.12 -6.72 -1.71
9 239 72.1 71.12 0.98 -0.73
…………………….4 marks
Since the CUSUM value at the end of 9th month is negative, the plant has not achieved any net energy
savings and action has to be taken to determine reason for no performance of the encon option.
…………………….1 mark
L - 3 Explain the following
a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature

b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor

c) Gross Calorific Value & Net Calorific Value

d) 5S & Return of Investment (ROI)

e) CUSUM

_______________________ 16
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

Ans a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature

• Dry bulb Temperature is an indication of the sensible heat content of air-water vapour
mixtures
• Wet bulb Temperature is a measure of total heat content or enthalpy. It is the temperature
approached by the dry bulb and the dew point as saturation occurs.
…………………….2 marks
b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor

• Maximum demand is maximum KVA or KW over one billing cycle


• Power Factor Cos = kW/ KVA or kW = kVA cos 
…………………….2 marks
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net calorific Value:

• Gross calorific value assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully
condensed.

• Net calorific value assumes the water leaves with the combustion products without being
fully condensed.

• The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour produced during
the combustion process.

…………………….2 marks

d) 5S:

Housekeeping. Separate needed items from unneeded items. Keep only what is
immediately necessary item on the shop floor.

Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be easily and
quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.

Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area immediately.

Cleanliness. Keep everything clean in a constant state of readiness.

Discipline. Everyone understands, obeys, and practices the rules when in the plant.

…………………….1 mark( any one of the above is sufficient)

d) Return on Investment:

ROI expresses the annual return from project as % of capital cost.

This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment,

_______________________ 17
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

expressed as a percentage.

…………………….1 mark

e) Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) Technique:

• Difference between expected or standard consumption with actual consumption data


points over baseline period of time.

• Follows a fixed trend unless something (energy saving measure, deterioration in


performance..) happens

• Helps calculation of savings/losses till date after changes

…………………….2 marks

L – 4 Answer the following


Chose the correct
S. No Statement answer OR
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 True/False

2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks
Non Contact Infrared Thermometer cannot measure
3 True/False
temperature of objects placed in hazardous places
To measure the RPM of a Flywheel, ______ type of RPM
4 meter is used and for a visible shaft-end _______ type of Fill in the blanks
RPM meter is used.
In a switch yard, _____ instrument is used to identify the
5 Fill in the blanks
loose joints and terminations
Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy
audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within
6 Fill in the blanks
______ months of notification issued by the Central
Government

280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 3.5 bar is


7 Fill in the blanks
equivalent to __________kPa

8 One metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW Fill in the blanks

1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% of Carbon produces


9 Fill in the blanks
______ kg of CO2

_______________________ 18
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

In a gasification system the reduction zone is above the


10 True/False
combustion zone

Ans Chose the correct


Sr
Statement answer OR Solution
No
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and True/False False
SO2
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the Fill in the blanks Transit Time; Doppler
principle of____& ____ Effect

3 Non Contact Infrared True/False False


Thermometer cannot measure
temperature of objects placed in
hazardous places
4 To measure the RPM of a Fill in the blanks Stroboscope; Tachometer
Flywheel, ______ type of RPM
meter is used and for a visible
shaft-end _______ type of
RPM meter is used.
5 In a switch yard, _____ Fill in the blanks Thermal imager or IR gun
instrument is used to identify
the loose joints and
terminations
6 Every Designated Consumer Fill in the blanks Accredited ; 18 months
shall have its first energy audit
conducted by ________ Energy
Auditor within ______ months
of notification issued by the
Central Government
7 Fill in the blanks 325.6 Watts;
280 kcal/ hr is equivalent to
(280x4.187x1000/3600)
_____Watts and 3.5 bar is
350 kPa (3.5 x100)
equivalent to __________kPa
8 One metric ton of oil equivalent Fill in the blanks 11.62 MW
is to ________MW (1x1000x10000/(860x1000)
9 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 30% Fill in the blanks 1.1
of Carbon produces ______ kg [(44/12)x(0.3]
of CO2
10 In a gasification system the True/False False
reduction zone is above the
combustion zone

_______________________ 19
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

…………………….10 marks(each one carries one mark)

L - 5 A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated
below;

Project 1:

i. Investment – Rs. 15 Lakhs

ii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 4 lakhs.

iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost – Rs. 50,000/-

iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs

v. Life of the project – 8 years

vi. Salvage value – Rs. 5 lakhs

Project 2:

vii. Investment – Rs. 14 Lakhs

viii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 3.5 lakhs.

ix. Annual Maintenance cost – Rs. 20,000/-

x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs

xi. Life of the project – 8 years

xii. Salvage Value- 2 lakhs

Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12%.

_______________________ 20
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

Ans
Year Project 1 Project 2
Outgo Saving NPV Outgo Saving NPV
0 15.0 0 =-15.0 14.0 0 = -14
1 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1
= 3.571 = 2.95
2 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)2
= 2.79 = 2.63
3 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)3 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)3
= 2.84 = 2.35
4 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)4 5 3.5 = (-1.5 / (1+.12)4
= 2.22 = -0.95
5 6 4.0 = (-2 / (1+.12)5 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)5
= -1.13 = 1.87
6 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)6 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)6
= 1.77 = 1.67
7 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)7 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)7
= 1.81 = 1.49
8 0.5 9 (4+5) = (8.5 / (1+.12)8 0.2 5.5 = (5.3 / (1+.12)8
= 3.43 (3.5+2) = 2.14
NPV = + 2.301 @12% = + 0.15

NPV Project 1 is higher than Project 2. Hence project 1 is preferred.


…………………….10 marks

A project activity has several components as indicated below;

L- 6 S. Activity Preceded by Duration (in


No. Weeks)
1 A - 8
2 B A 6
3 C A 12
4 D B 4
5 E D 5
6 F B 12
7 G E& F 9
8 H C 8
9 I F&H 5
10 J I&G 6

d. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the
critical path.

_______________________ 21
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

e. What are the Earliest Start, Latest Start and Total Float of activity ‘H’?

f. What would be the project duration if activity ‘H’ got delayed by 3 weeks?

Ans PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow

D 5 G

B 5 9 J, 6

A 6 F,12 I ,5

8 c
12 H 8

OR

PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node

…………………….6 marks

a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J

…………………….1 mark

b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks

_______________________ 22
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A with Solutions

…………………….1 mark

c. For activity H, Early Start is 20, Latest Start is 22 and Total Float is 2 weeks.

…………………….1 mark

d. Project duration will be 42 weeks- a delay of 1 week.


…………………….1 mark

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 23
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

18th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2017

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 23.09.2017 Timings: 09:30-12:30 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 10 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen, as per
instructions

1. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How


much water is evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above
2.
2000 kJ of heat is supplied to 500 kg of ice at 0oC. If the latent heat of fusion of
ice is 335 kJ/kg then the amount of ice in kg melted will be

a) 1.49 b) 83.75 c) 5.97 d) None of the above


3. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to
follow Energy conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act,
2001 provided its

a) connected load is 120 kW and above


b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above
c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and
above
d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA
4. A process electric heater is taking an hour to reach the desired temperature while
operating at 440 V. It will take ------- hours to reach the same temperature, if
the supply voltage is reduced to 220 V.

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
5. A sling psychrometer is used to measure :

a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature


c) both a & b d) relative humidity
6. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the
operating power factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then
the mechanical shaft power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
7. An electric heater consumes 1000 Joules of energy in 5 seconds. Its power rating
is:

a) 200 W b) 1000 W c) 5000W d) none of the above


8. An electric heater draws 5 kW of power for continuous hot water generation in
an industry. How much quantity of water in litres per min can be heated from
30oC to 85oC ignoring losses?.

a) 1.3 b) 78.18 c) 275 d) none of the above


9. An indication of sensible heat content in air-water vapour mixture is

a) wet bulb temperature b) dew point temperature


c) density of air d) dry bulb temperature
10. An oil fired boiler is retrofitted to fire coconut shell chips. Boiler thermal
efficiency drops from 82% to 70%. What will be the percentage change in
energy consumption to generate the same output

a) 12% increase b) 14.6% increase


c) 17.1% decrease d) 17.1% increase
11. As per Energy Conservation Act, 2001, a BEE Certified Energy Manger is
required to be appointed/designated by the

a) state designated agencies b) all industrial consumers


c) designated consumers d) electrical distribution licensees
12.
Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are
of the order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent
CO2 emissions will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

13. Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of

a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide


c) only ethane d) none of these
14. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as
a) commercial energy b) primary energy
c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
15. In a boiler, fuel substitution of coal with rice husk results in

a) energy conservation
b) energy efficiency
c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency
d) carbon neutrality
16. In a manufacturing plant, following data are gathered for a given month:
Production - 1200 pieces; specific energy consumption - 1000 kWh/piece;
variable energy consumption - 950 kWh/piece. The fixed energy consumption of
the plant for the month is -------

a) 6,000 kWh b)10,000 kWh c) 12,000 kWh d) 60,000 kWh


17. In project financing , sensitivity analysis is applied because

a) almost all the cash flow methods involve uncertainty


b) of the need to assess how sensitive the project to changes in input parameters
c) what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) all the above situation
18. is a statistical technique which determines and quantifies the
relationship between variables and enables standard equations to be established
for energy consumption.

a) linear regression analysis b) time-dependent energy analysis


c) moving annual total d) CUSUM

19. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is

a) kW / kg of refrigerant used b) kcal / m3 of chilled water


c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration
20. The component of electric power which yields useful mechanical power output is
known as

a) apparent power b) active power


c) reactive power d) none of the above

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

21. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual
savings achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment
and/or services. This is known as

a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
22. The cost of replacement of inefficient chiller with an energy efficient chiller in a
plant was Rs. 10 lakh .The net annual cash flow is Rs 2.50 lakh .The return on
investment is:

a) 18% b) 20% c) 15 % d) none of the above


23. The electrical power unit Giga Watt (GW) may be written as

a) 1,000,000 MW b) 1,000 MW c) 1,000 kW d) 1,000,000 W


24. The Energy Conservation Act,2001 requires that all designated consumers
should get energy audits conducted periodically by

a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor


c) accredited energy auditor d) state Designated Agencies
25. The energy conversion efficiency of a solar cell does not depend on

a) solar energy insolation b) inverter


c) area of the solar cell d) maximum power output
26. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1
The number of moles of water contained in 36 kg of water is ------------
27.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
28. The power generation potential in mini hydro power plant for a water flow of
3 m3/sec with a head of 14 meters and with a system efficiency of 55% is

a) 226.6 kW b) 76.4 kW c) 23.1 kW d) none of the above

29. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called .

a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink


c) carbon capture d) carbon adsorption
30. The producer gas basically consists of

a) Only CH4 b) CO & CH4 c) CO, H2 & CH4 d) Only CO & H2

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

31. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by
1oC is known as:
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat
32. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in
a) kcal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.
33. The retrofitting of a variable speed drive in a plant costs Rs 2 lakh. The annual
savings is Rs 0.5 lakh. The maintenance cost is Rs. 5,000/year. The return on
investment is
a) 25% b) 22.5% c) 24% d) 27.5%
34.
The term missing in the following equation (kVA) 2 = (kVA cos phi) 2 + ( ? )2
is
a) cos phi b) sin phi c) kVA sin phi d) kVArh
35. To maximize the combustion efficiency, which of the following in the flue gas
needs to be done?

a) maximize O2 b) maximize CO2 c) minimize CO2 d) maximize CO


36. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on
combustion due to Hydrogen in the fuel ?

a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil


37. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumer?

a. designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor


b. adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as
notified
c. submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d. conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
38. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?

a) CO2 b) CFC c) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) d) perfluorocarbon (PFC)


39. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?
a) lead b) mercury c) water d) alcohol
40. Which of the following is an energy security measure?

a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources


b) diversifying energy supply source
c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible
d) all of the above

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

41. Which of the following is false?

a) electricity is high-grade energy


b) high grade forms of energy are highly ordered and compact
c) low grade energy is better used for applications like melting of metals
rather than heating water for bath
d) the molecules of low grade energy are more randomly distributed than the
molecules of carbon in coal
42. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?

a) CFCs b) SO2 c) PFC d) SF6


43. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy
Conservation Act, 2001?

a) monitoring and analysis of energy use


b) verification of energy use
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by
review
44. Which of the following is not applicable to liquid fuels?

a) the viscosity of a liquid fuel is a measure of its internal resistance to flow.


b) the viscosity of all liquid fuels decreases with increase in its temperature
c) higher the viscosity of liquid fuels, higher will be its heating value
d) viscous fuels need heat tracing

45. Which of the following parameters is not considered for external Bench
Marking?

a) scale of operation b) energy pricing


c) raw materials and product quality d) vintage of technology
46. Which of the following statements are true?

i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field
of inductive devices
ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work
iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor
iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor

a) i & iv b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘float’ for an activity?

a) Time between its earliest start time and earliest finish time
b) Time between its latest start time and latest finish time
c) Time between latest start time and earliest finish time
d) Time between earliest finish time and latest finish time
48. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are
true?

i) ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC


ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher
amount of heat is retained in ETC
iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient
temperature

a) i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii


49. Which of the following two statements are true regarding application of
Kaizen for energy conservation?

i) Kaizen events are structured for reduction of only energy wastes


ii) Kaizen events engage workers in such a way so that they get
involved in energy conservation efforts
iii) Implementation of kaizen events takes place after review and
approval of top management
iv) In a Kaizen event, it may happen that small change in one area
may result in significant savings in overall energy use

a) ii & iv b) i & iv c) iii & iv d) i & iv


50. Which one is not an energy consumption benchmark parameter?

a) kcal/kWh of electricity generated b) kg/ oC.


c) kW/ton of refrigeration d) kWh/kg of yarn

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

S-1 Give a short description about Availability Based Tariff (ABT).

Ans Introduction of availability based tariff(ABT) and scheduled interchange charges for
power was introduced in 2003 for interstate sale of power , have reduced voltage and
frequency fluctuation
 It is a performance-based tariff system for the supply of electricity by
generators owned and controlled by the central government.
 It is also a new system of scheduling and dispatch, which requires both
generators and beneficiaries to commit to day - ahead schedule.
 It is a system of rewards and penalties seeking to enforce day ahead pre-
committed schedules, though variations are permitted if notified one and a half
hours in advance.
 The order emphasizes prompt payment of dues , non-payment of prescribed
charges will be liable for appropriate action.
…………………….5 marks

S- 2 A manufacturing industry plans to improve its energy performance under PAT through
implementation of an energy conservation scheme. After implementation, calculate the
Plant Energy Performance (PEP) with 2015-16 as the reference year. What is your
inference?
Given that:
 The current year (2016-17 ) Annual Production – 34000 T ,
 Current year (2016-17 ) Annual Energy Consumption– 27,200 MWh,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) production - 28,750 T,
 Reference year (2015-16 ) Energy consumption - 23,834MWh.

Ans Production factor (PF) = 34000 / 28750= 1.18


…………………….1 mark
Ref year equivalent energy (RYEE) = Ref Year Energy Use (RYEU) x PF
= 23834 x 1.18= 28124.12MWh
…………………….1.5 marks
PEP = (RYEE – current year energy)/RYEE = (28124.12 – 27200)/28124.12
= (+) 0.0329 ie (+) 3.3 %
…………………….1.5 marks
Since the PEP is positive, it implies that the energy conservation measure had yield
reduction in energy consumption. Action has to be taken to improve plant performance.
…………………….1 mark
S- 3 List down any five Designated Consumers notified under the Energy Conservation Act.

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Ans
(1) Aluminium, (2) Cement, (3) Chloralkali, (4) Fertiliser, (5) Steel, (6) Pulp & Paper,
(7)Thermal Power Plants, (8) Textile, (9) Railways.
…………………….5 marks
( any 5 of the above and each one carries one mark)
S-4 In a 100 TPD Sponge Iron plant, the sponge iron is fed to the Induction melting furnace,
producing molten steel at 86% yield. The Energy consumption details are as follows:

Coal Consumption : 130 TPD


GCV of coal : 4500 kcal/kg
Power Purchased from Grid : 82400 kWh / day
Specific Energy consumption for Kiln producing Sponge Iron: 120 kWh / ton sponge iron
82400 kWh/day
from Grid

Factory Boundary
Electricity for
Induction Melting
130 TPD Coal Furnace
4500 kcals/kg
100 TPD Sponge
Induction Melting
Iron Ore Iron Molten
Sponge Iron Kiln Furnace
steel
Grid Electricity Yield: 86%
120 kWh/t of
Sponge iron

Calculate the following


1. Specific Energy Consumption of Induction melting furnace in terms of kWh/ton of
molten steel.

2. Specific Energy Consumption of the entire plant, in terms of kcal/kg of molten


steel (product).

3. Total Energy Consumption of Plant in Tons of Oil Equivalent (TOE ).

Ans a) Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace

Molten Steel Production from the Induction melting furnace per day

= 100 x 86/100 = 86 TPD

Total Energy Consumption of the Plant = 82400 kWh

Electrical Energy Consumption in Sponge Iron Making = 120 x 100


= 12000 kWh per day

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Electrical Energy Consumption in Induction Melting Furnace = 82400-12000


= 70400 kWh/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption of Induction Melting Furnace= 70400/86
= 818.6 kWh/ton of molten steel
…………………….1 mark
b)Total Energy Consumption of the Plant:

= (82400x860) + (130x1000x4500) = (70864000+585000000)


= 655864000 kcal/day
…………………….1 mark
Specific Energy Consumption in terms of kcal/kg of Molten metal
=655864000/86000 =7626.3 kcal/kg of molten metal
…………………….1 mark
c) Total Energy consumption of Plant in ToE

= 655864000/107 = 65.586 ToE


…………………….1 mark
S-5 Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
consumers?
Ans  In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-
peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in. Many
electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will
record peak, off-peak and normal period consumption, separately.
 TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour
tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher
line losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by
reduced demand.
…………………..5 marks
( each point consider 1.5 marks)

S –6 In a chemical factory where dyes are made, wet cake at 30 OC consisting of 60% moisture
is put in a dryer to obtain an output having only 8% moisture, at atmospheric pressure. In
each batch about 120 kgs of material is dried.

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch.

b. What is the total quantity (sensible & latent) of heat required to evaporate the
moisture, if the latent heat of water is 540 kcal/kg at atmospheric conditions,
Ignore heat absorbed by the solids

c. Find the quantity of steam required for the drying process (per batch), if steam
at 4 kg/cm2 is used for generating hot air in the dryer and the dryer efficiency
is 70%. Latent heat of steam at 4 kg/cm2 is 520 Kcal/kg.

Ans Given that


 Qty of material dried per batch - 120 kgs
 Moisture at inlet - 60%
a. The quantity of moisture removed per batch.

 Water quantity in a wet batch - 120 x 0.6 = 72 kgs.


 Quantity of bone dry material - 120 – 72 = 48 kgs.
 Moisture at outlet - 8%
 Total weight of dry batch output - 48/0.92 = 52.2 kgs.
 Equivalent water in a dry batch - 52.2 - 48 = 4.2 kgs.
 Total water removed in drying - 72 – 4.2 = 67.8 kgs./batch
…………………….1.5 marks
b. The total quantity of heat required to evaporate the moisture.

To evaporate the moisture at atmospheric pressure, the material has to be first heated
up to 100 OC.

The total heat required would be;

Sensible heat - 72 x 1 x (100 – 30) = 5040 kcal/batch


Latent heat - 67.8 x 540 = 36612 kcal/batch
Total heat required - 5040 + 36612 = 41652 kcal/batch

…………………….2 marks
c. The quantity of steam required for the drying process

Dryer Efficiency - 70%

Heat input to dryer - 41652/0.7 = 59502.86 kcal/batch

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Latent heat in 4 Kg/cm2 steam - 520 kcal/kg


Steam quantity required - 59502.86 / 520 = 114.4 kgs / batch
…………………….1.5 marks
S–7 Explain PAT scheme and why it is a market based mechanism?

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to
enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive
large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be
traded. The genesis of the PAT mechanism flows out of the provision of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010).

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for
the most energy intensive industries in sectors as listed below.
Sector
1. Aluminium
2. Cement
3. Chlor-Alkali
4. Fertilizer
5. Iron and Steel
6. Pulp and Paper
7. Textile
8. Thermal Power Plant

The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is depended on its operating
efficiency and the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient and more for the less efficient units.

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement
targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve
superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to
trade the additional certified energy savings certificates with other designated
consumers who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy
consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be
tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank
them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in which they have been issued.
The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the quantum of energy
saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year.

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3
to 7% are set and need to be accomplished during the 3 year cycle; after which new cycle
with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption
targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-compliance under Section
26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (amended in 2010). For ensuring the

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

compliance with the set targets, system of verification and check-verification will be
carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.
…………………….5 marks
Refer Book 1: Pg no 40-41
S- 8 In a heat treatment shop, steel components are heat-treated in batches of 80 Tons. The
heat treatment cycle is as follows;

 Increase temperature from 30 OC to 850 OC in 3 hours.

 Maintain 850 OC for 1 hour (soaking time).

 Cool the material to 60 OC in 4 hours.

a) Calculate the efficiency of the furnace, if the specific heat of steel is 0.12 kcal/kg OC
and fuel oil consumption per batch is 1400 litres.

GCV of fuel oil - 10200 kcal/kg,


Cost of fuel oil - Rs. 46,000/kL,
Sp. gr. of fuel oil - 0.92.

b) Due to high cost of oil, the plant management decides to convert to a lower operating
cost LPG fired furnace lined on the inside with ceramic fibre insulation and with an
operating efficiency of 75%, for same requirement. The investment towards installation of
the new furnace is Rs. 50 lakhs. Calculate the Return on Investment, if the plant operates
two batches per day and 270 days in a year.

Cost of LPG - Rs. 75/kg,


GCV of LPG - 12500 kcal/kg.

Ans Quantity of steel treated per batch - 80 Tons

a. Efficiency of Furnace:
Useful heat supplied to steel - 80000 x 0.12 x (850 – 30)
= 7872000 kcal/batch
…………………….1 mark
Total heat supplied by fuel - 1400 x 0.92 x 10200
= 13137600 kcal/batch
Efficiency of Furnace - 7872000/12067824 = 59.9%
…………………….1 mark
b. Return on Investment (RoI):
Cost of operating fuel oil furnace - 1400 x 46 = Rs. 64400/batch

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Efficiency of new LPG furnace - 75%


Heat supplied in new LPG furnace - 7872000/0.75
= 10496000 kcal/batch
Equivalent LPG consumption - 10496000/12500
= 839.68 kg/batch
…………………….1 mark
Cost of operating LPG Furnace - 839.68 x 75
=Rs. 62976/batch
Cost saving per batch - 64400 – 62976 =Rs. 1424/-
Annual cost saving - 1424 x 2 x 270
= Rs. 768960/-
…………………….1 mark
Investment for new furnace - Rs. 50 Lakhs
Return on Investment (RoI) - (7.69/50)*100 = 15.38%

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L - 1 The energy consumption and production patterns in a chemical plant over a 9 month period is provided in
the table below;
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Production in Tonnes / month 493 297 381 479 585 440 234 239 239
Energy Consumption MWh /month 78.2 75.7 76.3 76.1 78.1 70.7 73.7 64.4 72.1

th
Estimate the cumulative energy savings at end of the 7 month and give your inference on the
result? (Consider 9 month data for evaluation of equation for predicted energy consumption)
Ans It is required to use the equations Y= mX + C and
nC + mΣX = ΣY
cΣX + mΣX2 = ΣXY

X=
Y =Energy
Production in
Month Consumption MWh X2 XY
Tonnes /
/month
month
1 493 78.2 243049 38574.12
2 297 75.7 88209 22479.51
3 381 76.3 145161 29076.88
479 76.1 229441 36436.09
5 585 78.1 342225 45671.42
6 440 70.7 193600 31110.53
7 234 73.7 54756 17240.63
8 239 64.4 57121 15402.96
9 239 72.1 57121 17228.98
3387 665.3 1410683 253221

Therefore, the normal equations become;


9c + 3387m = 665.3 ……….i

3387C + 1410683m = 253221.1 ……… ii

…………………….2 marks
c = (665.3-3387m)/9

Substituting in Eq. ii,

m = 0.021 and

_______________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

c = 66.1

The best-fit straight line equation is;

y = 0.021x + 66.1
…………………….3 marks
Production in E cal Y =
Tonnes / 0.021x + Difference
Month month x Eactual 66.1 CUSUM
1 493 78.2 76.36204 1.9 1.9
2 297 75.7 72.26433 3.4 5.3
3 381 76.3 74.02049 2.3 7.6
4 479 76.1 76.06935 0.0 7.6
5 585 78.1 78.28546 -0.2 7.4
6 440 70.7 75.25398 -4.5 2.8
7 234 73.7 70.9472 2.7 5.6
…………………….4 marks
Since the CUSUM value at the end of 7th month is positive, the plant has achieved net energy savings.
…………………….1 mark
L –2 Saturated steam at 1 atm is discharged from a turbine at 1000 kg/h. Superheated steam at 300 0C
and 1 atm is needed as a feed to a heat exchanger. To produce it, the turbine discharge stream is
mixed with superheated steam at 400 0C, 1 atm and specific volume of 3.11 m3/kg
Calculate the amount of superheated steam at 300 0C produced and the volumetric flow rate of the
400 0C steam.

Ans Solution
1. Mass balance of water
1000 + m1 = m2 ………………………………………… (1)
…………………….1 mark
2. Energy balance
(1000 kg/h)(2676 kJ/kg) + m1(3278 kJ/kg)
= m2(3074 kJ/kg) ……………………………………. …. (2)
…………………….1 mark
Eqs. (1) and (2) are solved simultaneously
2676000 + 3278m1 = (1000 + m1)3074

_______________________ 16
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

m1 = 1950.98 kg/h
m2 = 1000 + 1950.98 = 2950.98 kg/h (superheated steam produced)

…………………….4 marks
o
3. Volumetric flow rate of 400 C steam
The specific volume of steam at 400 o C and 1 atm is 3.11 m3/kg. The volumetric flow rate is
calculated as follows:
(1950.98 kg/h)(3.11 m3/kg)
= 6067.55 m3/h
…………………….4 marks
L - 3 Explain the following
a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature

b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor

c) Gross Calorific Value & Net Calorific Value

d) 5S & Return of Investment (ROI)

e) CUSUM

Ans a) Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet bulb Temperature

• Dry bulb Temperature is an indication of the sensible heat content of air-water vapour
mixtures
• Wet bulb Temperature is a measure of total heat content or enthalpy. It is the temperature
approached by the dry bulb and the dew point as saturation occurs.
…………………….2 marks
b) Maximum Demand and Power Factor

• Maximum demand is maximum KVA or KW over one billing cycle


• Power Factor Cos = kW/ KVA or kW = kVA cos 
…………………….2 marks
c) Gross Calorific Value & Net calorific Value:

• Gross calorific value assumes all vapour produced during the combustion process is fully
condensed.

• Net calorific value assumes the water leaves with the combustion products without being
fully condensed.

• The difference being the latent heat of condensation of the water vapour produced during
the combustion process.

…………………….2 marks

_______________________ 17
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

d) 5S:

Housekeeping. Separate needed items from unneeded items. Keep only what is
immediately necessary item on the shop floor.

Workplace Organization. Organize the workplace so that needed items can be easily and
quickly accessed. A place for everything and everything in its place.

Cleanup. Sweeping, washing, and cleaning everything around working area immediately.

Cleanliness. Keep everything clean in a constant state of readiness.

Discipline. Everyone understands, obeys, and practices the rules when in the plant.

…………………….2 marks
d) Return on Investment:

ROI expresses the annual return from project as % of capital cost.

This is a broad indicator of the annual return expected from initial capital investment,
expressed as a percentage.

…………………….2 marks
e) Cumulative Sum (CUSUM) Technique:

• Difference between expected or standard consumption with actual consumption data


points over baseline period of time.

• Follows a fixed trend unless something (energy saving measure, deterioration in


performance..) happens

• Helps calculation of savings/losses till date after changes.

…………………….2 marks
L – 4 Answer the following
Chose the correct
S. No Statement answer OR
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and SO2 True/False

2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the principle of____& ____ Fill in the blanks
Non Contact Infrared Thermometer can measure
3 True/False
temperature of objects placed in hazardous places
To measure the RPM of a visible shaft-end, ______ type
4 Fill in the blanks
of RPM meter is used and for a Flywheel _______ type of

_______________________ 18
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

RPM meter is used.

In a switch yard, thermal imager instrument is used to


5 True/False
identify the loose joints and terminations
Every Designated Consumer shall have its first energy
audit conducted by ________ Energy Auditor within
6 Fill in the blanks
______ months of notification issued by the Central
Government
380 kcal/ hr is equivalent to _____Watts and 4.5 bar is
7 Fill in the blanks
equivalent to __________kPa

8 1.5 metric ton of oil equivalent is to ________MW Fill in the blanks

1 kg of Coal, consisting of 35% of Carbon produces


9 Fill in the blanks
______ kg of CO2

In a gasification system the reduction zone is below the


10 True/False
combustion zone

Ans Chose the correct


Sr
Statement answer OR Solution
No
Fill-in-the-blanks
1 Fyrite measures CO2, O2 and True/False False
SO2
2 Ultrasonic Flow Meter uses the Fill in the blanks Transit Time; Doppler Effect
principle of____& ____
3 Non Contact Infrared True/False True
Thermometer can measure
temperature of objects placed in
hazardous places
4 To measure the RPM of a Fill in the blanks Tachometer; Stroboscope
visible shaft-end, ______ type
of RPM meter is used and for a
Flywheel _______ type of
RPM meter is used.
5 In a switch yard, thermal True/False True
imager instrument is used to
identify the loose joints and
terminations
6 Every Designated Consumer Fill in the blanks Accredited ; 18 months
shall have its first energy audit
conducted by ________ Energy
Auditor within ______ months

_______________________ 19
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

of notification issued by the


Central Government
7 Fill in the blanks 441.96 Watts;
380 kcal/ hr is equivalent to
(380x4.187x1000/3600)
_____Watts and 4.5 bar is
450 kPa (4.5 x100)
equivalent to __________kPa
8 1.5 metric ton of oil equivalent Fill in the blanks 17.44 MW
is to ________MW (1.5x1000x10000/(860x1000)
9 1 kg of Coal, consisting of 35% Fill in the blanks 1.28
of Carbon produces ______ kg [(44/12)x(0.35]
of CO2
10 In a gasification system the True/False True
reduction zone is below the
combustion zone
…………………….10 marks ( each one carries one mark)
L- 5 A project activity has several components as indicated below;

S. Activity Preceded by Duration (in


No. Weeks)
1 A - 8
2 B A 6
3 C A 12
4 D B 4
5 E D 5
6 F B 12
7 G E& F 9
8 H C 8
9 I F&H 5
10 J I&G 6

a. Prepare a PERT chart, estimate the duration of the project and identify the critical
path.

b. What are the Earliest Start, Latest Start and Total Float of activity ‘H’?

c. What would be the project duration if activity ‘H’ got delayed by 3 weeks?

Ans PERT Diagram based on Activity on Arrow

_______________________ 20
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

D 5 G

B 5 9 J, 6

A 6 F,12 I ,5

8 c
12 H 8

OR

PERT Diagram based on Activity on Node

…………………….6 marks
a. Critical Path: A-B-F-G-J

…………………….1 mark
b. Estimated Project Duration: 41 weeks

…………………….1 mark
c. For activity H, Early Start is 20, Latest Start is 22 and Total Float is 2 weeks.

…………………….1 mark
d. Project duration will be 42 weeks i.e a delay of 1 week, if activity ‘H’ got delayed
by 3 weeks.

_______________________ 21
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

…………………….1 mark
L - 6 A company has to choose between two projects whose cash flows are as indicated
below;

Project 1:

i. Investment – Rs. 15 Lakhs

ii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 4 lakhs.

iii. Bi-annual maintenance cost – Rs. 50,000/-

iv. Reconditioning and overhaul during 5th year: 6 lakhs

v. Life of the project – 8 years

vi. Salvage value – Rs. 2 lakhs

Project 2:

vii. Investment – Rs. 14 Lakhs

viii. Annual cost savings – Rs. 3.5 lakhs.

ix. Annual Maintenance cost – Rs. 20,000/-

x. Reconditioning and overhaul during 4th year: 5 lakhs

xi. Life of the project – 8 years

xii. Salvage Value- 5 lakhs

Which project should the company choose? The annual discount rate is 12%.

_______________________ 22
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B with Solutions

Ans
Year Project 1 Project 2
Outgo Saving NPV Outgo Saving NPV
0 15.0 0 =-15.0 14.0 0 = -14
1 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)1 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)1
= 3.571 = 2.95
2 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)2 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)2
= 2.79 = 2.63
3 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)3 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)3
= 2.84 = 2.35
4 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)4 5 3.5 = (-1.5 / (1+.12)4
= 2.22 = -0.95
5 6 4.0 = (-2 / (1+.12)5 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)5
= -1.13 = 1.87
6 0.5 4.0 = (3.5 / (1+.12)6 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)6
= 1.77 = 1.67
7 0 4.0 = (4 / (1+.12)7 0.2 3.5 = (3.3 / (1+.12)7
= 1.81 = 1.49
8 0.5 6 (4+2) = (5.5 / (1+.12)8 0.2 8.5 = (8.3 / (1+.12)8
= 2.22 (3.5+5) = 3.35
NPV = + 1.091 @12% = + 1.36

NPV Project 2 is higher than Project 1. Hence project 2 is preferred.


…………………….10 marks
…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 23
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

17th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2016

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 24.09.2016 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

1. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when
compared with those producing it, would in all probability be

a) Higher b) Lower c) Almost equal d) No correlation


O
2. If a 2 KW immersion heater is used to heat 30litres of water at 30 C, what would be the
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system
O O O
a) 87.3 C b) 44.3 C c) 71.3 C d) none of the above
3. Which of the following statements regarding ECBC are correct?

i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per cubic metre of area
ii) ECBC does not encourage retrofit of Energy conservation measures
iii) ECBC prescribes energy efficiency standards for design and construction of
commercial and industrial buildings
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs
(construction and operating energy costs)

a) i b) ii c) iiii d) iv
4. Verification and Check-verification under PAT will be carried out by
a) Designated consumers
b) Accredited energy auditors
c) Certified energy auditor
d) Empanelled accredited energy auditors

5. Which of the following enhances the energy efficiency in buildings?

a) Light pipes

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

b) Triple glaze windows


c) Building integrated solar photovoltaic panels
d) All of the above
6. Energy is consumed by all sectors of the economy but at different proportions. Which
sector in India is the largest consumer?

a) Agriculture c). Commercial


b) Industrial d). Domestic
7. M & V audit under PAT is carried out

a) Immediately after the baseline audit


b) Every year following the baseline audit
c) At the end of each PAT cycle
d) Before the baseline audit
8. Which of the following sector is not covered under PAT?

a) Chlor-alkali c) Cement
b) Aluminum d) Commercial buildings

9. A solar _______ is connected and packaged in a solar _________, which in turn is


linked with others in sequence in a solar _________.

a) module, cell, array


b) array, module, sequence
c) module, array, sequence
d) cell, module, array
10. At Standard Atmospheric Pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
o
temperature of 50 C will be _________ kCal/kg.

a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) none of the above


11. In a drying process product moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Inlet weight of the
material is 200 kg. Calculate the weight of the outlet product.

a) 80 b) 120.5 c) 114.3 d) none of the above


12. Which among the following factor(s) is most appropriate for adopting EnMS?

a) To improve their energy efficiency


b) To reduce costs
c) To increase productivity
d) Systematically manage their energy use
13. Which energy source releases the most climate-altering carbon pollution per kg?

a). Oil b). Coal c). Rice husk d). Bagasse


14. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years, if the interest rate is 10%

a) Rs. 1331 b) Rs.1610 c) Rs.3221 d) none of the above


15. Having a documented energy policy in industry

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

a) Satisfies regulations
b) Reflects top management commitment
c) Indicates availability of energy audit skills
d) None of the Above
16. Red wood seconds is a measure of

a) Density b) Viscosity c) Specific gravity d) Flash point


17. Which amongst the following sources of electricity has the highest installed capacity in
India ?

a)Gas b) Nuclear c) Oil d) Renewables


18. Energy Intensity is the ratio of

a) Fuel Consumption / GDP


b) GDP/Fuel Consumption
c) GDP/ Energy Consumption
d) Energy Consumption / GDP
19. If Heat Rate of Power plant is 3000 kCal/kWh then efficiency of Power plant will be

a) 28.67% b) 35% c) 41% d) None of the above


20. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate
and 40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost
medium to store _______

a. Electrical energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
21. For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________
times.
a) 8 b) 64 c) 16 d) none of the above
22. The producer gas is basically

a. CO, H2 and CH4


b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
23. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is
a) Recording b) Reporting
c) Controlling d) All of the above
24. One energy saving certificate ( ESCerts) under PAT is equivalent to

a. one ton of carbon


b. one MWh of electricity
c. one ton of coal
d. one ton of Oil equivalent
25. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed
electricity consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

consumption of 11 kWh/ton. Calculate the production of the industry


a) 50000 tonnes b) 60000 tonnes c) 58000 tonnes d) None of the above

26. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating
at
a) Lagging power factor b) Unity power factor
c) Leading power factor d) none of the above

27. Capital cost are associated with

a) Design of Project
b) Installation and Commissioning of Project
c) Operation and Maintenance cost of project
d) both a and b
28. Any management would like to invest in projects with

a) Low IRR b) Low ROI


c) Low NPV of future returns d) none of the above
29. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of

a) power b) work c) time d) force.


30. Which among the following is a green house gas?

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide


c) NO2 d) Methane
31. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
32. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no
natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around
__________°C.

a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
o
33. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is
known as:

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat


34. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of
4000 kcal/kg is

a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
35. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
36. A sling psychrometer is capable of measuring

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature


c) both dry and wet bulb temperature d) absolute humidity
37. Which of these is not true of payback period
a. Simple to calculate
b. Considers cash flow beyond the payback period
c. Shorter the period the better
d. Does not take into account, time value of money
38. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the energy auditor must consider
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows
c) salvage value d) all the above
39. In a cumulative sum chart if the graph is going up, it means
a. Energy consumption is going up
b. Energy consumption is going down
c. Specific energy consumption is coming down
d. No inference can be made
40. Doppler effect principle is used in the following instrument
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter
c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer

In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal
41. is 6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 216 kg b) 300 kg c) 1872 kg d) none of the above
42. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called
a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) none of the above
43. A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that
a) CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
b) CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4
c) the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4
d) none of the above
44. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or
system is known as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram
c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
45. ISO 50001:2011 provides a framework of requirements for organizations to:
a) Develop a policy for more efficient use of energy b) Measure the results
c) Fix targets and objectives to meet the policy d) all of the above
46. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
47. Absolute pressure is
a. Gauge pressure
b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
48. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is
50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
c) 400 kg d) none of the above
49. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor,
a coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90
and wind speed of 11m/sec

a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW
50. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
a. Difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
b. Average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
c. DBT of the atmospheric air
d. WBT of the atmospheric air

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

S-1 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4


different units used in pressure measurement.

Ans Absolute pressure is zero-referenced against a perfect vacuum, so it is equal to gauge


pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Gauge pressure is zero-referenced against ambient air pressure, so it is equal to absolute
pressure minus atmospheric pressure. (Negative signs are usually omitted)
Absolute Pressure = Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure + Gauge Pressure

(NOTE: also please refer guide book-1 pg-70)

The four units of pressure measurement are:

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
v) Meters of water column
2
vi) Pounds / inch

S- 2 A plant is using 6 tonnes / day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
kcal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue ,
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal/kg and costs Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 300 days of operation, assuming the boiler efficiency
remains same at 72% for coal and agro residue as fuel.

Ans Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day


= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of rice husk required


= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72
Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800
1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving=13703 x 300
=Rs 41,10,900/-

S–3 Explain how an ESCO model works?

ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project management services
and financing.
The ESCO will usually offer the following performance contract options.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
 Guaranteed savings

S-4 The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.10 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?

Existing efficiency =65%

Proposed efficiency=78%

Annual fuel cost =Rs. 10 Lakhs

Annual cost savings = annual fuel cost *( 1-(EffO/EffN))

= 10 x ((1-(0.65/0.78))

=Rs. 1,66,667 per annum

S-5 A tank containing 600 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over that
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is well
insulated and heat losses are negligible.
Determine the steam flow rate in kg/hr.
O O
Q = 600 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200)

= 30 kJ/sec

Therefore mass of steam = 30 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg

= 51.23 kg/h

S–6 Feed water is provided to a boiler at 70oC from the feed water tank. The
temperature of condensate water returning to the tank is 86oC, while the

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

temperature of makeup water is 27oC. Determine the amount of condensate water


that can be recovered?

 Performing a mass & heat balance yields,


 (i.e : mCpdTCond + mCpdT MakeUp = mCpdT FeedWater)
(27)(x)(1)+ (86)(1-x)(1) = 70(1)(1)
 Therefore, x = 0.27 or 27% of make-up water.
 Hence, condensate recovered = 73%
S–7 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
has a moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate
(output) from the stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if
the steam enters the stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the
o
stenter is at 170 C Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent
heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.

Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr


Bone dry cloth in output = 200 X 0.96 = 192 kgs.

Moisture in output = 8 kgs.


Moisture in input = 52%
Bone dry cloth in input = 48%
Total weight of input cloth = 192/0.48 = 400 kg/hr
Quantity of water evaporated = 400 – 200 = 200 kg/hr
O
Assuming sensible heat in steam at 170 C = 170 kcal/kg
Quantity of steam required = (200 X 540)/(660 – 170)
= 220.4 kg/hr

S–8 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac
kWh. The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-
9660 kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 kL of
Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 720 kL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a
Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
Annual electrical energy consumption = 12.35 x 12 = 148.2 lac Kwh
5 7
Equivalent heat energy = (148.2 x 10 x 860)/(1 x 10 )
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
Annual Furnace oil consumption = 5760 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (5760 x 1000 x 9660)/(1 x 10 )
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
Annual HSD consumption = 720 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (720 x 1000 x 9410)/(1 x 10 )
= 677.52 Mtoe _(iii)

Total annual energy consumption = 1274.52 + 5564.16 + 677.52


= 7516.2 Mtoe

To be a designated consumer, the minimum annual energy consumption (in aluminium sector)

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant exceeds this threshold limit, it qualifies to be a designated
consumer.

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

L-1 The integrated paper plant has produced 119366 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of PAT scheme
and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of product to 50 GJ/tonne of
product. The actual production during the assessment year (2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate
the plant energy performance and state your inference.

Ans Reference year production = 119366 MT


Reference year specific energy consumption = 53 GJ/tonne of product
Assessment year production = 124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption = 50 GJ/tonne of product

production factor = (124141 / 119366) = 1.04

= 53 x 119366 = 6326398 GJ

=50 x 124141 = 6207050 GJ

= 6326398 GJ x 1.04 =6579454 GJ

= ((6579454 - 6207050 ) / 6579454 )x 100


= 5.66%

Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy savings.

L – 2 a) A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full
load
efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy auditor measures the

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

following
operating data of the motor.
1) Supply voltage= 408V
2) Current drawn= 30A
3) PF=0.83
Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
1) Power input in kW
2) % motor loading

b) List five energy saving measures in your home

Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*30*0.83


= 17.60 kW
2) % motor loading = [17.60/(20/0.88)]*100
= [(17.60/22.73)]*100
= 77.43%

b)
 Replacement of inefficient electric lamps with efficient electric lamps
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c’s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
 Using Solar water heating systems for hot water requirements to minimize use of electric
geysers
 Using Solar PV systems for electricity generation
 Proper ventilation maximizing the use of natural light
 Switching off all equipment when not required
 Using pressure cooker for cooking food
 Maximizing the use of low fire burner (SIM) in the gas stove

o o o
Using A/Cs at setpoint of 21 C-23 C instead of 16 C
 Placing the fridge so that the rear ( condenser coils ) are located where there is proper air
flow.

L-3 The cash flows in two different energy conservation projects are given in the table below. Please help
the management of an infrastructure company to decide which project to invest in as the
management is interested in investing in only one project. The company is likely to consider any
project which gives a minimum return on investment of 18%. Please justify your choice.
(Amount in Rs.)
Project A Project B
Investment 17,50,000/- 12,00,000/-
Year Expenses Savings Expenses Savings
1 4,00,000 4,50,000
2 4,00,000 4,00,000
3 4,00,000 3,50,000
4 4,00,000 3,00,000
5 1,00,000 6,00,000 2,50,000
6 6,00,000 2,00,000
7 6,00,000 1,16,650

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

8 3,80,300

Ans As the investments required in both the cases as well as their durations are different, the prudent
method to compare the two projects would be to calculate their NPV.

0 1
a) NPV of Project A @ 18% = (-1750000 / (1+0.18) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +((6,00,000-100000) / (1+0.18) )+
6 7 8
(6,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.18) ) = 57,367

0 1
b) NPV of Project B @ 18% = (-1200000 / (1+0.18) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.18) ) +(3,50,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.18) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.18) )+ (2,00,000 /
6 7
(1+0.18) ) +(1,16,650 / (1+0.18) ) = 57370

Since both the projects are having the same NPV at 18%, both the projects are worth
considering. However, by increasing the rate 20% if one of the projects shows higher NPV, that
project would be the choice between the two.
0 1 2
c) NPV of Project A @ 20% = (-1750000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5
+(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +((6,00,000-100000) / (1+0.2) )+ (6,00,000 /
6 7 8
(1+0.2) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.2) ) = (-) 56734

0 1 2
d) NPV of Project B @ 20% =(-1200000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5 6
+(3,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (2,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
7
+(1,16,650 / (1+0.2) ) = 3.86

As the NPV of project B at 20% is higher than that of Project A, Project B is recommended.

L – 4 The energy consumption pattern in a steel re rolling mill over 8 month period is provided in the table
below;
Month Production (Tons) Coal Consumption (Tons)
1 488 422
2 553 412
3 455 411
4 325 363
5 488 438
6 585 426
7 455 414
8 419 396

Estimate,

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

i) Fixed energy consumption in the Mill.

ii) Expected coal consumption for a production of 600 Tons/month.

Ans To establish the relationship between Production & Coal consumption, it is necessary to derive the
best-fit line for which the following normal equation are used ( see page 218 of book 1)
Cn +m∑x =∑y
2
c∑x + m∑x =∑xy

2
n x y x xy
1 488 422 238144 205936
2 553 412 305809 227836
3 455 411 207025 187005
4 325 363 105625 117975
5 488 438 238144 213744
6 585 426 342225 2 9 10
7 455 414 20702 188370
8 419 396 175561 165924
Total 3768 3282 1819558 1556000

Therefore, the normal equations become;


8c + 3768m = 3282 ……….i

3768c + 1819558m = 1556000 ……… ii

c = (3282 -3768m) / 8

Substituting in Eq. ii,

m = 0.23 and

c = 316

The best-fit straight line equation is;

y = 0.23x + 316

i) The fixed energy consumption in the Mill = 316 Tons of coal/month

ii) The expected coal consumption for a production of 600 Tons,

= 0.23 X 600 + 316 = 454 Tons

L-5 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to enhance cost
effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive large industries and
facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be traded.

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for the most
energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation in energy intensities of
different units in almost every sector. The scheme envisages improvements in the energy intensity
of each unit covered by it. The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent
on its operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement targets. To
facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy
savings certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified as
Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included under PAT Scheme)
who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy consumption reduction targets.
Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme
also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the
quantum of energy saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year (for
st
1 Cycle of PAT, assessment year is 2014-15).

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3 to 7% have
been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after which new cycle with new targets will be
proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract
penalty for the non-compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of verification and
check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.

In a particular drying operation, it is necessary to hold the moisture content of feed to


a calciner to 15% (w/w) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
L- 6
mixing the feed having 30% moisture (w/w) with recycle stream of dried material
having 3% moisture (w/w). The dryer operation is shown in fig below. What fraction of
the dried product must be recycled?

Let
F indicate quantity of feed

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A Reg with Solutions

R indicate quantity of recycle


P indicate quantity of product
Based on solid content at Mixer
0.7F + 0.97R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =1.25 F ………………..(1)
Based on solid content at Drier
0.85 (F + R) = 0.97 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 1.25F) = 0.97 P + (0.97 x 1.25 F)
1.91 F = 0.97 P + 1.21F
0.7 F = 0.97 P
Hence F = 1.386 P ………………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1) for obtaining Recycle quantity in terms of Product
R = (1.25 x 1.386 P) = 1.7325 P ……………..(3)
Product plus Recycle is
P+R = (P + 1.7325 P) = P(1 + 1.7325) = 2.7325 P ……...(4)
R (as a fraction of dried product) = {(1.7325 P) / (2.7325 P)} x (100)
= 63.4%

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 15
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

17th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2016

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 24.09.2016 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

1. Which of these is not true of payback period


a. Simple to calculate
b. Considers cash flow beyond the payback period
c. Shorter the period the better
d. Does not take into account, time value of money
2. Which of the following statements regarding ECBC are correct?

i) ECBC defines the norms of energy requirements per cubic metre of area
ii) ECBC does not encourage retrofit of Energy conservation measures
iii) ECBC prescribes energy efficiency standards for design and construction of
commercial and industrial buildings
iv) One of the key objectives of ECBC is to minimize life cycle costs (construction and
operating energy costs)

a) i b) ii c) iiii d) iv
3. Which of the following sector is not covered under PAT?

a) Chlor-alkali c) Cement
b) Aluminum d) Commercial buildings

4. Which of the following enhances the energy efficiency in buildings?

a) Light pipes
b) Triple glaze windows
c) Building integrated solar photovoltaic panels
d) All of the above
5. Which energy source releases the most climate-altering carbon pollution per kg?

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

a). Oil b). Coal c). Rice husk d). Bagasse


6. Which amongst the following sources of electricity has the highest installed capacity in
India ?

a)Gas b) Nuclear c) Oil d) Renewables


7. Which among the following is a green house gas?

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide


c) NO2 d) Methane
8. Which among the following factor(s) is most appropriate for adopting EnMS?

a) To improve their energy efficiency


b) To reduce costs
c) To increase productivity
d) Systematically manage their energy use
9. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years, if the interest rate is 10%

a) Rs. 1331 b) Rs.1610 c) Rs.3221 d) none of the above


10. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor,
a coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90
and wind speed of 11m/sec

a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW
11. Verification and Check-verification under PAT will be carried out by
a) Designated consumers
b) Accredited energy auditors
c) Certified energy auditor
d) Empanelled accredited energy auditors

12. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the energy auditor must consider
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows
c) salvage value d) all the above
o
13. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is
known as:

a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat


14. The producer gas is basically

a. CO, H2 and CH4


b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
15. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of
4000 kcal/kg is

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
16. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
a. Difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
b. Average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
c. DBT of the atmospheric air
d. WBT of the atmospheric air
17. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of

a) power b) work c) time d) force.


18. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
19. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is
a) Recording b) Reporting
c) Controlling d) All of the above
20. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when
compared with those producing it, would in all probability be

a) Higher b) Lower c) Almost equal d) No correlation


21. Red wood seconds is a measure of

a) Density b) Viscosity c) Specific gravity d) Flash point


22. One energy saving certificate ( ESCerts) under PAT is equivalent to

a. one ton of carbon


b. one MWh of electricity
c. one ton of coal
d. one ton of Oil equivalent
23. M & V audit under PAT is carried out

a) Immediately after the baseline audit


b) Every year following the baseline audit
c) At the end of each PAT cycle
d) Before the baseline audit
24. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called
a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) None of the above
25. ISO 50001:2011 provides a framework of requirements for organizations to:
a) Develop a policy for more efficient use of energy b) Measure the results
c) Fix targets and objectives to meet the policy d) all of the above
26. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed
electricity consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity
consumption of 11 kWh/ton. Calculate the production of the industry
a) 50000 tonnes b) 60000 tonnes c) 58000 tonnes d) None of the above

27. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate
and 40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

medium to store _______

a. Electrical energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
28. In a drying process product moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Inlet weight of the
material is 200 kg. Calculate the weight of the outlet product.

a) 80 b) 120.5 c) 114.3 d) none of the above


29. In a cumulative sum chart if the graph is going up, it means
a. Energy consumption is going up
b. Energy consumption is going down
c. Specific energy consumption is coming down
d. No inference can be made
In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal
30. is 6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 216 kg b) 300 kg c) 1872 kg d) none of the above
31. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is
50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
c) 400 kg d) none of the above
32. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating
at
a) Lagging power factor b) Unity power factor
c) Leading power factor d) none of the above

33. If Heat Rate of Power plant is 3000 kCal/kWh then efficiency of Power plant will be

a) 28.67% b) 35% c) 41% d) None of the above


O
34. If a 2 KW immersion heater is used to heat 30litres of water at 30 C, what would be the
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system.
O O O
a) 87.3 C b) 44.3 C c) 71.3 C d) none of the above
35. Having a documented energy policy in industry

a) Satisfies regulations
b) Reflects top management commitment
c) Indicates availability of energy audit skills
d) None of the Above
36. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no
natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around
__________°C.

a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
37. For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________
times.
a) 8 b) 64 c) 16 d) none of the above
38. Energy is consumed by all sectors of the economy but at different proportions. Which

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

sector in India is the largest consumer?

a) Agriculture c). Commercial


b) Industrial d). Domestic
39. Energy Intensity is the ratio of

a) Fuel Consumption / GDP


b) GDP/Fuel Consumption
c) GDP/ Energy Consumption
d) Energy Consumption / GDP
40. Doppler effect principle is used in the following instrument
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter
c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer

41. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or


system is known as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram
c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
42. Capital cost are associated with

a) Design of Project
b) Installation and Commissioning of Project
c) Operation and Maintenance cost of project
d) both a and b
43. At Standard Atmospheric Pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
o
temperature of 50 C will be _________ kCal/kg.

a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) none of the above


44. Any management would like to invest in projects with

a) Low IRR b) Low ROI


c) Low NPV of future returns d) none of the above
45. Absolute pressure is
a. Gauge pressure
b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
46. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
47. A solar _______ is connected and packaged in a solar _________, which in turn is
linked with others in sequence in a solar _________.

a) module, cell, array


b) array, module, sequence
c) module, array, sequence

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

d) cell, module, array


48. A sling psychrometer is capable of measuring
a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature
c) both dry and wet bulb temperature d) absolute humidity
49. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
50. A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that
a)CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
b) CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4
c) the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4
d) none of the above

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

S-1 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
has a moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate
(output) from the stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if
the steam enters the stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the
o
stenter is at 150 C. Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent
heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.

Ans Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr


Bone dry cloth in output = 200 X 0.96 = 192 kgs.

Moisture in output = 8 kgs.


Moisture in input = 52%
Bone dry cloth in input = 48%
Total weight of input cloth = 192/0.48 = 400 kg/hr
Quantity of water evaporated = 400 – 200 = 200 kg/hr
O
Assuming sensible heat in steam at 150 C = 150 kcal/kg
Quantity of steam required = (200 X 540)/(660 – 150)
= 211.8 kg/hr

S-2 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lakh
kWh. The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-
9660 Kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 Kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 KL
of Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 500 KL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies
as a Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
Ans 1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
Annual electrical energy consumption = 12.35 x 12 = 148.2 lac Kwh
5 7
Equivalent heat energy = (148.2 x 10 x 860)/(1 x 10 )

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)


Annual Furnace oil consumption = 5760 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (5760 x 1000 x 9660)/(1 x 10 )
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
Annual HSD consumption = 500 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (500 x 1000 x 9410)/(1 x 10 )
= 470.5 Mtoe _(iii)
Total annual energy consumption = 1274.52 + 5564.16 + 470.5
= 7309.18 Mtoe
To be a designated consumer, the minimum annual energy consumption (in aluminium sector)
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant energy consumption doesn’t exceed this threshold limit, it is
not qualifies to be a designated consumer. ...... 1 mark

S-3 The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.8 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?

Ans Existing efficiency =65%

Proposed efficiency=78%

Annual fuel cost =Rs. 8 Lakhs

Annual cost savings = annual fuel cost *( 1-(EffO/EffN))

= 8x((1-(0.65/0.78))

=Rs. 1,33,333.6 per annum

S-4 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4


different units used in pressure measurement.

Ans Absolute pressure is zero-referenced against a perfect vacuum, so it is equal to gauge


pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Gauge pressure is zero-referenced against ambient air pressure, so it is equal to absolute
pressure minus atmospheric pressure. (Negative signs are usually omitted)
Absolute Pressure = Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure + Gauge Pressure

(NOTE: also please refer guide book-1 pg-70)

The four units of pressure measurement are:

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
v) Meters of water column
2
vi) Pounds / inch

S–5 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
kcal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue ,
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 350 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency
remains same at 72% for coal and agro residue as fuel.

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

Ans
Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of rice husk required


= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72

Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800


1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving =13703 x 350
= Rs 47,96,050/-

S-6 Explain how an ESCO model works?

Ans ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project management services
and financing.
The ESCO will usually offer the following performance contract options.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
 Guaranteed savings

(Note: Please refer page no: 177-179 of Paper 1, candidates can write relevant
things about ESCO operation model)

S–7 A tank containing 500 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over that
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108 kJ/kg. The tank is well
insulated and heat losses are negligible.
Determine the steam flow rate in kg/hr.
O O
Ans Q = 500 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200)

= 25 kJ/sec

Therefore mass of steam = 25 kJ/secx3600 / 2108 kJ/kg

= 42.69 kg/h

S–8 Feed water is provided to a boiler at 70oC from the feedwater tank. The
temperature of condensate water returning to the tank is 86oC, while the
temperature of makeup water is 27oC. Determine the amount of condensate water
that can be recovered?
Ans

 Performing a mass & heat balance yields,

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

 (i.e : mCpdTCond + mCpdT MakeUp = mCpdT FeedWater)


(27)(x)(1)+ (86)(1-x)(1) = 70(1)(1)
 Therefore, x = 0.27 or 27% of make-up water.
 Hence, condensate recovered = 73%

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

L-1 A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy auditor measures the
following
operating data of the motor.
1) Supply voltage= 408V
2) Current drawn= 28A
3) PF=0.83
.Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
1) Power input in kW
2) % motor loading

b) List five energy saving measures in your home

Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*28*0.83


= 16.42 kW
2) % motor loading = 16.42/(20/0.88)]*100
= (16.42/22.73)
= 72.24%

b)
 Replacement of inefficient electric lamps with efficient electric lamps
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c’s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
 Using Solar water heating systems for hot water requirements to minimize use of electric
geysers
 Using Solar PV systems for electricity generation
 Proper ventilation maximizing the use of natural light
 Switching off all equipment when not required
 Using pressure cooker for cooking food
 Maximizing the use of low fire burner (SIM) in the gas stove

o o o
Using A/Cs at setpoint of 21 C-23 C instead of 16 C
 Placing the fridge so that the rear ( condenser coils ) are located where there is proper air
flow.

Note : Any five of the above and also give marks for other relevant options

L – 2 The integrated paper plant has produced 134241 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of PAT scheme
and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of product to 49 GJ/tonne of
product. The actual production during the assessment year (2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate
the plant energy performance and state your inference.

Ans Reference year production =134241 MT

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

Reference year specific energy consumption = 53 GJ/tonne of product


Assessment year production =124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption = 49 GJ/tonne of product

production factor = (124141 / 134241) = 0.92

= 53 x 134241 = 7114773 GJ

=49 x 124141 = 6082909 GJ

= 7114773 GJ x 0.92 =6545591.16 GJ

= ((6545591.16 - 6082909 ) / 6545591.16 )x 100


= 7.07%
Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy savings.

L-3 The cash flows in two different energy conservation projects are given in the table below.
Please help the management of an infrastructure company to decide which project to
invest in as the management is interested in investing in only one project. The company
is likely to consider any project which gives a minimum return on investment of 19%.
Please justify your choice.
(Amount in Rs.)
Project A Project B
Investment 17,50,000/- 12,00,000/-
Year Expenses Savings Expenses Savings
1 4,00,000 4,50,000
2 4,00,000 4,00,000
3 4,00,000 3,50,000
4 4,00,000 3,00,000
5 30,180 6,00,000 2,50,000
6 6,00,000 2,00,000
7 6,00,000 1,16,650
8 3,80,300

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

Ans As the investments required in both the cases as well as their durations are different, the prudent
method to compare the two projects would be to calculate their NPV.
0 1
a) NPV of Project A @ 19% = (-1750000 / (1+0.19) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +((6,00,000-30180) / (1+0.19) )+
6 7 8
(6,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.19) ) = 27,622

0 1
b) NPV of Project B @ 19% = (-1200000 / (1+0.19) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(4,00,000 /
2 3 4 5
(1+0.19) ) +(3,50,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.19) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.19) )+ (2,00,000 /
6 7
(1+0.19) ) +(1,16,650 / (1+0.19) ) = 27,622

Since both the projects are having the same NPV at 19%, both the projects are worth
considering. However, by increasing the rate 20% if one of the projects shows higher NPV, that
project would be the choice between the two.

0 1 2
c) NPV of Project A @ 20% = (-1750000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5
+(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (4,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +((6,00,000-30180) / (1+0.2) )+ (6,00,000 / (1+0.2)
6 7 8
) +(6,00,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,80,300 / (1+0.2) ) = (-) 28,675
0 1 2
d) NPV of Project B @ 20% =(-1200000 / (1+0.2) ) + (4,50,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(4,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
3 4 5 6
+(3,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (3,00,000 / (1+0.2) ) +(2,50,000 / (1+0.2) )+ (2,00,000 / (1+0.2) )
7
+(1,16,650 / (1+0.2) ) = 3.86

As the NPV of project B at 20% is higher than that of Project A, Project B is recommended.

L – 4 The energy consumption pattern in a steel re rolling mill over 8 month period is provided in the
table below;
Month Production (Tons) Coal Consumption (Tons)
1 488 422
2 553 412
3 455 411
4 325 363
5 488 438
6 585 426
7 455 414
8 419 396

Estimate,
i) Fixed energy consumption in the Mill.

ii) Expected coal consumption for a production of 500 Tons/month.

Ans To establish the relationship between Production & Coal consumption, it is necessary to derive the
best-fit line. for which the following normal equation are used ( see page 218 of book 1)

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

Cn +m∑x =∑y
c∑x + m∑x2 =∑xy
2
n x y x xy
1 488 422 238144 205936
2 553 412 305809 227836
3 455 411 207025 187005
4 325 36 105 5 11 975
5 488 438 238144 213744
6 585 426 342225 249210
7 455 414 207025 188370
8 419 396 175561 165924
Total 3768 3282 1819558 1556000

Therefore, the normal equations become;


8c + 3768m = 3282 ……….i

3768c + 1819558m = 1556000 ……… ii

c = (3282 -3768m) / 8

Substituting in Eq. ii,

m = 0.23 and

c = 316

The best-fit straight line equation is;

y = 0.23x + 316

i) The fixed energy consumption in the Mill = 316 Tons of coal/month

ii) The expected coal consumption for a production of 500 Tons,

= 0.23 X 500 + 316 = 431 Tons

L-5 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism to enhance cost
effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-intensive large industries and
facilities, through certification of energy savings that could be traded.

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements for the most
energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation in energy intensities of
different units in almost every sector. The scheme envisages improvements in the energy intensity
of each unit covered by it. The energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent
on its operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for those who are
more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC improvement targets. To
facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy
savings certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified as
Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included under PAT Scheme)
who can utilize these certificates to comply with their specific energy consumption reduction targets.
Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme
also allows units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be issued would depend on the
quantum of energy saved over and above the target energy savings in the assessment year (for
st
1 Cycle of PAT, assessment year is 2014-15).

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from about 3 to 7% have
been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after which new cycle with new targets will be
proposed. Failing to achieve the specific energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract
penalty for the non-compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of verification and
check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of accredited energy auditors.

L-6
In a particular drying operation, it is necessary to hold the moisture content of feed to
a calciner to 15% (W/W) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 35% moisture (w/w) with recycle steam of dried material
having 5% moisture (w/w). The dryer operation is shown in fig below. What fraction of
the dried product must be recycled?

Let
F indicate quantity of feed
R indicate quantity of recycle
P indicate quantity of product
Based on solid content at Mixer

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set B Reg with Solutions

0.65F + 0.95R = 0.85 (F + R)


Hence R =2 F ………………..(1)
Based on solid content at Drier
0.85 (F + R) = 0.95 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 2F) = 0.95 P + (0.95 x 2 F)
2.55 F = 0.95 P + 1.9 F
0.65 F = 0.95 P
Hence F = 1.46 P ………………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1) for obtaining Recycle quantity in terms of Product
R = (2.0 x 1.46 P) = 2.92 P ……………..(3)
Product plus Recycle is
P+R = (P + 2.92 P) = P(1 + 2.92) = 3.92 P …..(4)
R (as a fraction of dried product) = {(2.92 P) / (3.92 P)} x (100)
= 74.49%

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

Regn No: __________________

Name : __________________
(To be written by the candidate)

17th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2016

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 24.09.2016 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

1. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when
compared with those producing it, would in all probability be

a) Higher b) Lower c) Almost equal d) No correlation


O
2. If a 2 KW immersion heater is used to heat 30litres of water at 30 C, what would be the
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system. Sp.heat of water
O
is 4.18 KJ/Kg C.
O O O
a) 87.3 C b) 44.3 C c) 71.3 C d) none of the above
3. Identify from the following non-commercial energy.
a. Wind
b. Solar energy for water heating
c. Solar energy for power generation
d. All the above
4. In energy performance monitoring, „Production Factor‟ means
a) Current year Production b) Reference Year Production
Design Capacity Current year Production
c) Current Year Production d) CurrentYear Production
Reference Year Production Previous Year Production

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

5. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% and the losses will be

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal


6. For energy consumption monitoring and target setting, it is imperative to have
a) adequate metering b) accurate production data
c) energy consumption data d) all of the above
7. Which is not an example of fuel substitution?
a. Replacement of Naptha by Natural gas as feedstock for fertilizer plant.
b. Replacement of coal by coconut shells.
c. Replacement of LDO by LSHS
d. Replacement of coconut shells by rice husk
8. Which of the following equipment is not covered under the mandatory schemes as per the
S & L programme?
a) household frost free refrigerators b) tubular fluorescent lamp
c) ceiling fans d) room air conditioners
9. CUSUM technique can be used to identify
a) deterioration in operating performance
b) impact of good housekeeping & maintenance
c) savings achieved by implementing energy conservation
measure(s)
d) all of the above

10. As per laws of thermodynamics;


a) It is impossible to reduce the temperature of any substance to absolute zero
b) Heat always flows from a hotter object to a colder object
c) Energy conversion from one form to another cannot be 100%
d) All of the above
Infrared thermometer is used to measure
11. a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
12. The “superheat” of steam is expressed as

a. degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature


b. critical temperature of the steam
c. the temperature of the steam
d. none of the above

13.
If Oxygen rich combustion air is supplied to a furnace instead of normal air the % CO2 in
flue gases will
a) reduce b) increase c) remain same d) will become zero
14. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get energy
audits conducted by

a) Energy Manager b) Accredited energy auditor


c) Certified Energy Auditor d) Designated agencies
15.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

time of an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time
c) critical path d) start time
16. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will not
be considered on the input side?
a) Chemicals b) Water/air c) Recycle d) By product
17.
The Critical Path in project planning technique indicates.
a) minimum time required for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) early start and late end of the project
d) none of the above
18. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor, a
coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90 and
wind speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW

19. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
a. Difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
b. Average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
c. DBT of the atmospheric air
d. WBT of the atmospheric air

20. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or


system is known as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram
c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
21. ISO 50001:2011 provides a framework of requirements for organizations to:
a) Develop a policy for more efficient use of energy b) Measure the results
c) Fix targets and objectives to meet the policy d) all of the above
22. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power
factor of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft
power output of the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
23. Absolute pressure is
a. Gauge pressure
b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
24. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is
50% and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
c) 400 kg d) none of the above

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

25. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of


a) power b) work c) time d) force.
26. Which among the following is a green house gas?

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide


c) NO2 d) Methane
27. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
28. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no
natural greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around
__________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
o
29. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is
known as:
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat
30. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of
4000 kcal/kg is

a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125
31. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material
32. A sling psychrometer is capable of measuring
a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature
c) both dry and wet bulb temperature d) absolute humidity
33. Which of these is not true of payback period
a. Simple to calculate
b. Considers cash flow beyond the payback period
c. Shorter the period the better
d. Does not take into account, time value of money
34. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the energy auditor must consider
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows
c) salvage value d) all the above
35. In a cumulative sum chart if the graph is going up, it means
a. Energy consumption is going up
b. Energy consumption is going down
c. Specific energy consumption is coming down
d. No inference can be made
36. Doppler effect principle is used in the following instrument
a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter
c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer
37. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal is
6%. Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 216 kg b) 300 kg c) 1872 kg d) none of the above

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

38. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called


a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) none of the above

39. A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that


a) CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
b) CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4
c) the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4
d) none of the above
40. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed
electricity consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity
consumption of 11 kWh/ton. Calculate the production of the industry
a) 50000 tonnes b) 60000 tonnes c) 58000 tonnes d) None of the above

41. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating
at
a) Lagging power factor b) Unity power factor
c) Leading power factor d) none of the above

42. Capital cost are associated with


a) Design of Project
b) Installation and Commissioning of Project
c) Operation and Maintenance cost of project
d) both a and b
43. Any management would like to invest in projects with
a) Low IRR b) Low ROI
c) Low NPV of future returns d) none of the above
44. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate and
40% potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost medium
to store _______
a. Electrical energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
45. For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________
times.
a) 8 b) 64 c) 16 d) none of the above
46. The producer gas is basically
a. CO, H2 and CH4
b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
47. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is
a) Recording b) Reporting
c) Controlling d) All of the above
48. In project management, the critical path in the network is
a) the quickest path b) the shortest path
c) The path from start to finish d) the path where activities have no slack

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

49. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years, if the interest rate is 10%
a) Rs. 1331 b) Rs.1610 c) Rs.3221 d) none of the above
50. Having a documented energy policy in industry
a) Satisfies regulations
b) Reflects top management commitment
c) Indicates availability of energy audit skills
d) None of the Above

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

S-1 What is meant by the following terms?


a) Normalising of data
b) Benchmarking

Ans a) Normalising of data


The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the energy
efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include weather or certain
operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of removing the impact of various
factors on energy use so that energy performance of facilities and operations can be
compared.
b) Benchmarking
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a relative
understanding of where our performance ranks.

S-2 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4 different units used in
pressure measurement.

Ans Absolute pressure is zero-referenced against a perfect vacuum, so it is equal to gauge


pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Gauge pressure is zero-referenced against ambient air pressure, so it is equal to absolute
pressure minus atmospheric pressure. (Negative signs are usually omitted)
Absolute Pressure = Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure + Gauge Pressure

(NOTE: also please refer guide book-1 pg-70)

The four units of pressure measurement are:

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
v) Meters of water column
2
vi) Pounds / inch
Note: any four of the above

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

S–3 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300
kcal/kg. The cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue ,
as a boiler fuel, which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost of Rs 1800/tonne.
Calculate the annual cost savings at 300 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency
remains same at 72% for coal and agro residue as fuel.

Ans Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day


= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of rice husk required


= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72

Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800


1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-
Annual saving=13703 x 300
=Rs 41,10,900/-

The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.10 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
S-4 efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?

Ans Existing efficiency =65%

Proposed efficiency=78%

Annual fuel cost =Rs. 10 Lakhs

Annual cost savings = annual fuel cost *( 1-(EffO/EffN))

= 10.((1-(0.65/0.78))

=Rs. 1,66,667 per annum

S-5 Explain how an ESCO model works.

Ans ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project management services
and financing.
The ESCO will usually offer the following performance contract options.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
 Guaranteed savings
(Note: Please refer page no: 177-179 of Paper 1, candidates can write relevant
things about ESCO operation model)

S-6 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac Kwh.
The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-9660 Kcal/Ltr)
and HSD (GCV-9410 Kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 KL of Furnace oil (sp. gr.
0.92) and 720 KL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a Designated Consumer
under the EC Act?

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

7
Ans 1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
Annual electrical energy consumption = 12.35 x 12 = 148.2 lac Kwh
5 7
Equivalent heat energy = (148.2 x 10 x 860)/(1 x 10 )
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
Annual Furnace oil consumption = 5760 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (5760 x 1000 x 9660)/(1 x 10 )
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
Annual HSD consumption = 720 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (720 x 1000 x 9410)/(1 x 10 )
= 677.52 Mtoe _(iii)

Total annual energy consumption = 1274.52 + 5564.16 + 677.52


= 7516.2 Mtoe

To be a designated consumer, the minimum annual energy consumption (in aluminium sector)
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant exceeds this threshold limit, it qualifies to be a designated
consumer.

S-7 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter has a
moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate (output) from the
stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if the steam enters the
o
stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the stenter is at 170 C Consider
drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.

Ans Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr


Bone dry cloth in output = 200 X 0.96 = 192 kgs.

Moisture in output = 8 kgs.


Moisture in input = 52%
Bone dry cloth in input = 48%
Total weight of input cloth = 192/0.48 = 400 kg/hr

Quantity of water evaporated = 400 – 200 = 200 kg/hr


O
Assuming sensible heat in steam at 170 C = 170 kcal/kg
Quantity of steam required = (200 X 540)/(660 – 170)
= 220.4 kg/hr

S–8 A tank containing 600 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes (1200
seconds), using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over
that temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is well
insulated and heat losses are negligible.
Determine the steam flow rate in kg/hr.
O O
Ans Q = 600 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200) = 30 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 30 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg = 51.2 kg/h

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

L-1 An investment of Rs.250,000 is being considered for an energy efficient


equipment.The cost of capital for the investment is 13%.Following cash flows are
expected from the investment:
Year Rs.
0 (250,000)
1 50,000
2 100,000
3 200,000
1) Calculate the IRR for the proposed investment and interpret your answer.
Ans Step 1: Select 2 discount rates for the calculation of NPVs
We can take 10% (R1) and 20% (R2) as our discount rates.

Step 2: Calculate NPVs of the investment using the 2 discount rates


Net Present Value @ 10%
Cash Flow Discount Factor Present Value
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.909 45,450
100,000 0.826 82,600
200,000 0.751 150,200
NPV1 28,250
Net Present Value @ 20%
Cash Flow Discount Factor Present Value
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.833 41,650
100,00 0.694 69,400
200,000 0.57 115,800
NPV2 -23,150
…... 5 marks
Step 3: Calculate the IRR

NPV1 x (R2 - R1)%


Internal Rate of Return = R1% +
(NPV1 - NPV2)
28,250 x (20 - 10)%
= 10% +
(28,250 - (- 3,150))
28,2 0 x 10%
= 10% +
28,250 + 23,150

= 10% + 5.5%

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

= 15.5%

L-2 a) Why do project managers give a great degree of attention to critical path ?

b) For the PERT diagram with duration of activities shown, determine the
following:

1. What is the shortest time for completion of the project?


2. Which activities must be completed on time in order for the project to finish
in the shortest possible time?
Ans a) The critical path is of great interest to project managers. The activities on the
critical path are the ones which absolutely must be done on time in order for the
whole project to complete on time. If any of the activities on the critical path are
late, then the entire project will finish late.
b)

Activity Duration ES EF LS LF Slack Critical


(weeks) path
A 4 0 4 0 4 Yes
B 3 0 3 6 9
C 5 4 9 5 10

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

D 5 4 9 4 9 Yes
E 8 4 12 8 16
F 6 9 15 10 16
G 7 9 16 9 16 Yes
H 9 9 18 17 26
I 10 16 26 16 26 Yes
J 7 16 23 17 24
K 4 9 13 20 24
L 3 16 19 26 29
M 3 26 29 26 29 Yes
N 5 23 28 24 29

1. The shortest time to complete project – 29 weeks


2. Critical path : A - D - G - I – M

L – 3 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?

Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism
to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-
intensive large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings
that could be traded.

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements
for the most energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation
in energy intensities of different units in almost every sector. The scheme
envisages improvements in the energy intensity of each unit covered by it. The
energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent on its
operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for
those who are more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC


improvement targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for
industries who achieve superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for
this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy savings
certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified
as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included
under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with their
specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
(ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the
cycle in which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be
issued would depend on the quantum of energy saved over and above the target
energy savings in the assessment year (for 1stCycle of PAT, assessment year is
2014-15).

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

about 3 to 7% have been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after
which new cycle with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific
energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-
compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of
verification and check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of
accredited energy auditors.
NOTE: As the PAT scheme was not discussed in the 3rd edition, the evaluator may
grant at least 5 marks to each candidate if this question was attempted, or more, if
written well.
L-4 a) A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has
a full load efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy
auditor measures the following operating data of the motor.
1) Supply voltage= 408V
2) Current drawn= 30A
3) PF=0.83
.Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
1) Power input in kW
2) % motor loading

b) List five energy saving measures in your home

Ans 1) Power input = 1.732*408*30*0.83


= 17.60 kW

2) % motor loading = [17.60/(20/0.88)]*100


= (17.60/22.73)
= 77.43%
b)
 Replacement of inefficient electric lamps with efficient electric lamps
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c‟s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
 Using Solar water heating systems for hot water requirements to minimize use of electric
geysers
 Using Solar PV systems for electricity generation
 Proper ventilation maximizing the use of natural light
 Switching off all equipment when not required
 Using pressure cooker for cooking food
 Maximizing the use of low fire burner (SIM) in the gas stove

o o o
Using A/Cs at setpoint of 21 C-23 C instead of 16 C
 Placing the fridge so that the rear (condenser coils) are located where there is proper air flow.

Note : Any five of the above and also give marks for other relevant options

L – 5 The integrated paper plant has produced 119366 MT of paper during the year 2012-13.
The management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of
PAT scheme and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of
product to 50 GJ/tonne of product. The actual production during the assessment year
(2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate the plant energy performance and state your
inference.

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

Ans
Reference year production : 119366 MT
Reference year specific energy consumption : 53 GJ/tonne of product
Assessment year production : 124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption : 50 GJ/tonne of product

production factor = (124141 / 119366) = 1.04

= 53 x 119366 = 6326398 GJ

=50 x 124141 = 6207050 GJ

= 6326398 GJ x 1.04 =6579454 GJ

= ((6579454 - 6207050 ) / 6579454 )x 100


= 5.66%

Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy
savings.

L-6
In a particular drying operation, it is necessary to hold the moisture content of feed to
a calciner to 15% (w/w) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 30% moisture (w/w) with recycle stream of dried material
having 3% moisture (w/w). The dryer operation is shown in fig below. What fraction of
the dried product must be recycled?

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

Ans
Let
F indicate quantity of feed
R indicate quantity of recycle
P indicate quantity of product
Based on solid content at Mixer
0.7F + 0.97R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =1.25 F ………………..(1)
Based on solid content at Drier
0.85 (F + R) = 0.97 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 1.25F) = 0.97 P + (0.97 x 1.25 F)
1.91 F = 0.97 P + 1.21F
0.7 F = 0.97 P
Hence F = 1.386 P ………………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1) for obtaining Recycle quantity in terms of Product
R = (1.25 x 1.386 P) = 1.7325 P ……………..(3)
.
Product plus Recycle is
P+R = (P + 1.7325 P) = P(1 + 1.7325) = 2.7325 P ……...(4)
R (as a fraction of dried product) = {(1.7325 P) / (2.7325 P)} x (100)
= 63.4%

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

Regn No: __________________

Name : __________________
(To be written by the candidate)

17th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2016

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 24.09.2016 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE

1. Which of these is not true of payback period


a. Simple to calculate
b. Considers cash flow beyond the payback period
c. Shorter the period the better
d. Does not take into account, time value of money
2. Which of the following equipment is not covered under the mandatory schemes as per the
S & L programme?
a) household frost free refrigerators b) tubular fluorescent lamp
c) ceiling fans d) room air conditioners
3. Which is not an example of fuel substitution?
a. Replacement of Naptha by Natural gas as feedstock for fertilizer plant.
b. Replacement of coal by coconut shells.
c. Replacement of LDO by LSHS
d. Replacement of coconut shells by rice husk
4. Which among the following is a green house gas?

a) Sulphur Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide


c) NO2 d) Methane
5. What is the future value of Rs.1000/- after 3 years, if the interest rate is 10%
a) Rs. 1331 b) Rs.1610 c) Rs.3221 d) none of the above

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

6. What is the expected power output in watts from a wind turbine with 6m diameter rotor, a
coefficient of performance 0.45, generator efficiency 0.8,a gear box efficiency 0.90 and wind
speed of 11m/sec
a. 4875 watts
b. 1100 watts
c. 7312 watts
d. 73.12 kW

7. To judge the attractiveness of any investment, the energy auditor must consider
a) Initial capital cost b) Net operating cash inflows
c) salvage value d) all the above
8.
The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest finish time of
an activity is
a) delay time b) slack time
c) critical path d) start time
o
9. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a given substance by 1 C is known
as:
a) sensible heat b) specific heat c) heat capacity d) latent heat
10. The producer gas is basically
a. CO, H2 and CH4
b. Only CH4
c. CO and CH4
d. Only CO and H2
11. The Metric Tonne of Oil Equivalent (MTOE) value of 125 tonnes of coal having GCV of 4000
kcal/kg is
a) 40 b) 50 c) 100 d) 125

12. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
a. Difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
b. Average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
c. DBT of the atmospheric air
d. WBT of the atmospheric air

13. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of


a) power b) work c) time d) force.
14. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Less than 1
15. The essential elements of monitoring and targeting system is
a) Recording b) Reporting
c) Controlling d) All of the above
16. The energy intensity of countries that rely on import of carbon-intensive goods when compared
with those producing it, would in all probability be

a) Higher b) Lower c) Almost equal d) No correlation


17. The Energy Conservation Act requires that all designated consumers should get energy audits

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

conducted by

a) Energy Manager b) Accredited energy auditor


c) Certified Energy Auditor d) Designated agencies
18.
The Critical Path in project planning technique indicates.
a) minimum time required for the completion of the project
b) delays in the project
c) early start and late end of the project
d) none of the above
19. The “superheat” of steam is expressed as

a. degrees Centigrade above saturation temperature


b. critical temperature of the steam
c. the temperature of the steam
d. none of the above

20. Liquid fuel density is measured by an instrument called


a) Tachometer b) hygrometer c) anemometer d) none of the above

21. ISO 50001:2011 provides a framework of requirements for organizations to:


a) Develop a policy for more efficient use of energy b) Measure the results
c) Fix targets and objectives to meet the policy d) all of the above
Infrared thermometer is used to measure
22. a) Surface temperature b) Flame temperature
c) Flue gas temperature d) Hot water temperature
23. In the material balance of a process or unit operation process, which component will not be
considered on the input side?
a) Chemicals b) Water/air c) Recycle d) By product
24. In energy performance monitoring, „Production Factor‟ means
a) Current year Production b) Reference Year Production
Design Capacity Current year Production
c)Current Year Production d) CurrentYear Production
Reference Year Production Previous Year Production

25. In an industry the billed electricity consumption for a month is 5.8 lakh kWh. The fixed electricity
consumption of the plant is 30000kWh and with a variable electricity consumption of 11 kWh/ton.
Calculate the production of the industry
a) 50000 tonnes b) 60000 tonnes c) 58000 tonnes d) None of the above

26. In project management, the critical path in the network is


a) the quickest path b) the shortest path
c) The path from start to finish d) the path where activities have no slack

27. In a solar thermal power station , molten salt which is a mixture of 60% sodium nitrate and 40%
potassium nitrate is used. It is preferred as it provides an efficient low cost medium to store
_______

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

a. Electrical energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
28. In a cumulative sum chart if the graph is going up, it means
a. Energy consumption is going up
b. Energy consumption is going down
c. Specific energy consumption is coming down
d. No inference can be made
29. In a coal fired boiler, hourly consumption of coal is 1300 kg. The ash content in the coal is 6%.
Calculate the quantity of ash formed per day. Boiler operates 24 hrs/day.
a) 216 kg b) 300 kg c) 1872 kg d) none of the above
30. In a chemical process two reactants A (300 kg) and B (400 kg) are used. If conversion is 50%
and A and B react in equal proportions, the mass of the product formed is.
a) 300 kg b) 350 kg
c) 400 kg d) none of the above
31. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating
at
a) Lagging power factor b) Unity power factor
c) Leading power factor d) none of the above

32.
If Oxygen rich combustion air is supplied to a furnace instead of normal air the % CO 2 in flue
gases will
a) reduce b) increase c) remain same d) will become zero
O
33. If a 2 KW immersion heater is used to heat 30litres of water at 30 C, what would be the
temperature of water after 15 minutes? Assume no losses in the system.
O O O
a) 87.3 C b) 44.3 C c) 71.3 C d) none of the above
34. Identify from the following non-commercial energy.
a. Wind
b. Solar energy for water heating
c. Solar energy for power generation
d. All the above
35. Having a documented energy policy in industry
a) Satisfies regulations
b) Reflects top management commitment
c) Indicates availability of energy audit skills
d) None of the Above
36. Greenhouse effect is caused by natural affects and anthropogenic effects. If there is no natural
greenhouse effect, the Earth's average surface temperature would be around __________°C.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 14 d) - 18
37. For every 10°C rise in temperature, the rate of chemical reaction doubles. When the
temperature is increased from 30°C to 70°C, the rate of reaction increases __________ times.
a) 8 b) 64 c) 16 d) none of the above
38. For energy consumption monitoring and target setting, it is imperative to have
a) adequate metering b) accurate production data
c) energy consumption data d) all of the above
39. Doppler effect principle is used in the following instrument

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter


c) infrared thermometer d) flue gas analyzer
40. Diagrammatic representation of input and output energy streams of an equipment or system is
known as
a) mollier diagram b) sankey diagram
c) psychrometric chart d) balance diagram
41. CUSUM technique can be used to identify
a) deterioration in operating performance
b) impact of good housekeeping & maintenance
c) savings achieved by implementing energy conservation
measure(s)
d) all of the above

42. Capital cost are associated with


a) Design of Project
b) Installation and Commissioning of Project
c) Operation and Maintenance cost of project
d) both a and b
43. As per laws of thermodynamics;
a) It is impossible to reduce the temperature of any substance to absolute zero
b) Heat always flows from a hotter object to a colder object
c) Energy conversion from one form to another cannot be 100%
d) All of the above
44. Any management would like to invest in projects with
a) Low IRR b) Low ROI
c) Low NPV of future returns d) none of the above
45. Absolute pressure is
a. Gauge pressure
b. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
46. A three phase induction motor is drawing 16 Ampere at 440 Volts. If the operating power factor
of the motor is 0.90 and the motor efficiency is 92%, then the mechanical shaft power output of
the motor is

a) 12.04 kW b) 10.09 kW
c) 10.97 kW d) None of the above
47. A sling psychrometer is capable of measuring
a) only dry bulb temperature b) only wet bulb temperature
c) both dry and wet bulb temperature d) absolute humidity
48. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency is
80% and the losses will be

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal


49. A mass balance for energy conservation does not consider which of the following
a. Steam
b. water
c. Lubricating oil
d. Raw material

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

50. A comparison of the trapping of heat by CO2 and CH4 is that


a) CH4 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CO 2
b) CO2 traps 21 times more heat in the atmosphere than does CH4
c) the same amount of heat is trapped by both CO2 and CH4
d) none of the above

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

S-1 The average monthly electricity consumption in an Aluminium producing unit is 12.35 lac
kWh. The other energy sources used in the manufacturing process are Furnace oil (GCV-
9660 kcal/Ltr) and HSD (GCV-9410 kcal/Ltr). If the annual fuel oil consumption is 5760 kL of
Furnace oil (sp. gr. 0.92) and 500 kL of HSD (sp. gr. 0.88), determine if the unit qualifies as a
Designated Consumer under the EC Act?
7
Ans 1 Mtoe = 1 x 10 kcal
Annual electrical energy consumption = 12.35 x 12 = 148.2 lac Kwh
5 7
Equivalent heat energy = (148.2 x 10 x 860)/(1 x 10 )
= 1274.52 Mtoe _(i)
Annual Furnace oil consumption = 5760 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (5760 x 1000 x 9660)/(1 x 10 )
= 5564.16 Mtoe _(ii)
Annual HSD consumption = 500 kL
7
Equivalent heat energy = (500 x 1000 x 9410)/(1 x 10 )
= 470.5 Mtoe _(iii)

Total annual energy consumption = 1274.52 + 5564.16 + 470.5


= 7309.18 Mtoe

To be a designated consumer, the minimum annual energy consumption (in aluminium sector)
should be 7500 Mtoe. As the plant energy consumption doesn‟t exceed this threshold limit, it is
not qualifies to be a designated consumer.

S-2 The annual fuel cost of boiler operation in a plant is Rs.8 Lakhs. The boiler with 65%
efficiency is now replaced by a new one with 78% efficiency. What is the annual cost
savings?

Ans Existing efficiency =65%

Proposed efficiency=78%

Annual fuel cost =Rs. 8 Lakhs

Annual cost savings = annual fuel cost *( 1-(EffO/EffN))

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

= 8x((1-(0.65/0.78))

=Rs. 1,33,333.6 per annum

S-3 In a textile manufacturing unit, wet cloth is dried in a stenter. The cloth entering the stenter
has a moisture of 52% while that leaving the stenter is 96% dry. If the production rate
(output) from the stenter is 200 Kg/hr, what is the quantity of steam required per hour, if
the steam enters the stenter with an enthalpy of 660 kcal/kg. The condensate leaving the
o
stenter is at 150 C. Consider drying to take place at atmospheric pressure where the latent
heat of water is 540 Kcal/Kg.

Ans Stenter output = 200 kgs/hr


Bone dry cloth in output = 200 X 0.96 = 192 kgs.

Moisture in output = 8 kgs.


Moisture in input = 52%
Bone dry cloth in input = 48%
Total weight of input cloth = 192/0.48 = 400 kg/hr

Quantity of water evaporated = 400 – 200 = 200 kg/hr


O
Assuming sensible heat in steam at 150 C = 150 kcal/kg
Quantity of steam required = (200 X 540)/(660 – 150)
= 211.8 kg/hr

S–4 A tank containing 500 kg of kerosene is to be heated from 10°C to 40°C in 20 minutes,
using 4 bar (g) steam. The kerosene has a specific heat capacity of 2.0 kJ/kg °C over that
temperature range. Latent heat of steam (hfg) at 4.0 bar g is 2 108.1 kJ/kg. The tank is
well insulated and heat losses are negligible.
Determine the steam flow rate in kg/hr.
O O
Ans Q = 500 kg x 2 kJ/kg C x (40-10) C/(1200) = 25 kJ/sec
Therefore mass of steam = 25 kJ/sec x3600 / 2108 .1 kJ/kg = 42.69 kg/h

Explain how an ESCO model works.


S-5

Ans ESCOs are usually companies that provide a complete energy project service, from assessment
to design to construction or installation, along with engineering and project management services
and financing.

The ESCO will usually offer the following performance contract options.
 Fixed fee
 Shared Savings
 Guaranteed savings

(Note: Please refer page no: 177-179 of Paper 1, candidates can write relevant
things about ESCO operation model)

S-6 Give relationship between Absolute and Gauge pressures. Give 4


different units used in pressure measurement.

Ans Absolute pressure is zero-referenced against a perfect vacuum, so it is equal to gauge


pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Gauge pressure is zero-referenced against ambient air pressure, so it is equal to absolute

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

pressure minus atmospheric pressure. (Negative signs are usually omitted)


Absolute Pressure = Prevailing Atmospheric Pressure + Gauge Pressure

(NOTE: also please refer guide book-1 pg-70)

The four units of pressure measurement are:

i) Pascal
2
ii) kg / cm
iii) Atmospheric
iv) mm of mercury
v) Meters of water column
2
vi) Pounds / inch
Note: any four of the above

S-7 A plant is using 6 tonnes/day of coal to generate steam . The calorific of coal is 3300 kcal/kg. The
cost of coal is Rs 4200/tonne . The plant substitutes coal with agro-residue , as a boiler fuel,
which has a calorific value of 3100 kcal /kg and cost Rs.1800/tonne. Calculate the annual cost
savings at 350 days of operation ,assuming the boiler efficiency remains same at 72% for coal
and agro residue as fuel.

Ans
Useful energy to generate steam by 6 tonnes of coal per day
= 6000 x 3300 x 0.72 = 14256000 kcal/day

To deliver 14256000kcal/day , daily amount of rice husk required


= 14256000 =6387 kg/day
3100 x 0.72

Daily saving = 6000 x 4200 - 6387 x 1800


1000 1000
= 25200-11497
= Rs 13703/-

Annual saving =13703 x 350


= Rs 47,96,050/-

S–8 What is meant by the following terms?


a) Normalising of data
b) Benchmarking

Ans a) Normalising of data

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the energy
efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include weather or certain
operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of removing the impact of various
factors on energy use so that energy performance of facilities and operations can be
compared.

b) Benchmarking
Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a relative
understanding of where our performance ranks.

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

L-1 An integrated paper plant has produced 134241 MT of paper during the year 2012-13. The
management has implemented various energy conservation measures as part of PAT scheme
and reduced the specific energy consumption from 53 GJ/ tonne of product to 49 GJ/tonne of
product. The actual production during the assessment year (2014-15) is 124141 MT. Calculate
the plant energy performance and state your inference.

Ans Reference year production =134241 MT


Reference year specific energy consumption = 53 GJ/tonne of product
Assessment year production =124141 MT
Assessment year specific energy consumption = 49 GJ/tonne of product

production factor = (124141 / 134241) = 0.92

= 53 x 134241 = 7114773 GJ

=49 x 124141 = 6082909 GJ

= 7114773 GJ x 0.92 =6545591.16 GJ

= ((6545591.16 - 6082909 ) / 6545591.16 )x 100


= 7.07%

Inference : plant energy performance is positive and hence the plant is achieving energy savings.

L-2 Explain PAT Scheme and its potential impact?


Ans Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a market based mechanism
to enhance cost effectiveness of improvements in energy efficiency in energy-

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

intensive large industries and facilities, through certification of energy savings


that could be traded.

The key goal of PAT scheme is to mandate specific energy efficiency improvements
for the most energy intensive industries. The scheme builds on the large variation
in energy intensities of different units in almost every sector. The scheme
envisages improvements in the energy intensity of each unit covered by it. The
energy intensity reduction target mandated for each unit is dependent on its
operating efficiency: the specific energy consumption reduction target is less for
those who are more efficient, and is higher for the less-efficient units.

Further, the scheme incentivizes units to exceed their specified SEC


improvement targets. To facilitate this, the scheme provides the option for
industries who achieve superior savings to receive energy savings certificates for
this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified energy savings
certificates with other designated consumers(energy intensive industries notified
as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act and included
under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with their
specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
(ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the
cycle in which they have been issued. The number of ESCerts which would be
issued would depend on the quantum of energy saved over and above the target
energy savings in the assessment year (for 1stCycle of PAT, assessment year is
2014-15).

After completion of baseline audits, targets varying from unit to unit ranging from
about 3 to 7% have been set and need to be accomplished by 2014-15 and after
which new cycle with new targets will be proposed. Failing to achieve the specific
energy consumption targets in the time frame would attract penalty for the non-
compliance under Section 26 (1A) of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001
(amended in 2010). For ensuring the compliance with the set targets, system of
verification and check-verification will be carried out by empanelment criteria of
accredited energy auditors.

NOTE: As the PAT scheme was not discussed in the 3rd edition, the evaluator may
grant at least 5 marks to each candidate if this question was attempted, or more, if
written well.
L-3
In a particular drying operation, it is necessary to hold the moisture content of feed to
a calciner to 15% (W/W) to prevent lumping and sticking. This is accomplishing by
mixing the feed having 35% moisture (w/w) with recycle steam of dried material
having 5% moisture (w/w). The dryer operation is shown in fig below. What fraction of
the dried product must be recycled?

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

Ans
Let
F indicate quantity of feed
R indicate quantity of recycle
P indicate quantity of product
Based on solid content at Mixer
0.65F + 0.95R = 0.85 (F + R)
Hence R =2 F ………………..(1)
Based on solid content at Drier
0.85 (F + R) = 0.95 (P + R)
0.85 (F + 2F) = 0.95 P + (0.95 x 2 F)
2.55 F = 0.95 P + 1.9 F
0.65 F = 0.95 P
Hence F = 1.46 P ………………(2)
Substituting (2) in (1) for obtaining Recycle quantity in terms of Product
R = (2.0 x 1.46 P) = 2.92 P ……………..(3)
Product plus Recycle is
P+R = (P + 2.92 P) = P(1 + 2.92) = 3.92 P …..(4)

R (as a fraction of dried product) = {(2.92 P) / (3.92 P)} x (100)


= 74.49%

L-4 a) Why do project managers give a great degree of attention to critical path?

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

b) For the PERT diagram with duration of activities shown, determine the
following:

1. What is the shortest time for completion of the project?


2. Which activities must be completed on time in order for the project to finish
in the shortest possible time?
Ans a) The critical path is of great interest to project managers. The activities on the
critical path are the ones which absolutely must be done on time in order for the
whole project to complete on time. If any of the activities on the critical path are
late, then the entire project will finish late.

b)

Activity Duratio ES EF LS LF Slack Critical


n path
(weeks)
A 4 0 4 0 4 Yes
B 3 0 3 6 9
C 5 4 9 5 10
D 5 4 9 4 9 Yes
E 8 4 12 8 16
F 6 9 15 10 16
G 7 9 16 9 16 Yes

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

H 9 9 18 17 26
I 10 16 26 16 26 Yes
J 7 16 23 17 24
K 4 9 13 20 24
L 3 16 19 26 29
M 3 26 29 26 29 Yes
N 5 23 28 24 29

1. The shortest time to complete project – 29 weeks


2. Critical path : A - D - G - I – M

L -5 A 20 kW, 415V, 38A, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 phase rated squirrel cage induction motor has a full load
efficiency and power factor of 88% and 0.85 respectively. An energy auditor measures the
following operating data of the motor.
1) Supply voltage= 408V
2) Current drawn= 28A
3) PF=0.83
.Find out the following at motor operating conditions.
1) Power input in kW
2) % motor loading

b) List five energy saving measures in your home

Ans a) 1) Power input = 1.732*408*28*0.83


= 16.42 kW

2) % motor loading = [16.42/(20/0.88)]*100


= (16.42/22.73)
= 72.24%
b)
 Replacement of inefficient electric lamps with efficient electric lamps
 Using star labeled household appliances like A/c‟s, Refrigerator,Lamps,Fans
 Using Solar water heating systems for hot water requirements to minimize use of electric
geysers
 Using Solar PV systems for electricity generation
 Proper ventilation maximizing the use of natural light
 Switching off all equipment when not required
 Using pressure cooker for cooking food
 Maximizing the use of low fire burner (SIM) in the gas stove

o o o
Using A/Cs at setpoint of 21 C-23 C instead of 16 C
 Placing the fridge so that the rear (condenser coils) are located where there is proper air flow.

Note : Any five of the above and also give marks for other relevant options

L-6 An investment of Rs.250,000 is being considered for an energy efficient


equipment.The cost of capital for the investment is 13%.Following cash flows are
expected from the investment:

Year Rs.

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

0 (250,000)
1 50,000
2 100,000
3 200,000
1) Calculate the IRR for the proposed investment and interpret your answer.
Ans Step 1: Select 2 discount rates for the calculation of NPVs
We can take 10% (R1) and 20% (R2) as our discount rates.

Step 2: Calculate NPVs of the investment using the 2 discount rates


Net Present Value @ 10%
Cash Flow Discount Factor Present Value
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.909 45,450
100,000 0.826 82,600
200,000 0.751 150,200
NPV1 28,250
Net Present Value @ 20%
Cash Flow Discount Factor Present Value
A B AxB
(250,000) 1.000 (250,000)
50,000 0.833 41,650
100,000 0.694 69,400
200,000 0.57 115,800
NPV2 -23,150

Step 3: Calculate the IRR

NPV1 x (R2 - R1)%


Internal Rate of Return = R1% +
(NPV1 - NPV2)
28,250 x (20 - 10)%
= 10% +
(28,250 - (- 3,150))
28,250 x 10%
= 10% +
28,250 + 23,150

= 10% + 5.5%

= 15.5%

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 14
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

16th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2015

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 19.09.2015 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions


(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen, as per
instructions

1. Which one is not a consequence of global warming

a) rise in global temperature b) rise in sea level


c) food shortage and hunger d) fall in global temperature
2. Which of the following will not be a major component of mass balance

a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil


3. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption

a) kWh/ton b) kCal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kCal


4. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time

a) CO2 b) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6)


c) CFC d) Per FluoroCarbon (PFC)
5. Which of the following comes under mandatory labeling programme

a) diesel Generators b) induction motors


c) tubular Fluorescent Lamps d) LED lamps
6. Transit time method is used in which of the instrument

a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot tube d) fyrite


7. To improve the boiler efficiency, which of the following needs to be done

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

a) maximize O2 in flue gas b) maximize CO2 in flue gas


c) minimize CO2 in flue gas d) maximize CO in flue gas
8. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy management
projects is called

a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) WBS


9. The ratio of wind power in the wind actually converted into mechanical power and the power
available in the wind is about

a) 75% b) 59% d) 44% e)10%


10. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 OC is termed as

a) latent heat b) one kilojoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
11. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is

a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000


12. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ------------

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
13. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 100 lakhs which accounts for 45% of the total
monthly energy bill. How much is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 222.22 lakhs b) Rs 45 lakhs c) Rs 138 lakhs d) None of above


14. The major share of energy loss in a thermal power plant is in the

a) generator b) boiler c) condenser d) turbine


15. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is

a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) None of the above


16. The indicator of energy performance in a thermal power plant is

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
17. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1,000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the production is
80,000 Tons

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000


18. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a plant
was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on investment is

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%


19. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings achieved.
This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services. This is known as

a)traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance contract d) shared savings performance contract

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

20. PERT/CPM provides which of the following benefits

a) predicts the time required to complete the project


b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) graphical view of the project
d) all the above
21. Input fuel of fuel cell

a) petrol b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) natural gas


22. In India power sectors consumes about_______% of the coal produced

a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 90%

23. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the average
production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same period. The fixed
electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 58000 kWh b) 30000 kWh c) 80000 kWh d) none of the above


24. In a drying process, moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is 200
kg. Calculate the weight of the product

a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3


25. In a DG set, the generator is consuming 400 litres per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of the set
at 0.6 power factor

a) 1200 KVA b) 2222 KVA c) 600 KVA d)1600 KVA


26. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second

a) 50 times b) 100 times c) Two times d) 25 times


27. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % relative humidity will

a) increase b) decrease c) no Change d) can’t say


2
28. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm then boiling point will be approximately

a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) Can’t say


29. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of power plant will be

a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%


30. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean molecular
weight of air is

a) 11.9 b) 28.8 c) 17.7 d) insufficient data


31. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant for a
flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%

a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW


32. Fuel cell using methanol as anode and oxygen as cathode is

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

a) proton exchange membrane fuel cell b) phosphoric acid fuel cell


b) alkaline fuel cell d) direct methanol fuel cell
33. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which of the
following conversion factors is appropriate

a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above


34. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required

a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production


c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization
35. ESCerts cannot be

a) bought b) sold c) banked for next cycle d) traded directly between DCs
36. Energy intensity is the ratio of

a) fuel consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption


c) GDP/ energy consumption d) energy consumption / GDP
37. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project are

a) variable costs b) capital costs c) salvage value d) none of the above


38. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having temperature of
50 OC will be _________ kcal/kg

a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say


39. AT & C losses means

a) administration transmission and commercial


b) aggregate technical and commercial
c) average technical and commercial
d) none of the above

40. As per primary commercial energy consumption mix in India, the fuel dominating the energy
production mix in India is

a) natural gas b) oil c) coal d) nuclear energy

An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14 then
41. for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114


42. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a pessimistic time
of 27 days. What is the expected time

a) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days


43. Among which of the following fuels, the difference between the GCV and NCV is maximum

a) coal b) furnace Oil c) natural gas d) rice husk


44. A waste heat recovery system costs Rs. 54 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs per year to operate and
maintain. If the annual savings is Rs. 20 lakhs, the payback period will be

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

a) 8 years b) 2.7 years c) 3 years d) 10 years


45. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency is
80% and the losses will be

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal


46. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a continuous
flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the discharge side would
be

a) 12 m3/hr b) 10 m3/hr c) 5.5 m3/hr d) 6.6 m 3/hr


47. A 400W lamp was switched on for 10 hours per day. The supply volt is 230V (current= 2 amps &
PF= 0.8). What is the energy consumption per day

a) 3.68 kWh b) 6.37 kWh c) 0.37 kWh d) 4.0 kWh


48. 3 3
20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The volume of
the mixture would be

a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
49. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’ as

a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
50. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood

a) 0.78 kg b) 220 grams c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C to
85oC. If the GCV of the gas is 9200 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
kg/min (assume efficiency of water heater as 82%)
Solution:

Volume of water heated = 20 liters/min


Mass of water heated = 20 Kg/min
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water. … 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min * 9200 * 0.82 = 20 Kg/min * 1 kcal/Kg/oC)* (85-25)oC

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

… 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9200*0.82)
= 0.159 Kg/ min.
…. 3 marks

S-2 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 12%.

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)


0 75,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000

Ans:
NPV = - 75,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3

…… 3 marks
= -75,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794
= 24,904 Rs.
…… 2 marks
S-3 In a process plant, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by w/w
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 30% solids w/w. calculate the
evaporation of water per 500 kgs of feed to the evaporator.
Solution :
Inlet solid contents = 6 %
Output solid contents = 30%
Feed = 500 kgs
Inlet solid content in kg in feed = 500 x 0.06 = 30 kg …… 1 mark
Outlet solid content in kg = 30 kg …… 1 mark

Quantity of water evaporated = [500 – {(30 / 30) x 100}] = 400 kg.


…… 3 marks
S-4 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001
Ans:
Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act - 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes (ECBC)
 Standards and labeling (S&L)
 Demand side management (DSM)
 Bachat Lamp Yojana (BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises (SME’s)
 Designated consumers
 Certification of energy auditors and energy managers

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

….. (5 marks for any of the above five schemes)


S-5 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?

a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer
Ans:

a. Pitot tube Static, Dynamic and Total Pressure of Gas


b. Stroboscope Speed, RPM
c. Fyrite CO2 % or O2 %
d. Psychrometer Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet Bulb Temperature
e. Anemometer Air or wind velocity

…… (1 mark each)
S-6 What are ESCerts and explain the basis for their issue and trading under PAT scheme ?
PAT scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified
energy savings certificates with other designated consumers (energy intensive
industries notified as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act
and included under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with
their specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
(ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued.
….. (5 marks)
S–7 Pressure of a nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 25 0C. Specific gravity of mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
Nitrogen pressure = 100 mm of Water Gauge = 100 / 13.6 = 7.353 mm of Hg
….. (0.5 mark)
Absolute Temperature, T = 25 + 273 = 298 K,

Mass = 1.5 kg & Barometric pressure = 756 mm of Hg.

Absolute pressure = 756 + 7.353 = 763.353 mm of Hg


….. (0.5 mark)

Pressure, P = Density, (kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) / 1000


= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

….. (1.5 marks)


Molar mass of Nitrogen = 28 kg/kMol.

Number of kMol, n = Mass / Molar Mass = 1.5/ 28 = 0.0536 kMol


……(1 mark)
Using the ideal gas equation and putting the above values;

PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 298
V = 1.395 m3
….. (1.5 marks)
S–8 Distinguish between designated agency and designated consumer as per energy
conservation act 2001
Ans:
Designated Agency: Designated agency means an agency which coordinates,
regulates and enforces of Energy Conservation Act 2001within a state.
..… (2.5 marks)

Designated Consumer: Designated consumer means any users or class of users


of energy in the “energy intensive industries and other establishments” specified
in Schedule as designated consumer.
..… (2.5 marks)

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 a) A furnace heating steel ingots is fired with oil having a calorific value of 10,500 kCal/kg
and efficiency of 75%. Calculate the oil consumption per hour when the throughput of the
furnace is 50 TPH and the temperature of the finished product is 600 oC. Take ambient
temperature as 30 oC and Specific Heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC

b) In Steel industry, different types of gases are generated during steel making process.

Volumetric Flow rate and Calorific Values of each gases are:

Type of Gas Flow (SM3/hr) CV (kCal/SM3)


Coke Oven Gas 75,000 4,000
COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Blast Furnace Gas 80,000 700

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific
Value (in kCal/SM3) of mix gas.

Ans:
a) Oil Consumption / hr

50 (TPH) x 0.12 (kCal/kg oC) x (600 – 30) (oC)


= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,500 (kCal/kg)

= 0.43 TPH
(5 marks)

b) Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 mark)

CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

= 2,071 kCal/SM3 (4 marks)

L – 2 A) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?

I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking

B) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Ans:
A) I) Normalizing:

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the
energy efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include
weather or certain operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of
removing the impact of various factors on energy use so that energy
performance of facilities and operations can be compared.

…… (3 marks)
II) Benchmarking:

Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a


relative understanding of where our performance ranks.
…… (2 marks)

B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples:

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

Substituting existing fossil fuels/energy with more efficient and / or less cost/less polluting
fuel.
….. (1 mark)
Few examples of fuel substitution
 Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the fertilizer,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
 Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
 Replacement of LDO by LSHS
…… (2 marks)
Few examples of energy substitution
 Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters.
 Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems.
…… (2 marks)

L-3 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) Draw a PERT chart


b) Find out the duration of the project
c) Identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7
Ans:

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

.….(6 marks)

Duration = 28 days ….. (2 marks)

Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H ….. (2 marks)


L – 4 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating at
an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the paper drying machine
which found to be 60% and 95% respectively.

The steam is supplied at 4 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 510 kCal/kg. The evaporated
moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg. Plant operates 24
hours per day. Assume only latent heat of steam is being used for drying the paper and
neglect the enthalpy of the moisture in the wet paper.

i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated per hr.


ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hr.

Ans:
Output of the drying machine = 480 TPD with 95% dryness.

Bone dry mass of paper at the output = 480 x 0.95 = 456 TPD
…. (2 marks)
Since the dryness at the inlet is 60%,
Total mass of wet paper at the inlet = (456 x 100) / 60 = 760 TPD
…..(2 marks)
Moisture evaporated per hour = (760 – 480)/ 24 = 11.67TPH
….(3 marks)
Mass of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 510 = 14.6 TPH
…..(3 marks)
L-5 Use CUSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for 8 months
period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 6,000 MT
per month. Refer to field data given in the table below.

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335

Ans

Actual
Predicted SEC, Diff = ( Act - Pred ) CUSUM
Month SEC,
kWh/MT ( - = Saving ) ( - = Saving )
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28

…..(7 marks)

Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 6000 =1,68,000 kWh

…..(3 marks)
L-6 Write short notes on?

1. Time of the day tariff


2. Comparative label
3. Endorsement label
4. Benefits of ISO 50001

Solution:

1) In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-peak

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set A

hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in.
 Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during
11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will
record peak and off-peak consumption and normal period separately.
 ToD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour tariff is
quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher line
losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by reduced
demand
….. (2.5 marks)

2) Comparative label: allow consumers to compare efficiency of all the models of a


product in order to make an informed choice. It shows the relative energy use of a
product compared to other models available in the market.

….. (2.5 marks)

3) Endorsement label: define a group of products as efficient when they meet minimum
energy performance criteria specified in the respective product
schedule/regulation/statutory order.

….. (2.5 marks)

4) ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits

 A framework for integrating energy efficiency into management practices

 Making better use of existing energy-consuming assets

 Benchmarking, measuring, documenting, and reporting energy intensity


improvements and their projected impact on reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions

 Transparency and communication on the management of energy resources

 Energy management best practices and good energy management behaviours

 Evaluating and prioritizing the implementation of new energy-efficient technologies

 A framework for promoting energy efficiency throughout the supply chain

 Energy management improvements in the context of GHG emission reduction


projects.

….. (2.5 marks)

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

16th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2015

PAPER – 1: GENERAL ASPECTS OF ENERGY MANAGEMENT & ENERGY


AUDIT

Date: 19.09.2015 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

a) Answer all 50 questions


b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil

1. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % relative humidity will

a) increase b) decrease c) no Change d) can’t say


2
2. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm then boiling point will be approximately

a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) Can’t say


3. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of power plant will be

a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%


4. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is

a) 11.9 b) 28.8 c) 17.7 d) insufficient data


5. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant for
a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%

a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW


6. Fuel cell using methanol as anode and oxygen as cathode is

a) proton exchange membrane fuel cell b) phosphoric acid fuel cell


b) alkaline fuel cell d) direct methanol fuel cell
7. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which of
the following conversion factors is appropriate

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above


8. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required

a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production


c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization
9. ESCerts cannot be

a) bought b) sold c) banked for next cycle d) traded directly between DCs
10. Energy intensity is the ratio of

a) fuel consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption


c) GDP/ energy consumption d) energy consumption / GDP
11. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project are

a) variable costs b) capital costs c) salvage value d) none of the above


12. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having temperature
of 50 OC will be _________ kcal/kg

a) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say


13. AT & C losses means

a) administration transmission and commercial


b) aggregate technical and commercial
c) average technical and commercial
d) none of the above

14. As per primary commercial energy consumption mix in India, the fuel dominating the energy
production mix in India is

a) natural gas b) oil c) coal d) nuclear energy

An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14
15. then for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114


16. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a pessimistic
time of 27 days. What is the expected time

a) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days


17. Among which of the following fuels, the difference between the GCV and NCV is maximum

a) coal b) furnace Oil c) natural gas d) rice husk


18. A waste heat recovery system costs Rs. 54 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs per year to operate and
maintain. If the annual savings is Rs. 20 lakhs, the payback period will be

a) 8 years b) 2.7 years c) 3 years d) 10 years


19. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system efficiency
is 80% and the losses will be

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal


20. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a continuous
flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the discharge side
would be

a) 12 m3/hr b) 10 m3/hr c) 5.5 m3/hr d) 6.6 m 3/hr


21. A 400W lamp was switched on for 10 hours per day. The supply volt is 230V (current= 2
amps & PF=0.8). What is the energy consumption per day

a) 3.68 kWh b) 6.37 kWh c) 0.37 kWh d) 4.0 kWh


22. 20 m3 of water is mixed with 30 m 3 of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The volume
of the mixture would be

a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
23. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’ as

a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
24. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood

a) 0.78 kg b) 220 grams c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg


25. Which one is not a consequence of global warming

a) rise in global temperature b) rise in sea level


c) food shortage and hunger d) fall in global temperature
26. Which of the following will not be a major component of mass balance

a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil


27. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption

a) kWh/ton b) kCal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kCal


28. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time

a) CO2 b) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6)


c) CFC d) Per FluoroCarbon (PFC)
29. Which of the following comes under mandatory labeling programme

a) diesel Generators b) induction motors


c) tubular Fluorescent Lamps d) LED lamps
30. Transit time method is used in which of the instrument

a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot tube d) fyrite


31. To improve the boiler efficiency, which of the following needs to be done

a) maximize O2 in flue gas b) maximize CO2 in flue gas


c) minimize CO2 in flue gas d) maximize CO in flue gas
32. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

management projects is called

a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) WBS


33. The ratio of wind power in the wind actually converted into mechanical power and the power
available in the wind is about

a) 75% b) 59% d) 44% e)10%


34. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 OC is termed as

a) latent heat b) one kilojoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
35. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is

a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000


36. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ____________

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
37. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 100 lakhs which accounts for 45% of the total
monthly energy bill. How much is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 222.22 lakhs b) Rs 45 lakhs c) Rs 138 lakhs d) None of above


38. The major share of energy loss in a thermal power plant is in the

a) generator b) boiler c) condenser d) turbine


39. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is

a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) None of the above


40. The indicator of energy performance in a thermal power plant is

a) heat rate (kCal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
41. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1,000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the production
is 80,000 Tons

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000


42. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on investment
is

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%


43. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as

a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance contract d) shared savings performance contract
44. PERT/CPM provides which of the following benefits

a) predicts the time required to complete the project

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule


c) graphical view of the project
d) all the above
45. Input fuel of fuel cell

a) petrol b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) natural gas


46. In India power sectors consumes about_______% of the coal produced

a) 75% b) 50% c) 25% d) 90%

47. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the
average production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 58000 kWh b) 30000 kWh c) 80000 kWh d) none of the above


48. In a drying process, moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product

a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3


49. In a DG set, the generator is consuming 400 litres per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of the
set at 0.6 power factor

a) 1200 KVA b) 2222 KVA c) 600 KVA d)1600 KVA


50. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second

a) 50 times b) 100 times c) Two times d) 25 times

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S –1 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?

a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer
Ans:

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

a. Pitot tube Static, Dynamic and Total Pressure of Gas


b. Stroboscope Speed, RPM
c. Fyrite CO2 % or O2 %
d. Psychrometer Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet Bulb Temperature
e. Anemometer Air or wind velocity

…. (1 mark each)
S-2 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001
Ans:
Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes(ECBC)
 Standards and labeling(S&L)
 Demand side management(DSM)
 Bachat lamp yojana(BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises(SME’s)
 Designated consumers
 Certification of energy auditors and energy managers

….. (5 marks for any of the above five schemes)


S-3 In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 8% by w/w
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 45% solids w/w. calculate the
evaporation of water per 500 Kgs of feed to the evaporator
Ans :
Inlet solid contents = 8 %
Output solid contents=45%
Feed=500kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =500 x0.08 = 40 Kg …… 1 mark
Outlet Solid contents in kg =40 kg
…… 1 mark
quantity of water evaporated=[500 – {(100) x 40}] = 411.1 kgs
45
…… 3 marks
S-4 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 12%.

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)


0 1,00,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000

Ans
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12) 2 + (75,000 –

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

50,000)/(1+0.12)3
…… 3 marks
= -100,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794 + 22,243
= -96 Rs.
…… 2 marks
S-5 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C to
85oC. if the GCV of the gas is 9555 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
kg/min (assume efficiency of water heater as 82%)
Solution:
Volume of water heated = 20 liters/min
Mass of water heated = 20 Kg/min
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water.
… 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min * 9555 * 0.82 = 20 Kg/min * 1 kcal/Kg/oC)* (85-25)oC
… 1 mark
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9555*0.82)
= 0.1532 Kg/ min
… 3 marks
S–6 Distinguish between designated agency and designated consumer as per energy
conservation act 2001
Ans:
Designated Agency: Designated agency means an agency which coordinates,
regulates and enforces of Energy Conservation Act 2001within a state.
..… (2.5 marks)
Designated Consumer: Designated consumer means any users or class of users
of energy in the “energy intensive industries and other establishments” specified
in Schedule as designated consumer.
..… (2.5 marks)
S–7 Pressure of a Nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
Water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of Mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 35 0C. Specific Gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
Nitrogen pressure = 100 mm of Water Gauge = 100 / 13.6 = 7.353 mm of Hg
….. (0.5 mark)
Absolute Temperature, T = 35 oC = 35 + 273 = 308 K,

Mass = 1.5 kg & Barometric pressure = 756 mm of Hg.

Absolute pressure = 756 + 7.353 = 763.353 mm of Hg


….. (0.5 mark)

Pressure, P = Density, ῤ(kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) /


1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

….. (1.5 marks)


Molar mass of Nitrogen = 28 kg/kMol.

Number of kMol, n = Mass / Molar Mass = 1.5/ 28 = 0.0536 kMol


……(1 mark)
Using the ideal gas equation and putting the above values;

PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 308
V = 1.35 m3
….. (1.5 marks)
S-8 What are ESCerts and explain the basis for their issue and trading under PAT scheme ?
PAT scheme provides the option for industries who achieve superior savings to receive
energy savings certificates for this excess savings, and to trade the additional certified
energy savings certificates with other designated consumers (energy intensive
industries notified as Designated Consumers under the Energy Conservation Act
and included under PAT Scheme) who can utilize these certificates to comply with
their specific energy consumption reduction targets. Energy Savings Certificates
(ESCerts) so issued will be tradable at Power Exchanges. The scheme also allows
units which gain ESCerts to bank them for the next cycle of PAT, following the cycle in
which they have been issued.

….. (5 marks)

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1 Write short notes on?

1. Time of the day tariff


2. Comparative label
3. Endorsement label
4. Benefits of ISO 50001

Solution:

1) In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl during off-peak
hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak hours are built in.
 Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high plant efficiency.
 ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say during

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours. Energy meter will
record peak and off-peak consumption and normal period separately.
 ToD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak hour tariff is
quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
 This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in turn higher line
losses and peak load incident and utilities power procurement charges by reduced
demand
….. (2.5 marks)

2) Comparative label: allow consumers to compare efficiency of all the models of a


product in order to make an informed choice. It shows the relative energy use of a
product compared to other models available in the market.

….. (2.5 marks)

3) Endorsement label: define a group of products as efficient when they meet minimum
energy performance criteria specified in the respective product
schedule/regulation/statutory order.

….. (2.5 marks)

4) ISO 50001 will provide the following benefits

 A framework for integrating energy efficiency into management practices

 Making better use of existing energy-consuming assets

 Benchmarking, measuring, documenting, and reporting energy intensity


improvements and their projected impact on reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions

 Transparency and communication on the management of energy resources

 Energy management best practices and good energy management behaviours

 Evaluating and prioritizing the implementation of new energy-efficient technologies

 A framework for promoting energy efficiency throughout the supply chain

 Energy management improvements in the context of GHG emission reduction


projects.

….. (2.5 marks)

L-2 Use CUSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for 8 months
period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 7,500 MT
per month. Refer to field data given in the table below.

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335

Ans

Actual
Predicted SEC, Diff = ( Act - Pred ) CUSUM
Month SEC,
kWh/MT ( - = Saving ) ( - = Saving )
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
…..(7 marks)

Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 7,500 = 2,10,000 kWh

…..(3 marks)
L – 3 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating
at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the paper drying machine
which found to be 60% and 95% respectively.

The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The evaporated
moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg. Plant operates 24
hours per day. Assume only latent heat of steam is being used for drying the paper and
neglect the enthalpy of the moisture in the wet paper.

i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated per hr.


ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hr.

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

Ans:
Output of the drying machine = 480 TPD with 95% dryness.

Bone dry mass of paper at the output = 480 x 0.95 = 456 TPD
…. (2 marks)

Since the dryness at the inlet is 60%,


Total mass of wet paper at the inlet = (456 x 100) / 60 = 760 TPD
…. (2 marks)

Moisture evaporated per hour = (760 – 480)/ 24 = 11.67TPH


…. (3 marks)

Maas of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 513 = 14.5 TPH


…. (3 marks)
L-4 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) Draw a PERT chart


b) Find out the duration of the project
c) Identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7

Ans:

……(6 Marks)
Duration = 28 days ……(2 Marks)

Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H ……(2 Marks)

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

L – 5 A) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?

I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking

B) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Ans:
A)
I) Normalizing:

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the
energy efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include
weather or certain operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of
removing the impact of various factors on energy use so that energy
performance of facilities and operations can be compared.

3 Marks
II) Benchmarking:

Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a


relative understanding of where our performance ranks.
2 Marks

B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Substituting existing fossil fuels/energy with more efficient and / or less cost/less polluting
fuel.
….. (1 mark)
Few examples of fuel substitution
 Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the fertilizer,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
 Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
 Replacement of LDO by LSHS
….. (2 marks)
Few examples of energy substitution
 Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters.
 Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems.
….. (2 marks)

L-6 a) A furnace heating steel ingots is fired with oil having a calorific value of 10,000 kCal/kg
and efficiency of 75%. Calculate the oil consumption per hour when the throughput of the

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
REGULAR Paper 1 –Set B

furnace is 50 TPH and the temperature of the finished product is 600 oC. Take ambient
temperature as 30 oC and Specific Heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC

b) In Steel industry, different types of gases are generated during steel making process.
Volumetric Flow rate and Calorific Values of each gases are:

Type of Gas Flow (SM3/hr) CV (kCal/SM3)


Coke Oven Gas 75,000 4,000
COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Blast Furnace Gas 80,000 700

All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific Value
(in kCal/SM3) of Mix Gas.

Ans:
a) Oil Consumption / hr

50 (TPH) x 0.12 (kCal/kg oC) x (600 – 30) (oC)


= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,000 (kCal/kg)

= 0.456 TPH
(5 marks)

b)
Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 mark)

CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

= 2,071 kCal/SM3 (4 marks)

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

16th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2015

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 19.09.2015 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

a) Answer all 50 questions


b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil

1. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood

a) 0.78 kg b) 220 grams c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg


2. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’
as

a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
3 3
3. 20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The
volume of the mixture would be

a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
4. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a
continuous flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the
discharge side would be

a) 12 m3/hr b) 10 m3/hr c) 5.5 m3/hr d) 6.6 m 3/hr


5. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% and the losses will be

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

6. A waste heat recovery system costs Rs. 54 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs per year to operate and
maintain. If the annual savings is Rs. 20 lakhs, the payback period will be

a) 8 years b) 2.7 years c) 3 years d) 10 years


7. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases

a) Methane and Ozone b) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide


c) Methane and Sulphur Dioxide d) Carbon Dioxide and Sulphur Dioxide
8. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using pilot tube and ________

a) Manometer b) Orifice meter c) Bourdon guage d) Anemometer


9. Among which of the following fuels, is the difference between the GCV and NCV the
maximum?

a) coal b) furnace Oil c) natural gas d) rice husk


10. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is the expected time

A) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days


An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14
11. then for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114


12. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
temperature of 50 OC will be _________ kCal/kg.

A) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say


13. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project
are:

a) variable costs b) capital costs c) salvage value d) none of the above


14. Energy Intensity is the ratio of

a) fuel Consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption


c) GDP/ energy consumption d) energy consumption / GDP
15. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as

a) Commercial energy b) Primary energy


c) Renewable energy d) Secondary energy

16. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required

a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production


c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization
17. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which
of the following conversion factors is appropriate

a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh


c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

18. Having energy policy

a) satisfies regulations b) shows commitment


c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number of other policies
19. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%.

a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW


20. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,

a) 11.9 b) 28.8 c) 17.7 d) insufficient data


21. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of Power plant will be

a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%


22. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm 2 then boiling point will be approximately

a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) can’t say


23. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating at

a) lagging power factor b) unity power factor c) leading power factor d) none of the
above
24. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % Relative Humidity will

a) increase b) decrease
c) no Change d) can’t say
25. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second.

a) 50 times b) 100 times c) Two times d) 25 times


26. In a DG set, the generator is consuming 400 litres per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of
the set at 0.6 power factor?

a) 1200 kVA b) 2222 kVA c) 600 kVA d) 1600 kVA


27. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product.

a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3


28. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the
average production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 58000 kwh b) 30000 kwh c) 80000 kwh d) None of the above


29. In project financing, sensitivity analysis

a) is applied in almost all the cash flows method involve uncertainly


b) assures how sensitive the project to change the input parameter
c) enables the analysis of what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) is applicable for all the above situations

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

30. PERT/CPM provides which of the following benefits

a) predicts the time required to complete the project


b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) graphical view of the project
d) all the above
31. Replacement of steam and hot water generation by solar system is an example of

a) matching energy usage to requirement b) energy substitution


c) maximizing system efficiency d) performance improvement
32. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as

a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
33. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on
investment is:

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%


34. The data and information sources related to energy use in a company may be obtained
from

a) plant level b) plant department level


c) system level and equipment Level d) all of the above
35. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1,000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
production is 80,000 Tons.

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000


36. The indicator of energy performance in a thermal power plant is

a) heat rate (kcal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
37. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is

a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) none of the above


38. The major share of energy loss in a thermal power plant is in the

a) generator b) boiler c) condenser d) turbine


39. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 100 lakhs which accounts for 45% of the total
monthly energy bill. How much is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 222.22 lakhs b) Rs 45 lakhs c) Rs 138 lakhs d) None of above


40. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ------------

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
41. The ozone depletion process is triggered by

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

a) methane b) chlorine molecules c) carbondioxide d) Nitrogen


42. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is:

a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000


43. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of Water by 1 OC is termed
as

a) latent heat b) one kiloJoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
44. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy
management projects is called

a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) WBS


45. To improve the boiler efficiency, which of the following needs to be done

a) maximize O2 in flue gas b) maximize CO2 in flue gas


c) minimize CO2 in flue gas d) maximize CO in flue gas
46. Transit time method is used in which of the instrument

a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot Tube d) fyrite


47. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?

a) CO2 b) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6)


c) CFC d) per fluorocarbon (PFC)
48. Which of the following is not a primary energy

a) natural gas b) oil c) wood d) electricity


49. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption

a) kWh/ton b) kcal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kcal


50. Which of the following will not be a major component of mass balance

a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1 In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by w/w


(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 30% solids w/w. calculate the

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

evaporation of water per 300 Kgs of feed to the evaporator.


Solution :
Inlet solid contents = 6 %
Output solid contents=30%
Feed=300kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =300 x 0.06 = 18 Kg
Outlet Solid contents in kg =18 kg (2 marks)

Quantity of water evaporated=[300 – {(100) x 18}] = 240 kg (3 marks)


30

S-2 List down at least five scheme of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001.

Solution :

Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes(ECBC)
 Standards and labeling(S&L)
 Demand side management(DSM)
 Bachat lamp yojana(BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises(SME’s)
 Designated consumers
 Certification of energy auditors and energy managers

(5 marks for any of the above 5 schemes)


S–3 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?

a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer
e) Anemometer

Ans:

a. Pitot tube Static, Dynamic and Total Pressure of Gas


b. Stroboscope Speed, RPM
c. Fyrite CO2 % or O2 %
d. Psychrometer Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet Bulb Temperature
e. Anemometer Air or wind velocity
(1 mark for each)
Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
S-4 consumers?
Ans:

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
during off-peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak
hours are built in.
ii. Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say
during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours.
Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and normal
period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak
hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
v. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in
vi. turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
procurement charges by reduced demand
(5 marks for any of the above 5 relevant points)
S-5 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 12%.

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)


0 75,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000

Ans:
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3 +
(3 marks)

= -75,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794


= 24904 Rs.
(2 marks)
S-6 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C
to 85oC. If the GCV of the gas is 9200 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
kg/min (assume efficiency of water heater as 82%)
Solution:
Volume of water heated = 20 liters/min
Mass of water heated = 20 Kg/min
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water.
(1 mark)

Mass of gas Kg/min * 9200 * 0.82 = 20 Kg/min * 1 kcal/Kg/oC)* (85-25)oC


Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9200*0.82)
(3 marks)
= 0.159 Kg/ min

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

(1 mark)
S-7 A thermal power plant uses 0.7 kg of coal to generate one KWh of electricity. If the coal
contains 32% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO 2 emission/KWh under
complete combustion.
Solution:
Amount of carbon present in coal= 0.7*32/100 = 0.224 kg
As per chemical reaction,
C + O2 = CO2
1 kg of carbon generates 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide (CO 2) under complete
combustion
(2 marks)

Amount of CO2 generation while generating one KWh of electricity =0.224*44/12


= 0.81 Kg/KWh
(3 marks)
S–8 Pressure of a nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of
Water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 25 0C. Specific Gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
Nitrogen pressure = 100 mm of Water Gauge = 100 / 13.6 = 7.353 mm of Hg

Absolute Temperature, T = 35 oC = 25 + 273 = 298 K,

Mass = 1.5 kg & Barometric pressure = 756 mm of Hg.

Absolute pressure = 756 + 7.353 = 763.353 mm of Hg

Pressure, P = Density, ῤ(kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) /


1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
(2 marks)

Molar mass of Nitrogen = 28 kg/kMol.

Number of kMol, n = Mass / Molar Mass = 1.5/ 28 = 0.0536 kMol

Using the ideal gas equation and putting the above values;

PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 298
V = 1.395 m3
(3 marks)

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L – 1 A) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?

I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking

B) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Ans:
A) I) Normalizing

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the
energy efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include
weather or certain operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of
removing the impact of various factors on energy use so that energy
performance of facilities and operations can be compared.

(3 marks)
II) Benchmarking

Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a


relative understanding of where our performance ranks.
(2 Marks)

B) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Substituting existing fossil fuels/energy with more efficient and / or less cost/less polluting
fuel.
(1 mark)
Few examples of fuel substitution
 Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the fertilizer,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
 Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
 Replacement of LDO by LSHS
(2 marks)
Few examples of energy substitution
 Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters.

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

 Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems.


(2 marks)

L-2 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) Draw a PERT chart


b) Find out the duration of the project
c) Identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 1
B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7

Ans:

(6 Marks)
Duration = 28 days (2 Marks)

Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H (2 Marks)

L-3 a) A furnace heating steel ingots is fired with oil having a calorific value of 10,500 kCal/kg
and efficiency of 75%. Calculate the oil consumption per hour when the throughput of the
furnace is 50 TPH and the temperature of the finished product is 600 oC. Take ambient
temperature as 30 oC and Specific Heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC

b) In Steel industry, different types of gases are generated during steel making process.
Volumetric Flow rate and Calorific Values of each gases are:

Type of Gas Flow (SM3/hr) CV (kCal/SM3)


Coke Oven Gas 75,000 4,000

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

COREX Gas 50,000 2,000


BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Blast Furnace Gas 80,000 700

All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific
Value (in kCal/SM3) of mix gas.

Ans:
a) Oil Consumption / hr

50 (TPH) x 0.12 (kCal/kg oC) x (600 – 35) (oC)


= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,500 (kCal/kg)

= 0.43 TPH
(5 marks)
b)
Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 marks)

CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

= 2,071 kCal/SM3 (4 marks)

L-4 Use CUSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for 8 months
period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 6,000 MT
per month. Refer to field data given in the table below.

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335

Ans

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

Actual
Predicted SEC, Diff = ( Act - Pred ) CUSUM
Month SEC,
kWh/MT ( - = Saving ) ( - = Saving )
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
(7 marks)

Savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are 28 x 6,000 =


1,68,000 kWh (3 marks)
L – 5 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating
at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the paper drying machine
which found to be 60% and 95% respectively.

The steam is supplied at 4 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 510 kCal/kg. The evaporated
moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg. Plant operates 24
hours per day. Assume only latent heat of steam is being used for drying the paper and
neglect the enthalpy of the moisture in the wet paper.

i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated per hr.


ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hr.

Ans:
Output of the drying machine = 480 TPD with 95% dryness.

Bone dry mass of paper at the output = 480 x 0.95 = 456 TPD
(2 marks)
Since the dryness at the inlet is 60%,
Total mass of wet paper at the inlet = (456 x 100) / 60 = 760 TPD
(2 marks)

Moisture evaporated per hour = (760 – 480)/ 24 = 11.67TPH


(3 marks)
Mass of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 510 = 14.6 TPH
(3 marks)
L-6 Write short notes on?
1) Net calorific value
2) Maximum Demand
3) Contract Demand

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set A

4) Load factor

Ans:

Net Calorific Value (NCV)


The heating value of fuel is the measure of the heat released during the complete
combustion of unit weight of fuel. It is expressed as Gross Calorific Value (GCV) or Net
Calorific Value (NCV). The difference between GCV and NCV is the heat of vaporization
of the moisture and atomic hydrogen (conversion to water vapour) in the fuel.
(2.5 Marks)
Maximum Demand

Maximum demand is the highest average kVA recorded during any one-demand interval
within the month. The demand interval is normally 30 minutes, but may vary from utility
to utility from 15 minutes to 60 minutes. The demand is measured using a tri-vector
meter / digital energy meter.
(2.5 Marks)
Contract Demand
Contract demand is the amount of electric power that a customer demands from utility in
a specified interval. Unit used is kVA or kW. It is the amount of electric power that the
consumer agreed upon with the utility. This would mean that utility has to plan for the
specified capacity.
(2.5 Marks)
Load factor

It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of energy
consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy demand if maximum
load is maintained throughout that time period.
(2.5 Marks)

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

16th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – September, 2015

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 19.09.2015 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 64 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

a) Answer all 50 questions


b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil

1. Energy Intensity is the ratio of

a) fuel Consumption / GDP b) GDP/fuel consumption


c) GDP/ energy consumption d) energy consumption / GDP
2. Among which of the following fuels, is the difference between the GCV and NCV the
maximum?

a) coal b) furnace Oil c) natural gas d) rice husk


2
3. If the pressure of water is 0.7 kg/cm then boiling point will be approximately

a) 100 b) 73 c) 114 d) can’t say


4. At standard atmospheric pressure, specific enthalpy of saturated water, having
temperature of 50 OC will be _________ kCal/kg.

A) 1 b) 50 c) 100 d) Can't say


5. If heat rate of power plant is 860 kcal/kWh then the cycle efficiency of Power plant will be

a) 41% b) 55% c) 100% d) 86%


6. If we heat the air without changing absolute humidity, % Relative Humidity will

a) increase b) decrease
c) no Change d) can’t say

_______________________ 1
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

7. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of Water by 1 OC is termed


as

a) latent heat b) one kiloJoule c) one kilo calorie d) none of the above
8. In a 50 Hz AC cycle, the current reverses directions ________ times per second.

a) 50 times b) 100 times c) Two times d) 25 times


9. The monthly electricity bill for a plant is Rs. 100 lakhs which accounts for 45% of the total
monthly energy bill. How much is the plant’s monthly energy bill

a) Rs 222.22 lakhs b) Rs 45 lakhs c) Rs 138 lakhs d) None of above


10. Transit time method is used in which of the instrument

a) lux meter b) ultrasonic flow meter c) pitot Tube d) fyrite


3 3
11. 20 m of water is mixed with 30 m of another liquid with a specific gravity of 0.9. The
volume of the mixture would be

a) 47 m3 b) 48 m3 c) 50 m3 d) 53 m3
12. A centrifugal pump draws 12 m 3/hr. Due to leakages from the body of the pump a
continuous flow of 2 m3/hr is lost. The efficiency of the pump is 55%. The flow at the
discharge side would be

a) 12 m3/hr b) 10 m3/hr c) 5.5 m3/hr d) 6.6 m 3/hr


An oil-fired boiler operates at an excess air of 6 %. If the stoichiometric air fuel ratio is 14
13. then for an oil consumption of 100 kg per hour, the flue gas liberated in kg/hr would be

a)1484 b) 1584 c) 106 d) 114


14. In a drying process moisture is reduced from 60% to 30%. Initial weight of the material is
200 kg. Calculate the weight of the product in kgs

a) 104 b) 266.6 c) 130 d) 114.3


15. The number of moles of water contained in 54 kg of water is ------------

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
16. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption

a) kWh/ton b) kcal/ton c) kJ/kg d) kg/kcal


17. The major share of energy loss in a thermal power plant is in the

a) generator b) boiler c) condenser d) turbine


18. To improve the boiler efficiency, which of the following needs to be done

a) maximize O2 in flue gas b) maximize CO2 in flue gas


c) minimize CO2 in flue gas d) maximize CO in flue gas
19. For calculating plant energy performance which of the following data is not required

a) current year’s production b) reference year’s production


c) reference year energy use d) capacity utilization

_______________________ 2
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

20. The present value of Rs. 1,000 in 10 years’ time at an interest rate of 10% is:

a) Rs. 2,594 b) Rs. 386 c) Rs. 349 d) Rs. 10,000


21. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in a
plant was Rs 50 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs 12.5 lakhs. The return on
investment is:

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 19.35%


22. A waste heat recovery system costs Rs. 54 lakhs and Rs. 2 lakhs per year to operate and
maintain. If the annual savings is Rs. 20 lakhs, the payback period will be

a) 8 years b) 2.7 years c) 3 years d) 10 years


23. An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is the expected time

A) 60 days b) 20 days c) 19 days d) 18 days


24. The simplest technique for scheduling of tasks and tracking the progress of energy
management projects is called

a) Gantt chart b) CPM c) PERT d) WBS


25. PERT/CPM provides which of the following benefits

a) predicts the time required to complete the project


b) shows activities which are critical to maintaining the schedule
c) graphical view of the project
d) all the above
26. Costs associated with the design, planning, installation and commissioning of a project
are:

a) variable costs b) capital costs c) salvage value d) none of the above


27. The fixed energy consumption for the company is 1,000 kWh. The slope in the energy –
production chart is found to be 0.3. Find out the actual energy consumption if the
production is 80,000 Tons.

a) 25,000 b) 24,000 c) 26,000 d) 23,000


28. The contractor provides the financing and is paid an agreed fraction of actual savings
achieved. This payment is used to pay down the debt costs of equipment and/or services.
This is known as

a) traditional contract b) extended technical guarantee/service


c) performance Contract d) shared savings performance contract
29. The indicator of energy performance in a thermal power plant is

a) heat rate (kcal/kWh) b) % aux. power consumption


c) specific coal consumption d) all the above
30. If air consists of 77% by weight of nitrogen and 23% by weight of oxygen, the mean
molecular weight of air is,

a) 11.9 b) 28.8 c) 17.7 d) insufficient data

_______________________ 3
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

31. Which of the following GHGs has the longest atmospheric life time?

a) CO2 b) Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6)


c) CFC d) per fluorocarbon (PFC)
32. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases

a) Methane and Ozone b) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide


c) Methane and Sulphur Dioxide d) Carbon Dioxide and Sulphur Dioxide
33. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as

a) Commercial energy b) Primary energy


c) Renewable energy d) Secondary energy

34. For expressing the primary energy content of a fuel in tonnes of oil equivalent (toe) which
of the following conversion factors is appropriate

a) toe=1x106 kcal b) toe=116300 kwh


c) toe=41.870 GJ d) all the above
35. 100 tons of coal with a GCV of 4200 kcal/kg can be expressed in ‘tonnes of oil equivalent’
as

a) 42 b) 50 c) 420 d) 125
36. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using pilot tube and ________

a) Manometer b) Orifice meter c) Bourdon guage d) Anemometer


37. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 7% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1 kg of wood

a) 0.78 kg b) 220 grams c) 0.15 kg d) 0.63 kg


38. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakhs kWh for the period, the
average production is 50,000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kWh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is

a) 58000 kwh b) 30000 kwh c) 80000 kwh d) None of the above


39. The ozone depletion process is triggered by

a) methane b) chlorine molecules c) carbondioxide d) Nitrogen


40. In project financing, sensitivity analysis

a) is applied in almost all the cash flows method involve uncertainly


b) assures how sensitive the project to change the input parameter
c) enables the analysis of what if one or more factors are different from what is predicted
d) is applicable for all the above situations
41. How much power generation potential is available in a run of river mini hydropower plant
for a flow of 40 liters/second with a head of 24 metres. Assume system efficiency of 60%.

a) 5.6 kW b) 9.4 kW c) 4.0 kW d) 2.8 kW


42. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero it means the load is operating at

_______________________ 4
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

a) lagging power factor b) unity power factor c) leading power factor d) none of the
above
43. In a DG set, the generator is consuming 400 litres per hour diesel oil. If the specific fuel
consumption of this DG set in 0.30 litres/kWh at that load then what is the kVA loading of
the set at 0.6 power factor?

a) 1200 kVA b) 2222 kVA c) 600 kVA d) 1600 kVA


44. A process requires 10 Kg of fuel with a calorific value of 5000 kcal/kg. The system
efficiency is 80% and the losses will be

a) 10000 kcal b) 45000 kcal c) 500 kcal d) 2000 kcal


45. Which of the following is not a primary energy

a) natural gas b) oil c) wood d) electricity


46. The data and information sources related to energy use in a company may be obtained
from

a) plant level b) plant department level


c) system level and equipment Level d) all of the above
47. The ISO standard for Energy Management System is

a) ISO 9001 b) ISO 50001 c) ISO 140001 d) none of the above


48. Which of the following will not be a major component of mass balance

a) steam b) water c) raw materials d) lubricating oil


49. Having energy policy

a) satisfies regulations b) shows commitment


c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number of other policies
50. Replacement of steam and hot water generation by solar system is an example of

a) matching energy usage to requirement b) energy substitution


c) maximizing system efficiency d) performance improvement

…….……. End of Section – I ………..….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S–1 Pressure of a Nitrogen gas supplied to an oil tank for purging is measured as 100 mm of

_______________________ 5
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

water gauge when barometer reads 756 mm of Mercury. Determine the volume of 1.5 kg
of this gas if it’s temperature is 35 0C. specific gravity of Mercury: 13.6. Take R = 8.3143
kJ/(kMol x K)
Ans:
Nitrogen pressure = 100 mm of Water Gauge = 100 / 13.6 = 7.353 mm of Hg

Absolute Temperature, T = 35 oC = 35 + 273 = 308 K,

Mass = 1.5 kg & Barometric pressure = 756 mm of Hg.

Absolute pressure = 756 + 7.353 = 763.353 mm of Hg

Pressure, P = Density, ῤ(kg/m3) x Gravity, g (m/s2) x Mtr of Liquid, h (Mtr) /


1000
= (13,600 x 9.81 x 0.763)/1000
= 101.79 kPa
(2 marks)

Molar mass of Nitrogen = 28 kg/kMol.

Number of kMol, n = Mass / Molar Mass = 1.5/ 28 = 0.0536 kMol

Using the ideal gas equation and putting the above values;

PV = nRT
101.79 x V = 0.0536 x 8.3143 x 308
V = 1.35 m3
(3 marks)
S-2 List down at least five schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001.

Solution :
Schemes of BEE under the Energy Conservation Act – 2001 are as follows:
 Energy conservation building codes(ECBC)
 Standards and labeling(S&L)
 Demand side management(DSM)
 Bachat lamp yojana(BLY)
 Promoting energy efficiency in small and medium enterprises(SME’s)
 Designated consumers
 Certification of energy auditors and energy managers
(5 marks for any of the above 5 schemes)
S–3 What parameters are measured with the following instruments?

a) Pitot tube
b) Stroboscope
c) Fyrite
d) Psychrometer

_______________________ 6
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

e) Anemometer

Ans:

a. Pitot tube Static, Dynamic and Total Pressure of Gas


b. Stroboscope Speed, RPM
c. Fyrite CO2 % or O2 %
d. Psychrometer Dry Bulb Temperature and Wet Bulb Temperature
e. Anemometer Air or wind velocity
(1 mark for each)
S-4 In a process plant , an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 8% by w/w
(weight by weight) to produce an output containing 45% solids w/w. calculate the
evaporation of water per 400 Kgs of feed to the evaporator
Ans :
inlet solid contents = 8 %
Output solid contents=45%
Feed=500kgs
Solid contents in kg in feed =400 x0.08 = 32 Kg
Outlet Solid contents in kg = 32 kg (2 marks)

quantity of water evaporated=[400 – {(100) x 32}] = 328.9 kgs


45
(3 marks)
Explain Time of Day (TOD) Tariff and how it is beneficial for the power system and
S-5 consumers?
Ans:
i. In Time of the Day Tariff (TOD) structure incentives for power drawl
during off-peak hours and disincentives for power drawl during peak
hours are built in.
ii. Many electrical utilities like to have flat demand curve to achieve high
plant efficiency.
iii. ToD tariff encourage user to draw more power during off-peak hours (say
during 11pm to 5 am, night time) and less power during peak hours.
Energy meter will record peak and off-peak consumption and normal
period separately.
iv. TOD tariff gives opportunity for the user to reduce their billing, as off peak
hour tariff is quite low in comparison to peak hour tariff.
v. This also helps the power system to minimize in line congestion, in
vi. turn higher line losses and peak load incident and utilities power
procurement charges by reduced demand
(5 marks for any of the above 5 relevant points)

S-6 Calculate the net present value over a period of 3 years for a project with the following
data. The discount rate is 12%.

Year Investment (Rs) Savings (Rs)

_______________________ 7
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

0 1,00,000
1 25,000
2 75,000
3 50,000 75,000
4 35,000

Ans:
NPV = -1,00,000 + 25,000/(1+0.12) + 75,000/(1+0.12)2 + (75,000 – 50,000)/(1+0.12)3
(3 marks)

= -100,000 + 22,321 + 59,789 + 17, 794


= - 96 Rs.
(2 marks)

S-7 A thermal power plant uses 0.7kg of coal to generate one KWh of electricity. If the coal
contains 38% carbon by weight, calculate the amount of CO2 emission/KWh under
complete combustion.
Solution:
Amount of carbon present in coal= 0.7*38/100 = 0.266 kg
As per chemical reaction,
C + O2 = CO2
1 kg of carbon generates 44/12 kg of carbon dioxide (CO 2) under complete
combustion
(2 marks)

Amount of CO2 generation while generating one KWh of electricity =0.266*44/12


= 0.98 Kg/KWh
(3 marks)
S-8 A gas fired water heater heats water flowing at a rate of 20 litres per minute from 25 0 C
to 85oC. if the GCV of the gas is 9555 kcal/kg, what is the rate of combustion of gas in
kg/min (assume efficiency of water heater as 82%)
Solution:
Volume of water heated = 20 liters/min
Mass of water heated = 20 Kg/min
Heat supplied by gas * efficiency = Heat required by water.
(1 mark)
Mass of gas Kg/min * 9555 * 0.82 = 20 Kg/min * 1 kcal/Kg/oC)* (85-25)oC
Mass of gas Kg/min = (20*1*60)/ (9555*0.82)
(3 marks)
= 0.1532 Kg/ min
(1 mark)
…….……. End of Section – II ………..….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 6 x 10 = 60

_______________________ 8
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

(i) Answer all Six questions


(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L – 1 The production capacity of a paper drying machine is 500 TPD and is currently operating
at an output of 480 TPD. To find out the steam requirement for drying, the Energy Manager
measures the dryness of the paper both at inlet and outlet of the paper drying machine
which were found to be 60% and 95% respectively.

The steam is supplied at 3.5 kg/cm2, having a latent heat of 513 kCal/kg. The evaporated
moisture temperature is around 100 0C having enthalpy of 640 kCal/kg. Plant operates 24
hours per day. Assume only latent heat of steam is being used for drying the paper and
neglect the enthalpy of the moisture in the wet paper.

i) Estimate the quantity of moisture to be evaporated per hr.


ii) Input steam quantity required for evaporation per hr.

Ans:
Output of the drying machine = 480 TPD with 95% dryness.

Bone dry mass of paper at the output = 480 x 0.95 = 456 TPD
(2 marks)
Since the dryness at the inlet is 60%,
Total mass of wet paper at the inlet = (456 x 100) / 60 = 760 TPD
(2 marks)
Moisture evaporated per hour = (760 – 480)/ 24 = 11.67TPH
(3 marks)

Maas of Steam, m = (11.67 x 640)/ 513 = 14.5 TPH


(3 marks)
L-2 Use CUSUM technique to develop a table and to calculate energy savings for 8 months
period. For calculating total energy saving, average production can be taken as 7,500 MT
per month. Refer to field data given in the table below.

Month Actual SEC, kWh/MT Predicted SEC, kWh/MT


May 1311 1335
June 1308 1335
July 1368 1335
Aug 1334 1335
Sept 1338 1335
Oct 1351 1335
Nov 1322 1335
Dec 1320 1335

_______________________ 9
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

Ans

Actual
Predicted SEC, Diff = ( Act - Pred ) CUSUM
Month SEC,
kWh/MT ( - = Saving ) ( - = Saving )
kWh/MT
May 1311 1335 -24 -24
June 1308 1335 -27 -51
July 1368 1335 33 -18
Aug 1334 1335 -1 -19
Sept 1338 1335 3 -16
Oct 1351 1335 16 0
Nov 1322 1335 -13 -13
Dec 1320 1335 -15 -28
(7 marks)

Positive savings i.e. savings in energy consumption over a period of eight months are
28 x 7,500 = 2,10,000 kWh
(3 marks)

L – 3 a) Briefly explain the following terms with respect to energy management?

I. Normalizing
II. Benchmarking

b) Explain the meaning of Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Ans:
a) I) Normalizing

The energy use of facilities varies greatly, partly due to factors beyond the
energy efficiency of the equipment and operations. These factors may include
weather or certain operating characteristics. Normalizing is the process of
removing the impact of various factors on energy use so that energy
performance of facilities and operations can be compared.

3 marks
II) Benchmarking

Comparison of energy performance to peers and competitors to establish a


relative understanding of where our performance ranks.
2 Marks

b) Fuel and Energy substitution with examples.

Substituting existing fossil fuels/energy with more efficient and / or less cost/less polluting
fuel.

_______________________ 10
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

(1 mark)
Few examples of fuel substitution
 Natural gas is increasingly the fuel of choice as fuel and feedstock in the fertilizer,
petrochemicals, power and sponge iron industries.
 Replacement of coal by coconut shells, rice husk etc.
 Replacement of LDO by LSHS
(2 marks)
Few examples of energy substitution
 Replacement of electric heaters by steam heaters.
 Replacement of steam based hot water by solar systems.
(2 marks)

L-4 a) A furnace heating steel ingots is fired with oil having a calorific value of 10,000 kCal/kg
and efficiency of 75%. Calculate the oil consumption per hour when the throughput of the
furnace is 50 TPH and the temperature of the finished product is 600 oC. Take ambient
temperature as 30 oC and specific heat of Steel as 0.12 kCal/kg oC

b) In Steel industry, different types of gases are generated during steel making process.
Volumetric Flow rate and Calorific Values of each gases are:

Type of Gas Flow (SM3/hr) CV (kCal/SM3)


Coke Oven Gas 75,000 4,000
COREX Gas 50,000 2,000
BOF Gas 55,000 1,500
Blast Furnace Gas 80,000 700

All these gases are mixed in the gas mixer before combustion. Find out the Calorific
Value (in kCal/SM3) of Mix Gas.

Ans:
Oil Consumption / hr

50 (TPH) x 0.12 (kCal/kg oC) x (600 – 30) (oC)


= ------------------------------------------------------------------
0.75 (%) x 10,000 (kCal/kg)

= 0.456 TPH
(5 marks)
B)

Ans:
Total flow of Mix Gas = 75,000 + 50,000 + 55,000 + 80,000 = 2,60,000 SM3/hr
(1 mark)

_______________________ 11
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

CV of Mix Gas =
[(75,000 x 4,000) + (50,000 x 2,000) + (55,000 x 1,500) + (80,000 x 700)] / 2,60,000

= 2,071 kCal/SM3 (4 marks)

L-5 Write short notes on?


1) Net calorific value
2) Maximum Demand
3) Contract Demand
4) Load factor

Ans:

Net Calorific Value (NCV)


The heating value of fuel is the measure of the heat released during the complete
combustion of unit weight of fuel. It is expressed as Gross Calorific Value (GCV) or Net
Calorific Value (NCV). The difference between GCV and NCV is the heat of vaporization
of the moisture and atomic hydrogen (conversion to water vapour) in the fuel.
(2.5 Marks)

Maximum Demand
Maximum demand is the highest average kVA recorded during any one-demand interval
within the month. The demand interval is normally 30 minutes, but may vary from utility
to utility from 15 minutes to 60 minutes. The demand is measured using a tri-vector
meter / digital energy meter.
(2.5 Marks)
Contract Demand
Contract demand is the amount of electric power that a customer demands from utility in
a specified interval. Unit used is kVA or kW. It is the amount of electric power that the
consumer agreed upon with the utility. This would mean that utility has to plan for the
specified capacity.
(2.5 Marks)

Load factor
It is the ratio of average load to maximum load. In other words, it is the ratio of energy
consumed during a given period of time to the maximum energy demand if maximum
load is maintained throughout that time period
(2.5 Marks)
L-6 The details of activities for a pump replacement project is given below:

a) Draw a PERT chart


b) Find out the duration of the project
c) Identify the critical path.

Activity Immediate Time


Predecessors (days)
A - 1

_______________________ 12
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
SUPPLIMENTARY Paper 1 – Set B

B A 2
C B 4
D C 6
E C 3
F C 5
G D, E, F 8
H G 7

Ans:

6 Marks
Duration = 28 days 2 Marks

Critical Path: A-B-C-D-G-H 2 Marks

…….……. End of Section – III ………..….

_______________________ 13
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

15th NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION


FOR
ENERGY MANAGERS & ENERGY AUDITORS – August, 2014

PAPER – 1: General Aspects of Energy Management & Energy Audit

Date: 23.08.2014 Timings: 09:30-12:30 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

Section - I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

a) Answer all 50 questions


b) Each question carries one mark
c) Please hatch the appropriate oval in the OMR answer sheet with Black Pen or HB pencil

1. A geothermal field may yield

a) dry steam b) wet steam c) hot air d) all of these


2. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas ?

a) CFCs b) SO2 c) PFC d) SF6


3. Bio-gas generated through anaerobic process mainly consists of

a) only methane b) methane and carbon dioxide c) only ethane d) none of these
4. Which of the following statements are true?

i) bagasse is a source of secondary energy


ii) beneficiated coal belongs to primary energy
iii) electricity is basically a convenient form of primary energy
iv) steam is a convenient form of secondary energy

a) (ii) & (iii) b) (i) & (iii) c) (ii) & (iv) d) (ii) & (i)

5. Natural gas contains

a) methane, ethane and propane in equal proportions


b) only butane and propane in equal proportions
c) methane, propane and pentane in equal proportions
d) mostly methane and minor amounts of other gases
6. Which issue is not addressed by Integrated Energy Policy?

a) consistency in pricing of energy


b) scope for improving supply of energy from varied sources
c) energy conservation Research and Development

1
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

d) reducing price of energy


7. Which of the following statement is not true regarding energy security?

a) impaired energy security will not affect agricultural output


b) energy security is strengthened by avoiding dependence upon imported energy
c) diversifying energy supply from different countries strengthen energy security
d) strengthening energy security requires increasing exploration to find oil and gas
reserves
8. In a boiler substitution of coal with rice husk leads to

a) energy conservation b) energy efficiency


c) both energy conservation and energy efficiency d) carbon emission reduction
9. A building intended to be used for commercial purpose will be required to follow Energy
conservation building code under Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provided its

a) connected load is 120 kW and above


b) contract demand is 100 kVA and above
c) connected load is100 kW and above or contract demand is 120 kVA and above
d) connected load is 500 kW and contract demand is 600 kVA
10. Which of the following is not a part of energy audit as per the Energy Conservation Act,
2001?

a) monitoring and analysis of energy use


b) verification of energy use
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) ensuring implementation of recommended measures followed by review
11. Which of the following criteria is a responsibility of Designated Consumers?

a) designate or appoint an accredited Energy Auditor


b) adhere to stipulated energy consumption norms and standards as notified
c) submit the status of energy consumption information every three years
d) conduct energy audit through a certified energy auditor periodically
12. Which of the following is an energy security measure?

a) fully exploiting domestic energy resources


b) diversifying energy supply source
c) substitution of imported fuels for domestic fuels to the extent possible
d) all of the above
13. An induction motor with 11 kW rating and efficiency of 90% in its name plate means

a) it will draw 12.22 kW at full load


b) it will always draw 11 kW at full load

2
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

c) it will draw 9.9 kW at full load


d) nothing can be said about how much power it will draw as motor power factor is not
given
14. Which of the following statement is true regarding maximum demand controller?

a) maximum demand controller enables a way of ‘shaving’ the peaks in the consumer
load profile
b) maximum demand controller enables a way of improving the system power factor
c) enables a way for using more electrical energy at lower total cost of energy without
investment in expansion of power supply
d) maximum demand controller is installed by concerned utility at customer premises
15. Which of the following statements are true?

i) reactive current is necessary to build up the flux for the magnetic field of inductive
devices
ii) some portion of reactive current is converted into work
iii) the cosine of angle between kVA and kVAr vector is called power factor
iv) the cosine of angle between kW and kVA vector is called power factor

a) i & iv b) ii & iii c) i & iii d) iii & iv


16. Which of the following is a standard for Energy Management System?

a) ISO 14001 b) ISO 9001 c) ISO 18001 d) ISO 50001


17. Which of the following statements are true regarding simple payback period?

a) considers impact of cash flow even after payback period


b) takes into account the time value of money
c) considers cash flow throughout the project life cycle
d) determines how quickly invested money is recovered
18. Which of the following statements are true regarding CPM?

i) work breakdown structure are used to list the activities in the project as a first step
in CPM
ii) CPM takes into account variation in the completion time and average time is used
for any activity
iii) if the project is to finish earlier, it is necessary to focus on activities other than
critical path
iv) critical path is the longest path in the network.

a) i & iv b) i & iii c) ii & iv d) iii & iv


19. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Global warming will result in:

3
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

a) melting of the ice caps b) increasing sea levels


c) severe damage to ozone layer in stratosphere d) unpredictable climate patterns

20. The process of capturing CO2 from point sources and storing them is called

a) carbon sequestration b) carbon sink c) carbon Capture d) carbon absorption


21. Which of the following statements are true regarding wind turbine?

i) wind power varies as cube of rotor size


ii) wind power varies as cube of wind velocity
iii) wind speed has more influence on wind power than turbine area
iv) practical maximum amount of energy in the wind that can be collected by wind
turbine rotor is about 79%

a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) ii & iv


22. Which of the following statements regarding evacuated tube collectors (ETC) are true?

i) ETC is used for high temperatures upto 150oC


ii) because of use of vacuum between two concentric glass tube, higher amount of
heat is retained in ETC
iii) heat loss due to conduction back to atmosphere from ETC is high
iv) performance of evacuated tube is highly dependent upon the ambient temperature

a) i & iii b) ii & iii c) i & iv d) i & ii


23. What percentage of the sun’s energy can silicon solar panels convert into electricity?

a) 30% b) 15% c) 75% d) 50%

24. How much theoretical power you would expect to generate from a river-based mini
hydropower with flow of 20 litres/second and head of 12 metres

a) 2.35kW b) 2.44MW c) 1.67kW d) none of the above

25. Which among the following has the highest flue gas loss on combustion due to
Hydrogen in the fuel ?
a) natural gas b) furnace oil c) coal d) light diesel oil

26. Energy in one Tonne of Oil Equivalent (toe) corresponds to


a) 4.187 GJ b) 1.162 MWh c) 1 Million kcal d) none of the above

27. Tonnes of Oil Equivalent energy consumption / GDP in Million US $ is termed as


a) energy intensity b) per capita oil consumption
c) per capita energy consumption d) energy performance

4
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

28. Assume CO2 equivalent emissions by the use of a 60 W incandescent lamp are of the
order of 60 g/hr. If it is replaced by a 5 W LED lamp then the equivalent CO2 emissions
will be
a) nil b) 5 g/hr
c) 12 g/hr d) 300 g/hr

29. Under the Energy Conservation Act, the designated consumer is required to get the
mandatory energy audit conducted by
a) certified energy manager b) certified energy auditor
c) accredited energy auditor d) in-house engineer

30. If the relative humidity of air is 100%, then which of the following statements is correct
a) only dew point & wet bulb temp. are same
b) only dew point & dry bulb temp. are same
c) only wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same
d) all dew point , wet bulb & dry bulb temp. are same

31. Among which of the following fuel is the difference between the GCV and NCV
maximum?
a) coal b) furnace oil c) natural gas d) rice husk

32. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by


a) tachometer b) stroboscope c) oscilloscope d) speedometer

33. Which of the following instrument is used for assessing combustion efficiency ?
a) lux Meter b) pitot tube & manometer c) ultrasonic flow meter d) fyrite

34. The benchmarking parameter for a vapour compression refrigeration system is


a) kW / kg of refrigerant used b) kcal / m3 of chilled water
c) BTU / Ton of Refrigeration d) kW / Ton of Refrigeration

35. If 800 kcal of heat is supplied to 20 kg of ice at 0o C, how many kg of ice will melt into
water at 0oC. (Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 kcal/kg)
a) 1 kg b) 4 kg c) 10 kg d) 20 kg
36. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product
obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ____ tonnes per hour.

a) 15 b) 20 c) 35 d) 40

5
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

37. The return on investment (ROI), is expressed as


a) annual cost / capital cost b) (first cost / first year benefits) x 100
c) NPV / IRR d) (annual net cash flow x 100) / capital cost

38. The rate of energy transfer from a higher temperature to a lower temperature is
measured in

a) kCal b) Watt c) Watts per second d) none of the above.

39. Cost of a new heat exchanger is Rs. 1.5 lakh. The simple payback period (SPP) in years
considering annual savings of Rs 60,000 and annual maintenance cost of Rs 10,000 is
a) 0.4 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 6

40. Energy sources which are inexhaustible are known as


a) commercial energy b) primary energy c) renewable energy d) secondary energy
41. 1 kg of wood contains 15% moisture and 5% hydrogen by weight. How much water is
evaporated during complete combustion of 1kg of wood?
a) 0.6 kg b) 200 g c) 0.15 kg d) none of the above

42. In an industry the average electricity consumption is 5.8 lakh kwh for a given period. The
average production is 50000 tons with a specific electricity of 11 kwh/ton for the same
period. The fixed electricity consumption for the plant is
a) 58000 kWh b) 30000kWh c) 80000kWh d) none of the above

43. The cost of replacement of inefficient compressor with an energy efficient compressor in
a plant costs Rs. 8 lakhs. The net annual cash flow is Rs. 2 lakhs. The return on
investment
a) 18% b) 20% c) 15% d) none of the above

44. The amount of electricity required to heat 100 litres of water from 30oC to 70 oC through
resistance heating is
a) 0.465 kWh b) 4.65 kWh c) 465 kWh d) 2 kWh

45. In project financing, sensitivity analysis is applied because


a) almost all the cash flows involve uncertainly
b) it evaluates how sensitive the project is to change in the input parameters
c) it assesses the impact of ‘what if one or more factors are different from what is
predicted’
d) it is applicable to all the above situations

46. A process requires 120 kg of fuel with a calorific value of 4800 kcal/kg for heating with a
system efficiency of 82 %. The loss would be
a) 576000 kcal b) 472320 kcal c) 103680 kcal d) 480000 kcal

6
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

47. The internal rate of return is the discount rate for which the NPV is
a) positive b) zero c) negative d) less than 1

48. Having energy policy


a) satisfies regulations b) shows top management commitment
c) indicates energy audit skills d) adds to the list of number other policies

49. The producer gas is basically

a) CO, H2 and CH4 b) only CH4 c) only CO and CH4 d) only CO and H2

The time between its earliest and latest start time, or between its earliest and latest
50.
finish time of an activity is

a) delay time b) slack time c) critical path d) start time

……. End of Section – I …….

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 8 x 5 = 40

(i) Answer all Eight questions


(ii) Each question carries Five marks

Calculate Net Present Value over a period of 3 years for a project with an investment of
S-1
Rs 70,000 at the beginning of the first year and second investment of Rs 70,000 at the
beginning of the second year and fuel cost saving of Rs 95,000 in second and third
year. The discount rate is 14%

Ans
NPV = –70,000 – (70000/1.14) + [95000/(1.14x1.14)] + [95000/(1.14x1.14x1.14)]
= –70000 – 61404 +73099 + 64122
= –131404 +137221
= Rs 5817/-
A water pumping station fills a reservoir at a fixed rate. The head and flow rate are
S-2
constant and hence the power drawn by the pump is always same. The pump operates
at 100 m head and delivers 250 litres per second. The power consumption was
measured as 300 kW.

Calculate energy consumption to pump 13,500 kL of water to the reservoir.


Ans
Time taken to pump water in hours = 13,500 × 103 L
250 L/s x 3600 sec/hr
= 15 hours
Power required to pump water = 300 kW

7
_______________________
Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Paper 1 –Set A

Energy consumption = 300 x 15 =4500 kWh

S-3 A conveyor delivers coal with a width of 1 m and coal bed height of 0.25 m at a speed
of 0.5 m/s. Determine coal delivery in tons per hour considering coal density of 1.1
ton/m3.

Ans Volume of coal delivered per hour = area x length travelled per second
=1 m x 0.25 m x 0.5 m/s
= 0.125 m3/s = 450 m3/hr
Coal delivery rate = 450 m3/hr x 1.1 t/m3
= 495 t/hr

S-4 In a process industry, 12,000 kg/hr water is currently being heated from 18oCto 80oC by
indirect heating of steam. An opportunity has been identified which would preheat the
inlet water to 45oC to reduce the steam required.
Estimate the reduction in steam in kg/hr considering latent heat of