400-101 Prepaway Dumps

400-101.prepaway.premium.exam.
445q
Number: 400-101
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 6.0
400-101
CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)
Version 6.0
Sections
1. Network Principles
2. Layer 2 Technologies
3. Layer 3 Technologies
4. VPN Technologies
5. Infrastructure Security
6. Infrastructure Services
7. Evolving Technologies
Exam A
QUESTION 1
R1 #show debug
Condition 1: interface Fa0/0 (1 flags triggered)
Flags: Fa0/0
Condition 2: lp 192.168.12.1 (0 flags triggered)
Condition 3: username cisco (0 flags triggered)
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 generated this response to the show debug command, which statement about its
debug output is true?
A. When debug output is generated, only the user cisco is permitted to view it.
B. As soon as interface Fa0/0 becomes active, it generates debug output because one condition has been met
C. R1 generates debug output as soon as IP address 192.168.0.0 is applied to interface Fa0/0
D. R1 generates debug output as soon as all three conditions are met
Correct Answer: B
Section: Network Principles
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you enter multiple debug condition commands, debugging output will be generated if an interface meets at
least one of the conditions
References:
QUESTION 2
Which regular expression will match prefixes from the AS 200 that is directly connected to our AS?
A. ^$
B. ^200)
C. _200$
D. _200_
E. ^200_
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about TCP MSS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It operates at Layer 3.
B. It sets the minimum amount of data that a host accepts in an individual datagram.
C. The two endpoints in a TCP connection report their MSS values to one another.
D. MSS values are sent in TCP SYN packets.
E. It sets the maximum amount of data that a host sends in an individual datagram.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Your network is suffering excessive output drops. Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem?
(Choose two.)
A. Install a switch with larger buffers.
B. Configure a different queue set.
C. Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D. Configure the server application to use TCP.
E. Update the server operating system.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
B. The FIB table resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco
Express Forwarding is enabled.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
E. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
What is the default time-out value of an ARP entry in Cisco IOS Software?
A. 60 minutes
B. 720 minutes
C. 240 minutes
D. 120 minutes
E. 480 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about asymmetric routing are true? (Choose two)

A. It can cause packet loss over stateful ICMP and UDP connections.
B. It can cause packet loss when a stateful firewall is in use.
C. It can cause TCP connections to close.
D. It can cause packet loss when NAT is in use.
E. It is uncommon in large networks.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 8
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the IP routing table
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the label information table
D. the adjacency table
E. the forwarding information base
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 9
For which two conditions is Cisco Express Forwarding recursion disabled by default when the BGP Prefix
Independent Convergence functionality is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. next hops that are directly connected
B. next hops learned with a /24 mask
C. next hops learned with a /32 mask
D. next hops learned with any mask shorter than /32
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 10
Which command sets the maximum segment size for a TCP packet initiated from a router?
A. ip mtu
B. ip tcp adjust-mss
C. ip tcp mss
D. ip tcp window-size
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each extended ping IP header option from the left onto the corresponding description on the
right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
Loose, Strict, Record, Timestamp, Verbose[none]:
IP header options. This prompt offers more than one option to be selected. They are:
Verbose is automatically selected along with any other option.
Record is a very useful option because it displays the address(es) of the hops (up to nine) the packet goes
through.
Loose allows you to influence the path by specifying the address(es)of the hop(s) you want the packet to go
through.
Strict is used to specify the hop(s) that you want the packet to go through, but no other hop(s) are allowed to
be visited.
Timestamp is used to measureroundtrip time to particular hosts.
References:
QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information are returned by the show ipv6 mld snooping querier command? (Choose two.)
A. incoming interface
B. learned group information
C. MLD snooping querier configuration
D. IPv6 address information
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Layer 2 Technologies
Explanation
Explanation:
show ipv6 mld snooping querier [vlan vlan-id]
Display information about the IPv6 address and incoming port for the most-recently received MLD query
messages in the VLAN.
References:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is connected to two MSTP domains for the first time. This error is observed on
Switch A.
%SPANTREE-2-PVSTSIN_FAIL: Blocking designated port Fa0/1: Inconsistent superior PVST BPDU received
on VLAN 10
How can this error be resolved?
A. Map VLAN 10 into an appropriate instance on switch A
B. Remove the IST root from MST region 2
C. Map VLAN 10 to interface 0 in all MST regions
D. Configure PVST + to allow MST Region 1 to be the root for VLAN 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. AToM
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 15
Which statement about WAN Ethernet Services is true?
A. Rate-limiting can be configured per EVC.
B. Point-to-point processing and encapsulation are performed on the customer network.
C. Ethernet multipoint services function as a multipoint-to-multipoint VLAN-based connection.
D. UNIscan perform service multiplexing and all-in-one bundling.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
The MEF has defined a set of bandwidth profiles that can be applied at the UNI or to an EVC. A bandwidth
profile is a limit on the rate at which Ethernet frames can traverse the UNI or the EVC.
Reference. http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=101367&seqNum=2
QUESTION 16
How does MSTP maintain compatibility with RSTP?
A. The system ID of an RSTP BPDU is added with extra bytes to match the format of an MSTPBPDU.
B. MSTP sends all spanning-tree information in one BPDU.
C. MSTP supports five port states in the same way as RSTP.
D. RSTP implements a TTL that is compatible with the MSTP max age timer.
E. RSTP encodes region information from an MSTP BPDU into a single instance.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
Unlike some proprietary per-VLAN spanning tree implementations, MSTP includes all of its spanning tree
information in a single BPDU format. Not only does this reduce the number of BPDUs required on a LAN to
communicate spanning tree information for each VLAN, but it also ensures backward compatibility with RSTP
(and in effect, classic STP too).
References:
QUESTION 17
Where must the spanning-tree timers be configured if they are not using the default timers?
A. They must be on the root bridge.
B. They must be on any non-root bridge.
C. Changing the default timers is not allowed.
D. Timers must be modified manually on each switch.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 18
You must complete the configuration on R1 so that a maximum of three links can be used and fragmentation is
supported.
Which additional configuration accomplishes this task?
A. Interface Multilink19ip address192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ppp multilinkppp multilink group 19ppp multilink
links maximum 3ppp multilink interleave
B. Interface Multilink19ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0ppp multilinkppp multilink group 19ppp multilink
links minimum 1ppp multilink links maximum 3ppp multilink interleave
C. Interface Multilink19ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0ppp multilinkppp multilink group 19pppmultilink
links maximum 3ppp multilink fragment delay 20ppp multilink interleave
D. Interface Multilink19ip address192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0ppp multilinkppp multilink group 19ppp multilink
links maximum 3ppp multilink fragment delay 20
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 19
In an STP domain, which two statements are true for a nonroot switch, when it receives a configuration BPDU
from the root bridge with the TC bit set? (Choose two.)
A. It sets the MAC table aging time to max_age time.
B. It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time.
C. It recalculates the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.
D. It does not recalculate the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Choose two)

A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.
B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.
C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.
D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 21
Which three services offer VLAN transparency for WAN Ethernet services? (Choose three.)
A. ERS
B. EPL
C. EWS
D. MPLS
E. ERMS
F. EMS
Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 22
SPANTREE-2-LOOPGUARDBLOCK: No BPDUs were received on port FastEtherner 0/1
In VLAN 10. Moved to loop-inconsistent state.
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting an issue with a blocked switch port, you find this error in the switch
log. Which action should you take first to locate the problem?
A. Check the attached switch for an interface configuration issue.
B. Check the attached switch for a BPDU filter
C. Execute the show interface command to check FastEthernet 0/1.
D. Test the link for unidirectional failures.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
Which two statements about the STP dispute function are true? (Choose two)

A. It compares the downstream port states reported in received BPDUs.
B. The upstream switch uses received BPDUs to detect unidirectional link failures.
C. The downstream switch uses received BPDUs to detect unidirectional link failures.
D. When a designated port detects a conflict, it changes its role by reverting to a discarding state.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
STPDispute
Cisco switches has long time been implementing LoopGuard feature that allows for blocking the non-
designated port when it loses the flow of STP BPDUs. This is helpful for detecting unidirectional link (normally
on fiber optical links) and preventing Layer 2 loops that could go undetected by STP. Cisco’s implementation of
MSTP allows for detecting unidirection condition, by comparing the downstream port state reported in BPDUs.
If the upstream switch sends superior root bridge information to the downstream bridge but receives the BPDUs
with Designated bit set, the upstream switch concludes that the downstream does not hear its BPDU’s. The
upstream switch then blocks the downstream port and marks it as STP dispute link.
References:
QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each STP port role on the left to the matching statement on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP provides VTP support.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 26
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each IS-IS router type from the left onto the equivalent OSPF router type on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which two statements about IS-IS metrics are true? (Choose two.)
A. The default metric style is narrow.
B. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 64.
C. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 63.
D. The default metric style is wide.
E. The default metric for the IS-IS interface is 10.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 28
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?
(Choose two.)
A. router(config-if)#ip ospf shutdown
B. router(config-router)#graceful shutdown
C. router(config)#ip notify
D. router(config-if)#ip ospfgraceful shutdown
E. router(config-router)#shutdown
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)

A. It can be based on the source router ID.
B. It can be based on the external route tag.
C. It affects LSA flooding.
D. It can be based on the as-path.
E. It can be based on distance.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 30
Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which statement about route summarization is true?
A. EIGRP and RIPv2 route summarization are configured with the ip summary-address command under the
route process.
B. It can be disabled in RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP.
C. RIPv2 can summarize routes beyond the classful network boundary.
D. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 33

The OSPF adjacency between two routers cannot be established. What is the root cause of the problem?

A. Both routers are designated routers.
B. different area ID
C. mismatched OSPF network types
D. authentication error
E. area type mismatch
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 34
entry1: AS (PATH) 400, med 150, external, rid 2.2.2.2
Refer to the exhibit. With BGP always-compare-med enabled, which BGP entry is installed in the RIB?
A. Entry 3 because it has the lowest MED.
B. Entry 2 because it has the lowest router ID.
C. Entry 1 because it has the best MED of the external routes.
D. Entry 1 because it was installed first (oldest) in the BGP table.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the EIGRP query condition on the left to the corresponding action taken by the router on the
right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 36
interface ethernet 0/0
ip-policy route-map PBR
route-map PBR
match ip address 144
set ip next-hop 172.16.12.5
set ip next-hop recursive 192.168.3.2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes how a router with this configuration treats packets if the
devices at 172.16.12.5 and 192.168.3.2 are unreachable?
A. It routes the packet using the default routing table
B. It sends an ICMP source quench message.
C. It drops the packet immediately.
D. It routes the packet into a loop and drops it when the TTL reaches zero.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
The PBR Recursive Next Hop feature enhances routemaps to enable configuration of a recursive next-hop IP
address that is used by policy-based routing (PBR). The recursive next-hop IP address is installed in the routing
table and can be a subnet that is not directly connected. If the recursive next-hop IP address is not available,
packets are routed using a default route.
If both a next-hop and a recursive next-hop IP address are present in the same route-map entry, the next-hop
is used. If the next-hop is not available, the recursive next-hop is used. If there cursive next-hop is not available
and no other IP address is present, the packet is routed using the default routing table; it is not dropped.
References:
QUESTION 37
You are implementing new addressing with EIGRP routing and must use secondary addresses, which are
missing from the routing table. Which action is the most efficient solution to the problem?
A. Disable split-horizon on the interfaces with secondary addresses.
B. Disable split-horizon inside the EIGRP process on the router with the secondary interface addresses.
C. Add additional router interfaces and move the secondary addresses to the new interfaces.
D. Use a different routing protocol and redistribute the routes between EIGRP and the new protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 38
Which statement about the OSPF Loop-Free Alternate feature is true?
A. It is supported on routers that are configured with virtual links.
B. It is supported in VRF OSPF instances.
C. It is supported when a traffic engineering tunnel interface is protected.
D. It is supported when traffic can be redirected to a primary neighbor.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 39
Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
B. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
C. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
D. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
E. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
F. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 40
Which two options are EIGRP route authentication encryption modes? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. HMAC-SHA-256bit
C. ESP-AES
D. HMAC-AES
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 41
Which three options must be configured when deploying OSPFv3 for authentication? (Choose three.)
A. security parameter index
B. cryptomap
C. authentication method
D. IPsec peer
E. encryption algorithm
F. encryption key
G. IPsec transform-set
H. authentication key
Correct Answer: ACH

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 42
DRAG DROP
Drag each IS-IS command on the left to its effect on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
B. This router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
C. The prefix10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and
this router is 4-byte autonomous system aware.
D. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was learned through an autonomous system number with a length of 4 bytes, and
this router is not 4-byte autonomous system aware.
E. The prefix 10.100.1.1/32 was originated from a 4-byte autonomous system.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 44
Which two options about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-DM initially floods multicas ttraffic throughout the network.
B. In a PIM-DM network, routers that have no upstream neighbors prune back unwanted traffic.
C. PIM-DM support sonly shared trees.
D. PIM-DM uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.
E. PIM-DM cannot be used to build a shared distribution tree.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
PIM-DM initially floods multicast traffic throughout the network. Routers that have no downstream neighbors
prune back the unwanted traffic. This process repeats every 3 minutes.
Routers accumulate state information by receiving data streams through the flood and prune mechanism.
These data streams contain the source and group information so that downstream routers can build up their
multicast forwarding table. PIM-DM supports only source trees--that is, (S,G) entries--and cannot be used to
build a shared distribution tree.
References:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at R1 on
interface Gi0/0, but the router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1. Which feature that
is configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. spanning tree
B. uRPF
C. split horizon
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 46
Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IS-IS max-age time is 60 minutes by default.
B. The IS-IS max-age time is 20 minutes by default.
C. The IS-IS max-age time increments from zero to max-age.
D. The IS-IS max-age time decrements from max-age to zero.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 47
Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP?
A. synchronization
B. redistribute protocol-process number
C. no synchronization
D. bgp redistribute-internal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
By default, iBGP redistribution into IGP is disabled. To enable redistribution of iBGP routes into IGP, issue the
bgp redistribute-internal command. Precautions should be taken to redistribute specific routes using route
maps into IGP.
References:
QUESTION 48
Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? (Choose two.)
A. It fully supports multicast traffic.
B. It allows EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
C. It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
D. It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
E. It allows the administrator to use different autonomous system numbers per EIGRP domain.
F. It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
EIGRP Over the Top (OTP) allows EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider infrastructure without the
SP’s involvement. In fact with OTP, the provider won’t see customer routes at all. EIGRP OTP acts as a
provider-independent overlay that transports customer data between the customer’s routers. To the customer,
the EIGRP domain is contiguous. A customer’s EIGRP router sits at the edge of the provider cloud, and peers
with another EIGRP router a different location across the cloud. Learned routes feature a next hop of the
customer router — not the provider. Good news for service providers is that customers can deploy EIGRP OTP
with their involvementReference. http://ethancbanks.com/2013/08/01/an-overview-of-eigrp-over-the-top-otp/
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this topology are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is the primary path to destination 192.168.23.0/24.
B. Destination 192.168.23.0/24 is unable to use interface Fa0/1 as the LFA.
C. Only FastEthernet 0/0 is used as the LFA to destination 192.168.23.0/24.
D. Only interface FastEthernet 0/1 are used as the LFA to destination 192.168.23.0/24.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is the primary path to destination 192.168.23.0/24.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 and FastEthernet 0/1 interfaces are used as LFAs for destination 192.168.23.0/24.
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 50
Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP, internal and external routes are redistributed.
B. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined.
C. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is set
automatically.
D. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into the IGP if the routes are in the routing table.
E. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, eBGP and iBGP routes are advertised.
F. When EIGRP traffic is redistributed into BGP, a default metric is required.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 51
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?
A. area 1 - area 0 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 0 - area 2
B. area 1 - MPLS VPN backbone - area2
C. area 1 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 1
D. area 2 - area 0 - MPLS VPN backbone - area 1
E. area 0- area 2 - MPLS VPN superbackbone - area 1
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 53
Which two statements about RIPng are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both inbound and outbound route filtering can be implemented on a single interface.
B. A route with a metric of 15 is advertised as unreachable.
C. RIPng can support as many as 8 equal-cost routes.
D. 16 is the maximum metric it can advertise.
E. RIPng can support as many as 32 equal-cost routes
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 54
DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Key Identifier (KeyID)
This is an 8-bit unsigned value used to uniquely identify an OSPFv2 SA and is configured either by the router
administrator (or, in the future, possibly by some key management protocol specified by the IETF). The receiver
uses this to locate the appropriate OSPFv2 SA to use. The sender puts this KeyID value in the OSPF packet
based on the active OSPF configuration.
Authentication Algorithm
This indicates the authentication algorithm (and also the cryptographic mode, such as HMAC) to be used. This
information SHOULD never be sent over the wire in cleartext form. At present, valid values are Keyed-MD5,
HMAC-SHA-1,HMAC-SHA-256, HMAC-SHA-384, and HMAC-SHA-512.
Authentication Key
This is the cryptographic key used for cryptographic authentication with this OSPFv2 SA. This value
SHOULDnever be sent over the wire in cleartext form. This is noted as "K" in Section 3.3below.
Key Start Accept
The time that this OSPF router will accept packets that have been created with this OSPF Security Association.
Key Start Generate
The time that this OSPF router will begin using this OSPF Security
Association for OSPF packet generation.
Key Stop Generate
The time that this OSPF router will stop using this OSPF Security
Association for OSPF packet generation.
Key Stop Accept
The time that this OSPF router will stop accepting packets
generated with this OSPF Security Association.
References:
QUESTION 55
How does EIGRP derive the metric for manual summary routes?
A. It uses the best metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
B. It uses the worst metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
C. It uses the worst composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
D. It uses the best composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 56
When is it useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same
interface.
B. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
C. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
D. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. connected
B. external
C. summary
D. redistributed
E. static
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
A router that is configured as a stub with the eigrp stub command shares connected and summary routing
information with all neighbor routers by default.
References:
QUESTION 58
What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses?
(Choose two.)
A. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts.
B. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for
the device loopback address.
C. It uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices.
D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for
the next-hop address.
E. It uses a series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit
%DUAL-5-NBRCHANGE: IP-EIGRP(0) 1: Neighbor 10.0.0.1 (FastEthernet0/0) is down:
Interface Goodbye received
Which option describes the meaning of this console message?
A. An EIGRP hold timer has expired.
B. FastEthernet0/0 has interface errors.
C. An EIGRP process has been shut down.
D. An interface has gone down.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 60
Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the source.
C. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous
point.
D. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface can be the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous
point or the interface that is used to reach the source.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
RPF stands for "Reverse Path Forwarding". The RPF Interface of a router with respect to an address is the
interface that the MRIB indicates should be used to reach that address. In the case of a BIDIR-PIM multicast
group, the RPF interface is determined by looking up the Rendezvous Point Address in the MRIB. The RPF
information determines the interface of the router that would be used to send packets towards the Rendezvous
Point Link for the group.
Reference. https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5015
QUESTION 61
Which two message types allow PIM snooping to forward multicast traffic? (Choose two.)
A. hello messages
B. leave messages
C. membership query messages
D. bidirectional PIM DF election messages
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 62
R1 and R2 both advertise 10.50.1.0/24 to R3 and R4 as shown. R1 is the primary path. Which path does traffic
take from the R4 data center to the file server?
A. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to the file server.
B. All traffic travels from R4 to R3 to R1 to the file server.
C. Traffic is load-balanced from R4 to R2 and R3. Traffic that is directed to R3 then continues to R1 to the file
server. Traffic that is directed to R2 continues to the fileserver.
D. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to R1 to the file server.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 63
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: VPN Technologies

Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about automatic 6to4 tunneling are true? (Choose three.)
A. The MAC address embedded into the IPv6 address is used to find the other end of the tunnel.
B. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-multipoint configuration.
C. 6to4 tunnels are configured in a point-to-point configuration.
D. It allows an IPv6 domain to be connected over an IPv4 network
E. It allows an IPv4 domain to be connected over an IPv6 network
F. The IPv4 address embedded into the IPv6 address is used to find the other end of the tunnel.
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 65
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use theEUI-64 address format.
B. No tunnel destination has been specified.
C. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
D. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 66
Which IPv6 tunneling type establishes a permanent link between IPv6 domains over IPv4?
A. IPv4-compatible tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. 6to4tunneling
D. manual tunneling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 67
Which action must you take to configure encryption for a dynamic VPN?
A. Configure a FQDN on the router.
B. Configure a FQDN in the cryptokeyring.
C. Configure a FQDN identity in the crypto keyring.
D. Configure a FQDN peer in the crypto profile.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/internet-key-exchange-ike/118743-configure-asa-00.html
QUESTION 68
Which two statements about DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
B. NHRP disables multicast.
C. The hub router uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
D. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
E. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which two parameters does the Tunnel Mode Auto Selection feature select automatically? (Choose two.)
A. the tunneling protocol
B. the tunnel peer
C. the transform-set
D. the transport protocol
E. the ISAKMP profile
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 migration method is in use on this network?
A. 6to4 tunnel
B. ISATAP tunnel
C. dual stack
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 71
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN.
B. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN.
C. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches.
D. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors.
E. The service provider provisions CE devices.
F. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 72
Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3 is the default version.
B. SNMPv1 is the default version.
C. The SNMP agent is enable.
D. All SNMP notification types are sent.
E. The SNMP trap receiver is configured.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: Infrastructure Security
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. Users can enter user EXEC mode without a user name using password cisco4
B. Users can enter privileged EXEC mode using username cisco1 and password cisco2
C. Users in user EXEC mode can enter privileged EXEC mode without a username or password
D. Users in user EXEC mode can enter privileged EXEC mode without a username using password cisco3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 74
Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a client? (Choose three.)
A. Reject-Challenge
B. Access-Reject
C. Accept-Confirmed
D. Access-Accept
E. Access-Challenge
F. Reject-Access
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 75
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Configure the activation-character command.
B. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15.
C. Configure an ACL.
D. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 76
Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. KRB5authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered.
B. Local user names are case-insensitive.
C. Local authentication is maintained on the router.
D. TACAS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users.
E. RADIUS authentication queries the router’s local username database.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 77
What is the maximum number of classes that MQC can support in a single policy map?
A. 512
B. 256
C. 128
D. 64
Correct Answer: B
Section: Infrastructure Services
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 78
Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDPport 49152.
B. It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data.
D. It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0.
E. It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port49152.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
The “ip flow-export destination 209.165.200.227 49152” command specifies that the data export destination
server is 209.165.200.227 using UDP port 49152.The “iproute-cache flow” command under the fast ethernet
0/0 interface enable netflow switching on that interface.
QUESTION 79

Which two statements about this CoS mapping are true? (Choose two)
A. It maps the first queue and first threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.
B. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 2.
C. It maps the second threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.
D. It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold.
E. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 3.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. When R2 attempted to copy a file from the TFTP server, it received this error message.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Change the access-list configuration onR1 to access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255.
B. Configure the ip tftp source-interface Fa0/1 command on R1.
C. Configure the ip tftp source-interface Fa0/1 command on R2.
D. Configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopBack0 command on R1.
E. Configure the ip tftp source-interface LoopBack0 command on R2.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 81
Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLAprobes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 82
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each step in the performance-monitoring configuration process on the left into the correct order
on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 83
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NAT elements on the left into the correct sequential order on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 84
R1 #sh ip sla configuration
IP SLAs Infrastructure Engine-III
Entry number: 1
Owner:
Tag:
Operation timeout (milliseconds): 1000
Type of operation to perform: icmp-echo
Target address/Source address: 10.1.2.2/0.0.0.0
Request size (ARR data portion): 28
Verify data: No
Vrf name:
Schedule:
Operation frequency (seconds): 2 (not considered if randomly scheduled)
Next Scheduled Start Time: Pending trigger
Group Scheduled: FALSE
Randomly Scheduled: FALSE
Life (seconds): 3600
Entry Ageout (seconds): never
Recurring (Starting Everyday): False
Status of Entry (SSMP RowStatus): notInService
Threshold (milliseconds): 2000
Distribution statistics:
Number of statistic hours kept: 2
Number of statistic distribution buckets kept: 1
Statistic distribution interval (milliseconds): 20
Enhanced history:
History statistics:
Number of history Lives kept: 0
Number of history Buckets kept: 15
History Filter Type: None
R1 # sh ip sla statistics
IPSLAs Latest Operation Statistics
IPSLA operation id: 1
Number of successes: Unknown
Number of failures: Unknown
Operation time to live: 0
Refer to the exhibit. For which reason could the statistics for IP SLA operation 1 be unknown?
A. The IP SLA schedule is missing.
B. The ICMP echoes were lost in transit.
C. The Type of Service parameter is configured incorrectly.
D. The Operation Frequency value is the same as the Operation Timeout value.
E. Data verification has been disabled.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 85
DRAG DROP
Drag each statement about QoS features on the left to the matching QoS feature on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 86
An IP SLA fails to generate statistics. How can you fix the problem?
A. Add the debug ip sla error command to the router configuration.
B. Add the debug ip sla trace command to the router configuration.
C. Reload the router configuration.
D. Remove the ip sla schedule statement from the router configuration and re-enter it.
E. Add the verify-data command to the router configuration.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 87
Which two statements about this capture are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is set to run for five minutes.
B. It continues to capture data after the buffer is full.
C. It is set to run for a period of00:03:26.
D. It captures data only until the buffer is full.
E. It is set to use the default buffer type.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 88
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. It uses one-to-one mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
B. It requires static address mapping between IPv6 addresses and IPv4 addresses.
C. It can be used to translate an IPv6 network to another IPv6 network.
D. It can be configured for stateless and stateful translation.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 89
Which two possible network conditions can you infer from this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The authentication parameters on R1 and R2 are mismatched.
B. R1 is using the default NTP source configuration.
C. R1 and R2 have established an NTP session.
D. R2 is configured as the NTP master with a stratum of 7.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
Answer A: The NTP associations are not synced, it is only listed as a candidate because it was configured.
Routing is not the issue, so it must be mismatched authentication parameters. Answer B: NTP sets the source
IP address for all NTP packets based on the address of the interface through which the NTP packets are sent.
You can configure NTP to use a specific source IP address.
QUESTION 90
Which option is the common primary use case for tools such as Puppet, Chef, Ansible, and Salt?
A. network function virtualization
B. configuration management
C. network orchestration
D. policy assurance
Correct Answer: B
Section: Evolving Technologies
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 91
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose
two.)
A. Neutron server plugin
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Neutron Layer 3 agent
D. Identity Service
E. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 92
Which two characteristics of an IoT network are true? (Choose two.)
A. IoT networks must be designed for low-powered devices.
B. The transmission rate in an IoT network is consistent
C. IoT networks use IS-IS for routing
D. IoT networks are bandwidth constrained.
E. IoT networks are 100% reliable.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 93
Which description of Infrastructure as a Service is true?
A. a cloud service that delivers on-demand intranet connection between sites
B. a cloud service that delivers on-demand internet connection between sites
C. a cloud service that delivers on-demand resources like networking and storage
D. a cloud service that delivers on-demand software services on a subscription basis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 94
Which two options are benefits of moving the application development workload to the cloud? (Choose two.)
A. The workload can be moved or replicated easily.
B. The application availability is not affected by the loss of a single virtual machine.
C. It provides you full control over the software packages and vendor used.
D. High availability and redundancy is handled by the hypervisor.
E. It provides a more secure environment.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 95
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. OpenStack
C. DevStack
D. Xen
E. Docker
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 96
Which two statements about the various types of DevOps tools are true? (Choose two.)
A. Ansible does not require agent node installation and uses SSH for performing all tasks.
B. Puppet requires the installation of a master (server) and agents (clients) architecture for configuring
systems.
C. Chef and Puppet are much more attuned to the needs of system administrators.
D. Puppet and Chef are written in Python. Python skills are a must to operate these two.
E. Salt cannot communicate with clients through general SSH; it uses minions client agents only.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 97
In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes “contracts”?
A. to determine endpoint group membership status
B. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups
C. named groups of related endpoints
D. a Layer 3 forwarding domain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 98
Which data modeling language is commonly used by NETCONF?
A. XML
B. YANG
C. HTML
D. REST
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
YANG is a data modeling language for the definition of data sent over the NETCONF network configuration
protocol. The name is an acronym for "Yet Another Next Generation". The datamodeling language can be used
to model both configuration data as well as state data of network elements.
References:
QUESTION 99
Which three statements about Ansible are true?
A. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSL.
B. No ports other than the SSH port are required, there is no additional PKI infrastructure to maintain.
C. Ansible does not require specific SSH keys or dedicated users.
D. Ansible requires server software running on a management machine.
E. Ansible by default manages remote machines over SSH
F. Ansible requires remote agent software.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 100
In a simple MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by a PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It establishes pseudowires with other PEs.
B. It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6routes with other PE routers.
C. It exchanges VPNv4 or VPNv6 routes with CE devices.
D. It assigns labels to routes in individual VPNs.
E. It forwards labeled packets to CE devices.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 101
You are performing a system diagnostic on a CSU in local loop mode and notice that the mineseen counter has
failed to increment. Which type of problem does this behavior indicate?
A. a framing problem
B. a cabling problem
C. a timing problem
D. an encoding problem
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 102
Which two statements about out-of-order packet transmission are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can occur when packers take the same path to arrive at the same destination.
B. It can occur when packets are duplicated and resent.
C. It occurs only over TCP connections.
D. It can occur when packets use different paths to arrive at the same destination.
E. It can occur when packets are dropped and resent.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. Which tag will be applied to the 172.16.50.0/24 route?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 104
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 NA
B. GLBP
C. IPv6 RA
D. NHRP
E. HSRP
F. DVMRP
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 105
Which three configuration settings must match for switches to be in the same MST region? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN-to-instance assignment
B. VLAN names
C. password
D. revision number
E. domain name
F. region name
Correct Answer: ADF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 106
Which feature can be used to block traffic from one host to another within one VLAN on a Layer 2 switch?
A. port security
B. access list
C. dot1x
D. protected ports
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 107
An IPv6 network has different MTUs on different segments. If the network is experiencing reliability issues,
which option is the most likely reason?
A. The MTU size is greater than 1470 bytes.
B. The Do Not Fragment bit is marked.
C. ICMPv6 is filtered.
D. HSRPv6 is configured incorrectly.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 108
What are two functions of an NSSA in an OSPF network design? (Choose two.)
A. It uses opaque LSAs.
B. It overcomes issues with suboptimal routing when thereare multiple exit points from the area.
C. An ASBR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area.
D. It allows ASBRs to inject external routing information into the area.
E. An ABR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 109
What are two reasons for an OSPF neighbor relationship to be stuck in exstart/exchange state? (Choose two.)
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is an authentication mismatch.
C. Both routers have the same router ID.
D. Both routers have the same OSPF process ID.
E. There is an MTU mismatch.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 110
Which two OSPF network types require the use of a DR and BDR? (Choose two.)
A. non-broadcast networks
B. point-to-point networks
C. point-to-multipoint networks
D. point-to-multipoint non-broadcast networks
E. broadcast networks
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 111
Which type of ACL can be applied only to Layer 2 ports?
A. VLAN ACLs
B. standard ACLs
C. reflexive ACLs
D. dynamic ACLs
E. port ACLs
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 112
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the output are true? (Choose three.)
A. A multicast receiver has requested to join one or more of the multicast groups.
B. Group 224.0.1.40 is a reserved address, and it should not be used for multicast user data transfer.
C. One or more multicast groups are operating in PIM dense mode.
D. One or more of the multicast data streams will be forwarded out to neighbor 10.85.20.20.
E. This switch is currently receiving a multicast data stream that is being forwarded out VLAN 150.
F. Group 239.192.1.1 is a reserved address, and it should not be used for multicast user data transfer.
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 113
Which two commands enable OSPF graceful shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. ip ospf shutdown
B. nsf ietf helper disable
C. nsf cisco
D. shutdown
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 114
Which two statements about IS-IS areas are true? (Choose two.)
A. All IS-IS areas reside on Level 1.
B. The area ID is a maximum of 13 bytes in length.
C. A Level 1device must connect to a Level-2 device to route traffic outside its own area.
D. The area ID is a combination of the AFI and the system ID.
E. Routers serve as the borders between areas.
F. The area ID is the 6 bytes before the NSEL.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 115
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
B. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as not-so-stubby network.
C. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-
state protocol data units.
D. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello
packets.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 116
Which trunking configuration between two Cisco switches can cause a security risk?
A. configuring mismatched VLANs on the trunk
B. configuring incorrect channel-groups on the switches
C. disabling DTP on the trunk ports
D. configuring different trunk modes on the switches
E. configuring different native VLANs on the switches
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 117
Which two statements about the BGP community attribute are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is a well-known, discretionary BGP attribute.
B. A prefix an support only one community attribute.
C. A router can change a received community attribute before advertising it to peers.
D. It is an optional transitive BGP attribute.
E. Routers send the community attribute to all BGP neighbors automatically.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 118
What are the three variants of NTPv4? (Choose three.)
A. symmetric
B. unicast
C. client/server
D. broadcast
E. multicast
F. asymmetric
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. Which action can you take to prevent loops and suboptimal routing on this network?
A. Configure therfc1583compatibilitycommand under the Cisco NX-OS OSPF routing process only.
B. Configuretherfc2328compatibilitycommand under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only.
C. Configuretherfc2328compatibilitycommand under the Cisco NX-OS OSPF routing process only.
D. Configure therfc2328compatibilitycommand under the Cisco NX-OS and IOS OSPF routing processes.
E. Configure therfc1583compatibilitycommand under the Cisco NX-OS and IOS OSPF routing processes.
F. Configure therfc1583compatibilitycommand under the Cisco IOS OSPF routing process only.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 120
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. It embeds the IPv6 packet into theIPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 41.
B. It works by appending the public IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
C. It embeds the IPv6 packet into the IPv4 payload with the protocol type set to 51.
D. It works by appending the private IPv4 address (converted into hexadecimal format) to the 2002::/16 prefix.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 121
Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports.
B. Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports.
C. LACP is supported on EVC ports.
D. Layer 2 multicast framing is supported.
E. Bridge domain routing is required.
F. PAGP is supported on EVC ports.
Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. The Main1 and Branch1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire, and
both run UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure, the pseudowire is restored. However, the
Branch1 switch is unable to reach the Main1 switch.
Which two actions can you take to restore connectivity and prevent the problem from recurring? (Choose two.)
A. Issue the shutdown and no shutdowncommands on the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.
B. Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the Main1 and Branch1switches.
C. Issue the shutdown and no shutdowncommands on both the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router and the
Main1 switch’s uplink to the M1 router.
D. Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
E. Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
F. Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 123
What is the default console authentication method on Cisco routers?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. EAPoL
D. open
E. noauthentication
F. local
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 124
Refer to the exhibit. What is the PHB class on this flow?
A. CS4
B. EF
C. AF21
D. none
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. If a console port is configured as shown, which response is displayed when you connect to
the console port?
A. three username name prompts followed by a timeout message
B. the message “Connection refused”
C. the username prompt
D. a blinking cursor
E. the message “Authorized users only”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 126
What is the function of the command ip pim autorp listener?
A. It allows a border PIM sparse mode router to accept autorp information from another autonomous system
B. It allows the routers to flood the autorp information in a sparse-mode-only network.
C. It allows a BSR to accept autorp information and translate it into BSR messages.
D. It allows the mapping agents to accept autorp information from the PIM rendezvous point.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the meaning of this console message?
A. FastEthernet0/0 has interface errors.
B. An EIGRP process has been shut down.
C. An interface has gone down.
D. An EIGRP hold timer has expired.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 128
Which two statements about class maps are true? (Choose two.)
A. The match classcommand can nest a class map within another class map.
B. As many as eight DSCP values can be included in a match dscpstatement.
C. The default parameter on a class map with more than one match command is match-any.
D. A policy map can be used to designate a protocol within a class map.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
Answer A. Router config-cmap)# match class-map class-name(Optional) Specifies the name of a traffic class
to be used as a matchingcriterion (for nestingtraffic class [nested class maps] within one another).
Answer B: Router(config-cmap)# match [ip] dscp dscp-value [dscp-value dscp-value dscp-value dscp-
valuedscp-value dscp-value dscp-value](Optional) Identifies a specific IP differentiated service code point
(DSCP) value as a matchcriterion. Up to eight DSCP values can be included in one match
statement.Reference.http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/
qcfmcli2.html
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. Which AS paths are matched by this access list?
A. the origin AS 64496 and any ASs after AS 64496
B. the origin AS 64496 only
C. the directly attached AS 64496 and any ASs directly attached to AS 64496
D. the directly attached AS 64496 and any longer AS paths
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/13754-26.html
QUESTION 130
You are configuring Wireshark on a Cisco Catalyst 4500E Switch with a Supervisor 8. Which three actions can
you take to prevent the capture from overloading the CPU? (Choose three.)
A. Attach the specific ports that are part of the data path.
B. Reconfigure the buffers to accommodate the additional traffic.
C. Configure a policy map, class map, and an access list to express the match conditions.
D. Use an in-line filter.
E. Use an appropriate ACL.
F. Add memory to the Supervisor.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 131
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each IP traffic plane-packet type from the left onto its description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 132
Which two statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both IS-IS routers need to have the same capabilities in the hello packet in order to form neighbors.
B. Both routers need to have the same hello intervals and hold timers in order to form IS-IS neighbors.
C. The hello interval can be changed on a per-interface basis with the command isis hello-multiplier.
D. The default hello interval is 10 seconds and the default hold timer is 30 seconds.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
To specify the length of time between hello packets that the Cisco IOS software sends, use the isis hello-
interval command in interface configuration mode. By default, a value three times the hello interval seconds is
advertised as the hold time in the hello packets sent. (Change the multiplier of 3 by specifying the isis hello-
multiplier command.) With smaller hello intervals, topological changes are detected faster, but there is more
routing traffic. The default is 10 seconds.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/fiprrp_r/1rfisis.ht ml
QUESTION 133
Which statement about the NHRP network ID is true?
A. It is sent from the hub to the spoke to identify the hub as a member of the same NHRP domain.
B. It is sent from the spoke to the hub to identify the spoke as a member of the same NHRP domain.
C. It is sent between spokes to identify the spokes as members of the same NHRP domain.
D. It is locally significant ID used to define the NHRP domain for an interface.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 134
Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.)
A. network access authorization
B. command authorization
C. network access authentication
D. network accounting
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
You can use the local database for CLI access authentication, privileged modeauthentication, command
authorization, network access authentication, and VPN authentication and authorization. You cannot use the
local database for network access authorization. The local database does not support
accounting.Reference.http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa80/configuration/guide/conf_gd/
aaa.html
QUESTION 135
Which statement is true about IGMP?
A. IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
B. Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages
to the RP.
C. Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message
that is then sent to the RP.
D. Multicast receives send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast
groups.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 136
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two.)
A. VPLS extends a Layer 2 broadcast domain.
B. PE routers dynamically associate to peers.
C. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
D. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE.
E. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 137
Which interior gateway protocol is based on open standards, uses a shortest-path first algorithm, provides
native support for non-IP Layer 3 protocols, and operates at the data link layer?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 138
Which three message types are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP Offer
B. Advertise
C. Renew
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCP Ack
F. Solicit
Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation
Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/blog/153426/implementing-dhcpv6-introduction
QUESTION 139
Which three modes are valid for forming an EtherChannel between the ports of two switches? (Choose three.)
A. passive/passive
B. active/active
C. active/passive
D. auto/auto
E. auto/desirable
F. desirable/on
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
Explanation:
To configure an EtherChannel using LACP negotiation, each side must be set to either active or passive; only
interfaces configured in active mode will attempt to negotiate an EtherChannel. Passive interfaces merely
respond to LACP requests. PAgP behaves the same, but its two modes are refered to as desirable and auto
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. Notice that debug ip bgp updates has been enabled. What can you conclude from the
debug output?
A. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 performed a graceful restart.
B. This isthe result of theclear ip bgp 10.1.3.4 incommand.
C. BGP neighbor 10.1.3.4 established a new BGP session.
D. This is the result of theclear ip bgp 10.1.3.4 outcommand.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
If you enter the clear ip bgp out command for a BGP peer, that router resends its BGP prefixes to that peer.
This does not cause a change in the best path on the receiving BGP peer. Hence, there is no change in the
Table Version on that peer.
When you run the debug ip bgp updates on the receiving router, you see:
BGP(0): 10.1.3.4 rcvd UPDATE w/ attr: nexthop 10.1.3.4, origin i, metric 0, merged path 4, AS_PATHBGP(0):
10.1.3.4 rcvd 10.100.1.1/32…duplicate ignored
The received update is recognized as a duplicate, so it is ignored and no best path change occurs.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/116511-technote-
tableversion-00.html
QUESTION 141
Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.)
A. The command configures an SPI.
B. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header.
C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV.
D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm.
E. The command must be configured under theOSPFv3 process.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 142
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)
A. IP service level agreements
B. fast start
C. fast recovery
D. fast retransmission
E. congestion-avoidance algorithm
F. low-latency queuing
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 143
On an MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It exchanges iBGP routing updates with the CE device.
B. It distributes labels and forwards labeled packets.
C. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with CE devices.
D. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other PE routers.
E. It forwards labeled packets between CE devices.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 144
Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two.)
A. local preference
B. AS path
C. weight
D. cluster list
E. MED
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 145
Which three statements about EIGRP and BFD are true? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced EIGRP timers have an absolute minimum detection timer of 1-2 seconds, BFD can provide sub-
second failure detection.
B. BFD resides on the control plane, so it is less CPU-intensive than if it resided on the data plane.
C. Some parts of BFD can be distributed to the data plane, so it can be less CPU-intensive than reduced
timers, which exist wholly at the control plane.
D. BFD is tied to specific routing protocols and can be used for generic fault detection for the OSPF, EIGRP,
and BGP routing protocols.
E. BFD is dependent on the EIGRP routing protocol, so it can be used as a specific failure detection
mechanism.
F. BFD is independent of the routing protocol, so it can be used as a generic failure detection mechanism for
EIGRP.
Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 146
Which statement describes Cisco PfR link groups?
A. Link groups define a strict or loose hop-by-hop path preference.
B. Link groups are required only when Cisco PfR is configured to load-balance all traffic.
C. Link groups enable Cisco PfR Fast Reroute when NetFlow is enabled on the external interfaces of the
border routers.
D. Link groups are enabled automatically when Cisco PfR is in Fast Reroute mode.
E. Link groups set a preference for primary and fallback (backup) external exit interfaces.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
The PerformanceRouting – Link Groups feature introduced the ability to define a group of exit links as a
preferred set of links, or a fallback set of links for PfR to use when optimizing traffic classes specified in an PfR
policy. PfR currently selects the best link fora traffic class based on the preferences specified in a policy and the
traffic class performance—using parameters such as reachability, delay, loss, jitter or MOS—on a path out of
the specified link.Reference.http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/pfr/configuration/guide/15_1/
pfr_15_1_book/pfr-linkgroup.
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. While reviewing a log file on a router with this NTP configuration, you note that the log
entries of the router display a different time than the NTP time. Which action can you take to correct the
problem?
A. Remove the datetime keyword from the service timestamps log datetimestatement
B. Add the localtime keyword to the service timestamps log datetimestatement
C. Add the mseckeyword to the service timestamps log datetimestatement.
D. Configure the router to be the NTP master.
E. Add the statement ntp broadcast to the NTP configuration of the neighboring router.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the implementation are true? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of fragments is 1.
B. The PPP multilink protocol header is omitted on delay-sensitive packets.
C. A transmit queue is provided for smaller packets.
D. Small real-time packets are multilink-encapsulated.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 149
Which measure does IS-IS use to avoid sending traffic with a wrong MTU configuration?
A. IS-IS does not protect from MTU mismatch.
B. IS-IS uses padding of hello packets to full MTU.
C. IS-IS uses path MTU discovery as specified in RFC 1063.
D. MTU value is communicated in IS-IS Sequence Number PDUs (SNP), and IS-IS adjacency is not
established if an MTU mismatch is detected.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 150
Which three statements about bridge assurance are true? (Choose three.)
A. Bridge assurance can be enabled on one end of a link or on both ends
B. Bridge assurance must be enabled on both ends of a link.
C. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP point-to-point links only.
D. If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDU after a timeout, the port is put into an error disabled state.
E. Bridge assurance is enabled on STP multipoint links only.
F. If a bridge assurance port fails to receive a BPDI after a timeout, the port is put into a blocking state.
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 151
A host on an Ethernet segment has a different subnet mask than the default gateway. What can be done to
allow it to communicate with devices outside of this subnet?
A. Enable gratuitous ARP on the host.
B. Configure a static ARP entry on the default gateway for the host IP address.
C. Configure a static route for the host on the default gateway.
D. Enable proxy ARP on the default gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 152
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?
A. stub
B. address-family
C. offset-list
D. neighbor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 153
Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the routing
table?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION 154
Which metric vectors are stored but are NOT used by default in EIGRP?
A. reliability and delay
B. load and bandwidth
C. bandwidth and delay
D. load and reliability
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 155
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
B. It sends VTPv2 packets only.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 156
How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?
A. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
B. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Solicitation messages.
C. It prepends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
D. It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 157
Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers?
A. update
B. decision
C. forward
D. receive
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 158
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each description from the lest into the matching protocol category on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
B. Itsupports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
C. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
D. It supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.
F. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 160
What are three core features of GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. time-based anti-replay
B. AES
C. MPLS
D. the rekey mechanism
E. cooperative key servers
F. partial mesh
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 161
Which three pieces of information are carried in OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three.)
A. IP subnet
B. external route tag
C. forwarding address
D. authentication type
E. subnet mask
F. metric
Correct Answer: AEF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2, which networks does R2 advertise
to R1?
A. 172.16.32.0/20 only
B. both 172.16.32.0/20 and 172.16.33.0/24
C. 172.16.33.0/24 only
D. 172.16.0.0/16 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 163
Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have subnet masks of /16
through /24?
A. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24
B. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 15 le 25
C. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24
D. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 164
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OpenStack projects from the left onto their function on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 165
DRAG DROP
Drag each QoS application-traffic class on the left to the matching definition on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which three security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities? (Choose
three.)
A. Layered Security Approach.
B. Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on IoT devices.
C. Place security above functionality.
D. Change passwords every 90 days.
E. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices.
F. Privacy Impact Assessment.
Correct Answer: AEF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 167
A floating static route pointing to an interface appears in the routing table even when interface is down. Which
action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table.
B. Correct the administrative distance.
C. Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server.
D. Remove the permanent option from the static route.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 168
Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?
A. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions.
B. APIC does support a Southbound REST API.
C. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol.
D. APIC uses an imperative model.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 169
Which three types of Layer 2 isolation do private VLANs provide? (Choose three.)
A. blocking
B. community
C. private
D. group
E. promiscuous
F. isolated
Correct Answer: BEF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 170
What is the function of the rendezvous point in PIM?
A. It is the main source of the multicast traffic.
B. It acts as a shared root for a multicast tree.
C. It will redistribute the unicast routes to avoid an RPF failure.
D. It redistributes the multicast configuration to its connected neighbors.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 171
What mechanism should you choose to prevent unicast flooding?
A. Configure the ARP cache timers to be longer than the switch forwarding cache (CAM) timers.
B. Use control plane policing (CPP) to limit unicast flooding.
C. Configure the switch forwarding cache (CAM) timers to be longer than the ARP cache timers.
D. Make sure that all end systems are connected to the network with a single physical connection.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 172
Which configuration can you implement on PE-1 to allow CE-1 to receive delegated IPv6 prefixes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. How can you configure R6 so that traffic returns to subnet 172.16.6.0/24 via R5?
A. Set the local preference for all prefixes received from neighbor R5 to 200.
B. Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 to neighbor R5 with metric 80.
C. Configure the neighbor 10.5.6.5 send-community standard command.
D. Advertise prefix 172.16.6.0/24 neighbor R5 with AS65006 prepended.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 174
Which three sets of fields can be included in a NetFlow export template? (Choose three.)
A. IPv4 main cache
B. IGP
C. ODR
D. MPLS labels
E. BGP PIC
F. PfR
Correct Answer: ADF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 175
DRAG DROP
Drag each statement about file-transfer protocols on the left to the matching file-transfer technology on the
right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which extended ping IP header option allows you to specify one or more hops over which the packets will travel
without specifying the full path?
A. verbose
B. loose
C. strict
D. record
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 177
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configuration? (Choose two.)
A. address-family
B. process-id
C. router-id
D. subnet-mask
E. virtual-instance-name
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 178
Which option is an example of SaaS?
A. Microsoft Azure
B. Amazon AWS
C. Google App Engine
D. Google Apps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 179
Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wan2site is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28
process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. All routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag.
B. Policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributes.
C. The deny sequence 5 is preventing any routes from being redistributed.
D. A default route is being redistributed with a metric and a tag.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 180
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600.
B. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256.
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200.
D. The metric installed into the route table is 128256.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 181
Which two statements about VTPv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. VTPv3 accepts configuration information only from VTPv2 devices.
B. VTPv3 sends VTPv2 packets when they are detected on a trunk port.
C. VTPv3 must receive VTPv2 packets before it can send VTPv2 packets.
D. Extended VLANs prevent VTPv3 switches from becoming VTPv2.
E. VTPv3 regions can communicate in server mode only over a VTPv2 region.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 182
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding tables contain reachability information and adjacency tables contain forwarding
information.
B. Adjacency tables and Cisco Express Forwarding tables require packet process-switching.
C. Adjacency tables and Cisco Express Forwarding tables can be built separately.
D. Cisco Express Forwarding tables contain forwarding information and adjacency tables contain reachability
information.
E. Changing MAC header rewrite strings requires cache validation.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 183
What mechanism could be used to avoid the problem of TCP Starvation / UDP Dominance?
A. WRED to balance TCP and UDP utilization.
B. Configure QoS to police UDP traffic to the desired volume.
C. Place UDP traffic in a dedicated traffic-class with thebandwidthkeyword configured.
D. Use policy routing to send the UDP and TCP traffic over different paths.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 184
Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. fast recovery
B. selective acknowledgement
C. flow control
D. sliding window
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 185
What are the two requirements for BGP to install a classful network into the BGP routing table? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronization is enabled.
B. Auto-summary is enabled.
C. A classful network statement with a lower administrative distance is in the routing table.
D. Synchronization is disabled.
E. A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.
F. The AS contains the entire classful network.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 186
How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 187
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning-tree PortFast is enabled on GigabitEthernet1/1.
B. Spanning-tree PortFast should not be enabled on GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. Setting the priority of this switch to 0 for VLAN 1 would cause it to become the new root.
D. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN1.
E. 802.1w spanning tree is being used.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 188
Which MLD message type does a host send to join multicast groups?
A. Hello
B. Query
C. Done
D. Assert
E. Report
F. Join/Prune
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 189
Which two statements about PfR are true? (Choose two.)
A. It manages traffic classes.
B. It provides intelligent route control on a per-application basis.
C. It provides a narrower scope of route control than OER.
D. It supports split tunneling and spoke-to-spoke links.
E. It always prefers the least cost path.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 190
Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.)
A. Enable NAT-PT globally.
B. Specifya ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address.
C. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.
D. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation.
E. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address.
F. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 191
Refer to the exhibit. Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?
A. 2001:112::/64, 2001:12::1/64
B. 2001:112::/64, 2001:12::1/128
C. 2001:12::1/128
D. 2001:12::1/64
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 192
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. R1 has preferred-path configured for the pseudowire.
B. The default route 0.0.0.0/0 is available in the IPv4 routing table.
C. R1 is using an MPLS TE tunnel for this pseudowire, because the IP path is not available.
D. R1 routes this pseudowire over MPLS TE tunnel 1 with transport label 20.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 193
Which feature can you implement to reduce global synchronization?
A. WRED
B. marking
C. policing
D. NBAR
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit?
A. Python
B. NETCONF
C. Bash script
D. EEM
E. REST
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 195
Which two options are examples of Northbound and/or Southbound protocols? (Choose two.)
A. ISIS
B. NETCONF
C. OpenStack
D. JSON
E. BGP-LS
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 196
Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 sends traffic marked with IP precedence 3 to R2’s Loopback 0 address, which
class would the traffic match on R2’s Gi1/0 interface?
A. CM-CLASS-1
B. CM-CLASS-3
C. CM-CLASS-2
D. class-default
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 197
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for
processing before they are sent to the FIB.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on iOS devices.
D. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 198
Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native IPv6 blocks to
guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?
A. manual ipv6ip tunneling
B. ISATAP tunneling
C. automatic 6to4 tunneling
D. 6rd tunneling
E. NAT-PT tunneling
F. automatic 4to6 tunneling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 199
According to networking best practices, which network device should be used for optimization and rate limiting?
A. the customer edge device
B. the provider core device
C. the customer core device
D. the provider edge device
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 200
Which option describes how the IP address is assigned when you configure a Layer 3 EtherChannel interface?
A. You must assign the IP address to a port channel logical interface.
B. The first IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically.
C. The last IP address added to the EtherChannel is used automatically.
D. You must assign the IP address to the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 201
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has converged. R3 and R4 are configured
as EIGRP Stub. If the link between R1 and R3 goes down, which statement is true?
A. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4.
B. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2.
C. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore.
D. R2 does not have a route to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. BFD last failed 476 ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet0/3.
B. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.
C. BFD is active for BGPon RT1.
D. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and us using ICMP.
E. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Sources for the 239.1.1.1 multicast stream will register with 172.1.1.1.
B. It configures 172.1.1.1 as a sparse-mode rendezvous point.
C. Multicast stream 224.1.1.1 will operate in dense mode.
D. Sources for the 224.1.1.1 multicast stream will register with 172.1.1.1.
E. Multicast stream 224.1.1.1 will operate in sparse mode.
F. It configures 172.1.1.1 as the Bidir-PIM rendezvous point.
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 204
Which feature monitors network events and takes automated action based on scripts configured by the
administrator?
A. NetFlow
B. Performance Monitoring
C. EEM
D. EPC
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 205
With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?
A. UDP
B. SNMP
C. XMPP
D. TCP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 206
Which two statements about route redistribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. Redistributing the entire BGP table from the Internet works well when using multiple OSPF areas.
B. IBGP is used within the AS to carry EBGP attributes that otherwise would be lost if EBGP was redistributed
into IGP.
C. Mutual redistribution at multiple points can create a routing loop.
D. IS-IS does not support Layer 2 routes that leak into a Layer 1 domain.
E. The unequal cost multipath load-balancing characteristic is lost when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 207
Refer to the exhibit. After you configure the given IP SLA on a Cisco router, you note that the device is unable
to failover to the backup route even when pings to 10.12.34.5 fail. What action can you take to correct the
problem?
A. Change thefrequency 2command tofrequency 12
B. Change theip sla schedule 12 life forever start-time nowcommand toip sla schedule 12 life forever start-time
00:12:00.
C. Change thetrack 12 ip sla 12 statecommand totrack 12ip sla 12 reachability.
D. Change theip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.153 200command toip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.153 12.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 208
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each IS-IS PDU type from the left onto its purpose on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 209
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you
take to enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Change the corresponding loopback address.
B. Clear the EIGRP process.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the router ID on R2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 210
Which two statements about a flat single-hub DMVPN with NHRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. NHRP shortens the configuration of the hub router.
B. The spoke routers act as the NHRP servers.
C. NHRP dynamically provides information about the spoke routers to the hub.
D. NHRP disables multicast.
E. The hubrouter uses NHRP to initiate the GRE tunnel with spokes.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 211
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NETCONF layers on the left onto their appropriate description on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 212
Which BGP attribute is used to influence inbound traffic?
A. multi-exit discriminator
B. weight
C. local preference
D. origin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 213
When you implement CoPP on your network, what is its default action?
A. block all traffic
B. rate-limit bidirectional traffic to the control plane
C. drop management ingress traffic to the control plane
D. permit all traffic
E. monitor ingress and egress traffic to the control plane by using access groups that are applied to the
interface
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 214
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Service cloud service model?
A. It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (server, storage, network, and operating systems) as
an on-demand service.
B. It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider
C. It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates of web applications without the need the maintain the
supporting software operating systems.
D. It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates of web applications without the need the maintain the
supporting software applications.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 215
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?
A. Nova
B. Horizon
C. Keystone
D. Neutron
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 216
On which three options can Cisco PfR base its traffic routing? (Choose three.)
A. user-defined link capacity thresholds
B. an access list with permit or deny statements
C. load-balancing requirements
D. router IOS version
E. time of day
F. network performance
Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 217
Which option describes the effect of the command ip route vrf DMZ 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.16.5.5 global?
A. It creates a static route in the VRF DMZ for 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0, and the nexthop is in the global
routing table.
B. It creates a static route in the global routing table for 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0, and the next hop is in the
VRF DMZ.
C. It creates a static route in the VRF DMZ for 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0, and the next hop is in the VRF DMZ.
D. It creates a static route in the global routing table for 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0, and the next hop is in the
global routing table.
E. It creates a static default route in the VRF DMZ, and the next hop is in the global routing table.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 218
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 and R2 are on the same network, what is the effect on the network when you apply
the given configurations to R1 and R2?
A. Asymmetric routing occurs because the bandwidth and delay K value settings are mismatched.
B. The neighbor adjacency between R1 and R2 temporarily resets and then reestablishes itself.
C. R1 and R2 fail to form a neighbor adjacency.
D. The interface bandwidth and delay settings adjust automatically to match the new metric settings.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 219
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. This router is an ABR.
B. This folder is an ASBR.
C. Authentication is not configured for the area.
D. This is the output of the show ip ospf command.
E. This is the output of the show ip protocols command.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 220
Refer to the exhibit. Between which routers is an LDP session established?
A. R1 and R2
B. R1, R2, and R3
C. R2 and R3
D. R1 and R3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 221
Which two statements about BGP PIC are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the path to a distant PE router changes, PIC is independent of the number of VRFs on the router.
B. PIC Edge provides fast convergence when an external neighbor node fails.
C. PIC Core supports fast convergence with external neighbor links.
D. It is prefix-dependent for Internet routes.
E. It achieves subsecond convergence in the BGP FIB.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 222
Which mechanism does Get VPN use to preserve IP header information?
A. IPsec transport mode
B. MPLS
C. GRE
D. IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 223
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the BGP attributes on the left to the correct category on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 224
Which three statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. IS-IS has the capacity to provide addresssummarization between areas.
B. IS-IS can be used to route both IP and CLNP.
C. IS-IS is an IETF standard.
D. IS-IS has three different levels of authentication: interface level, process level, and domain level.
E. IS-IS can be used only in the service provider network.
F. IS-IS is a Cisco proprietary routing protocol.
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 225
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. The router logs messages only to the buffer.
B. The router stops SNMP logging.
C. The router stops logging messages to the syslog server only.
D. The router logs messages only to the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface GigabitEthernet0/0?
A. No traffic gets set to AF41
B. Only traffic matchingaccess-list streaming
C. Only traffic matchingaccess-list tp-rooms
D. Any traffic matchingaccess-list tp-roomsandaccess-list streaming
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 227
Which three statements about BGP soft reconfiguration are true? (Choose three.)
A. Inbound soft reconfiguration stores an additional copy of the routes received from a neighbor before routing
policies take effect.
B. Inbound soft reconfiguration requires additional memory.
C. Outbound soft reconfiguration stores an additional copy of the routes advertised to a neighbor before routing
policies take effect.
D. Inbound soft reconfiguration requires additional configuration on the BGP neighbor.
E. Outbound soft reconfiguration requires additional configuration on the BGP neighbor.
F. Outbound soft reconfiguration requires additional memory.
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 228
Which three components are in an MPLS header? (Choose three.)
A. a 4-bit label stack entry
B. a 2-bit bottom ofstack
C. a 4-bit experimental use field
D. a 3-bit experimental use field
E. an 8-bit TTL
F. a 20-bit label
Correct Answer: DEF

Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 229
Which two loop-prevention mechanisms are implemented in BGP? (Choose two.)
A. The commandbgp bestpath as-pathignoreenables the strict checking of AS_PATH so that they drop routes
with their own AS in the AS_PATH.
B. The commandbgp bestpath med missing-as-worstassigns the smallest possible MED, which directly
prevents a loop.
C. The commandbgp allowas-inenables a route with its own AS_PATH to be dropped when it reenters its own
AS.
D. A route with its own AS in the AS_PATH is dropped automatically if the route reenters its own AS.
E. A route with its own cluster ID in the CLUSTER_LIST is dropped automatically when the route reenters its
own AS.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 230
Which action does route poisoning take that serves as a loop-prevention method?
A. It prohibits a router from advertising back onto the interface from which it was learned.
B. It poisons the route by tagging it uniquely within the network.
C. It advertises a route with an unreachable metric back onto the interface from which it was learned.
D. It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 231
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the device configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The GigabitEthernet0/1 interface of the device allows incoming SSH and SNMP connections.
B. The device implicitly allows Telnet connections.
C. The device has management-plane protection enabled.
D. The device has control-plane protection enabled.
E. The device allows SSH connections to its loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 232
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are used to forward untagged traffic only.
B. They require VTPv3.
C. They are configured in VLAN database mode.
D. They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffic.
E. They are configured under the trunk interface.
F. They are used to forward tagged traffic only.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 233
Which two statements about MLD snooping are true? (Choose two.)
A. PFC modes support MLD version 2 only.
B. The MLD snooping querier requires the VLAN interface to be configured with an IPv6 address.
C. MLD protocol messages can be sent in both IGMPv4 and ICMPv6 formats.
D. It limits the Layer 2 multicast traffic that is generated by routing protocols.
E. It supports private VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 234
Which authentication types does OSPF support?
A. MD5 and clear text
B. null (or no authentication) and clear text
C. clear text only
D. null (or no authentication), clear text, and MD5
E. MD5 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 235
What technology allows a PE router to exchange VPNv4 routes with other PE routers?
A. VPLS
B. MPLS L2VPN
C. Frame Relay to ATM AAL5 Interworking
D. MPLS L3VPN
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 236
In which way does the Bridge Assurance mechanism modify the default spanning-tree behavior in an effort to
prevent bridging loops?
A. Extended topology information is encoded into all BPDUs.
B. Received BPDUs are looped back toward the sender to ensure that the link is bidirectional.
C. BPDUs are sent bidirectional on all active network ports, including blocked and alternate ports.
D. If BPDUs are no longer received on a port, the switch immediately sends out a TCN BPDU.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
QUESTION 237
Which three protocols are permitted by IEEE 802.1x port-based authentication before the client is successfully
authenticated by the RADIUS server?
A. CDP
B. TCP
C. STP
D. IP
E. EAPOL
F. BOOTP
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation
QUESTION 238
Which statement about Type-4 LSA in OSPFv2 is true?
A. It is generated by the ASBR and forwarded throughout the whole OSPF domain.
B. It is present only in the backbone area.
C. It is generated by each ABR and forwarded in non-stub areas.
D. It is forwarded in NSSA areas.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 239
Which two statements about SNMP inform requests are true? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP informs are sent to the SNMP manager and acknowledgement.
B. SNMP informs are sent to the SNMP agent without acknowledgement.
C. For a particular event, an SNMP inform may be sent more than once.
D. For a particular event, an SNMP inform is sent only once.
E. SNMP informs are sent to the SNMP manager without acknowledgement.
F. SNMP informs consume less bandwidth than SNMP trap.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 240
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two.)
A. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces.
C. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths.
D. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default.
E. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 241
Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wan2site is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28
process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
B. All rotes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routers from and a tag
D. Policy routing matches 0 packets means that there are no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 242
What are three ways to increase traceroute performance? (Choose three.)
A. Use the same value for both the minimum and maximum TTL
B. Use a probe count of 2 or lower
C. Disable DNS lookups
D. Force the traceroute to use TCP.
E. Set a timeout value of less than 3 seconds.
F. Set a timeout value of 0 seconds.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
QUESTION 243
Which IP SLA operation type uses IP to measure the round-trip time between a router and a device?
A. ICMP Echo
B. ICMP Path Jitter
C. HTTP
D. UDP Jitter for VoIP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 244
Which two features are incompatible with Loop Guard on a port? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU skew detection
B. PortFast
C. Root Guard
D. UplinkFast
E. BackboneFast
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 245
Which two statements about IP source guard are true? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks DHCP packets
B. It is available only on L2 ports
C. It is not supported on private VLANS.
D. It must be applied to EtherChannel port members.
E. It is supported in software only.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 246
Which two statements about root guard and loop guard are true? (Choose two.)
A. When loop guard is enabled, the port is transitioned to the root-inconsistent state.
B. Root guard disables an interface only when a superior BPDU is received
C. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to prevent loops by detecting failures.
D. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic.
E. Loop guard uses BPDU keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic.
F. Root guard should be enabled on an upstream interface
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 247
Which two statements about 6PE are true? (Choose two.)
A. Uses an IPv4-mapped IPv6 address as the IPv4 next-hop on PE router.
B. It does not require MPLS between the PE routers.
C. It requires a VRF on the IPv6 interface.
D. It requires BGP to exchange labeled IPv6 unicast between PE routers.
E. iBPG peering between the PE routers should be done using an Ipv6 address.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 248
Which feature can mitigate hung management sessions?
A. vty line ACLs
B. the service tcp-keepalives-in and service tcp-keepalives-out command
C. Control Plane Policing
D. the service tcp-small servers command
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit. Your network uses an MPLS VPN backbone with OSPF between all PE and CE routers
and on the 10Mb backup links between the CE routers. You notice that traffic from CE3 to CE2 and CE4 is
flowing over the backup links instead of the higher-bandwidth MPLS VPN backbone even when the backbone is
up. What change can you make to ensure that traffic uses the MPLS VPN backbone instead?
A. Configure internal BGP on PE2, PE3, and PE4.
B. Configure 1Gb sham links between PE3 and PE4 and between PC3 and PE2.
C. Configure 1Gb sham links between PE2 and PE4.
D. Configure a lower cost metric on the provider network’s OSPF-to-BGP redistribution.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 250
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is
using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between
the two sites?
A. allowas-in
B. peer groups
C. communities
D. AS path prepending
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 251
When you implement the EIGRP add-paths feature, which configuration can cause routing issues on a DMVPN
circuit?
A. enabling synchronization under the EIGRP process
B. disabling automatic summarization
C. disabling the default variance under the EIGRP process
D. disabling ECMP mode under the EIGRP process
E. disabling NHRP when deploying EIGRP over DMVPN
F. enabling next-hop-self under the EIGRP process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 252
Which two statements about MLD are true? (Choose two.)
A. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, only one interface is required to send MLD messages.
B. MLD is subprotocol of ICMPv6.
C. There are three subtypes of MLD query messages.
D. When a single link supports multiple interfaces, all supported interfaces are required to send MLD
messages.
E. MLD is subprotocol of PIMv6.
F. The code section in the MLD message is set to 1 by the sender and ignored by receivers.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 253
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. hello packets
B. LSPs
C. LSAs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 254
Which two statements about PPP PAP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can protect against playback attacks.
B. It is vulnerable to trial-and-error attacks.
C. It requires two-way authentication.
D. It is supported only on synchronous interface.
E. Login attempts are controlled by the remote node.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 255
Which command sequence will configure an auto IP SLA scheduler that starts at 12:45 AM on January 1, ends
after 1 hour of inactivity, and repeats every three hours for one week?
A. ip sla auto schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 ageout 360 life 604-800 porbe-interval 10800
B. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 12:45 jan 1 frequency 60 life 10800 porbe-interval 432000
C. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 frequency 360 life 10800 porbe-interval 10800
D. ip sla schedule Jan1 start-time 12:45 jan 1 ageout 360 life 604800 porbe-interval 432000
E. ip sla auto schedule Jan1 start-time 00:45 jan 1 frequency 360 life forever porbe-interval 432000
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 256
Which Cisco IOS XE component provides separation between the control plane and the data plane?
A. POSIX
B. Forwarding and Feature
C. Common Management Enabling Technology
D. Free and Open Source Software
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 257
Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in PVST+? (Choose three.)
A. max age
B. spanning-tree MAC address
C. switch priority
D. port priority
E. extended system ID
F. port cost
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
QUESTION 258
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional
configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.
D. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1toR2.
E. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 259
Which IGMP snooping feature tracks IGMPv3 hosts on a per-port basis?
A. membership report
B. fast-leave
C. explicit tracking
D. IGMPv3 querier
E. IGMPv3 static-group
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 260
For which reason can two OSPF neighbor routers on the same LAN segment be stuck in the two-way state?
A. The interface priority is set to zero on both routers.
B. Both routers have the same OSPF router ID.
C. The two routers have different MTUs on the interface
D. The two routers are configured with different priorities.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 261
When it is useful to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface?
A. Disable it when you want to send routes that are learned from another routing protocol to peer on the same
interface.
B. It is never advisable to disable split horizon on an EIGRP interface.
C. Disable it when you want to provide additional backup paths in your network.
D. Disable it when you need to send updates to peers on the interface on which the updates were received.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 262
Which value does IS-IS use for Partial Route Computation?
A. changed routes
B. variable-length subnets
C. multiarea routes
D. IPv4 routes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 263
Refer to the exhibit. When packets are transmitted from R1 to R2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the E0/1 interface on R2
B. on the E0/0 interface on R1
C. within the crypto map
D. in the forwarding engine
E. in the tunnel
F. on the outside interface
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 264
Which statement is true when using a VLAN ID from the extended VLAN range (1006-4094)?
A. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can only be used as private VLANs.
B. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can be used with VTP2 in either client or server mode
C. STP is disabled by default on extended-range VLANs.
D. VLANs in the extended VLAN range cannot be pruned.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 265
Refer to the exhibit. How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their
networks through the provider?
A. Configure EIGRP OP on the CE routers.
B. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
D. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 266
Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used in this REST API call?
A. JSON
B. BASH
C. XML
D. HTML
E. HTMLv5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 267
Which two statements about CEF polarization are true? (Choose two.)
A. A single link is chosen for all flows
B. The AND operation is performed on the lower-order bits of the source and destination IP address.
C. It can be prevented by alternating the hashing inputs.
D. When enabled, it allows all links to be used efficiently for different traffic flows
E. The AND operation is performed on the higher-order bits of the source and destination IP address
F. After the XOR process, the flow is processed in the distribution Layer with a different hashing algorithm
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 268
Which two statements about EIGRP acknowledgement packets are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are unicast
B. They are required for every request packet
C. They can combine multiple asks in a single packet
D. They are multicast
E. They are Hello packets sent without data
F. They are broadcast
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 269
Refer to the exhibit. You notice that router R2 is experiencing high CPU usage. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure R2 to advertise an area summary route between R2 and R1.
B. Configure the net-hop address for the R2 default route.
C. Configure OSPF on the connection between R2 and the ISP
D. Remote the default-information originate command from the R2 configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 270
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on R1 and R2 as shown. Which action can you take to allow a
neighbor relationship to be established.
A. On R1, change the process ID to 1.
B. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using interface addresses.
C. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using router IDs.
D. On R1, set the network type of the FastEthernet0/0.12 interface to broadcast
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 271
Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over interfaces F0/0
B. The router will manually summarize the 192.168.12.0/27 network
C. The router will install the 192.168.12.0/27 network into its EIGRP topology table
D. Auto-summarization will be enabled to the F0/0 interface
E. The router will fail to form neighbor adjacencies over all EIGRP interfaces except F0/0
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 272
Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two.)
A. recurring TCNs
B. forwarding table overflow
C. RIB table overflow
D. symmetric routing
E. multiple MAC addresses in the Layer 2 forwarding table
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 273
Which options is the default LACP load-balancing algorithm for IP traffic on Layer 3?
A. the source and destination IP address
B. the source and destination IP port
C. the source IP port
D. the destination port
E. the destination IP port
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 274
Which two statements about Metro Ethernet services are true? (Choose two.)
A. EVPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
B. EPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
C. EPLAN is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone.
D. ELAN is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
E. EVPL is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone.
F. EVPL is a multipoint service with a root node that is suitable for multicast services.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 275
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between R1 and R2, you determine that R1’s
Loopback0 network is missing from R2’s route table. What is the most likely cause the problem?
A. The router can redistribute only point-to-point networks.
B. The subnets keywords is missing from the redistribute eigrp command on R1.
C. The router is excluding the Loopback0 interface from redistribute because it is redistributing other OSPF
interface.
D. The router is configured to redistribute only broadcast networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 276
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must you apply to a router so that it can generate a log message in
this format?
A. service timestamps log datetime msec locatime
service sequence-numbers
B. service timestamps log datetime msec locatime show-timezone
service linenumber
C. service timestamps log datetime locatime show-timezone
D. service timestamps log datetime msec locatime show-timezone
service alignment logging
E. service timestamps log datetime msec locatime show-timezone
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 277
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the R3 network environment is true?
A. OSPF external routers are preferred over OSPF internal routes.
B. RIP, OSPF and IS-IS are running.
C. The administrative distance for 172.16.X.X addresses is 110.
D. 172.1.20.0/24 has an administrative distance of 20.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 278
Which two statements about the IS-IS cost metric are true? (Choose two.)
A. A default cost of 1 automatically assigned to all interfaces.
B. The cost is calculated automatically based on the delay only
C. It is the only IS-IS metric supported on Cisco devices
D. A default cost of 10 is automatically assigned to all interfaces.
E. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth and delay.
F. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth only.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 279
Which two protocol exclude the source and destination IP addresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. TFTP
E. NTP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 280
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of his configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1.
B. Queue 1 is allocated 4 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the
available bandwidth.
C. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2.
D. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth.
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth.
F. The priority queue is disabled.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
QUESTION 281
Which two statements about the Add Path Support in EIGRP feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. The next-hop-self command should be disabled to prevent interference with the add-paths command.
B. It is supported in both classic EIGRP and EIGRP named mode configurations.
C. It is supported with both DMVPN and GETVPN.
D. It uses the variance command to alter the metrics of routes.
E. It allows a DMVPN hub to advertise as many as five best paths.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 282
Which command sequence must you enter to configure SSH access to a Cisco router?
A. hostname
ip domain-name
crypto key generate rsa
B. hostname
ip domain-name
crypto key zeroize
C. ip ssh version
ip domain-name
D. ip ssh version
ip domain-lookup
crypto key zeroize
E. hostname
ip domain-lookup
F. ip ssh version
ip domain-name
crypto key zeroize
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 283
Which option describes a difference between Ansible and Puppet?
A. Ansible requires an agent, and Puppet does not.
B. Ansible is client-server based, and Puppet is not.
C. Ansible automates repetitive tasks, and Puppet allows you to run plain ssh command.
D. Ansible is Python based, and Puppet is Ruby based.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 284
Refer to the exhibit. If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error, which action
can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco Express Forwarding
Information Base.
B. Add the vrf-lite capability to the OSPF configuration.
C. Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that can support more routes.
D. Set mls cef of maximum-routes in the global configuration.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 285
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two.)
A. port mode
B. dynamic mode
C. strict mode
D. VLAN mode
E. transport mode
F. loose mode
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 286
Which feature can you implement to most effectively protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet
service?
A. DiffServ
B. HCBWFQ
C. Q-in-Q
D. IntServ with RSVP
E. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 287
Which three options are capabilities of queueing and scheduling? (Choose three.)
A. queue buffers
B. weighted tail drop
C. PBR
D. bandwidth limitation
E. policing
F. CAR
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 288
Which IPv4 feature can limit indiscriminate flooding of multicast traffic on a VLAN?
A. IGMP Snooping
B. MLD Filtering
C. PIM Snooping
D. IGMP Filtering
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 289
Which command can you enter to configure a Cisco router running OSPF to propagate the static default route
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.31.15.1 within the OSPF process?
A. redistribute static
B. default-information originate
C. redistribute static metric 1 subnets
D. redistribute static subnets
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 290
Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true?
A. They are sent in response to queries
B. They are transmitted via broadcast
C. They are transmitted unreliably
D. They determine whether a destination is reachable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 291
Refer to the exhibit. Your organization has two offices, Site 1 and Site 2, which are connected by provider
backbone, as shown. Where must you configure an attachment circuit to allow the two sites to connect over a
Layer 2 network using L2TPv3?
A. PE Site 1 Fa1/0 and PE Site 2 Fa0/0
B. PE Site 1 Se0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
C. CE Site 1 Fa0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
D. CE Site 1 Fa0/0 and CE Site 2 Fa0/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 292
What are two requirements for BFD static route support? (Choose two.)
A. All routers that will carry traffic must be the same model.
B. CEF must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
C. All routers that will carry traffic must have the same software version.
D. BFD must be configured on all Ethernet, virtual-template, and dialer interfaces that will carry traffic.
E. Parameters must be configured on all routers that will carry traffic.
F. Parameters must be configured on all interfaces that will carry traffic.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
QUESTION 293
A. BFD, SPF and LSA timers are tuned for faster convergence
B. Only BFD is enabled
C. BFD and SPF throttling are configured
D. Fast convergence is not configured
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 294
What are the three required attributed in a BGP update message? (Choose three.)
A. COMMUNITY
B. AS_PATH
C. NEXT_HOP
D. MED
E. AGGREGATOR
F. ORIGIN
Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation
QUESTION 295
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
B. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash fdor each destination
E. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 296
What terminal line command can you enter to prevent a router from attempting a Telnet connection in response
to an incorrect host name entry at the EXEC prompt?
A. No ip domain-lookup
B. Transport input none
C. Transport preferred none
D. Logging synchronous
E. Transport output none
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 297
Which two statements about the host address 172.150.100.10/18 are true? (Choose two.)
A. The broadcast address is 172.150.100.255
B. The network address is 172.150.0.0
C. The broadcast address is 172.150.127.255
D. The broadcast address is 172.150.255.255
E. The network address is 172.150.100.0
F. The network address is 172.150.64.0
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
QUESTION 298
What are two variants of NTPv4? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. asymmetric
C. multicast
D. unicast
E. client/server
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 299
In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?
A. Forwarding
B. Disabled
C. Learning
D. Blocking
E. Listening
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 300
What are two differences between IPv6 ISATAP tunneling and IPv6 6to4 tunneling? (Choose two.)
A. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets between sites.
B. Only ISATAP tunneling can transfer IPv6 multicast packets.
C. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site.
D. Only 6to4 tunneling requires 2002::/16 addresses.
E. Only 6to4 tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 301
What are two message types that are filtered by an IPv4 multicast boundary? (Choose two.)
A. PIM Join messages
B. PIM Prune messages
C. link-local messages
D. PIM hello messages to 224.0.0.13
E. PIM Register messages
F. PIM hello messages on the local segment
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 302
Which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on the interface.
B. The interface line protocol must be up.
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface.
D. IP routing must be disabled on the interface.
E. A known IP address must be configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 303
Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area?
A. interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)
B. autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)
C. router LSA (Type 1)
D. interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 304
Which two statements about IP SLAs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB.
B. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
C. They are Layer 2 transport independent.
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 305
What command can you enter to enable client autoconfiguration over an ISATAP tunnel?
A. np ipv6 nd ra suppress
B. tunnel mode ipv6ip isatap
C. tunnel mode ipv6ip 6rd
D. ipv6 nd ra suppress
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 306
What is a reason for an EIGRP router to send an SIA reply to a peer?
A. to respond to an SIA query with the alternative path requested
B. to respond to a reply reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
C. to respond to a query reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
D. to respond to an SIA query that the router is still waiting on replies from its peers
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 307
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements can this output verify? (Choose two.)
A. The device will tear down and restart its EIGRP process in 24 seconds.
B. The IRGRP neighbor has been up for 28 seconds.
C. The EIGRP neighbor has been up for 28 ms.
D. The device must receive an EIGRP packets within 24 seconds to maintain a neighbor relationship.
E. The device must receive an EIGRP packets within 28 seconds to maintain a neighbor relationship.
F. The device will wait 200 ms before retransmitting an EIGRP packet.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
QUESTION 308
Which two events occur when a packet is decapsulated in a GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. The TTL of the payload packet is decremented.
B. The GRE keepalive mechanism is reset.
C. The version field in the GRE header is incremented.
D. The source IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet.
E. The destination IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet.
F. The TTL of the payload packet is incremented.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 309
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the 10.10.38.0/22 route is true?
A. It arrives at router R4 with the tag 30
B. It arrives at router R4 without a tag
C. It arrives at router R4 with the tag 20
D. It arrives at router R4 with the tag 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 310
Which IPv6 tunneling method allows Host A to communicate with Host B within the same site?
A. 6to4
B. Manual
C. ISATAP
D. GRE
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 311
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the output is true?
A. The overload bit is set by R4 for IPv4 and IPv6
B. The overload bit is set by R4 for IPv6 only
C. The overload bit is not set for any topology under router IS-IS on R5
D. The overload bit is set by R5 for IPv6 only
E. The overload bit is set by R5 for IPv4 and IPv6
F. The overload bit is not set for any topology under router IS-IS on R4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 312
Refer to the exhibit. Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers B and C. Which path does router A
use to get to AS 65010?
A. through router C because it has a higher local preference
B. through router B because it has the shortest AS path
C. will load balance because both routes have the same Med value
D. through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 313
Refer to the exhibit. Considering a stable neighborship has been established with multiple eBGPs peers, which
routers are advertised by the router?
A. All routes
B. Only BGP routes from AS 65006
C. BGP routes that passed through AS 65006 and BGP routes sourced on this router
D. Only BGP routes sourced on this router
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 314
What are the two Cisco recommended methods for reducing the size of the TCAM on a Layer 3 switch?
(Choose two.)
A. Adjust the output queue buffers.
B. Filter unwanted routes.
C. Optimize the SDM template.
D. Use summary routes
E. Use the ip route profile command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 315
Which two statements about NBAR classification are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires CEF to be enable on the router
B. It can classify MPLS packets
C. It can classify IP packets
D. It is recommended for capacity planning
E. It cannot distinguish UDP flows
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which two protocols are used by the management plane? (Choose two.)
A. ISSU
B. FTP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. Telnet
F. DTP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 317
Which feature can be used to allow hosts with routes in the global routing table to access hosts in a VRF?
A. route target communities
B. address families
C. route leaking
D. extended communities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 318
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection.
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP.
E. It increases the connection’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 319
Which three session tables does NAT64 maintain?
A. 6rd
B. UDP
C. 464XLAT
D. SIP
E. ICMP Query
F. TCP
Correct Answer: BEF

Explanation
QUESTION 320
Which condition must be true to allow an access port to trust QoS markings on an incoming frame?
A. The switch must be configured globally with the vlan dot1q tag native command
B. The port must be configured with the mls qos cos command
C. The port must be configured with the mls qos trust dscp command
D. The switch must be configured globally with the mls qos trust cos command
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 321
Which three types of traffic are protected when you implement IPsec within an IPv6-in-IPv4 tunnel? (Choose
three.)
A. IPv6 link-local traffic
B. IPv4 broadcast traffic
C. IPv6 broadcast traffic
D. IPv6 multicast traffic
E. IPv4 tunnel control traffic
F. IPv6 unicast traffic
Correct Answer: ADF

Explanation
QUESTION 322
Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers
are sent on the multicast router-connected ports?
A. Router Guard
B. PIM snooping
C. multicast filtering
D. IGMP snooping
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 323
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the Internet. If ADSL-R1 uses a
PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure OSPF on the connection between PC1 and HomeS1.
B. Configure the same OSPF process on HomeR1 and HomeS1.
C. Configure an MTU of 1492 on the dialer interface on ADSL-R1.
D. Replace the dialer interface with a virtual template.
E. Configure a system MTU of 1512 on ADSL-R1.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 324
Refer to the exhibit. Which kind of ICMPv6 packet is shown in the output?
A. time exceeded
B. router advertisement
C. neighbor solicitation
D. neighbor advertisement
E. router discovery
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 325
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the
ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the
ABR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to
the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to
the ASBR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to
the ASBR.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 326
Which two statements about the Cisco Express Forwarding glean adjacency type are true? (Choose two.)
A. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix check is skipped.
B. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix is checked.
C. Packets destined for the interface can be dropped, which provide a form of access filtering.
D. The adjacency database is used to gather specific prefixes when packets are destined to a specific host.
E. The router FIB table maintains a prefix for the subnet instead of individual hosts.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 327
When EIGRP Auto-Summary is enabled, what does Auto Summarization do in EIGRP?
A. Summarize networks from the same network boundaries
B. Summarizes networks from different network boundaries crossing the same major boundary
C. Summarizes all network boundaries
D. Summarizes networks from different network boundaries Crossing different major boundary
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 328
In which environment in uRPF in strict mode most appropriate?
A. When traffic may traverse a default route.
B. When asymmetric routing is a concern.
C. On a subnet comprised of end stations.
D. When the destination IP address must traverse a specific interface.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 329
Which statement about the BGP scope of the cost community is true?
A. It is shared with IBGP and confederation peers.
B. It is shared with IBGP and EBGP neighbors.
C. It is shared with IBGP neighbors and route reflectors.
D. It is shared with EBGP neighbors only.
E. It is shared with IBGP neighbors only.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 330
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
B. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
C. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
D. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 331
Which two configurations must you perform on a router so that you can use SCP to send configuration files to
an external server? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the login local command under the VTY lines
B. Define a domain-name
C. Configure the crypto key encrypt rsa command
D. Configure the ip scp server enable command
E. Configure the ip ssh version 2 command
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 332
Which type of access-list will allow incoming traffic for sessions that originated from within your network?
A. time-based ACLs
B. dynamic ACLs
C. reflexive ACLs
D. standard ACLs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 333
How can you reduce latency on a VoIP network?
A. Implement a congestion-avoidance algorithm.
B. Implement low-latency queuing.
C. Configure an SLA to collect information on packets loss.
D. Implement fast retransmission.
E. Set the IP SLA timeout to 1000 milliseconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 334
Which QoS policy is recommended to support an MPLS network with six classes?
A. map DSCP bits into the EXP field
B. map IP precedence bits into the DSCP field
C. map Flow-label bits into the Exp field
D. map IP CoS bits into the IP Precedence field
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 335
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the 192.168.23.0/24 prefix are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only router 192.168.45.4 is a feasible successor.
B. Only router 192.168.35.3 is a feasible successor.
C. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are successors.
D. Router 192.168.35.3 is the only successor.
E. Routers 192.168.35.3 and 192.168.45.4 are feasible successors.
F. Router 192.168.45.4 cannot act as a feasible successor.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 336
Which statement about MAC Authentication Bypass is true?
A. It can initiate after 802.1X authentication times out.
B. It uses the ARP and MAC tables to authenticate users.
C. It relies on Cisco Discovery Protocol to learn MAC addresses.
D. It authenticated by using MAC addresses when a switch port is turned up.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 337
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the purpose of the as-set argument of the aggregate-address
command?
A. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that contains only the local AS number.
B. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that includes the AS numbers of the component
members.
C. It provides predefines AS path in the aggregate advertisement that is used to indicate an aggregate prefix.
D. It provides a list of AS numbers top which the aggregate is advertised.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 338
Refer to the exhibit. What tag will be applied to the 172.16.130.0/24 route?
A. 10
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 339
Which two statements about single-hub DMVPN are true? (Choose two.)
A. Two spokes that are behind different NAT devices that both use PAT can establish a spoke-to-spoke
connection.
B. DMVPN networks support GRE tunnel keepalives on point-to-point GRE tunnels.
C. Dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnel connections support IKE certificates for ISAKMP authentication.
D. DMVPN networks support GRE tunnel keepalives on multipoint GRE tunnels.
E. Each DMVPN spoke requires a unique IP address after NAT translation.
F. Cisco best practices recommend that dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnel connections use wildcard preshared
keys for ISAKMP authentication
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 340
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured with an IP helper address on Gi0/0/0 and it is sharing routes with R1 using
OSPF. If PC1 is configured to request an IP address from the DHCP server, which two statements correctly
describe communications between the devices on the network? (Choose two.)
A. PC1 sends DHCPREQUEST messages to IP address 255.255.255.255
B. R1 forwards DHCPREQUEST messages to IP address 172.16.1.100
C. R1 forwards DHCPDISCOVER messages to IP address 255.255.255.255
D. PC1 sends DHCPDISCOVER messages to IP address 255.255.255.255
E. R1 forwards DHCPOFFER messages to IP address 172.16.1.100
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 341
Which type of IPv6 address is 2001:DB8::FFF:FFF/32?
A. host address
B. multicast address
C. anycast address
D. broadcast address
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 342
Refer to the exhibit. Which change must you make to this configuration to enable the router to participate in a
DR election?
A. Remove authentication
B. Increase the OSPF priority for the interface
C. Configure the interface to be in area 0
D. Change the OSPF network type
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 343
Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent? (Choose two.)
A. The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
B. The routers must be in the same area.
C. The router must share a common process ID.
D. The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
E. The routers must share a common network segment.
F. The router must be in different areas.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 344
Which two statement about NAT are true? (Choose two.)
A. Static NAT release the translated address for use by another device when it is inactive
B. PAT uses destination port numbers identity address mappings
C. Static NAT supports a one-to-one address mapping
D. One-to-one mapping denies outside traffic from accessing an inside host
E. Dynamic NAT allows hosts inside network to use a pool of addresses to access hosts outside the network
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 345
Which two statements about route summarization are true? (Choose two.)
A. Routes are automatically summarized to their classful boundary with OSPF
B. EIGRP learned routes are automatically summarized
C. When a packet is routed to a destination, the router chooses the most specific prefix from the routing table
D. BGP sends both specific and aggregate routes unless the keyword “summary-only” is configured
E. It is recommended for use on discontiguous networks
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 346
What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows?
A. throughput
B. loss
C. delay
D. reachability
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 347
Refer to the exhibit. If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the
master NTP server?
A. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
B. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
C. R2
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 348
What command can you enter on a Cisco router so that it can both poll a time server and be polled by a time
server?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp server
C. ntp broadcast destination
D. ntp broadcast client
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 349
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?
A. R1 learned about the NHRP mapping from a registration request.
B. The registration request had the same flag set.
C. Duplicate mapping in the NHRP cache is prevented.
D. Authentication was used for the mapping.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 350
Which option describes the purpose of the no ip next-hop-self eigrp configuration line in DMVPN deployment?
A. It enables EIGRP to dynamically assign the next hop value based on the EIGRP database.
B. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRP updates to the spoke router.
C. It preserves the original next hop values as learned by the hub routers.
D. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRP updates to the hub router.
E. It preserves the original next hop value as learned by the spoke routers.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 351
Which two statements about MSDP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses UDP to establish peering sessions.
B. All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common RP.
C. It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RP addresses.
D. It uses 32-bit anycast RP address
E. It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain.
F. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 352
Which method can an IPv6 host use to learn the RP in an IPv6 multicast-enabled network.
A. It receives an advertisement through MGBP
B. It receives it as part of the DHCP scope
C. It uses Auto-RP
D. It extracts it from the multicast address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 353
What does reverse path forwarding ensure in a multicast network?
A. It ensure that the source of the multicast can forward the multicast stream.
B. It ensured a loop-free multicast network.
C. It ensures that multicast hosts can join the intended multicast groups.
D. It ensures that any multicast host can receive the multicast stream.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 354
A. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that is used for unique local sources only.
B. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that can be used for BIDIR-PIM only.
C. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with embedded RP.
D. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with link-local scope.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 355
Which IS-IS feature allows an IS-IS router to determine a prefix without performing an SPF computation?
A. Partial Route Computation
B. Isp-gen interval command
C. overload bit
D. SPF throttling
E. isis retransmit-throttle-interval command
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 356
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can measure MOS
B. It is Layer 2 transport-independent
C. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
D. It uses active traffic monitoring
E. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 357
Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?
A. CMP Echo
B. UDP Jitter for VoIP
C. UDP Jitter
D. CMP Path Echo
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 358
Which two options are two problems that Bridge Assurance can protect against? (Choose two.)
A. Unidirectional link failures.
B. Slow convergence time after a topology change.
C. BPDU flooding.
D. Ports being put into a root-inconsistent state.
E. The forwarding of data traffic after the spanning tree algorithm is stopped.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 359
Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA
before the interval is set?
A. The LSA is ignored.
B. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet updates
C. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its
LSA packet updates.
D. The LSA is added to the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 360
Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRP stub? (Choose two.)
A. summary
B. default
C. host
D. static
E. connected
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 361
Refer to the exhibit. If the given network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF, includes
external routes, and all routers are currently running both protocols, what action must you perform to complete
the migration?
A. Change the IEGRP Administrative Distance to match the OSPF Administrative Distance, wait until all
routers are present, and then change EIGRP Administrative Distance back to the default value.
B. Change the OSPF Administrative Distance to 91, wait until all routers are present, and then change it back
the default value.
C. Change the OSPF Administrative Distance to 172, wait until all routers are present, and then change it back
to the default value.
D. Change the EIGRP Administrative Distance to 111, wait until all routers are presents, and then change it
back to the default value.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 362
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this route table are true? (Choose two.)
A. The OSPF routes with E2 flag retain the same metric as they leave the router.
B. The OSPF routes with the IA flag have their administrative distances incremented as they leave the router.
C. The BGP routes are internal.
D. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag have their metrics incremented as they leave the router.
E. The BGP routes are external.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 363
Which DHCP message type does the DHCP server send to client to confirm its allocated IP address?
A. DHCPACK
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPREQUEST
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 364
Which two options are valid IPv6 extension header types? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic Class
B. Encapsulating security Payload
C. Flow Label
D. Mobility
E. Version
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 365
How can you protect a device from DoS attacks directed against its terminal and management ports?
A. Configure the max-login-attempts command on the terminal and management ports
B. Configure TCP keepalives on the terminal and management ports
C. Enable AAA local authentication on the terminal and management ports
D. Reserve a terminal or management port with a highly restrictive ACL
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 366
Which two methods are used to configure an RP in a PIM-SM network? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. BSR
C. SSM
D. Auto-RP
E. PIM-DM
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 367
Which statement about Cisco StackWise technology is true?
A. Only the master switch acts as a forwarding processor
B. Every switch in a stack has its own independent and uncoordinated configuration file
C. All switches in a stack share configuration and routing information to behave as a single unit
D. Removing switches can affect stack performance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 368
Which BGP feature allows a router to maintain its current BGP configuration while it advertises a different AS
number to new connections?
A. allow-AS in
B. next-hop-self
C. soft reset
D. local-AS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 369
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. It prevents the device from falling back to dense mode.
B. It sets the TTL for discovery messages to 60 hops.
C. It creates an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60.
D. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
E. It configures the router as the rendezvous point.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 370
Which routing protocol is used on PE routers to exchange VPNv4 routes?
A. MP-BGP
B. OSPFv3
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 371
Which two statements about marking fields are true? (Choose two.)
A. The ToS 6 bits are in the IP header.
B. The Frame Relay DE field is in the IP header and is 1 bit long.
C. The 3 priority bits are in 802.1Q/P.
D. The IP Precedence field is in the IP header and is 4 bits long.
E. The IP DSCP field is in the IP header and is 6 bits long.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 372
Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0?
A. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address.
B. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.
C. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.
D. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 373
Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
A. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix
B. Sites use addresses from link-local scope
C. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels
D. They are point-to-point tunnels
E. They rely on GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 374
What command can you configure on a router so that traffic generated from the router is policy-routed?
A. ip policy
B. ip local policy
C. ip route-map
D. ip-route-cache policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 375
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address 0.0.0.0
0.0.0.0?
A. It is configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers
B. It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
C. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router
D. it is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 376
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to the master controller at the border router to
provide authentication? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 377
Which three steps are required to enable SSH access on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
A. configuring the version of SSH
B. generating an AES or SHA cryptographic key
C. configuring a domain name
D. configuring the port for SSH to listen for connections
E. configuring VTY lines for use with SSH
F. generating an RSA or DSA cryptographic key
Correct Answer: CEF

Explanation
QUESTION 378
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?
A. 255
B. 128
C. 64
D. 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 379
Which three statements about the route preference of IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)
A. Within each level of metric support, the path with the lowest metric is preferred.
B. An L1 path is preferred over an L2 path.
C. The Cisco IS-IS implementation usually performs equal cost path load balancing on up to eight paths.
D. Both L1 and L2 routes will be installed in the routing table at the same time.
E. An L2 path is preferred over an L1 path.
F. Within each level, a path that supports optional metrics is preferred over a path that supports only the
default metric.
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation
QUESTION 380
Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. NSAP selector
C. domain ID
D. system ID
E. MAC address
F. area ID
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 381
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each IPv6 migration method from the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 382
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type on the left to the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 383
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left into the priority order in which the attributes are preferred when
determining the best path on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 384
DRAG DROP
Drag each OSPF route-type identifier on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 385
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each BGP feature on the left to the corresponding function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 386
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on the
right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 387
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the multiprotocol BGP feature on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 388
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the PPPoE packet type on the left to the corresponding description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 389
DRAG DROP
What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process? Drag the actions on the left to the correct
initialization step on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 390
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 391
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 392
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 393
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 394
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 395
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 396
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 397
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS term on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 398
Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)
A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
C. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP, VRRP, or
GLBP.
D. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.
E. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 399
Which action can you take to avoid suboptimal routing on an EIGRP network?
A. Use tags to filter routes outbound.
B. Summarize outbound prefixes.
C. Redistribute connected and static routes.
D. Use the distribute-list command to filter routes inbound.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 400
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue, you executed a traceroute that returned the
given output. Which conclusion can you draw about the problem?
A. An ACL is blocking traffic.
B. The PDUs transmitted errors.
C. The destination is too busy.
D. Packets are being fragmented.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 401
Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to
a single IP address. Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local
router?
A. ip flow-top-talkers
B. ip accounting
C. NetFlow can export flows only to an external flow collector
D. show ip cache flow
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 402
Which IPv6 first-hop security feature blocks traffic sourced from IPv6 addresses that are outside the prefix
gleaned from router advertisements?
A. IPv6 DHCP guard
B. IPv6 source guard
C. IPv6 prefix guard
D. IPv6 RA guard
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 403
Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed.
B. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer.
C. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state.
D. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface.
E. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally.
F. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state.
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 404
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each SNMP term on the left to the matching definition on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 405
In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular
VRF but then configuring a nonidentical RD across multiple PE devices?
A. The routes are not sent to any remote PE with a different RD.
B. The routes propagate to the remote PE, but the PE never installs them in its forwarding table.
C. The routes are correctly managed by the control plane, but there are instances where routes take up twice
as much memory.
D. The routes are rejected by the remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 406
Which two options are the main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two.)
A. Active Discovery Phase
B. Negotiation Phase
C. IKE Phase
D. PPP Session Phase
E. Main Mode Phase
F. Aggressive Mode Phase
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 407
Which two statements about VRF-Lite are true? (Choose two.)
A. Two or more VRFs can be assigned to a single Layer 3 interface.
B. A single customer VRF can support overlapping IP addresses.
C. Multiple ISP customers can be supported on one customer edge device.
D. At least one physical interface must be configured to enable a VRF.
E. An isolated VRF routing table is created for each VRF.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 408
Refer to the exhibit. When traffic marked as CoS 5 arrives on the switch, what DSCP value does the switch
apply?
A. 0
B. 32
C. 40
D. 46
E. 48
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 409
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?
A. It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
B. It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C. It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.
D. It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 410
Which two statements about route poisoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. It prohibits a route from being advertised out an interface from which it was learned.
B. It is supported on RIP, IGRIP, and EIGRP networks.
C. It is used with distance-vector routing protocols.
D. In RIP, a metric of 15 is assigned to the route.
E. It can be used in conjunction with holddowns to prevent routing loops.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 411
Which information is contained in an OSPF Type 1 Router LSA?
A. The router’s interfaces (links) on which OSPF is enabled, the state and outgoing cost of each link, and the
OSPF neighbors on each link.
B. The Autonomous System Border Routers (ASBR) for the OSPF network and the cost of the path to reach
each ASBR.
C. The Area Border Routers (ABR) for the area and the cost of the path to each ABR.
D. The OSPF neighboring routers and the cost of the outgoing link to reach each neighbor.
E. The network links to all known OSPF routers and the cost of each path.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 412
Refer to the exhibit. Which part of the joined group addresses list indicates that the interface has joined the
EIGRP multicast group address?
A. FF02::A
B. FF02::1:FF00:200
C. FF02::2
D. FF02::1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 413
What is the Modified EUI-64 value corresponding to MAC address 0032.F4C5.7781 as used in IPv6?
A. 0032.F4C5.7781.FFFE
B. 0032.F4FF.FEC5.7781
C. FFFE.0032.F4C5.7781
D. C577.81FF.FE00.32F4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 414
When you implement PfR, which IP SLA probe is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. packet loss
C. latency
D. jitter
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 415
Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)
A. Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.
B. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.1 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and
permit everything else.
C. Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.
D. Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
E. Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
F. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.10 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and
permit everything else.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 416
Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet.
B. In IPv6 routers perform fragmentation.
C. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer.
D. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation.
E. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity.
F. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 417
Which two options are requirements for Control-Plane Policing? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled in the control plane.
B. A loopback address must be configured for device access.
C. A crypto policy must be installed.
D. A class map must be configured to identify traffic.
E. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled globally.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 418
What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of a port?
A. the lowest MAC address on the switch
B. the same as the MAC address in the bridge ID
C. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU
D. the highest MAC address on the switch
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 419
Refer to the exhibit. This router is advertising which routes via BGP?
A. no routes
B. all BGP routes from AS 65006
C. all routes
D. BGP routes that originated from AS 65006 and BGP routes that originated on this router
E. BGP routes that originated on this router
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 420
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has an OSPF path to R2 and R3 for 10.1.0.0/24, but R1 has a routing entry for
10.1.0.0/24 from only one router at a time. Which option is the most likely cause?
A. The R1 maximum-path is set to 1.
B. R3 is using a filter list.
C. R2 is using an offset-list.
D. R3 has a higher administrative distance.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 421
Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a packet that the
path is sub-optimal?
A. ip nhrp shortcut
B. ip nhrp set-unique-bit
C. ip nhrp cost 65535
D. ip nhrp record
E. ip nhrp redirect
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 422
Which command can you enter to configure a built-in policer with minimum guaranteed bandwidth without
starving other classes during periods of congestion?
A. priority percent
B. fair-queue
C. bandwidth remaining percent
D. bandwidth
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 423
When the BGP additional-paths feature is used, what allows a BGP speaker to differentiate between the
different available paths?
A. The remote BGP peer prepends its own next-hop address to the prefix.
B. A route distinguisher is appended to the prefix by the receiving BGP speaker.
C. A unique path identifier is encoded into a dedicated field to the NLRI.
D. The additional path information is encoded in an extended community.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 424
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each EIGRP packet type from the left onto the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 425
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 have been configured as BGP neighbors, but their session is stuck in active.
Which action can you take that will enable a session to be established?
A. Configure a neighbor relationship with the Loopback0 address of R1 on R2.
B. Enable synchronization on R1 and R2.
C. Issue the neighbor 10.1.12.2 activate command on R1.
D. Configure 10.1.12.1 as the BGP router ID on R1.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 426
Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it?
A. a designated port
B. a blocked port
C. an alternate port
D. a root port
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 427
Which two options are interface requirements for turbo flooding? (Choose two.)
A. The interface is configured for ARPA encapsulation.
B. The interface is configured for GRE encapsulation.
C. The interface is Ethernet.
D. The interface is configured for 802.1Q encapsulation.
E. The interface is PPP.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 428
Which two options are purposes of MSDP SA filtering? (Choose two.)
A. to allow all SA messages to be processed by MSDP peers
B. to reduce the number of multicast addresses that are shared to MSDP peers
C. to reduce the number of multicast addresses that are distributed to other devices in the same multicast
domain
D. to allow the filtering of IGMP messages between peers
E. to improve the scalability of an MSDP multicast environment
F. to allow the filtering of PIM messages between peers
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 429
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each NAT64 description from the left onto the corresponding NAT64 type on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 430
Which two statements about the passive-interface command issued under EIGRP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It allows incoming routing updates to be received but disables outgoing routing updates.
B. It disables processing of incoming hello messages.
C. It configures the interface to use unicast messages to establish EIGRP neighbor relationships.
D. If it is enabled globally under EIGRP on the device, it can be disabled for individual interfaces to allow those
interfaces to remain active.
E. It configures the device to advertise only connected interfaces to neighbors with EIGRP.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 431
Which two statements about the host address 10.88.100.10/13 are true? (Choose two.)
A. The broadcast address is 10.88.255.255.
B. The network address is 10.88.0.0
C. The broadcast address is 10.95.255.255.
D. The network address is 10.64.0.0
E. The broadcast address is 10.64.255.255
F. The network address is 10.88.100.0
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 432
Refer to the exhibit. An IPv6 tunnel is configured between site A and site B. Which feature does the tunnel
support?
A. site-to-site tunnel mode
B. OSPFv2
C. single policy
D. transport mode
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 433
On a network using DiffServ, which option refers to the actions that are applied to a packet as it moves through
the network?
A. DSCP
B. PHB
C. IP-precedence
D. Codepoint
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 434
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder?
A. HTTP
B. ICMP Echo
C. UDP Echo
D. DNS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 435
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the functionality of this configuration is true?
A. The router does not accept nonself-generated LSAs once a maximum of 19,000 is reached, unless the
router is an ABR.
B. The router does not accept nonself-generated LSAs once a maximum of 19,000 is reached, unless the
router is an ASBR.
C. The router does not accept nonself-generated LSAs once a maximum of 19,000 is reached.
D. The router does not accept nonself-generated LSAs once a maximum of 19,000 is reached, unless the
router is in area 0.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 436
Which command configures port security on a switch to enable permanent MAC address learning on the
interface?
A. switchport port-security mac-address permanent

B. switchport port-security mac-address-learning enable
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. switchport port-security mac-address timer 0
E. switchport port-security mac-address maximum 1 sticky
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 437
Which three criteria are used for StackWise election of a master switch? (Choose three.)
A. IOS version number
B. longest uptime
C. highest MAC address
D. lowest MAC address
E. VLAN revision number
F. user-selected priority
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 438
If EIGRP and OSPF are configured within an administrative domain for the same network, which value can you
change so that OSPF becomes the installed routing protocol for all routes?
A. metric
B. local preference
C. administrative distance
D. MED
E. prefix length
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 439
In a DMVPN solution, which component can the GRE tunnel source and destination generate automatically?
A. QoS markings
B. pre-shared keys
C. policy maps
D. crypto ACLs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 440
What feature can a device use to identify other members of the same IPv6 multicast group on a network
segment?
A. MLD
B. MSDP
C. rendezvous points
D. source-specific multicast
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 441
Which statement about STP port states is true?
A. Listening and learning are transitory port states that use the forward delay timer.
B. A port in the blocking state remains in that state for 30 seconds before transitioning to the listening state.
C. When a port transitions to the learning state, it can send and receive data frames.
D. A port in the blocking state learns addresses and receives BPDUs.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 442
442 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NHRP flag on the left to the corresponding meaning on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 443
When is it most important to implement multiple synonymous area addresses on an IS-IS network?
A. when an IS-IS router is merging routing information
B. when merging or splitting areas in the IS-IS domain
C. when splitting areas in the IS-IS domain
D. when integrating an IS-IS Layer 2 router with another routing protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 444
DRAG DROP
Drag each statement about VPN technologies on the left to the matching VPN technology on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 445
Refer to the exhibit. According to the given show line output, which type of line is connected to the router?
A. console
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. terminal
E. auxiliary
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.1)

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Section: Network Principles

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Section: Layer 2 Technologies

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Section: VPN Technologies

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