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GATE

Computer Science & Information Technology


Masterpiece with 10 Practice Sets
EBD_7203
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CONTENTS
• Solved Paper 2017 [Set-1] 2017-1-20

• Solved Paper 2017 [Set-2] 2017-21-40

• Solved Paper 2016 [Set-1] 2016-1-12

• Solved Paper 2016 [Set-2] 2016-13-24

• Solved Paper 2015 [Set-1] 2015-1-14

• Solved Paper 2015 [Set-2] 2015-15-28

• Solved Paper 2015 [Set-3] 2015-29-44

Section 1 - General Aptitude S1 (1-124)

Part A - Verbal Ability S1(1-54)

1. English Grammar 1 - 14
2. Sentence Completion 15 - 22
3. Synonyms & Antonyms 23 - 34
4. Verbal Analogies / Contexual Usage 35 - 42
5. Critical Reasoning & Verbal Deduction 43 - 54

Part B - Numerical Ability S1 (55-124)

1. Number System 55 - 66
2. Algebra 67 - 78
3. Percentage & Its Applications 79 - 86
4. Time, Work, Speed and Distance 87 - 100
5. Ratio, Proportion, Partnership and Mixtures (Aligations) 101 - 112
6. Permutation and Combination & Probability 113 - 124

Section 2 - ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS (1-132)


S2

1. Mathematical Logic 1 - 10

2. Probability 11 - 28

3. Set Theory & Algebra 29 - 46

4. Combinations 47 - 56
EBD_7203
5. Graph Theory 57 - 66

6. Linear Algebra 67 - 90

7. Numerical Methods 91 - 102

8. Calculus 103 - 132

Section 3 - TECHNICAL SECTION (1-599)


S3

1. Digital Logic 1 - 46

2. Computer Organization and Architecture 47 - 118

3. Programming and Data Structures 119 - 200

4. Algorithm Analysis 201 - 238

5. Theory of Computation 239 - 288

6. Compiler Design 289 - 348

7. Operating System 349 - 414

8. Databases 415 - 476

9. Information System and Software Engineering 477 - 514

10. Computer Networks 515 - 568

11. Miscellaneous Topics 569- 599

6 PAPER BASED PRACTICE SETS PS (1-72)


1. Practice Set-1 PS-1 - PS-12

2. Practice Set-2 PS-13 - PS-24

3. Practice Set-3 PS-25 - PS-36

4. Practice Set-4 PS-37 - PS-48

5. Practice Set-5 PS-49 - PS-60

6. Practice Set-6 PS-61 - PS-72

4 ONLINE PRACTICE SETS


PREFACE
With an aim to provide the best possible material to the students to prepare for the GATE, GATE Masterpiece is a one
of its kind for the preparation of Computer Science & Information Technology Exams and a result of many years of
research. The unique feature of this book is that it has Numerical Answer Type Questions which have been added by
the IITs. Also, book has come with 10 practice sets on the Gate pattern.

The key idea, which allows this book to deal with a wide range of content related to the CS & IT Exams along with
covering each and every topic, is based on the syllabus introduced by IIT for GATE. Covering 100% topics of the
syllabus for CS & IT Exam, the content of this book includes an extended version of a collection of exhaustive theory,
past year questions, practice problems and 10 practice sets.

In writing this book, we have assumed that readers are well acquainted with the very basic concepts of Computer
Architecture, Programming, Theory of Computation, Algorithms, etc. Drafted in compliance with GATE syllabus by
qualified and experienced professionals, this book has questions of previous 13 years of GATE examinations. Having
100-150 questions in each unit with detailed solutions, this book in helpful in practicing and preparing for the exams
in an effective manner within the shortest span of time.

Structured approach, Introduction of Concepts in Simple Terms, Fundamental Principles in Context of Simple
Application and Accuracy were our main objectives that we aimed while writing this book. In order to make sure that
the students get well prepared for the exams, we have divided into three section.

Students who read this book will gain a basic understanding of principles, problems and solutions, including an
introduction to the format of GATE exam.

1. General Aptitude - Covering Verbal Ability and Numerical Ability


2. Engineering Mathematics
3. Technical Section
4. 10 offline & online Practice Sets

SUPPLEMENTS: Online Tests which contains 4 Practice Sets designed exactly on the exact pattern of GATE exam.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

Special thanks go to our team which has given its best possible effort to prepare such a book, thoroughly checked
the solutions, so as to eliminate any possibility of error.

However, some errors may have crept in, so feedbacks from the readers regarding the same are highly appreciated.

Author
EBD_7203
Syllabus for Computer Science &
Information Technology
SECTION I : GENERAL APTITUDE(GA) Memory hierarchy: cache, main memory and secondary
storage; I/O interface (interrupt and DMA mode).
Programming and Data Structures ____________
Verbal Ability: _____________________________
Programming in C. Recursion. Arrays, stacks, queues,
English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, linked lists, trees, binary search trees, binary heaps,
word groups, instructions, critical reasoning and verbal graphs.
deduction.
Algorithms ________________________________
Numerical Ability: __________________________
Searching, sorting, hashing. Asymptotic worst case time
Numerical computation, numerical estimation,
and space complexity. Algorithm design techniques:
numerical reasoning and data interpretation.
greedy, dynamic programming and divide and conquer.
Graph search, minimum spanning trees, shortest paths.
SECTION II : ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS Theory of Computation _____________________
Regular expressions and finite automata. Context-free
Engineering Mathematics: ___________________ grammars and push-down automata. Regular and contex-
Discrete Mathematics: Propositional and first order logic. free languages, pumping lemma. Turing machines and
Sets, relations, functions, partial orders and lattices. undecidability.
Groups. Graphs: connectivity, matching, coloring. Compiler Design ____________________________
Combinatorics: counting, recurrence relations, Lexical analysis, parsing, syntax-directed translation.
generating functions. Runtime environments. Intermediate code generation.
Linear Algebra: Matrices, determinants, system of linear Operating System __________________________
equations, eigenvalues and eigenvectors, LU
Processes, threads, inter process communication,
decomposition.
concurrency and synchronization. Deadlock. CPU
Calculus: Limits, continuity and differentiability. Maxima
scheduling. Memory management and virtual memory.
and minima. Mean value theorem. Integration.
File systems.
Probability: Random variables. Uniform, normal,
exponential, poisson and binomial distributions. Mean, Databases _________________________________
median, mode and standard deviation. Conditional ER-model. Relational model: relational algebra, tuple
probability and Bayes theorem. calculus, SQL. Integrity constraints, normal forms. File
organization, indexing (e.g., B and B+ trees). Transactions
and concurrency control.
SECTION III : TECHNICAL SECTION
Computer Networks ________________________
Concept of layering. LAN technologies (Ethernet). Flow
Digital Logic _______________________________
and error control techniques, switching. IPv4/IPv6,
Boolean algebra. Combinational and sequential circuits. routers and routing algorithms (distance vector, link
Minimization. Number representations and computer
state). TCP/UDP and sockets, congestion control.
arithmetic (fixed and floating point).
Application layer protocols (DNS, SMTP, POP, FTP, HTTP).
Computer Organization and Architecture ______ Basics of Wi-Fi. Network security: authentication, basics
Machine instructions and addressing modes. ALU, of public key and private key cryptography, digital
data ]path and control unit. Instruc on pipelining. signatures and certificates, firewalls.
TOPIC WISE NUMBER OF QUESTIONS ANALYSIS
Gate Computer Science & Information Technology (2005-17)

Subject 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017

General Aptitude - - - - - - 10 10 10 10 10 10 10

Engg. Mathematics 18 14 15 18 10 11 6 6 6 8 6 11 11

TECHNICAL SECTION

Digital Logic 9 6 8 5 2 5 5 4 4 3 2 5 3

Computer Organization
13 7 8 12 6 5 7 6 8 4 4 3 8
and Architecture
Programming and Data
8 6 4 4 4 8 5 8 6 8 8 8 7
Structures

Algorithm Analysis 12 15 15 17 9 4 8 6 8 7 7 4 3

Theory of Computation 7 8 7 9 7 4 6 5 3 4 4 6 4

Compiler Design 6 6 6 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 5 3 4

Operating system 2 9 8 7 7 5 5 4 2 5 5 5 4

Databases 7 5 6 6 5 5 3 6 5 5 4 4 5

Information System and


- - - - - - 6 0 2 1 3 - -
Software Engineering

Computer Networks 9 11 14 9 5 8 3 6 5 6 5 6 6

Web Technologies - - - - - - - - 2 1 2 - -
EBD_7203
2017
SET - 1
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.

2. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions. The GA section consists of 10 questions.

3. Questions are of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) or Numerical Answer type. A multiple choice question will have
four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3

5. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

TECHNICAL n
where A = [a1.......an] and b = å ai . The set of equations has
QUESTION 1 TO 25 CARRY ONE MARK EACH i =1
(a) a unique solution at x = Jn where Jn denotes a n -
1. The statement (Ø p) Þ (Ø q) is logically equivalent to dimensional vector of all 1
which of the statements below? (b) no solution
I. p Þ q II. q Þ p (c) infinitely many solutions
III. (Ø q) Ú p IV. (Ø p) Ú q (d) finitely many solutions
(a) I only (b) I and IV only 4. Consider the following functions from positive integers to
(c) II only (d) II and III only real numbers:
2. Consider the first-order logic sentence F: " x ( $ y R(x,y)). 100
Assuming non-empty logical domains. which of the 10, n , n , log2 n, .
n
sentences below are implied by F?
The CORRECT arrangement of the above functions in
I. $ y ( $ y R(x, y)) II. $ y ( " x R(x, y)) increasing order of asymptotic complexity is:
III. " y ( $ x R(x, y)) IV. Ø $ x ( " y Ø R(x, y))
100
(a) IV only (b) I and IV only (a) log2 n, , 10, n,n
(c) II only (d) II and III only n
100
n (b) , 10, log2n, n,n
3. Let C1.......Cn be scalars not all zero, such that å ci ai =0 n
i =1 100
(c) 10, , n , log2 n, n
where ai are column vectors in Rn. Consider the set of n
linear equations 100
Ax = b (d) , log2 n, 10, n,n
n
EBD_7203
2017 -2 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
5. Consider the following table: 10. Consider the following context-free grammar over the
alphabet å = {a, b, c} with S as the start symbol:
Algorithms Design Paradigms
S ® abScT | abcT
(P) Kruskal (i) Divide and Conquer
(Q) Quicksort (ii) Greedy
T ® bT | b
(R) Floyd-Warshall (iii) Dynamic Programming
Which one of the following represents the language
generated by the above grammar?
Match the algorithms to the design paradigms they are (a) {(ab)n(cb)n ] n ³ 1}
based on.
(a) (P) « (ii), (Q) « (iii), (R) « (i) (b) {(ab)n cb m1 cb m2 ... cb mn | n, m1 m2 ..., mn ³ 1}
(c) {(ab)n (cbm)n | m, n ³1}
(b) (P) « (iii), (Q) « (i), (R)« (ii)
(d) {(ab)n(cbn)m | m,n ³ 1}
(c) (P) « (ii), (Q) « (i), (R) « (iii)
(d) (P) « (i), (Q) « (ii), (R) « (iii) 11. Consider the C struct, defined below:
6. Let T be a binary search tree with 15 nodes. The minimum struct data {
and maximum possible heights of T are: int marks [100];
Note: The height of a tree with a single node is 0. char grade;
(a) 4 and 15 respectively int cnumber;
(b) 3 and 14 respectively };
(c) 4 and 14 respectively struct, data student;
(d) 3 and 15 respectively The base address of student is available in register Rl. The
7. The n-bit fixed-point representation of an unsigned real field student grade can be accessed efficiently using
number X uses /bits for the fraction part. Let i = n — f. The (a) Post-increment addressing mode, (Rl)+
range of decimal values for X in this representation is
(b) Pre-decrement addressing mode, – (Rl)
(a) 2–f to 2i
(c) Register direct addressing mode, Rl
(b) 2–f to (2i – 2–f)
(c) 0 to 2i (d) Index addressing mode. X(R1), where X is an offset
(d) 0 to (2i – 2–f) represented in 2’s complement 16- bit representation.
8. Consider the C code fragment given below. 12. Consider the following intermediate program in three address
typedef struct node { code
int data ; P= a – b
node* next; q= P*c
} node ; P= u * v
void join (node* m, node* n){ q=p+q
node* p = n; Which one of the following corresponds to a static single
while (p – > next != NULL) { assignment form of the above code?
p = p– > next ;
(a) p1 = a – b (b) p3 = a – b
}
q1 = p1 * c q4 = p3 * c
p– > next – m ;
} p1 = u * v p4 = u * v
Assuming that m and n point to Valid NULL-terminated q1 = p1 + q1 q5 = p4 + q4
linked lists, invocation of join will
(a) append list m to the end of list n for all inputs. (c) p1 = a – b (d) p1 = a – b
(b) either cause a null pointer dereference or append list q1 = p2 * c q1 = p * c
m to the end of list n. p3 = u * v p2 = u * v
(c) cause a null pointer dereference for all inputs. q2 = p4 + q3 q2 = P + q
(d) append list n to the end of list m for all inputs.
9. When two 8-bit numbers A7 ... A0 and B7 ... B0 in 2’s 13. Consider the following C code:
complement representation (with A0 and B 0 as the least #include < stdio.h >
significant bits) are added using a ripple-carry adder, the
int *assignval (int *x, int val) {
sum bits obtained are S7 ... S0 and the carry bits are C7 ... C0
*x = val;
. An overflow is said to have occurred if
(a) the carry bit C7 is 1 return x;
(b) all the carry bits ( C7, ..., C0) are 1 }
void main () {
(c) ( A7 . B7 . S7 + A7 . B7 . S7) is 1 int *x = malloc (sizeof (int) ) ;
(d) ( A0 . B0 . S0 + A0 . B0 . S0) is l if (NULL == x) return;
x = assignval(x,0);
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-3

if (x) { (c) V ® W (d) V ® W


x = (int *) malloc (sizeof (int) ) ; V®X W®X
if (NULL == x) return; Y®V Y®V
x = assignval (x, 10) ; Y®X Y®X
} Y®Z Y®Z
printf ( “%d\n” , *x); 17. Consider the following grammar:
free ( x ) ;
} P ® xQRS
The code suffers from which one of the following problems: Q ® yz | z
(a) compiler error as the return of malloc is not typecast R ® w|ε
appropriately S®y
(b) compiler error because the comparison should be
made as x == NULL and not as shown What is FOLLOW(Q)?
(c) compiles successfully but execution may result in (a) {R} (b) {w}
dangling pointer (c) {w, y} (d) {w, $}
(d) compiles successfully but execution may result in 18. Threads of a process share
memory leak (a) global variables but nor heap.
14. Consider a TCP client and a TCP server running on two (b) heap but nor global variables.
different machines. After completing data transfer, the TCP (c) neither global variables nor heap.
client calls close to terminate the connection and a FIN (d) both heap and global variables.
segment is sent to the TCP server. Server-side TCP responds 19. Let X be a Gaussian random variable with mean 0 and
by sending an ACK which is received by the client-side TCP. variance s2. Let Y = max (x, 0) where max (a,b) is the maximum
As per the TCP connection state diagram (RFC 793), in which of a and b . The median of Y is _______.
state does the client-side TCP connection wait for the FIN 20. Let T be a tree with 10 vertices. The sum of the degrees of all
from the server-side TCP? the vertices in T is _______.
(a) LAST-ACK (b) TIME-WAIT 21. Consider the Karnaugh map given below, where X represents
(c) FIN-WAIT-1 (d) FIN-WAIT-2 “don’t care” and blank represents 0.
15. A sender S sends a message m to receiver R. which is digitally
signed by S with its private key. In this scenario, one or more
of the following security violations can take place. ba 00 01 11 10
dc
(I) S can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a
fraudulent message.
00 X X
(II) A third party attacker can launch a birthday attack to
replace m with a fraudulent message.
(III) R can launch a birthday attack to replace m with a 01 1 X
fraudulent message.
Which of the following are possible security violations? 1
11 1
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (II) only 10 X X
(d) (II) and (III) only
16. The following functional dependencies hold true for the Assume for all inputs (a, b, c, d), the respective complements
relational schema R{V,W,XtY,Z}
(a, b, c, d ) are also available. The above logic is implemented
V®W
VW ® X using 2-input NOR gates only. The minimum number of gates
required is _______.
Y ® VX
22. Consider the language L given by the regular expression (a
Y®Z
+ b) *b (a + b) over the alphabet {a.b}. The smallest number
Which of the following is irreducible equivalent for this set of states needed in a deterministic finite-state automaton
of functional dependencies? (DFA) accepting L is _______.
(a) V ® W (b) V ® W 23. Consider a database that has the relation schema EMP
V®X W®X (EmpId. EmpName, and DeptName). An instance of the
Y®V Y®V schema EMP and a SQL query on it are given below.
Y®Z Y®Z
EBD_7203
2017 -4 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
Which of the above statements is/are necessarily true?
EMP (a) (I) only
EmpId EmpName DeptName (b) (II) only
1 XYA AA (c) both (I) and (II)
2 XYB AA (d) neither (I) nor (II)
3 XYC AA 27. A multithreaded program P executes with x number of threads
4 XYD AA and uses y number of locks for ensuring mutual exclusion
5 XYE AB while operating on shared memory locations. All locks in the
6 XYF AB program are non-reentrant, i.e, if a thread holds a lock l, then
7 XYG AB it cannot re-acquire lock l without releasing it. If a thread is
8 AC unable to acquire a lock, it blocks until the lock becomes
XYH
available. The minimum value of x and the minimum value
9 XYI AC
of y together for which execution of P can result in a deadlock
10 XYJ AC are:
11 XYK AD (a) x = 1, y = 2 (b) x = 2, y = l
12 XYL AD (c) x = 2, y = 2 (d) x = l, y = 1
13 XYM AE
x 7 - 2 x5 + 1
28. The value of lim 3
SELECT AVG(EC.Num) x ®1 x - 3 x2 + 2
FROM EC (a) is 0 (b) is-1
WHERE (DeptName, Num) IN (c) is 1 (d) does not exist
(SELECT DeptName, COUNT(Empld) AS 29. Let p, q, and r be propositions and the expression (p ® q)
EC(DeptName, Num) ® r be a contradiction. Then, the expression (r ® p) ® q is
FROM EMP
(a) a tautology.
GROUP BY DeptName)
(b) a contradiction.
The output of executing the SQL query is_______. (c) always TRUE when p is FALSE.
24. Consider the following CPU processes with arrival times (in (d) always TRUE when q is TRUE.
milliseconds) and length of CPU bursts (in milliseconds) as 30. Let u and v be two vectors in R2 whose Euclidean norms
given below : satisfy || u || = 2 || v ||. What is the value of a such that w =
u + av bisects the angle between u and v?
Process Arrival time Burst time (a) 2 (b) 1/2
P1 0 7 (c) 1 (d) –1/2
P2 3 3 31. Let A be n × n real valued square symmetric matrix of rank
P3 5 5 n n
P4 6 2 2 with å å Aij2 = 50 . Consider the following statements.
i =1 j =1
If the pre-emptive shortest remaining time first scheduling
algorithm is used to schedule the processes, then the (I) One eigenvalue must be in [–5, 5]
average waiting time across all processes is _______ (II) The eigenvalue with the largest magnitude must be
milliseconds. strictly greater than 5
25. Consider a two-level cache hierarchy with LI and L2 caches. Which of the above statements about eigenvalues of A is/
An application incurs 1.4 memory accesses per instruction are necessarily CORRECT?
on average. For this application, the miss rate of L1 cache is (a) Both (I) and (II)
0.1; the L2 cache experiences, on average. 7 misses per 1000 (b) (I) only
instructions. The miss rate of L2 expressed correct to two (c) (II) only
decimal places is________. (d) Neither (1) nor (II)
32. A computer network uses polynomials over GF(2) for error
checking with 8 bits as information bits and uses x3 + x + 1 as the
QUESTION 26 TO 55 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH generator polynomial to generate the check bits. In this
network, the message 01011011 is transmitted as
26. Let G = (V, E) be any connected undirected edge-weighted (a) 01011011010 (b) 01011011011
graph. The weights of the edges in E are positive and distinct. (c) 01011011101 (d) 01011011100
Consider the following statements: 33. Consider a combination of T and D flip-flops connected as
(I) Minimum Spanning Tree of G is always unique, shown below. The output of the D flip-flop is connected to
(II) Shortest path between any two vertices of G is always the input of the T flip-flop and the output of the T flip-flop
unique. is connected to the input of the D flip-flop.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-5

37. Consider the context-free grammars over the alphabet {a, b, c}


given below. S and T are non-terminals.
G1: S ® aSb/T, T ® CT|Î
G2 : S ® bSa\T, T ® cT|Î
T Q1 D Q0 The language L(G1) Ç L(G2) is
Flip- Flip- (a) Finite.
Flop Flop (b) Not finite but regular.
(c) Context-Free but not regular.
(d) Recursive but not context-free.
Clock 38. Consider the following languages over the alphabet
Initially, both Q1 and Q1 are set to 1 (before the 1st clock cycle). å = {a, b, c}.
The outputs Let L1 = { an bn cm | m,n ³ 0} and L2 = { am bn cn | m, n ³ 0}.
(a) Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 11 and after the 4th cycle are Which of the following are context-free languages?
00 respectively I. L1 È L2
(b) Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 11 and after the 4th cycle are I. L1 Ç L2
01 respectively (a) I only (b) II only
(c) Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 00 and after the 4th cycle are (c) I and II (d) Neither I nor II
11 respectively 39. Let A and B be finite alphabets and let # be a symbol outside
(d) Q1Q0 after the 3rd cycle are 01 and after the 4th cycle are both A and B. Let f be a total function from A* to B*. We say
01 respectively f is computable if there exists a Turing machine M which
34. If G is a grammar with productions given an input x in A*. always halts with f(x) on its tape. Let
S ® SaS | aSb | bSa | SS | Î Lf denote the language {x # f(x)| x Î A*}. Which of the
where S is the start variable, then which one of the following following statements is true:
strings is not generated by G? (a) f is computable if and only if Lf is recursive.
(a) abab (b) aaab (b) f is computable if and only if L f is recursively
(c) abbaa (d) babba enumerable.
35. Consider The following two functions. (c) If f is computable then L f is recursive, but not
void fun1(int n) { void fun 2 (int n) { conversely.
if (n == 0) return; if (n == 0) return; (d) If f is computable then Lf is recursively enumerable, but
printf (“%d”, n) ; printf (“%d”, n) ; not conversely.
fun2(n - 2); funl ( ++n); 40. Recall that Belady’s anomaly is that the page-fault rate may
printf (“%d”, n); printf (“%d”, n); increase as the number of allocated frames increases. Now,
} } consider the following statements:
The output printed when funl (5) is called is SI : Random page replacement algorithm (where a page
(a) 53423122233445 (b) 53423120112233 chosen at random is replaced) suffers from Belady’s anomaly
(c) 53423122132435 (d) 53423120213243 S2 : LRU page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s
36. Consider the C functions foo and bar given below: anomaly
int foo (int val) { Which of the following is CORRECT?
int x = 0; (a) S1 is true, S2 is true
while (val > 0) { (b) S1 is true, S2 is false
x = x + foo (val--); (c) S1 is false. S2 is true
} (d) SI is false. S2 is false
return val; 41. Consider a database that has the relation schemas
} EMP(EmpId, EmpName, DeptId), and DEPT(DeptName,
int bar (int val) { DeptId). Note that the DeptId can be permitted to be NULL
int x = 0; in the relation EMP. Consider the following queries on the
while (val > 0) { database expressed in tuple relational calculus.
x = x + bar (val–l); (I) {t | $u Î EMP(t[EmpName] = u[EmpName] Ù " vÎ
} DEPT(t[DeptId] ¹ v[DeptId]))}
return val; (II) {t | $u Î EMP(t[EmpName] = u[EmpName] Ù$vÎ
} DEPT(t[DeptId] ¹ v[DeptId]))}
Invocations of foo (3) and bar (3) will result in: (III) {t | $u Î EMP(t[EmpName] = u[EmpName] Ù$vÎ
(a) Return of 6 and 6 respectively. DEPT(t[DeptId] = v[DeptId]))}
(b) Infinite loop and abnormal termination respectively. Which of the above queries are safe?
(c) Abnormal termination and infinite loop respectively. (a) (I) and (II) only (b) (I) and (III) only
(d) Both terminating abnormally. (c) (II) and (III) only (d) (I), (II) and (III)
EBD_7203
2017 -6 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
42. In a database system, unique timestamps are assigned to
each transaction using Lamport’s logical clock. Let TS( T1) CR
and TS(T2) be the timestamps of transactions T1 and T2 StudentName CourseName
respectively. Besides, T1 holds a lock on the resource R and SA CA
T2 has requested a conflicting lock on the same resource R. SA CB
The following algorithm is used to prevent deadlocks in the SA CC
database system assuming that a killed transaction is SB CB
restarted with the same timestamp. SB CC
if TS(T2) < TS(T1) then SC CA
T1 is killed SC CB
else T2 waits. SC CC
Assume any transaction that is not killed terminates SD CA
eventually. Which of the following is true about the database SD CB
system that uses the above algorithm to prevent deadlocks SD CC
? SD CD
(a) The database system is both deadlock-free and SE CD
starvation-free. SE CA
(b) The database system is deadlock-free, but not SE CB
starvation-free. SF CA
(c) The database system is starvation-free, but not SF CB
deadlock-free. SF CC
(d) The database system is neither deadlock-free nor
starvation-free. The following query is made on the database.
43. Consider the following grammar: T1 ¬p CourseName (sStudentName= ‘SA’ (CR))
stmt - > if expr then expr else expr; stmt | o T2 ¬ CR ¸ T1
expr - > term relop term | term The number of rows in T2 is _______.
term - > id | number 47. The number of integers between 1 and 500 (both inclusive) that
id - > a| b|c are divisible by 3 or 5 or 7 is ________.
number - > [0-9] 48. Let A be an array of 31 numbers consisting of a sequence of
where relop is a relational operator (e.g., < , > , ...), o refers to 0’s followed by a sequence of l’s. The problem is to find the
the empty statement, and if, then, else are terminals. smallest index i such that A[i] is 1 by probing the minimum
Consider a program P following the above grammar number of locations in A. The worst case number of probes
containing ten if terminals. The number of control flow paths performed by an optimal algorithm is _____.
in P is ________. For example, the program 49. Consider a RISC machine where each instruction is exactly
if e1 then e2 else e3 4 bytes long. Conditional and unconditional branch
has 2 control flow paths, e1 ® e2 and e1 ® e3. instructions use PC-relative addressing mode with Offset
44. In a RSA cryptosystem, a participant A uses two prime specified in bytes to the target location of the branch
numbers p = 13 and q =17 to generate her public and private instruction. Further the Offset is always with respect to the
keys. If the public key of A is 35, then the private key of A address of the next instruction in the program sequence.
is ________ . Consider the following instruction sequence
45. The values of parameters for the Stop-and-Wait ARQ Instr. No. Instruction
protocol are as given below: i : add R2, R3, R4
Bit rate of the transmission channel = 1 Mbps. i+1: sub R5, R6, R7
Propagation delay from sender to receiver = 0.75 ms. i+2: cmp Rl, R9, R10
Time to process a frame = 0.25 ms. 1+3: beq Rl, Offset
Number of bytes in the information frame = 1980. If the target of the branch instruction is i, then the decimal
Number of bytes in the acknowledge frame = 20. value of the Offset is ______.
Number of overhead bytes in the information frame = 20. 50. Instruction execution in a processor is divided into 5 stages.
Assume that there are no transmission errors. Then, the Instruction Fetch (IF). Instruction Decode (ID). Operand
transmission efficiency (expressed in percentage) of the Fetch (OF). Execute (EX), and Write Back (WB). These
Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol for the above parameters is
stages take 5, 4, 20, 10, and 3 nanoseconds (us) respectively.
_______ (correct to 2 decimal places).
A pipelined implementation of the processor requires
46. Consider a database that has the relation schema
buffering between each pair of consecutive stages with a
CR(StudentName. CourseName). An instance of the schema
delay of 2 ns. Two pipelined implementations of the
CR is as given below.
processor are contemplated:
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-7

(i) a naive pipeline implementation (NP) with 5 stages and void main() {
(ii) an efficient pipeline (EP) where the OF stage is divided static int x = 0;
into stages OF1 and OF2 with execution times of 12 ns int. i = 5;
and 8 ns respectively. for (; i > 0; i --) {
The speedup (correct to two decimal places) achieved by x = x + total (i);
EP over NP in executing 20 independent instructions with }
no hazards is _______ . printf (“%d\n”, x) ;
51. Consider a 2-way set associative cache with 256 blocks and }
uses LRU replacement. Initially the cache is empty. Conflict
misses are those misses which occur due to contention of GENERAL APTITUDE
multiple blocks for the same cache set. Compulsory’ misses QUESTION 56 TO 65 CARRY ONE MARKS EACH
occur due to first time access to the block. The following
sequence of accesses to memory blocks 56. After Rajendra Chola returned from his voyage to Indonesia,
(0, 128, 256, 128, 0, 128 ,256, 128, 1, 129, 257, 129, 1, 129, 257, he _______ to visit the temple in Thanjavur.
129) is repeated 10 times. The number of conflict misses (a) was wishing (b) is wishing
experienced by the cache is ________. (c) wished (d) had wished
52. Consider the expression (a – 1) * (((b + c) / 3) + d )), Let X be 57. Research in the workplace reveals that people work for many
the minimum number of registers required by an optimal reasons ________.
code generation (without any register spill) algorithm tor a (a) money beside (b) beside money
load/store architecture, in which (i) only load and store (c) money besides (d) besides money
instructions can have memory operands and (ii) arithmetic 58. Rahul, Murali, Srinivas and Arul are seated around a square
instructions can have only register or immediate operands. table. Rahul is sitting to the left of Murali. Srinivas is sitting
The value of X is______. to the right of Arul. Which of the following pairs are seated
53. Consider the following C program. opposite each other?
#include <stdio.h>
(a) Rahul and Murali
#include <string.h>
(b) Srinivas and Arul
void print length (char *s, char *t) { (c) Srinivas and Murali
unsigned int c = 0; (d) Srinivas and Rahul
int len = ((strlen (s) – strlen (t) ) > c) ? strlen (s) : strlen (t) ; 59. Find the smallest number y such that y × 162 is a perfect cube.
printf (“%d\n’’, len); (a) 24 (b) 27
} (c) 32 (d) 36
void main ( ) { 60. The probability that a k-digit number does NOT contain the
char *x = “abc”; digits 0, 5, or 9 is
char *y = “defgh”; (a) 0.3 k (b) 0.6 k
printlength (x,y) ; (c) 0.7 k (d) 0.9 k
} 61. “The hold of the nationalist imagination on our colonial past
Recall that strlen is defined in string.h as returning a value is such that anything inadequately or improperly nationalist
of type size_t, which is an unsigned int. The output of the
is just not history.”
program is ________.
Which of the following statements best reflects the author’s
54. A cache memory unit with capacity of N words and block
size of B words is to be designed. If it is designed as a direct opinion?
mapped cache, the length of the TAG field is 10 bits. If the (a) Nationalists are highly imaginative.
cache unit is now designed as a 16-way set-associative (b) History is viewed through the filter of nationalism.
cache, the length of the TAG field is______ bits. (c) Our colonial past never happened.
55. The output of executing the following C program is _______. (d) Nationalism has to be both adequately and properly
#include <stdio.h> imagined.
int total (int v) { 62. Six people are seated around a circular table. There are at
static int. count = 0; least two men and two women. There are at least three right-
while (v) { handed persons, Every woman has a left-handed person to
count + = v&l ; her immediate right. None of the women are right-handed.
v >>= 1; The number of women at the table is
} (a) 2 (b) 3
return count;
(c) 4 (d) Cannot be determined
}
EBD_7203
2017 -8 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
65. A contour line joins locations having the same height above
( x + y )- | x - y |
63. The expression is equal to the mean sea level. The following is a contour plot of a
2 geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25 m
(a) the maximum of x and y intervals in this plot. If in a flood, the water level rises to 525
(b) the minimum of x and y m. which of the villages P, Q, R, S, T get submerged?
(c) l
(d) none of the above
64. Arun, Gulab, Neel and Shweta must choose one shirt each 425 Q
from a pile of four shirts coloured red, pink, blue and white R
450 550
respectively. Arun dislikes the colour red and Shweta
dislikes the colour white, Gulab and Neel like all the colours.
In how many different ways can they choose the shirts so
that no one has a shirt with a colour he or she dislikes? P
(a) 21 (b) 18 550
(c) 16 (d) 14 T
500
450
500 S

(a) P, Q (b) P, Q, T
(c) R, S, T (d) Q, R, S
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-9

1. (d) By the rule of contrapositive. 3. (c) Since the scalars (Ci) are not all zero. Such that,
The given statement (Øp) Þ (Øq) is logically equivalent to Sci ai = 0, where the column vectors ai for (i = 1, 2, .....
q Þ p, and (Øq) Ú p, because n) are linearly dependent in Rn. Hence rank (A) < n.
The equation Ax = b become according to given
\ ( Ø p ) Þ (Ø q ) Û q Þ p
n
\ q Þ p Û (Øq) Ú p statement, A = [a1, ...... an], b = åa .
i =1
i

By taking
L.H.S. :-
é X1 ù
q Þ p Û ( q '+ p ) êX ú
ê 2ú
Now, R.H.S.:- [a1 , a2 , a3 ......an ] ê X 3 ú = a1 + a2 + a3 + ....an
ê ú
(Øq) Ú p Û (q + p) ê M ú
êë X n úû
So, q Þ p Û (Øq) Ú p
Hence, clearly the given statement is same as (ii) and n
(iii), only. So option (d) is correct. if ([A] = 0) and b = åa
i =1
i

2. (b) The given statement F : " x ($y R( x, y))


So, (AX = b) has infinity many solutions one of which
will be jn, where jn donates a, n-dim vector of all 1.
1. " x ($ y R ( x, y )) ¾¾
® $y ($x R( x, y)) is correct. Hence option (c) is correct.
4. (b) The correct arrangement of the given functions in
Since $y ($x R( x, y)) º $x ($y R( x, y))
increasing order of asymptotic complexity is.

º "x ($ y R( x, y)) 100


, 10, log 2 n, n , n because the complexity order
n
2. " x ($ y R( x, y )) ¾¾
® $y (" x R( x, y)) is incorrect, 100
is < 10 < log 2 n < n < n . Hence the option (b) is
n
because $y (it is stronger when it is outside).
correct.
5. (c) The given algorithms related to the Design Paradigms
3. " x ($y R ( x, y )) ¾¾
®" y $x R ( x, y ) is incorrect,
accordingly such as :
because R(x, y) may not be symmetric in x and y. 1. Kruskal’s Algorithms uses the greedy approach to find
the Minimum Spanning Tree (MST) of a connected
4. " x ($ y R( x, y )) ¾¾
®(Ø $ x " y Ø R( x, y)) is correct because graph.
2. Quick sort follow divide and conquer strategy by
Ø ($x " y Ø R( x, y)) º (Ø $x )(Ø" y )(Ø (Ø R( x, y))) dividing the input array according to pivot element.
3. Floyd Warshal Algorithm is used to find the shortest
(Ø ($x )(" y )Ø (Ø R( x, y))) º " x ($ y R( x, y)) path between every pair of vertices and it follows
dynamic programming strategy.
\Ø ($x ) = "x , Ø (" y ) = $y , ØØ R(x, y) = R( x, y) 6. (b) Since there are 15 nodes, hence the minimum height of
the tree will be 3 (when tree will be balanced).
So, it will be reduced to
Height - 0
" x ($ y R( x, y)) ¾¾
®" x $ y R( x, y)
Height - 1
Min. Max.
which is trivially correct. Height - 2
Height Height

So correct answer is I and IV only. Height - 3

Hence option (b) is correct. Total Nodes = 15


EBD_7203
2017 -10 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
Min. height = floor (log2N) An XOR operation on these two bits can quickly
= floor (log215) = 3 determine whenever overflow occurred.
The maximum height will be when the tree is skew tree, which ( A7 × B7 × S7 + A7 × B7 × S7 ) is 1.
will give rise to height 14 either it will be left or right skewed
tree. Hence option (b) is correct. Therefore, ( ( A7 × B7 ) Å S7 = 1) has overflowed, Hence
7. (d) As given that i = (n – g) option (c) is correct.
The range of decimal value for X is find by the help of 10. (c) The given context free Grammar
Max. value. S = {a, b, c} with S as the start symbol.
Max. value = i + f
S ® abScT / abcT
where i = (n – f).
T ® bT / b
Then
The minimum length string generated by the gramber
Max. value
is 1.
= 111 ..... 1 (i times) + 1111 .....1 (f times)
Consider first case ( S ® abcT ) then ( S ® abcb) .
i é1 1 1 ù
= 2 - 1 + ê 1 + 2 + .... f ú Hence all the variable s are greater than 1.
ë2 2 2 û Consider second case
(2 f - 1) æ 1 ö S ® abScT
= (2i - 1) + = ç 2i - 1 + 1 - f ÷
2 f è 2 ø ® ababScTcT
= (2i – 2–f ) ® ababScTcTcT
Now, let n = 5 b/t, f = 2 b/t, ..............................
i = (n – f ) = (5 – 2) = 3 b/t ..............................
Min. value = 0 0 .... 0 (i times) + 0 0 0 .... (f times) = 0
® (ab)n (CT )n
Max. value = 1 1 1 1 .... (i times) + 1 1 1 1 .... (f times)
= (2i – 2–f ) = (23 – 2–2) Here T can generate any number of b’s string with
= (8 – 0.25) = 7.75. single b, so (T = bm)
Hence the range of decimal value for X is (0 to 2i – 2–f), Hence, the language is
so option (d) is correct. L = [(ab)n (cb m )n | m, n ³ 1]
8. (b) According to the given C program. It used two linked Hence option (c) is correct.
lists. After the code execution, list ‘m’ will be appended 11. (d) Since direct access is possible with only index-
to the end of list ‘n’ due to pointer ‘p’. Move to last addressing mode. So, option (d) is correct.
node of the list but in some cases it may dereference to 12. (b) Consider all options.
null pointer.
1. In option (a), p1 and q1 are initialized twice or used
m n p again for temporary storage, which is not allowed under
static single assignment.
X X
2. In option (b), there is no initialization again of the
Head 1 Tail 1 Head 2 Tail 2 variables and all the statement are correct.
9. (c) Overflow flag indicates an overflow condition for a 3. In option (c), the second line statement is not correct.
signed operation. Overflow for signed number occurs It should be
when the carry-in into the MSB is nto equal to carryout. q1 = p1 * C.
And P2, P4, q3 are not initialized anywhere.
So, A Þ A7 A6 .......... A0
4. In option (d), the second line statements is not correct.
B Þ B7 B6 .......... B0 It should be
q1 = P1 * C
Sum ® S7 S6 .......... S0 So, option (b) is correct.
Carry ® C7 C6 .......... C0 13. (d) Consider all options.
For positive number whenever there is a overflow 1. In option (a), we don’t need to cast the, result as void * is
automatically and safely promoted to any other pointer
A7 B7 S 7 is 1. type in this case. So it is not correct.
For negative numbers whenever there is a overflow 2. In option (b), it is discarded for obvious reason, so it is
A7 B7 S 7 is 1. also not correct.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-11

3. In option (c), the dangling pointer is nothing but the 15. (b) For security violations, sender S can launch a birthday
pointer which is pointing to non-existing memory. attack to replace message (m) with a fraudulent message
(deallocated or deleted memory) which is not happening because he has the signature and he can decrypt the
here, so it is also not correct. signature by his own public key and get’s the hash
4. In option (d), when you are calling malloc second time, value, with that same hash value, he can create another
then new location is assigned to X and previous memory message and can be sent instead of original. Hence
location is lost and now we do not have no reference option (b) is correct.
to that location, resulting in memory leak, so option (d) 16. (a) The given functional dependencies are for the relational
is correct. schema R (V, W, X, Y, Z)
14. (d)
ì V ®W ü
1. ïVW ® X ï
Client (a ) Server (b ) ï ï
Client sent connection Server awaiting connection í ý
ï Y ® VX ï
request 1 reuest 1. ïî Y ® Z ïþ
Client awaiting Received connection request 1.
acknowledgement.
Where as, W is extraneous from (VW ® X )
Received Sent Acknowledgement 1.
acknowledgement 1.
Received connection Sent connection request 2. 2. ìV ® W ü
request 2. Awaiting acknowledgement 2. ïV ® X ï
ïï ïï
Sent acknowledgement 2. Received acknowledgement 2. íY ® V ý
ïY ® X ï
Open connection is The connection is open and ï ï
established, then data data moves in both direction. îï Y ® Z þï
moves in both direction.
FINAL WAIT-1 CLOSE WAIT- 1 Where, (Y ® X ) is redundant functional dependence.
Sent close request a . Received close request a .
3. ìV ® W ü
Awaiting
ïV ® X ï
acknowledgement a. ï ï
Received Sent Acknowledgement a . í ý
ï Y ® V ï
Acknowledgement a . When finishing sending data. ïî Y ® Z ïþ
FINAL WAIT-2 CLOSE WAIT-2
Received close request (b). Send close request (b) It is the minimal set that cover all the given functional
Awaiting acknowledgement b . dependencies and it is irreducible equivalent to this
Sent acknowledgement (b), Allowing time is not matched given F.D.
allowing time for delivery so, its listening. 17. (c) Follow (Q) ?
of acknowledgement (b). Follow (Q) is First (R) Hence First (R) = {W, E}.
We add ‘W’ in Follow (Q) and for Î.
Still awaiting for
Closed We calculate :
acknowledgement (b).
First (S) = {y}
A. "fictional" state, so Awaiting connection request.
So, follow (Q) = First (R S)
there is no connection
= {{W} – Î} È First (S)
Follow (Q) = {W, y} (\ First (S ) = { y})
Client Server
FIN Segmen Hence option (c) is correct.
(FIN-WAIT-1 STATE) t
18. (d) Threads of a process can share both heep and global
Close variables because these are shared by every thread of
wait a process. Generally every thread of a process have
state their own PC and Stack. So option (d) is correct.
(FIN-WAIT-2 STATE) ACK
19. (0) Given X is a Gaussian random variable. It is same as
normal random variable. So the distribution of X is N
(0, s2), for X, Median = Mode = Mean = 0.
EBD_7203
2017 -12 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
For Y = Max (X, 0)
ì0 if ( -¥ < x £ 0) ü EC
=í ý 23. (2.6) S.No. Dept Name Number
î x if (0 < x < ¥, is a random variable)þ
1 AA 4
So, Median being positional average will not be affected
2 AB 3
and will remain at 0.
Since now half will be at 0 and half will be positive. 3 AC 3
So, Median (Y) = 0. 4 AD 2
20. (18) A tree with 10 vertices has 9 edges. 5 AE 1
Such that, n = 10, e = (n – 1) = 10 – 1 = 9 Total — 13
then, Sdegree (Vi) = 2 [edges (E)] = 2 × 9 = 18.
21. (1) The given K’MAP :-
13
Result of outer query or Avg (NUM) = = 2.6.
ba 5
dc 00 01 11 10 24. (3)
00 × ×
P1 P2 P3 P4 P1 P3
01 1 ×
0 3 5 6 8 12 17

11 1 1 (P1 = 7) (P1 = 4) (P1 = 4) (P1 = 4) (P1 = 4) (P3 = 5) (P3 = 0)


(P2 = 3) (P2 = 1) ( P2 = 0) (P3 = 5) (P1 = 0)
10 × × (P3 = 5) (P3 = 5) (P4 = 0)
(P4 = 2)

F (a, b, c, d) = ac = ac = a + c Then,
(\ x + y = x × y ) P1 P2 P4 P1 P3
0 3 6 8 12 17
c
P2 P4 P1 P3
(a + c)
a So, turn around time is for P1,P2,P3,P4 are:
(So only one NoR Gate is required.) P1 Þ (12 - 0), P2 Þ (6 - 3),
22. (4) The given regular expression is (a + b)* b (a + b).
In this all string whose second last bit is ‘b’. P3 Þ (17 - 5), P4 Þ (8 - 6)
So, the minimal NFA is
Þ P1 = 12, P2 = 3, P3 = 12, P4 = 2
a, b
As we know that
b a, b
A B C Waiting time = Turn around time - Burst time
So, waiting time for P1,P2,P3,P4 are:
It can be described as “All string over {a, b} ending
with ‘ba’ or ‘bb’. Then the minimal (DFA) accepting P1 Þ (12 - 7) = 5
(L), find by converting it into minimal DFA by subset P2 Þ (3 - 3) = 0
construction Algorithm.
P3 Þ (12 - 5) = 7
a b P4 Þ (2 - 2) = 0
b Hence, avg. waiting time
A AB ABC
b P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 5 + 7
= = = 3.0
4 4
a b a a 25. (0.05) As given that, an application incurs 1.4 memory
accesses per instruction.
So, the Number of memory Accesses in 1000 instructions
AC is
= 1.4 × 1000 = 1400.
Hence, it is a minimal DFA with 4 states.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-13

Number of Misses in L2 cache one lock and can wait for release of another lock, which
arises deadlock.
Miss per instructions
= (d) X = 1, Y = 1
Number of Memory Accesses
If there is one thread and one locks, then one thread
can hold one lock, then there will be no deadlock
7 Miss (Per 1000 instruction)
= = 0.005 situation.
1400 (Memory Accesses)
So, option (c) is correct.
Miss in L2 æ X 7 - 2X 5 + 1 ö 1- 2 + 1 æ 0 ö
Miss rate L2 = Miss in L 28. (c) lim ç 3 ÷= = ç ÷ form.
1 X ®1 ç X - 3 X 2 + 2 ÷ 1 - 3 + 2 è0ø
è ø
\ (given, Miss rate of L1 cache is 0.1) Now, by using (L’ Hospital Rule)
0.005
So, L2 = é 7 X 6 - 10 X 4 ù
0.1 Þ lim ê ú
X ®1 3 X 2 - 6 X
ë û
Miss Rate L2 = 0.05.
26. (a) The Graph G is a connected undirected edge-weighted Applying limit (X = 1) then
graph, since all the edge weights are unique, hence the
æ 7 - 10 ö -3
minimum spanning tree of the graph will be unique and Þç ÷= =1
shortest path between the two vertices need not be unique. è 3 - 6 ø -3
For example, consider a rectangle :- So, option (c) is correct.
29. (0) The given expression ( P ® q) ® r be a
(V1) A 1 B(V2 ) contradiction, then the expression
(r ® P) ® q is always true when q is true.

2 Now, if (q = 1) true then (r ® P ) is also


3 5
true for both value of P.

P q r
(V3) C 4 D (V4)
T T F
here there are four vertices V1, V2, V3, V4. F T F
Let take V2 is source and V3 is destination then we find F F F
the shortest path from (V2 )B to C(V 3 ) are two
when q is false then (r ® P) ® q will be false.
(V2 ® V1 ® V3 ) or ( B ® A ® C ) and (V2 ® V3 ) or
Since if (P = 0) is false then option (c) is not correct
(B ® C ) . because when P is false i.e. (P = 0), then q is free to be
Both of weight = ‘3’. true or false.
Hence path is not unique. Hence option (d) is correct.
27. (c) In an multithreaded program P executes with X number 30. (a) Here u and v be two vector given a relation
of threads and Y number of locks for ensuring mutual || u ||= 2 || v ||
exclustion while operating on shared memory location.
So, u is twice as log as v.
Now consider each option.
If the vector 2v has same length as u and hence (u + 2v)
(a) X = 1, Y = 2.
will bisect angle between u and 2v.
If there is one thread and two locks then there is not
Now angle between u and v is same as angle between
situation of deadlock.
u and 2v
(b) X = 2, Y = 1.
Since 2 is the only a scalar.
Similarly if there is only 1 lock and 2 thread, then there
So, the required vector is (u + 2v).
will be no deadlock situation.
Hence, (w = u + 2v), compare with (w = u + av)
(c) X = 2, Y = 2
So, (a = 2)
If there is 2 thread and 2 locks then the Deadlock
Hence option (a) is correct.
situation can arise because both threads can holds
EBD_7203
2017 -14 SOLVED PAPER - 2017

31. (b) p ( A) < n Þ| A |= 0 Þ one eigen value must be So, the message 01011011 is transmitted as
01011011101.
Î [-5, 5] So, option (c) is correct.
\ (I) is true. 33. (b) As given circuit diagram :
é 5 0 0ù
Let A = êê 0 -5 0úú
T Q1 D Q0
êë 0 0 0úû
Flip Flip
flop flop
3 3
= åå A
i =1 j =1
2
ij = 50 Clock

And, P(A) = 2 but eigen values of A are 0, –5, 5.


Clock T -Flip D -Flip
So, the eigen value with the largest magnitude is not flop (Q1) flop (Q0)
cycle
greater than 5.
0 1 1 (initially both set to 1)
é5 0 ù 1 0 1
For n = 2 and A = ê ú Þ eigen values = 5, 5. 2 1 0
ë0 5 û
3 1 1
Thus, one eigen value must be in [–5, 5] and largest
4 0 1
eigen value magntidue is not greater than 5.
So, (II) statement is false. By using :-
Hence option (b) is correct. T-flip flop D flipflop
32. (c) The given generator polynomial (LRC)
G( X ) = X 3 + X + 1 A B T A B D
0 0 0 0 0 0
Þ 1× X 3 + 0 × X 2 + 1× X 2 + 1× X 0
0 1 1 0 1 1
G( X ) Þ 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0
Given message m(X) = 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1. 1 1 0 1 1 1
Then
Q1, Q0 after 3rd clock pulse : 11, and Q1, Q0 after 4th
clock pulse : 01.
extrabits Hence, option (b) is correct.
34. (d) The given grammar with productions,
1011 01011011000 01000011
S ® SaS | aSb | bSa | SS | Î
0000
01011 Now consider,
1011 S ® aSb | bSa | SS | Î
00000 This grammar generates all strings with equal number
0000 of ‘a’ and ‘b’.
00001 Now, S ® SaS can only generate strings where ‘a’ is
0000 more than ‘b’. Since on left and right of ‘a’ in SaS, S
will have only strings with na = nb or na > nb.
00011
Now consider each options
0000
1. S ® SS ® aSbS ® abS ® abaSb ® abab, when, S ® Î
00110
0000 2. S ® aSb ® aSaSb ® aaaSb ® aaab, when S ® Î
01100 3. S ® SS ® aSbS ® abS ® abbSa ® abbSaSa
1011
® abbaa, when (S ® Î)
01110
4. “babba” which is a string with nb > na is not possible
1011 to generate by the given grammar.
0101 Hence, option (d) is correct.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-15

35. (c) In the given program, when the function fun 1( ) is 39. (a) A Tweing Machine (M) is a recursive if F it halts for
calling function fun 2 ( ), after printing value and after every input string either in accept or reject state. Here
returning from fun 2 ( ), it prints the same value. a computable function is defined in simple way such
In the function fun 2 ( ) also the same thing happens so
as { X # f ( X ) | X Î A*}
by looking options we can find the correct sequence
of the output after executing fun1(5), (n = 5), fun1(n), So, f is computable if and only if Lf is recursive.
print Þ 5. So, option (a) is correct.
fun2 (n – 2) Þ fun2 (3), Print Þ 3. 40. (b) Statement 1 : It is “True” because there can be a case
Similarly all steps execute then, we get the correct. when page selected to be replaced is by FIFO policy
Sequence is 5 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 5 because Random page replacement algorithm can
Hence, option (c) is correct. behave like FIFO.
36. (c) In the given program, invocation of foo (3) and bar (3), Hence it can suffer from Belady’s anamaly.
in which, foo (3) turn calls foo (3). This goes on infinite Statement 2 : It is false because LRU, page replacement
number of times which causes memory overflow and algorithm does not suffers from Beledy’s Anomaly.
causes abnormal termination. So, option (b) is correct.
bar (3) ® bar (2) ® bar (1) ® bar (0) and (return 0) 41. (d) Consider the each option.
from here onwards bar (1) will bar (0) and bar (0) will (i) The results empname who does not belongs to any
return 0 to bar (1) and this goes on forever without departments.
causing memory overflow but it goes on infinite loop
(ii) The results empname who does not belongs to some
execution.
departments.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
(iii) The results empname who belongs to same
37. (b) The context free grammar given over alphabets
departments.
S = {a, b, c}, with S and T are nonterminals.
All the given queries generate finite number of tuple
Given, G1 : S ® aSb | T , T ® cT | Î hence all are safe query.
G2 : S ® bSa | T , T ® cT | Î Hence, option (d) is correct.
42. (a) The given two transaction TS (T1) and TS (T2), in which
Lets L(G1) is the language for Grammar (G1) and L(G2)
T1 holds lock on resource R, T2 requires conflict lock
is the language for Grammar (G2).
on same resource R and T2 wait for graph.
where L(G1 ) = {a n cm b n | m, n ³ 0} If (TS(T2) < TS (T1)).
Then T1 killed.
L(G2 ) = {bn cm a n | m, n ³ 0}
(If restart with same TS value).
then L(G1 ) Ç L(G2 ) = {a n c m bn } Ç {bn c m a n } Else T2 waits.
This process shows avoids both deadlock and
= {c m | m ³ 0} = C * starvation because the transaction, who got killed will
Since the only common strings will be those strings be starting with same time stamps and both are not
with only ‘C’, so the intersection is not finite but regular. waiting for each other.
38. (a) The given language over Alphabets S = (a, b, c) and Hence, option (a) is correct.
the given language are :- 43. (1024) The number of control Paths is depends on number of
n n m if statement that is 2n, where, n is the number. of if
L1 = {a b c | n, m ³ 0} is a CFL
statements
L2 = {a m bn c n | n, m ³ 0} is also a CFL For (2 “if statements”) 22 = 4 control flow Paths are
then union of two CFL is always CFL, possible:

L1 È L2 = {a n bm c k | (n = m) or (m = k ), n, m ³ 0} is e1
a context free language.
Intersection of two CFL is may or may not be a context
e2 e3
free language. (1) (2)
if e4 if e4
L1 Ç L2 = {a n bm c k | (n = m) or (m = k ), n, m ³ 0} or

{a nb n cn | n ³ 0} is a non context free language. e5 e5 e5 e5


Hence, option (a) is correct.
EBD_7203
2017 -16 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
These four control flow are : 46. (4) The given query is made on the database are :
(1) e1 ® e2
1. T1 ¬¾
¾ Õ Course name
( sStudent name='SA' (CR))
(2) e1 ® e3 For T1 Result : find out the course name for the student
(3) (e2 if e4 ) ® e5 name is ‘SA’ i.e.

(4) (e3 if e4 ) ® e5 Course Name


So, for (10 “if statements”), 210 = 1024. CA
Control flow path are possible. Hence, answer is 1024. CB
44. (11) As given data P = 13, q = 17, e = 35, d = ? CC
As per RSA Algorithm.
n = P × q = 13 × 17 = 221 So, T1 = {CA, CB, CC}
By using RSA formula The number of rows in T1 is 3.
f(n) = (P – 1) (q – 1) = 12 × 16 = 192. 2. T2 ¬¾
¾ (CR ¸ T1 )
To find out the private key of A, then take Modulas
operater for RSA formula. For T2 Result : find out the student name for which
(d × e) mod f(n) = 1 every course name of T1 are {CA, CB, CC} is :
(d × 35) mod (192) = 1
d = 11, Hence, answer is 11. Student Name
45. (89.33) Given data : SA
B = 1 Mbps, Tprocess = 0.25 ms, TPt = 0.75 ms SC
LIF = 1980 bytes, L(Overhead) = 20 bytes, LAF = 20 bytes SD
Efficiency ( h ) = ? SF
As we know that,
So, T2 = {SA, SC, SD, SF}
Data size Hence, the number of rows in T2 is 4.
Transmission time of data =
Bandwidth 47. (271) To find the number of integer between 1 and 500 that
are divisible by 3, 5, 7 and make the three set A, B, C.
( L + LAf ) (1980 + 20) bytes
So, TX = L = If = Set A is the set of all number between 1 to 500 which
B B 1´106 (bits/sec) divisible by 3.
Set B is the set of all number between 1 to 500 which
(Q1 byte = 8 bit)
divisible by 5.
2000 ´ 8 (bits) Set C is the set of all number between 1 to 500 which
=
106 (bits/sec) divisible by 7.
Take union of these three sets using union formula
TX = 16 m sec
then, n( A È B È C ) = n( A) + n( B ) + n(C ) - n( A Ç B)
Propagation time = 0.75 m sec.
- n( A Ç C ) - n ( B Ç C )
L 20 ´ 8 bits
Transmission time of TACK = AF =
B 10 6 +n( A Ç B Ç C )

\ TACK = 0.16 m sec. é 500 ù é 500 ù é 500 ù é 500 ù


=ê ú+ê ú+ê ú-ê ú
Then transmission efficiency of stop and wait ARQ. ë 3 û ë 5 û ë 7 û ë 15 û
TX
Þ é 500 ù é 500 ù é 500 ù
(TX + TACK + 2TPt + TProcess ) -ê ú-ê ú-ê ú
ë 21 û ë 35 û ë 105 û
16 = 166 + 100 + 71 – 33 – 23 – 14 + 4
=
(16 + 0.16 + 2 ´ 0.75 + 0.25) = 271.
So, the total number between 1 to 500 which is divisible
16 by 3, 5 or 7 is 271.
= = 0.8933 = 89.33% , Hence answer is 89.33%
17.91
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-17

48. (5) To find out the smallest index i such that A[i] is 1 by
Execution time (TNP) = (k + n – 1) tP1
probing the minimum number of location in A. Assume
i be the index of first element and j be the index of last = (5 + 20 – 1) 22 n sec.
element. TNP = 528 n sec.
By using the binary search algorithm with some Now, for efficient pipeline (TEP), the number. of stages
changes. (k = 6), n = 20, t P2 = ?
Now,
tP2 = Max (Stage delay + Buffer delay)
é low+high ù
Find middle element of Array = A ê ú = (12 nS + 2 nS) = 14 ns.
ë 2 û
Assuming ‘A’ is an array of 31 elements with ‘1’ and if So, TEP = (k + n – 1) t P2
it is ‘1’, we check the left part recursively and if it is ‘0’, = (6 + 20 – 1) * 14
we check the right part of the array recursively. = 350 n sec.
Which take log2(31) comparisons in the worst case, so
the total worst case probes is (TNP ) 528
Speed up (S) = = = 1.508.
Þ Ceil (log231) = 5 (TEP ) 350
(Q Ceil means compute fast log base 2 ceiling)
5 probes performed by an optimal algorithm. 51. (76) A compulsory Miss is not considered a conflict miss if
49. (–16) In program storage, the block is accessed for the first time.
Assuming the starting address (EA) is 0000, then Number of lines = 256

Inst No. 256


Number of sets (S) = = 128
I1 0000 – 0003 2
I2 0004 – 0007 Consider Ist Time Access for given sequence :-
I3 0008 – 0011 {0, 128, 256, 128, 0, 128, 256, 128}.
I4 0012 – 0015
0016
Block ID Type Content
Valid - PC 0 Comp uls ory M is s 0
128 Comp uls ory M is s 0 - 128
where, 256 Comp uls ory M is s 128-256
I4 is as branch instruction I1 as a target location. 128 h it 256-128
So, PC-relative addressing mode is: 0 Co n flict M is s 128 - 0
(EA) = (PC) + relative value 128 h it 0 - 128
Relative value = (EA) – (PC) = 0000 – 0016 = –16.
256 Co n flict M is s 128 - 256
50. (1.508) Given for Native pipeline,
128 h it 256 - 128
the number of stages (k) = 5.
tP1 = Max(Stage delay + buffer delay)
So, the Number of conflict Miss in set 1 is = 2
Buffer delay = 2nS Similarly conflict for given rest sequence
Stage delay = 5, 4, 20, 10, 3 {1, 129, 257, 129, 1, 129, 257, 129}.
So, The number of conflict miss in set 2 is 2, then total number
of conflict misses in both set for 1st time access is:
tP1 = Max((5 + 2), (4 + 2), (20 + 2), (10 + 2), (3 + 2))
= (2 + 2) = 4.
= Max (7, 6, 22, 12, 5) Consider 2nd time access for the given sequence
Maximum value is 22. {0, 128, 256, 128, 0, 128, 256, 128}.
t P1 = 22 n sec.

Number of instruction (n) = 20


So, execution time for native pipeline (NP).
Then,
EBD_7203
2017 -18 SOLVED PAPER - 2017

Add R1 ¬¾
¾ ( R1 + R2 )
Block ID Type Content
Div. R1 ¬¾
¾ R1 / 3
0 Co n flict M is s 128, 0
128 h it 0, 128 Load R2 ¬¾
¾d
256 Co n flict M is s 128, 256
128 h it 256, 128 Add R1 ¬¾
¾ R1 + R2
0 Co n flict M is s 128, 0
Load R2 ¬¾
¾a
128 h it 0, 128
256 Co n flict M is s 128, 256 Sub. R2 ¬¾
¾ R2 - 1
128 h it 256, 128
Mul. R1 ¬¾
¾ R1 * R2
The number of conflict Miss in set 1 = 4 Hence, only two registers are required.
Similarly for {1, 129, 257, 129, 1, 129, 257, 129}. 53. (3) In the given program.
The number of conflict miss in set 2 = 4. X is pointer of string “abc” which length is 3.
Total number of conflict misses in both sets = (4 + 4) = 8. Strlen (S) = 3
Note that content of each set is same before and after where (S) is pointer that pointed to X.
2nd Iteration, therefore each of the remaining iterations Y is pointer of string “defgh”, which length is 5.
will also have 8 conflict misses. Strlen (t) = 5.
Total 9 iteration take to complete the 2nd time access, where t is pointer that pointed to y, value of C is 0.
so total conflict Miss in 2nd time access is = 9 × 8 = 72 Now consider the statement :
Then, total conflict miss Intlen = [(Strlen (S) – Strlen (t) > 0)? Strlen (S) : Strlen (t)]
= (Ist time Access conflict Miss = [(3 – 5)] > 0
+ 2nd time Access conflict miss = [–2] > 0
= 4 + 72 = 76). It is not true but, since it is given in question
ææ b + c ö ö [Strlen (S) – Strlen (t)] will give unsigned value.
52. (2) The given expression is (a - 1) * ç ç ÷+d ÷ So, [Strlen (S) – Strlen (t)] = |–2| = 2.
èè 3 ø ø
Therefore
Þ 2 > 0 (it is true) : Strlen (S) : Strlen (t);
Since (2 > 0) will evaluate true so it will give output as
* 2 Strlen (S) = 3. Hence ‘3’ will be printed.
54. (14) In Direct Mapped :
– 1 + 1
Direct Mapped
10 bits 16 bits
a 1 1 1 d 0 TAG LINE - NUMBER OFFSET
1 0
éNù
+ 1 3 No. of line in direct mapped cache = êBú bits
ë û
0
éN ù
b c For no, of lines = log ê ú
ëBû
1 0
In Set Associative :

Let R1 and R2 be two registers Set Associative


14 bits 12 bits
Load R1 ¬¾
¾b
TAG OFFSET
Load R2 ¬¾
¾c
(10 bits + 4 bits)
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-19

if (V = 2)
N
No. of sets in set associative cache = bits Count = 1 + 2 & 1 = 1 + 0 = 1
16 B
if (V = 1), count = (1 +(1 & 1)) = 1 + 1
æ N ö Count = (1 + 1) = 2
For no. of sets = log ç ÷ Return (2);
è 16 B ø
Then, X = 2 + total (4):
and offset for both mapping is = log (B).
Ccunt = (2 + (4 & 1)) = 2 + 0 = 2
Compare both Direct and Set Associative Mapped :
(\ 2 is static)
æ Nö æ N ö If (V = 2)
TAG1 + log ç ÷ + log( B) = TAG2 + log ç + log( B)
è Bø è 16 B ÷ø Count = (2 + (2 & 1 )) = 2 + 0 = 2
By cancelling the same terms if (v = 1)
As given that Count = ( 2 + (1 & 1)) = 3
TAG1 = 10 bits for Direct Mapping. Count = 3
TAG2 let say X bits.
return (3)
æ Nö æ N ö X = ((2 + 3) + total (3);)
Then, 10 + log ç ÷ = X + log ç
è Bø è 16 B ÷ø
(Q2 is static)
By taking exponentation both side w.r.t 2. X = (5 + total (3);)
æ éN ùö æ æ N öö ( Q 5 is static)
Ùç 10 + log 2 ê ú ÷ Ù ç X + log ç ÷÷
2 è ë B ûø
= 2 è è 16 B ø ø So, count = (3 + (3 & 1)) = 3 + 1 = 4
If (V = 2)
æNö æ N ö Count = (4 + (2 & 1)) = 4 + 0 = 4
(2Ù10 )* ç ÷ = (2Ù X )* ç ÷
èBø è 16B ø If (V = 1)
Count = (4 + (1 & 1)) = 4 + 1 = 5
æ1ö
(2Ù10 ) = (2Ù X ) ç ÷ Count = 5
è 16 ø
return (5)
^10 ^X æ 1 ö
(2 ) = (2 ) ç ^4 ÷ X = (5 + 5) + total (2);
è2 ø
(Q5 is static)
(2Ù14 ) = (2Ù X ) X = (10 + total (2);)

( Q 10 is static) so, count = 6 return (6);


X = 14
So, the required length of TAG field in Set Associative X = (10 + 6) + total (1);)
mapped is = 14. ( Q 10 is static) so, count = 7 return (7);
55. (23) Count in the function Total is static :
= 16 + total (1);
i Count Total (i)
( Q 16 is static), so count = 16 + 7 = 23 (static)
5 0 2
(Q7 is static)
4 2 3 = (2 + 1)
Hence in the function Total count static is : 23.
3 3 5 = (3 + 2)
56. (c)
2 5 6 = (5 + 1)
57. (d)
1 6 7 = (6 + 1)
Total : 23 58. (c) Murali
Check out the running code with comments
for (i = 5; i > 0; i – –)
x = x + total (5) ; Arul Rahul
While (5) (\ v = 5)
Count = Count + V & 1
Srinivas
= Count + 5 & 1 (5 & 1 = 1)
Count = Count + 1 (Count = 1)
EBD_7203
2017 -20 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
59. (d) 162 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 63. (b) When x > y then |x – y | = x – y ...(i)
to make it a perfect cube we need to multiply 162 with 4 When x < y |x – y | = y – x ...(ii)
× 9 = 36 Taking equation (i) (x > y)
60. (c) In a k digit number 0, 5 and 9 are not allowed than
x + y - (x - y) 2y
remaining digits to be filled = 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8 i.e, 7 digit =
2 2
k
æ 7ö k = y minimum of (x, y) as x > y
Probability = ç ÷ ie (0.7)
è 10 ø Taking equation (ii) (x < y)
61. (b) x + y - (y - x) 2x
= =x
62. (a) Sitting arrangement will be like the following figure 2 2
L (w) minimum of (x, y) as x < y
R(w)
64. (d) Total number of ways of 4 people and 4 colour = 4 × 4 = 16
L(w) R(m) Now, Arun dislikes red and Shweta dislikes white
Then, according to question
? R(m) Number of ways = 16 – 2 = 14 ways.
65. (c) Figure shows a hill station with peak P under a contour
In place of ‘?’ the place will be filled by left handed man of 550. At floods the water level is 525m. So, village R,S
According to question and T which are under a contour of 500 they will sub
So, there are 2 women. merge.
2017
SET - 2
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.

2. The subject specific GATE Paper section consists of 55 questions. The General Aptitude section consists of 10 questions.

3. Questions are of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) or Numerical Answer type. A multiple choice question will have
four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3

5. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

TECHNICAL 3. Match the algorithms with their time complexities:


Algorithm Time complexity
QUESTION 1 TO 25 CARRY ONE MARK EACH (P) Towers of Hanoi with n disks (i) Q (n2)
(Q) Binary search given n sorted (ii) Q(n log n)
1. The representation of the value of a 16-bit unsigned numbers
integer X in hexadecimal number system is BCA9. (R) Heap sort given n numbers at (iii) Q(2n)
The representation of the value of X in octal number
the worst case
system is
(a) 571244 (b) 736251 (S) Addition of two n × n matrices (iv) Q (log n)
(c) 571247 (d) 136251 (a) P ® (iii), Q ® (iv), R ® (i), S ® (ii)
2. Match the following: (b) P ® (iv), Q ® (iii), R ® (i), S ® (ii)
(P) Static char var; (i) Sequence of memory (c) P ® (iii), Q ® (iv), R ® (ii), S ® (i)
locations to store addresses (d) P ® (iv), Q ® (iii), R ® (ii), S ® (i)
(Q) m = malloc (10); (ii) A variable located in data 4. Let L1 L2 be any two context-free languages and R be any
m = NULL; section of memory regular language. Then which of the following is/are
(R) char * ptr [10]; (iii) Request to allocate a CPU CORRECT?
register to store data I. L1 È L2 is context-free.
(S) register int var 1; (iv) A lost memory which cannot II. L1 is context-free.
be freed III. L1 – R is context-free.
(a) P ® (ii), Q ® (iv), R ® (i), S ® (iii)
IV. L1 Ç L2 is context-free.
(b) P ® (ii), Q ® (i), R ® (iv), S ® (iii)
(a) I. II and IV only (b) I and III only
(c) P ® (ii), Q ® (iv), R ® (iii), S ® (i)
(d) P ® (iii), Q ® (iv), R ® (i), S ® (ii) (c) II and IV only (d) I only
EBD_7203
2017 -22 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
5. Match the following according to input (from the left 11. Let p, q, r denote the statements “It is raining”. “It is
column) to the compiler phase (in the right column) that cold”, and “It is pleasant”. respectively. Then the
processes it: statement “It is not raining and it is pleasant, and It is
(P) Syntax tree (i) Code generator not pleasant only if it is raining and it is cold” is
(Q) Character stream (ii) Syntax analyzer represented by
(R) Intermediate (iii) Semantic analyzer (a) (Ø p Ù r) Ù (Ø r ® (p Ù q))
representation (b) (Ø p Ù r) Ù (p Ù q) ® Ø r)
(S) Token stream (iv) Lexical analyzer (c) (Ø p Ù r) Ú (p Ù q) ® Ø r)
(a) P ® (ii), Q ® (iii), R ® (iv), S ® (i) (d) (Ø p Ù r) Ú (r ® (p Ù q))
(b) P ® (ii), Q ® (i), R ® (iii), S ® (iv) 12. Given the following binary number in 32-bit (single
(c) P ® (iii), Q ® (iv), R ® (i), S ® (ii) precision) IEEE-754 format:
(d) P ® (i), Q ® (iv), R ® (ii), S ® (iii) 00111110011011010000000000000000
6. Which of the following statements about parser is/are The decimal value closest to this floating-point number is
CORRECT? (a) 1.45 × 101 (b) 1.45 × 10–1
I. Canonical LR is more powerful than SLR. (c) 2.27 × 10 –1 (d) 2.27 × 101
II. SLR is more powerful than LALR. 13. A circular queue has been implemented using a singly
III. SLR is more powerful than Canonical LR. linked list where each node consists of a value and a
(a) I only (b) II only single pointer pointing to the next node. We maintain
(c) III only (d) II and III only exactly two external pointers FRONT and REAR pointing
7. Which of the following is/are shared by all the threads in to the front node and the rear node of the queue,
a process? respectively. Which of the following statements is/are
I. Program counter CORRECT for such a circular queue, so that insertion
II. Stack and deletion operations can be performed in 0 (1) time?
III. Address space I. Next pointer of front node points to the rear node.
IV. Registers II. Next pointer of rear node points to the front node.
(a) I and II only (b) III only (a) I only (b) II only
(c) IV only (d) III and IV only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
8. In a file allocation system, which of the following allocation 14. Consider the following function implemented in C:
scheme(s) can be used if no external fragmentation is void printxy (int x, int y) {
allowed? int *ptr;
I. Contiguous x = 0;
II. Linked ptr = &x;
III. Indexed y = *ptr;
(a) I and III only (b) II only *ptr = 1;
(c) III only (d) II and III only printf (“%d, %d”, x,y);
9. Consider the following statements about the routing }
protocols. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open The output of invoking printxy (1,1) is
Shortest Path First (OSPF) in an IPv4 network. (a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1
I: RIP uses distance vector routing (c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1
II: RIP packets are sent using UDP 15. The Breadth First Search (BFS) algorithm has been
III: OSPF packets are sent using TCP implemented using the queue data structure Which one of
IV: OSPF operation is based on link-state routing the following is a possible order of visiting the nodes in
Which of the statements above are CORRECT? the graph below?
(a) I and IV only (b) I, II and III only
(c) I, II and IV only (d) II, III and IV only M N O
æ πx ö æ 1ö 1
10. If f(x) = R sin çè ÷ø + S, f ’ çè ÷ø =
2 2 2 and ò0 f (x)dx

2R
= , then the constants R and S are respectively
π R Q P
2 16 2
(a) and (b) and 0 (a) MNOPQR (b) NQMPOR
π π π (c) QMNROP (d) POQNMR
4 4 16 16. Identify the language generated by the following grammar,
(c) and 0 (d) and where S is the start variable.
π π π
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-23

S ® XY 21. Consider the set X = {a,b,c,d,e} under the partial ordering


X ® aX | a R = {(a, a), (a, b), (a, c), (a, d), (a, e), (b, b), (b, c), (b, e),
Y ® aYb |Î (c, c), (c, e), (d, d), (d, e), (e, e)}.
(a) {ambn | m ³ n, n > 0 } The Hasse diagram of the partial order (X, R) is shown
(b) {ambn | m ³ n, n ³ 0 } below.
(c) {ambn | m > n, n ³ 0 } e
(d) {ambn | m > n, n > 0 }
17. An ER model of a database consists of entity types A and
B. These are connected by a relationship R which does
not have its own attribute. Under which one of the c
following conditions, can the relational table for R be d
merged with that of A?
(a) Relationship R is one-to-many and the participation
of A in R is total.
(b) Relationship R is one-to-many and the participation b
of A in R is partial.
(c) Relationship R is many-to-one and the participation a
of A in R is total.
(d) Relationship R is many-to-one and the participation The minimum number of ordered pairs that need to be
of A in R is partial. added to R to make (X, R) a lattice is _______.
18. Consider socket API on a Linux machine that supports
connected UDP sockets. A connected UDP socket is a é1 1 -1ù é -1 -2 -1ù
ê 2 -3 4 ú ê 6 12 6 ú
UDP socket on which connect function has already been 22. Let P = ê ú and Q = ê ú be two
called. Which of the following statements is/are êë 3 -2 3 úû êë 5 10 5 úû
CORRECT?
I. A connected UDP socket can be used to communicate matrices. Then the rank of P + Q is _______.
with multiple peers simultaneously. 23. G is an undirected graph with n vertices and 25 edges
II. A process can successfully call connect function such that each vertex of G has degree at least 3. Then the
again for an already connected UDP socket. maximum possible value of n is _______.
(a) I only (b) II only 24. Consider a quadratic equation x2 — 13x + 36 = 0 with
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II coefficients in a base b. The solutions of this equation in
19. Consider the following tables T1 and T2. the same base b are x = 5 and x = 6. Then b = _______.
25. The minimum possible number of states of a deterministic
finite automaton that accepts the regular language L =
T1 T2 { w1aw2|w1,w2 Î{a, b}*, | w1| = 2, |w2| ³ 3} is ________.
P Q R S
2 2 2 2 QUESTION 26 TO 55 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
3 8 8 3
7 3 3 2 26. P and Q are considering to apply for a job. The probability
5 8 9 7 1
6 9 5 7 that P applies tor the job is , the probability that P
4
8 5 7 2
1
9 8 applies for the job given that Q applies for the job is ,
2
and the probability that Q applies for the job given that
In table Tl, P is the primary key and Q is the foreign key
1
referencing R in table T2 with on-delete cascade and on- P applies for the job is . Then the probability that P
update cascade, In table T2, R is the primary key and S 3
is the foreign key referencing P in table Tl with on-delete does not apply for the job given that Q does not apply
set NULL and on-update cascade. In order to delete record for the job is
{3,8} from table Tl. the number of additional records that 4 5
need to be deleted from table Tl is________. (a) (b)
5 6
20. The maximum number of IPv4 router addresses that can
be listed in the record route (RR) option field of an IPv4 7 11
(c) (c)
header is _________. 8 12
EBD_7203
2017 -24 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
(a) E ® E – T | T (b) E ® TE’
27. If w, x, y, z are Boolean variables, then which one of the
T®T+F|F E’ ® –TE’ | Î
following is INCORRECT?
F ® (E) | id T®T+F|F
(a) wx + w(x + y) + x(x + y) = x + wy
F ® (E) | id
(b) wx ( y + z) + wx = w + x + yz (c) E ® TX (d) E ® TX | (TX)
X ® –TX | Î X ® –TX | +TX | Î
(c) (wx ( y + xz ) + wx ) y = xy T ® FY T ® –id
(d) (w + y)(wxy + wyz) = wxy + wyz Y ® +FY | Î
28. Given f(w, x,y, z) = åm(0,l,2,3,7,8,10) + åd (5,6,ll,l5), where E ® (E) | id
d represents the don’t-care condition in Karnaugh maps. 33. A system shares 9 tape drives. The current allocation and
Which of the following is a minimum product-of-sums maximum requirement of tape drives for three processes
(POS) form of f (w,x,y,z)? are shown below:
f = (w + z )(x + z) Process Current Allocation MaximumRequirement
(a)
P1 3 7
(b) f = (w + z)(x + z) P2 1 6
P3 3 5
(c) f = (w + z)(x + z) Which of the following best describes current state of the
system?
(d) f = (w + z )(x + z)
(a) Safe, Deadlocked
29. In a two-level cache system, the access times of L1 and (b) Safe, Not Deadlocked
L2 caches are 1 and 8 clock cycles, respectively. The miss (c) Not Safe, Deadlocked
penalty from the L2 cache to main memory is 18 clock (d) Not Safe, Not Deadlocked
cycles. The miss rate of L1 cache is twice that of L2. The 34. Consider a binary code that consists of only four valid
average memory access time (AMAT) of this cache system codewords as given below:
is 2 cycles. The miss rates of L1 and L2 respectively are: 00000,01011,10101,11110
(a) 0.111 and 0.056 (b) 0.056 and 0.111 Let the minimum Hamming distance of the code be p and
(c) 0.0892 and 0.1784 (d) 0.1784 and 0.0892
the maximum number of erroneous bits that can be
30. Consider the recurrence function
corrected by the code be q. Then the values of p and q
ïì2T ( n ) + 1, n> 2 are
T ( n) = í (a) p=3 and q=1
ïî 2, 0 < n£2
(b) p=3 and q=2
Then T(n) in terms of Q notation is (c) p=4 and q=1
(a) Q (log log n) (b) Q (log n) (d) p=4 and q=2
35. Consider two hosts X and Y, connected by a single direct
(c) Q( n ) (d) Q (n) link of rate 106 bits/sec. The distance between the two
31. For any discrete random variable X. with probability mass hosts is 10,000 km and the propagation speed along the
function link is 2 × 108 m/sec. Host X sends a file of 50,000 bytes
N as one large message to host Y continuously. Let the
P{X = j) = pj, Pj ³ 0, j Î{0,....,N}, and å Pj = 1 . define transmission and propagation delays be p milliseconds
and q milliseconds, respectively. Then the values of p and
j =0
q are
N (a) p=50 and q=100
the polynomial function gx (z) = å Pj z j . For a certain (b) p=50 and q=400
(c) p=100 and q=50
j =0
(d) p=400 and q=50
discrete random variable Y. there exists a scalar b Î [0, 1]
such that gy (z) = (l – b + bz)N. The expectation of Y is 36. The pre-order traversal of a binary search tree is given
(a) Nb (l – b) by 12, 8, 6, 2, 7, 9, 10, 16, 15, 19, 17, 20. Then the post-
(b) Nb order traversal of this tree is:
(c) N (l – b) (a) 2, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 15, 16, 17, 19, 20
(d) Not expressible in terms of N and b alone (b) 2, 7, 6, 10, 9, 8, 15, 17, 20, 19, 16, 12
32. Consider the following expression grammar G : (c) 7, 2, 6, 8, 9, 10, 20, 17, 19, 15, 16, 12
E®E–T|T (d) 7, 6, 2, 10, 9, 8, 15, 16, 17, 20, 19, 12
T®T+F|F 37. Consider the C program fragment below which is meant to
F ® (E) | id divide x by y using repeated subtractions. The variables
Which of the following grammars is not left recursive, but x, y, q and r are all unsigned int.
is equivalent to G? while (r > = y) {
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-25

r=r–y; L(R) ?
q=q+I; II. Given a context-free grammar G. is L(G) = f ?
} III. Given a context-free grammar G. is L(G) =S*for some
Which of the following conditions on the variables x, y, alphabet S ?
q and r before the execution of the fragment will ensure IV. Given a Turing machine M and a string w, is w Î
that the loop terminates in a state satisfying the condition L(M) ?
(a) I and IV only (b) II and III only
x == (y * q + r) ?
(c) II, III and IV only (d) III and IV only
(a) (q == r) && (r == 0) 42. The next state table of a 2-bit saturating up-counter is
(b) (x > 0) && (r == x) && (y > 0) given below.
(c) (q == 0) && (r == x)&& (y > 0)
(d) (q == 0) && {y > 0)
Q1 Q0 Q1+ Q0+
38. Consider the following C function.
int. fun (int n) { 0 0 0 1
int i, j ; 0 1 1 0
for (i = 1; i <= n; i++) { 1 0 1 1
for (j = 1; j < n; j += i) {
printf{“ %d %d”, i, j}; 1 1 1 1
}
} The counter is built as a synchronous sequential circuit
} using T flip-flops. The expressions for T1 and T0 are
Time complexity of fun in terms of Q notation is (a) T1 = Q1Q0, T0 = Q1 Q0
(a) Q (n n ) (b) Q (n2)
(b) T1 = Q1 Q0 , T0 = Q1 + Q0
(c) Q (n log n) (d) Q (n2 log n)
39. Let d denote the transition function and d denote the (c) T1 = Q1 + Q0, T0 = Q1 + Q0
extended transition function of the Î-NFA whose transition
table is given below: (d) T1 = Q1 Q0 , T0 = Q1 + Q0
43. Consider the following snippet of a C program. Assume
δ Î a b that swap (&x, &y) exchanges the contents of x and y.
® q 0 {q 2 } {q1} {q0 } int main( ) {
q1 {q 2 } {q 2 } {q3} int array [ ] = {3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2};
int done = 0;
q2 {q 0 } f f int i ;
q3 f f {q2 }
while {done == 0) {
Then d (q2, aba) is done = 1;
(a) f (b) {q0, q1, q3} for (i=0; i <=4 ; i + +) {
(c) {q0, q1, q2} (d) {q0, q2, q3,} if (array[i] < array[i+1]) {
40. Consider the following languages. swap (&array [i] , &array [i+1]);
L1 = {ap | p is a prime number} done = 0;
L2 = {anbmc2m | n ³ 0, m ³ 0} }
L3 = {anbnc2n | n ³ 0} }
L4 = {an bn | n ³ 1} for (i = 5; i>=l ; i – –) {
Which of the following are CORRECT? if (array [i] > array[i – 1]) {
I. L1 is context-free but not regular. swap (&array [i] , &array [i – 1]);
II. L2 is not context-free. done = 0 ;
III. L3 is not context-free but recursive. }
IV. L4 is deterministic context-free. }
(a) I, II and IV only (b) II and III only }
(c) I and IV only (d) III and IV only printf (“%d”, array[3] ) ;
41. Let L(R) be the language represented by regular expression }
R. Let L(G ) be the language generated by a context free The output of the program is _______.
grammar G. Let L(M) be the language accepted by a 44. Two transactions T1 and T2 are given as
Turing machine M. Which of the following decision T1: r1 (X) w1(X)r1(Y)w1(Y)
problems are undecidable? T2: r2 (Y) w2(Y)r2(Z) w2(Z)
I. Given a regular expression R and a string w, is w Î where ri(V) denotes a read operation by transaction Ti on
EBD_7203
2017 -26 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
a variable V and wi(V) denotes a write operation by Character Probability
transaction Ti on a variable V. The total number of conflict P 0.22
serializable schedules that can be formed by T1 and T2 is Q 0.34
__________. R 0.17
45. The read access times and the hit ratios for different S 0.19
caches in a memory hierarchy are as given below. T 0.08
Cache Read access time Hit ratio Total 1.00
(in nanoseconds) If a message of 100 characters over X is encoded using
I-cache 2 0.8 Huffman coding, then the expected length of the encoded
D-cache 2 0.9 message in bits is ________.
L2-cache 8 0.9 51. Consider the set of processes with arrival time (in
The read access time of main memory is 90 nanoseconds. milliseconds). CPU burst time (in milliseconds) and priority
Assume that the caches use the referred- word-first read (0 is the highest priority) shown below. None of the
policy and the write back policy. Assume that all the processes have I/O burst time.
caches are direct mapped caches. Assume that the dirty
Process Arrival Time Burst Time Priority
bit is always 0 for all the blocks in the caches. In execution
P1 0 11 2
of a program. 60% of memory reads are for instruction
P2 5 28 0
fetch and 40% are for memory operand fetch. The average
P3 12 2 3
read access time in nanoseconds (up to 2 decimal places)
is ________. P4 2 10 1
46. Consider the following database table named top_scorer. P5 9 16 4
Player Country Goals The average waiting time (in milliseconds) of all the
Klose Germany 16 processes using preemptive priority scheduling algorithm
Ronaldo Brazil 15 is ________.
G Muller Gemany 14 52. If the characteristic polynomial of a 3 × 3 matrix M over
Fontaine France 13 R, (the set of real numbers) is l3 – 4 l2 + al + 30, aÎR,
Pele Brazil 12 and one eigenvalue of M is 2. then the largest among the
Klinsmann Germany 11 absolute values of the eigenvalues of M is ________.
Kocsis Hungary 11 53. Consider a machine with a byte addressable main memory
Batistuta Argentina 10 of 232 bytes divided into blocks of size 32 bytes. Assume
Cubillas Peru 10 that a direct mapped cache having 512 cache lines is used
Lato Poland 10 with this machine. The size of the tag field in bits is
Lineker England 10 ________.
T Miller Germany 10 54. Consider the following C Program.
Rahn Germany 10 #include<stdio.h>
Consider the following SQL query: int. main ( ) {
SELECT ta.player FROM top_scorer AS ta int m = 10 ;
WHERE ta.goals >ALL (SELECT tb.goals int n, n1 ;
FROM top_scorer AS tb n = ++m;
WHERE tb.country = ‘Spain’) n1 = m++;
AND ta.goals >ANY (SELECT tc.goals n – –;
FROM top_scorer AS tc – – n1;
WHERE tc.country = ‘Germany’) n – = n1;
The number of tuples returned by the above SQL query printf (“%d”, n) ;
is ________. return 0;
47. If the ordinary generating function of a sequence {an }µ
n =0
}
The output of the program is _________.
1+z 55. Consider the following C Program.
is , then (a3 – a0) is equal to ________.
(1–z)3 #include<stdio.h>
48. If a random variable X’ has a Poisson distribution with #include<string.h>
mean 5. then the expectation E[(X + 2)2] equals _______. int main ( ) {
49. In a B+ tree, if the search-key value is 8 bytes long, the char* c = “GATECSIT2017” ;
block size is 512 bytes and the block pointer size is 2 char* p = c ;
bytes, then the maximum order of the B+ tree is ______. printf (“%d”, (int) strlen (c+2[p]–6[p]–1));
50. A message is made up entirely of characters from the set return 0 ;
X = {P,Q,R,S,T}. The table of probabilities for each of the }
characters is shown below: The output of the program is ________.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-27

GENERAL APITITUDE 62. There are three boxes. One contains apples, another
contains oranges and the last one contains both apples
QUESTION 56 TO 60 CARRY ONE MARKS EACH and oranges. All three are known to be incorrectly labelled.
If you are permitted to open just one box and then pull
out and inspect only one fruit, which box would you open
56. Choose the option with words that are not synonyms. to determine the contents of all three boxes?
(a) aversion, dislike (b) luminous, radiant (a) The box labelled ‘Apples’
(c) plunder, loot (d) yielding, resistant (b) The box labelled ‘Apples and Oranges’
57. Saturn is __________to be seen on a clear night with the (c) The box labelled ‘Oranges’
naked eye. (d) Cannot be determined
(a) enough bright (b) bright enough
63. X is a 30 digit number starting with the digit 4 followed
(c) as enough bright (d) bright as enough by the digit 7. Then the number X3 will have
58. There are five buildings called V, W, X, Y and Z in a row
(a) 90 digits (b) 91 digits
(not necessarily in that order). V is to the West of W. Z
(c) 92 digits (d) 93 digits
is to the East of X and the West of V. W is to the West
64. The number of roots of ex + 0.5x2 – 2 = 0 in the range
of Y. Which is the building in the middle?
[–5, 5] is
(a) V (b) W
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) X (d) Y
59. A test has twenty questions worth 100 marks in total. (c) 2 (d) 3
There are two types of questions. Multiple choice 65. An air pressure contour line joins locations in a region
questions are worth 3 marks each and essay questions are having the same atmospheric pressure. The following is
worth 11 marks each. How many multiple choice questions an air pressure contour plot of a geographical region.
Contour lines are shown at 0.05 bar intervals in this plot.
does the exam have?
(a) 12 (b) 15 R
(c) 18 (d) 19
0.65 0.9
60. There are 3 red socks, 4 green socks and 3 blue socks,
0.7 0.9
you choose 2 socks. The probability that they are of the 5

0.95
S
same colour is
(a) 1/5 (b) 7/30
(c) 1/4 (d) 4/15 P 0.9
QUESTION 61 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
0.8
61. “We lived in a culture that denied any merit to literary Q
0.8 0.75
works, considering them important only when they were
handmaidens to something seemingly more urgent - namely
ideology. This was a country where all gestures, even the 0 1 2 km
most private, were interpreted in political terms.” If the possibility of a thunderstorm is given by how fast
The author’s belief that ideology is not as important as air pressure rises or drops over a region, which of the
literature is revealed by the word: following regions is most likely to have a thunderstorm?
(a) ‘culture’ (b) ‘seemingly’ (a) P (b) Q
(c) ‘urgent’ (d) ‘political’ (c) R (d) S
EBD_7203
2017 -28 SOLVED PAPER - 2017

1. (d) X = (B C A 9)16 2. L1 is not context-free because CFL are not closed


The ASC1 I value of A, B, C are 10, 11, 12 respectively under complement operation. So, it is incorrect.

(
So, X = 1011 1100 0101 1001
11 12 10 9
) 3. L1–R is context-free because if context-free language
is intersection to the complement of regular language
then it is always context-free. L1 - R = L1 Ç R1 , so it is
= 001 011 110 001 011 001
correct.
= 1 3 6 2 5 1
4. L1 Ç L2 is not context-free because context-free
= (1 3 6 2 5 1)8
languages are not closed under complement operations.
Hence, option (d) is correct. So it is incorrect.
2. (a) 1. Static char var; : Initialization of a variable located 5. (c) According to the complier phase. Shown in figure
in data section of memory because var is defined below.
as character variable whose associated storage
The lexical analysis Phase Processes the character
class is static.
strem and generates tokens stream, these tokens are
2. m = m alloc (10); m = Null; A lost memory which processed by syntex analysis analyzer and generate
cannot be freed because free (m) is missed in code the syntex tree. these syntex tree is processed by the
due to 10 contiguous bytes of memory is allocated semantic analyzer, and generate the intermediate
is address of first byte is stored in ‘m’ and later it representation such as (3-Address code) is used for
is updated with NULL. Now we lost the address code generation process.
of first bytes of that chunk of memory completely, (Character stream)
so we can’t free that space as we need the address
of first byte to free it.
3. Char * Ptr [10]; : Sequence of memory locations to Lexical analyzer
store addresses because ptr is an array of 10 Token stream
pointers pointing to character variables.
Syntex analyzer
4. Register int var1; : Request to allocate a CPU
register to store data because the complier to store Syntex tree
the var 1 “value” in CPU Register. Semantic analyzer
Hence, option (d) is correct. Intermediate representation
3. (c) 1. Towers of Hanoi with n disks : 2T(n – 1) + 1 Þ Q (2n)
Code generation
2. Binary search given n sorted numbers :
6. (a) Bottom up Parsers in decreasing order of their power :
æ nö
= T ç ÷ + 1 = Q (log n) CLR >> LALR ³ SLR ³ LR , then
è 2ø
1. Connonical (CLR) is the most powerful Parsers among
3. Heap sort given n numbers at the worst case : all the LR(k) Parsers or SLR. So, it is correct.
æ nö 2. SLR is more powerful than LALR is incorrect.
= 2T ç ÷ + n = Q (n log n)
è 2ø 3. SLR is more powerful than canonical LR is incorrect.
So, option (a) is correct.
4. Addition of two n × n matrices :
7. (b) The thread is a light weight process and all the threads
æ nö in a process has share address space but other entities
= 4T ç ÷ + 1 = Q (n2 )
è 2ø like, stack, PC, registers are not shared and every thread
will have its own.
Hence option (c) is correct.
So, option (b) is correct.
4. (b)
8. (d) Contiguous allocation suffer from external fragmentation.
1. L1ÈL2 is context-free because the union of two context But linked and indexed allocations are non-contigous,
free language is always a context free or CFL are closed so they will not suffer from external fragmentation.
under union operation . So, it is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-29

9. (c) Consider each option. 11. (a) As given statements are :-


1. RIP use distance vector routing protocol because RIP p : "It is raining"
is one of the oldest DVR protocol which employ the q : "It is cold"
hop count as a routing metric table. So, it is correct. r : "It is pleasant".
2. RIP packets are sent using UDP, because UDP (User Then, the statement is:-
Datagram Protocol) work as a transport Protocol to
send the RI packets. So, it is correct. "It is not raining and it is pleasant" Þ (Ø p Ù r)
3. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) packets are not sent And "It is not pleasant only if it is raining and it is cold"
using (TCP) because OSPF does not use a transport Þ Ø r ® ( p Ù q)
protocol, such as UDP ¹ TCP, so OSPF neither uses
TCP or UDP. So, it is not correct. (Ø p Ù r ) Ù (Ø r ® ( p Ù q))
4. OSPF operation is based on link-state routing because Hence, option (a) is correct.
OSPF is a routing protocol which uses Link State 12. The given binary number in 32-bits
Routing (LSR) and works within a single autonomous [00111110011011010000000000000000]
system. So, it is correct.
It can be formated as
Hence, option (C) is correct.
1 bit 8 bits 23 bits
10. (d) Given function :
0 01111100 11011010000000000000000
é px ù Sign Exponent Bits (Mantissa Bits)
f ( x) = R sin ê ú + S Bit
ë 2û \ (Sign = 0 (+ve)) {Number is positive}
So, biased exponent bits = 01111100 = 124
Rp é px ù
f '( x ) = cos ê ú E = 124 – 127 = –3 [\ Excess = 127]
2 ë 2û
(\ biase = 2 – 1, where (n = 8), So biase is = 27 – 1 = 128 – 1 = 127)
n – 1

æ1ö 1 Mantissa bit = 11011010000000000000000


Given f ' ç ÷ = 2, Put X = in f '(X)
è2ø 2 Normal Mantissa = 1 . M = 1 . 1101101
Data = Signbit . Mantissa . 2+[exponent bit]
é 1 ù Rp é pù Þ +1 .1101101.2–3
then, f ' ê ú = cos ê ú
ë2û 2 ë4û Mantissa align to right upto 3 times.
Rp ¯
2= +0.0011101101
2 2
¯
4 0.228
R=
p ¯
2.28 × 10–1 @ 2.27 × 10–1
1
2R é æ pX ö ù Hence option (c) is correct.
Given ò f ( x) dx =
0
p êQ f ( x) = R sin ç 2
ë è
÷ + Sú
ø û 13. (b) In circular queue next pointer of Rear node pointing to
the Front Node will lead to insertion in a queue is always
1
from REAR and deletion is always from FRONT node
-2R é æ pX öù 1 2R in Q(1) time.
cos ç ÷ ú + S ( X )0 =
p ëê è 2 øû0 p Front Rear
Head
A B C D
-2 R é p ù 2R
Then, cos - cos 0 ú + S (1 - 0) =
p êë 2 û p Hence, option (B) is correct.
14. (c) int * Ptr;
-8 2´4 æ 4ö
(0 - 1) + S = 2 Put ç R = ÷ X = 0;
p2 p è pø
Ptr
S =0
0
Hence, option (d) is correct . ×
EBD_7203
2017 -30 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
Ptr = & X m > n, because at least one will be attached on left of
Y = *Ptr ambn.
Þ (Y = 0) So, option (c) is correct.
*Ptr = 1; 17. (c) In one to many or many to one participation, relation is
merged in table which is on many side and if there
Ptr participation then relation is merged in that side consider
entity set A, B in the relationship set R.
1
Relation R merge with that of A and B.
×
Þ (X = 1)
A R B
So, the output of invoking print XY(1, 1) is M I
Þ (1, 0) According to the above figure.
Hence, option (c) is correct. Many to one relationship set can merge towards entity
15. (d) The Breadth First Search (BFS) algorithm has been set 'A' & Participation towards A side can be total.
implemented using the queue data structure. Hence option (c) is correct.
BSF : Start at root (root can be select as an arbitrary 18. (b) A process can successfully call connect function again
node of a graph, sometimes refered to as search key) for an already connected UDP socket for one of two
and explore the neighbor node first, before moving to reasons :
next level neighbours so let P is root Node.
(1) To specify a new IP address and Port.
Given graph :-
(2) To unconnect the socket.
5 4 A connected UDP socket have two function (1) Bind
M N O 2 ( ) function used to create local address.
(2) Connect ( ) function is specifying remote address.
Where as,
6 1 A unconnected UDP socket has only just a Bind ( )
R Q P function.
3
So, option (b) is correct.
Consider each options :
(i) MNOPQR 19. (0) As given that, Q ® R (Primary Key)
® After M and N vertices the vertex O can not be traversed. S ® P (Primary Key)
(ii) NQMPOR Entry to be deleted – P(3) and Q (8) in T1 table
® After visiting vertex M, vertex, O and P can not be Q can be deleted directly.
traversed. Now, S ® P but the relationship given is on delete
(iii) QMNROP set Null, therefore when we delete 3 from T1, the entry
® After N either of the vertices O or P can not be traversed. in T2 having 3 will be NULL.
(iv) POQNMR Consider the tables T1 and T2 :
® After N, Both M and R should be traversed.
So, option (d) is correct.
16. (c) The given grammar with S as start symbol is
T1 T2
S ® XY
P Q R S
X ® ax|a Þ X ® (a m | m ³ 1)
2 2 2 2
Y ® ayb|E Þ Y ® (a n bn | n ³ 0) 3 8 8 3 Null
7 3 3 2
S ® XY 5 8
6 9 9 7
S ® {a mb n | m > n, n ³ 0} 8 5 5 7
because, from Non terminal X we can generate any 9 8 7 2
number of a's including a single 'a' and from Y equal
No other record need to delete because of deletion of
number of a's and b's.
(3, 8) record from T1.
Hence L = {a m bn | m > n, n ³ 0} Hence, 0 is correct answer.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-31

20. (9) A record route option is used to record the internet then, 2( E ) ³ S degree of vertices
routers that handles the datagram. It can list up to nine
router addresses. It can be used for debugging and (\ According to undirected graph)
management purpose. 2( E ) ³ 3n
In IPv4, options and padding 40 bytes are allotted,
maximum nine routers addresses are allowed. 2( E )

Each IPv4 address is 32 bits or 4 bytes. 3
So, Þ 4 × 9 = 36 bytes. 2 ´ 25
Extra byte are used for the option. n£
3
Hence, the record route (RR) option field of an IPv4
header is (9). n £ 16.66
So, n is at Most 16.
Hence, 9 is correct answer.
Hence 16 is correct answer.
21. (0) In the given Hasse Diagram :-
e 24. (8) Given Quadratic equation
X2 – 13X + 36 = 0 with coefficients in a base 'b'.
c
In base 'b', 13 = (1´ b1 ) + (3 ´ b0 ) = (b + 3)
d 36 = (3 ´ b1 ) + (6 ´ b0 ) = (3b + 6)
b
So equation become

a X 2 - (b + 3) X + (3b + 6) = 0
The diagram is already a littic if for every pair of element Since (X = 5) is a solution
there exist a LUB (Lowest Upper Bound) and GLB
(Greatest Lower Bound). And LUB and GLB exist for (5)2 - (b + 3)5 + (3b + 6) = 0
every two elements taken from {a, b, c, d, e}. So it is
Þ 25 - 5b - 15 + 3b + 6 = 0,
already a lattice.
So, minimum number of ordered Pairs that need to be Þ 2b = 16 (b = 8)
added = 0. Similarly, by putting (X = 6)
Hence, 0 is correct answer. we get
22. (2) As given Matrix (6)2 - (b + 3) *6 + (3b + 6) = 0
é1 1 -1ù é -1 -2 -1ù Þ 36 - 6b - 18 + 3b + 6 = 0
ê ú ê ú
P = ê 2 -3 4 ú and Q = ê 6 12 6 ú
Þ 18 - 3b + 6 = 0
êë 3 -2 3 úû ëê 5 10 6 ûú (3b = 24), (b = 8)
Hence, the value of b is (8).
é0 -1 -2 ù
25. (8) The Minimum possible number of states of deterministic
P + Q = êê8 9 10 úú finite Automation that accepts the regular language.
êë8 8 8 úû As given that,

(P + Q) = (-16 + 16) = 0 L = {W1 aW2 | W1,W2 Î{a, b}*, | W1 |= 2, | W2 |³ 3} is

Now, The regular expression for L is


= (a + b)(a + b)a(a + b)(a + b)(a + b)(a + b) *
é0 -1ù
Take 2 × 2 Minor Matrix = ê ú The minimal DFA accepting L is :
ë8 9 û
a, b
Minor |P + Q| = 8 ¹ 0
So, rank of (P + Q) is 2. Hence 2 is correct answer. a, b a, b
a a, b a, b a, b
23. (16) If every vertex has degree at least 3 then, b
the maximum possible value of n
a, b
where (n is the vertices), given edge (E) = 25
Hence, the minimum number of state are 8.
EBD_7203
2017 -32 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
26. (4/5) Let A, B the events denotes that P, Q respectively applies 27. (c) As, given that : w, x, y, z are Boalean variables.
for a job. Consider each options.
1 é Aù 1 éBù 1 (1) wx + w(x + y) + x (x + y) = x + wy
As given that, P ( A) = , P ê ú = , P ê ú = then
4 B
ë û 2 ë Aû 3 take, L.H.S. Þ wx + w(x + y) + x (x + y)
P( A Ç B) = ? Q ( xx ® x )
æ A ö P( A Ç B) 1 Þ (wx + wx) + wy + x + xy
\Pç ÷ = =
èBø P(B) 2 Q ( wx + wx ® wx )
é B ù P( A Ç B) 1 Þ x (w + 1 + y) + wy Q [1 + x = 1]
Pê ú = =
ë Aû P ( A) 3 Þ x [w + 1] + wy Q [1 + y] = 1
Þ x + wy Q [1 + w] = 1
1
P ( A Ç B ) = * P ( A) L.H.S. = R.H.S. So, it is correct.
3
1 (2) wx ( y + z ) + wx = w + x + yz
\ P( A) =
4
Take, L.H.S. = wx × ( y + z ) + wx
æ 1ö
ç P( A Ç B) = ÷ By apply De'Morgan theorem
è 12 ø
So, P ( B) = 2* P( A Ç B ) = wx + ( y + z ) + wx Q[x + y = x × y ]

1 1 = ( w + x) + ( yz) + wx
P( B) = 2 ´ =
12 6
= ( w + wx ) + x + yz ( w + wx = w[1 + x ] = w
The probability that A does not apply for the job given
é Aù = w + x + yz Q [1 + x = 1]
that B does nto apply for the job is P ê B ú then
ë û L.H.S. = R.H.S.

é A ù P[ A Ç B ] 1 - P ( A È B ) So, it is correct.
Pê ú = =
ëBû P[ B ] 1 - P( B) (3) ( wx ( y + xz ) + wx ) y = xy
\ P( A Ç B ) = 1 - P( A È B) Take, L.H.S.Þ ( wx ( y + xz ) + wx ) y
\ P[ B ] = 1 - P[ B] Þ ( wxy + wxxz + wx ) y
\ P ( A È B ) = [ P( A) + P ( B ) - P ( A Ç B )]
Þ ( wxy + wx ) y Q ( xx = 0)
then
Þ ( wxy × y + wxy ) Q ( y × y = y)
é A ù 1 - [ P ( A) + P( B) - P ( A Ç B)]
Pê ú =
ëBû 1 - P ( B) Þ xy ( w + w) (Q ( w + w) = 1)

Put P(A), P(B), P ( A Ç B) in this equation L.H.S. = xy

é1 1 1 ù R.H.S. = xy
1- ê + - ú 2
4 6 12 û 3 4
= ë = = So, L.H .S . ¹ R.H .S .
é 1ù 5 5
1 - So, it is not correct.
êë 6 úû 6
(4) ( w + y )( wxy + wyz ) = wxy + wyz
A 4 Take, L.H.S. Þ (w + y) (wxy + wyz)
P =
B 5 Þ wxy + wyz + wxy + wyz
Þ wxy + wyz
æ 4ö L.H.S. Þ R.H.S., So it is correct.
Hence, ç ÷ is correct answer.
è5ø
Hence, only (c) is incorrect.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-33

28. (a) The given function


æ 1 ö
X =ç ÷
f ( w, x, y, z ) = å m
(0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 10) è 2 L1 ø
....(3)

(Miss Palenality L1) = 8 + X . (18)


+ å (5, 6, 11, 15)
d L1 = 8 + 18 X ...(4)

= Õ M
(4, 9, 12, 13, 14) × d (5, 6, 11, 15) From eq. (3) put (L1) value to eq. (4)

where d represent don't care. æ 1 ö


L1 = ç ÷
Now by, Karnaugh maps. è 2X ø

1
= 8 + 18 X
yz 00 01 11 10 2X
wx yz yz yz yz
wx æ 1 ö
ç - 18 X ÷ = 8
00 1 1 1 1 è 2 X ø
0 1 3 2

wx × 1 - 36 X 2 = 16 X
0 × 1 Þ x.z
01 4 5 7 6
Þ (x + z)
wx 36 X 2 + 16 X - 1 = 0
0 0 × 0
11
12 13 15 14 Compair to aX 2 + bx + c = 0
wx 1 0 × 1
10 a = 36, b = 16, c = –1
8 9 11 10 Þ w.z
Þ (w + z ) -b ± b 2 - 4ac
('×' represents dont care) =
2a

-16 ± 256 + 4 ´ 36 ´1
Then, the PoS Þ ( x × z ) × ( w × z ) =
2 ´ 36
Þ ( x + z ) × (w + z ) -16 ± 2 4
= = (take +ve value only)
Hence, the option (a) is correct. 72 72
29. (a) As given that :
X = 0.055
The access time L1 = 1 clock cycles
or (Hit time) Then Miss rate L1 = 2X = 2 × 0.055 = 0.111
The access time L2 = 8 clock cycles L2 = X = 0.055

or (Hit time) Hence option (a) is correct.

Miss penality L2 = 18 clock cycles 30. (b) T( n ) = 2T n + 1 ...(i)


(TAvg = 2 cycles)
Put n = 2k in equation (1)
Miss Rate (L1 = 2X)
taking log both side at base 2.
Miss Rate (L2 = X)
As we know that, log2 n = log 2 2k
TAverage = Hit time L1 + (Miss Rate L1 logn2 = k
× Miss Palenality L1) ...(1)
Miss Palenality L1 = Hit time L2 + (Miss Rate L2 k = log n2
× Miss Palenality L2) ....(2)
Put the given values in equation (1) and (2). T (2k ) = 2T (2k ) + 1
2 = 1 + 2 × (Miss Palenality 4)
= 2T [2k / 2 ] + 1
1 = 2 × (L1)
EBD_7203
2017 -34 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
33. (b) As given table is:
ék ù
Assume, T [2k ] = d(k ), T [2 k / 2 ] = d ê ú
ë2û Proces Current Maximum Remainin Current
s Allocation Requiremen g Need Avialable
ék ù
d[k ] = 2d ê ú + 1 P1 3 7 7 – 3 = 4 9 – 7 = 12
ë2û
P2 1 6 6– 1=5 5
Using first case of second rule of Masters Theorm. If P3 3 5 5– 3=2 8
k
(n logb a = n ) There are total 9 tape drives.
Then T (n) = Q[nk log(n)] So according to the above table we can see that, it
have currently allocated 7 tape drive, so currently
d( k ) = Q ( k ) available tape drive
Þ 9 – 7 = 2.
T [2k ] = Q(k )
So, P3 can use it and after using, it will release 3 then
new resources are available = 5, then P1 can use it and
T [ n] = Q[log n2 ] it will release 3, so new available resources = 8, and
lastly P2 can use it so all the process are in 'SAFE
Hence, option (b) is correct.
STATE' and there will be No 'DEADLOCK'.
31. (b) g y ( z ) = ((1 - b) + b z ) N Then we can get the following 2 safe sequence
If g y(z) is expanded, we would get a bionomial (1) <P3, P2, P1> (2) <P3, P1, P2>.
distribution with n = N and P = b. So, system is in safe state from (P3®P1®P2) and no
deadlocked.
So, the E[ y ] = nP = N b
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Hence option (B) is correct.
34. (a) As given that Code = 00000, 01011, 10101, 11110
32. (c) E ® E -T |T Let Code 1 is 0 0 0 0 0
T ®T + F | F Code 2 is 0 1 0 1 1
Code 3 is 1 0 1 0 1
F ® ( E ) | id
Code 4 is 1 1 1 1 0
Using the rule for removal of left recursion is Then the hamming distance between code 1 and code
2 is (3), because only three different digit between two
A ® Aa / b code. Similarly :
A ® bA ' hamming distance between (Code 1 and Code 3),
A ' ® a A '/ Î (Code 1 and Code 4), (Code 2 and Code 3), (Code 2 and
Code 4), (Code 3 and Code 4) are 3, 4, 4, 3, 3 respectively.
Then, the given grammar is written as :-
So, as per given data, minimum hamming distance of all
E ' ® -TE '/ Î code words is (P) considered as hamming distance is
= 3, (P = 3).
E ® +TE '
Now, the maximum number of erroneous bits that can be
T ' ® + FT '/ Î corrected (Code q), by the Hamming Code is = (2q + 1).
T ® FT ' According to hamming code,
F ® ( E ) | id Minimum hamming distance of all the code word equal
to the Maximum number of erroneous bits that can be
Now by putting E ' as X and T ' as Y, then corrected by the hamming code is
X ® -TX / Î 3 = (2q + 1)
E ® TX 3 – 1 = 2q

Y ® + FY / Î 2
q= =1
T ® FY 2

F ® ( E ) | id q =1
Hence option (c) is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-35

35. (d) As given that Let q = quotient and r = remainder.


B (Bandwidth) = 106 bits/sec So to divide a number with repeated subtraction,
D (Distance) = 10,000 Km = 104 × 103 m = 107 m quotient should be initialized to zero and should be
incremented for each subtraction.
V (Velocity) = 2 × 108 m/s
So, initially q = 0, then
L(Data size) = 50,000 bytes = 50000 × 8 bits
X = (Y*0 + r)
Data size (r = X)
Transmission time (P) =
Bandwidth
Since y is subtracted from reach time in given code. In,
statement one and q incremented by 1, to avoid
50,000 × 8 bits
= undefined behavior. In statement two and the value of
106 bits/sec y should be greater than zero.
P = 400 m/sec. Therefore (q = = 0) & & (r = = X) & & (y > 0).
Distance Hence, option (c) is correct.
Propagation time (V) = 38. (c) In the given program,
Velocity
First loop will execute 'n' times and the inner loop (j),
10000×103 m will execute Q(n log (n)) times because for (i = 1), j will
= run from 1 to n by incrementing by '1' in each step j will
2 ´ 108 m/sec
run for n times, for (i = 2).
= 50 × 105 – 8 sec Similarly j will run from 1 to n by incrementing by '2', in
(q = 50 m/sec.) = 50 × 10–3sec each step j will run for (n/2) times and so on.
Hence option (d) is correct. Then the time complexity
36. (b) The given pre-order traversal of a binary search tree is
n n n n
Pre order is : (Root, left, Right) Tn = + + + ..... ....log( n - 1)
1 2 3 (n - 1)
Pre order : 12, 8, 6, 2, 7, 9, 10, 16, 15, 19, 17, 20
In order is : (Left, Root, Right), é1 1 1 1 ù
= n ê + + + ..... ú - log( n - 1)
So in order of given sequence is : 2, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 15, ë 1 2 3 ( n - 1) û
16, 17, 19, 20.
= n log (n – 1) – log (n – 1)
Then tree will be :
= n log (n – 1)
12 \ By neglected negative terms

8 16 = Q(n log n)
Hence option (c) is correct.
6 9 18 19
39. (c) Converting the table to a state diagram then we get.

2 7 10 17 20 q1
b b
Now, post order is : (Left, Right, Root) a
Post order will be, 2, 7, 6, 10, 9, 8, 15, 17, 20, 19, 16, 12 q0 a,
q3
Hence option (b) is correct.
37. (c) The given programe is : b
While (r > = y) q2
{
r = r – y; (/*statement 1*/)
q = q + 1; (/* statement 2*/) then, dˆ (q2 , aba) = All states reachable from q2 by aba.
}
If aba is broken as Î, a, Î, Î, b, a. then from q2 it can
Condition given
reach q1 and from there by null transaction to reach
X = (Y*q + r) state q2 as well as q0.
EBD_7203
2017 -36 SOLVED PAPER - 2017

Consider, (q2 , a) = (q2 , Î a) = {q1 , q2 q0 }.


+ +
Q1 Q0 Q1 Q0 T1 T0
(q2 , ab) = (q1 , b) = {q0 , q3 , q2 }
0 0 0 1 0 1
(q2 , b) = {q0 , q2 } 0 1 1 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
(q0 , b) = {q0 , q2 } .
1 1 1 1 0 0
(q2 , aba) = (q0 , a) = {q1 , q2 , q0 }
By using T flipflops, the counter is build as a
(q1 , a) = {q2 , q0 } synchronous sequential circuit.
Then the expression for T1 and T0 are,
(q2 , a) = {q1 , q2 , q0 }
T1 = Q1Q0
(q3 , a ) = {q3 }
T2 = (Q1Q0 ) + (Q1Q0 ) + (Q1Q0 )
Then, dˆ (q2 , aba) = {q1 , q2 , q0 }
= ( Q0 (Q1 + Q1 ) + Q1Q0 )
= {q0 , q1 , q2 }
T2 = (Q1 + Q0 )
Hence option (c) is correct.
Hence option (b) is correct.
40. (d) Consider the given languages.
43. (3) The initial contents of the Array is :-
L1 = {aP|P is a Prime Number},

L2 = {a nb m c 2m | n ³ 0, m ³ 0} 3 5 1 4 6 2
0 1 2 3 4 5
L3 = {a nbn c 2n | n ³ 0} , L4 = {a nbn | n ³ 1} .
For first loop : i very from (0 to 4), then the contents of
Now, consider each option:
the Array are :
(i) L1 is context free but not regular is Incorrect because
it is not CFL, it is a CSL (Context sensitive language). i = 0 5 3 1 4 6 2
(ii) L2 is not CFL is also Incorrect because it is CFL. i = 1 5 3 1 4 6 2
(iii) L3 is not context free but recursive is correct because i = 2 5 3 4 1 6 2
L3 is CSL (context sensitive language) and every CSL i = 3 5 3 4 6 1 2
is recursive.
i = 4 5 3 4 6 2 1
(iv) L4 is deterministic context free is correct because L4 is
a proper subset of context free language. For second loop : i very from (5 to 1) then the contents
Hence option (d) is correct. of the Array are :
41. (d) Consider each options :
i = 5 5 3 4 6 2 1
(a) statement is membership problem of regular language
i = 4 5 3 4 6 2 1
and it is decidable for finite state machine and regular
expression. i = 3 5 3 6 4 2 1
(b) statement is emptyness problem of CFL emptyness i = 2 5 6 3 4 2 1
problem is decidable for CFG by checking usefulness i = 1 6 5 3 4 2 1
of start symbol.
Now, since done = 0, then the for loops will execute
(c) statement is a problem of CFL, and it is undecidable again.
problem, we can not check whether L(G) = S* or not
but rather we can check complement of L(G) is f. For first loop : again i is very from 0 to 4, then the
contents of the Array are :
(d) statement is a membership problem of a Turing
Machine and it is undecidable problem for turning i = 0 6 5 3 4 2 1
machine.
i = 1 6 5 3 4 2 1
So, options (c) and (d) are undecidable.
i = 2 6 5 4 3 2 1
Hence option (d) is correct.
i = 3 6 5 4 3 2 1
42. (b) The next state table of a 2-bit saturating up-counter is
i = 4 6 5 4 3 2 1
shown in given table :
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-37

For second loop : Again i is very from (5 to 1) then the 6. r1 ( X )r2 (Y )w1 ( X ) w2 (Y )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can
contents of the array are :
place in 4C2 = (6 ways).
* Total conflict serializable of T1 and T2
i = 5 6 5 4 3 2 1
= (53 + 1) = 54 ways.
i = 4 6 5 4 3 2 1
Hence 54 is correct answer.
i = 3 6 5 4 3 2 1
45. (4.72)As given table is :
i = 2 6 5 4 3 2 1
i = 1 6 5 4 3 2 1 Cache Read access time Hit ratio
L-cache 2 0.8
The value of done is still "zero". Hence the for loop will
execute again. D-cache 2 0.9
First for loop : L2-cache 8 0.9
This time there will be no change by the for loop. Read access time of Main memory is = 90
Then the value of done is '1', hence the loop terminate Hit ratio of Main memory is = 1.0
here, then the final contents of the Array are : So, average read time is :
6 5 4 3 2 1 (Fraction of Instruction fetch * Average Instruction
Fetch time + Frection of Data Fetch * Average Data
Hence, the output of the program array [3] is '3'. Hence fetch time).
answer is 3.
So, First find out the average Instruction fetch time :
44. (54) The given two transactions T1 and T2 are :
= (L1 acess time + L1 miss Rate * L2 access time
T1 : r1 ( X ) w1 ( X )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y ) + L1 miss rate* L2 miss rate * Memory Access time)
= (2 + 0.2 * 8 + 0.2 * 0.1 * 90) = 5.4 ns.
T2 : r2 (Y ) w2 (Y )r2 ( Z ) w2 ( Z )
Average Data fetch Time
The conflict condition RW, WR, WW, because there is
= (L1 access time + L1 miss rate + L2 access time + L1
only 'one' way to have serializable schedule as
miss rate * L2 miss rate * memory access time)
(T1 ® T2 ) because last operation of T1 and first
= (2 + 0.1 * 8 + 0.1 * 0.1 * 90) = 3.7 ns.
operation of T2 conflicts each other. (T1 ® T2 :1) . So, Avg memory access time
r1(X) w1(X) r1(Y) w1(Y) r2(Y) w2(Y) r2(Z) w2(Z). = (0.6 * 5.4 + 0.4 * 3.7) = 4.72 n sec.
Then, we see how many schedules are conflict Hence 4.72 is correct answer.
serializable to (T2 ® T1 ) for this, we writing S as : 46. (7) Consider the database table named top-scorer also
consider the given SQL query is :
S : r2 (Y ) w2 (Y ) r1 (Y ) w1 (Y ) Select ta. Player from to P_Scorer as ta.
r1 ( X ) w1 ( X ) must be before r1(Y), so that Where ta. goals > ALL (select tb. goals from top_ scorer
as tb where tb. country = 'Spain')
(r2 (Y ) w2 (Y ))(r1 ( X )w1 ( X )) can place, then 4C2 = 6 AND ta. goals > ANY (Select tc. goals from top_scorer
ways. as tc where tc.country = 'Germany')
Then the number of tables are :
1. r2 (Y )w2 (Y )r1 ( X ) w1 ( X )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can
place in 6C2 = 15 ways.
Player
2. r2 (Y )r1 ( X )w1 ( X ) w2 (Y )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can 1 K-los e
place in 4C2 = 6 ways. 2 Ron aldo
3. r2 (Y )r1 ( X )w2 (Y ) w1 ( X )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can 3 G-M u ller
place in 5C2 = 10 ways. 4 Fo ntaine
5 Pele
Total tables are : 7.
4. r1 ( X ) w1 ( X )r2 (Y ) w2 (Y )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can
6 Klin s man n
place in 4C2 = 6 ways.
7 Ko cs is
5. r1 ( X )r2 (Y )w2 (Y ) w1 ( X )r1 (Y ) w1 (Y )r2 (Z ) w2 ( Z ) can
place in 5C2 = (10 ways). Hence 7 is the correct answer.
EBD_7203
2017 -38 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
47. (15) The given sequence is 50. (225) By using haffman tree :

1+ z
{an }¥n = 0 = , 1.0
(1 - z )3 0 1

1+ z 0.59 0.41
Consider, 3
= (1 + z )(1 - z ) -3
(1 - z ) 0 1 0 1

(1 - z ) -3 = (1 + z )*(1 + 3C1 z + 4C2 z 2 + 5C3 z 3 + ......¥) 0.25 0.34 0.19 0.22


0 1
Q S P
a0 is first term in the expansion of above series and a3
0.08 0.17
is the fourth term or coefficient of z3.
Then, we find the value of a0 and a3, so T R
a0 (coefficient of z0) = 1 So, number of bit required for each alphabet :
T = 3 bit, R = 3 bit, Q = 2 bit, S = 2 bit, P = 2 bit
a3 (coefficient of z3) = 5C3 + 4C2
Then, average length per character is
= 10 + 6 = 16 = (number of bits * frequency of occurance of each
Then, a3 – a0 = 16 – 1 = 15. alphabets)
Hence 15 is correct answer. = 3 * 0.08 + 3 * 0.17 + 2 * 0.34 + 2 * 0.19 + 2 * 0.22
48. (54) Given poisson distribution. = 2.25 bits
E(X) = V(X) = l And, average length for 100 character = 2.25 * 100 = 225 bits.
So, E(X) = V(X) = 5 Hence, 225 bits is correct answer
51. (29)
then we find E[( X + 2)2 ] = E ( X 2 ) + 4 E ( X ) + 4
We know that Process Arrival Time Burst Time Priority
P1 0 11 2
(QV ( X ) = E ( X 2 ) - ( E ( X ))2 )
P2 5 28 0
So, putting the value of V(X) and E(X) in above equation
P3 12 2 3
Then, 5 = E(X2) – (5)2 P4 2 10 1
E(X2) = 25 + 5 = 30 P5 9 16 4
So, E[( X + 2)2 ] = E ( X 2 ) + 4 E ( X ) + 4 Total 28 67

= 30 + 4 × 5 + 4 = 54 Gantt chart for above problem looks like :


Hence, 54 is correct answer. P1 P4 P2 P 4 P1 P3 P5
49. (52) As given that : Search key = 8 bytes 0 2 5 33 40 49 51 67

Block size = 512 bytes. Waiting Time = (Completion time – Arrival time
Block pointer (BP) = 2 bytes. – Burst time).
Then maximum order of B+ tree is SAT = (0 + 5 + 12 + 2 + 9) = 28
Let K is the order then,
SBT = (11 + 28 + 2 + 10 + 16) = 67
K * Bp + ( K - 1)* Key £ Block size
SCT = (67 + 51 + 49 + 40 + 33) = 240
K *2 + ( K - 1) *8 £ 512 Waiting time = (240 – 28 – 67) = 145
10 K £ (512 + 8) 145
Average waiting time = = 29 ms
10 K £ 520 5
Hence, 29ms is correct answer.
æ 520 ö
K =ç ÷ = 52 52. (5) The given function is:
è 10 ø
Hence, 52 is correct answer. f (l) = l3 - 4l 2 + al + 30 = 0 ...(i)
SOLVED PAPER - 2017 2017-39

Here, (2) is one Root of this equation. (8) Print f ("%d", n);
So, (l = 2) Then, the output will be 0.
Then, f (2) = (2)3 – 4(2)2 + a × 2 + 30 = 0 Hence, 0 is correct answer.
Þ a = –11 55. (2) In the given program :
By putting the value of a in (i) equation. String Þ (C + 2[ P ] - 6[ P] - 1)
So, the equation is: l - 4l - 11l + 30 = 0
3 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Now, by polynomials division, we get, G A T E C S I T 2 0 1 7
100
é l3 - 4l 2 - 11l + 30 ù 2 0[P] 2[P] 6[P]
ê ú = (l - 2l - 15)
ë ( X - 2) û Let, address ((0[P] = 100) = C)
Strlen (C + 2[P] + 6[P] – 1)
So the root of l 2 - 2l - 15 = 0 are
= Strlen (100 + ('T ' – 'I') – 1)
2 ± 4 + 60 2 ± 8 No, putting ACCII value of T and I, then
l= = = 5 and - 3
2 2 = Strlen (100 + 11 – 1)
So, the value of l is 2, 5, –3 the Maximum value of the = Strlen (100 + 10)
eigen value of Matrix M is = 5. = Strlen (110)
Hence, 5 is correct answer. =2
53. (18) As given that, 56. (d)
Tha main memory size = 232 byte 57. (b)
Block size = 32 byte 58. (a) According to data arrangement is
Direct Mapped Cache line = 512 West ¬ X Z V W Y ® East
Address Forment : V is in middle
59. (b) Let number of MCQ,s be = x
32 bit
Let number of essay type Questions be = y
Tag Block Identi? er (L0 ) Block Size (W0 ) According to Question
X (log2 512) = 9 bit (log2 32) = 5 bit x + y = 20
9 bit 5 bit 3x + 11y = 100
So, the size of the tag field (X) = (32 – (5 + 9)) = 18 bit. After solving
Hence, 18 bits is correct answer. x = 15 ; y = 5
54. (0) Consider each statement in the program So there are 15 MCQs in test
(1) int m = 10; //m = 10 60. (d) Total socks = 10
(2) int n, n1; Probability of cutting 2 same colour socks
(3) n = + + m; //n = 11 3
C2 + 4C2 + 3C2 3 + 6 + 3 12
= =
(n = (++m)) will increment by m and it assign to n: 10
C2 45 45
(n = 11, m = 11)
(4) n1 = m++; //n = 11 4
P(E) =
n1 = m++; will assign (m) to (n1) and then 15
increment m by one. 61. (b)
So, (n1 = 11), (m = 12)
62. (b) has has has
(5) n– –; //n = 10 Apples Oranges Both
(n - -), decremented by 1 then (n = 10).
Oranges Apples Apples
(6) - - n1; //n1 = 10 Label: or or or
(- - n1) decremented by 1 then (n1 = 10) Both Both Oranges
(7) n - = n1; //n = 0 We will open box labeled apple and oranges & we draw
(n- = n1), same as n = (n – n1) = 10 – 10 = 0 one fruit.
EBD_7203
2017 -40 SOLVED PAPER - 2017
If it is apple, then it cannot be box containing apples & x2 -2
1
oranges as it must be incorrectly labeled. 64. (c) ex + = 0
2
So, it must contain apples.
2
Same case will happen if drawn fruit is orange
Then, we are left with two boxes & two labels & we know 1
label is incorrect on box so we can place correct label
–2 2
63. (a) 30 digit number can be assumed as 47 × 1028
y = 47 × 1028
2
Cubing on both sides 1x
ex = 2 -
2
y3 = (47)3 × (1028)3
Number of solution are 2
= 103828 × 1084 65. (c) In the figure region R has lowest pressure. Hence most
\ y3 has 90 digits likely to have thunderstorm in this region
2016
SET - 1
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question
numbers 11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
4. Questions are of multiple choice type (MCQ)or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four
choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERAL APTITUDE (a) zentaga (b) tagafer


(c) tagazen (d) relffer
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH 5. A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After
1. Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable it is built, one cubic block is removed from every corner of
sentence with respect to grammar and usage. the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square
(a) I will not leave the place until the minister does not meet me. units) after the removal is __________.
(b) I will not leave the place until the minister doesn’t meet me. (a) 56 (b) 64
(c) I will not leave the place until the minister meet me. (c) 72 (d) 96
(d) I will not leave the place until the minister meets me. QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
2. A rewording of something written or spoken is a
______________. 6. A shaving set company sells 4 different types of razors,
(a) paraphrase (b) paradox Elegance, Smooth, Soft and Executive. Elegance sells at Rs.
(c) paradigm (d) paraffin 48, Smooth at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at Rs. 173
per piece. The table below shows the numbers of each razor
3. Archimedes said, “Give me a lever long enough and a fulcrum
sold in each quarter of a year.
on which to place it, and I will move the world.”
The sentence above is an example of a _________ statement. Quarter/Pro du ct Elegance Smo oth So ft Executive
(a) figurative (b) collateral Q1 27300 20009 17602 9999
(c) literal (d) figurine
Q2 25222 19392 18445 8942
4. If ‘relftaga’ means carefree, ‘otaga’ means careful and
‘fertaga’ means careless, which of the following could mean Q3 28976 22429 19544 10234
‘aftercare’? Q4 21012 18229 16595 10109
EBD_7203
2016 -2 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
Which product contributes the greatest fraction to the 12. Let an be the number of n-bit strings that do NOT contain
revenue of the company in that year? two consecutive 1s. Which one of the following is the
(a) Elegance (b) Executive recurrence relation for an?
(c) Smooth (d) Soft (a) an = an–1+ 2an–2 (b) an = an–1+ an–2
7. Indian currency notes show the denomination indicated in (c) an = 2an–1+ an–2 (d) an = 2an–1+ 2an–2
at least seventeen languages. If this is not an indication of
the nation’s diversity, nothing else is. sin( x - 4)
13. lim = ________.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the x ®4 x-4
above sentences? 14. A probability density function on the interval [a,1] is given
(a) India is a country of exactly seventeen languages. by 1/x2 and outside this interval the value of the function is
(b) Linguistic pluralism is the only indicator of a nation’s zero. The value of a is ________.
diversity. 15. Two eigen values of a 3×3 real matrix P are (2+ -1) and 3.
(c) Indian currency notes have sufficient space for all the The determinant of P is _________.
Indian languages. 16. Consider the Boolean operator # with the following
(d) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s properties:
diversity. x#0 = x, x#1 = x , x#x = 0 and x # x = 1. Then x#y is equivalent
8. Consider the following statements relating to the level of
to
poker play of four players P, Q, R and S.
(a) x y + x y (b) x y + x y
I. P always beats Q
(c) x y + x y (d) x y + x y
II. R always beats S
17. The 16-bit 2’s complement representation of an integer is
III. S loses to P only sometimes
1111 1111 1111 0101; its decimal representation is ________.
IV. R always loses to Q
18. We want to design a synchronous counter that counts the
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the
above statements? sequence 0-1-0-2-0-3 and then repeats. The minimum number
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other players of J-K flip-flops required to implement this counter is
(ii) S is the absolute worst player in the set ________.
(a) (i) only 19. A processor can support a maximum memory of 4 GB, where
(b) (ii) only the memory is word-addressable (a word consists of two
(c) (i) and (ii) bytes). The size of the address bus of the processor is at
(d) neither (i) nor (ii) least _________bits.
9. If f (x) = 2x7+ 3x – 5, which of the following is a factor of f (x)? 20. A queue is implemented using an array such that ENQUEUE
(a) (x3 + 8) (b) (x – 1) and DEQUEUE operations are performed efficiently. Which
(c) (2x – 5) (d) (x + 1) one of the following statements is CORRECT (n refers to
10. In a process, the number of cycles to failure decreases the number of items in the queue)?
exponentially with an increase in load. At a load of 80 units, (a) Both operations can be performed in O(1) time
it takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load is halved, it (b) At most one operation can be performed in O(1) time
takes 10000 cycles for failure. The load for which the failure but the worst case time for the other operation will be
will happen in 5000 cycles is ________. W(n)
(a) 40.00 (b) 46.02 (c) The worst case time complexity for both operations
(c) 60.01 (c) 92.02
will be W(n)
(d) Worst case time complexity for both operations will be
TECHNICAL SECTION W(log n)
21. Consider the following directed graph:
QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
11. Let p, q, r, s represent the following propositions: b c
p: x Î {8, 9, 10, 11,12}
a f
q: x is a composite number
r: x is a perfect square d e
s: x is a prime number
The number of different topological orderings of the vertices
The integer x > 2 which satisfies Ø((p Þ q) ^ ( Ø r Ú Ø s)) is _____. of the graph is ________ .
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2016-3

22. Consider the following C program: 26. Which of the following languages is generated by the given
void f (int, short); grammar?
void main () S ® aS | bS | e
{ int i = 100;
(a) {anbm |n, m > 0}
short s = 12;
(b) {w Î {a, b}*|w has equal number of a’s and b’s}
short *p = &s;
__________ ; // call to f () (c) {an|n > 0} È {bn | n > 0} È {anbn|n > 0}
} (d) {a,b}*
Which one of the following expressions, when placed in the 27. Which of the following decision problems are undecidable?
blank above, will NOT result in a type checking error? I. Given NFAs N1 and N2, is L(N1) Ç L(N2) = F?
(a) f (s,*s) (b) i = f (i, s) II. Given a CFG G = (N, S, P, S) and a string x Î S*, does
x Î L(G)?
(c) f (i,*s) (d) f (i,*p)
III. Given CFGs G1 and G2 is L(G1) = L(G2)?
23. The worst case running times of Insertion sort, Merge sort
and Quick sort, respectively, are: IV. Given a TM M, is L(M) = F?
(a) I and IV only (b) II and III only
(a) Q (n log n), Q (n log n), and Q (n2)
(c) III and IV only (d) II and IV only
(b) Q (n2), Q (n2), and Q (n log n)
28. Which one of the following regular expressions represents
(c) Q (n2), Q (n log n), and Q (n log n) the language: the set of all binary strings having two
(d) Q (n2), Q (n log n), and Q (n2) consecutive 0s and two consecutive 1s?
24. Let G be a weighted connected undirected graph with distinct (a) (0+1)*0011(0+1)*+(0+1)*1100(0+1)*
positive edge weights. If every edge weight is increased by (b) (0+1)*(00(0+1)*11+11(0+1)*00)(0+1)*
the same value, then which of the following statements is/ (c) (0+1)*00(0+1)*+(0+1)*11(0+1)*
are TRUE? (d) 00(0+1)*11+11(0+1)*00
P: Minimum spanning tree of G does not change 29. Consider the following code segment:
Q: Shortest path between any pair of vertices does not change x = u – t;
(a) P only (b) Q only y = x * v;
(c) Neither P nor Q (d) Both P and Q x = y + w;
25. Consider the following C program: y = t – z;
#include <stdio.h> y = x * y;
void mystery (int *ptra, int *ptrb){ The minimum number of total variables required to convert
the above code segment to static single assignment form
int *temp; is __________.
temp = ptrb; 30. Consider an arbitrary set of CPU-bound processes with
ptrb = ptra; unequal CPU burst lengths submitted at the same time to a
computer system. Which one of the following process
ptra = temp;
scheduling algorithms would minimize the average waiting
} time in the ready queue?
int main() { (a) Shortest remaining time first
int a=2016, b=0, c=4, d=42; (b) Round-robin with time quantum less than the shortest
mystery (&a, &b); CPU burst

if (a < c) (c) Uniform random


(d) Highest priority first with priority proportional to CPU
mystery (&c, &a);
burst length
mystery (&a, &d);
31. Which of the following is NOT a superkey in a relational
printf (“%d\n”, a); schema with attributes V,W, X, Y, Z and primary key V Y?
} (a) VXYZ (b) VWXZ
The output of the program is_______ . (c) VWXY (d) VWXYZ
EBD_7203
2016 -4 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
32. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the ACID Step 4. If the outcomes are (TAILS, TAILS), then go to
properties of database transactions? Step 1.
(a) Atomicity (b) Consistency The probability that the output of the experiment is Y is (up
(c) Isolation (d) Deadlock-freedom to two decimal places)________ .
33. A database of research articles in a journal uses the following 40. Consider the two cascaded 2-to-1 multiplexers as shown in
schema. the figure.
(VOLUME, NUMBER, STARTPAGE, ENDPAGE, TITLE, YEAR, PRICE)
R
The primary key is (VOLUME, NUMBER, STARTPAGE, ENDPAGE)
and the following functional dependencies exist in the
schema. 0 0 X
0 2-to-1 2-to-1
(VOLUME, NUMBER, STARTPAGE, ENDPAGE) ® TITLE 1
R 1 MUX MUX
(VOLUME, NUMBER) ® YEAR s s
(VOLUME, NUMBER, STARTPAGE, ENDPAGE) ® PRICE
The database is redesigned to use the following schemas.
P Q
(VOLUME, NUMBER, STARTPAGE, ENDPAGE, TITLE, PRICE)
(VOLUME, NUMBER, YEAR) The minimal sum of products form of the output X is
Which is the weakest normal form that the new database (a) P Q+PQ R (b) P Q +Q R
satisfies, but the old one does not?
(a) 1NF (b) 2NF (c) P Q + P Q R (d) Q P + P Q R
(c) 3NF (d) BCNF 41. The size of the data count register of a DMA controller is 16
34. Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to bits. The processor needs to transfer a file of 29,154 kilobytes
resolve one form of address to another one? from disk to main memory. The memory is byte addressable.
(a) DNS (c) ARP The minimum number of times the DMA controller needs to
(b) DHCP (d) RARP get the control of the system bus from the processor to
transfer the file from the disk to main memory is __________.
35. Which of the following is/are example(s) of stateful
42. The stage delays in a 4-stage pipeline are 800, 500, 400 and
application layer protocols?
300 picoseconds. The fir st stage (with delay 800
(i) HTTP (ii) FTP (iii) TCP (iv) POP3
picoseconds) is replaced with a functionally equivalent
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only design involving two stages with respective delays 600 and
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (iv) only 350 picoseconds. The throughput increase of the pipeline is
__________ percent.
QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
43. Consider a carry lookahead adder for adding two n-bit
36. The coefficient of x12 in (x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 + ...)3 is _______ . integers, built using gates of fan-in at most two. The time to
37. Consider the recurrence relation a1 = 8, an = 6n 2 + 2n + an-1. perform addition using this adder is
Let a99 = K ×104. The value of K is _________. (a) Q (1) (b) Q (log)(n))
38. A function f : ¥ + ® ¥ +, defined on the set of positive (c) Q ( n ) (d) Q (n)
44. The following function computes the maximum value
integers ¥ +, satisfies the following properties:
contained in an integer array p[ ] of size n (n >= 1).
f (n) = f (n/2) if n is even int max (int *p, int n){
f (n) = f (n+5) if n is odd int a = 0, b = n –1;
Let R = {i| $ j : f ( j) = i} be the set of distinct values that while (__________){
f takes.The maximum possible size of R is_______. if (p[a]<= p[b]){a = a + 1;}
39. Consider the following experiment: else {b = b – 1;}
Step 1. Flip a fair coin twice. }
Step 2. If the outcomes are (TAILS, HEADS) then output return p[a];
Y and stop. }
Step 3. If the outcomes are either (HEADS, HEADS) or The missing loop condition is
(HEADS, TAILS), then output N and stop. (a) a != n (b) b != 0
(c) b > (a+1) (d) b != a
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2016-5

45. What will be the output of the following C program? 50. G = (V,E) is an undirected simple graph in which each edge
void count (int n){ has a distinct weight, and e is a particular edge of G. Which
static int d=1; of the following statements about the Minimum Spanning
Trees (MSTs) of G is/are TRUE?
print f (“%d”, n); I. If e is the lightest edge of some cyclein G, then every
print f (“%d”, d); MST of G includes e
d++;
II. If e is the heaviest edge of some cyclein G, then
if (n>1) count (n – 1);
every MST of G excludes e
print f (“%d”, d);
} (a) I only (b) II only
void main( ){ (c) both I and II (d) neither I nor II
count(3); 51. Let Q denote a queue containing sixteen numbers and S be
} an empty stack. Head (Q) returns the element at the head of
(a) 3 1 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 (b) 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 the queue Q without removing it from Q. Similarly Top (S)
(c) 3 1 2 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 returns the element at the top of S without removing it from
46. What will be the output of the following pseudo-code when S. Consider the algorithm given below.
parameters are passed by reference and dynamic scoping is
assumed?
a = 3; while Q is not Empty do
void n(x) {x = x * a; print(x);} if S is Empty OR Top(S) £ Head(Q) then
x := Dequeue(Q);
void m(y) {a = 1; a = y – a; n(a); print(a);} Push(S, x);
void main( ) {m(a);} else
x := Pop(S);
(a) 6, 2 (b) 6, 6 Enqueue(Q, x);
(c) 4, 2 (d) 4, 4 end
end
47. An operator delete (i) for a binary heap data structure is to
be designed to delete the item in the i-th node. Assume that
the heap is implemented in an array and i refers to the i-th
index of the array. If the heap tree has depth d (number of The maximum possible number of iterations of the while loop
edges on the path from the root to the farthest leaf), then in the algorithm is _________.
what is the time complexity to re-fix the heap efficiently after 52. Consider the following context-free grammars:
the removal of the element?
G1: S ® aS | B, B ® b | bB
(a) O (1)
G2: S ® aA | bB, A ® aA | B | e, B ® bB | e
(b) O (d) but not O (1)
Which one of the following pairs of languages is generated
(c) O (2d) but not O (d)
by G1 and G2, respectively?
(d) O (d 2d) but not O (2d)
(a) {ambn|m > 0 or n > 0} and {ambn|m > 0 and n > 0}
48. Consider the weighted undirected graph with 4 vertices,
where the weight of edge {i, j} is given by the entry Wi j in (b) {ambn|m > 0 and n > 0} and {ambn|m > 0 or n ³ 0}
the matrix W. (c) {ambn|m ³ 0 or n > 0} and {ambn|m > 0 and n > 0}

é0 2 8 5ù (d) {ambn|m ³ 0 and n > 0} and {ambn|m > 0 or n > 0}


ê2 0 5 8 úú 53. Consider the transition diagram of a PDA given below with
ê
W = ê8 5 0 xú input alphabet å = {a, b} and stack alphabet G = {X, Z}.
ê ú Z is the initial stack symbol. Let L denote the language
ë5 8 x 0û
accepted by the PDA.
The largest possible integer value of x, for which at least
one shortest path between some pair of vertices will a, X/XX
a, X/XZ b, X/e
contain the edge with weight x is ________.
49. Let G be a complete undirected graph on 4 vertices, having 6
edges with weights being 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The maximum b, X/e e, Z/Z
possible weight that a minimum weight spanning tree of G
can have is ________ .
EBD_7203
2016 -6 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
Which one of the following is TRUE? (a1, a2,..., a20, a1, a2, ..., a20), where each ai is a distinct virtual
page number. The difference in the number of page faults
(a) L= {anbn|n ³ 0} and is not accepted by any finite
between the last-in-first-out page replacement policy and
automata
the optimal page replacement policy is _________.
(b) L = {an|n ³ 0} È {anbn|n ³ 0} and is not accepted by 60. Consider the following proposed solution for the critical
any deterministic PDA
section problem. There are n processes : P0...Pn–1. In the
(c) L is not accepted by any Turing machine that halts on code, function pmax returns an integer not smaller than
every input any of its arguments. For all i, t[i] is initialized to zero.
(d) L = {an|n ³ 0} È {anbn|n ³ 0} and is deterministic Code for Pi:
context-free do {
54. Let X be a recursive language and Y be a recursively
c[i] = 1; t[i] = pmax (t[0],..., t[n – 1]) + 1; c[i] = 0;
enumerable but not recursive language. Let W and Z be
two languages such that Y reduces to W, and Z reduces for every j ¹ i in{0,..., n–1} {
to X (reduction means the standard many-one reduction). while(c[j]) ;
Which one of the following statements is TRUE? while(t[j] != 0 && t[j] <= t[i]);
(a) W can be recursively enumerable and Z is recursive. }
(b) W can be recursive and Z is recursively enumerable. Critical Section ;
(c) W is not recursively enumerable and Z is recursive.
t[i] = 0 ;
(d) W is not recursively enumerable and Z is not
Remainder Section;
recursive.
55. The attributes of three arithmetic operators in some } while (true);
programming language are given below. Which one of the following is TRUE about the above
Operator Precedence Associativity Parity solution?
+ High Left Binary
(a) At most one process can be in the critical section at
– Medium Right Binary
any time.
* Low Left Binary
The value of the expression 2 – 5 + 1 – 7 * 3 in this language (b) The bounded wait condition is satisfied.
is _________ . (c) The progress condition is satisfied.
56. Consider the following Syntax Directed Translation Scheme
(d) It cannot cause a deadlock.
(SDTS), with non-terminals {S, A}and terminals{a, b}.
61. Consider the following two phase locking protocol.
S ® aA {print 1}
Suppose a transaction T accesses (for read or write
S ® a {print 2}
operations), a certain set of objects {O1; ...,Ok. This is
A ® Sb {print 3}
done in the following manner:
Using the above SDTS, the output printed by a bottom-
up parser, for the input aab is: Step 1. T acquires exclusive locks to O1, ..., Ok in
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 2 3 increasing order of their addresses.
(c) 2 3 1 (d) syntax error Step 2. The required operations are performed.
57. Consider a computer system with 40-bit virtual addressing Step 3. All locks are released.
and page size of sixteen kilobytes. If the computer system This protocol will
has a one-level page table per process and each page table (a) guarantee serializability and deadlock-freedom
entry requires 48 bits, then the size of the per-process
(b) guarantee neither serializability nor deadlock-freedom
page table is _________ megabytes.
58. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on (c) guarantee serializability but not deadlock-freedom
cylinders 47, 38, 121, 191, 87, 11, 92, 10. The C-LOOK (d) guarantee deadlock-freedom but not serializability
scheduling algorithm is used. The head is initially at 62. Consider that B wants to send a message m that is digitally
cylinder number 63, moving towards larger cylinder signed to A. Let the pair of private and public keys for A
numbers on its servicing pass. The cylinders are numbered and B be denoted by K x- and K x+ for x = A, B,
from 0 to 199. The total head movement (in number of respectively. Let Kx(m) represent the operation of encrypting
cylinders) incurred while servicing these requests is
m with a key Kx and H(m) represent the message digest.
_______ .
Which one of the following indicates the CORRECT way
59. Consider a computer system with ten physical page
of sending the message m along with the digital signature
frames. The system is provided with an access sequence
to A?
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2016-7

(a) {m, K+B (H(m))} (b) {m, K–B (H(m))} output at a rate of 10 megabytes per second. The token
(c) {m, K–A (H(m))} (d) {m, K+A (m)} bucket is currently full and the machine needs to send 12
63. An IP datagram of size 1000 bytes arrives at a router. The mega bytes of data. The minimum time required to transmit
router has to forward this packet on a link whose MTU the data is _______ seconds.
(maximum transmission unit) is 100 bytes. Assume that the 65. A sender uses the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol for reliable
size of the IP header is 20 bytes. transmission of frames. Frames are of size 1000 bytes and
The number of fragments that the IP datagram will be the transmission rate at the sender is 80 Kbps (1Kbps =
divided into for transmission is __________ . 1000 bits/second). Size of an acknowledgement is 100
64. For a host machine that uses the token bucket algorithm bytes and the transmission rate at the receiver is 8Kbps.
for congestion control, the token bucket has a capacity The one-way propagation delay is100 milliseconds.
of 1 megabyte and the maximum output rate is 20 Assuming no frame is lost, the sender throughput is
megabytes per second. Tokens arrive at a rate to sustain ________ bytes/second.
EBD_7203
2016 -8 SOLVED PAPER - 2016

1. (d) The use of double negatives in a single is unacceptable 10. (b)


according to the current English standard. From the above data, we can say
2. (a) Paraphrase means the rewording of something written Exponent = log(cycles) × load
or spoken. Paradox means an absurd statement. Þx = log(10000) × 80 = 160
Paradigm means an example or pattern of something.
Paraffin means a liquid made from coal or petroleum. 160
\ load = = 43.25
3. (a) The given statement is an example of figurative log 5000
statement which means words or phrases used not Since 40.00 < 43.25 < 46.02
with their basic meaning but with a more imaginative \ (b) is correct.
meaning to create a special effect. 11. 11
4. (c) taga and care are a matching pair in every combination.
(p Þ q) will result {8, 9, 10, 12}
So, taga surely represents care.
Ø r will result {8,10, 11, 12}
fer ® less
Ø s will result {8, 9, 10, 12}
o ® full
Also, after checking it is found that the second half of ( Ø r Ú Ø s) will result {8, 9, 10, 11, 12}
the word in encoded value refers to the first half of the (p Þ q) Ù ( Ø r Ú Ø s) will result {8, 9, 10, 12}
word in the decoded value. Going by the same logic, Ø ((p Þ q) Ù ( Ør Ú Ø s)) will result 11.
the answer would be tagazen. 12. (b)
5. (d) The surface area of the body will remain unchanged as Case I ® First bit is ‘0’
when a cube is removed, it exposes three faces, which
makes the number of exposed faces same as before
removal. 0_ _ a_n _–1_ _ _
So, surface area of the body after removal Case II ® First bit is ‘1’
= 6 × side × side 0_ _an_–2_ _ _ 10 ® (It must be zero)
= 6 × 4 × 4 = 96
6. (b) Revenue from Elegance
= (27300 + 25222 + 28976 + 21012) × 48 \ an = an –1 + an – 2
= ` 4920480 sin ( x - 4 ) sin ( x - 4 )
Revenue from Smooth = (20009 + 19392 + 22429 + 18229) 13. lim = lim
x ®4 x-4 x - 4®0 x -4
× 63 = ` 5043717
Revenue from Soft = (17602 + 18445 + 19544 + 16595) × sin y
78 = ` 56350508 = lim (By taking y = x - 4) = 1
y ®0 y
Revenue from Executive = (9999 + 8942 + 10234 + 10109)
× 173 = ` 6796132 14. 0.5
Total revenue = ` 22390837 1
Fraction of Revenue for Elegance = 0.29 Given f(x) = x Î [a , 1 ]
Fraction of Revenue for Smooth = 0.225 x2
Fraction of Revenue for Soft = 0.251 = 0 otherwise
Fraction of Revenue for Executive = 0.303 1
Hence (b) is the correct option.
7. (d) We know that ò f ( x ) dx = 1
a
The second sentence of the given para logically infer that
‘Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence of India’s diversity’. 1 1
8. (d) 1 æ -1 ö
Since S loses to P only sometimes no statement is true.
Þ ò x 2 dx = 1 Þ çè x ÷øa = 1
a
9. (b)
Given f(x) = 2x7 + 3x – 5, putting x = 1 in f(x) 1
2(1)7 + 3(1) – 5 = 0 Þ -1 = 1
a
5–5=0
Þ a = 0.5
\ (x – 1) is a factor of f(x).
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2016-9

15. 15 22. (d)


Given that 2 + -1 and 3 are two Eigen values of 3 × 3 real ‘i’ is integer and *P is value of a pointer to short.
23. (d)
matrix. That is (2 + i) and 3 are Eigen values. But (2 – i) is also
The worst case running times of Insertion sort is O(n 2),
an Eigen value ( Q complex roots occur in pair only)
because of the series of swaps required for each insertion.
determinant of p = Product of Eigen values = (2 + i) × (2 – i)
Merge sort is O(n log n) as merge sort always divides the
× 3 = 5 × 3 = 15
array in two halves and take linear time to merge two halves
16. (a) x #0 = x; and Quick sort is O(n2).
x #1 = x; 24. (a) The shortest path may change. The reason is, there
may be different number of edges in different paths
x # x = 0; from s to t. For example, let shortest path be of weight
10 and has 5 edges. Let there be another path with 2
x # x = 1.
edges and total weight 25. The weight of the shortest
This function # basically represents XOR.
path is increased by 5*10 and becomes 10 + 50. Weight
17. – 11 of the other path is increased by 2*10 and becomes 25
1111 1111 1111 0101
+ 20. So the shortest path changes to the other path
2’s complement 0000 0000 0000 1011 with weight as 45.
11 and Ist bit is 1 The Minimum Spanning Tree doesn't change.
So result is –11
Remember the Kruskal's algorithm where we sort the
18. 3 edges first. If we increase all weights, then order of
Let output of 3 flip-flops be S1, S2, S3. edges won't change.
S1 S2 S3 25. 2016
As in C, parameters are passed by value - even if they are
pointers. So, here the pointer values are exchanged within
the function only (one can use * operator to exchange the
values at the location of the pointers and this will affect the
A B C values in main). So, there will be no change in a, b, c, d. The
output of the program is 2016.
26. (d)
S1 S2 S3 A B C 27. (c) There is no known algorithm to verify whether the
1 0 0 1 0 0 language accepted by TM is empty or not. Similarly
there is no algorithm to verify whether language of
0 0 1 0 0 1
CFG’s are equivalent.
1 0 1 1 0 0 28. (b) Option (a) contains 00 and 11 consecutively which
0 1 0 0 1 0 does not fulfill the required condition. Option (c) does
1 1 0 1 0 0 not give assurance that both 00 and 11 will be exist in
0 1 1 0 1 1 the string.
According to option (d), string should start with 11
So, if one takes BC as final output, then it can generate the and ends with 00 or vice versa. Hence option (b) is the
sequence 0 ® 1 ® 0 ® 2 ® 0 ®3. Hence the answer is 3. correct answer.
19. 31 29. 10
Maximum memory = 4 GB = 232 bytes 30. (a) SRTF is the preemptive SJF which generates less
Size of a word = 2 bytes average waiting time in which jobs are schedule
Therefore, Number of words = 232/2 = 231 according to shortest remaining time.
So, we require 31 bits for the address bus of the processor. 31. (b) Super key = Candidate key + other attributes. But
20. (a) We can use circular array to implement both O(1) time. option (b) does not include Y which is part of candidate
21. 6 Key.
The different topological orderings will be as follows: 32. (d) ‘D’ stands for Durability, not deadlock-freedom.
(1) a b c d e f 33. (a) The candidate key is (volume, number, start page, end
(2) a d e b c f page), (Volume, number) ® year is a partial dependency.
(3) a b d c e f But it does not follow 2NF.
(4) a d b c e f 34. (c) DHCP is not used to resolve one form of address to
(5) a b d e c f another. DHCP is used to assign IP dynamically. All
(6) a d b e c f others are used to convert one address to other.
EBD_7203
2016 -10 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
35. (c) TCP is stateful as it maintains connection information
across multiple transfers, but TCP is not an application æ ö
1æ 1 æ1ö ö 1ç 1 ÷ 1 4 1
2
layer protocol. Of the given protocols, only FTP and ç1 + + + ..... ÷ = ç ÷= ´ =
POP3 are stateful application layer protocols. = 4 ç 4 çè 4 ÷ø ÷ 4ç 1 4 3 3
è ø ç 1 - ÷÷
36. 10 è 4ø
(x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 + ....)3 = 0.33
= x9 (1 + x + x2 + .......)3 40. (d)
= x9 ((1 – x)–1)3
= x9 (1 – x)–3 The output of first multiplexer is Y1 = P0 + PR = PR
The output of second multiplexer is
¥
( n + 1)( n + 2 ) x n
=x å
9
2 X = QR + QY1 = QR + QPR
n=0
To find the coefficient of x12, put n = 3 Þ QR + PQR
4´5 41. 456
= = 10 Number of times the DMA controller needs to get the control
2
of the system bus from the processor to transfer the file
37. 198 from the disk to main memory =
The given recurrence relation can be written as
an – an–1 = 6n2 + 2n ...(i) 29154kB
Þ Þ 455.53125 = 456
Hence, the characteristic equation is m – 1 = 0, m = 1 216 byte
and complementary solution = a (n1) = C1 (1) n = C1 42. 33.33
Old design tp = 800
(b)
(2
)
Let the particular solution be a n = An + Bn + C n ...(ii) New design tp = 600
800 - 600
(... RHS is second degree polynomial and 1 is root) Throughput = ´ 100% = 33.33%
By putting an = (An 2 + Bn + C)n in (1) and solving A = 600
2, B = 4, C = 2 43. (b)
44. (d)
General solution is a n = a (c) (b) 2
n + a n = C1 + (2n + 4n + 2) n P[a] will have the maximum value of the array, when a = b.
Given a1 = B Þ B = C1 + B Þ C1 = 0 45. (a)
Given a99 = K × 104
Þ [2(99)2 + 4(99) + 2]99 = 2[(100 – 1)2 + 2(100 – 1) +
(100 – 1)]
= 104(198) = K × 104 main()
K = 198
38. 2 Count (3)
In the given properties, we can observe that f(1) = f(2)
= f(3) = f(4) = f(6) = f(7) and f(5) = f(10) = f(15) = ....
Obviously, the range of f(x) will contain two distinct Pr(4)
elements only. Pr(3) Pr(1) Count (2)
39. 0.33
From the given steps the probabilities of y are
2 Pr(4)
1 æ 1 öæ 1 ö æ 1 ö 1 Pr(2) Count (1)
, ç ÷ç ÷ , ç ÷ ,...... Pr(2)
4 è 4 øè 4 ø è 4 ø 4
Hence, Required probability
Pr(4)
1 æ 1 1 ö ææ 1 ö 1 ö
2
Pr(1) Pr(3) Count (0)
= 4 ç 4 4 ÷ ç ç 4 ÷ ´ 4 ÷÷ + .....
+ ´ + ç
è ø èè ø ø
2 3 Output will be 312213444.
1 æ1ö æ1ö 46. (d)
= + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + .....
4 è4ø è4ø Dynamic scoping refers to definition of free variable in the
reverse order of calling sequence.
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2016-11

47. (b)
48. 12 print (1)
3
56. (c)
8 S¢
d b

2 print (3)
5 x 5 a A 2

a c b
8 Print (2)(1) s
The shortest path (excluding x) from 2 to 3 is of weight 12
(2–1–0–3). a
49. 7
57. 384
4 4 Size of memory = 240, Page size = 16KB = 214, No. of pages
= Size of Memory/page size = 240/214 = 226, Size of page
1 table = 226 * 48/8 bytes = 26*6 MB = 384 MB
1 3
5 6 Þ 58. 165
The head movement would be :
2 2
63 => 87 24 movements
50. (b) I is NOT true. Suppose in a rectangular with sides (1, 2,
87 => 92 5 movements
4, 5) and 3 is the weight of the diagonal connecting
vertex between (4, 5) and (1, 2), here e = 3 is the lightest 92 => 121 29 movements
edge of some cycle in G but in MST it is not including. 121 => 191 70 movements
II is true. Let the heaviest edge be e. Suppose the 191 => 10 0 movement
minimum spanning tree which contains e. If we add 10 => 11 1 movement
one more edge to the spanning tree we will create a
11 => 38 27 movements
cycle. Suppose we add edge e' to the spanning tree
which generated cycle C. We can reduce the cost of 38 => 47 9 movements
the minimum spanning tree if we choose an edge other Total head movements = 165
than e from C for removal which implies that e must not 59. 1
be in minimum spann ing tree and we get a a1a2........a20 a1a2...........a20
contradiction. LIFO
51. 256
... n = 16 0 a1
Therefore, maximum number of iterations will be n2 = 256 1 a2
52. (d) In G1, there will be atleast 1 b because S->B and B->b. 2 a3
But no. of A's can be 0 as well and no. of A and B are 3 a4
independent. In G2, either we can take S->aA or S->bB. 4 a5
So it must have atleast 1 a or 1 b. So option (d) is 5 a6
correct. 6 a7 a11 a12 a13 a14 a15 a16 a17 a18 a19 a 20
53. (d) Initial state is also the final state. 7 a8
So an is also accepted. 8 a9
54. (c) 9 a10
55. 9
2 – 5 + 1 – 7 * 3 Þ 2 – (5 + 1) – 7 * 3 For first a1 to a20, The no. of page faults = 20
Þ 2 – 6 – 7 * 3 Þ 2 – (6 – 7) * 3 Þ 2 – (–1) * 3 Now a1 to a9, Hit again a10 to a20 replace only 9th position,
Þ (2 + 1) * 3 Þ 3 * 3 = 9 so no. of page faults = 11. S0, total no. of page faults = 31
EBD_7203
2016 -12 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
Optimal 63. 13

0 a1 1000 Bytes MTU


1 a2 (980 + 20) Bytes 100 Bytes
2 a3 (80 + 20) Bytes
3 a4
Therefore the no. of fragments that are transferred in this
4 a5 case is 13.
5 a6 64. 1.2
6 a7 a11 a12 a13 a14 a15 a16 a17 a18 a19 a 20 Given c = 1 Mb
7 a8 Max Output rate (m) = 20 Mbps
Arrival rate (p) = 10 Mbps.
8 a9
\ The minimum time required to transmit the data is
9 a10
c
For first a1 to a20 there are 20 page faults. S=
m-p
Next a1 to a9, Hit again a10 to a19, replace any location from
1Mb 1
0 to 9 for a20 Hit. So total no. of page faults = 30. S= = = 0.1sec
20 - 10Mbps 10
Difference = 31 – 30 = 1
For 12 Mb of data, S value becomes 1.2 seconds.
60. (a) 65. 2500
61. (a) Frame size (L) = 1000 bytes
Sender side Bandwidth (Bs) = 80 kbps
Two phase locking protocol ensures serializability and due
Acknowledgement (LA) = 100 bytes
to following linear order in acquiring the locks, there will be Receiver side Bandwidth (BR) = 8kbps
no deadlock. Tp = 100 ms
62. (b) Tx
n=
Tx + Tack + 2Tp

Hash L 1000Bytes
M Tx ( msg ) = = = 100 ms
Function Bs 10 ´103 BPS

LA 100Bytes
TA ( Ack ) = = = 100 ms
Senders Private BR 1´103 BPS

Key (KB ) H(m) Tp =100 ms
\ Channel Utilization
Tn 100 ms 1
K -B (H (m )) = T + T + 2T = 100 ms + 100 ms + 200 ms = 4
Digital Signature n ack p
generator
1
\ Throughput = h × B = × 10 × 103 = 2.5 Kbps
+ M Å K -B (H (m)) 4
(or 2500 bps)
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-13

2016
SET - 2
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question
numbers 11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
4. Questions are of multiple choice type (MCQ)or numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four
choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERAL APTITUDE 4. Pick the odd one from the following options.
(a) CADBE (b) JHKIL
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH (c) XVYWZ (d) ONPMQ
5. In a quadratic function, the value of the product of the
1. The man who is now Municipal Commissioner worked as
____________________. a n + bn
roots (a, b) is 4. Find the value of
(a) the security guard at a university a - n + b- n
(b) a security guard at the university
(a) n4 (b) 4n
(c) a security guard at university
(c) 22n-1 (d) 4n-1
(d) the security guard at the university
2. Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is going to QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
cope with the difficult and seamer-friendly wickets in 6. Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 are
Australia. connected with each other through Facebook® and 85 are
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the connected through WhatsApp®. 30 faculty members do
underlined phrase in the above sentence. not have Facebook® or WhatsApp® accounts. The
(a) put up with (b) put in with number of faculty members connected only through
Facebook® accounts is ______________.
(c) put down to (d) put up against
(a) 35
3. Find the odd one in the following group of words.
mock, deride, praise, jeer (b) 45
(a) mock (b) deride (c) 65
(c) praise (d) jeer (d) 90
EBD_7203
2014 -14 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
7. Computers were invented for performing only high-end TECHNICAL SECTION
useful computations. However, it is no understatement
that they have taken over our world today. The internet, QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
for example, is ubiquitous. Many believe that the internet
itself is an unintended consequence of the original 11. Consider the following expressions:
invention. With the advent of mobile computing on our (i) false (ii) Q
phones, a whole new dimension is now enabled. One is left (iii) true (iv) PÚQ
wondering if all these developments are good or, more (v) ØQÚP
importantly, required. The number of expressions given above that are logically
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and implied by Þ P ^ (P Þ Q) is ________.
can be inferred from the above paragraph? 12. Let f (x) be a polynomial and g(x) = f– (x) be its derivative.
(i) The author believes that computers are not good for If the degree of ( f (x)+ f (–x)) is 10, then the degree of (g(x)
us. – g(–x)) is _______.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both intended 13. The minimum number of colours that is sufficient to vertex-
inventions. colour any planar graph is _______.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only 14. Consider the systems, each consisting of m linear equations
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii) in n variables.
I. If m < n, then all such systems have a solution
8. All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes. Which of
II. If m > n, then none of these systems has a solution
the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be
inferred from the above sentences? III. If m = n, then there exists a system which has a
solution
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station.
Which one of the following is CORRECT?
(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake. (a) I, II and III are true (b) Only II and III are true
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) Only III is true (d) None of them is true
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii) 15. Suppose that a shop has an equal number of LED bulbs
9. In a 2 × 4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is a of two different types. The probability of an LED bulb
rectangle. How many rectangles can be observed in the lasting more than 100 hours given that it is of Type 1 is
grid? 0.7, and given that it is of Type 2 is 0.4. The probability
that an LED bulb chosen uniformly at random lasts more
than 100 hours is _______.
16. Suppose that the eigen values of matrix A are 1, 2, 4. The
(a) 21 (b) 27 determinant of (A–1)T is _______.
17. Consider an eight-bit ripple-carry adder for computing the
(c) 30 (d) 36
sum of A and B, where A and B are integers represented
10. Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in the graph. in 2’s complement form. If the decimal value of A is one,the
decimal value of B that leads to the longest latency for
the sum to stabilize is _______.
2.5 18. Let, x1Åx2Åx3Åx4= 0 where x1, x2, x3, x4 are Boolean
f(x)
2 variables, and Å is the XOR operator. Which one of the
1.5 following must always be TRUE?
(a) x1x2x3x4 = 0 (b) x1x3 + x2 = 0
1
(c) x 1Å x 3 = x 2Å x 4 (d) x1+ x2+ x3+ x4 = 0
0.5
x
19. Let X be the number of distinct 16-bit integers in 2’s
0
complement representation. Let Y be the number of
-4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4
-0.5 distinct 16-bit integers in sign magnitude representation.
-1 Then X - Y is ______.
-1.5 20. A processor has 40 distinct instructions and 24 general
-2 purpose registers. A 32-bit instruction word has an
-2.5 opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand.
The number of bits available for the immediate operand
field is ________.
(a) f (x) = 1 – |x – 1| (b) f (x) = 1 + |x – 1| 21. Breadth First Search (BFS) is started on a binary tree
(c) f (x) = 2 – |x – 1| (d) f (x) = 2 + |x – 1| beginning from the root vertex. There is a vertex t at a
distance four from the root. If t is the n-th vertex in this BFS
traversal, then the maximum possible value of n is ________.
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-15

22. The value printed by the following program is _______. 28. Consider the following types of languages: L1 : Regular, L2
void f(int* p, int m){ : Context-free, L3 : Recursive, L4 : Recursively enumerable.
m = m + 5; Which of the following is/are TRUE?
*p = *p+m; I. L3 È L4 is recursively enumerable
return;
} II. L2 È L3 is recursive
void main () {
int i=5, j=10; III. L*1 Ç L2 is context-free
f(& i, j);
printf (“%d”, i+j);
IV. L1 È L2 is context-free
} (a) I only
23. Assume that the algorithms considered here sort the input (b) I and III only
sequences in ascending order. If the input is already in (c) I and IV only
ascending order, which of the following are TRUE? (d) I, II and III only
I. Quicksort runs in Q(n2) time 29. Match the following:
II. Bubblesort runs in Q(n2) time (P) Lexical analysis (i) Leftmost derivation
III. Mergesort runs in Q(n) time (Q) Top down parsing (ii) Type checking
IV. Insertion sort runs in Q(n) time (R) Semantic analysis (iii) Regular expressions
(a) I and II only (S) Runtime environments (iv) Activation records
(b) I and III only (a) P « i, Q « ii, R « iv,, S « iii
(c) II and IV only (b) P « iii, Q « i, R « ii, S « iv
(d) I and IV only (c) P « ii, Q « iii, R « i, S « iv
24. The Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all-pair shortest paths (d) P « iv, Q « i, R « ii, S « iii
computation is based on 30. In which one of the following page replacement algorithms
(a) Greedy paradigm. it is possible for the page fault rate to increase even when
(b) Divide-and-Conquer paradigm. the number of allocated frames increases?
(c) Dynamic Programming paradigm. (a) LRU (Least Recently Used)
(b) OPT (Optimal Page Replacement)
(d) Neither Greedy nor Divide-and-Conquer nor Dynamic
(c) MRU (Most Recently Used)
Programming paradigm.
(d) FIFO (First In First Out)
25. N items are stored in a sorted doubly linked list. For a
31. B+ Trees are considered BALANCED because
delete operation, a pointer is provided to the record to be
(a) the lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf
deleted. For a decrease-key operation, a pointer is
nodes are all equal.
provided to the record on which the operation is to be
(b) the lengths of the paths from the root to all leaf
performed.
nodes differ from each other by at most 1.
An algorithm performs the following operations on the list
(c) the number of children of any two non-leaf sibling
in this order: Q(N) delete, O(log N) insert, O(log N) find,
nodes differ by at most 1.
and Q(N) decrease-key. What is the time complexity of all
(d) the number of records in any two leaf nodes differ by
these operations put together?
at most 1.
(a) O(log2N) (b) O(N) 32. Suppose a database schedule S involves transactions T1,
(c) O(N2) (d) Q(N2 log N) ...., Tn. Construct the precedence graph of S with vertices
26. The number of states in the minimum sized DFA that representing the transactions and edges representing the
accepts the language defined by the regular expression conflicts. If S is serializable, which one of the following
(0 + 1) * (0 + 1) (0 + 1)* orderings of the vertices of the precedence graph is
is ________. guaranteed to yield a serial schedule?
27. Language L1 is defined by the grammar: S1 ® aS1b|e (a) Topological order
Language L2 is defined by the grammar: S2 ® abS2|e (b) Depth-first order
Consider the following statements: (c) Breadth-first order
P: L1 is regular (d) Ascending order of transaction indices
Q: L2 is regular 33. Anarkali digitally signs a message and sends it to Salim.
Which one of the following is TRUE? Verification of the signature by Salim requires
(a) Both P and Q are true (a) Anarkali’s public key.
(b) P is true and Q is false (b) Salim’s public key.
(c) P is false and Q is true (c) Salim’s private key.
(d) Both P and Q are false (d) Anarkali’s private key.
EBD_7203
2014 -16 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
34. In an Ethernet local area network, which one of the 40. Suppose the functions F and G can be computed in 5 and
following statements is TRUE? 3 nanoseconds by functional units UF and UG, respectively.
(a) A station stops to sense the channel once it starts Given two instances of UF and two instances of UG, it is
transmitting a frame. required to implement the computation F(G(Xi)) for 1 £ i
(b) The purpose of the jamming signal is to pad the £ 10. Ignoring all other delays, the minimum time required
frames that are smaller than the minimum frame size. to complete this computation is _______ nanoseconds.
(c) A station continues to transmit the packet even after 41. Consider a processor with 64 registers and an instruction
the collision is detected. set of size twelve. Each instruction has five distinct fields,
(d) The exponential backoff mechanism reduces the namely, opcode, two source register identifiers, one
probability of collision on retransmissions. destination register identifier, and a twelve-bit immediate
35. Identify the correct sequence in which the following value. Each instruction must be stored in memory in a
packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a byte-aligned fashion. If a program has 100 instructions, the
browser requests a web page from a remote server, amount of memory (in bytes) consumed by the program
assuming that the host has just been restarted. text is ________ .
(a) HTTP GET request, DNS query, TCP SYN 42. The width of the physical address on a machine is 40 bits.
(b) DNS query, HTTP GET request, TCP SYN The width of the tag field in a 512 KB 8-way set
(c) DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request associative cache is________bits.
(d) TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET request 43. Consider a 3GHz (Gigahertz) processor with a three-
stage pipeline and stage latencies t1 , t2 , and t3 such
that t1 = 3 t2 /4 = 2t3. If the longest pipeline stage is split
QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH into two pipeline stages of equal latency, the new
36. A binary relation R on ¥ × ¥ is defined as follows: (a, frequency is_______ GHz, ignoring delays in the
b)R(c, d). If a £ c or b £ d, consider the following pipeline registers.
propositions: 44. A complete binary min-heap is made by including each
P: R is reflexive integer in [1,1023] exactly once. The depth of a node in the
Q: R is transitive heap is the length of the path from the root of the heap
to that node. Thus, the root is at depth 0. The maximum
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
depth at which integer 9 can appear is _______.
(a) Both P and Q are true.
45. The following function computes XY for positive integers
(b) P is true and Q is false.
X and Y.
(c) P is false and Q is true.
int exp (int X, int Y) {
(d) Both P and Q are false.
int res = 1, a = X, b = Y;
37. Which one of the following well-formed formulae in while (b != 0) {
predicate calculus is NOT valid? if (b%2 == 0) {a = a*a; b = b/2;}
(a) ( " x p(x) Þ " xq(x)) Þ ( $ x Ø p(x) Ú " xq(x)) else {res = res*a; b = b – 1;}
(b) ( $ x p(x) Ú $ xq(x)) Þ $ x (p(x) Ú q(x)) }
(c) $ x (p(x) Ù q(x)) Þ ( $ x p(x) Ù $ xq(x)) return res;
(d) " x (p(x) Ú q(x)) Þ ( " x p(x) Ú " xq(x)) }
Which one of the following conditions is TRUE before
38. Consider a set U of 23 different compounds in a Chemistry
every iteration of the loop?
lab. There is a subset S of U of 9 compounds, each of (a) XY = ab
which reacts with exactly 3 compounds of U. Consider the (b) (res*a)Y = (res*X)b
following statements: (c) XY = res*ab
I. Each compound in U \ S reacts with an odd number of (d) XY = (res*a)b
compounds. 46. Consider the following New-order strategy for traversing
a binary tree:
II. At least one compound in U \ S reacts with an odd
• Visit the root;
number of compounds.
• Visit the right subtree using New-order;
III. Each compound in U \ S reacts with an even number • Visit the left subtree using New-order;
of compounds. The New-order traversal of the expression tree
Which one of the above statements is ALWAYS TRUE? corresponding to the reverse polish expression 3 4 * 5 –
(a) Only I (b) Only II 2 ^ 6 7 * 1 + – is given by:
(a) + – 1 6 7 * 2 ^ 5 – 3 4 *
(c) Only III (d) None (b) – + 1 * 6 7 ^ 2 – 5 * 3 4
39. The value of the expression 1399 (mod 17), in the range (c) – + 1 * 7 6 ^ 2 – 5 * 4 3
0 to 16, is ______ . (d) 1 7 6 * + 2 5 4 3 * – ^ –
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-17

47. Consider the following program: 52. Consider the following two statements:
int f(int *p, int n) I. If all states of an NFA are accepting states then the
{ language accepted by the NFA is å *.
if(n <= 1) return 0; II. There exists a regular language A such that for all
else return max (f (p+1, n–1), p[0]–p[1]); languages B, AÇB is regular.
} Which one of the following is CORRECT?
int main() (a) Only I is true
{ (b) Only II is true
int a[] = {3, 5, 2, 6, 4}; (c) Both I and II are true
printf(“%d”, f(a, 5)); (d) Both I and II are false
} 53. Consider the following languages:
Note: max(x, y) returns the maximum of x and y. L1 = {anbmcn+m : m, n ³ 1}
The value printed by this program is ________ .
L2 = {anbnc2n : n ³ 1}
48. Let A1, A2, A3, and A4 be four matrices of dimensions 10
× 5, 5×20, 20×10, and10 × 5, respectively. The minimum Which one of the following is TRUE?
number of scalar multiplications required to find the (a) Both L1 and L2 are context-free.
product A1A2A3A4 using the basic matrix multiplication (b) L1 is context-free while L2 is not context-free.
method is ________.
(c) L2 is context-free while L1 is not context-free.
49. The given diagram shows the flow chart for a recursive
(d) Neither L1 nor L2 is context-free.
function A(n). Assume that all statements, except for the
recursive calls, have O(1) time complexity. If the worst case 54. Consider the following languages:
time complexity of this function is O(na), then the least L1 = {<M> | M takes at least 2016 steps on some input};
possible value (accurate up to two decimal positions) of a L2 = {<M> | M takes at least 2016 steps on all inputs} and
is ________.
L3 = {<M> | M accepts e};
Flowchart for Recursive Function A(n)
where for each Turing machine M, <M> denotes a specific
encoding of M. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Start
(a) L1 is recursive and L2, L3 are not recursive
A(n / 2)
(b) L2 is recursive and L1, L3 are not recursive
(c) L1, L2 are recursive and L3 is not recursive
Return A(n / 2) A(n / 2) A(n / 2) Return (d) L1, L2, L3 are recursive
55. Which one of the following grammars is free from left
recursion?
A(n / 2)
(a) S ® AB
A ® Aa | b
Return A(n / 2) Return
B ® c
(b) S ® Ab | Bb | c
50. The number of ways in which the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, A ® Bd | e
6, 7 can be inserted in an empty binary search tree, such
that the resulting tree has height 6, is ________. B ® e
Note: The height of a tree with a single node is 0. (c) S ® Aa | B
51. In an adjacency list representation of an undirected simple A ® Bb | Sc | e
graph G = (V, E), each edge (u, v) has two adjacency list
entries: [v] in the adjacency list of u, and [u] in the B ® d
adjacency list of v. These are called twins of each other. (d) S ® Aa | Bb | c
A twin pointer is a pointer from an adjacency list entry to
A ® Bd | e
its twin. If |E| = m and |V | = n, and the memory size is not
a constraint, what is the time complexity of the most B ® Ae | e
efficient algorithm to set the twin pointer in each entry in 56. A student wrote two context-free grammars G1 and G2 for
each adjacency list? generating a single C-like array declaration. The dimension
(a) Q (n2) (b) Q (n + m) of the array is at least one. For example,
(c) Q (m2) (d) Q (n4) int a [10] [3];
EBD_7203
2014 -18 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
The grammars use D as the start symbol, and use six
terminal symbols int ; id [ ]num.
90
Grammar G1 Grammar G2
80
D ® int L; D ® int L;
70

Miss rate (%)


L ® id [E L ® id E
E ® num] E ® E[num] 60
E ® num] [E E ® [num] 50
Which of the grammars correctly generate the declaration 40
mentioned above? 30
(a) Both G1 and G2 (b) Only G1 20
(c) Only G2 (d) Neither G1 nor G2
10
57. Consider the following processes, with the arrival time and
0
the length of the CPU burst given in milliseconds. The 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
scheduling algorithm used is preemptive shortest remaining-
time first. Cache Size (MB)

Proces s Arrival Time Burs t Time


The smallest cache size required to ensure an average
P1 0 10 read latency of less than 6 ms is ________MB.
P2 3 6 61. Consider the following database schedule with two
P3 7 1 transactions, T1 and T2.
P4 8 3 S = r2(X); r1(X); r2(Y); w1(X); r1(Y); w2(X); a1; a2
where ri(Z) denotes a read operation by transaction Ti on
The average turnaround time of these processes is a variable Z, wi(Z) denotes a write operation by Ti on a
________ milliseconds. variable Z and ai denotes an abort by transaction Ti.
58. Consider the following two-process synchronization Which one of the following statements about the above
solution : schedule is TRUE?
Process 0 Process 1 (a) S is non-recoverable
Entry: loop while (turn = = 1); Entry: loop while (turn = = 0); (b) S is recoverable, but has a cascading abort
(c) S does not have a cascading abort
(critical section) (critical section)
(d) S is strict
Exit: turn =1; Exit: turn = 0;
62. Consider the following database table named
The shared variable turn is initialized to zero. Which one water_schemes :
of the following is TRUE?
(a) This is a correct two-process synchronization water_schemes
solution. scheme_no. district_name capacity
(b) This solution violates mutual exclusion requirement. 1 Ajmer 20
(c) This solution violates progress requirement. 1 Bikaner 10
(d) This solution violates bounded wait requirement. 2 Bikaner 10
59. Consider a non-negative counting semaphore S. The 3 Bikaner 20
operation P(S) decrements S, and V(S) increments S. 1 Churu 10
During an execution, 20 P(S) operations and 12 V(S)
2 Churu 20
operations are issued in some order. The largest initial
value of S for which at least one P(S) operation will remain 1 Dungargarh 10
blocked is _________ .
The number of tuples returned by the following SQL query
60. A file system uses an in-memory cache to cache disk is ________.
blocks. The miss rate of the cache is shown in the figure. with total (name, capacity) as
The latency to read a block from the cache is 1 ms and to
select district_name, sum (capacity)
read a block from the disk is 10 ms. Assume that the cost
of checking whether a block exists in the cache is from water_schemes
negligible. Available cache sizes are in multiples of 10 MB. group by district_name
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-19

with total_avg (capacity) as I. At least three non-overlapping channels are available


select avg (capacity) for transmissions.
from total II. The RTS-CTS mechanism is used for collision
select name detection.
from total, total_avg III. Unicast frames are ACKed.
where total.capacity ³ total_avg.capacity (a) II, and III (b) I and III only
63. A network has a data transmission bandwidth of 20 × 106 (c) II and III only (d) II only
bits per second. It uses CSMA/CD in the MAC layer. The 65. Consider a 128×103 bits/second satellite communication
maximum signal propagation time from one node to link with one way propagation delay of 150 milliseconds.
another node is 40 micro seconds. The minimum size of a Selective retransmission (repeat) protocol is used on this
frame in the network is ________ bytes. link to send data with a frame size of 1 kilobyte. Neglect
64. For the IEEE 802.11 MAC protocol for wireless the transmission time of acknowledgement. The minimum
communication, which of the following statements is/are number of bits required for the sequence number field to
TRUE? achieve 100% utilization is ________ .
EBD_7203
2014 -20 SOLVED PAPER - 2016

1. (b) 10. (c)


2. (a) ‘Cope with’ in the given sentence means to deal 11. 4 Given expression is :
effectively with something difficult. Therefore, ‘put up = P Ù (P Þ Q)
with’ is the closest in meaning to the underlined phrase = P Ù (P¢Ú Q)
in the given sentence.
= (P Ù P¢) Ú (P Ù Q)
3. (c) Praise is the odd word out as others are the synonyms
of mock. = F Ù (P Ù Q)
= (P Ù Q)
+1 +1 +1 +1
1. (P Ù Q) Þ F = (P Ù Q)¢ Ú F = (P¢ Ú Q¢) Ú F = (P¢ Ú Q¢)
4. (d) (a) C A D B E (b) J H K I L = Contingency but not Tautology
+1 +1
2. (P Ù Q) Þ Q = (P Ù Q)¢ Ú Q = (P¢ Ú Q¢) Ú Q = P¢ Ú (Q¢ Ú
+1 +1 +1 +1 Q) = P¢ Ú T = T
(c) X V Y WZ (d) O N P M Q = Tautology
+1 –1
3. (P Ù Q) Þ T = (P Ù Q)¢ Ú T = T = Tautology
In options (a), (b) and (c), the letters skipped between 4. (P Ù Q) Þ P Ú Q = (P Ù Q)¢ Ú P Ú Q = (P¢ Ú Q¢) Ú P Ú Q
consecutive pair of letters in the english alphabet in = (P¢ Ú P) Ú (Q Ú Q¢)
increasing order i.e. A and B, H and I, V and W but in
= T Ú T = T = Tautology
option (d). N and M are present instead of M and N.
So, option (d) is odd one in the group. 5. (P Ù Q) Þ Q¢ Ú P = (P Ù Q)¢ Ú Q¢ Ú P = (P¢ Ú Q¢) Ú Q¢ Ú
P = (P¢ Ú P) Ú (Q¢ Ú Q¢)
a n + bn a n + bn a n + bn = T Ú Q¢ = T = Tautology
5. (b) -n -n
= = n = a n bn
a +b 1 1 b +a n
Therefore, statements (2), (3) (4) and (5) satisfies.
+
a n bn a n bn
12. 9
(ab)n = (4) n Let f(x) is polynomial of degree n,
then g(x) = f¢(x) is polynomial of degree n,
6. (a) Facebook WhatsApp Þ f(x) + f(– x) is polynomial of degree n,
150
But given f(x) + f(–x) is polynomial of degree 10.
\ n =10
35 20 Þ g(x) is polynomial of 9.
\ g(x) – g(– x) is polynomial of degree 9.
13. 4
Any planar graph is four-colourable.
14. (c)
The faculty members having any account = 150 – 30 = 120 Statement I is not true.
The faculty members having both the accounts = (FB + W) – x + y+ z = 5
120
x + y+ z = 0
\ The number of faculty members connected = (55 + 85)
The above equations has no solution, when number of
– 120 = 20
equations is less than number of variables.
Only through Facebook Account = 55 – 20 = 35.
Statement II is also not true.
7. (d)
Consider the equations:
8. (d)
x – 2y = 2
5 5´ 4 3´ 2 2x + 8y = 16
9. (c) C2 ´ 3 C2 = ´ = 30
2 ´1 2 ´ 1 x+y=5
Hence, 30 rectangles can be observed in the grid. The solution of these equations is x = 4 & y = 1
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-21

Statement III is true. 23. (d)


Consider the equations: For an array already sorted in ascending order, Quicksort
x+y=4 has a complexity Q(n2) [Worst Case].
x + 2y = 0 Bubblesort has a complexity Q(n) [Best Case].
These equations has solutions x = 8 and y = –4 Mergesort has a complexity Q(n log n) [Any Case] .
15. 0.55 Insertsort has a complexity Q(n) [Best Case]
Event of selecting type-I bulb = E 1 24. (c)
Event of selecting type-II bulb = E2 Floyd-Warshall algorithm is based on dynamic programming
Event of selecting a bulb lasts more than 100 hours = A paradigm.
Given P(E1) = 0.5, P(E2) = 0.5 25. (c)
P(A/E1) = 0.7, P(A/E2) = 0.4 The time complexity which can put all these operations
Required Probability, together will be O(N2).
P(A) = P(E1) P(A/E1) + P(E2) P(A/E2) 0, 1 1, 0
26. 2 +
= 0.5 × 0.7 + 0.5 × 0.4
= 0.55 So, the minimum number of states is 2.
16. 0.125 27. (c) L1 has the property that no. of a’s should be equal to
Given that 1, 2, 4 are eigen values of matrix A no. of b’s in a string, and all a’s should precede all b’s.
Hence extra memory will be required to check this
1 1 property of a string (Finite Automaton can't be built
Þ |A| = 8 and |A–1| = A = 8
for this type of language). Hence this is not regular
language. Therefore P is False. L2 has the property

( )
-1 T T 1 that no. of a’s should be equal to no. of b’s, but order
Now, A = A -1 = A -1 = = 0.125
8 of a’s and b’s is different here, it is (ab)*, which will
require no extra memory to be accepted. (Finite
17. –1
Automaton can be built for this language). Hence L2 is
18. (c) regular language. Therefore Q is True.
19. 1
28. (d) Statement (IV) : L2 may or may not be context free
X = –216 – 1 to +216 – 1 – 1
Y = –216 – 1 – 1 to +216 – 1 – 1 because CFL are not closed under complementation.
So it is not true.
Therefore, X – Y = 1
29. (b)
20. 16 6 bits are needed for 40 distinct instructions (because,
30. (d) When the rate of page fault increases even after the
32 < 40 < 64) 5 bits are needed for 24 general purpose
increasing number of allocated frames, then this
registers (because, 16 < 24 < 32) 32-bit instruction word
situation is called “Belady’s Anamoly”. In the given
has an opcode(6 bit), two register operands(total 10
options, it’s occurring in FIFO only.
bits) and an immediate operand (x bits). The number of
31. (a) In B and B+ trees, all the leaf nodes will be at same
bits available for the immediate operand field => x = 32
level.
– (6 + 10) = 16 bits
32. (a)
33. (a) In the process of digital signature generation, by using
sender’s private key, one can encrypt the message and
in the process of verification, by using sender’s public
key, one can decrypt the message.
21. 31 34. (d)
35. (c) When a web browser requests any web page from a
remote server then that request (URL address) is
mapped to IP Address usin g DNS, th en TCP
It would be node number 31 for given distance 4. synchronisation occurs. Finally HTTP verifies that the
22. 30 address exists in the web server or not.
The address of i and value of j are passed to the function of 36. (b) R is reflexive as every ordered pair is related to itself.
f. f modifies i’s value to 20. j’s value remains same (as its (a, b) R (a, b) since a £ a or b £ b
value is passed not the reference). The value printed by the
It is not transitive as (2, 4) R (3, 2) and (3, 2) R(1, 3) but
program will be i + j = 20 + 10 = 30.
(2, 4) R (1, 3).
EBD_7203
2014 -22 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
37. (d) P and Q are unary relations. Therefore one can model have to do 10 such calculations. According to question,
each of them as sets Ps and Qs, where P(x) iff x Î Ps and we have 2 instances of UF and UG respectively. So, UF
Q(x) iff x Î Qs. Let W be every object in the universe. can be done in 50/2 = 25 nano seconds. For the start,
Now we can convert each statement into sets:
UF needs to wait for UG output for 3 ns and rest all are
(i) ("xp ( x ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) Þ ( $xØp ( x ) Ú "xq ( x ) ) pipelined and hence no more wait. Therefore, the
Converting the Ú to Þ, we get answer will be:
3 + 25 = 28 ns
( "xp ( x ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) Þ ( Ø$xØp ( x ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) 41. 500 Given No. of registers = 64
( "xp ( x ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) Þ ( "xp ( x ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) Required No. of bits to address registers = log2 64 = 6
Given No. of instructions = 12
Hence, the formula is valid if, for any model where
\ Opcode size = log212 = 4
( "xp ( x ) ) Þ "xq ( x ) ) holds, that ( "xq ( x ) Þ "xq(x ) ) Opcode + 3 reg address + 12 bit immediate value
also holds.
Opcode Reg 1 Reg 2 Reg 3
Immediate
(ii) ( $xp ( x ) Ú $xq ( x ) ) Þ $x ( p ( x ) Ú q ( x ) ) 4 6 6 6 12
If Ps or Qs is not empty, then Ps U Qs is not empty.. Total bits per instruction = 34
Total bytes per instruction = 4.25
It can be easily showed that this holds for any model.
Due to byte alignment 0.75 byte will waste while storing
(iii) $x ( p ( x ) Ù q ( x ) ) Þ ( $xp ( x ) Ù $xq ( x ) ) 4.25 bytes.
Total no. of bytes per instruction = 5
If Ps I Qs is non-empty then Ps is non-empty and Qs is
Total no. of instructions = 100
non-empty. Anything can model this.
Total size = No. of Instructions × Size of Instruction
(iv) "x ( p(x) Ú q ( x ) ) Þ x" ( p(x) Ú "xq(x) ) = 100 × 5 = 500 Bytes
42. 24
If Ps U Qs = W, then Ps = W or Qs = W. This is obviously Tag Set Offset
not true for any choice of Ps and Qs. Actually the only
40 bits
times it will be true is:
(a) When Ps = W, meaning P(x) = True, or Tag bits = 40 – (19 – 3) = 24 bits
(b) When Qs = W, meaning Q(x) = True, or 43. 4
Pipeline
(c) When Ps I Qs ¹ W , i.e., when there is a value of
x where both P(x) and Q(x) do not hold. 4
z1 z1 z1/2
In any other case the choice of P() and Q() will 3
not satisfy (iv). 4
38. (b) The given problem can be solved by taking an tp = z1
3
undirected graph with 23 vertices and 9 of these with
degree 3. New Pipeline
Suppose that if two compounds react with each other, 2 2
then there exists an edge between the vertices. z1 z1 z1
3 3 z1/2
According to Theorem of Degree, atleast one of the
remaining vertices must have odd degree (since m
number of vertices of odd degree is always even).
tp = z 1
39. 4 We have 13 * 13 * 13 * ... * 13 (total 99 terms)
By Remainder theorem, Þ (-4) * (-4) * ... * (-4) (total 99 44. 8 Within ‘n’ levels of min heap, nth smallest element will
terms) Þ 16 * 16 * ... * 16 * (-4) (total 50 terms, 49 terms be present.
for 16 and one term for -4). Reapplying Remainder 45. (c) Before Iteration 1: X^Y=64 res * (a^b)=64
theorem, Þ (-1) * (-1) * ... * (-1) * (-4) (total 50 terms, 49 Before Iteration 2: X^Y=64 res * (a^b)=64
terms for -1 and one term for -4) Þ (-1) * (-4) Þ 4
Before Iteration 3: X^Y=64 res * (a^b)=64
40. 28 This concept is used in pipelining. The important thing
46. (c) The expression tree for the given post-fix expression
here is UF as it takes 5 ns while UG takes 3 ns only. One
is as follows:
SOLVED PAPER - 2016 2014-23

49. 2.32
50. 64

To fill 7 levels with 7 elements, at each level we have exactly
2 possible options like 1 and 7 for root one corresponding
+ to making it left skewed and other right skewed. This is
valid for all levels upto 6.
Hence, 26 = 64.
– 1 51. (b) Twin Pointers can be set up by keeping track of parent
2 *
node in BFS or DFS of graph.
* 52. (b) Statement I is not true, because if all the states of DFA
5
2 7
6 are accepting states then the language accepted by
3 4 the DFA is å*
Statement II is true because one can have regular
New-order of shown expression tree is language A = [ ] [Empty Language] which satisfies the
–+ 1*7 6^ 2–5*4 3 given condition.
47. 3 53. (b) L2 is not context free. No. of b’s will match with no. of
Assume base address of array a is 100. a’s leaving c’s to be matched with no one. So L2 cannot
be context free.
3 5 2 6 4 54. (c)
55. (b) Grammar A has direct left recursion because of the
100 102 104 106 108 production rule: A®Aa. Grammar C has indirect left
recursion because of the production rules:S®Aa and
main A®Sc Grammar D has indirect left recursion because
ß of production rules : A®Bd and B®Ae Grammar B
pf (f (100, 5)) 3Þwill be printed doesn't have any left recursion (neither direct nor
ß c 3 indirect).
max (f(102, 4), –2) 56. (a) Both G1 and G2 can correctly generate the declarations.
ß c 3
57. 8.25
ret max (f (104, 3), 3)
ß c 2 Due to SRTF preemption
ret max (f (106, 2), –4)
ß c 2 P1 P2 P3 P2 P4 P1
return max (f (108, 1), 2)
0 3 7 8 10 13 20
ß c 1 ... Completion Time = Arrival Time + Process Turn Around

Time
Return 1 \ Process Turn Around Time = Completion Time – Arrival
48. 1500 Time
We have four matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4, we would have P1 20
((A1A2)A3)A4 = ((A1(A2A3))A4) = (A1A2) (A3A4) P2 7
= A1 ((A2A3)A4) = A1(A2(A3A4)) P3 1
Here A1 is a 10 × 5 matrix, A2 is a 5 × 20 matrix, and A3 is a 20
P4 5
× 10 Matrix and A4 is 10 × 5. Multiplying two matrices A and
B of order l × m and m × n respectively, we get the number of Average Turn Around Time (TAT) = 33/4 = 8.25
scalar multiplications in the multiplication of A and B. That 58. (c)
will be l × m × n. The given statement for two process synchronization using
Therefore, the number of scalar multiplications required in “Turn” variable, fulfils the condition of only mutual exclusion
the following sequence of matrices will be: and bounded waiting but the progress is violated.
A1 ((A2A3)A4) = (5 × 20 × 10) + (5 × 10 × 5) + (10 × 5 × 5) 59. 7
= 1000 + 250 + 250 = 1500 S = – 20 + 12 = – 8
All other options will require more than 1500 number of \ The highest intial value of S for which atleast one P(S)
multiplications. operation remains blocked is 7.
EBD_7203
2014 -24 SOLVED PAPER - 2016
60. 30 Suppose minimum frame size is L bits. Tx = L / B where B is
61. (c) the bandwidth = 20 * 106 bits/sec
There is no transaction which reads the data item written by Tp = 40 micro seconds (given)
any other transaction. Therefore the given schedule is Tx = 2 Tp L / B = 80 micro seconds
cascadeless. L = B ´ 80 micro seconds = 20 ´ 106 bits/sec ´ 80 micro
seconds = 1600 bits
62. 2
Now as the answer has to be given in Bytes, hence, 1600/8
First we should perform group by group. We get ajmer 1
bytes = 200 bytes.
bikaner 3 64. (b) RTS-CTS mechanism is used in collision avoidance,
charu 2 but not in collision detection. Hence statement II is
dungargarh 1 false.
Now we should perform total capacity we will get 100. Now 65. 4
perform avg. capacity on total 100/4 = 25. bikaner = 40 which To achieve 100% efficiency, the number of frames that we
is greater than 25 charu is 30 which is also greater than 25. should send = 1 + 2 ´ Tp / Tt where, Tp is propagation delay,
Hence charu and bikaner will be printed therefore answer is and Tt is transmission delay. So, Number of frames sent = 1
+ 4.687 = 5.687 (approx 6). As the protocol used is Selective
2 tuples.
repeat, Receiver window size should be equal to Sender
63. 200 window size. Then, Number of distinct sequence numbers
For frame size to be minimum, its transmission time should required = 6 + 6 = 12 Number of bits required to represent 12
be equal to twice of one way propagation delay, i.e., Tx = 2Tp distinct numbers = 4
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-1

2015
SET - 1
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers
11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-marks each.
4. Questions are of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) or Numerical Answer type. A multiple choice question will have
four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERALAPTITUDE (c) Flippancy – Lightness


(d) Profligate – Extravagant
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH 4. Based on the given statements, select the most appropriate
option to solve the given question.
1. Given Set A = {2, 3, 4, 5} and Set {11, 12, 13, 14, 15}, two If two floors in a certain building are 9 feet apart, how many
numbers are randomly selected, one from each set. What is steps are there in a set of stairs that extends from the first floor
the probability that the sum of the two numbers equals 16? to the second floor of the building?
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 Statements:
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.33
2. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to 3
I. Each step is foot high
the sentence below? 4
She enjoyed herself immensely at the party. II. Each step is 1 foot wide.
(a) She had a terrible time at the party (a) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is
(b) She had a horrible time at the party not sufficient
(c) She had a terrific time at the party (b) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is
(d) She had a terrifying time at the party not sufficient
3. Which one of the following combinations is incorrect? (c) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither
(a) Acquiescence – Submission statement alone is sufficient
(b) Wheedle – Roundabout (d) Statement I and II together are not sufficient
EBD_7203
2015 -2 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
5. Didn’t you buy ______ when you went shopping? A ns wered A n s wered No t
(a) any paper (b) much paper Q. No M arks
Co rrectly W ron gly A ttemp ted
(c) no paper (d) a few paper
1 2 21 14 6
QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH 2 3 15 27 2
6. The pie chart below has the breakup of the number of 3 1 11 29 4
students form different departments in an engineering college 4 2 23 18 3
for the year 2012. The proportion of male to female students 5 5 31 12 1
in each department is 5:4. There are 40 males in Electrical What is the average of the marks obtained by the class in the
Engineering. What is the difference between the numbers of examination?
female students in the Civil department and the female (a) 2.290 (b) 2.970
students in the Mechanical department? (c) 6.795 (d) 8.795
10. The probabilities that a student passes in Mathematics,
Mechanical,
Physics and Chemistry are m, p, and c respectively. Of these
10%
subjects, the student has 75% chance of passing in atleast
Computer one, a 50% chance of passing in atleast two and a 40% chance
Electrical, 20% Science, 40% of passing in exactly two.
Following relation are drawn in m, p, c.
I. p + m + c = 27/20
II. p + m + c = 13/20
III. (p) × (m) × (C) = 1/10
Civil, 30%
(a) only relation I is true
7. The given statement is followed by some courses of action. (b) only relation II is true
Assuming the statement to be true, decide the correct option. (c) relations II and III are true
Statement: There has been a significant drop in the water (d) relations I and III are true
level in the lakes supplying water to the city.
Course of action:
TECHNICAL SECTION
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut
in supply to tackle the situation. QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
II. The government should appeal to all the residents 11. Suppose that everyone in a group of N people wants to
through mass media for minimal use of water. communicate secretly with the N-1 others using symmetric
II. The government should ban the water supply in lower key cryptographic system. The communication between any
areas. two persons should not be decodable by the others in the
group. The number of keys required in the system as a whole
(a) Statements I and II follow
to satisfy the confidentiality requirement is
(b) Statements I and III follow
(a) 2N (b) N(N-1)
(c) Statements II and III follow
(c) N(N-1)/2 (d) (N-1)2
(d) All statements follow 12. Which one of the following fields of an IP header is NOT
8. Select the alternative meaning of the underlined part of the modified by a typical IP router?
sentence. (a) Checksum
The chain snatchers took to their heels when the police party (b) Source address
arrived. (c) Time To Live (TTL)
(a) took shelter in a thick jungle (d) Length
(b) open indiscriminate fire 13. Which one of the following is TRUE at any valid state in shift
(c) took to flight – reduce parsing?
(d) unconditionally surrendered (a) Viable prefixes appear only at the bottom of the stack
and not inside
9. The number of students in a class who have answered
(b) Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and
correctly, wrongly, or not attempted each question in exam,
not inside
are listed in the table below. The marks for each question are
(c) The stack contains only a set of viable prefixes
also listed. There is no negative or partial marking.
(d) The stack never contains viable prefixes
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-3

14. The height of a tree is the length of the longest root-to-leaf 21. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?
path in it. The maximum and minimum number of nodes in I. XML overcomes the limitations in HTML to support a
a binary tree of height 5 are structured way of organizing content.
(a) 63 and 6, respectively II. XML specification is not case sensitive while HTML
(b) 64 and 5, respectively specification is case sensitive.
(c) 32 and 6, respectively III. XML supports user defined tags while HTML uses pre-
(d) 31 and 5, respectively
defined tags.
15. Match the following:
IV. XML tags need not be closed while HTML tags be
P: Prim’s algorithm for minimum spanning tree
closed
Q: Floyd – Warshal algorithm for all pairs shortest paths
R: Mergesort (a) II only (b) I only
S: Hamiltonian circuit (c) II and IV only (d) III and IV only
(I) Backtracking (II) Greedy method 22. A file is organized so that the ordering of data records is the
(III) Dynamic programming same as or close to the ordering of data entries in some index.
(IV) Divide and conquer Then that index is called
(a) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I (a) Dense (b) Sparse
(b) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III (c) Clustered (d) Unclustered
(c) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I 23. Which of the following is/are correct inorder traversal
(d) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV sequence(s) of binary search tree(s)?
16. Which one of the following is NOT equivalent to p«q? I. 3, 5, 7, 8, 15, 19, 25 II. 5, 8, 9, 12, 10, 15, 25
(a) (Øpvq)^(p^Øq) (b) (Øpvq) ^(q®p)
III. 2, 7, 10, 8, 14, 16, 20 IV. 4, 6, 7, 9, 18, 20, 25
(c) (Øp^q)v(p^Øq) (d) (Øp^Øq) v(p^q)
(a) I and IV only (b) II and iii only
17. SELECT operation in SQL is equivalent to
(c) II and IV only (d) II only
(a) the selection operation in relational algebra
(b) the selection operation in relational algebra, except that 24. Suppose two hosts use a TCP connection to transfer a large
SELECT in SQL retains duplicates file. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE with
(c) the projection operation in relational algebra respect to the TCP connection?
(d) the projection operation in relational algebra, except I. If the sequence number of a segment is m, then the
that SELECT in SQL retains duplicates sequence number of the subsequent segment is always
18. For any two languages L1 and L2 such that L1 is context-free m + 1.
and L2 is recursively enumerable but not recursive, which of II. If the estimated round trip time at any given point of
the following is/are necessarily true? time is t sec the value of the retransmission timeout is
I. L1 (complement of L1) is recursive always set to greater than or equal to t sec.
III. The size of the advertised window never changes
II. L2 (complement of L2) is recursive
during the curse of the TCP connection.
III. L1 is context – free IV. The number of unacknowledged bytes at the sender is
always less than or equal to the advertised window.
IV. L1 È L2 is recursively enumerable
(a) III only (b) I and III only
(A) I only (B) III only
(c) I and IV only (d) II and IV only
(C) III and IV only (D) I and IV only
25. For computers based on three-address instruction formats,
19. For a set A, the power set of A is denoted by 2A. If A = {5,
each address field can be used to specify which of the
{6}, {7}}, which of the following options are TRUE?
I. fÎ 2A II. f Î 2A following.
III. {5, {6}} Î 2A IV. {5{6}} Í 2A S1: A memory operand
(a) I and III only (b) II and III only S2: A processor register
(c) I, II and III only (d) I, II and IV only S3: An implied accumulator register
20. Consider a 4-bit Johnson counter with an initial value of (a) Either S1 or S2 (b) Either S2 or S3
0000. The counting sequence of this counter is (c) Only S2 and S3 (d) All of S1, S2 and S3
(a) 0, 1, 3, 7, 15, 14, 12, 8, 0 26. Consider a system with byte–addressable memory, 32-bit
(b) 0, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 0 logical addresses, 4 kilobyte page size and page table entries
(c) 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 0 of 4 bytes each. The size of the page table in the system in
(d) 0, 8, 12, 14, 15, 7, 3, 1, 0 megabytes is ______.
EBD_7203
2015 -4 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
27. The following two functions P1 and P2 that share a variable 34. Match the following:
B with an initial value of 2 execute concurrently. P: Condition coverage
P1 ( ) { P2 ( ) { Q: Equivalence class partitioning
C = B – 1; D = 2 * B;
R: Volume testing
B = 2 * C; B = D – l;
} } S: Alpha testing
28. limx®¥ x1/x is (I) Black-box testing (II) System testing
(a) ¥ (b) 0 (III) White-box testing (IV) Performance testing
(c) 1 (d) Not defined
(a) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
29. Which one of the following is the recurrence equation for the
worst case time complexity of the Quicksort algorithm for (b) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
sorting n (³ 2) numbers? In the recurrence equations given (c) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II
in the options below, c is a constant. (d) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
(a) T(n) = 2T(n/2) + cn
(b) T(n) = T(n–1) + T(1) + cn é 2 2ù
(c) T(n) = 2T(n–1) + cn 35. In the LU decomposition of the matrix ê 4 9ú , if the
ë û
(d) T(n) = T(n/2) + cn
diagonal elements of U are both 1, then the lower diagonal
x g(h(x))
30. If g(x) =1 – x and h(x) = , then is entry l22 of L is ______.
x -1 h(g(x))
QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
h(x) -1
(a) (b) 36. The graph shown below has 8 edges with distinct integer edge
g(x) x
weights. The Minimum Spanning Tree (MST) is of weight 36
g(x) x
(c) (d) and contains the edges: {(A, C), (B, C), (B, E),
h(x) (1 - x) 2 (E, F), (D,F)}. The edge weights of only those edges which
31. In one of the pairs of protocols given below, both the are in the MST are given in the figure shown below. The
protocols can use multiple TCP connections between the minimum possible sum of weights of all 8 edges of this graph
same client and the server. Which one is that? is _______.
(a) HTTP, FTP (b) HTTP, TELNET
(c) FTP, SMTP (d) HTTP, SMTP
32. What are the worst-case complexities of insertion and 15
B E
deletion of a key in a binary search tree? 4
(a) q(log n) for both insertion and deletion
(b) q(n) for both insertion and deletion A F
2
(c) q.(n) for insertion and q(log n) for deletion
(d) q(log n) for insertion and q(n) for deletion 9 6
33. The output of the following C program is ______. D
C
void f1(int a, int b)
{
int c; 37. Consider a disk pack with a seek time of 4 milliseconds and
c=a; a=b; b=c; rotational speed of 10000 Rotations Per Minute (RPM). It
} has 60 sectors per track and each sector can store 512 bytes
void f2(int *a, int *b) of data. Consider a file stored in the disk. The file contains
{ 2000 sectors. Assume that every sector access necessitates a
int c; seek, and the average rotational latency for accessing each
c=*a; *a=*b; *b=c; sector is half of the time for one complete rotation. The total
}
time (in milliseconds) needed to read the entire file is
int main ( )
_______.
{
int a=4, b=5, c=6; 38. Consider the following pseudo code, where x and y are
f1(a, b); positive integers.
f2(&b, &c); begin
printf(“%d”, c–a–b); q: = 0
} r:=x
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-5

while r > y do 41. Consider the NPDA < Q = {q0, q1, q2}, S = {0, 1},
being G = {0, 1,}^d, q0, ^, F = {q2}>, where (as per usual
r:=r–y convention) Q is the set of states, S is the input alphabetd is
q:=q+1 the stack alphabet, d is the state transition function, q0 is the
end initial state, ^ is the initial stack symbol, and F is the set of
end accepting states. The state transition is as follows:
The post condition that needs to be satisfied after the program
terminates is 1, Z ® Z 0, 1Z ® Z
(a) {r = qx + y Ù r < y} 0, Z ® 0Z 1, 0Z ® Z
(b) {x = qy + r Ù r < y} q0 q1 q2
(c) {y = qx + r Ù 0 < r < y}
(d) {q + 1 < r – y Ù y > 0}
39. Consider the following relations:
Students 0/1/ Î
, Z Z® Î, ^ ® Î

Roll No. Student Name


1 Raj Which one of the following sequences must follow the string
2 Rohit
101100 so that the overall string is accepted by the
automation?
3 Raj
(a) 10110 (b) 10010
Performance (c) 01010 (d) 01001
42. What is the output of the following C code? Assume that the
address of x is 2000 (in decimal) and an integer requires four
Roll No Course Marks bytes of memory?
1 Math 80 int main( )
1 English 70 {
2 Math 75 unsigened int x[4] [3] = {(1,2,3), {4,5,6}, {7, 8, 9}, {10, 11,
3 English 80 12}};
printf(“%u, %u, %u”, x+3, *(x+3),
2 Physics 65
*(x+2)+3);
3 Math 80
}
(a) 2036, 2036, 2036
Consider the followin g SQL query. SELECT S. (b) 2012, 4, 2204
Student_Name, sum (P.Marks) (c) 2036, 10, 10
FROM Student S, Performance P (d) 2012, 4, 6
WHERE S.Roll_No. = P.Roll_No. 43. The binary operator ¹ is defined by the following truth table.
GROUP BY S.Student_Name
The number of rows that will be returned by the SQL query
p q p¹q
is _______.
0 0 0
40. Consider a uniprocessor system executing three tasks T1, T2
and T3, each o which is composed of an infinite sequence of 0 1 1
jobs (or instances) which arrive periodically at intervals of 3, 1 0 1
7 and 20 milliseconds, respectively. The priority of each task 1 1 0
is the inverse of its period, and the available tasks are
scheduled in order of priority, with the highest priority task Which one of the following is true about the binary operator ¹ ?
scheduled first. Each instance of T1, T2 and T3 requires an (a) Both commutative and associative
execution time of 1, 2 and 4 milliseconds, respectively. Given (b) Commutative but not associative
that all tasks initially arrive at the beginning of the 1st (c) Not commutative but associative
millisecond and task preemptions are allowed, the first (d) Neither commutative nor associative
instance of T3 completes its execution at the end of ______
milliseconds.
EBD_7203
2015 -6 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
44. The least number of temporary variables required to create 48. Let G = (V, E) be a simple undirected graph, and s be a
three-address code in static single assignment form for the particular vertex in it called the source. For x Î V, let d(x)
expression q+r/3+s–t*5+u*v/w is ______. denote the shortest distance in G from s to x. A Breadth First
45. Search (BFS) is performed starting at s. Let T be resultant
BFS tree. If (u, v) is an edge of G that is not in T, then which
b a one of the following CANNOT be the value of d(u) – d(v)?
(a) –1 (b) 0
a (c) 1 (d) 2
M:
49. Let G be a connected planar graph with 10 vertices. If the
number of edges on each face is three, then the number of
b edges in G is ______.
50. Consider the operations
f(X,Y,Z) = X1YZ+ XY1+Y1Z1 and
a b
g(X,Y,Z) = X1YZ+ X1YZ1++XY.
Which one of the following is correct?
b
N: (a) Both {f} and {g} are functionally complete
(b) Only {f} is functionally complete
(c) Only {g} is functionally complete
a
(d) Neither {f} nor {g} is functionally complete
Consider the DFAs M and N given above. The number of 51. Consider the following 2 × 2 matrix A where two elements
states in a minimal DFA that accepts the languages are unknown and are marked by a and b. The eigenvalues of
L(M) Ç L(N) is ________. this matrix ar –1 and 7. What are the values of a and b?
46. Consider a main memory with five page frames and the æ 1 4ö
following sequence of page references: 3, 8, 2, 3, 9, 1, 6, 3, A = ç b a÷
è ø
8, 9, 3, 6, 2, 1, 3. Which one of the following is true with
(A) a = 6, b = 4 (B) a= 4, b = 6
respect to page replacement policies First In First Out (FIFO)
(C) a = 3, b = 5 (D) a= 5, b = 3
and Least Recently Used (LRU)?
(a) Both incur the same number of page faults 52. 2/ p cos(1/ x)
òp dx = _________ .
(b) FIFO incurs 2 more page faults than LRU x2
(d) LRU incurs 2 more page faults than FIFO 53. Suppose that the stop-and-wait protocol is used on a link with
(d) FIFO incurs 1 more page faults than LRU a bit rate of 64 kilobits per second and 20 milliseconds
47. Suppose L = {p,q,r,s,t} is a lattice represented by the propagation delay. Assume that the transmission time for the
following Hasse diagram: acknowledgement and the processing time at nodes are
negligible. Then the minimum frame size in bytes to achieve
t a link utilization of at least 50% is _________.
54. A positive edge-triggered D flip-flop is connected to a
positive edge-triggered JK flip-flop as follows. The Q output
of the D flip-flop is connected to both the J and K inputs of
q r s
the JK flip-flop, while the Q output of the JK flip-flop is
connected to the input of the D flip-flop is connected to both
the J and K inputs of the JK flip-flop, while the Q output of
p the JK flip-flop is connected to the input of the D flip-flop.
Initially, the output of the D flip-flop is set to logic one and
For any x, y Î L, not necessarily distinct, x Ú y and x Ù y are the output of the JK flip-flop is cleared. Which one of the
join and meet of x, y respectively. Let L3 = {(x,y,z): x,y,z Î following is the bit sequence (including the initial state)
L} be the set of all ordered triplets of the elements of L. Let generated at the Q output of the JK flip-flop when the flip-
pr be the probability that an element (x, y, z) Î L3 chosen flops are connected to a free running common clock? Assume
equiprobably satisfies x Ú (y Ù z) = (x Ú y) Ù (x Ú z). Then that J = K = 1 is the toggle mode and J = K = 0 is the state-
holding mode of the JK flip-flop. Both the flip-flops have
(a) pr = 0 (b) pr = 1
non-zero propagation delays.
1 1 (a) 0110110….. (b) 0100100….
(c) 0 < pr £ (d) < pr < 1
5 5
(c) 011101110…. (d) 011001100…
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-7

55. Consider the following C function. 60. Consider the following C program segment.
int fun1 (int n) while (first <= last)
{ {
int i, j, k, p, q = 0; if (array[middle] < search)
for (i = 1; i < n; ++i) first = middle + 1;
{ else if (array[middle] = = search)
p = 0; found = TRUE;
for(j = n; j > 1; j = j/2) else last = middle – 1;
++p; middle = (first + last)/2;
for(k =1; k < p; k = k*2) }
++q; if (first > last) notPresent = TRUE;
}
return q; The cyclomatic complexity of the program segment is
} ______.
Which one of the following most closely approximates the 61. Consider a max heap, represented by the array: 40, 30, 20,
return value of the function fun1? 10, 15, 16, 17, 8, 4.
(A) n3 (B) n(log n)2
Array Index 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(C) n log n (D) n log(log n)
Value 40 30 20 10 15 16 17 8 4
56. Consider a non-pipelined processor with a clock rate of 2.5
gigahertz and average cycles per instruction of four. The Now consider that a value 35 is inserted into this heap. After
same processor is upgraded to a pipelined processor with five insertion, the new heap is
stages; but due to the internal pipelined delay, the clock speed (a) 40, 30, 20, 10, 15, 16, 17, 8, 4, 35
is reduced to 2 gigahertz. Assume that there are no stalls in (b) 40, 35, 20, 10, 30, 16, 17, 8, 4, 15
the pipeline. The speed up achieved in this pipelined (c) 40, 30, 20, 10, 35, 16, 17, 8, 4, 15
processor is _____. (d) 40, 35, 20, 10, 15, 16, 17, 8, 4, 30
57. Consider an Entity-Relationship(ER) model in which entity 62. Suppose the following disk request sequence (track numbers)
sets E1 and E2 are connected by an m: n relationship R12. E1 for a disk with 100 tracks is given: 45, 20, 90, 10, 50, 60, 80,
and E3 are connected by a 1: n (1 on the side of E 1 and n on 25, 70. Assume that the initial position of the R/W head is on
the side of E3) relationship R13. track 50. The additional distance that will be traversed by the
E1 has two single-valued attributes a11 and a12 of which a11 R/W head when the Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF)
is the key attribute. E2 has two single-valued attributes a21 algorithm is used compared to the SCAN (Elevator)
and a22 of which is the key attribute. E3 has two single-valued algorithm (assuming that SCAN algorithm moves towards
attributes a31 and a32 of which a31 is the key attribute. The 100 when it starts execution) is ______ tracks.
relationships do not have any attributes. 63. Consider a LAN with four nodes S1¸S2, S3 and S4. Time is
If a relational model is the derived from the above ER model, divided into fixed-size slots, and a node can begin its
then the minimum number of relations that would be transmission only at the beginning of a slot. A collision is said
generated if all the relations are in 3NF is _______.
to have occurred if more than one node transmit in the same
99 slot. The probability of generation of a frame in a time slot
1
58. å x(x + 1)
= ______________ .
by S1, S2, S3 and S4 are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4, respectively.
x =1
The probability of sending a frame in the first slot without any
59. Let a n represent the number of bit strings of length n
collision by any of these four stations is ________.
containing two consecutive 1s. What is the recurrence
64. An algorithm performs (log N)1/2 find operations, N insert
relation for an?
operations, (log N)1/2 delete operations, and (log N)1/2
(A) an–2+ an–1+2n–2
decrease-key operations on a set of data items with keys
(B) an–2+2an–1+2n–2
drawn form a linearly ordered set. For a delete operation, a
(C) 2an–2+a n–1+2n–2
pointer is provided to the record that must be deleted. For the
(D) 2an–2+2an–1+2n–2
EBD_7203
2015 -8 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
decrease-key operation, a pointer is provided to the record
that has its key decreased. Which one of the following data 1 p=q+r
structures is the most suited for the algorithm to use, if the s=p+q
u=s*v
goal is to achieve the best asymptotic complexity considering
all the operations?
(a) Unsorted array
(b) Min–heap
2 v=r+u 3 q=s*u
(c) Sorted array
(d) Sorted doubly linked list
65. A variable x is said to be live at a statement Si in a program
if the following three conditions hold simultaneously: 4 q=v+r
I. There exists a statement Sj that uses x
II. There is a path from S i to S j in the flow graph The variables which are live at the statement in basic block
corresponding to the program 2 and at the statement in basic block 3 of the above control
III. The path has no intervening assignment to x including flow graph are
at Si and Sj (A) p, s, u (B) r, s, u
(C) r, u (D) q, v
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-9

GENERAL APTITUDE TECHNICAL SECTION


1. (a) Number of possible combinations of two number 11. (c) In Symmetric Key Cryptography, if 'N' number of users
is keen to partake, then N (N-1)/2 number of keys is
one from each set = 4C1 ´ 5C1 = 20 required to satisfy the confidentiality requirements of
Combinations having sum 16 are (2, 14), (3, 13), any users.
(4, 12) and (5, 11) 12. (b) Option (a), (Checksum) needs to be reorganized by each
visited Router since Time to Live value is customized.
4 Option (b), (Source Address) can't be customized by
Required Probability = = 0.20
20 an IP router. Only NAT (Network Address Translation)
2. (c) can transform it.
3. (b) As a verb wheedle is to cajole or attempt to persuade Option (c), (TTL) is decremented by each visited router.
by flattery. As a adjective roundabout is indirect When it arrives at to zero, then packet will be rejected.
circuitous or circumlocutionary; that doesnot do some Option (d), (Length) also customized whenever there
they in a direct way. is a need of performing the destruction process.
13. (b) Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and
3
4. (a) I. Each step is foot high. not inside is valid in shift reduce parsing, because we
4 will write the shift reduce parsing program for every
9´ 4 variable such that if any variable contain more than
No. of steps = = 12 one possibility, it will choose the correct production.
3
14. (a) We know that the maximum no. of nodes in a binary
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
tree with (height) h = 2h+1–1.
5. (a)
Here h = 5, then, we easily calculate the h as:
6. 32 Let total number of students be x
h = 25 + 1–1= 64 – 1 = 63
5 And the minimum no. of nodes with height h is h + 1.
Then, ´ 20% of x = 40
9 \h = 5
5 20 x L=0
´ = 40
9 100 L=1
x = 360 L=2
4 L=3
No. of females in civil department = ´ 30% of x
9 L=4
4 L=5
No. of females in Mechanical department = ´ 10% of x
9 15. (c) Prim's Algorithm always select minimum distance
between two of its positions which is not anything
4 é 3x x ù 4 x but greedy method. Floyd-Warshall always varies it
Difference = - = ´
9 êë 10 10 úû 9 5 distance at each iteration, which is nothing but dynamic
programming, in Merge Sort first, we always divided
4 360 the data and merge to it withcomplete sorting. Hence
= ´ = 32
9 5 divide and conquer.
7. (a) 8. (c) 16. (c) We can present p « q as:
21 ´ 2 + 15 ´ 3 + 11 ´ 11 ´ 1 + 23 ´ 2 + 31 ´ 5 p « q º (p ® q) Ù (p ® q)
9. (b) = 2.970
21 + 15 + 11 + 23 + 31 º (7p Ú q) Ù (7p Ú q) (\ p ® q = 7p Ú q)
10. (a) P(atleast two) – P(exactly 2) º (7p Ù q) Ú (q Ù 7q) Ú (7p Ù p) Ú (q Ù p)
= 0.5 – 0.4 = 0.1 (using distributive laws)
0.75 = p + m + c + 0.1 – (0.5 + 0.11 × 2) º (7p Ù 7q) Ú (q Ù p) (using complement laws
and commutative laws)
27
\ p + m + c = 0.65 + 0.7 = 1.35 = = \ p « q is NOT equivalent to (7p Ù q) Ú (q Ù 7q)
20
EBD_7203
2015 -10 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
17. (d) SELECT operation in SQL perform vertical partitioning 24. (b) I: FALSE
which is made by projection operation in relational The sequence number of the subsequent segment
calculus, but SQL is multi-sets. Hence the projection depends on the number of 8-byte characters in the
operation in relational algebra, except that SELECT in current segment.
SQL retains duplicates answer is correct. II:TRUE
Depending on the value of a or expected RTT it may
18. (d) I Þ L1 is recursive or may not be greater than 1.
This one is true, because L1 is context free which is III: FALSE
nonentity but recursive, recursive language is closed It is the size of the receiver's buffer that's never
under complement. Hence it is true. changed. Receive Window is the part of the receiver's
buffer that's changing all the time depending on the
II Þ L2 (complement of L2) is recursive processing ability at the receiver's side and the network
If L2 and L2 both are recursive enumerable then L2 is traffic.
recursive IV: TRUE
The number of unappreciated bytes that A sends cannot
Hence, statement II is false
exceed the size of the receiver's window. But if it can't
III Þ L1 is context free exceed the receiver's window, then it definitely has no
way to exceed the receiver's buffer as the window size
Which is false because context free language does
is always less than or equal to the buffer size. On the
not closed under complement.
other hand, for urgent messages, the sender CAN send
IV Þ L1 L2 is recursive enumerable. it in even although the receiver's buffer is full.
25. (a)
L1 recursive, because every recursive language is 26. (d) Given that Logical Address (LA) = 32 bits
Logical Address Size (LAS) = 232 = 448
also recursive enumerable.
Page size = 4 kB
L2 recursive enumerable. LAS 44B G
\ number of pages = = = 220 = 1m
P.S 4KB K
L1 È L2 Þ recursive enumerable, because recursive
Size of the page table entry = 4 bytes
enumerable language closed under union.
19. (c) 2A ® Power set of A i.e., set of all subsets of A. Since \ Page table size = 4B × 1m = 4 mB
27. (c) If we execute P2 process after P1 process, then we get
empty set is a subset of every set
B= 3
\ φ Í 2 A and φ Î 2 A If we execute P1 process after P2 process, then we get
B= 4
Since {5, 6 } Í and 5 Ï 2A If we did preemption between P1 and P2 processes,
then we get B = 2 (Preemption have done from P1 to
\ {5, 6 } Î 2 A and {5, 6 }Í 2 A
P2) or B = 3 (Preemption have done from P2 to P1). So,
\ I, II and III are TRUE among 2 and 3 values, only one value will be saved in
20. (d) 0000 – 0 B. So, total no. of different values that B can possibly
1000 – 8 take after the execution is 3.
1100 – 12 1
and so on.
28. (c) Let y = lim xx
21. (c) I . XML overcomes the limitations in HTML to support X ®¥
a structured way of organizing content.There for, it is
true. In x
In y = lim (Taking Logorihms)
II. HTML is case insensitive while XML is case X ®¥ x
sensitive Hence it is false.
III. XML supports user defined tags while HTML 1
¥
uses predefined tags. Hence it is true. In y = lim x ( form and using L-Hospital rule)
IV XML tags must be closed Hence it is false. X ®¥ 1 ¥
22. (a) According to the given question, we can say that In y = 0
each data record in the data file has one entry in the Hence, y = 1
index file. So it must be dense index. 29. (b) When the pivot is the smallest or largest element at
23. (a) In-order traversal of binary search tree gives ascending partitioning on a block of size n the result capitulates
orders and in BST, at every node root element is greater one empty sub-block, one element (pivot) in the correct
than and equal to all element present in left sub-tree place and sub block of size n-1
and less than or equal to all the elements in right sub- Hence recurrence relation
tree. T(n) = T(n – 1) + T(1) + Cn
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-11

30. (a) g(x) = 1 – x ...(1) Equivalence class partitioning is a software testing


method that divides the input data of a software unit
x
h (x) = ...(2) into partitions of corresponding data from which test
x -1
cases can be derived, which is nothing but black box
Replace x by h (x) in ...(1) testing.
Replace x by g (x) in ...(2) Hence
g(h(x) ) =1– h (x) Q Matches with I.
x -1 Volume testing submits to testing a software
= 1- = application with certain amount of data which is
x -1 x -1
nothing but system testing.
g (x) Hence
h ( g ( x )) = =
1- x
g (x) -1 -x R matches with II.
Alpha testing is replicated or actual operation testing
g ( h ( x )) x by potential client/stakeholders, which is nothing but
= performance testing.
h ( g ( x )) ( x - 1)(1 - x ) Hence
R matches with IV
x
g ( h ( x )) é 2 2 ù é l11 0 ù é1 u12 ù
= x -1 35. 5 A = LU Þ ê ú=ê úê ú
h ( g ( x )) 1- x ë 4 9 û ël21 l22 û ë0 1 û

él l11u12 ù
g ( h ( x )) h (x) = ê 11 ú
= ël21 l21u12 + l22 û
h ( g ( x )) g (x)
\ l11 = 2;l11u12 = 2 Þ u12 = 1
31. (d) HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) and SMTP l21 = 4; l21u12 + l22 = 9 Þ l22 = 5
(Simple Message Transfer Protocol) protocols can use
several TCP associations between the same client and 15
the server. B E
10 4
32. (b) If we judge a single string of binary search tree, then
we have to sketch all the nodes for insertion or deletion
2 7 F
in worst case hence θ (n) for both. A
36. 69
33. –5 In function "main ()" 9 6
D
f1 is called by value, so local variables a, b, c of f1 are C
16
customized but not the local variables a, b, c of main
function.
f2 is called by reference. Total sum = 10 + 9 + 2 + 15 + 7 + 16 + 4 + 6 = 69
int main () { 37. 14020
int a = 4, b = 5, c = 6 Given that
f1(a, b) Seek time = 4ms
f2(&b, &c) 60s ® 10000 rotations
printf ("%d", c-a-b); 60s ® 10000 rotations
}
60
f2(int *a, int *b) = 6ms ¬ 1 rotation time
{ 10000
int c; 1
c = * a; c 5 \ Rotational Latency = ´ 6ms = 3ms
2
* a = b; [will change 'b' value of main to c value of
1 track ® 600 sectors
main]
6ms ¬ 600 sectors (1 rotation means 600 sectors or 1 track)
*b = c; [will change 'c' value of main to c value of f2]
} 6ms
34. (d) Condition coverage is also known as predicate coverage 1 sector ® = 0.01ms
600
in which each of the Boolean expression estimated to 2000 sector ® 2000 (0.01) = 20 ms
both true and false.Which is nothing but white-box \ Total time
testing, which tests internal structures of a function? needed to read the entire tile is = 2000 (4 + 3) + 20
Hence = 8000 + 6000 + 20
P matches with III. = 14020 ms
EBD_7203
2015 -12 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
38. (b) The loop terminater when r < y. so, r < y is one post 50. (b)
condition. 51. (d) Given that l1 = –1 and l2 = 7 are eigen values of A
In each iteration q is incremented by 1 and y is
subtracted from r. Initialvalue of r is x. By the properties, l1 + l2 = tr ( A ) , traces of A i.e.,
x x sum of the diagonal elements and l1 . l 2 = determinant
So, loop iterates times and q will be equal to
y y of A.
and r = x% y Þ x = qy + r Þ 1+a=6
So, (b) is correct answer. a=5
39. (2) Output table is And ¯
Raj 310 a – 4b = –7
Rohit 140 5 – 4b = –7
–4b = –7 –5
T1 T2 T1 T3 T1 T2 T1 T3 T1 ... –4b = –12 Þ b = 3
40.
1 2 4 5 7 8 10 11 (13) 14
æ1ö
41. (d) 42. (c) 2 cos ç ÷
è x ødx
43. (a) It is clear that from the truth table, the binary operation 52. (-1) òp
1
x2
# is equivalent to XOR i.e., Å,which satisfies both p
commutative and associative i.e., p # q º q # p and p
# (q # r) º (p # q) # r 1
Put =t
44. 3 x
45. 1 M accepts the strings which end with a and N accepts
the strings which end with b. Their intersection should -1
Þ dx = dt
accept empty language. x2
a, b And
2 p
x= Þt=
p 2

46. (a) 1
x= Þ t =p
47. (d) Number of elements in L3 = Number of ways in which p
we can choose 3 elements from 5 with repetition
æQ b f x dX = - a f x dx ö
= 5 × 5 × 5 = 125 Now, when we take x = t, then also the ç òa ( ) òb ( ) ÷ø
given condition is satisfied for any y and z. Here, y è
and z can be taken in 5 × 5 = 25 ways. p
Take x = r, y = p, z = p, these, also the given condition = òp cos t dt
2
25 1
is satisfied. So, pr > > .
p æp ö
125 5 = ( sin t ) p = sin p = sin ç ÷ = -1
For x = p, y = r, z = t , the given condition is not è2ø
2
satisfied.
53. 320 Given that B = 64 kbps
So, Pr ¹ 1.
Tp = 20 ms
So, (d) corret option.
48. (d) h ³ 50%
49. 24 By Euler's formula, For h ³ 50% Þ L ³ BR
|V|+|R| = |E|+2 _________ (1) where |V|, |E|, |R| are Þ L = 64 ×103 × 2 × 20 × 10–3
respectively number of vertices, edges and faces = 2560 bits = 320 bytes
(regions) 54. (a)
Q prev. O Q
Given |V| = 10 _______ (2) and number of edges on
each face is three — 1 0
2 0 0 1
` \ 3|R| = 2|E| Þ |R| = 3 |E|_________ (3) 1 1 1
Subtracting (2), (3) in (1), we get 1 1 0
E 0 0 1
2
10 + E = E + 2 Þ = 8 Þ E = 24 1 1 1
3 3
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-13

D flipflop outputs its input and Jk flipflop output E1(a11, a12), E2 (a21, a22), E3 and R13 (a11, a31, a32),
toggles its output when 1 is given to both J and K R2 (a11, a12),
inputs. But in table (a11, a31, a32) there may be transitive
Q = Dprev (Qprev) + (Dprev) (Qprev). dependency between a 11 and a 32 so we should
55. (c) int fun1(int n){ decompose this table into 2 more tables.
int i, j, k, p, q = 0;
for (i = 1;i < n; ++ p) ® n times 1
0.99 å = _____________ .
99
{ 58. X =1
x ( x + 1)
p=0
For( j = n; j > 1; j = j/ 2) 99
1 1 1 1 1
++p; å x ( x + 1) = 1( 2 ) + 2 ( 3) + 3 ( 4 ) + ... + 99 (100 )
log (log n) times X =1

for (k = 1;k < p;k = k * 2)


++q; 2 -1 3 - 2 4 - 3 100 - 99
= + + + ...
} 1( 2 ) 2 ( 3 ) 3 ( 4 ) 99 (100 )
return q;
}
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
\ nlog(logn) = - + - + ... + - + -
56. 3.2 Speed up = old execution time/ new execution time. 1 2 2 3 3 98 99 99 100

CPIold 1 99
= = 1- = = 0.99
CFold 100 100
=
CPI new
59. (a)
CFnew
60. 5
(where CF is clock frequency and CPI is cycles per 61. (b)
intruction. So, CPI/CF gives time per instruction)
40
4
= 2.5 = 3.2
1
2 30 20

Without pipelining an instruction was taking 4 cycles.


After pipelining to 5 stayes we need to see the
maximum clock cycle a staye can take and this will be 10 15
16 17

the CPI assuning no stalls.


57. 5
8 4
a11 a12 a21 a22
Insert 35 Þ according to CBT

40
E1 R12 E1
m n

30 20
R13
n
10 16 17
15

E3

8 4 35

a31 a32
EBD_7203
2015 -14 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
Heapification 62. 10
63. 0.4404
P = P(S1) P(~S2) P (~S3) P(~S4) +
40
P(~S1) P(S2) P(~S3) P(~S4) +
P(~S1) P(~S2) P(S3) P(~S4) +
P(~S1) P(~S2) P (~S3) P(S4)
30 20
= 0.1 × 0.8× 0.7 × 0.6
+ 0.9 × 0.2 × 0.7 × 0.6
+ 0.9 × 0.8 × 0.3 × 0.6
+ 0.9 × 0.8 × 0.7 × 0.4
16 17
10 15 = 0.4404.
64. (a) If we use unsorted array
(logN) 1/2 find operations will take log N 1/2 .
8 4 35 q(N(log N)1/2) time
N insertions will take N×q(1) = q(N) time
(logN)1/2 delete operations will take (log N) 1/2 ×θ (1)=
q(log N)1/2 time as pointer to the record which should
be deleted is provided
(logN)1/2 decrease key operations will take q(logN)1/2
40 time
\ On the whole, time complete to perform all these
operations is q( N(log N) 1 /2 )
If we use sorted array insertions will take more time
30 20
[O(NlogN) as it should be sorted after insertions]. If
we use min heap, again insertions will take more time
[O(NlogN) as it should be heapifie d].
10 35
16 17 65. (c)

8 4 15

40

35 20

10 16 17
30

8 4 15
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-15

2015
SET - 2
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers
11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-marks each.
4. Questions are of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) or Numerical Answer type. A multiple choice question will have
four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERAL APTITUDE 4. A generic term that includes various items of clothing such
as a skirt, a pair of trousers and a shirt is
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
(a) fabric (b) textile
1. Choose the statement where underlined word is used correctly.
(c) fibre (d) apparel
(a) The industrialist had a personnel jet.
5. Based on the given statements, select the most appropriate
(b) I write my experience in my personnel diary.
option to solve the given question.
(c) All personnel are being given the day off.
What will be the total weight of 10 poles each of same
(d) Being religious is a personnel aspect.
weight?
2. Consider a function f(x) = 1–|x| on –1 £ x £ 1. The value of
Statements:
x at which the function attains a maximum, and the maximum
value of the function are: (I) One fourth of the weight of a pole is 5 Kg.
(a) 0, –1 (b) –1, 0 (II) The total weight of these poles is 160 kg more than the
(c) 0, 1 (d) – 1, 2 total weight of two poles.
3. We ________ our friend's birthday and we ________ how to (a) Statement I alone is not sufficient.
make it up to him. (b) Statement II alone is not sufficient.
(a) completely forget, don't just know (c) Either I or II is sufficient.
(b) forgot completely, don't just know (d) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient.
(c) completely forget, just don't know
(d) forgot completely, just don't know
EBD_7203
2015 -16 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH TECHNICAL SECTION
6. If the list of letters, P, R, S, T, U is an arithmetic sequence,
which of the following are also in arithmetic sequence? QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
I. 2P, 2R, 2S, 2T, 2U 11. The number of divisors of 2100 is _____.
II. P–3, R–3, S–3, T–3, U–3 12. Consider the following C function.
III. P2, R2, S2, T2, U2 int fun(int n)
(a) I only (b) I and II {
(c) II and III (d) I and III int x = 1, k;
7. In a triangle PQR, PS is the angle bisector of ÐQPR and if (n = = 1) return x;
ÐQPS = 60°. What is the length of PS? for (k =1; k<n; ++k)
x = x + fun(k) * fun(n–k);
P return x;
}
r q The return value of fun(5) is _____.
13. An unordered list contains n distinct elements. The number
of comparisons to find an element in this list that is neither
Q R maximum nor minimum is
P (a) O(n log n) (b) O(n)
(c) O(log n) (d) O(1)
14. The cardinality of the power set of {0, 1, 2,…, 10}
(q + r) qr
(a) (b) is _______.
qr (q + r) 15. Consider two decision problems Q1, Q2 such that Q1 reduces
in polynomial time to 3–SAT and 3–SAT reduces in
(q + r)2 polynomial time to Q2. Then which one of the following is
(c) (q 2 + r 2 ) (d)
qr consistent with the above statement?
8. Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable (a) Q1 is in NP, Q2 is NP hard.
sentence with respect to grammar and usage: (b) Q2 is in NP, Q1 is NP hard.
(a) Since the report lacked needed information, it was of (c) Both Q1 and Q2 in NP.
(d) Both Q1 and Q2 are NP hard.
no use to them.
16. With reference to the B+ tree index of order 1 shown below,
(b) The report was useless to them because there were no
the minimum number of nodes (including the Root node) that
needed information in it.
must be fetched in order to satisfy the following query: "Get
(c) Since the report did not contain the needed
all records a search key greater than or equal to 7 and less
information, it was not real useful to them.
than 15" is ____.
(d) Since the report lacked needed information, it would
not had been useful to them.
9
9. If p, q, r, s are distinct integers such that:
f(p, q, r, s) = max(p, q, r, s)
g(p, q, r, s) = min(p, q, r, s) 5 13 17
h(p, q, r, s) = remainder of (p×q)/(r×s) if
(p × q)> (r × s) or remainder of (r×s)/(p×q) if (r×s) > (p×q) 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17
Also a function fgh(p, q, r, s) = f(p, q, r, s) × g(p, q, r, s) × h(p,
q, r, s) 17. Consider a complete binary tree where the left and the right
Also the same operations are valid with two variable subtrees of the root are max-heaps. The lower bound for the
functions of the form f(p, q). number operations to convert the tree to a heap is
What is the value of fg(h(2,5,7,3), 4,6,8)?
10. Four branches of company are located at M, N, O, and P. M (a) W(log n) (b) W(n)
(c) W(n log n) (d) W(n2)
is north of N at a distance of 4 km; P is south of O at a distance
18. Assume that for a certain processor, a read request takes 50
of 2 km; N is southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance
nanoseconds on a cache miss and 5 nanoseconds on a cache
between M and P in km?
hit. Suppose while running a program, it was observed that
(a) 5.34 (b) 6.74
80% of the processor's read requests result in a cache hit. The
(c) 28.5 (d) 45.49
average read access time in nanoseconds is ______.
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-17

19. A link has a transmission speed of 106 bits/sec. It uses data 25. Identify the correct order in which a server process must
packets of size 1000 bytes each. Assume that the invoke the function calls accept, bind, listen, and recv
acknowledgement has negligible transmission delay, and that according to UNIX socket APL.
its propagation delay is the same as the data propagation (a) listen, accept, bind, recv
delay. Also assume that the processing delays at nodes are (b) bind, listen, accept, recv
negligible. The efficiency of the stop-and-wait protocol in (c) bind, accept, listen, recv
this setup is exactly 25%. The value of the one-way (d) accept, listen, bind, recv
propagation delay(in milliseconds) is _______. 26. In the context of Abstract-Systax-Tree (AST) and Control-
20. Consider the following transaction involving two bank Flow-Graph (CFG), which one of the following is TRUE?
accounts x and y. (a) In both AST and CFG, let node N2 be the successor of
read(x); x: = x–50; write(x); read (y); y = y + 50; write(y) node N1. In the input program, the code corresponding
The constraint that the sum of the accounts x and y should to N2 is present after the code corresponding to N1
remain constant is that of (b) For any input program, neither AST nor CFG will
(a) Atomicity (b) Consistency contain a cycle
(c) Isolation (d) Durability (c) The maximum number of successors of a node in an
21. A Software Requirements Specification (SRS) document AST and a CFG depends on the input program
should avoid discussing which one of the following? (d) Each node in AST and CFG corresponds to at most one
(a) User interface issues statement in the input program.
(b) Non-functional requirements 27. A binary tree T has 20 leaves. The number of nodes in T
(c) Design specification having two children is _____.
(d) Interfaces with third party software 28. A computer system implements a 40-bit virtual address, page
22. Consider the following function written in the C size of 8 kilobytes, and a 128-entry Translation Look-aside
programming languages. Buffer (TLB) organized into 32 sets each having four ways.
void foo(char *a) Assume that the TLB tag does not store any process id. The
{ minimum length of the TLB tag in bits is _______.
if(*a && *a != ‘ ’) 29. Match the following:
{ List – I List – II
foo(a+1); P. Lexical analysis 1. Graph coloring
putchar(*a); Q. Parsing 2. DFA minimization
} R. Register allocation 3. Post-order traversal
} S. Expression evaluation 4. Production tree
The output of the above function on input "ABCD EFGH" (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
is (c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(a) ABCD EFGH (b) ABCD 30. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about
(c) HGFE DCBA (d) DCBA HTTP cookies?
23. A system has 6 identical resources and N processes (a) A cookie is a piece of code that has the potential to
competing for them. Each process can request atmost 2 compromise the security of an Internet user
resources. Which one of the following values of N could lead (b) A cookie gains entry to the user's work area through an
to a deadlock? HTTP header
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) A cookie has an expiry date and time
(c) 3 (d) 4 (d) Cookies can be used to track the browsing pattern of a
24. Consider the basic COCOMO model where E is the effort user at a particular site
applied in person-months, D is the development time in
é 4 5ù
chronological months, KLOC is the estimated number of 31. The larger of the two eigenvalues of the matrix ê 2 1ú is
delivered lines of code(in thousands) and ab, bb, cb, db have ë û
their usual meanings. The basic COCOMO equations are of _____.
the form 32. Consider the following two statements.
(a) E = ab(KLOC) exp(bb), D = cb (E) exp(db) S1: If a candidate is known to be corrupt, then he will not be
(b) D = ab(KLOC) exp(bb), E = cb(D) exp(db) elected
(c) E = ab exp(bb), D = cb(KLOC) exp(db) S2: If a candidate is kind, he will be elected.
(d) E = ab exp(db), D = cb(KLOC) exp(bb) Which one of the following statements follows from S1 and
S2 as per sound inference rules of logic?
EBD_7203
2015 -18 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
(a) If a person is known to be corrupt, he is kind 37. Consider the following routing table at an IP router.
(b) If a person is not known to be corrupt, he is not kind
(c) If a person is kind, he is not known to be corrupt
(d) If a person is not kind, he is not known to be corrupt Newtork No. Net Mask Next Hop
33. Let R be the relation on the set of positive integers such that 128.96.170.0 255.255.254.0 Interface 0
aRb if and only if a and b distinct and have a common divisor
128.96.168.0 255.255.254.0 Interface 1
other than 1. Which one of the following statements about
128.96.166.0 255.255.254.0 R2
R is true?
(a) R is symmetric and reflexive but not transitive 128.96.164.0 255.255.252.0 R3
(b) R is reflexive but not symmetric and not transitive 0.0.0.0 Default R4
(c) R is transitive but not reflexive and not symmetric
(d) R is symmetric but not reflexive and not transitive For each IP address in Group I identify the correct choice of
34. Consider the following statements. the next hop form Group II using the entries from the routing
I. The complement of every Turing decidable language
table above.
is Turing decidable
Group I Group II
II. There exists some language which is in NP but is not
(i) 128.96.171.92 (A) Interface 0
Turing decidable
III. If L is a language in NP, L is Turing decidable (ii) 128.96.167.151 (B) Interface 1
Which of the above statements is/are true? (iii) 128.96.163.151 (C) R2
(a) Only II (b) Only III (iv) 128.96.165.121 (D) R3
(c) Only I and II (d) Only I and III (E) R4
35. The minimum number of JK flip-flops required to construct (a) i-A, ii-C, iii-E, iv-D (b) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-E
a synchronous counter with the count sequence (0, 0, 1, 1, 2, (c) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-E (d) i-B, ii-C, iii-E, iv-D
2, 3, 3, 0, 0,.........) is _______. 38. Consider two relations R1(A,B) with the tuples(1, 5), (3, 7)
QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH and R2(A, C) = (1, 7), (4, 9). Assume that R(A,B,C) is the full
natural outer join of R1 and R2. Consider the following tuples
36. The secant method is used to find the root of an equation f(x)
of the form (A, B, C): a = (1, 5, null), b = (1, null, 7), c = (3,
= 0. It is started from two distinct estimates xa and xb for the
root. It is an iterative procedure involving linear interpolation null, 9), d = (4, 7, null), e = (1, 5, 7), f = (3, 7, null), g = (4,
to a root. The iteration stops if f(xb) is very small and then xb null, 9). Which one of the following statements is correct?
is the solution. The procedure is given below. Observe that (a) R contains a, b, e, f, g but not c, d.
there is an expression which is missing and is marked by? (b) R contains all of a, b, c, d, e, f, g.
Which is the suitable expression that is to be put in place of? (c) R contains e, f, g but not a, b.
So that it follows all steps of the secant method? (d) R contains e but not f, g.
Secant 39. The number of states in the minimal deterministic finite
Initialize: xa, xb, e, N automaton corresponding to the regular expression (0 + 1) *
// e = convergence indicator (10) is _______.
// N = maximum number of iterations 40. Which one of the following well formed formulae is a
fb =f(xb) tautology?
i=0 (a) " x$ y R (x, y) « " x R (x, y)
while (i < N and |fb| > e) do (b) "x [$ y R(x, y) ® S(x, y)]) ® " x $yS (x, y)
i = i + 1 // update counter
(c) ["x$xy (P(x, y) ® R(x,y)] « ["x$y
xt = ? // missing expression for
(ØP (x, y) Ú R(x, y)]
xa = x b
xb = xt // intermediate value (d) "x"y P(x, y) ® " x " y P(y, x)
fb = f(xb) // function value at new xb 41. Consider the C program below.
end while #include <stdio.h>
if |fb| > e then // loop is terminated with i=N int *A, stkTop;
write "Non-convergence" int stkFunc(int opcode, int val)
else {
write "return xb" static int size = 0, stkTop = 0;
end if switch (opcode)
(a) xb – (fb – f(xa)) fb/ (xb – xa) {
(b) xa – (fa – f(xa)) fa/ xb – xa) case –1: size = val; break;
(c) xb – (xb – xa)fb/ (fb – f(xa)) case 0: if(stkTop < size) A[stkTop++]=
(d) xa – (xb – xa) fa/ (fb – f(xa)) val; break;
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-19

default: if (stkTop) return A[– –stkTop]; 46. Which one of the following assertions concerning code
} inspection and code walkthrough is true?
return – 1; (a) Code inspection is carried out once the code has been
} unit tested
int main( ) (b) Code inspection and code walkthrough are synonyms
{ (c) Adherence to coding standards is checked during code
int B[20]; A = B; stkTop = –1; inspection
stkFunc(–1, 10); (d) Code walk through is usually carried out by an
stkFunc(0, 5); independent test team
stkFunc(0, 10); 47. The number of onto functions (surjective functions) from set
printf("%d\n", stkFunc(1,0)+stkFun(1,0); X = {1, 2, 3, 4,} to set Y = {a, b, c} is _______.
} 48. A graph is self-complementary if it is isomorphic to its
The value printed by the above program is ______. complement. For all self-complementary graphs on n
42. Which one of the following hash functions on integers will vertices, n is
(a) A multiple of 4
distribute keys most uniformly over 10 buckets numbered 0
(b) Even
to 9 for i ranging from 0 to 2020?
(c) Odd
(a) h(i) = i2 mod 10 (b) h(i) = i3 mod 10
2 (d) Congruent to 0 mod 4, 1 mod 4
(c) h(i) = (11 * i ) mod 10 (d) h(i) = (12 * i) mod 10
49. Perform the following operations on the maxtrix
43. Consider the alphabet S = {0, 1}, the null/empty string l and
the sets of strings X 0 , X 1 , and X 2 generated by the é 3 4 45ù
corresponding non-terminals of a regular grammar X0, X1, ê 7 9 105ú
and X2 are related as follows. ê ú
ëê13 2 195úû
X0 = 1 X1
X1 = 0 X1 + 1 X2 (i) Add the third row to the second row
X2 = 0 X1 + {l} (ii) Subtract the third column from the first column.
Which one of the following choices precisely represents the The determinant of the resultant matrix is _______.
strings in X0? 50. Assume that the bandwidth for a TCP connection is 1048560
(a) 10(0*+(10)*)1 bits/sec. Let a be the value of RIT in milliseconds (rounded off
(b) 10(0*+(10*)*1 to the nearest integer) after which the TCP window scale option
(c) 1(0+10)*1 is needed. Let b be the maximum possible window size with
(d) 10(0+10)*1+110(0+10)*1 window scale option. Then the values of a and b are
44. The number of min-term after minimizing the following (a) 63 milliseconds, 65535 × 214
Boolean expression is _____. (b) 63 milliseconds, 65535 × 216
[D'+ AB' + A'C + AC'D + A'C'D]' (c) 500 milliseconds, 65535 × 214
(d) 500 milliseconds, 65535 × 216
45. Consider the intermediate code given below.
51. Let f(x) = x–(1/3) and A denote the area of the region bounded
(1) i = 1
by f(x) and the X–axis, when x varies from –1 to 1. Which of
(2) j = 1
the following statements is/are TRUE?
(3) t1 = 5 * i
I. f is continuous in [–1, 1]
(4) t2 = t1+ j
II. f is not bounded in [–1, 1]
(5) t3 = 4 * t2 III. A is nonzero and finite
(6) t4 = t3 (a) II only (b) III only
(7) a[t4] = – 1 (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III
(8) j = j + 1 52. Consider the sequence of machine instructions given
(9) if j < = 5 goto (3) below.
(10) i = i + 1 MUL R5, R0, R1
(11) if i < 5 goto (2) DIV R6, R2, R3
The number of nodes and edges in the control-flow-graph ADD R7, R5, R6
constructed for the above code, respectively, are SUB R8, R7, R4
(a) 5 and 7 (b) 6 and 7 In the above sequence, R0 to R8 are general purpose
(c) 5 and 5 (d) 7 and 8 registers. In the instruction shown, the first register stores the
EBD_7203
2015 -20 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
result of the operation performed on the second and the third 59. Consider a processor with byte-addressable memory.
registers. This sequence of instructions is to be executed in Assume that all registers, including Program Counter (PC)
a pipelined instruction processor with the following 4 stages: and Program Status Word (PSW), are of size 2 bytes. A stack
(1) Instruction Fetch and Decode (IF), (2) Operand Fetch in the main memory is implemented from memory location
(OF), (3) Perform Operation (PO) and (4) Write Back the (0100)16 and it grows upward. The stack pointer (SP) points
result (WB). The IF, OF and WB stages take 1 clock cycle to the top element of the stack. The current value of SP is
each for any instruction and 5 clock cycles for DIV (016E)16. The CALL instruction is of two words, the first is
instruction. The pipelined processor uses operand the op-code and the second word is the starting address of the
forwarding from the PO stage to the OF stage. The number subroutine (one word = 2 bytes). The CALL instruction is
of clock cycles taken for the execution of the above sequence implemented as follows.
of instructions is _________. • Store the current value of PC in the stack
53. Which of the following languages is/are regular? • Store the value of PSW register in the stack
L1: {wxwR|w, x Î {a, b}* and |w|, |x| > 0}, • Load the starting address of the subroutine in PC
wR is the reverse of string w The content of PC just before the fetch of CALL instruction
L2: {anbm | m ¹ n and m, n ³ 0} is (5FA0)16 . After execution of the CALL instruction, the
L3: {apbqcr | p, q, r ³ 0} value of the stack pointer is
(a) L1 and L3 only (b) L2 only (a) (016A)16 (b) (016C)16
(c) L2 and L3 only (d) L3 only (c) (0170)16 (d) (0172)16
54. Consider a typical disk that rotates at 150000 Rotations Per 60. Suppose you are provided with the following function
Minute (RPM) and has a transfer rate of 50 × 106 bytes/sec. declaration in the C programming language.
If the average seek time of the disk is twice the average int partition(int a[ ], int n);
rotation delay and the controller's transfer time is 10 times the The function treats the first element of a[ ] as s pivot, and
disk transfer time, the average time (in milliseconds) to read rearranges the array so that all elements less than or equal to
or write a 512-byte sector of the disk is _____. the pivot is in the left part of the array, and all elements
55. A computer system implements 8 kilobyte pages and a 32-bit greater than the pivot is in the right part. In addition, it moves
physical address space. Each page table entry contains a valid the pivot so that the pivot is the last element of the left part.
bit, a dirty bit, three permission bits, and the translation. If the The return value is the number of elements in the left part.
maximum size of the page table of a process is 24 megabytes, The following partially given function in the C programming
the length of the virtual address supported by the system is language is used to find the kth smallest element in an array
_______ bits. a[ ] of size n using the partition function. We assume k £ n.
56. Consider six memory partitions of sizes 200 KB, 400KB, int kth_smallest(int a[ ], int n, int k)
600 KB, 500 KB, 300 KB and 250 KB, where KB refers to {
kilobyte. These partitions need to be allotted to four int left_end = partition(a, n);
processes of sizes 357 KB, 210 KB, 468 KB and 491 KB in if (left_end+1 = =k)
that order. If the best fit algorithm is used, which partitions {
are NOT allotted to any process? Return a[left_end];
(a) 200 KB and 300 KB }
(b) 200 KB and 250 KB if(left_end+1) > k)
(c) 250 KB and 300 KB {
(d) 300 KB and 400 KB return kth_smallest(________);
57. Let X and Y denote the sets containing 2 and 20 distinct }
objects respectively and F denote the set of all possible else
functions defined from X to Y. Let f be randomly chosen from {
F. The probability of f being one-to-one is ________. return kth_smallest(________);
58. Host A sends a UDP datagram containing 8880 bytes of user }
data to host B over an Ethernet LAN. Ethernet frames may }
carry data up to 1500 bytes (i.e. MTU = 1500 bytes).Size of The missing argument lists are respectively
UDP header is 8 bytes and size of IP header is 20 bytes. There (a) (a, left_end, k) and (a+left_end+1, n–left_end–1,
is no option field in IP header. How many total number of IP k–left_end–1)
fragments will be transmitted and what will be the contents (b) (a, left_end, k) and (a, n–left_end–1, k–left_end–1)
of offset field in the last fragment? (c) (a+left_end+1,n–left_end–1, k–left_end–1) and (a,
(a) 6 and 925 (b) 6 and 7400 left_end, k)
(c) 7 and 1110 (d) 7 and 8880 (d) (a, n–left_end–1, k–left_end–1) and (a, left_end, k)
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-21

61. Consider a simple checkpointing protocol and the following 64. Given below are some algorithms, and some lgorithm design
set of operations in the log. paradigms.
(start, T4); (write, T4, y, 2, 3); (start, T1); List – I
(commit, T4); (write, T1, z, 5, 7); 1. Dijkstra's Shortest Path
(checkpoint); 2. Floyd-Warshall algorithm to compute all paris shortest
(start, T2); (write, T2, x, 1, 9); path
(commit, T2); (start, T3), 3. Binary search on a sorted array
(write, T3, z, 7, 2); 4. Backtracking search on a graph
If a crash happens now the system tries to recover using both List–II
undo and redo operations, what are the contents of the undo (i) Divide and Conquer
list and the redo list? (ii) Dynamic Programming
(a) Undo: T3, T1; Redo: T2 (iii) Greedy design
(b) Undo: T3, T1; Redo: T2, T4 (iv) Depth-first search
(c) Undo: none; Redo; T2, T4, T3, T1 (v) Breadh-first search
(d) Undo: T3, T1, T4; Redo: T2 Match the above algorithms on the left to the corresponding
62. A half adder is implemented with XOR and AND gates. A full design paradigm they follow.
adder is implemented with two half adders and one OR gate. (a) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-v (b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-v
The propagation delay of an XOR gate is twice that of and (c) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv (d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-v
AND/OR gate. The propagation delay of an AND/OR gate 65. A Young tableau is a 2D array of integers increasing from left
is 1.2 microseconds. A 4-bit ripple-carry binary adder is to right and from top to bottom. Any unfilled entries are
implemented by using four full adders. The total propagation marked with ¥, and hence there cannot be any entry to the
time of this 4- bit binary adder in microseconds is _____ right of, or below a ¥. The following Young tableau consists
63. In a connected graph, a bridge is an edge whose removal of unique entries.
disconnects a graph. Which one of the following statements
is true? 1 2 5 14
(a) A tree has no bridge 3 4 6 23
(b) A bridge cannot be part of a simple cycle 10 12 18 25
(c) Every edge of a clique with size ³ 3 is a bridge (A
31 ¥ ¥ ¥
clique is any complete subgraph of a graph
(d) A graph with bridge cannot have a cycle When an element is removed from a Young tableau, other
elements should be moved into its place so that the resulting
table is still a Young tableau (unfilled entries may be filled in
with a ¥). The minimum number of entries (other than 1) to
be shifted, to remove 1 from the given Young tableau
is ________.
EBD_7203
2015 -22 SOLVED PAPER - 2015

GENERAL APTITUDE P 2 + R 2 + S2 + T 2 + U 2 S2
¹
5 5
1. (c) Personnel-people employed in an organization or
engaged in an organized undertaking such as military 7. (b)
service. 8. (a)
2. (c) f(x) = 1 – |x| on –1 £ x £ 1 (b) there was no needed information
(c) not really useful
ì1 - x, 0 £ x £ 1 (d) would not have been
1- | x | = í
î1 + x, -1 £ x £ 0
7´3
9. 8 h (2, 5, 7, 3) = Remainder of ®1
both functions gives maximum value at x = 0. 2´5
f (0) = 1
fg (h (2, 5, 7, 3), 4, 6, 8) = fg (1, 4, 6, 8)
3. (c)
= f (1, 4, 6, 8) × g (1, 4, 6, 8)
4. (d) apparel- clothing, especially outerwear; garments;
=8× 1=8
attire; raiment
5. (c) Let weight of each pole be x
10. (a) M
x
I. Given, = 15 kg
4
O 1km 4 km
Þ x = 60 kg
All poles are of same weight
\ Weight of 10 poles =10x = 10 × 60 = 600 kg 2 km N
II. Given, 10x = 2x + 160 P
Þ 8x = 160 kg Þ x = 20kg
\ Weight of 10 poles = 10x = 10 × 20 = 200 kg
TECHNICAL SECTION
6. (b) As P, R, S, T, U is an arithmetic sequence

P + R + S +T + U 11. 36 Let N = 2100


=S = 22 + 3 × 52 × 7 (i.e., product of primes)
5
Then the number of division of 2100 is
Statement I.
(2 + 1). (1 + 1). (2 + 1). (1 + 1) i.e., (3) (2) (3) (2) i.e.., 36
2P + 2R + 2S + 2T+2U 12. 51 Recurrence Relation is
5 f(n) = 1, if n = 1
n -1
æ P+ R +S+ T + U ö
= 2ç
5
÷ = 2S f(n) = 1 + å f (k).f (n - k) if n > 1
è ø k =1

\ 2P, 2R, 2S, 2T, 2U is an arithmetic sequence.


Statement II. n 1 2 3 4 5 6
f (n) 1 2 5 15 51 188
( P - 3) + ( R - 3) + ( S - 3) + ( T - 3) + ( U - 3)
5 13. (d) Consider first three element of the list, atleast one of
them will be neither minimum nor maximum
15 \ Q(1)
=S - =S - 3
5 14. 2008
\ These terms are in arithmetic sequence. Cardinality of the power set of {0, 1, 2, … , 10} is 211
Statement III. i.e.., 2048
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-23

15. (a) 3 – SAT Þ NPC problem requirements and may include a set of use cases that
Q1 £ p describe interactions the user will have with the
3 – SAT £ p software.
Q2 £ p £ p 22. (d)
Hence ® Q1 is in NP £ p
but Q2 is not given in NP f00(ABCDE)
Therefore, Q2 is in NP-Hard.
16. 6
f00(BCDEFGH) print(A)(4)
9

5 13 17 f00(CDEFGH) print(B)(3)

1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17

f00(DEFGH) print(C)(2)
17. (a)
18. 14 Average read access time = [(0.8) (5) + (0.2)(50)] ns.
= 4 + 10 = 14 ns
19. 12 Given, B = 106 bps f00((space)EFGH) print(D)(1)
L = 1000 bytes
if condition fails & returns controls
h = 25%
\ DCBA will be pointed
Tp = ?
23. (*) It might be "WRONG" question.
1 N = 2 Þ P1 P2 No. of resources = 6
In stop-and-wait, h =
1 + 2a 2 2
1 1
1 1
Þ = Þ 1 + 2a = 4 Each process can request atmost 2
4 1 + 2a
N = 3 Þ P1 P2 P3
3 2 2 2
2a = 3; a = N = 4 Þ P1 P2 P3 P4
2
1 1 1 1
3 1 1
L 8 ´ 10
Tx = = = 8ms Therefore, no option leads to dead lock.
B 106
24. (a) Basic COCOMO model takes the form
TP 3 Effort applied (E) = ab (kLoc) b b
=
TX 2 ; 2TP = 3T
Development time (D) = cb (E)db
2Tp = 24ms 25. (b) The correct order in which a server process must
Tp = 12ms invoke the function calls is bind, listen, accept and
20. (b) The consistency property ensures that the database recv. First three are used in connection establishment
remains in a consistent state before the (start of the phase and recv is used in data transfer phase.
transaction and after the transaction is over. Here sum 26. (c) Option (a) is false when CFG contains cycle
of the accounts x & y should remain same before & Option (b) is false as CFG can contain cycle
after execution of the given transactions which refers Option (d) is false as a single node can contain block
to the consistency of the sum. of statements.
21. (d) SRS is a description of a software system to be 27. 19 Let the number of vertices of a binary tree with ‘p’
developed, laying out functional & non-functional leaves be n then the tree has–
EBD_7203
2015 -24 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
(i)
p vertices (i.e., leaves) of degree 1 then S1 = p ® ~q
(ii)
one vertex (i.e.., root of T) of degree 2 = q® ~ p (contrapositive rule)
(iii)
'n - p -1' (i.e., interval) vertices of degree 3 and s2 : r ® q
(iv)
n -1edges Þ r ® ~p (transitive rule)
\By Handshaking theorem, i.e., If a person is kind, he is not known to be corrupt
p × 1 + 1 × 2 + (n – p – 1) × 3 = 2 (n – 1) \ Option is (c).
Þ n = 2p – 1 33. (d) R is not reflexive as each element can’t be related to
= 39 as p = 20 itself.
2\ n – p =19 vertices have exactly two children R is symmetric
Let a = 3, b = 6 and c = 10 then 3 and 6 have a common
28. 22 22 5 13
division other than 1
TAG SET WORD 6 and 10 have a common division other than 1
OFFSET OFFSET
but 3 &10 have no common division other than 1
29. (c) Lexical Analyzer uses DFA to recognize the longest
3R6 and 6R10 but 3 R 10
possible input sequence that makes up a token. Parser
R is not transitive.
takes input in the form of tokens and usually builds a
data structure in the form of parse tree. Here parse tree 34. (d) Turing decidable Þ Recursive language
can be termed as a Production tree as parser uses Turing recognizable Þ Recursive enumerable
production of the grammar to check whether generated language
tokens form a meaningful compression. (I) Complement of turning decidable language is
Register allocation can be reduced to K-colouring decidable which is true.
problem where K is the number of registers available (III) True (Theorem)
on the target architecture. Which violates (II). Hence correct option is (d).
Post order traversal of expression tree gives postfix 35. 2 Here number of distinct states are 4. So, minimum
notation for a given expression & this post fix notation
number of flip-flop required is = 2.
can be evaluated using stack.
36. (d) It is secant method direct formula.
30. (b)
37. (a) Given,
1st IP : 128.96.171.92
Server Browser 1st MASK : 255.255.254.0
128.96.170.0
Acookiecanbestolen
Which is matching with first entry in n/w no. so the
Attacker corresponding next loop is interface 0.
So (i) ® (A)
(a) Option is correct. Given,
(b) Option is false. 2nd IP : 128.96.167.151
(c) Option is correct. 1st MASK : 255.255.254.0
(d) Option is correct. 128.96.166.0
Which is matching with 3 rd entry of the n/w no.
4-l 5
31. 6 Characteristic equation is column. So the corresponding next lap is R2.
2 1- l = 0
So (ii) ® (C)
Þ l2 – 5l – 6 = 0 Given,
Þ (l – 6) (l + 1) = 0 3rd IP : 128.96.163.151
Þ l = 6, – 1 1st MASK : 255.255.254.0
\ Larger eigen value is 6 128.96.162.0
32. (c) Let p: candidate known to be corrupt Which is not matching
q: candidate will be elected Given,
r: candidate is kind 3rd IP : 128.96.163.151
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-25

1st MASK : 255.255.252.0 41. –2 StkFunc(1, 0) returns –1 both the times. So – 2 will be
128.96.170.0 printed
The corresponding 4th entry of n/w no. column is not 42. (b) If we take first 10 elements, number of collisions taken
matching. So it gives R4. by the hash function given by option (b) is less when
So (iii) ® (E) compared to others.
Given, 43. (c)
4th IP : 128.96.165.121 44. 1 Given function is F(A,B,C,D) [D ¢ + AB¢ + A¢ C + AC¢
Ist MASK : 255.255.254.0 D + A¢ C¢ D]¢
According to the function k-map is
128.96.164.0
It is not matching with the first 3 entries of n/w no
column. If we apply the 2nd mask then the result is CD
128.96.164.0. Since it is matching with 4th entry of n/w AB 00 01 11 10
no column,
00 0 0 0 0
Þ (iv) ® (D) .
So, overall (i) - (A), (ii) - (C),(iii) - (E), (iv) - (D). 01 0 0 0 0

38. (c) R1 A B R2 A C A B C 11 0 0 1 0
1 5 1 7 1 5 7
10 0 0 0 0
3 7 4 9 3 7 null
4 null 9
Number of min terms = 1.
R1-- | x |-- R2 45. (b) 46. (a)
47. 36 Number of onto function from set X to set Y with
39. 3 (0 +1)*10
|x| = m, |y| = n is
0,1
1 0 n -1
A B C å (-1)k .n ck .(n - k)m
k =0
c
Þ m = 4, n = 3 number of onto fns is
2
0 1 å (-1)k .3ck .(3 - k)4 = 34 – (3) (2)4 + (3)(1)4
k =0
A A AB 0 1
= 81 – 48 + 3 = 36
1
A 48. (d) An n vertex self complementary graph has exactly half
B C – A B
0
n(n - 1)
C – – number of edges of the complete graph i.e.,
0 4
1
AB AC AB AC edges. Since n (n –1) must be divisible by 4, n must be
0 congruent to 0 or 1 module 4.
AC A AB B C
é 3 4 45 ù
ê 7 9 105ú
49. 0 Let A = ê ú
êë13 2 195úû
K total minimum DFA states = 3
40. (c) Since P ® R = Ø PVR R2 ® R2 + R3
["x$y(p(x, y) ® R(x, y))] ® ["x$y( Øp(x, y) V
é 3 4 45 ù
VR (x, y))] is a tautology. : êê20 11 300úú
êë13 2 195úû
EBD_7203
2015 -26 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
C1 ® C2 – C3 53. (a) L1 = {wxwR| w, x Î {a, b}* and |w|, |x| > 0}
wR is reverse of string w.
é -42 4 45 ù It is regular
~ ê -280 11 300ú = B (resultant matrix) Regular expression
ê ú
êë -182 2 195 úû a (a + b)* a + b (a + b)* b
L2 = {anbm| m ¹ n, m, n ³ 0}
Hence m ¹ n, that mean n is greater than m, or m is
-42 4 3
greater than n.
280 11 300
Now |B| = So we need memory, so we can’t draw DfA for it.
-182 2 195 L3 = {apbqcr|p, q, r ³ 0}
a, b, c
3 4 3
20 11 20
= (–14) (15)
13 2 13

=0
Method 2: Determinant is unaltered by the operations
(i) and (ii)
\ Determinant of the resultant matrix = Determinant of
the given matrix

3 4 45 54. 6.1 60sec ® 15000 rotations


= 7 9 105 60
= 4 ms ¬ 1 rotation
13 2 195 15000

= 0 (Since C1, C3 are proportional i.e., C3 = 15 C1) 1


\ Average rotational delay = ´ 4 = 2ms
50. (c) 2
51. (a) Since f(0) ® ¥ Þ As per question, average seek time
\ f is not bounced in [–1, 1] and hence f is not = 2 × Avg. rotational delay
continuous in [–1, 1] = 2 × 2 = 4ms
1 0 -1/ 3 1
A= ò1 f (x)dx = ò-1 x dx + ò x -1/ 3dx ü
0 1sec ® 50 ´106 bytes
ï
512 ý disk transfer time
0.01ms = ¬ 512 bytes ï
( )
2 2/3
( )
2 2/3
0 1
= x + x =0 50 ´106 þ
3 -1 3 0

\ Statement II only true Þ As per question, controller's transfer time is


52. 13 I Þ Instruction Fetch and Decode = 10 × 0.01 ms = 0.1 ms
O Þ Operand Fetch \ Avg. Time = 4ms + 0.1 ms + 2ms = 6.1 ms
P Þ Perform operation 55. 36 Given page size = 8 kb
W Þ write back the result PAS = 32 – bit

PAS 232
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 \ No.of frames = = 13 = 219 frames.
P.S 2
I O P P P W
I O - - P P P P P W So, it is given that each page table entry contains a
I - - O - - - - P W valid bit, a dirty bit, 3 permission bits. Þ 5 bits are
I - - O - - - - P W reserved.
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-27

\ It means one entry requires 19 + 5 = 24 bits


\ Page Table size = n × e
24 × 220 × 3 = n × (24) A
Sum = 2.4 m sec
B

24 ´ 220 ´ 8
Þn= = 223 pages
24
Carry = 2.4 m sec
Length of the virtual address = 23+13=36 bits
A G2 G2 Sum = 4.8 m sec
H.A1 H.A2
56. (a) B

C Carry = 4.8 m sec

357 kB 491kB 468kB 201kB

not allocated to any process B3 A3 B2 A2 B1 A1 B0 A0


c0
57. 0.95 |X| = 2, |Y| = 20
Number of functions from X to Y is 202 i.e., 400 and F.A2 F.A2 F.A1 F.A0
number of one-one functions from X to Y is 20p2 i.e.,
20 × 19 = 380

380 c4 s3 c3 s2 c2 s1 c1 s0
\ Probability of a function f being one-one is
400
i.e., 0.95
Here sum and carry delay is same= 4.8 μ sec
So, Ttotal = (4 × 4.8) m sec
= 19.2 m sec
8880 Bytes MIU 63. (b) Since, every edge in a tree is bridge
58. (c)
1500B \ (a) is false
Since, every edge in a complete graph kn (n ³ 3) is not
a bridge Þ (c) is false
Let us consider the following graph G:
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7)
DL 0 - 1471 1472 - 2951 2952 - 4431 4432 - 5911 5912 - 7391 7392 - 8871 8872 - 8879
HL 28 20 20 20 20 20 20
8872
e
OFFSET = 1109
8

59. (d)
60. (a) This graph has a bridge i.e., edge ‘e’ and a cycle of
61. (a) As T1 & T3 are not yet committed they must be
length ‘3’
undone. The transactions which are after the latest
\ (d) is false
checkpoint must be redone. So T2 must be redone. No
Since, in a cycle every edge is not a bridge
need to redo the records which are before last
\ (b) is true
checkpoint, so T4 need not be redone.
62. 19.2 64. (c) Dijkstra shortest path algorithm find next node by
choosing minimum distance hence greedy approach.
EBD_7203
2015 -28 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
Floyd warshall always apply dynamic programming, 65. 5 1 2 5 14 ¥ 2 5 14
once it saves a cost and in the next iteration it will 3 4 6 23 3 4 6 23
change if this is minimum hence dynamic. 10 12 18 25 10 12 18 25
Þ Binary search always divide on two parts. 31 ¥ ¥ ¥ 31 ¥ ¥ ¥
Hence divide and conquer.

Ü
2shift
Þ Backtracking uses by DFS, one it will reach to dead 2 4 5 14 2 4 5 14
end it will take back track. 3 618 23 3 ¥ 6 23
Ü
10 12 ¥ 25 10 12 18 25
31 ¥ ¥ ¥ 31 ¥ ¥ ¥
2 shift

Ü
2 4 5 14
3 4 18 23
10 12 25 ¥
31 ¥ ¥ ¥
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-29

2015
SET - 3
Duration: 3 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
3. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to
10 are of 2-marks each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers
11 to 35 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-marks each.
4. Questions are of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) or Numerical Answer type. A multiple choice question will have
four choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number
and no choices will be given.
5. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions will result in
1
NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
3
2
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer..
3
6. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

GENERAL APTITUDE 3. A function f(x) is linear and has a value of 29 at x = – 2 and


39 at x = 3. Find its value at x =5.
QUESTION 1 TO 5 CARRY ONE MARK EACH
(a) 59 (b) 45
(c) 43 (d) 35
1. The Tamil version of _________ John Abraham – starrer 4. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to
Madras Café _______ cleared by the Censor Board with no that expressed in the pair
cuts last week, but the film’s distributors ______ no takers
Children : Pediatrician
among the exhibitors for a release in Tamil Nadu _______
(a) Adult : Orthopaedist
this Friday.
(b) Females : Gynaecologist
(a) Mr., was, found, on
(b) a, was, found, at (c) Kidney : Nephrologist
(c) the, was, found, on (d) Skin: Dermatologist
(d) a, being, find, at 5. Extreme focus on syllabus and studying for tests has become
2. If ROAD is written as URDG, then SWAN should be written such a dominant concern of Indian students that they close
as: their minds to anything _____ to the requirements of the
(a) VXDQ (b) VZDQ exam.
(c) VZDP (d) UXDQ (a) related (b) extraneous
(c) outside (d) useful
EBD_7203
2015 -30 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
QUESTION 6 TO 10 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH (a) x = y–|y| (b) x = –(y–|y|)
6. Choose the most appropriate equation for the function drawn (c) x = y+ |y| (d) x = – (y+|y|)
as a thick line, in the plot below. 7. Alexander turned his attention towards India, since he had
conquered Persia. Which one of the statements below is
logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentence?
y (a) Alexander would not have turned his attention towards
India had he not conquered Persia.
(2, 0) x (b) Alexander was not ready to rest on his laurels, and
wanted to march to India
(0, – 1) (c) Alexander was completely in control of his army and
could command it to move towards India.
(d) Since Alexander’s kingdom extended to Indian borders
after the conquest of Persia, he was keen to move
further.
8. The exports and imports (in crores of Rs) of a country from the year 2000 to 2007 are given in the following bar chart. In which
year is the combined percentage increase in imports and exports the highest?

120

110

100

90

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

Export Import

9. Most experts feel that in spite of possessing all the technical III. He failed to make many of his good starts count.
skills required to be a batsman of the highest order, he is IV. Improving his technical skills will guarantee success.
unlikely to be so due to lack of requisite temperament. He (a) (III) and (IV) (b) (II) and (III)
was guilty of throwing away his wicket several times after (c) (I), (II), and (III) (d) (II) only
working hard to lay a strong foundation. His critics pointed 10. The head of a newly formed government desires to appoint
out that until he addressed this problem, success at the highest five of the six selected members P, Q, R, S, T, and U to
level will continue to elude him. portfolios of Home, Power, Defense, Telecom, and Finance.
Which of the statement (s) below is/are logically valid and U does not want any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R
can be inferred from the above passage? wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. Q says that if
I. He was already a successful batsman at the highest S gets either Power or Telecom, then she must get the other
level. one. T insists on a portfolio if P get one.
II. He has to improve his temperament in order to become Which is the valid distribution of portfolios?
a great batsman. (a) P – Home, Q – Power, R – Defense,
S – Telecom, T – Finance
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-31

(b) R – Home, S – Power, P – Defense, (a) Only I is correct


Q – Telecom, T – Finance (b) Only I and III are correct
(c) P – Home, Q – Power, T – Defense, (c) Only II and III are correct
S – Telecom, U – Finance (d) All of I, II, and III are correct
(d) Q – Home, U – Power, T – Defense, 18. While inserting the elements 71, 65, 84, 69, 67, 83 in an
R – Telecom, P – Finance empty Binary Search Tree (BST) in the sequence shown, the
element in the lowest level is
TECHNICAL SECTION
(a) 65 (b) 67
QUESTION 11 TO 35 CARRY ONE MARK EACH (c) 69 (d) 83
19. Let # be a binary operator defined as X # Y = X1 +Y1 where
11. Consider the following array of elements
X and Y are Boolean variables.
(89, 19, 50, 17, 12, 15, 2, 5, 7, 11, 6, 9, 100)
Consider the following two statements
The minimum number of interchanges needed to convert it
into a max-heap is S1: (P # Q) # R = P # (Q # R)
(a) 4 (b) 5 S2: Q # R = R # Q
(c) 2 (d) 3 Which of the following is/are true for the Boolean variables
P, Q and R?
e- x
(
12. The value of lim x ®¥ 1 + x 2 ) is (a) Only S1 is true (b) Only S2 is true
(c) Both S1 and S2 are true (d) Neither S1 nor S2 are true
n
1
(a) 0 (b) 20. Consider the equality å i3 = X and the following choices
2 i =0
(c) 1 (d) ¥ for X
13. The number of 4 digit numbers having their digits in non I. q(n4) II. q(n5)
III. O(n )5 IV. W(n3)
decreasing order (from left to right) constructed by using the
digits belonging to the set {1, 2, 3} is ______. The equality above remains correct if X is replaced by
14. Let L be the language represented by the regular expression (a) Only I (b) Only II
å *0011å* where å = {0,1} . (c) I or III or IV but not II (d) II or III or IV but not I
21. The maximum number of processes that can be in Ready state
What is the minimum number of states in a DFA that
for a computer system with n CPUs is
recognizes L (complement of L)? (a) n (b) n2
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2n (d) Independent of n
(c) 6 (d) 8 22. Consider a machine with a byte addressable main memory of
15. Consider a software program that is artificially seeded with
220 bytes, block size of 16 bytes and a direct mapped cache
100 faults. While testing this program, 159 faults are
having 212 cache lines. Let the addresses of two consecutive
detected, out of which 75 faults are from those artificially
bytes in main memory be (E201F)16 and (E2020)16. What
seeded faults. Assuming that both real and seeded faults are
of same nature and have same distribution, the estimated are the tag and cache line address (in hex) for main memory
number of undetected real faults is _________. address (E201F)16?
16. Among simple LR (SLR), canonical LR, and look – ahead (a) E, 201 (b) F, 201
LR (LALR), which of the following pairs identify the method (c) E, E20 (d) 2, 01F
that is very easy to implement and the method that is the most
powerful, in that order é1 -1 2ù
(a) SLR, LALR 23. In the given matrix ê 0 1 0ú , one of the eigen values is
ê ú
(b) Canonical LR, LALR êë1 2 1 úû
(c) LSR, canonical LR
(d) LALR, canonical LR 1. The eigen vectors corresponding to the eigen value 1 are
17. Consider the following statements
(a) {a(4, 2, 1) |a ¹ 0, a Î R}
I. TCP connections are full duplex
(b) {a(–4, 2, 1) |a ¹ 0,a Î R}
II. TCP has no option for selective acknowledgment
(c) {a( 2 , 0, 1) |a ¹ 0, a Î R}
III. TCP connections are message streams
(d) {a(– 2 , 0, 1) |a ¹ 0, a Î R}
EBD_7203
2015 -32 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
24. Consider the following C program segment. 30. Two processes X and Y need to access a critical section.
#include <stdio.h> Consider the following synchronization construct used by
int main( ) both the processes
{ Process X
char sl[7] = “1234”, *p; /* other code for process X */
p = sl + 2; while (true)
*p = ‘0’; {
printf (“%s”, s1); varP = true;
} while (varQ == true)
What will be printed by the program? {
(a) 12 (b) 120400 /* critical section */
(c) 1204 (d) 1034 varP = false;
25. The result evaluating the postfix expression }
10, 5, +, 60, 6, /, *, 8, – is }
(a) 284 (b) 213 /* other code for process X */
(c) 142 (d) 71 Process Y
26. Consider the following relation /* other code for process Y */
Cinema (theater, address, capacity) while (true)
Which of the following options will be needed at the end of {
the SQL query varQ = true;
SELECT P1. address while (varP == true)
FROM Cinema P1 {
Such that it always finds the addresses of theaters with /* critical section */
maximum capacity? varQ = false;
(a) WHERE P1. capacity >= All (select P2. capacity from }
Cinema P2)
}
(b) WHERE P1. capacity >= Any (select P2. capacity from
/* other code for process Y */
Cinema P2)
Here, varP and varQ are shared variables and both are
(c) WHERE P1. capacity > All (select max(P2. capacity)
initialized to false. Which one of the following statements is
form Cinema P2)
true?
(d) WHERE P1. capacity > Any (select max (P2. capacity)
(a) The proposed solution prevents deadlock but fails to
from Cinema P2)
guarantee mutual exclusion
27. Given a hash table T with 25 slots that stores 2000 elements,
(b) The proposed solution guarantees mutual exclusion but
the load factor a for T is ______.
fails to prevent deadlock
28. Consider the relation X(P, Q, R, S, T, U) with the following
(c) The proposed solution guarantees mutual exclusion and
set of functional dependencies
prevents deadlock
F={
(d) The proposed solution fails to prevent deadlock and
{P, R} ® {S, T},
fails to guarantee mutual exclusion
{P, S, U} ® {Q, R}
31. Consider a CSMA/CD network that transmits data at a rate
}
of 100 Mbps (108 bits per second) over a 1 km (kilometer)
Which of the following is the trivial functional dependency
cable with no repeaters. If the minimum frame size required
in F+, where F+ is closure of F?
for this network is 1250 bytes, what is the signal speed
(a) {P, R}®{S, T}
(km/sec) in the cable?
(b) {P, R}®{R, T}
(a) 8000 (b) 10000
(c) {P, S}® {S}
(d) {P, S, U}® {Q} (c) 16000 (d) 20000
29. Consider a binary tree T that has 200 leaf nodes. Then, the 32. Suppose U is the power set of the set S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
number of nodes in T that have exactly two children For any T Î U, let |T| denote the number of elements in T and
are _______. T1 denote the complement of T. For any T, R Î U, let T\ R
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-33

be the set of all elements in T which are not in R. Which one QUESTION 36 TO 65 CARRY TWO MARKS EACH
of the following is true? 36. Consider the following C program:
(a) " X Î U (|X| = |X'|) # include<stdio.h>
(b) $ X Î U $ Y Î U (|X| = 2, |Y| = 5 and X Ç Y = 0) int main ( )
(c) " X Î U " Y Î U (|X| = 2, |Y| = 3 and X / Y = 0) {
(d) " X Î U " Y Î U (X/Y = Y'/X') int i, j, k = 0;
33. In a room there are only two types of people, namely Type 1 j = 2 * 3 / 4 + 2.0 / 5 + 8 / 5;
and Type 2. Type 1 people always tell the truth and Type 2 k –= – –j;
people always lie. You give a fair coin to a person in that for (i = 0; i < 5: i++)
room, without knowing which type he is from and tell him to {
switch (i + k)
toss it and hide the result from you till you ask for it. Upon
{
asking, the person replies the following
case 1:
“The result of the toss is head if and only if I am telling the truth.”
case 2: printf (“\ n%d”, i+k);
Which of the following options is correct?
case 3: printf (“\n%d”, i+k);
(a) The result is head
default: printf (“\n%d”, i+k);
(b) The result is tail
}
(c) If the person is of Type 2, then the result is tail
}
(d) If the person is of Type 1, then the result is tail
return 0;
34. Consider a software project with the following information
}
domain characteristics for calculation of function point metric.
The number of time printf statement is executed is ______.
Number of external inputs (I) = 30
37. Suppose Xi for i = 1, 2, 3 are independent and identically
Number of external output (O) = 60
distributed random variables whose probability mass
Number of external inquiries (E) = 23
functions are Pr[Xi = 0] = Pr[Xi = 1] 1/2 for i = 1, 2, 3.
Number of files (F) = 08
Define another random variable Y = X1 X2 Å X3, where Å
Number of external interfaces (N) = 02
denotes XOR. Then Pr[Y = 0|X3 = 0] = ______.
It is given that the complexity weighting factors for I, O, E,
38. If the following system has non – trivial solution
F and N are 4, 5, 4, 10 and 7, respectively. It is also given that,
px +qy + rz = 0
out of fourteen value adjustment factors that influence the
qx + ry + pz = 0
development effort, four factors are not applicable, each of
rx + py +qz = 0
the other four factors have value 3, and each of the remaining
then which one of the following options is TRUE?
factors have value 4. The computed value of function point
(a) p – q +r = 0 or p = q = – r
metric is _______.
(b) p + q – r = 0 or p = – q = r
35. In a web server, ten WebPages are stored with the URLs of
(c) p + q +r = 0 or p = q = r
the form http://www.yourname.com/var.html; where, var is
(d) p – q +r = 0 or p = – q = – r
a different number from 1 to 10 for each Webpage. Suppose,
39. Language L1 is polynomial time reducible to language L2.
the client stores the Webpage with var = 1 (say W1) in local
Language L3 is polynomial time reducible to L2, which in
machine, edits and then tests. Rest of the WebPages remains
turn is polynomial time reducible to language L4. Which of
on the web server. W1 contains several relative URLs of the
the following is/are true?
form “var.html” referring to the other WebPages.
I. if L4 Î P, then L2 Î P
Which one of the following statements needs to be added in
II. if L1 Î P or L3 Î P, then L2 Î P
W1, so that all the relative URLs in W1 refer to the
III. L1 Î P, if and only if L3 Î P
appropriate WebPages on the web server?
IV. if L4 Î P, then L1 Î P and L3 Î P
(a) <a href: “http://www.yourname.com/”,
(a) II only (b) III only
href: “…var.html”>
(c) I and IV only (d) I only
(b) <base href: “http://www.yourname.com/ ”> 40. Consider the following partial Schedule S involving two
(c) <a href: “http://www.yourname.com/”> transactions T1 and T2. Only the read and the write
(d) <base href: “http://www.yourname.com/”, range operations have been shown. The read operation on data item
“…var.html”>
EBD_7203
2015 -34 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
P is denoted by read (P) and the write operation on data item Control Flow Diagram of Program – Y:
P is denoted by write (P).
Time Trans action -id
instance T1 T2
1 read(A)
2 write(A )
3 read(C)
4 write (C)
5 read(B)
6 write(B)
7 read(A )
8 commit
9 read(B)
Schedule S
Suppose that the transaction T1 fails immediately after time
instance 9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) T2 must be aborted and then both T1 and T2 must be re Control Flow Diagram of Program – Z:
– started to ensure transaction atomicity
(b) Schedule S is non – recoverable and cannot ensure
transaction atomicity Control Flow Diagram of
(c) Only T2 must be aborted and then re – started to ensure Program - X
transaction atomicity
(d) Schedule S is recoverable and can ensure atomicity and
nothing else needs to be done
Control Flow Diagram of
41. Consider three software items: Program – X, Control Flow
Diagram of Program – Y and Control Flow Diagram of Program - Y
Program – Z as shown below
Program X:
The values of McCabe’s Cyclomatic complexity of
sumcal (int maxint, int value)
{ Program-X, Program-Y, and Program-Z respectively are
int result =0, i = 0; (a) 4, 4, 7 (b) 3, 4, 7
if (value < 0) (c) 4, 4, 8 (d) 4, 3, 8
{ 42. Two hosts are connected via a packet switch with 107 bits per
value = -value; second links. Each link has a propagation delay of 20
} microseconds. The switch begins forwarding a packet 35
while ((i<value) and (result < = maxint)) microseconds after it receives the same. If 10000 bits of data
} are to be transmitted between the two hosts using a packet
i = i +1; size of 5000 bits, the time elapsed between the transmission
result = result + 1; of the first bit of data and the reception of the last bit of the
} data in microseconds is __________.
if (result <= maxint)
43. Consider the following grammar G
{
S®F|H
printf(result);
F®p|c
}
else H®d|c
{ Where S, F, and H are non – terminal symbols, p, d, and c are
printf (“large”); terminal symbols. Which of the following statements (s) is/
} are correct?
printf(“end of program”); S1: LL(1) can parse all strings that are generated using
} grammar G
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-35

S2: LR(1) can parse all strings that are generated using 48. Consider a B+ tree in which the search key is 12 bytes long,
grammar G block size is 1024 bytes, record pointer is 10 bytes long and
(a) Only S1 (b) Only S2 block pointer is 8 bytes long. The maximum number of keys
(c) Both S1 and S2 (d) Neither S1 nor S2 that can be accommodated in each non – leaf node of the tree
is ______.
44. Suppose C = c [ 0 ] ,...., c [ k - ] is an array of length k, where
49. Consider the following policies for preventing deadlock in a
all the entries are from the set {0, 1}. For any positive system with mutually exclusive resources.
integers a and n, consider the following pseudocode. i. Processes should acquire all their resources at the
DOSOMETHING (c, a, n) beginning of execution. If any resource is not available,
z¬1 all resources acquired so far are released.
for i ¬ 0 to k – 1 ii. The resources are numbered uniquely, and processes
do z ¬ z2 mod n are allowed to request for resources only in increasing
if c[i] = 1 resource numbers
then z ¬ (z × a) mod n iii. The resources are numbered uniquely, and processes
rutrun z are allowed to request for resources only in decreasing
If k = 4, c = 1, 0, 1, 1 , a = 2 and n = 8, then the output of resource numbers
iv. The resources are numbered uniquely. A process is
DOSOMETHING (c, a, n) is _________.
allowed to request only for a resource with resource
45. For the processes listed in the following table, which of the
number larger than its currently held resources
following scheduling schemes will give the lowest average
Which of the above policies can be used for preventing
turnaround time?
deadlock?
(a) Any one of i and iii but not ii or iv
Process Arrival Time Processing Time (b) Any one of i, iii, and iv but not ii
A 0 3 (c) Any one of ii, and iii but not i or iv
B 1 6 (d) Any one of i, ii, iii, and iv
C 4 4 50. Assume that a mergesort algorithm in the worst case takes 30
seconds for an input of size 64. Which of the following most
D 6 2
closely approximates the maximum input size of a problem
that can be solved in 6 minutes?
(a) First Come First Serve
(a) 256 (b) 512
(b) Non – preemptive Shortest Job First
(c) 1024 (d) 2048
(c) Shortest Remaining Time
51. Consider the following C program.
(d) Round Robin with Quantum value two
#include<stdio.h>
46. Consider a network connecting two systems located 8000
int main( )
kilometers apart. The bandwidth of the network is 500 × 106
{
bits per second. The propagation speed of the media is
static int a[ ] = {10, 20, 30, 40, 50};
4 × 106 meters per second. It is needed to design a Go Back
static int *p[ ] = {a, a+3, a+4, a+1, a+2};
– N sliding window protocol for this network. The average
int **ptr = p;
packet size is 107 bits. The network is to be used to its full
ptr++;
capacity. Assume that processing delays at nodes are
printf(“%d%d”, ptr-p, **ptr);
negligible. Then, the minimum size in bits of the sequence
}
number field has to be _________.
The output of the program is ______.
47. Which of the following languages are context-free?
52. In the network 200.10.11.144/27, the fourth octet (in
L1 = {ambnanbm |m, n ³ 1}
decimal) of the last IP address of the network which can be
L2 = {ambnambn|m, n ³ 1}
assigned to a host is ______.
L3 = {ambn|m = 2n+1}
53. Consider the following C program.
(a) L1 and L2 only (b) L1and L3 only
#include<stdio.h>
(c) L2 and L3 only (d) L3 only
int f1(void);
EBD_7203
2015 -36 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
int f2(void);
æ1ö 1
int f3(void); 56. If for non-zero x, af ( x ) + bf ç ÷ = - 25 where a ¹ b then
èxø x
int x = 10;
int main ( ) 2
{ ò f ( x )dx is
1
int x = 1;
x + = f1 ( ) + f2 ( ) + f3( ) + f2( );
é 1 47b ù
pirntf (“%d”, x); (a) êa ( In2 - 25) + 2 ú
2 2
a -b ë û
retirm 0;
} é 1 47b ù
int f1 ( ) { int x = 25; x++; return x;}
(b) 2êa ( In2 - 25 ) - 2 ú
2
a -b ë û
int f2 ( ) { static int x = 50; x++; return x;}
é 1 47b ù
êa ( 2In2 - 25 ) + 2 ú
int f3 ( ) {x *= 10; return x}; (c) 2 2
The output of the program is ______. a -b ë û
54. The total number of prime implicants of the function f(w, x,
é 1 47b ù
y, z) = å ( 0, 2, 4, 5, 6,10) is ______. (d) 2êa ( In2 - 25 ) - 2 ú
2
a -b ë û
55. Consider the following two C code segments. Y and X are 57. Let G be a connected undirected graph of 100 vertices and
one and two dimensional arr ays of size n and n × n 300 edges. The weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is
respectively, where 2 £ n £ 10. Assume that in both code 500. When the weight of each edge of G is increased by five,
segments, elements of Y are initialized to 0 and each element the weight of a minimum spanning tree becomes______.
X[i] [j] of array X is initialized to i+j. Further assume that 58. Consider the following recursive C function.
when stored in main memory all elements of X are in same void get (int n)
main memory page frame. {
Code segment 1: if (n<1) return;
//initialize elements of Y to 0 get (n–1);
//initialize elements X[i] [j] of X to i+j get (n–3);
printf(“%d”, n);
for (i = 0; i < n; i++)
}
Y[i] += X[0] [i];
If get (6) function is being called in main ( ) then how many
Code segment 2:
times will the get () function be invoked before returning to
//initialize elements of Y to 0 the main ( )?
//initialize elements X[i] [j] of X to i+j (a) 15 (b) 25
for (i = 0; i < n; i++) (c) 35 (d) 45
Y[i] += X[i] [0]; 59. Consider the following reservation table for a pipeline having
Which of the following statements is/are correct? three stages S1, S2, and S3.
S1: Final contents of array Y will be same in both code Time ®
segments 1 2 3 4 5
S2: Elements of array X accessed inside the for loop shown S1 X X
in code segment 1 are contiguous in main memory
S2 X X
S3: Elements of array X accessed inside the for loop shown
S3 X
in code segment 2 are contiguous in main memory
(a) Only S2 is correct The Minimum Average Latency (MAL) is _____.
(b) Only S3 is correct 60. Let R be a relation on the set of ordered pairs of positive
integers such that ((p,q), (r,s)) Î R if and only if p – s = q –
(c) Only S1 and S2 are correct
r. Which one of the following is true about R?
(d) Only S1 and S3 are correct
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-37

(a) Both reflexive and symmetric Where operation Op is performed on contents of registers Rj
(b) Reflexive but not symmetric and Rk and the result is stored in register Ri.
(c) Not reflexive but symmetric I1: ADD R1, R2, R3
(d) Neither reflexive nor symmetric I2: MUL R7, R1, R3
61. Given the function F = P' + QR, where F is a function in three I3: SUB R4, R1, R5
Boolean variables P, Q and R and P' = !P, consider the I4: ADD R3, R2, R4
following statements. I5: MUL R7, R8, R9
Consider the following three statements.
(S1) F = å ( 4, 5, 6) S1: There is an anti-dependence between instruction I2
(S2) F = å ( 0,1, 2,3, 7 ) and I5
S2: There is an anti-dependence between instructions I2
(S3) F = Õ ( 4,5,6 ) and I4
S3: Within an instruction pipeline an anti-dependence
(S4) F = Õ ( 0,1, 2, 3, 7 )
always creates one or more stalls
Which of the following is true? Which one of above statements is/are correct?
(a) (S1) – False, (S2) – True, (S3) – True, (S4) – False (a) only S1 is true (b) only S2 is true
(b) (S1) – True, (S2) – False, (S3) – False, (S4) – True (c) Only S1 and S3 are true (d) Only S2 and S3 are true
(c) (S1) – False, (S2) – False (S3) – True, (S4) – True 64. Consider the equation (43)x = (y3)8 where x and y are
(d) (S1) – True, (S2) – True, (S3) – False, (S4) – False unknown. The number of possible solutions is ______.
62. Let f(n) = n and g(n) = n(1+sin n), where n is a positive integer. 65. The velocity v (in kilometer/minute) of a motorbike which
Which of the following statements is/are correct? starts from rest, is given at fixed intervals of time t(in
i. f(n) = O(g(n)) minutes) as follows:
ii. f(n) = W(g(n))
t 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
(a) Only i (b) Only ii v 10 18 25 29 32 20 11 5 2 0
(c) Both i and ii (d) Neither i nor ii
63. Consider the following code sequen ce having five The approximate distance (in kilometers) rounded to two
instructions I1 to I5 . Each of these instructions has the places of decimals covered in 20 minutes using Simpson’s
following format. 1/3rd rule is _______.
OP Ri, Rj, Rk
EBD_7203
2015 -38 SOLVED PAPER - 2015

GENERAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS 2


12. (a) lim (1 + x 2 )e - x = lim 1 + x is ¥ form
x ®¥ x ®¥ e x ¥
1. (c) John-Abraham starrer Madras Café talks about the
movie not the person, so Mr. is ruled out. 2x
‘Find no takers’ is not the correct phrase. At this Friday = lim x (using L-Hospitals rule)
x ®¥ e
is incorrect. So, option c is correct.
2
2. (b) R + 3 = U, O + 3 = R, A + 3 = D, D + 3 = G; \ xlim (1 + x 2 )e- x = lim = 0 and xlim (1 + x 2 )e x = ¥
®¥ x®¥ ex ®¥
S + 3 = V, W + 3 = Z, A + 3 = D, N + 3 = Q
13. 15 4-digit numbers with first digit ‘1’
3. (c) f(x) = 2x + 33
1111, 1112, 1113, 1122, 1123, 1133, 1222, 1223, 1233, 1333
4. (b) Community of people: Doctor i.e., 10
5. (b) extraneous -irrelevant or unrelated to the subject being 4 digit numbers with first digit 2 : 2222, 2223, 2233, 2333
dealt with. i.e, 4
6. (b) 4 digit numbers with first digit 3: 3333 i.e, 1
14. (b)
7. (a)
15. 28 75% of faults are detected because 75 artificially seeded
100 - 70 faults are detected out of 100.
8. 2006 Increase in exports in 2006 = = 42.8% No. of detected real faults = 159 – 75 = 84
70
84 ´ (100)
Hence, no. of real faults = = 112
120 - 90 75
Increase in imports in 2006 = = 33.3%
90 \ undetected real faults = 112 – 84 = 28
which is more than any other year 16. (c) In SLR method, we work with LR(0) items where as in
CLR(1) we work with LR(1) items.
9. (b)
LR(1) item is comprised of two parts-the LR(0) item and
10. (b) Since U does not want any portfolio, (c) and (d) are a look ahead associated with the item. If we work with
ruled out. R wants Home, or Finance or no portfolio, (a) LR(1) items instead of using LR(0) items, then every
is not valid. Hence option (b) is correct. state of the parser corresponds to a set of LR(1) items.
When the parser looks ahead in the input buffer to
TECHNICAL SECTION decide whether the reduction is to be done or not the
information about the terminals is available in the state
of the parser itself which is not in case of SLR parser
l1. 3 89
state. Hence, CLR(1) parser is more powerful than SLR.
17. (a) I: TCP allows full – duplex communication. This is TRUE
statement.
TCP is a full-duplex protocol; it allows both parties to
19 send and receive data within the context of the single
50
TCP connection.
II: TCP has no option for selective acknowledgments.
17 12 15 2 This is FALSE statement.
TCP may experience poor performance when multiple
packets are lost from one window of data. With the
limited information available from cumulative
5 7 11 6 9 100
acknowledgments, a TCP sender can only learn about
a single lost packet per round trip time. An aggressive
1st swap is : 100 and 15
sender could choose to retransmit packets early, but
2nd swap is : 100 and 50 such retransmitted segments may have already been
3rd swap is : 100 and 89 successfully received. A Selective Acknowledgment
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-39

(SACK) mechanism, combined with a selective repeat 23. (b) X be an eigen vector corresponding to eigen value l =1,
retransmission policy, can help to overcome these then
limitations. The receiving TCP sends back SACK AX = lX Þ (A - I) X = 0
packets to the sender informing the sender of data that
has been received. The sender can then retransmit é0 -1 2 ù é x ù
ê0 0 0 ú ê y ú
only the missing data segments. ê úê ú =0
III: TCP work as a message stream. This is FALSE êë1 2 0 úû êë z úû
statement.
In TCP, Data is read as a byte stream, no distinguishing Þ – y + 2z = 0 and x + 2y = 0
indications are transmitted to signal message (segment) x
boundaries. Þ y = 2z and =y
-2
x x y z
\ = y = 2z Þ = = a(say)
-2 -4 2 1
18. (b) 71
æ -4ö
ç 2÷
84 Þ X = ç ÷ a; a ¹ 0
65 è 1ø
\ Eigen vector are {a (– 4, 2, 1) |a ¹ 0, a Î R|}
24. (c)
69 83

1 2 3 4 10

67

19. (b) X # Y = X¢ + Y¢ S
S1. L.H.S. R.H.S.
= (P # Q) # R P # (Q # R)
(P # Q)¢ + R¢ P¢ + (Q # R)¢ P
= (P¢ + Q¢)¢ + R¢ P¢ + (Q¢ + R¢)¢
= PQ + R¢ P¢ + QR After *P = '0', array will become
PQ + R¢ ¹ P¢ + QR
Hence S1 is false
S2. Q # R = Q¢ + R¢ ...(I) 1 2 0 4
R # Q¢ = R¢ + Q¢ = Q¢ + R¢ ...(II)
I and II both are equal. Therefore, S2 is true
20. (c) X = sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers

n 2 (n + 1)2 S
= which is q(n4), O (n5) & W (n3).
4
21. (d) Number of processes which are in running processes and we are pointing string S which is 1204.
will be atmost n as there are n processors. Maximum
number of processes that will be in ready state is 6
independent of number of processors. 5 60 60 10
25. (c) 10 10 15 15 15 15
22. (a) 4 12 4 Þ E 201 F
10 5 + 60 6
cache cache
word word
TAG block TAG block
offset offset 8
offset offset
150 150 142
* 8 –
EBD_7203
2015 -40 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
26. (a) Inner query collects capacities of all the theatres and in (c) Counter example : Let X = {1, 2} and Y = {2, 3, 4}
outer query we are filtering the tuples with the condition then X/Y = {1} ¹ f
“capacity>=All”. So the theatres which are having Y¢
(d) X/ Y = X – Y= X Ç Y¢ and = Y¢ - X¢ = Y¢ Ç (X¢)
maximum capacity will be satisfy the conductivity and X¢
they will. = Y¢ Ç X = X Ç Y¢
27. 80 X Y¢
\ = , V X, Y Î U
no. of elements 2000 Y X¢
Load factor (a) = = = 80
no. of slots 25 33. (c)
28. (c) X ® Y is trivial if Y Í X 34. 612.06
29. 199 35. (d)
Let the number of leaf nodes of a binary tree with ‘n’ 36. 10 j and k will be evaluated to 2 and – 1 respectively.
In for loop:
vertices be ‘p’ then the tree has
When i = 0; 1 time printed (– 1)
(i) ‘p’ vertices of degree ‘1’
When i = 1; 1 time printed (0)
(ii) one vertex (i.e. root of T) of degree ‘2’.
When i = 2; 3 times printed (1, 1, 1)
(iii) 'n – p – 1' vertices of degree ‘3’
When i = 3; 3 times printed (2, 2, 2)
(iv) 'n –1' edges
When i = 4; 2 times printed (3, 3)
\ By Handshaking theorem,
\ on the whole printf is executed 10 times
p × 1 + 1 × 2 + (n – p –1)×3 = 2(n –1) 37. 0.75
Þn=2p–1 Given X3 = 0
= 399 as p = 200 \ Y = X1X2 Å X3 = 0 gives X1X2 = 0
\ Number of nodes having exactly two children are Þ X1 = 1, X2 = 0 or X1 = 0, X2 = 1 or X1 = 0, X2 = 0
n – p i.e., 199
Pr[Y = 0] Ç (x 3 = 0)]
30. (a) varP = varQ = FALSE Initially. \ Pr [Y = 0|X3 = 0] =
Assume that, process X is willing to enter into critical Pr(X3 = 0)
section. So it makes varP = True, then if processor
Pr[X1 = 1, X 2 = 0, X 3 = 0] + Pr[X1 = 0, X 2 = 1, X 3 = 0]
switches to process Y, then process Y can enter into
critical section. = + Pr[X1 = 0, X 2 = 0, X 3 = 0]
Pr[X3 = 0]
After entering into the critical section, then if processor
switches to process X, then process X also can enter
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
into the critical section. . . + . . + . .
It is clearly showing that both are in critical section at = 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1
a time which leads to “failing to guarantee material
2
exclusion” (Q X1, X2, X3 are independent)
To enter into the critical section process X is not waiting 3
for process Y and vice versa. So we can “Prevent = = 0.75
4
Deadlock” so, overall, option (a) is correct. 38. (c) For non-trivial solution, we have | A | = 0
31. (d) Give L = 1250 Bytes
B = 100 mbps p q r
d = 1km i.e., q r p = 0
V= ? r p q
d (C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3)
In CSMA/CD, L = 2 ´ ´B
v
1 q r
3
2dB 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 8 1 r p
(p + q + r) =0
ÞV= = Þ V = 20,000 km/sec 1 p q
L 104
32. (d) Counter example : [R2 ® R2 – R1; R3 ® R3 – R1]
(a) Let X = {1} Þ X¢ = S – X {2, 3, 4, 5, 6} Þ |X| ¹ |X¢| p+ q+r=0
(b) Since |S| = 6 and |X| = 5 = |Y| 1 q r
\ Atleast 4 elements common in X and Y 0 r -q p-r
(or) =0
Þ X Ç Y = f is false 0 p-q q-r
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-41

Þ (r – q)2 – (p – q) (p – r) = 0 According to question, switch forwards after 35


Þ p2 + q2 + r2 – pq – qr – pr = 0 microseconds.
Þ (p – q)2 + (q – r)2 + (r – p)2 = 0 So, after 70 + 35 = 105 microseconds, the switch
Þ p – q = 0; q – r = 0, r – p = 0 forwards the packet and at 105 + 70 = 175 microseconds
Þ p = q = r. the receiver receives the last bit of data.
39. (c) L2 £ PL4 43. (d)
L1 £ PL2 44. 0 C i 0 1 1
If L4 Î P then L2 Î P hence L1 Î P, hence, option (c)
is correct. 20 something
30. (b) T2 is reading the value written by T1 and getting
{z = 1
committed before T1 commits. So it is non-recoverable
schedule. for i = 0 + 0.3 k=0
41. (a) Program-X do z=1

z ¬ z2 mod z=1 z=4 z=0 z=0


if c[i] = 1 c [0] = 1 c [1] = 0 c [1] = 1 c [1] = 1
z ¬ 2 × z mod 8 z = 2 z=0 z=0
end
return 2
}
Complexity = 9 – 7 + 2 = 4
45. (c) Process AT BT ü
A 0 3 ïï
ï
B 1 6 ý Given Snapshot
C 4 4 ï
ï
D 6 2 ïþ

(i) FcFs
Process AT BT LT TAT
A 0 3 3 3
B 1 6 9 8
Program Y : C 4 4 13 9
Cyclomatic complexity = 10 – 8 + 2 = 4 D 6 2 15 9
Program Z : 29
= 7.25
4
Gantt chart
X
A B C D

0 3 9 13 15
(ii) SJF
Y
Process AT BT LT TAT
Total number of edges = X+Y+1 Þ 20 A 0 3 3 3
Total number of vertices = 15 B 1 6 9 8
Hence cyclomatic complexity = 20 – 15+2 = 7 C 4 4 15 11
42. 175 Transmission time for 5000 bits = Time for 500 bits to D 6 2 11 5
5000 27
travel = = 50 microseconds = 6.75
107 4
Gantt chart
So, after 50 microseconds the packet is completely
transmitted. But the packet must reach at the other and A B D C
this happens exactly after propagation delay which is 9
0 3 11 15
20 microseconds. So, the switch receives packet after
50 + 20 = 70 microseconds. B- 6 C-9 D -2
EBD_7203
2015 -42 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
(iii) SRTF Þ 2n – 1 = 201
Process AT BT CT TAT Þ 2n = 202 Þ 2n = 28
A 0 3 3 3 Þn=8
B 1 6 15 14 47. (c) L1 = am bn an bm Þ This one is CFL
C 4 4 8 4 L2 = am bn am bn Þ by pumping lemma this one is not CFL.
D 6 2 10 4 L3 = am bn |m = 2n + 1 Þ This is CFL.
48. 50
25
= 6.25 Suppose that ‘k’ is order of the non-leaf node
4 k(8) + (k – 1)12 £ 1024
Gantt chart 20k £ 1036
é1036 ù
k£ê Þ k £ 51
A A B C C D B ë 20 úû
As the order is 51, maximum we can store 50 keys.
0 1 3 4 6 8 10 15 49. (d) For deadlock prevention we need to dissatisfy any of
A-2 B-5 C-2 -5 B-5
B the necessary condition for deadlock
B-6 C-4 B-5 D-2 1. For hold and wait if we dissatisfy it can be hold or wait
D-2 for hold …before process start os assign all resources.
While executing if process making new resource
(iv) R.Q (Q = 2) request it has to release all its assign resources that is
Process AT BT CT TAT waiting for release resources.
A 0 3 5 5 2. If we dissatisfy circular wait condition suppose there
B 1 6 15 14 r five resources uniquely numbered r1 to r5 and there
C 4 4 13 9 five processes p1 to p5 suppose p2 hold r1, and
D 6 2 11 5 requesting for r2, and r2 hold by p3 and wait for r3, r3
33 hold by p4 wait for r4 which is hold by p5 and wait for
= 8.25 r5 which is held by p1 ( this is happening in circular
4
manner)(condition to come out from circular wait is a
Gantt Chart process can hold the resource and request for new
R.Q. resource only when holding resource id is lesser then
requesting resource id) in above p1 is violating
A B A C B D C B condition.
3. If we dissatisfy preemption if a process hold some
0 2 4 5 7 9 11 13 15 resources requesting for new resources and that
46. 8 requesting resources are busy with some other process
Given requesting process voluntarily release its held
resources.
L = 107 bits üï L 10 ´ 106
T Þ= = According to 1 and 3 above statements, first statement
ý x
B = 500 ´ 106 bps ïþ B 500 ´ 106 = 0.02 sec (i) is correct.
d = 8000km ïü According to above second statement, second
d 8 ´ 106 statement (ii) is correct.
ý Þ T = =
v 4 ´ 106 = 2 sec
p
v = 4 ´ 106 m / sïþ According to above second statement if we implement
h = 100% the logic in reverse order then the third statement (iii)
n=? is also correct.
According to second statement condition statement
Tp 2 (iv) is also correct.
\a= = = 100
Tn 0.02 50. (b) O(n logn) = 30s
n = 64
w O (64 log 64) = 30
Given protocol, Go back N protocol. So h =
1 + 2a Hence will get factor of 12.8 for 6 min= 6×60 = 360s
where w = 2n – 1 O (256 log256) = 360
O (512 log 512) = 360
100 w
= Þ w = 1 + 2a O(1024 log 1024) = 360
100 1 + 2a O (2048 log 2048) = 360
Þ 2n –1 = 1 + 2 (100) So for 512 will get 12.8 as a factor
SOLVED PAPER - 2015 2015-43

51. 140

a 10 20 30 40 50
56.
1
(a) af (x) + b.f. 1 x = - 25
x
( ) ...(1)

( )
Þ af 1 x + b.f (x) = x – 25 ...(2)
Solving, we get f(x) =

p é æ1
1 ö ù
2 êa èç x - 25ø÷ - b(x - 25) ú
2
a -b ë û
2
1 é
\ ò f (x)dx = 2 2ë
a{ln x - 25x}12
1 a -b
ptr after ptr + + Þ ptr – p = 1
(pointer arithmetic)
üï ù
2
ptr ìï x 2
** ptr = 40 b
– í - 25x ý úú
\ printf ("%d%d", p + r – p, p + r) will print 140 îï 2 þï1 û
52. 158
Given IP address 200.20.11.144/27 é 1 ì3 üù
To find out the loss address in a block, we have to set = 2 ê a{ln 2 - 25} - b í 2 - 25ý ú
2
a -b ë î þû
(32–n) no. of right most bits to 1.
n = 27 1 é 47 ù
= 2 êë a{ln 2 - 25} + 2 búû
32 – n = 32 – 27 = 5 a - b2
200.20.11.10010000 57. 995
200.20.11.10011111 G has 100 verticles Þ spanning tree contain 99 edges
200.20.11.159 given, weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is 500
\ CIDR Address range is 200.20.11.128/27- since, each edge of G is increased by five
200.20.11.159/27 \ Weight of a minimum spanning tree becomes
But w.r.t the question, the value of the last octet of last 500 + 5 × 99 = 995.
host in this network is 200.10.11.158. 58. (b)
53. 230 g(6)

In function main x will be updated as follows


x = x + f1() + f 2() + f 3() + f 2()x
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
1 26 51 100 52 g(5)
g(3)
Note: static variable in f2 ( ) will be initialized only once
& it retains value in between function calls. g(2) g(2) g(0)
g(4)
54. 3
yz g(1) g(–1) g(1) g(–1)
g(3) g(1)
wx 00 01 11 10 g(0) g(–2) g(0) g(–2)
g(2) g(0)
g(0) g(–2)
00 *1 0 0 1
g(1) g(–1)

01 1 1* 0 1* g(0) g(–2)

11 Total calls = 25
0 0 0 0
59. (a)
10 0 0 0 1* 60. (c) Since p – q ¹ q – p
\ (p, q) R (p, q)
Þ R is not reflective
There are three groups, and all the containing esential- Let (p, q) R (r, s) then p – s = q – r
1, so all are prime implicants as well as essential prime Þr–q=s–p
implicants also. Þ (r, s) R (p, q)
55. (c) Þ R is symmetric
EBD_7203
2015 -44 SOLVED PAPER - 2015
61. (a) \ 5 solutions are possible which are (14,7), (12,6),
62. (d) As – 1 £ sin x £ 1, neither of them is true. (10,5), (8,4) and (6,3)
63. (d) (I1) R1 ¬ R2 + R3 65. 309.33
(I2) R7 ¬ R1 × R3 Let ‘S’ be the distance covered in 20 minutes, then by
(I3) R4 ¬ R1 – R5
1
(I4) R3 ¬ R2 + R4 simpson’s rd rule,
(I5) R7 ¬ R8 × R9 3
Anti dependence 20
(i) -------------- = x
(j) X : --------------
S= ò Vdt Q v = velocity
0
then i and j are anti – dependence
Hence I2 and I4 are anti-dependence 2
Þ Anti-dependence create stall in pipeline = [(0 + 0) + 4 (10 + 25 + 32 + 11 + 2) + 2 (18 + 29 + 20
3
64. 5 + 5)]
(43)x = (y3)8 = 309.33 km
Þ 3 + 4x = 3 + 8y Þ 4x = 8y (Here length of each of the subinterval is h = 2)
Þ x = 2y
Þ x ³ 5 and y £ 7
PART-A : VERBAL ABILITY

1 English Grammar
Articles - Kinds, Usage & Common Errors in their uses 2. When the word begins with a silent letter ‘h’.
An article is a word that is added to a noun to indicate – the type · an hour, an honest man, an honour, an heir (= a person
of reference being made by the noun. It’s a kind of adjective who inherits money etc., when someone dies)
which gives some information about a noun. 3. With abbreviations said as individual letters that begins with
The word ‘a’ (becomes ‘an’ when the word that follows begins A, E, F, H, I, L, M, N, O, R, S or X:
with a vowels - a, e, i, o, u) is called the ‘indefinite article’ because · an MLA, an FBI agent, an MP, an x-ray, an MA. However,
the noun it combines with is indefinite or general. The word ‘the’ the abbreviations said as words are exceptions.
is called the ‘definite article’ as it indicates some specific thing
· a NATO general, a FIFA officials
· I went by a car.
· I went by the car. We use, ‘The’:
The above two sentences differ since in the first sentence I went 1. When we say that someone or something is ‘unique’ – that
by just any car while the second sentence refers to a particular car there is only one or only one of its kind – (we also use zero
and not just any car. article, i.e., no article, but not a/an):
We use ‘A’: · Cricket has become the international sports.
1. When a word begins with consonant sound · Sydney is the capital city of New South Wales.
· a book, a cat, a chair 2. When we refer to a person’s job title, or their particular
2. When a word begins with a vowel but has a consonant sound position.
· a university, a one parent family, a Europian · Bob has been appointed as the director of the company.
3. With words that have the sense of one Sometimes ‘the’ is omitted which is called ‘zero article’.
· The culprit could not speak a word before the judge. 3. Before a superlative adjective (the largest, the cheapest, the
4. With abbreviations said as words. most beautiful, etc.) when the superlative adjective is followed
· a NATO general · a FIFA official by a noun or defining phrase:
5. We use ‘a’ not ‘one’ when we mean ‘any one of a particular · He is the best player in the team at the moment.
type of thing. · His comment was the most awkward in the meeting.
· I really need a cup of tea. (not ... one cup of tea)
However, often ‘The’ is left out, particularly in an informal
· You can never find a mosquito in this house. (not ... one
style, when there is no noun or defining phrase after the
mosquito)
superlative adjective.
6. With number and quantity expressions such as:
· Mr X: Why did you plan to go to Manali?
· two times a year, a quarter of a litre, a day or so.
· ` 100 a kg. (we can also say ‘....’ for one kg.) · Mr. Y: It was (the) coldest.
· a little sugar, a huge number of people, a few artistes] 4. When we know that there is only one of a particular thing.
7. Rather than ‘one’ in the pattern a .... of ..... with possessives, · the earth, the sun, the world, the international market,
as in the film industry, the south pole, the nuclear family.
· He’s a friend of mine. 5. When refer to the things in a general way:
· That’s a relative of my friend. · the environment, the climate, the human race, the wind,
8. With exclamatory expressions the future, the weather, the atmosphere, the ocean, the
· What a wonderful car!, what a good boy he is! sea. However, if we describe them for a particular instance,
9. With a person’s name who may be unknown to the person we use a/an and not ‘the’, compare.
addressed. · I could hear the wind whistling through the trees in the
· A peter wants to speak to you on the ‘phone’. forest.
We use ‘An’: · There was a cold wind blowing from the East.
1. When, the noun you are referring to begins with a vowel · What do you plan for the future?
(a, e, i, o, u) · She dreamt of a future where she could spend more time
· an orange, an egg, an idea, an umbrella, an Italian. with him.
EBD_7203
S1-2 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
6. When we expect the listener or reader identifies the thing or (i) Ordinals
person we are referring to, on the other hand, a/an is used · She was the first to come to the party
when we don’t. Compare the following pairs of sentences. (j) Comparatives
· Wilson bought a house in Lincon Street last month and · He is the smarter of the two brothers.
· Wilson bought the house in Lincon Street last month (k) Adjectives with plural nations indicating a whole class
(= the house we have previously known) of persons:
· A minister has been expelled from the house and · The poor are not always despondent.
· The minister has been expelled from the house (= the However, ‘the poor men are not always despondent’ is
minister we have previously known) wrong.
· There’s a train coming and (l) Common noun as a substitute for the possessive
· The train is coming. (= it’s the train we are talking about) adjective:
· There is a man on the door and · Bob stared at Rick in the face. (Rick’s face)
· There is the man on the door. (= You know which man I (m) Noun defined by adjectives or adverbial phrases or
am talking about) clauses:
· He proved himself to be the dark horse of this
7. When it is clear from the situation which person or thing we
election.
are referring to.
(he was not well known but won unexpectedly)
· What do you think of the carpet? (= the carpet is lying
· She was runner-up and got the red ribbon.
before us)
(= she came second-place)
· How did you prepare the broth? It tastes good (= the
(n) Adjectives and common nouns in the singular form
broth I am just eating)
expressing an abstract idea:
· The plants are blooming now that it’s spring. (= the plants
· Nobody knows about the future. (= futurity)
here in the garden)
· The man in him prevented him from running away
8. When we repeat something about something:
from the accident spot. (= manly feelings)
· Bob ordered a cake and an apple pie but the cake was
found to be stale. In the sentence, we say a ‘cake’ when NOUN: COUNTABLE AND UNCOUNTABLE,
we first mention it and ‘the cake’ after that, when the GENDER AND CASES
listener knows which cake we are talking about. A noun is a word that can be used to refer to a person, place,
· There was a severe fire in a building in Connaught place thing, quality or action. It can be a subject or an object of a verb.
yesterday. The building was totally destroyed. They can be modified by an adjective and can take an article or
Here again, we say ‘a building’ when we first talk about it. determiner.
We use ‘the building’ when we mention it again because the Nouns can be categorized as countable or uncountable. Here are
listener will know which building we are talking about. some nouns which are normally uncountable, though in many
9. With the names of: other languages they may be countable:
(a) Religious books · Apart from going to work, there’s lots of housework to do
· the Bible, the Vedas, the Ramcharitmanas, the Kuran. for Kiran.
(b) Mountains, Islands, Oceans, Rivers · She wore her jewellery and get ready for the party.
· the Himalayas, the Pacific, the Ganges, the Bay of Some more nouns like this:
Bengal, the Arabian Sea, the Indian Ocean
(c) Religious groups furniture, homework, information, luggage, money, news,
· the Hindus, the Sikhs, the Mohammedans, the scenery, transport, weather, work accommodation, assistance
Parsees evidence, fun, harm, health, housing, advice, applause, baggage,
equipment leisure, litter, luck, machinery, money, mud, music,
(d) Names of law enforcing agencies
nonsense, parking, pay, permission, photography, poetry,
· the CBI, the FBI, the ISI, the Navy, the Air Force.
pollution, produce, progress, publicity, safety, rubbish, research,
(e) Press, clubs, foundations etc.
shipping, sightseeing, violence, undercover, sunshine.
· the PTI, the Rotary Club, the NCC.
(f) Nationalists Some common errors in use of nouns:
· the Indians, the Americans, the Chinese, the (i) Nouns which take a plural verb:
Norwegian · Her all belongings were scattered in all over the place.
(g) Historical events, empires or dynasties. · She sent him her sincere congratulations on his marriage.
· the Tughlak Dynasty, the Second World War, the · She saves half of all her earnings every month.
Non-cooperation Movement, the Mughal Period, · He lives on the outskirts of Mumbai. ( = outlying areas
the Chinese Revolution. of a city or town)
(h) Trains, aeroplanes, ships (ii) Other nouns like these include:
· The Sub-way train, the Rajdhani, the Lufthansa clothes, goods, particulars, premises (= building), riches,
Cargo, the Kingfisher, the Air India. savings, stairs, surroundings, thanks.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-3
(iii) The nouns police, people, cattle, staff, artillery always have Important Tips to Remember
a plural verb. The noun whereabouts can be used either a
(1) Singular pronouns with singular antecedents and plural
singular or plural verb.
pronouns with plural antecedents.
(iv) Some nouns always end in –s looking as if they are plural
Singular
but when we use them as the subject, they take a singular
· The man finished their work quickly... (incorrect)
verb.
· The man finished his work quickly... (correct)
· The news of Princess Diana was greatly exaggerated.
Plural
(v) Other words which confuse include:
· The men finished their work quickly. (correct)
· She doesn’t have a means of control over the company
· The men finished his work quickly. (incorrect)
she inherited.
(2) Collective Noun Antecedents
· Politics is not his cup of tea. He is better off in acting.
Students often use a collective noun antecedent when the
· Statistics was always her worst subject.
group members are considered a unit. Here are the examples:
Some more words: economics, linguistics, mathematics, · The construction crew started their project last year.
phonetics, physics, gymnastics, athletics, diabetes, measles,
(incorrect)
rabies etc. are singular but seem to be plural.
· The construction crew, started its project last year. (correct)
(vi) Nouns used as singular and plural but with different meanings
However, when the group members are taken individually,
· Fish (collectively): There are not many fish in this pond.
the plural pronoun is used.
· Fishes (separate fishes): Barry cooked all the four fishes · The construction crew, some of them not happy with
for dinner.
working conditions, gathered its tools. (incorrect)
· Cloths (kinds or pieces of cloth, not made up into
· The construction crew, some of them not happy with
garments) – she cut all cloths into pieces.
working conditions, gathered their tools. (correct)
· Clothes (garments): I sent all the clothes to laundry.
(3) Gender Errors in Pronouns
Pronouns – common errors in their use He and his were traditionally used to refer to both sexes
A pronoun is a word that takes the place of a noun. Pronouns are when the antecedent was unknown. Now, in modern times, it
used to avoid repetitive use of the same noun within a sentence is fell that this usage is unfair to women, so one male pronoun
or narrative. The following is an example without the use of is avoided.
pronouns: · Each person has to face his fear of wild animals in the
· We invited Kapoors to our party because we like Kapoors. jungle. (Singular)
The sentence would sound better if a pronoun were introduced · All persons have to face their fear of wild animals in the
· We invited Kapoors to our party because we like them. jungle. (plural)
Problems with Interrogative pronouns usage · Each person has to face his or her fear of wild animals in
Interrogative pronouns are the most troublesome area for students. the jungle (he or she)
The most common errors the students make with their usage are (4) When two nouns are joined with ‘as well as’ then pronoun is
who and whom. Who is used for the subjective case while whom used in agreement with the first subject.
for the objective case. · Peter as well as his friends is going on picnic.
In Questions: Subjective: · The students as well as their teacher were present in the
· Whom frightened the baby? (incorrect) function.
· Who frightened the baby? (correct) (5) When two nouns are joined with ‘with’ then the pronoun is
In Questions: Objective: used in agreement with the noun before ‘with’.
· Who did the dog scare? (incorrect) · The boy with his classmates
· Whom did the dog scare? (correct) · The boys with their teacher
Now, use the pronoun ‘who’ in a question when it takes the place You can notice that in both sentences the usage of ‘his’ and
of the subject and use ‘whom’ when it takes the place of object. ‘their’ is in agreement with number and gender of the second
Use of pronoun in Dependent Clause noun.
If you want to avoid errors in choosing the correct pronoun, first (6) When a subject is made up of two or more items joined by
identify the clause, then determine the function of pronoun in the ‘either .........or’ or ‘neither.... nor’, a singular verb is used if
respective clause. If it acts as the subject, use, who (whoever), if it the last item is singular and a plural verb if it is plural.
acts as the object, use whom (whomever). However, in informal English, sometimes a plural verb is used.
· Subjective: I saw who scared the dog. · Either your brother or you have eaten your lunch.
Here the pronoun is taking the place of the subject. Who is used. · Either the teachers or the principal is (or are) is blame
· Objective: I saw the man whom the dog scared. for the poor results.
Here the pronoun is taking the place of the object. Whom is · Neither the prime minister nor his spokespersons are to
used. address the press.
EBD_7203
S1-4 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
A Quick Review Remember
· They went to Paris and enjoyed (incorrect) A preposition may also be used at the end of a sentence:
· They went to Paris and enjoyed themselves (correct) · Who were you talking to?
· You should avail of this opportunity (incorrect) · This is the house I used to live in.
· You should avail, yourself of this opportunity (correct) Preposition can also govern other parts of speech that are used
· You and Bob have wasted their time. (incorrect) as nouns.
· You and Bob have wasted your time (correct) · She left India for good.
· Marbella and myself went to the pictures (incorrect) · In short, we don’t want to do anything with them.
· Marbella and I went to the pictures. (correct) · From here you can go to Istambul by air.
· I, you and he will go to the pictures tomorrow. (incorrect)
· You, he and I will go to the pictures tomorrow. (correct) Position of Prepositions
· It is me. (incorrect) Prepositions of place
· It is I. (correct) At is used about a place we think of as a point rather than an area.
· Let him and I do the talking. (incorrect) We also use at about are event wherethere is a group of people.
· Let him and me do the talking. (correct) · I arrived at Howrah station at 5.
· After seeing his father in the bar, he tried to hide behind the · I last met her at her sister’s birthday.
table. (incorrect) · They were waiting at the far end of the room.
· After seeing his father in the bar, he tried to hide himself · There were a number of people at the conference.
behind the table. (correct) On is used when we talk about a position touching a flat surface,
· Peter resigned to the will of God. (incorrect) or on something we consider as a line such as a road or river.
· Peter resigned himself to the will of God. (correct) · There’s a cockroach on the floor.
(Please note that after verbs like absent, avail, apply, enjoy, hide · They have bought a villa on the beach.
etc. reflexive pronoun is used after them) In is used when we talk about a position within a larger area, or
· They have visited neither of these three Churches. (incorrect) when it is within a larger space.
· They have visited none of these three Churches. (correct) · He works at Connaught place in Delhi.
· Between you and I, he is not reliable. (incorrect) · Bob looked again in the drawer and found the punching
· Between you and me, he is not reliable. (correct)
machine.
· He scored better than me in the exams. (incorrect)
Prepositions of Direction
· He scored better than I (did) in the exams. (correct)
To, towards, across, for, against, along, up, down, into etc. are
· We all did not accept his offer. (incorrect)
called prepositions of direction.
· None of us accepted his offer. (correct)
To is used to denote destination
· These two brothers always help one another. (incorrect)
· I am going to railway station.
· These two brothers always help each other. (correct)
· The four sisters help each other with chores. (incorrect) Towards indicates direction.
· The four sisters help one another with chores. (correct) · He was last seen going towards the hotel.
· One must keep his word. (incorrect) For denotes destination.
· One must keep one’s word. (correct) · He is leaving for Canada tomorrow.
· None of us know the truth. (incorrect) Against refers to ‘opposite’, ‘pressing on’, ‘in contravention of’.
· None of us knows the truth (correct) · It was very difficult to run against such strong winds.
· Except he, all went to the circus. (incorrect) · There used to be a lamppost against the wall here.
· Except him, all went to the circus. (correct) · You cannot go against the law of the land.
· It is All India Radio. (incorrect) Across denotes ‘on the opposite side of’, ‘from one side to
· This is All India Radio. (correct) another’, ‘both sides’, ‘through’
Prepositions - Important Inferences and Common Errors in ‘their’ · The man who came to see you yesterday lives across the
usages. road.
A preposition is a word which usually precedes a noun or pronoun · This metro station is being built across the river.
and shows its relation to some other word in the sentence. · She put the scarf across her neck.
· The man on the platform was staring at Gina. · The cattle were going across the field.
· They came after dinner. ‘Come across’ is used when we mean ‘to find’ or ‘encounter’
· The cat is sitting under the table. · She came across this man when she was working in US and
In the first example ‘on’ and ‘at’ are two prepositions, which are then they got married.
before the definite nouns ‘platform’ and ‘Gina’. They help establish Up denotes top and down is used to mean ‘descending’.
the relationship between ‘the man’ and ‘the platform’ and ‘stare’ · The child climbed up the stairs by himself.
and ‘Gina’. · The child could not climbed down the stairs.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-5
Prepositions of Time Absolve from: He has been absolved from all charges.
At, on, for, before, after, since, within, till, by, during, from are Replete with: His condition is replete with misery.
some examples of prepositions of time. Look at: He was looking at all pros and cons.
‘At’ denotes time or hour. Square with: I paid him ` 10,000 and squared with him.
· I’ll be there at 2 = 30. Put out: She put out the lights and went to sleep.
· They started for outing at down. Sue for: you can be sued for contempt of court.
· The accident occurred at daybreak. Side with: He sided with the ruling party.
‘On’ is used to denote ‘day’ and ‘date’. Take up: She has taken up the matter with higher-ups.
· She’ll be here on Saturday. Conjunctions – Their usages and Errors in their uses
· This road will be opened for public on 15th August. A conjunction is a part of speech which is used to correct words,
‘For’ is used to denote ‘period of time’. phrases, clauses, and sentences. They are such as, and, because,
· I had been waiting for the train for two hours. or, if, but, for and when.
· What are you waiting for? Here are some important conjunctions and their uses:
‘Since’ is used to refer to ‘a point of time’ Not only........... but also
· She has been living in UK since 2003. · He is not only the director but also the producer of this
· He has been living in this village since birth. movie.
‘After’ and ‘before’ are used with the ‘period of time’ or ‘point of Either........... or
time’ in past tense. · Either the teachers or the principal is (or are) to blame for the
· Our exams will be over before Christmas. mishap.
· She will get married after she completes her graduation. Neither........... nor
· He will return the loan to me after 2 years. · Neither the prime minister nor the ministers are responsible
Some useful Prepositions after verbs for economic slowdown.
Abstain from: Having been advised by the doctor, he vowed to Both.......... and
abstain from alcohol. · He can both speak and write French.
In accordance with: Everything has been done in accordance · He’s lived in both Mumbai and Chennai.
with your request. · Both he and his sister are going to get married this winter.
Learn about: We learnt about o-zone when were in school. Scarcely/hardly .... when
Know about: Now everybody knows about black holes. · He had scarcely left when the rain started.
Think of: What do you think of my new suit? (ask for an opinion) · He had scarcely sat down when the phone rang.
Think about: Your job is think about safety and nothing else. Though/Although
(concentrating on something) · Though/Although Mahesh failed to score a goal himself, he
Accuse of: He was accused of spousal abuse. helped Rajesh to score.
Acquaint with: You should acquaint yourself with new gadgets. · He has bought a house, though/although he has yet to make
Acquit of: He has been acquited of all charges. the payment.
Apprised of: Has the management been apprised of the strike? Both ‘though and ‘although’ may be used but ‘though’ is less
Ashamed of: You should be ashamed of these poor results. formal. No sooner had/did .... than.
Clamp on: The dictator clamped a curfew on the town. · No sooner had he entered the room than the light went out.
Conducive to: the working conditions are not conducive to · No sooner did he pick up the newspaper to read than his
productivity. father called out.
Confer on: The university conferred a degree on him. Lest .............should
Cope with: She cannot cope with the new environment. · He turned away from the door lest the boss see him.
Detrimental to: This kind of lifestyle is really detrimental to his · He worried lest he should fall short of family’s expectations.
health. (Please not that lest is negative, hence cannot be followed by not.
Debar from: He was debarred from school for his bad behaviour. It is followed by should).
Desist from: If you do not desist from your activities, you may be Other than
behind bars. · He was familiar with no one other than the watchman.
Encroach on: He has encroached on the public property by · He doesn’t like milk, but other than that he’ll drink just
building a concrete wall. anything.
Embroil in: Please do not embroil me in this controversy. So..........as (in negative sense)
Fed up with: He is fed up with her constant tauntings. · She did not collect so many flowers as her sister did.
Focus on: Now all the players have to focus on the game, other · You cannot drive so far as you want. There’s not enough
issues will be sorted out later. gas.
Give in: Finally, I had to give in to the temptation. as..........as
Good at: She’s is very good at dancing. · The kids want to stay with their grandparents as much as
Indulge in: Sometimes you have to indulge in the children. she does.
EBD_7203
S1-6 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
· The elderly woman cannot walk as fast as she used to Errors ‘in’ Subject Verb Agreement
Such...........as Now let’s discuss the different conditions in which subject agrees
· Such lodging as you provided was hardly worthy of living. with verb.
· There is no such thing as magic. If two singular nouns are joined with and, then the verb is plural.
Like................(pronoun/noun) · Marbella and her husband have gone to Paris.
· No one else can sing such a difficult song like he can. · A computer and a printer have been sold in the junk market.
· You are just talking like a child. If two singular nouns are joined with ‘and’ but preceded by each/
If ............. (used when talking about something that might happen every etc. then it takes a singular verb.
or might have happened or be true) · Each boy and each girl has to join the NCC.
· We’ll all go to the pictures if father gives the money. · Every worker and every executive has to be in the office in
· If you didn’t apologize, you’d feel guilty. time.
· If you had come earlier, I would have accompanied you. If two singular nouns are joined with ‘and’ but denote something
· If mother were here, she would know what to cook. about the same person, thing or expression, then singular verb is
Whether .......... or not (used when talking about a choice) used.
· I am not sure whether to believe him or not. · Bread and butter is not something that you take in dinner.
· I am taking the kids along, whether you like it or not. · Rice and rajma sells at 30 rupees per plate.
· She doesn’t know whether to stay or leave. Other examples are – horse and carriage, hammer and sickle, crown
Reason ............. that (‘the reason for something’ is used and not and glory etc.
‘the reason because ‘something happens) When two nouns or pronouns are joined with – with, alongwith,
· I’d like to know the reason why they refused to follow the together with, accompanied by, led by, guided by, governed by,
orders. controlled by, as well as, in addition to, besides, like, unlike etc.
· The reason I telephoned was to ask about her health. then the verb is according to the noun or pronoun shown in the
Because (used when you are giving reason for something. first case.
· We didn’t go out because the weather was so dull. · She was accompanied by her mother.
· Why can’t she go to the cinema? Because she’s not old · The council was led by the minister.
enough. · She is clever as well as beautiful.
In order to do something (used for the purpose of doing something) · He hurt his arm as well as breaking his leg.
· Bob is working very hard on his maths in order to improve · In addition to cooking the food, she has to clean the floors.
his grades. · Besides myself, the only Indian people there were Sachin
Until (used to denote when something happens until a particular and his wife.
time, it continues and then stops at that time). · Her hair is blonde like her mother.
· Your driving licence is valid until 2018. · Unlike her mother, she doesn’t go to market every Sunday.
· I waited until mother finished cooking. When two subjects are joined by ‘not only....... but also’, ‘either
Till (In spoken English ‘till’ is preferred to ‘until’) ......... or’, ‘neither....nor’, then the verb always follows its nearest
· He didn’t start drinking till he was 30. subject.
· This market opens till 9’O’ clock on all days. · He is not only an actor but also a dramatist.
As long as (used to talk about one thing that can happen or be · He’s the kind of person you either love or hate.
true only if another thing happens or true). · Neither she nor her mother is planning to go Italy.
· You can stay with us as long as you desire. When subjects are joined with ‘not....but’ or ‘not’, then the verb
· They tried to stay awake for as long as they could. follows the subject which is not with the subject ‘not’.
Verb Agreement – Rules, Syntax of Subject · Not the principal but the teachers are to blame.
· The principal not the teachers is to blame.
Verb agreement works on two basic rules:
When in a sentence, ‘each of’, ‘either of’, ‘neither of’, ‘everyone of’,
Rule 1: When the subject is singular, verb is singular. ‘one of’, etc. are used, the noun or pronoun is always plurals, but
· She likes mangoes. the verb remains singular.
(Here the subject is singular, so the verb is also singular). · Each of the students has to take part in this program.
· Bob plays cricket. · One of them has been arrested by the police.
· Mr. Jim goes to office. · The teacher asked the students if everyone of them has
(‘you’ always take a plural subject). brought books.
Rule 2: When the subject is plural, the verb is also plural. When the subject of a sentence is ‘everybody’, ‘somebody’,
· They play cricket in this field every day. ‘nobody’, ‘anybody’, ‘no one’, ‘everyone’, ‘anyone’, ‘everything’,
(Here the subject is plural i.e., ‘they’ so the verb ‘play’ and not ‘something’, ‘nothing’, ‘anything’, etc. then the verb is always
‘plays’ is used) singular.
Basically, the number and person of any finite verb is in · Everybody knowns that the sun rises in the east.
correspondence with the number and person of the subject. · Someone among his friends has broken this window pane.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-7
When the subject of a sentence is ‘many’, ‘both’, ‘few’, ‘a few’, · If you ask, I’ll accompany you to the movies.
etc. then the verb is plurals. When a sentence has expressions such as ‘suppose that’, It is
· Both Marbella’s parents are working with External Affairs. high time’, as if, it is time, etc’, a future or the present tense is not
· Many were trapped in the debris but a few have survived. used.
After ‘both of’, ‘a few of’, ‘few of’, ‘many of’, etc. the noun or · It is high time that you called his bluff.
pronoun is plural which is also followed by a plural verb. When a statement refers to two past actions, the action that
· Many of tourists at Taj are English. finishes first is in past perfect and that finishes later should be in
· A great many workers have gone on strike. simple past.
However, after ‘many a...’ both the noun and verb are singular. · They told him they had not met him before.
· Many a parent has gone through this awful situation. · We heard that a fire has broken out in the neighbouring
Nouns in plural that represent an amount, a fraction, or an element house.
of time are taken as singular and so take singular verb. When a part of the sentence is with ‘as if’ or ‘as though’, past
· Thirty minutes is not enough to finish this test. tense and plural form of the verb is used.
Some words that end in – s and seem to represent a single thing · He behaved as if he were the owner of the house.
but they take plural verb. · It looks as though everyone else has gone to bed.
· The scissors have to be brought from the market. Words like ‘often’, ‘generally’, ‘usually’, ‘whenever’, whichever’,
· My trousers are too short to fit. etc. are used in simple present tense.
· The spectacles have been broken by the child.
· This type of furniture is generally found in junk market.
Words ‘like’, ‘fleet’, ‘crowd’, ‘army’, ‘jury’, ‘committee’ always
· I often go to meet him.
take singular verbs.
· He usually goes for a walk after dinner.
· The committee has not decided on his proposal yet.
· The crowd is increasing in the city day-by-day. Some Important Tips:
TENSES AND ERRORS IN THEIR USAGE ® Please note that except I, we and you, all nouns and pronouns
fall into the category of third person.
The tense is the form of a verb that shows the time, continuance
® Conditional clauses may be put in three categories.
or completion of an action that is expressed by the verb. ‘He is’ is
1. Main clause - future, “if” ....... present (likely or probable)
in the present tense, ‘He was’ is past tense and ‘He will be’ is
future tense. · He will help you if you ask him.
When ‘a permanent state’ or ‘work at present’ is expressed. 2. Main clause - conditional, “if”... past (unlikely, imaginary)
· He lives in Mumbai. (Presently living) · He would help you if your asked him.
· His father works in a government department (Presently 3. Main clause - conditional, perfect “if”... past perfect
working) (Impossible)
To express a present habit. · He would have helped you if you had asked him.
· He goes for a walk everyday. GERUND AND INFINITIVE - Usage and Errors in
· She takes a bath before breakfast. their uses
· He smokes after dinner.
Gerund is a noun in the form of present participle of a verb, for
(All these activities are a habit with are a daily routine).
example ‘Fishing is my best pastime. While ‘infinitive’ is the basic
When the verb in principal clause is in past tense, the verb of the
form of a verb which is used with ‘to’, for example - I want to meet
subordinate clause is also in the past tense.
you: In this sentence, ‘to meet’ is an infinitive.
· He went for a walk after he had taken his dinner.
When the subordinate clause is in reporting speech, any tense Usage of Gerund
can be used. Gerund acts as a subject when an action is being considered in
· She said, “I won’t stay at this place any more”. general sense.
When a universal truth or habitual truth is expressed, the tense in · Swimming is a sport.
subordinate clause is not necessarily changed. · Climbing mountains is a sport, too
· The teacher said that sun rises in the East. · Riding is pleasanter than walking.
· He said that he gets up at 5 everyday. · I hate telling lies.
If a comparison is made by using ‘than’, then in subordinate Verbs such as enjoy, excuse, suggest, help, avoid, dread, prevent,
clause, any tense may be used. risk, recollect, stop, detest, finish, mind, dislike, deny, no use, no
· She liked the commerce better than she liked the science. good, resent, delay, postpone, defer, forgive, pardon, etc. are
When there is an expression of past time (yesterday, two days followed by the gerund.
ago, last night, etc.), the present perfect tense is not used. · They enjoyed watching TV all day.
· I wrote to you yesterday about your mother’s ill-health.
· Will you excuse us coming late.
When the statement is conditional, the subordinate clause
· Will you stop talking so loudly.
beginning with ‘if’ may be in present or past tense but not in
· Would you mind moving a bit.
future.
· It’s no use asking them for a ticket.
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S1-8 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
· It’s no ‘good’ calling her at this hour. · I’d rather have a quiet night at my place.
A gerund is put after a preposition. · I’d rather fail than copy in the exams.
· They are tired of talking. After adjectives such as angry, glad, like, delight, astonished, the
However, prepositions ‘except’ and ‘but’ are an exception which infinitive is used.
are followed by an infinitive. · She was angry to see the children trampling on her flowers.
A gerund that shows a physical activity is placed after come and · I was glad to hear the news of your engagement with Sussane.
go. · I’d like to meet him when I am there next week.
· He went shopping. · She was astonished to hear the news of your success in
· They went boating. exams.
Nouns that are followed by a gerund are placed in the possessive The verb ‘know’ is not followed by the infinitive but a conjunction
case. and then infinitive.
· She hates her husband’s smoking while the kids are around. · She doesn’t know how to drive.
When there’s a sense of hesitation, dislike, risk, etc., the · Do you know how to talk with elders?
gerund is used. ‘........had better’ is followed by the infinitive without to’.
· I dislike his coming so late in the night. · You’d better leave this place before the police arrive.
· I cannot risk losing my purse in this jam packed bus. · You’d better stop drinking as your condition is deteriorating.
In possessive case, an adjective before gerund is put. When the verb of perception like ‘to see’, ‘to hear’, ‘to watch’
· She doesn’t mind their playing as long as they do not make occur in the sentence, infinitive is not used with ‘to’.
a noise. · I saw him climb the window.
Usage of Infinitive Split infinitive is not used.
· ‘He vowed not to go there’ and not ‘He vowed to not go
Infinitive acts as a noun, an adjective and adverb. there’.
Here are some verbs that are followed by infinitive – try, attempt,
care, decide, prepare, undertake, arrange, forget, agree, regret, Auxiliary Verbs
remember, promise, consent, neglect, swear, refuse, purpose, A verb that is used with another verb to form a particular tense or
endeavour, fail, hope, hesitate, determine, manage, seen, etc. mood, for example - she was pleased, they have left. Sometimes
· I tried to contact them several times. more than one auxiliary verb is used to form a tense, for example -
· I attempted to solve all these questions. She will be going, They have been warned. Auxiliary verb are
· Would you care to ask your help to hand over the keys to either modal verbs or primary verbs.
me. ‘Can’ expresses ability
· She was just preparing to go when father called. · You can drive, can’t you?
· I am sorry I forgot to post your letter. · She can speak French fluently.
· I regret to inform you to gramophone reached here broken. · The police are doing all they can to find the truth.
· She refused to pay head to my warning. ‘May’ denotes permission, doubt or possibility.
· He failed to response in affirmative. · You may be late, so call me tomorrow.
· I hesitated to ask her for the dinner. · These chemicals may cause irritation to your skin.
Some verbs like tell, oblige, permit, teach, advise, encourage, · Never mind, I may have been wrong.
request, remind, warn, order, invite, allow, compel, instruct, tempt, ‘Might’ also expresses possibility but you are not at all certain
urge, show, forbid, etc. are followed by object and infinitive. · The train might be a few hours late.
· The principal told the staff to stay back after school gets · They might not want to come with us.
over. · They might have missed the flight.
· Finally, he obliged to accept my offer. ‘Should’ is used to say what is the right thing to do.
· Will you permit me to go? · You should have taken her along. You should not be so
· The doctor advised him to take rest for a few days. selfish.
· She encouraged me to sit for this competition. · You shouldn’t come home after 12 in the night.
· He requested me to help the accident victim. · The children should not stay up late in the night.
· She forbade me to smoke in her office. ‘Could’ is used as past tense of ‘Can’ to express ability about
· They instructed us to sit outside the office. doing something in the past.
Verbs/expressions such as – do, can, will, let, may and must, etc., · By the time he was 12, he could drive the car competently.
are followed by infinitive without to. · I couldn’t catch the train as I was caught in a traffic jam.
· Let him play as long as he wants. · My income was so low that I couldn’t afford the rent.
The verb ‘see’ may be used infinitive or without it. ‘Must’ is followed by the bare-infinitive.
· Go see her or Go to see her. · You must hurry up if you don’t want to miss your train.
Expressions like ‘would rather’, ‘rather than’, ‘sooner than’, ‘had · She must wear the seat belt if she doesn’t want to be penalized.
better’ are followed by infinitive without to. · If you want to improve your grades, you must work hard.
· You had better inform the authorities in advance. ‘Must’ also expresses strong advice or orders.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-9
· You must stop chewing tobacco if you want to avoid cancer. · The interior of the country is mainly desert.
‘Must’ is used to say that something is very likely to be true. After ‘Comparatively’ or ‘relatively’, the adjective of positive
· That elderly woman must be 90. degree is used.
· Their new bungalow must have cost them around `10 million. · Crime on the hill stations is comparatively scarce.
· She must have been really upset with her brother. · This software is relatively easy to use.
Should and ought have much the same meanings, but ‘ought’ is When ‘enough’ is used in a sentence, use positive degree.
followed by to, ‘Ought to’ is used to say that ‘someone should do · You would be foolish enough to lend him ` 10,000.
something because it is the best thing to do. · The car is big enough to accommodate eight persons.
· He really ought to stop drinking. ‘To’ is used after ‘prefer’, if there is comparison between two
· You ought to get together sometime soon. nouns or noun equivalents.
· He ought to be ashamed of himself. · She prefers tea to coffee.
When you talk about things which actually did not happen, though · I prefer to wear cotton clothes.
they were likely to- When adjectives are joined with ‘and’ then both the adjective
· You should have been here before 11. take same degree.
‘Do’ makes questions and negative forms of the ordinary verb. · bad and ugly woman (both positive)
· Do you like apples? · worse and uglier woman (both comparative)
· She doesn’t feel like going to cinema tonight. · worst and ugliest woman (both superlative)
· Does he speak Japanese? Yes, he does. To convert superlative degree into comparative and positive, some
‘Do’ is used to emphasize the main verb in a sentence. examples are given below.
· Do be alert. · Sachin is the best player in the team. (Superlative)
· She does look charming in that dress. · Sachin is better than all other players in the team. (Comparative).
· I do think the manager has behaved badly. Or
‘Do’ is also used with present participles ending in _ ing · Sachin is better than any other players in the team.
· She does shopping on Saturday. · No other player in the team as good as Sachin. (Positive)
· You just keep quiet. Let me do the talking. Synthesis of Positive degree and Comparative degree
Leaving out words after auxiliary verbs. · He is as good as you. (Positive degree)
· They say they’ve completed the work, but I don’t’ think · He is not better than you. (Comparative degree)
they have (instead of ...........have completed the work). It is, therefore, clear that for positive degree, ‘so/as.... as’ is
· Are you going to appear in the exams this year? Well, no, I’m used on the other hand, for comparative degree, ‘comparative
not (instead of .......I’m not going to appear in the exams). + than’ is used.
To avoid repeating words from a previous clause, we use an Some adjectives that confuse the most
auxiliary verb (be, have, can, will, would, etc.)
Each is used every one of two or more things or people.
Adjectives and Errors in their usage · Each student was given a particular job for gardening.
A word that names an attribute, used to describe a noun or · The tickets cost ` 250 each.
pronoun. · You give each of the children a balloon.
· A small child A tall man ‘Every’ used to refer to all things or people in a particular group
An adjective has three forms which are (a) positive e.g., cold · Every child will get his share of chocolates.
(b) comparative e.g. colder and (c) Superlative e.g. coldest. · She enjoyed every page of the novel.
Rules of Comparison · They applauded every word of the speaker.
‘Less’ defines’ ‘not so much or to a smaller degree.’
After adjectives such as junior, senior, superior, inferior, posterior,
· I hope you would worry less if you understood the case.
prior, etc, the preposition ’to’ is applied and not ‘than’.
· She is doing less talking lately.
· There are several students junior to him in the class.
‘Fewer’ represents a smaller number of
· We are in the same department, but he’s senior to me.
· Fewer trains are late these days.
· Your bike is far superior to mine.
· Fewer birds migrated here this year.
· He always felt inferior to his wife.
‘Older’ refers to persons or things.
Please note after these words ‘more’ or ‘most’ is not used.
· These plants are older than those in that garden.
· ‘There are several students more junior to him’ is wrong.
‘Elder’ is used of two people especially brothers and sisters
Words such as minor, major, interior, exterior are the adjectives of
· His elder son Sunny became an architect
positive degree. Hence, before them ‘more’ or ‘most’ and after
· Marbella is the elder of two.
‘than’ or ‘to’ is rarely used.
‘A little’ expresses a small amount.
· There is a major problem with traffic in Delhi.
· Marbella speaks a little Portuguese.
· Losing by eleven wickets was a major setback for the team.
· She’s a little over 3 years.
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S1-10 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
· I have a little time to spare. · very much stronger, very much better, very much wiser, etc.
‘Little’ represents only a small amount, not much (sense in negative) ‘Very and much’ are also used with superlative degree.
· There is little sugar left is the kitchen. · The very best gymnast in the country.
The little (that) is used to emphasize how small an amount there is · Much the best boy in the class.
· She did the little she could do. ‘Very’ is used before the present participle
‘Farther’ shows a greater distance then before. · very enjoying, very entertaining, very interesting, very
· We went hiking and decided not to go any farther. daring, very challenging, very perplessing etc.
‘Further’ means more or to a greater degree. ‘Much’ is used before the past participle.
· The minister refused to comment or recent developments · much surprised, much admired, much tired, much aggrieved,
until the evidence could be studied further. much ashamed, much amazed, etc.
‘Later’ defines after the time you are talking about Please note that ‘very’ is not used with a past participle
· I’m just travelling. I’ll call you later. except a few instances.
‘The latter’ is the second of two people or things. · very pleased, very frightened, very delighted, very dejected,
· In the latter case, you’ll have to pay on interest of 25%. very drunk, very contented, very limited, etc.
Adverbs and Errors in their usage ‘Quite’ (means perfectly, completely) is not used in place of ‘very.
An adverb is a word that qualifies the meaning of a verb, adjective · She is quite beautiful (×)
or another adverb She is very beautiful (P)
· She shook her head sadly. · The boss is quite busy (×)
In the example, ‘sadly’ is an adverb which tells the speciality
The boss is very busy (P)
of the verb ‘shake’.
· Bob is quite handsome. (×)
(i) Adverbs of time are – today, yesterday, ago, at present, last
Bob is very handsome. (P)
month, last year, presently, shortly, recently, lately, etc.
However ‘quite’ is used in the sense of ‘very’ with some past
(ii) Adverbs of numbers – once, twice, thrice, etc.
participles.
(iii) Adverbs of place – here, there, in, out, indoors, outdoors,
· Quite delighted (= very delighted)
far, near, away, etc.
(iv) Adverbs of quantity – too, very, much, enough, quits · Quite tired (= very tired)
completely, wholly, partially, fairly, rather, far, etc. ‘Quite’ is also used with positive degree.
(v) Adverbs of manner – Thus, so, carefully, badly, fluently, · quite well, quite wrong, quite chilly, quite warm, quite right,
etc. quite alone, quite cool, etc.
(vi) Adverbs of affirmation or Negation – Yes, no, surely, not ‘Plenty’ is followed by ‘of’
certainly, etc. · Drink plenty of water in summer.
Now, some important adverbs are explained here. · There’s plenty of time. So, don’t rush the things.
‘Too’ expresses ‘more than’ is acceptable or possible If the gender is not known, use the pronoun of masculine gender.
· Don’t you think the colour of your jacket is too bright · If anybody has got the book, he may return it by Monday.
‘Too ...... to do something’ ‘Both’ and ‘as well’ are not used together.
· She is too weak to climb the stairs. · Both Sussane and Rick have failed in the exams.
‘Too ..... for something’ ‘Supposing’ and ‘if’ are not used together.
· This box is too heavy for me. · Supposing, it really is a storm.
‘Much /far too’ · If that babysitter does not turn up, who will hold the baby?
· Sussane is far too young to go to school. ‘As ...........as’ is used with an adjective or adverb in between when
‘None too’ (not at all) we mean that something or someone is like something or someone
· He was none too pleased when he was told about new else, or that one situation resembles another.
developments. · The Charlie Chaplin movie was as funny as his last one.
‘Only too’ used to emphasize that a particular situation exists · He finished the job as quickly as he could.
when you wish against it. Negative forms may be used with either ‘not as’ or ‘not’so’
· The principal regretted is say that these rumours are only · The gap between two poles is not as wide as it was before.
too true. · The bees are not, so common as last summer.
‘Very’ is used with both pleasant and unpleasant adjectives. Adverb ‘not’ is not used with words that have negative sense.
· She’s very beautiful. · The doctor forbade him not to smoke. (incorrect)
· She’s very ugly. · The doctor forbade him to smoke. (correct)
‘Very’ is used with positive degree. ‘Only’ is to be positioned right before the word it modifies.
· very clever, very honest, very lucky, very good, very wise, etc. · He only bought two eggs. (incorrect)
‘Much’ is used with comparative degree. · He bought only two eggs. (correct)
· much stronger, much pleasenter, much better, much wiser, ‘Due to’ modifies a noun and not a verb. So no sentence should
etc. begin with ‘due to’.
‘Very much + comparative’ is used.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-11
· He quit smoking due to ill-health. fear, shirk, resist, benefit, etc are not followed by any preposition
Perversion is used when the sentence begins with seldom, hardly, when used in the form of active voice.
barely, scarcely, never, etc. · I have to accompany her to the airport.
· Never have I seen such a bad movie. · She requested me to hire a taxi for her.
Provision is also used with expressions beginning with ‘No.... to · The chairman emphasised the need of improving safely
emphasize. standards.
· Under no circumstances, Will I accept his proposal? ‘Yet’ is used to express negative sense and questions whether
‘Cent percent’ and ‘word by word’ should be replaced with ‘a/ something that was expected has happened.
one hundred percent’ and ‘word for word’ · Have you finished ironing yet?
‘Needful’ means necessary, so ‘do the needful’ is incorrect. Instead · Has Sussane arrived yet?
use ‘do what is necessary’. · Have you finished talking on phone? ‘Not yet’.
‘Family members’ may be replaced with ‘members of the family’ · I haven’t asked her yet.
‘Talking terms’ should be replaced with ‘speaking terms’ The phrase ‘type of, ‘sort of’ and ‘kind of’ do not have a/ an with
· Dindsay is not on speaking terms with her father. them.
Verbs like ‘emphasis’ accompany, attack, discuss, fear, succeed, · What kind of question is that?
request, arsist, resemble, comprise, recommend, order, reach, join,

EXERCISE
Directions (Qs. 1-25) : In this section, you have to identify errors 7. (a) The boy was wearing a new suit
in sentences. Read each sentence carefully to find out whether (b) He took offence at this
there is any error in any of the parts. Errors, if any, are only in (c) Please put your sign here
one of the parts. No sentence has more than one error. When you (d) Please put your signature here
spot an error in any of the parts of the sentence. Choose the (e) No error
corresponding alphabet. 8. (a) He is my cousin brother
1. (a) The author mentioned that (b) We are all brothers
(b) there were many people (c) I spent the middle of the day working
(c) who were deprived of (d) He had a large amount of money
(e) No error
(d) a minimum basic facilities
9. (a) He got into bad company
(e) No error
(b) one of my servant tells me
2. (a) The child (b) had been a deaf
(c) some of any servants tell me
(c) since birth (d) no error.
(d) the front of the house
3. (a) Little knowledge
(e) No error
(b) of music that he possessed
10. (a) We were all very happy
(c) proved to be a boon for him
(b) at Mr. Khurana being awarded
(d) when he was utterly helpless. (c) the Nobel Prize.
(e) No error (d) No error
4. (a) The scenery here is not good 11. (a) He informed me
(b) I have lost my furnitures (b) that he had gone to
(c) We have received no information (c) one of the minister’s residences
(d) He told his mother this news (d) and stayed there all night.
(e) No error (e) No error
5. (a) Please excuse the trouble 12. (a) I had a bathe in the sea
(b) He took pains over his work (b) I have hurt a toa
(c) In India there are many poor (c) Each of these days we play games
(d) Scouts wear shorts (d) None of us went
(e) No error (e) No error
6. (a) In science the credit goes to a man 13. (a) This blade’s edge
(b) who conveniens the world (b) is sharper than any
(c) not to the man to whom (c) other blade’s said
(d) the idea first occurs. (d) the marketing executive of the company.
(e) No error (e) No error
EBD_7203
S1-12 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
14. (a) A man should work hard 27. Had I been a little early. I would not have missed the train.
(b) A man should not waste his time (a) Had I been a little early, I would not have missed the
(c) A boy should not waste his time train.
(d) Here is my cup, please fill it (b) Had I been a little early than now, I would not have
(e) No error
missed the train.
15. (a) The boy who does best he will get a prize
(b) whoever does best will get a prize (c) Had I been a little earlier, I would not have missed the
(c) Who did this? I train.
(d) He and I are brothers (d) Had I only been a little early than now, I would not
(e) No error have missed the train.
16. (a) The prize was (b) given to the girls 28. We were still talking about what we should do when we
(c) whom they said (d) stood first. heard the children shouting.
(e) No error (a) We were still talking about that we should do when we
17. (a) He did not like (b) me to smoking heard the children shouting.
(c) in the presence (d) of our teacher yesterday.
(b) We were still talking about what we should do when
(e) No error
18. (a) A student was we heard the children shouting.
(b) arrested for displaying (c) We were still talking about what we must do when we
(c) an indecently heard the children shouting.
(d) art work in public. (d) We were still talking about what we need to do when
(e) No error we heard the children shouting.
19. (a) He is worse than I 29. She is as intelligent as her sister if not more.
(b) A horse is more useful than a car (a) She is more intelligent than her sister.
(c) He gets a small salary (b) She is as intelligent as her sister if not more intelligent.
(d) In our library the number of books is less (c) She and her sister are equally intelligent.
(e) No error
(d) She is less intelligent than her sister.
20. (a) Open your book at page six
(b) He is in class ninth 30. The fees charged by the architect of the plans of the building
(c) This article costs ten rupees were unreasonable high.
(d) He came a second time (a) The fees charged by the architect of the plans of the
(e) No error building were unreasonable high.
21. (a) He is the more clever of the two (b) The fees charged by the architect of the plans of the
(b) he is the cleverer of the two building had been unreasonable high.
(c) from the three he is more clever (c) The fees charged by the architect of the plans of the
(d) of the two plans this is the better building were unreasonable higher.
(e) No error
(d) The fees charged by the architect of the plans of the
22. (a) He avoids (b) taking the
(c) prescribed medicine (d) at regular interval. building had been unreasonably higher.
(e) No error 31. You will not succeed unless you are optimistic.
23. (a) His good qualities include (a) You will not be successful unless you are optimistic.
(b) his ability to take (b) You will not succeed until you are an optimistic.
(c) quickly and (c) You will not succeed unless you don’t be optimistic.
(d) appropriate decisions (d) You will not succeed unless you don’t be and optimistic.
(e) No error 32. The implementation of the scheme encountered some
24. (a) The unreasonable behaviour problems because of some unscrupulously elements and
(b) of his daughter their vested interests.
(c) was thoroughly
(a) The implementation of the scheme encountered some
(d) upset Mr. Gupta.
(e) No error problems because of few unscrupulously elements
25. (a) Being a rainy day (b) Vijay decided to stay and their vested interests.
(c) at home and work (d) further on the problem. (b) The implementation of the scheme encountered some
(e) No error problems because of a few unscrupulously elements
Directions (Qs. 26-35) : Each question below has a sentence and their vested interests.
from the choices provided identify the one which best restates (c) The implementation of the scheme encountered some
the given sentence and mark its number as the answer. problems because of a little unscrupulously elements
26. Rajan abided by all the rules which was explained to him and their vested interests.
before programme. (d) The implementation of the scheme encountered some
(a) all the rules which was (b) all the rules which were problems because of some unscrupulously elements
(c) all the rule which were (d) all rules which was and their vested interests.
ENGLISH GRAMMAR S1-13
33. Despite being ill, he attended the classes. Directions (Qs. 46-50) : There are two sentences A and B are
(a) Despite of being ill, he attended the classes. given in each of the following questions.
(b) Despite his illness, he attended the classes. Mark (a) if you find an error in sentence A
(c) In spite of his being ill, he attended classes. Mark (b) if you find an error in sentence B
(d) The classes were attended by him in spite of being ill. Mark (c) if you find errors in both sentences A and B
34. He is as old as I. Mark (d) if you do not find any error in any of sentences.
(a) He is as old as me. 46. (A) A body of volunteers have been organized to help the
(b) He and I are equally old. faculty members in their attempt to raise the funds.
(c) He and I are equally older. (B) In our college, it was obligatory for each of the students
(d) Both he and I are of the same age. to buy his own instrument.
35. A man becomes wiser with age and experience. 47. (A) Most of the news pertaining to the sudden demise of
(a) A man as he is aged and experienced becomes the wiser. the spiritual guru have been communicated by some of
the ruffians whom I know well.
(b) A man with age and experience becomes wiser.
(B) Not only the doctor but also the nurses of this nursing
(c) A man as he is aged and experienced becomes the wiser.
home is very kind and helpful tot he attendants.
(d) With age and experience, a man becomes wiser.
48. (A) A few days before the general election, there were
Directions (Qs. 36-40) : Each sentence is divided into four parts reports that an amendment on primary education
(a), (b), (c), (d). Mark the part which has an error. Ignore the should be made compulsory in India?
errors of punctuation. (B) Nobody else but these comely young women have
36. (a) If I was you played a prank on you, but its is pitiable that you don’t
(b) I would have told understand it.
(c) the chairman to keep 49. (A) The lawyers face the same problems in their day to day
(d) his mouth shut lives as do an ordinary man of our society.
37. (a) You and I (b) am going (B) Some of highly significant observations has been made
(c) to take part (d) in the meeting by the UN Secretary General, Ban-Ki-Moon in his
38. (a) His behaviour with all his employees annual report submitted to the current session of
(b) is so pleasing that General Assembly.
(c) everyone come forward 50. (A) Not Vinay and his friends but Seema has surreptitiously
(d) to help him. taken your photographs and sent them to her friends.
(B) None of the six qualifiers who have been given a chance
39. (a) Scotsmen are notorious
to join this team play confidently.
(b) for their thrift
51. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence :
(c) and he is butt
[GATE 2012, 1Mark]
(d) of many exaggerated jokes.
(a) They gave us the money back less the service charges
40. (a) The aeroplane is a
of Three Hundred rupees.
(b) powerful instrument of war (b) This country’s expenditure is not less than that of
(c) and their peacetime role Bangladesh.
(d) is just as important (c) The committee initially asked for a funding of Fifty
Directions (Qs. 41-45) : Given below are five sentences, each of Lakh rupees, but later settled for a lesser sum.
which may or may not have errors. (d) This country’s expenditure on educational reforms is
Mark (a), if there is only one error very less.
Mark (b), if there are two errors 52. Choose the grammatically INCORRECT sentence.
Mark (c), if there are more than two errors [GATE 2013, 1 Mark]
Mark (d), if there is no error (a) He is of Asian origin.
41. One of the reasons I resigned from the team was that I broke (b) They belonged to Africa.
my leg. (c) She is an European.
42. Measles are a disease caused by a virus contact with fluids (d) They migrated from India to Australia.
from an infected person’s nose and mouth either directly 53. While trying to collect an envelope from under the table,
and through aerosol transmission. I II
43. Those athletes who did not adhere to the rules of athletics Mr. X fell down and was losing consciousness.
was deprived of taking part in the championship. III IV
44. Every man and woman of the village have come out to see Which one of the above underlined parts of the sentence is
this strange child who claims to know everything on his NOT appropriate? [GATE 2014, Set-3, 1 Mark]
prenatal existence. (a) I (b) II
45. If Mahatma Gandhi was alive he would have started weeping (c) III (d) IV
seeing the present condition of India.
EBD_7203
S1-14 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


1. (d) Since the ‘basic facilities’ are in plural, the use of ‘a 35. (d)
minimum is wrong. Instead, it should be ‘the minimum’. 36. (a) In order to express any unfulfilled wish, condition,
2. (b) The correct usage should be ‘deaf’ instead of ‘a deaf’, desire, supposition, etc, ‘were is used.
because the usage of ‘a’/‘an’ is not done before an 37. (b) Instead of ‘am’, ‘are’ is the correct option. Since ‘you’
adjective. and ‘are’ joined by the conjunction ‘and’ hence they
3. (a) ‘Little’ has to be replaced with ‘the little’ because ‘little make the plural and will take ‘are’ which as also plural.
means ‘almost none’ while ‘the little’ expresses ‘how 38. (c) The correct usage is ‘everyone comes forward’.
small an amount there is, that is possible. 39. (c) ‘and they are’ is the correct answer since the subject
4. (b) ‘Furniture’ is always used in singular. Hence, adding– s ‘Scotsmen’ is in plural hence the pronoun ‘they should
is not correct. be used’.
40. (c) ‘their’ has to be replaced with ‘its’.
5. (c) Since ‘poor’ is an adjective hence, cannot be used in
41. (a) ‘broke’ should be replaced with ‘had broken’.
this context. However, ‘the poor’ means ‘people who
42. (b) ‘Measles is’ should be used because it is in ‘singular’.
are poor’ so, here it should be ‘poor people’.
Secondly, with ‘either’, it should be ‘or’ and not ‘and’.
6. (a) Instead of ‘a man’, the correct usage should be ‘the 43. (a) Since the ‘athletes’ is in plural, it should also take the
man’ because ‘a man’ here expresses ‘some certain man’ plural form of ‘be’ i.e. ‘were’.
while it points out ‘the human being.’ 44. (b) The sentence has two errors. First, it should take ‘has’
7. (c) ‘Sign’ means a piece of paper, metal or wood with words instead of ‘have’ with ‘every man and woman of the
that gives information warnings or instructions. Hence, village’. Secondly, ‘everything about his prenatal
it should be ‘signature’. existence’ is correct and not ‘everything on.....’.
8. (a) ‘Cousin brother’ is wrong. It should be ‘cousin’ only. 45. (c) The correct structure of the sentence is – If Mahatma
9. (b) ‘One of’ is always followed by a plural noun but a Gandhi were alive, he would start weeping to see the
singular verb: One of the doors was open. present condition of India.
10. (b) The adjective ‘happy takes preposition ‘with, about, 46. (a) ‘A body of volunteers’ is in singular, hence it should
in, happy doing something....etc, hence ‘happy at’ is have ‘has been organized’ and not ‘have been.....’.
wrong and it should be ‘happy about’. 47. (c) The sentence (a) has the error – most of the news ....
11. (e) have been communicated while it should be ‘has been
12. (a) Here ‘bathe’ is a verb, hence it should be replaced with ....’ sentence (b) should be structured as – ‘Not only
a noun i.e. ‘bath’. the doctor but also the nurses .... are very kind’ because
13. (a) The correct usage should be ‘The edge of this blade’, the nurses is in plural and it should agree with the verb
because with an inanimate noun, we use the ‘of + noun ‘be’.
form. 48. (c) Sentence (a) has the error of preposition. With the noun
The cover of the book (rather than the book’s cover). ‘amendment’ the preposition ‘to’ is used and not ‘on’.
In sentence (b) instead of adjective ‘pitiable’, the noun
14. (e) 15. (a) 16. (e)
‘pity;’ is to take place because when you are
17. (b) disappointed about something then you say, “It is a
18. (c) It should be ‘an indecent’ and not ‘an indecently’ pity’ .... ‘It is pity’ .... etc.
because the sentence demands an adjective not an 49. (c) In sentence (a) the subject ‘an ordinary man’ is in
adverb. singular hence, it should take singular verb ‘does’ and
19. (d) .... ‘the number of books is fewer’ is the correct answer. not ‘do’. In sentence (b) the noun ‘observations’ is in
20. (d) ‘He came the second time’ is the correct usage. plurals, so it should take the auxiliary verb ‘have’ and
21. (c) The correct usage is ‘of the three...... not ‘has’.
22. (d) ‘at regular intervals’ is the right option. 50. (d) Both sentences are correct. In sentence (a) Seema’ the
23. (c) Since ‘quickly’ is an adverb, it should be replaced with third person / singular number agrees with the auxiliary
an adjective. i.e. ‘quick’. verb ‘has’ and in sentence (b) the expressions beginning
24. (c) with ‘None of ....’ can take both singular and plural
25. (a) ‘It being a rainy day’ is the correct replacement. ‘auxiliaries’.
26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) · None of the newspapers have arrived yet
(or..... has arrived....)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (a)
· None of my friends phones me any more
32. (d) 33. (b) (or.... phone me....).
34. (d) ‘of the same age’ is the correct expression. In choice 51. (d)
(a) it is in objective case ‘me’ which is not appropriate, 52. (c) Since “European” starts with constant sound, it
choice (b) ‘equally old’ is also not suitable, nor is should be “a European”.
‘equally older’. 53. (d) lost consciousness.
2 Sentence Completion
WORD USAGE
FILL IN THE BLANKS OR SENTENCE COMPLETION

Sentence completion questions test your ability to use your 4. Style. Ideas may be expressed in different manners ornately
vocabulary and recognise logical consistency among the elements or sparely, poetically or prosaically, formally or informally,
in a sentence. You need to know more than the dictionary journalistically or academically, originally or imitatively. An
definitions of the words involved. You need to know how the author’s style depends on such details as word choice,
words fit together to make logical and stylistic sense. imagery, repetition, rhythm, sentence structure and length.
Sentence completion questions actually measure one part of Work through the following Fundas and learn techniques
reading comprehension. If you can recognise how the different that will help you with vocabulary, grammatical complexity,
parts of a sentence affect one another, you should do well at tone, and style.
choosing the answer that best completes the meaning of the
sentence or provides a clear, logical statement of fact. The ability FUNDA 1
to recognise irony and humour will also stand you in good stead, BEFORE YOU LOOK AT THE CHOICES, READ THE
as will the ability to recognise figurative language and to SENTENCE AND THINK OF A WORD THAT MAKES SENSE
distinguish between formal and informal levels of speech.
Because the sentence completion questions contain many clues
that help you to answer them correctly (far more clues than the Your problem is to find the word that best completes the sentence
antonyms provide, for example), and because analysing them helps in both thought and style. Before you look at the answer choices,
you warm up for the reading passages later on in the test, on the see if you can come up with a word that makes logical sense in the
context. Then look at all five choices. If the word you thought of
paper-and-pencil test, answer them first. Then go on to tackle the
is one of your five choices, select that as your answer. If the word
analogies, the antonyms, and, finally, the time-consuming reading
you thought of is not one of your five choices, look for a synonym
comprehension section.
of that word. Select the synonym as your answer.
Sentence completion questions may come from any of a number
of different fields-art, literature, history, philosophy, botany,
This Funda is helpful because it enables you to get a sense of the
astronomy, geology, and so on. You cannot predict what subject
sentence as a whole without being distracted by any misleading
matter the sentences on your test will involve.
answers among the answer choices. You are free to concentrate
on spotting key words or phrases in the body of the sentence
What makes the hard questions hard? and to call on your own “writer’s intuition” in arriving at a
1. Vocabulary Level: Sentences contain words like stylistically apt choice of word.
intransigence, nonplussed, harbingers. Answer choices
include words like penchant, abeyance, and eclectic. See how the process works in a typical model question.
2. Grammatical Complexity . Sentences combine the entire
range of grammatical possibilities adverbial clauses, relative 1. Because experience had convinced her that he was both
clauses, prepositional phrases, gerunds, infinitives, and so self-seeking and avaricious, she rejected the likelihood that
on in convoluted ways. The more complex the sentence, his donation had been.................
the more difficult it is for you to spot the key words that can (A) redundant (B) frivolous
unlock its meaning. (C) inexpensive (D) ephemeral
3. Tone. Sentences reflect the writer’s attitude towards the (E) altruistic
subject matter. It is simple to comprehend material that is
presented neutrally. It is far more difficult to comprehend This sentence presents a simple case of cause and effect. The
material that is ironic, condescending, playful, sombre, or key phrase here is self-seeking and avaricious. The woman has
otherwise complex in tone. found the man to be selfish and greedy. Therefore, she refuses to
EBD_7203
S1-16 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
believe he can do something_______. What words immediately In a sentence completion question with two blanks, read through
come to mind? Selfless, generous, charitable? The missing word the entire sentence to get a sense of it as a whole. Then insert the
is, of course, altruistic. The woman expects selfishness (self- first word of each answer pair in the sentence’s first blank. Ask
seeking) and greediness (avaricious), not altruism (magnanimity). yourself whether this particular word makes sense in this blank. If
The correct answer is Choice E. the initial word of an answer pair makes no sense in the sentence,
you can eliminate that answer pair.
Practice of Funda 1 extensively develops your intuitive sense of (Note: Occasionally this Funda will not work. In some questions,
just the exactly right word. However, do not rely on Funda 1 for example, the first words of all five answer pairs may be near-
alone. On the test, always follow up Funda 1 with Funda 2. synonyms. However, the Funda frequently pays off, as it does in
the following example.)
FUNDA 2
1. Critics of the movie version of The Colour Purple ——— its
LOOK AT ALL THE POSSIBLE ANSWERS BEFORE YOU saccharine, overoptimistic mood at odds with the novel’s
MAKE YOUR FINAL CHOICE more .....................tone.
(A) applauded...sombre
Never decide on an answer before you have read all the choices. (B) condemned...hopeful
You are looking for the word that best fits the meaning of the (C) acclaimed...positive
sentence as a whole. In order to be sure you have not been hasty (D) denounced...sanguine
in making your decision, substitute all the answer choices for the (E) decried...acerbic
missing word. Do not spend a lot of time doing so, but do try For a quick, general sense of the opening clause, break it up.
them all. That way you can satisfy yourself that you have come What does it say? Critics……….the movie’s sugary sweet mood.
up with the best answer.
How would critics react to something sugary sweet and over-
See how this Funda helps you deal with another question.
hopeful? They would disapprove. Your first missing word must
1. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated while it
be a synonym for disapprove.
is still in an .......................state; otherwise it may grow to
dangerous proportions. Now eliminate the misfits. Choices A and C fail to meet the test:
(A) Amorphous (B) overt applauded and acclaimed signify approval, not disapproval.
(C) uncultivated (D) embryonic Choice B, condemned, Choice D, denounced and Choice E,
(E) independent decried, however, all disapprobation; they require a second look.
On the basis of a loose sense of this sentence’s meaning, you To decide among Choices B, D, and E, consider the second blank.
might be tempted to select Choice A. After all, this sentence The movie’s sugary, overly hopeful mood is at odds with the
basically tells you that you should wipe out hatred before it gets novel’s tone: the two moods disagree. Therefore, the novel’s tone
too dangerous. Clearly, if hatred is vague or amorphous, it is less is not hopeful or sugary sweet. It is instead on the bitter or sour
formidable than if it is well defined. However, this reading of the side; in a word, acerbic The correct answer is clearly Choice E.
sentence is inadequate: it fails to take into account the sentence’s
Remember that, in double-blank sentences, the right answer must
key phrase.
correctly fill both blanks. A wrong answer choice often includes
one correct and one incorrect answer. ALWAYS test both words.
The key phrase here is ‘grow to dangerous proportions’. The
writer fears that class and race hatred may grow large enough to FUNDA 4
endanger society. He wants us to wipe out this hatred before it is
fully-grown. Examine each answer choice, eliminating those
WATCH FOR SIGNAL WORDS THAT LINK ONE PART OF
answers that carry no suggestion that something lacks its full THE SENTENCE TO ANOTHER
growth. Does overt suggest that something isn’t fully-grown?
Writers use transitions to link their ideas logically. These
No, it suggests that something is obvious or evident. Does
uncultivated suggest that something isn’t fully grown? No, it transitions or signal words are clues that can help you figure out
suggests that something is unrefined or growing without proper what the sentence actually means. Sentences often contain several
care or training. Does independent suggest that something isn’t signal words, combining them in complex ways.
fully-grown? No, it suggests that something is free and
unconstrained. Only one word suggests a lack of full growth: 1. Cause and Effect Signals
embryonic (at a rudimentary, early stage of development). The Look for words or phrases explicitly indicating that one
correct answer is Choice D. thing causes another or logically determines another.
Cause and Effect signal Words
FUNDA 3 Accordingly in order to Because
IN DOUBLE-BLANK SENTENCES, GO THROUGH THE so...that Consequently Therefore
ANSWERS, TESTING THE FIRST WORD IN EACH CHOICE Given thus Hence
(AND ELIMINATING THOSE THAT DON’T FIT) when….then If….then
SENTENCE COMPLETION S1-17
Look for words or phrases explicitly indicating that the If a word used by the author is unfamiliar, or if an answer choice
omitted portion of the sentence supports or continues a is unknown to you, two approaches are helpful.
thought developed elsewhere in the sentence. In such cases, 1. Break up the word into its component parts - prefixes,
a synonym or near-synonym for another word in the suffixes, and roots - to see whether they provide a clue to
sentence may provide the correct answer. its meaning. For example, in the preceding list of Implicit
Support Signal Words Contrast Signal Words, the word incongruous contains
Additionally furthermore Also three major word parts, in- here means not; con- means
indeed And Likewise together; gru- means to move or conic. Incongruous
as well moreover besides behaviour, therefore, is behaviour that does not go together
too or agree with someone’s usual behaviour; it is unexpected.
2. Contrast Signals (Explicit)
Look for functional words or phrases (conjunctions, 2. Change the unfamiliar word from one part of speech to
adverbs, etc.) that explicitly indicate a contrast between another. If the adjective embryonic is unfamiliar to you, cut
one idea and another, setting up a reversal of a thought. In off its adjective suffix -nic and recognise the familiar word
such cases, an antonym or near-antonym for another word embryo. If the noun precocity is unfamiliar to you cut off its
in the sentence may provide the correct answer. noun suffix -ity and visualise it with different endings. You
Explicit Contrast Signal Words may think of the adjective precocious (maturing early). If
Albeit nevertheless Although the verb appropriate is unfamiliar to you, by adding a word
nonetheless But part or two, you may come up with the common noun
Notwithstanding despite appropriation or the still more common noun
on the contrary even though misappropriation (as in the misappropriation of funds).
on the other hand however
rather than in contrast still Note the application of this Funda in the following typical example.
in spite of while instead of yet 1. This island is a colony; however, in most matters, it is and
3. Contrast Signals (Implicit) receives no orders from the mother country.
Look for content words whose meanings inherently indicate (A) dichotomous (B) methodical
a contrast. These words can turn a situation on its head. (C) heretical (D) autonomous
They indicate that something unexpected, possibly even (E) disinterested
unwanted, has occurred.
Implicit Contrast Signal Words First, eliminate any answer choices that are obviously incorrect.
anomaly Anomalous anomalously If a colony receives no orders from its mother country, it is
illogically illogical essentially self-governing. It is not necessarily methodical or
incongruity incongruous incongruously systematic nor is it by definition heretical (unorthodox) or
irony ironic ironically disinterested (impartial). Thus, you may rule out Choices B, C,
paradox paradoxical paradoxically and E.
surprise surprising surprisingly
unexpected unexpectedly The two answer choices remaining may be unfamiliar to you.
Note the function of such a contrast signal word in the following Analyse them, using what you know of related words. Choice A,
question. dichotomous, is related to the noun dichotomy, a division into
1. Paradoxically, the more ——— the details this artist chooses, two parts, as in the dichotomy between good and evil. Though
the better able she is to depict her fantastic, otherworldly the island colony may be separated from the mother country by
landscapes. distance, that has nothing to do with how the colony governs
(A) ethereal (B) realistic itself Choice D, autonomous, comes from the prefix auto-(self)
(C) fanciful (D) extravagant and the root nom-(law). An autonomous nation is independent; it
(E) sublime rules itself. Thus, the correct answer is autonomous Choice D.
The artist creates imaginary landscapes that do not seem to belong
to this world. We normally would expect the details comprising
FUNDA 6
these landscapes to be as fantastic and supernatural as the BREAK UP COMPLEX SENTENCES INTO SIMPLER
landscapes themselves. But the truth of the matter, however, is COMPONENTS
paradoxical: it contradicts what we expect. The details she chooses
are realistic, and the more realistic they are, the more fantastic the In analysing long, complex sentence completion items, you may
paintings become. The correct answer is Choice B. find it useful to simplify the sentences by breaking them up.
Rephrase dependent clauses and long participal phrases, turning
FUNDA 5 them into simple sentences.
USE YOUR KNOWLEDGE OF WORD PARTS AND PARTS See how this Funda helps you to analyse the following sentence.
OF SPEECH TO FIGURE OUT THE MEANINGS OF 1. Museum director Hoving ——— refers to the smuggled
Greek urn as the “hot pot;” not because there are doubts
UNFAMILIAR WORDS
about its authenticity or even great reservations as to its
EBD_7203
S1-18 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
price, but because its ——— of acquisition is open to Note that in sentence completion questions a choice may he
question. complicated by an unusual word order, such as:
(A) informally…..costliness 1. placing the subject after the verb: To the complaints window
(B) characteristically…..date strode the angry customer.
(C) colloquially…..manner 2. placing the subject after an auxiliary of the verb: Only by
(D) repeatedly…..swiftness unending search could some few Havana cigars be found.
(E) cheerfully.....m ode 3. inverting the subject and verb to give the sense of “if”:
Were defeat to befall him today’s dear friends would be
What do we know?
tomorrow’s acquaintances, and next week’s strangers.
1. The urn has been smuggled.
4 placing a negative word or phrase first’ which usually
2. Hoving calls it a “hot pot.”
requires at least part of the verb to follow: Never have I
3. It is genuine. (There are no doubts about its authenticity.)
encountered so demanding a test!
4. It did not cost too much. (There are no great reservations as
to its price.) In all these instances, rephrase the sentence to make it more
straightforward. For example :
In calling the smuggled urn a “hot pot, “ Hoving is not necessarily
1. The angry customer strode to the complaints window.
speaking characteristically or redundantly or cheerfully. He is
2. Some few Havana cigars could be found only by unending
speaking either informally or colloquially. (Hot here is a slang
search.
term meaning stolen or illegally obtained.) Its costliness is not
3. If defeat were to befall him, today’s dear friends would be
being questioned. However, because the urn has been smuggled
tomorrow’s acquaintances, and next week’s strangers.
into the country, there clearly are unresolved questions about
4. I have never encountered so demanding a test!
how it got here, in other words, about its manner of acquisition.
The correct answer is Choice C.

EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (Q. 1-46) : Each of the following items is followed 7. It is inconceivable that in many schools children are
by four words or group of words. Fill in the blanks with the subjected to physical _________ in the name of
appropriate word or group of words. discipline.
1. Although I was _________ of his plans, I encouraged him, (a) violation (b) exercise
because there was no one else who was willing to help. (c) violence (d) security
(a) sceptical (b) remorseful 8. We have not yet fully realised the _________ consequences
(c) fearful (d) excited of the war.
2. You have no business to _________ pain on a weak and (a) happy (b) pleasing
poor person. (c) grim (d) exciting
(a) inflict (b) put 9. The scholar was so .............. in his field that many of our
(c) direct (d) force professors became nervous in his presence.
3. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite rich. She (a) eminent (b) pathological
suddenly _________ all her uncle’s money. (c) petulant (d) amiable
(a) succeeded (b) caught 10. Criticism that tears down without suggesting areas of
(c) gave (d) inherited improvement is not .............. and should be avoided if
4. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. The pilot possible.
_________ did not see the tower.
(a) constructive (b) mandatory
(c) pertinent (d) sagacious
(a) likely (b) probably
(c) scarcely (d) hurriedly 11. Language, culture and personality may be considered
5. I had a vague _________ that the lady originally belonged independently of each other in thought, but they are ..............
to Scotland. in fact.
(a) notion (b) expression (a) equivocal (b) pervasive
(c) imagination (d) theory (c) inseparable (d) autonomous
6. The prisoner showed no _________ for his crimes. 12. The people of Europe came to India .............. for riches,
(a) hatred (b) obstinacy followed quickly by the desire to rule.
(c) remorse (d) anger (a) basically (b) fundamentally
(c) primarily (d) seemingly
SENTENCE COMPLETION S1-19
13. You may wonder how the expert on fossil remains is able to 25. Fast food restaurants have become popular because many
trace descent through teeth, which seem .............. pegs upon working people want ............... .
which to hang whole ancestries. (a) to eat quickly and cheaply
(a) reliable (b) inadequate (b) eating quickly and cheaply
(c) novel (d) specious (c) eat quickly and cheaply
14. He was .............. very clever, but he .............. performed (d) the eat quickly and cheaply
excellently. 26. Our _____ to understand the process of learning underlying
(a) certainly- obviously (b) never- also Behavior change is _____by the fact that any given behavior
(c) not- always (d) rarely- seldom is determined jointly by many processes.
15. A .............. analysis of these substances will show that they
(a) nature, determined (b) implication, followed
differ .............. .
(a) random- minutely (b) detailed- essentially (c) scope, preceded (d) attempt, complicated
(c) careful- completely (d) final- Structurally 27. Not all countries benefit_____from liberalization, the
16. We were amazed that a man who had been the most .............. benefits tend to_____first to the advantaged and to those
public speakers could, in a single speech electrify an with the right education to be able to benefit from the
audience and bring the cheering crowd to their feet. opportunities presented :
(a) enthralling (b) accomplished (a) equally, generate (b) suitably, ascribe
(c) pedestrian (d) masterful (c) richly, downgrade (d) uniformally, percolate
17. Education is central because electronic networks and 28. Unless new reserves are found soon, the world’s supply of
software-driven technologies are beginning to ......... the coal is being_____in such a way that with demand
economic barriers between the nations. continuing to grow at present rates reserves will be_____by
(a) Break down (b) Break the year 2050?
(c) Crumble (d) Dismantle (a) consumed, completed (b) reduced, augmented
18. Professionals focus their ........ on fulfilling their (c) depleted, exhausted (d) burnt, destroyed
responsibilities and achieving results, not on ......... a
29. In the absence of native predators to stop the spread of
particular image.
their population, the imported goats ________ to such an
(a) leadership - attributing (b) planning - devising
inordinate degree that they over–grazed the countryside
(c) abilities - contributing (d) energies - portraying
and ________ the native vegetation.
19. When you are living with your ........ values and principles,
(a) suffered, abandoned
you can be straightforward, honest and ........
(a) inherited - distinct (b) core -up-front (b) propagated, cultivated
(c) innate - durable (d) cultural - perceptive (c) thrived, threatened
20. In the role of a counsellor, you are an authority figure whose (d) dwindled, eliminated
objective is to ....... attentively and sensitively to employees 30. Carried away by the ________ effects of the experimental
who .......... you with their feelings. medication, the patient ________ his desire to continue as
(a) manage - direct (b) projects - focus a subject for as long as he could.
(c) listen - trust (d) concentrate - believe (a) noxious, proclaimed
21. If a junior executive neglects his professional development (b) supplementary, announced
and ............ education, he can easily and quickly become (c) frantic, repeated
obsolete in a world changing at ............ rates.
(d) salutary, reiterated
(a) higher - vulnerable
(b) management - voluminous 31. Being a bit hesitant about.........the man as the complete fraud
(c) better - supreme he suspected him to be, he chose to attack the weaker points
(d) continuing - dizzying of his theory,...........them one by one:
22. .............. the reactions of people with amnesia, scientists are (a) ridiculing, proving
learning about the process of memory of the brain. (b) denouncing, debunking
(a) By studying (b) To study (c) castigating, strengthening
(c) They study (d) They are studying (d) mocking, destroying
23. I hope she ............... . 32. The analysis of the coach's report was anything but ..............
(a) must come (b) should come but those of us who have learned to discount such dismal
(c) will come (d) must be coming ............are optimistic:
24. Encounters between people from different countries can (a) sanguinary, traps
result in misunderstandings .............. different conceptions
(b) pessimistic, confusion
about space.
(c) malicious, benefits
(a) because they (b) is because they
(c) is because their (d) of their (d) pleasant, prognostications
EBD_7203
S1-20 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
33. The best punctuation is that of which the reader is least 42. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given
conscious; for when punctuation, of lack of it, ______ below to complete the following sentence :
itself, it is usually because it _____ His rather casual remarks on politics ___________ his lack
(a) conceals, recedes (b) enjoins fails of seriousness about the subject. [GATE 2010, 1 Mark]
(c) obtrudes, offends (d) effaces, counts (a) masked (b) belied
34. Companies that try to improve employees' performance by (c) betrayed (d) suppressed
_______rewards encourage negative kinds of behaviour,
43. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given
instead of _______a genuine interest in doing the work
below to complete the following sentence.
well.
(a) conferring, discrediting If you are trying to make a strong impression on your
(b) bestowing, discouraging audience, you cannot do so by being understated, tentative
(c) giving, seeking or __________ [GATE 2011, 1 Mark]
(d) withholding, fostering (a) hyperbolic (b) restrained
35. A growing number of th ese expert profession als (c) argumentative (d) indifferent
_______having to train foreigners as the students end 44. Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given
up _____the teachers who have to then unhappily contend below to complete the following sentence.
with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay I contemplated ________ Singapore for my vacation but
packets. decided against it. [GATE 2011, 1 Mark]
(a) welcome, assisting (b) resist, challenging (a) to visit (b) having to visit
(c) resent, replacing (d) are, supplanting (c) visiting (d) for a visit
36. The law prohibits a person from felling a sandalwood tree 45. Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options
even if it grows on one’s own land, without prior permission given below to complete the following sentence :
from the government. As poor people cannot deal with the
Suresh’s dog is the one _________ was hurt in the
government, this legal provision leads to a rip-roaring
stampede. [GATE 2012, 1 Mark]
business for________who care neither for
the_________nor for the trees. (a) that (b) which
(a) middlemen, rich (b) touts, rich (c) who (d) all of these
(c) the government, poor (d) touts, poor 46. Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options
37. The best punctuation is that of which the reader is least given below to complete the following sentence :
conscious; for when punctuation, or lack of it,_______itself, Despite several ________ the mission succeeded in its
it is usually because it_________. attempt to resolve the conflict. [GATE 2012, 1 Mark]
(a) obtrudes, offends (b) carceals, recedes (a) attempts (b) setbacks
(c) enjoins, fails (d) effaces, counts (c) meetings (d) delegations
38. The argument that the need for a looser fiscal policy to 47. Were you a bird, you ____________ in the sky.
_________demand outweighs the need to [GATE 2013, 1 Mark]
_________budget deficits is persuasive. (a) would fly (b) shall fly
(a) assess, minimize (b) stimulate, control (c) should fly (d) shall have flown
(c) outstrip, eliminate (d) restrain, conceal 48. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given
39. This simplified_________to the decision - making process
below to complete the following sentence.
is a must read for anyone_________important real estate,
He could not understand the judges awarding her the first
personal, or professional decisions.
(a) primer, maximizing (b) introduction, under prize, because he thought that her performance was
(c) tract, enacting (d) guide, facing quite______. [GATE 2014, Set-1, 1 Mark]
40. ______ the general had been told by the field staff that (a) superb (b) medium
continuing warfare would be ________ to his soldiers, he (c) mediocre (d) exhilarating
insisted on deploying more battle tanks. 49. Who ___________ was coming to see us this evening?
(a) Because...instrumental [GATE 2014, Set-2, 1 Mark]
(b) Although...detrimental (a) you said (b) did you say
(c) Although...formidable (c) did you say that (d) had you said
(d) Because...immediate 50. If she _______________ how to calibrate the instrument,
41. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given she _______________ done the experiment.
below to complete the following sentence : [GATE 2014, Set-3, 1 Mark]
[GATE 2010, 1 Mark] (a) knows, will have
If we manage to __________ our natural resources, we (b) knew, had
would leave a better planet for our children.
(c) had known, could have
(a) uphold (b) restrain
(d) should have known, would have
(c) cherish (d) conserve
SENTENCE COMPLETION S1-21

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


1. (a) The word ‘sceptical’ means suspicious or doubtful. 13. (b) Reliable means something that can be trusted,
2. (a) The word ‘inflict’ means burden someone with or inadequate insufficient, novel is of a new kind and
impose. specious means false or misleading. According to the
sentence the expert is able to trace the descent of fossil,
3. (d) The word ‘inherit’ means become heir to or take over.
so, it cannot seem reliable, what is would seem will be
4. (b) The word ‘probably’ means likely (very/most). a word opposite to sufficient or reliable and that is
5. (a) Vague notion is a right choice. Imagination is in itself inadequate.
vague (unclear). While expressions cannot be vague. 14. (c) Since, there is a but between the two parts of the
Theory is out of place for the context. Thoughts can sentence, the passive words should be antonyms. (a)
be vague or unclear or unstable. and (d), thus, get eliminated never - also do not fit the
6. (c) Remorse is an emotion/action/feeling after the crime is sense of the sentence properly thus, not - always are
done. Hatred is for the other people who saw/hear/ the most suitable fillers for the given sentence.
gone through crime but certainly not for the prisoner. 15. (c) An analysis must be careful, it may or may not be
Crime is done in anger and a cause. Obstinacy is detailed and final. It certainly should bot be random,
stubbornness. Only emotion that suits the context is thus, (a) is eliminated of the remaining careful is the
Remorse. most appropriate choice for this sentence.
7. (c) If it would have been 'security' then it would have 16. (c) Enthralling is something that will excite, accomplished
been 'provided' in the statement not 'subjected'. is skilled and so is masterful, pedestrian means
Exercise does not fit. Violation (to breech) is also out ordinary. The sentence says that everyone was amazed
of place. Use of 'physical' in statement indicates that the speaker was an ordinary speaker and not a
'violence'. It fits best in the blank. skilled speaker.
8. (c) War is a negative word and it is synonym with mass 17. (d) Dismantle (to disassemble or pull down; take apart) is
destruction, death h ence certainly has grim the right usage in the context of the passage.
consequences. Happy, Pleasing, exciting all have 18. (d) 'Professionals focus their energies' is the best choice.
positive sense; so can not be linked with war. Further an image is portrayed.
9. (a) Eminent means very respected or famous in one’s 19. (b) The only word which goes well with straightforward
profession or field, petulant means peevish or irritable, and honest is up-front. Durable is used for a thing not
pathological refers to disease and amiable means a person.
friendly. 20. (c) 'to listen attentively and sensitively' and 'trust you
10. (a) Mandatory means compulsory, pertinent means with their feelings' is the right usage.
relevant and sagacious is showing wisdom, while 21. (d) In the context of the text, continuing education seems
constructive means useful and positive. to be the best usage. As the world is changing very
11. (c) Equivocal means ambiguous or vague, pervasive means fast so one has to continuously upgrade himself as
something to be found everywhere, inseparable are per the new requirements.
things that cannot be separated from each other and 22. (a) There cannot be a subject in the first part of the
autonomous means independent is followed by a ‘but’ sentence as the same subject is given on the second
so the noun or adjective that follows should be part so (c) and (d) are eliminated. To study is the
opposite in meaning to Independent. Thus, inseparable infinitive verb which will not be used here, because
is the right answer. it suggests the action which is the affect and not the
12. (c) The sense of sentence says that Europeans came to cause. e.g. ‘To gain something you have to lose
India for A but after this they did B. So, A is the first something else’.
choice. Now, of the given words, we can choose the By studying is the right answer because this gives
word synonymous with first, basically suggests the the cause for the verb in the latter part of the
chief ground reason, fundamentally means essentially, sentence.
primarily means apparently. Primarily, therefore, is the 23. (c) Modals such as must or should cannot be used with
most apt answer for this sentence. ‘hope’.
EBD_7203
S1-22 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
24. (d) ‘because’ cannot be used as the conjunction in this 33. (c) The best option for the first blank is obtrudes which
sentence because for the sentence to be complete it means to make something noticed especially in a way
should be followed by an ‘of’, i.e., because of their, that is not wanted. Also offends is the right word for
since this is not the option ‘of their’ is the most the second blank which is clear from the meaning of
appropriate use. the word obtrude (making noticeable in an unwanted
25. (a) The confusion is between (a) & (b), but ‘want’ is way).
usually followed by the to + verb form and not verb 34. (d) Withholding rewards will encourage negative
+ ing form. behaviour instead of fostering (bringing about)
26. (a) Among the given options, (a) seems to be most genuine interest.
appropriate in the context of the sentence. 35. (b) Expert professionals are having to train, and students
27. (d) From the second part of the sentence it is clear that the supplant (replace) teachers.
author is taking about unequal benefits, so only 36. (d) The touts persuade the people to sell illegally thereby
equally or uniformally suit the first blank. Clearly making a profit, not caring about either the poor or the
percolate (which means filter) is the right word for the trees.
second blank. 37. (d) Obtrude means forcing on someone, thus, when
28. (c) Exhausted is the correct word for the second blank as punctuation obtrudes it is because it offends.
reserves are exhausted and not completed or 38. (b) The need of lesser fiscal policy to stimulate demand is
augmented or destroyed. Further depleted fills the first greater than the need to control budget deficit.
blank correctly - ‘as the words supply of coal is being 39. (c) The pair of words guide and facing fit right in, the rest
depleted.’ do not make sense.
29. (c) The use of the word over-gazed clearly tells that the 40. (b) The most appropriate word for the second blank would
native vegetation is under threat, which means the be detrimental as the use of the word insisted indicates
goats must have thrived or propagated. Hence (c) is that they should be a negative word in the second
the correct option. blank. Further as the sentence shows a contrast so
30. (d) Salutary, which means having a good effect on although is a better choice for the first blank.
somebody, though often seeming unpleasant, is the 41. (b)
appropriate choice for the first blank. Further reiterated 42. (a)
rightly fills the second blank. 43. (b) Tone of the sentence clearly indicates a word that is
31. (b) In the context of the sentence, denouncing (criticizing similar to understated is needed for the blank.
somebody that you think is wrong) is the right word Alternatively, word should be antonym of strong (fail
for the first blank. Also debunking (showing that an to make strong impression). Therefore, best choice is
idea/ a belief is false) is the right choice for the second restrained which means controlled/reserved/timid.
blank. Ridiculing and moking are not the right words 44. (c) Contemplate is a transitive verb and hence is followed
as they mean unkind comments that make fun of by a gerund. Hence the correct usage of contemplate
somebody. Castigating (criticizing somebody severely) is verb + ing form.
can also be the right fit in the first blank but 45. (d)
strengthening doesn’t fit in the second blank.
46. (b)
32. (b) The correct choice for the first blank is pessimistic and 47. (a)
for the second blank is confusion. The use of the word 48. (c) Mediocre means Anerge.
pessimistic in the first blank means that the analysis of 49. (b)
the coach’s report was not pessimistic and can’t be 50. (c) had known, could have
clearly understood (hence creating a situation of
confusion). Sanguinary (which means involving killing u u u
and blood) is too harsh a word to be used in the first
blank. Malicious (which means feeling of hatred for
somebody) cannot be used with analysis of a report.
3 Synonyms and Antonyms
This is the other very important area of the vocabulary section. STRATEGY 2
This section tests widely and exhaustively one’s knowledge of If you cannot find a correct antonym in the given option think of
the language and word power, but goes beyond that to test your the antonyms you know of and subsequently check if there is
ability to remember words with similar meanings or opposite any word in the given options which is synonymous to the
meanings. Or, alternately, to discover the similarity or proximity antonyms in your mind. For example
between the meaning of the given word with one of those in the Industrious
options. (a) stupid (b) harsh (c) indolent (d) complex
These exercises can get confusing sometimes because more than If you don’t know any of the words given as options think of
one option may appear as the right answer or none of them may antonyms you could think of, like lazy, idle. Now think of
look like the right answer. For such questions a student may synonyms of lazy and you will know indolent is a synonym of
consider the following strategies. lazy. So it will be the antonym to industrious. Formula ®
STRATEGY 1 SYNONYM of ANTONYM is another ANTONYM.
If you do not know the meaning of the given word, think of a STRATEGY 3
context in which you might have used it, that may help you to Look at the part of speech of the given verb. A word may exist in
figure out the meaning, for example, in the question find the word various parts of speech. For example precipitate exists as a verb
nearest in meaning to which means send rapidly into a certain state and also as a noun,
Magnify precipitate, which means a substance deposited from a solution.
(a) Forgive (b) diminish (c) swell (d) extract Polish
Now if you do not know what magnify means think of a magnifying (a) ruthlessness (b) honesty (c) indolence (d) gaucheness
glass and what it does. It expands or makes a thing look bigger. Now is this the verb polish or noun polish. Since all options are
So the right answer will be (c). nouns, this cannot be the verb polish related to shoes but noun
polish which means culture and sophistication and the antonym
to this would be gaucheness.
EBD_7203
S1-24 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE

EXERCISE
SYNONYMS 17. PATRONAGE
(a) donation (b) support
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-80): Pick out the nearest correct meaning
(c) espionage (d) beneficiary
or synonym of the words given below:
18. TRAVERSE
1. ADVICE (a) mingle (b) frustrate
(a) council (b) counsel (c) take (d) cross
(c) practice (d) proposal 19. FOUND
2. MISERABLE (a) see (b) establish
(a) object (b) obstruct (c) realize (d) search
(c) abject (d) abstract 20. RECUPERATE
3. QUOTE (a) recapture (b) reclaim
(a) sight (b) sigh (c) recover (d) regain
(c) sue (d) cite 21. ALMS
4. HARMONY (a) blessings (b) charity
(a) cemetery (b) ceremony (c) prayers (d) worship
(c) symmetry (d) hierarchy 22. ATTENUATE
5. UNLAWFUL (a) repent (b) make thin
(a) elicit (b) draw (c) force (d) divide
(c) illegitimate (d) illicit 23. VINDICTIVE
6. HAUGHTY (a) revengeful (b) triumphant
(a) imperial (b) imperious (c) strategic (d) demonstrative
(c) adamant (d) empire 24. DISCOMFIT
7. WISE (a) litigate (b) ease
(a) momentous (b) pragmatic (c) conflict (d) frustrate
(c) judicious (d) delay 25. WRATH
8. LOQUACIOUS (a) violence (b) anger
(a) Victorian (b) bombastic (c) hatred (d) displeasing
(c) verbose (d) ambiguous 26. ABSTINENCE
9. COURAGEOUS (a) synchronic (b) torrential
(a) fickle (b) insipid (c) restraint (d) gluttony
(c) timorous (d) fearless 27. ERUDITE
10. WATCHFULNESS (a) execute (b) expanse
(a) Supervision (b) Custody (c) academic (d) settle
(c) Superintendence (d) Vigil 28. TACITURNITY
11. ATTACHMENT (a) dumbness (b) changeableness
(a) Affinity (b) Influence
(c) hesitation (d) reserve
(c) Causation (d) Appendage
29. ANIMATE
12. WEARY
(a) kill (b) dead
(a) Tired (b) Fatigued
(c) energise (d) calm
(c) Sentimental (d) Emotional
30. NIGGARDLY
13. BEQUEST
(a) penurious (b) generous
(a) Parsimony (b) matrimony
(c) heritage (d) patrimony (c) liberal (d) nimbus
14. GULLIBLE 31. BLITHE
(a) credible (b) believable (a) joyless (b) grudging
(c) credulous (d) fallible (c) somnolent (d) cheerful
15. BRAVERY 32. CAPTIVATE
(a) onslaught (b) arrogant (a) repel (b) subjugate
(c) fortitude (d) nepotism (c) dangerous (d) fascinate
16. JEALOUS 33. REDEEM
(a) obvious (b) atrocious (a) extend (b) fulfil
(c) envious (d) ferocious (c) reconsider (d) recover
SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS S1-25
34. BLAND 53. ANNEX
(a) unpleasant (b) irritating (a) add (b) low
(c) affable (d) tasteless (c) copy (d) initial
35. VISIONARY 54. MENAGE
(a) dreaming (b) savant (a) suffocation (b) system
(c) philosopher (d) saint (c) law (d) household
36. REVOKE 55. DILEMMA
(a) repudiate (b) repeal (a) darkness (b) freedom
(c) impute (d) force (c) trap (d) confusion
37. REPRISAL 56. RIGMAROLE
(a) denial (b) reluctance (a) short-cut
(c) unequivocal (d) retaliation (b) lengthy procedure
38. FASTIDIOUS (c) unnecessary burden
(a) faint (b) dainty (d) happy responsibility
(c) delicious (d) dormant 57. TRANSCEND
39. ATTRIBUTE
(a) lower (b) climb
(a) Infer (b) impute
(c) energise (d) cross
(c) inhere (d) inundate
58. IMPERATIVE
40. DIALECTIC
(a) order (b) command
(a) argumentative (b) instructive
(c) suggestion (d) necessity
(c) constructive (d) destructive
41. GERMINATE 59. EXEMPT
(a) decay (b) breed (a) duty (b) provide
(c) produce (d) sprout (c) relieve (d) forgive
42. EFFICACY 60. INFIRMITY
(a) delicacy (b) ruthlessness (a) disease (b) malady
(c) efficiency (d) solemnity (c) weakness (d) slimness
43. MAGNATE 61. IMMINENT
I) tycoon (b) senior executive (a) eminent (b) immediate
(c) non-magnetic (d) symbolic (c) future (d) impending
44. FACET 62. CHASTE
(a) sweet (b) tap (a) Filthy (b) Lewd
(c) deceit (d) aspect (c) Immoral (d) Noble
45. PERNICIOUS 63. FEMINITY
(a) deadly (b) curious (a) Cowardice (b) Manly
(c) gorgeous (d) expensive (c) Angelic (d) Inheritant
46. PERSUADE 64. CURVATURE
(a) assure (b) opinionated (a) Angularity (b) Straightness
(c) convince (d) cheat (c) Short-cut (d) Streamline
47. FORTIFY 65. SUMMIT
(a) topple (b) destroy (a) Base (b) Slope
(c) reproduce (d) strengthen (c) Declivity (d) Peak
48. PHENOMENAL 66. WEAN
(a) incidental (b) eventful (a) Introduce (b) Withdraw
(c) natural (d) extraordinary (c) Detach (d) Alienate
49. PARADIGM 67. MENDACIOUS
(a) solution (b) model (a) false (b) misleading
(c) discovery (d) invention (c) provocative (d) truthful
50. HONORARY 68. OSTRACISED
(a) honest (b) dignified (a) hated (b) shut out from the society
(c) unpaid (d) praiseworthy (c) criticized (d) applauded by the majority
51. FACULTY 69. SPURIOUS
(a) privilege (b) desire (a) false (b) harmful
(c) branch (d) ability (c) poisonous (d) foreign
52. FORESEE 70. OBNOXIOUS
(a) contemplate (b) visualise (a) clever (b) shrewd
(c) assume (d) hypothesis (c) disagreeable (d) outdated
EBD_7203
S1-26 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
71. PERNICIOUS 85. Match the columns. [GATE 2014, Set-2, 1 Mark]
(a) radical (b) baneful Column 1 Column 2
(c) scientific (d) negative 1) eradicate P) misrepresent
72. RECTIFY 2) distort Q) soak completely
(a) to command (b) to correct 3) saturate R) use
(c) to destroy (d) to build 4) utilize S) destroy utterly
73. CORDON (a) 1:S, 2:P, 3:Q, 4:R (b) 1:P, 2:Q, 3:R, 4:S
(a) pile of logs (b) heavy cloak (c) 1:Q, 2:R, 3:S, 4:P (d) 1:S, 2:P, 3:R, 4:Q
(c) line of people placed as guard 86. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to
(d) none of these the phrase underlined in the sentence below?
74. CONCERT It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied
(a) beauty (b) power environmental conditions. [2014, Set-1, 1 Mark]
(c) agreement (d) none of these (a) adopt to (b) adapt to
75. MITIGATE (c) adept in (d) accept with
(a) to heal (b) soothen
(c) to pardon (d) to send on a mission ANTONYMS
76. DEVOID DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-75) : Pick out the antonym of the words
(a) evasive (b) hopeless given below:
(c) lacking (d) stupid 1. IMPLICATE
77. RESOLVED (a) appease (b) exonerate
(a) summarized (b) dispelled (c) adore (d) advocate
(c) determined (d) hanged 2. VACILLATING
78. APPOSITE (a) fascinating (b) fanaticism
(a) appropriate (b) foolish (c) indolence (d) resolute
(c) paiuful (d) none of these 3. RECKLESS
(a) modest (b) awkward
79. BUOYANT
(c) celebrated (d) cautious
(a) childlike (b) sturdy
4. INSULT
(c) brisk (d) light-hearted
(a) Humiliation (b) Credulity
80. INFIRM
(c) Degradation (d) Honour
(a) Sturdy (b) Anxious
5. ABANDON
(c) Patient (d) feeble
(a) Roost (b) Forfeit
81. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning (c) quit (d) Forsake
to the word below : [GATE 2010, 1 mark] 6. OFFEND
Circuitous (a) angry (b) hate
(a) cyclic (b) indirect (c) force (d) respect
(c) confusing (d) crooked 7. INDICT
82. Which of the following options is the closest in the meaning (a) condemn (b) reprimand
to the word below : [GATE 2011, 1 mark] (c) acquit (d) allege
Inexplicable 8. OBSCENE
(a) Incomprehensible (a) decent (b) objectionable
(b) Indelible (c) condemnable (d) jealousy
(c) Inextricable 9. LIBERATE
(d) Infallible (a) imprison (b) enclose
83. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning (c) liberal (d) conceal
to the word given below? [GATE 2012, 1 mark] 10. MELANCHOLY
Mitigate (a) depressed (b) prejudiced
(a) Diminish (b) Divulge (c) reckless (d) cheerful
(c) Dedicate (d) Denote 11. LEGITIMATE
84. Which one of the following options is the closest in (a) valid (b) extend
meaning to the word given below? (c) unlawful (d) distinguished
Nadir [GATE 2013, 1 Mark] 12. VACILLATE
(a) Highest (b) Lowest (a) amplify (b) stimulate
(c) Medium (d) Integration (c) consistent (d) eradicate
SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS S1-27
13. HINDER 28. FRAIL
(a) expidite (b) protect (a) worried (b) strong
(c) devote (d) create (c) nervous (d) wily
14. TERSE 29. CRUDE
(a) lengthy (b) scarce (a) classical (b) graceful
(c) diffuse (d) headless (c) natural (d) polished
15. MULTIPLICITY 30. RETRIBUTION
(a) finite (b) uniformity (a) compensation (b) forgiveness
(c) magnitude (d) infinite (c) contempt (d) grudge
16. NAIVE 31. PROCLAIM
(a) subtle (b) energise (a) denounce (b) pretend
(c) spotless (d) clever (c) attend (d) distend
17. ANACHRONISTIC 32. SUMPTUOUS
(a) formerly (b) present (a) irritable (b) meagre
(c) futuristic (d) non-existing (c) fancy (d) sad
18. TRAIT 33. FEIGN
(a) symbol (b) uncharacteristic (a) condone (b) attend
(c) habit (d) identity (c) willing (d) original
19. GARISH 34. INSIPID
(a) tasteful (b) green (a) witty (b) meagre
(c) scenic (d) contrasting (c) wily (d) lucid
20. GEOLOGICAL 35. SALUBRIOUS
(a) astral (b) solar (a) sticky (b) soft
(c) galactic (d) heavenly (c) famous (d) malaise
21. REJUVENATION 36. REFULGENT
(a) sexual (b) perfect (a) angry (b) dull
(c) killing (d) magical (c) sad (d) lament
22. ORIGIN 37. INNOCUOUS
(a) ointment (b) detergent (a) offensive (b) harmless
(c) remnant (d) comfort (c) organic (d) anger
23. APATHETIC 38. AFFECTATION
(a) agitated (b) happy (a) sincerity (b) humility
(c) concerned (d) surprised (c) stirring (d) affluent
24. HOMOGENISED 39. LUMINOUS
(a) set type (b) multi-coloured (a) dark (b) ludicrous
(c) different (d) rejected (c) unsteady (d) provoking
25. PROVE 40. INTRICACY
(a) vapid (b) assume (a) ornate (b) simplicity
(c) disincline (d) atone (c) distance (d) cordiality
26. ACCOLADE 41. AMELIORATE
(a) balcony (b) outer garment (a) amend (b) gyrate
(c) drink (d) criticism (c) sweeten (d) worsen
27. INSTANTLY 42. LACKADAISICAL
(a) repeatedly (b) lately (a) abundant (b) energetic
(c) gradually (d) awkwardly (c) theatrical (d) actual
EBD_7203
S1-28 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
43. CAPRICIOUS 61. PROFANE
(a) thoughtful (b) specious (a) pious (b) kitten
(c) energy (d) wild
(c) carcinogenic (d) capacious
62. DOMINATE
44. PERFIDIOUS (a) defeat (b) succumb
(a) loyal (b) treacherous (c) threaten (d) sheepish
(c) religious (d) humane 63. UNFATHOMABLE
(a) comprehensible (b) sinkable
45. ENNUI (c) uncomfortable (d) infallible
(a) sticky (b) activity 64. TERMINATION
(c) start (d) yearly (a) endeavouring (b) beginning
46. LASCIVIOUS (c) amendment (d) phasing
(a) devout (b) fluid 65. INSPIRED
(c) chaste (d) stable (a) discouraged (b) extracted
47. CONSCIENTIOUS (c) negated (d) admired
(a) cruel (b) licentious 66. PARTICIPATE
(c) careless (d) whip (a) precipitate (b) change
48. PERIGEE (c) disengage (d) boycott
(a) apogee (b) hybrid 67. EGALITARIAN
(c) descent (d) night (a) unequal (b) socialist
49. FLUCTUATE (c) capitalist (d) liberal
(a) conceive (b) stabilise 68. DEFICIENCY
(c) energise (d) emancipate (a) abundance (b) deficit
50. RADICAL (c) ill (d) profit
(a) superficial (b) slow 69. FLOURISH
(c) narrow (d) simple (a) improve (b) retard
51. ACCORD (c) hamper (d) stop
(a) concord (b) policy 70. VENEER
(c) dissent (d) act (a) exterior (b) interior
52. HAPLESS (c) impression (d) armour
(a) lucky (b) kind 71. DICTATORSHIP
(c) helpful (d) futile (a) democracy (b) tyranny
53. FRIVOLOUS (c) aristocracy (d) self-rule
(a) trivial (b) significant 72. EVENTUALLY
(c) fearless (d) permissive (a) primarily (b) resultantly
54. INTEGRAL (c) initially (d) objectively
(a) minor (b) major 73.73. PHENOMENAL
(c) essential (d) independent (a) ordinary (b) experiential
55. HOLISTIC (c) natural (d) spiritual
(a) negative (b) piecemeal 74. NONCHALANT
(c) impure (d) inadequate (a) fearful (b) cowardly
56. EXTENSION (c) patriotic (d) excited
(a) diminution (b) condensation 75. ABOMINATE
(c) deletion (d) subtraction (a) love (b) loathe
57. INDIGENTLY (c) abhor (d) despise
(a) richly (b) awfully 76. Choose the word from the options given below that is most
(c) completely (d) diligency nearly opposite in meaning to the given word :
58. AUDACITY [GATE 2011, 1 Mark]
(a) quivering (b) patricide Amalgamate
(c) bravado (d) cowardice (a) merge (b) split
59. WORTHY
(c) collect (d) separate
(a) unimportant (b) valuable
77. Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word
(c) undeserving (d) ugly
“coherent”. [GATE 2014, Set-3, 1 Mark]
60. ELEVATION
(a) sticky (b) well-connected
(a) depression (b) deflation
(c) rambling (d) friendly
(c) depreciation (d) recession
SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS S1-29

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


SYNONYMS 20. (c) Once I fall ill, it takes me long to recuperate. That is, I
1. (b) counsel also means ‘legal adviser’. take a long time to recover my health or strength after
2. (c) abject means helpless, miserable, despicable situation, I have been ill. Convalesce is another synonym of
obstruct means to hinder, abstract is the literal opposite recuperate. Convalescence is the period or process of
of concrete, real. becoming healthy and well again after an illness or
3. (d) sight means scene, sue means to file a Suit. operation.
4. (c) cemetery means graveyards, hierarchy means a system 21. (b) When a cyclone affects an area, the people are deprived
of society in which people are graded into different of their belongings. You then give them money, clothes,
classes according to certain norms, harmony is when food etc. Such gifts to the poor and needy are called
many things work together in the same mode. alms. Since they are given out of charity (kindness
and tolerance), these gifts are also known as charity.
5. (d) illicit means not sanctioned by law, elicit means to draw
a response with difficulty, illegitimate means illegal/ 22. (b) You are familiar with the word tenuous. Attenuate also
unlawful comes from the same Latin root tenuis (= thin). If you
attenuate something, you make it slender or thin; you
6. (b) imperial means of an empire or its rulers, adamant means
reduce it in force or value.
firmly or stubbornly, determinedly.
23. (a) Mohan and Yadu were friends. One day, however,
7. (c) judicious means having good sense, momentous
Mohan went to a cricket match alone. There was only
means most important, pragmatic means practical,
one ticket available and he did not want to miss the
treating in a sensible and realistic way.
match for the sake of his friend. When Yadu came to
8. (c) Verbose means using or containing more words than
know of this, he felt aggrieved. Out of vindictiveness,
are needed, ambiguous means having more than one
Yadu bought only one ticket for the next match and
meaning.
left Mohan alone. In other words, Yadu took a revenge
9. (c) fickle means unstable, often changing, not constant,
on Mohan.
not faithful, Insipid means tasteless
24. (d) If you are discomfited by something, it causes you to
10. (d) Vigil
feel slightly embarrassed or confused. In other words,
11. (a) Affinity it, frustrates you.
12. (b) Fatigued 25. (b) Wrath is extreme anger.
13. (c) heritage 26. (c) If you abstain from something, you deliberately do
14. (c) credulous not do it. Abstinence, however, is a particular kind of
15. (c) Onslaught means ‘attack’; arrogant means ‘full of abstaining —that from alcoholic drink, sex etc, often
pride’ for health or religious reasons. If you abstain from
16. (c) Obvious means ‘clear’, ‘atrocious’ means ‘cruel’, drinking, you do not get drunk. Abstinence does not
ferocious means full of anger. refer to “drink” only,
17. (b) Classical music today is in need of patronage. Earlier, 27. (c) An erudite person is scholarly. He or she is full of learning.
its patrons were the maharajas. Classical musicians Now, where does a learned person get his or her learning
were honoured in the royal courts. They were given all from? From the world of education or books. In other
the support necessary to let their art flourish. words, the person has an academic orientation.
18. (d) How did you traverse the river? That is, how did you 28. (d) A taciturn person is not dumb. A dumb person can’t
go from one side of it to the other? In other words, speak. A taciturn person can speak but does not want
how did you cross it? If you traverse an area of land or to. In other words, he maintains a reserve.
water, you go across it. Traverse is a literary word. 29. (c) As an adjective, animate simply means “having life”.
19. (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of Brahmo Samaj. For example: Plants and animals are animate objects.
In other words, he established it. (5) is thus rejected because boisterous means “lively,
cheerful”. Now, as a verb: If you animate something,
EBD_7203
S1-30 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
you make it lively or more cheerful. Thus you put 40. (a) In philosophy, dialectics is a method of reasoning and
energy into it. In other words, you energise it. Note: reaching conclusions by considering theories and
Boisterous is a synonym of the adjective animated. ideas together with ones that contradict them. Such
30. (a) If someone is niggardly, he shows lack of generosity. contradictions lead to argumentation and often
Thus generous (2) would be its antonym. But we are degenerate into arguments.
looking for a synonym. None of the words is a fit 41. (d) When a seed germinates, it puts forth shoots. In other
synonym. In such cases we go for the word closest in words, it sprouts.
meaning. Both penurious (very poor) and niggardly 42. (c) Efficacy is effectiveness Efficiency is the ability to do
imply a lack of money, though in different senses. a thing successfully. Your efficacy is judged by how
31. (d) One who is blithe is carefree and cheerful. efficient you are.
32. (d) You are captivated by something attractive; It 43. (a) John D Rockefeller was an oil magnate. Onassis was a
fascinates you. shipping tycoon. Both Rockefeller and Onassis were
big businessmen, their spheres being oil (petroleum)
33. (d) I have lost my reputation and nothing can redeem it.
and shipping respectively. Both magnate and tycoon
That is, much though I may try, no good action on my
refer to businessmen who have made it big, their
part can bring my lost reputation back. In other words,
success making them rich and powerful.
I cannot recover my reputation.
44. (d) A facet of something is a single part or aspect of it.
34. (d) That which is bland is rather dull and unexciting.
45. (a) Violence in films has a pernicious influence on our
Doordarshan is infamous for its bland presentations
children. That is, the influence is harmful. Similarly, a
of sports events. Similarly, food can be bland. That is,
deadly situation has harmful consequences. Is heinous
it has very little flavour. In other words, it is tasteless.
a synonym of pernicious? No. Heinous crimes are
35. (a) A visionary is one who has vision for the future. He extremely evil and horrible. When one calls a crime
comes up with strong, original ideas. He can foresee heinous, one is rather disgusted with its horror than
the changes to come and shapes the future, bringing concerned about its harmfulness.
about an improvement. All visionary ideas are dreams 46. (c) If you persuade me to do something, you try to
at one stage. But all dreams do not mature. Most of convince me that it should be done.
them remain pipedreams. Only those few that are 47. (d) When you fortify a place, you make it as if it were a
backed up by the necessary, practical considerations fort. A fort has a wall or ditch round it and is not easy
turn into visionary ideas. to attack. Thus, if you fortify something, you
36. (b) When a law is revoked, it stands cancelled. We can strengthen it.
also say that the law has been repealed. 48. (d) There has been a phenomenal increase in the number
37. (d) When an army operation was launched to bomb the of dish antennas in recent years. That is, the rise in
terrorists, they took the army chief hostage in reprisal. number is much, much more than ordinarily expected.
That is, they mounted pressure on the army because The increase is thus extraordinary — “more than
the army mounted pressure on them. In other words, ordinary”.
they retaliated. 49. (b) A paradigm is a model for something which explains it
38. (b) If you are fastidious, you pay great attention to details. or shows how it can be produced.
You like everything to be very neat, accurate, and 50. (c) Government servants are not allowed to receive money
orderly. A dainty object is small, delicate and pretty. from any other job. Suppose an income-tax officer
The nearness of meaning lies in that fastidious persons desired to edit this book. He would then have to be the
like things to be dainty. honorary editor of this book. That is, he cannot receive
39. (b) If A is the cause of B, you attribute B to A. usually; if B any payment as wages for editing the book. An
is something bad (blame, charge etc.), we use impute honorary job is thus unpaid for.
instead of attribute. Sample the following : When Sri 51. (d) Your faculties are your physical and mental abilities.
Lanka beat Pakistan, the Sri Lankans attributed their We have all been endowed with the faculty of
success to their batsmen. The Pakistanis imputed the imagination. Most of us, however, kill it through an
exercise of constant neglect.
blame of their defeat to their sloppy fielding.
SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS S1-31
52. (b) If you visualise something, you imagine what it is like 74. (c) Concert means together.
by forming a mental picture of it. You may visualise 75. (a) Mitigate means to heal, to reduce, to release someone
future events as well, your wedding for example. You of his sufferings.
thus foresee your wedding. 76. (c) evasive means careless, stupid means foolish.
53. (a) From Akbar to Aurangzeb, every Mughal emperor went 77. (c) Resolved is determined.
on annexing one kingdom or another to what they
78. (a) Apposite is suitable, pertinent, relevant.
inherited. In other words, each of them added to his
father’s empire. 79. (d) Sturdy means strong, brisk means energetic. Buoyant
is cheerful; not easily depressed.
54. (d) A menage is a group of people living together in one
house. In other words, a household. 80. (d) Infirm is feeble or weak in body or health.
55. (d) If you are in a dilemma, you do not know what to do. In 81. (d)
other words, you are in confusion. 82. (a) Inexplicable means not explicable; that cannot be
56. (b) A rigmarole is a lengthy and complicated procedure explained, understood, or accounted for. So the best
which you do not like. synonyms here is incomprehensible.
57. (d) If you ascend, you go up. If you descend, you go 83. (a)
down. If you transcend, you go across. In other words, 84. (b) Nadir means the lowest or most unsuccessful point in
you cross. a situation.
58. (d) An imperative is something that is extremely important 85. (a) eradicate - destroy utterly
and must be done. In other words, it is a necessity. distrot - misrepresent
saturate - soak completely
Revision of obsolete laws has become an imperative
utilize - use
for the 50-year-old country. 86. (c)
59. (b) Certain categories of companies have been exempted ANTONYMS
from paying tax. That is, they do not have to shoulder 1. (b) Exonerate means declared free from blame, to implicate
the burden of tax-paying. In other words, their burden means to show that someone is involved in something
has been relieved. especially a crime, to appease means to pacify, to adore
60. (c) If something is firm, it is strong enough to maintain its means to love deeply and respect highly.
balance. Infirmity therefore suggests weakness. 2. (d) Fascinating means charming, fanaticism means
61 (d) madness, especially in religious or political matters,
62. (d) Filth means dirt, Lewd means characterless. A chaste indolence means laziness.
person does not have sex with anyone or has it only 3. (d) Modest means humble, awkward means clumsy,
with his or her spouse. celebrated means distinguished.
63. (a) Inheritant means qualities taken from forefathers. 4. (b) Credulity
64. (a) Angularity 5. (a) Roost
65. (d) Peak. Summit is the highest point. 6. (d) offend means not to show proper respect or make
66. (d) Alienate means to withdraw. someone angry, so the opposite will be respect.
67. (a) Mendacious is something untruthful 7. (c) Indict means to charge someone with a crime or
68. (b) Ostracised is shutout from the society. something wrong. Accuse also means the same, acquit
69. (a) Spurions is False means to free of charge.

70. (c) disagreeable, unpleasant, nasty, offensive 8. (a) Obscene means indecent, objectionable and
condemnable mean similar to obscene.
71. (b) Pernicious is ruinous, injurious, hurtful. Baneful is
9. (a) Liberate is to make someone free and imprison is to
destructive.
put in prison, conceal is to hide and vacillation is to
72. (b) Rectify is to correct.
move from one place or idea to another.
73. (d) Cordon means a line of policemen or soldiers which
10. (d) Melancholy means depressed and is therefore opposite
guards or prevents people entering or leaving an area
to cheerful.
As it is not covered any of the options, answer should
11. (c) Legitimate means legal or lawful, distinguished means
be ‘none of these.
eminent, and courteous means polite.
EBD_7203
S1-32 GENERAL APTITUDE FOR GATE
12. (d) Vacillate means to move from one place to another 29. (d) Crude means raw, undeveloped or unsophisticated,
and consistent means to stay the same, eradicate means graceful can also be an antonym to crude but polished
to remove is more exactly opposite to crude.
13. (a) Hinder means to prevent the growth or progress of 30. (b) Retribution is punishment, contempt is feeling of
something while expedite is to make fast the process disgust and grudge is an ill-feeling.
or facilitate. Vindicate means to justify. 31. (a) Proclaim is to announce usually in favour of, denounce
14. (a) Terse means brief. Diffuse means spread widely or means to speak against.
thinly. 32. (b) Sumptuous means sufficient or more in quantity,
15. (b) Multiplicity is presence of multiple or many identities, meagre means very little.
while uniformity means same everywhere, infinite 33. (d) Feign means to pretend, that is show what is not real
means endless. or original, condone is to forgive and condemn is to
express disapproval of something.
16. (d) Naive means inexperienced, someone who will not be