CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Specimen collection and processing is under which part of the

quality assurance program?
a. Pre-analytical
b. Analytical
c. Post-analytical
d. None of the above
2. Mechanical hazards are caused by:
a. Centrifuges
b. Refrigerators
c. Both
d. Neither
3. What kind of quality control is important in maintaining long term
accuracy of the analytical methods?
a. Internal quality control
b. External quality control
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity
4. In statistics, this is used to determine whether there is a
statistically significant difference between the standard
deviations of two groups of data.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. F-test
d. T-test
5. It is a sample of known quantity with several analytes present.
a. Calibrator
b. Reagent
c. Standard
d. Control
6. This is the most widely used quality control chart in the clinical
laboratory.
a. Gaussian Curve
b. Cumulative Sum Graph
c. Youden/Twin Plot
d. Levey-Jennings Chart
7. This type of error which can be observed on a Levey-Jennings chart
is formed control values that distribute themselves on one side or
either side of the mean for six consecutive days.
a. Trend
b. Shift
c. Outliers
d. None of the above
8. The independent variable is plotted along the:
a. Horizontal axis
b. Vertical axis
c. Y-axis
d. Ordinate
9. A value of 11.2 g/dL thyroxine is equivalent to ___ in SI units.
a. 135 nmol/L
b. 135 mol/L
c. 145 nmol/L
d. 145 mol/L
10. Convert 4.5 g/dL albumin to SI units:
a. 45 g/L
b. 90 g/L
c. 0.45 g/L
d. 0.45 g/L
11. What is the conversion for bilirubin from conventional (mg/dL) to
SI (mol/L) unit?
a. 17.1
 b. 0.357
c. 88.4
d. 0.0113
12. What anticoagulant is used for cardiopulmonary bypass?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
13. Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___
mg/dl/hour and at 4oC, the loss is approximately ___ mg/dl/hour.
a. 2, 7
b. 3, 8
c. 8, 3
d. 7, 2
14. Whole blood fasting glucose level is ___ than in serum or plasma.
a. 10-15% lower
b. 5-10% lower
c. 10-15% higher
d. 5-10% higher
15. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the blood glucose value
during the preceding:
a. One to three weeks
b. Three to six weeks
c. Two to three weeks
d. Eight to twelve weeks
16. Apolipoprotein B-100 is the primary component of:
a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. IDL
d. HDL
17. Intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) and Lipoprotein a (are)
considered as:
a. Major lipoproteins
b. Minor lipoproteins
c. Abnormal lipoproteins
d. Fatty acids
18. What age group has a moderate risk cut off value of >240 mg/dl and
high risk cut off value of >260 mg/dl for total cholesterol?
a. 2-19 years old
b. 20-29 years old
c. 30-39 years old
d. 40 years old and over
19. According to the NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable Measurement Error,
the coefficient of variation for HDL cholesterol should be on what
range?
a. < 2%
b. < 3%
c. < 4%
d. < 5%
20. This is considered as a one-step method for cholesterol
determination:
a. Liebermann-Burchardt
b. Abell-Kendall
c. Schoenheimer Sperry
d. Bloors
21. Cholesterol esterase is used in which method/s for chelesterol
determination?
a. Chemical methods
b. Enzymatic methods
22. LDL can be calculated from measurements of the following except:
___ by the Friedewald formula:
a. Total cholesterol
 b. VLDL
c. HDL
d. Triglyceride
23. Which method for the assay of uric acid is simple and nonspecific?
a. Colorimetric: kinetic
b. Colorimetric: end point
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
24. This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen has a greater
specificity and more expensive.
a. Colorimetric: diacetyl
b. Caraway
c. Kinetic
d. Enzymatic: NH3 formation
25. The most simple method for creatinine determination but is
nonspecific is:
a. Colorimetric: end point
b. Colorimetric: kinetic
c. Enzymatic: UV
d. Enzymatic: H2O2
26. Proteins that migrate in the alpha-2 globulin band in serum
protein electrophoresis except:
a. Transferring
b. Haptoglobin
c. AMG
d. Ceruloplasmin
27. This condition shows a beta-gamma bridging effects as the serum
protein electrophoretic pattern:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Hepatic cirrhosis
d. Pulmonary emphysema
28. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, which form of bilirubin is
elevated in plasma?
a. Conjugated bilirubin
b. Unconjugated bilirubin
c. Delta bilirubin
d. B and C
29. Creatine kinase is under what enzyme category?
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Hydrolases
c. Lyases
d. Transferases
30. It is the only enzyme whose clinical significance is not
increased, but decreased levels.
a. Pseudocholinesterase
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. 5’ Nucleotidase
d. Glucose-6-Phospate Dehydrogenase
31. For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will fall ___ & pCO2
will rise ___%.
a. 7,3
b. 3,7
c. 2,5
d. 5,2
32. Confirmatory test for acromegaly:
a. Physical activity test
b. Insulin tolerance test
c. Somatomedin C
d. Glucose suppression test
33. It is the most potent of the estrogens.
a. Estriol
 b. Estrone
c. Estradiol
d. Testradiol
34. An individual with hyperthyroidism will manifest ___ triglyceride
levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
35. An individual with hypothyroidism will manifest ___ T3 uptake
levels.
a. Increased
b. Decreased
36. This tumor marker is helpful in the diagnosis of urinary bladder
cancer:
a. CA 19-9
b. Calcitonin
c. HER-2/neu
d. NMP
37. The primary product of hepatic metabolism of cocaine is:
a. Morphine
b. NAPA
c. Benzoylecgonine
d. Primidone
38. Which of the following drugs is a barbiturate?
a. Cyclosporine
b. Methotrexate
c. Phenobarbital
d. Acetaminophen
39. The signs and symptoms of this blood alcohol level in %w/v are
mental confusion, dizziness and strongly impaired motor skills
(staggering, slurred speech).
a. 0.09-0.25
b. 0.18-0.30
c. 0.27-0.40
d. 0.35-0.50
40. This pipette, commonly used in laboratories, is the considered the
most basic pipette.
a. Automatic pipette
b. Air displacement pipette
c. Glass pipette
d. Positive displacement pipette
41. The BMI of an obese individual in kg/m2 is:
a. 18.5
b. 25
c. 29.9
d. 30
42. Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey method?
a. Kinetic method
b. Measured after 18 hours
c. Diameter = log of concentration
d. All of the above
43. Which correctly describes when there is damaged in the epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2
d. Increased CK
44. Which correctly describes when there is decreased in the potency
of the biliary epithelium?
a. Increased AST
b. Increased ALT
c. Direct bilirubin ratio to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2
d. Increased CK
 45. Which test are routinely used to asses the kidney function (Dean
Rodriguez’s Lectures)
a. K and crea
b. Na and crea
c. Cl and urea
d. K and urea
46. Which enzyme has a moderate specificity for heart, liver and
skeletal muscle?
a. AST
b. LDH
c. ALT
d. CK
47. Who can perform POCT for glucose?
a. Med Techs only
b. Nurses
c. Non-lab personnel and diabetic patients
d. All of the above
48. Considered as the risk factor for coronary heart disease
a. HDL
b. Triglycerides
c. Cholesterol
d. Phospholipids
49. Physician asks in asymptomatic DM patients
a. History of vascular disease
b. History of insulin resistance
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
1. Nomarski and Hoffman are example of what microscopy?
a. Phase contrast microscopy
b. Darkfield microscopy
c. Brightfield microscopy
d. Fluorescent microscopy
2. Degree of Hazard: 3
a. Slight Hazard
b. Moderate Hazard
c. Extreme Hazard
d. Serious Hazard
3. The best aid for chemical spills is flushing the area with large
amounts of water for at least ___ minutes then seek medical
attention.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
4. Arsenal fire:
a. Type A fire
b. Type C fire
c. Type E fire
d. Type F fire
5. Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding
because:
a. RBC, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several
hours at room temperature
b. Urobilinogen and bilirubin increased after prolonged exposure
to light
c. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine
d. Ketones will increased due to bacterial and cellular
metaboliam
6. The urine volume of a patient with oliguria is usually:
 a. 1,200-1,500 mL
b. > 2,500 mL
c. < 400 mL
d. < 700 mL
7. The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. After addition of salicylic acid
d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
8. Urine clarity grading: “Few particulates, print easily seen
through urine”
a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Cloudy
d. Turbid
9. Which method for the determination of urine specific gravity is
based on refractive index?
a. Total solids meter
b. Hydrometer
c. Reagent strip
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
10. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a/an:
a. Incubator
b. Cool dry place
c. Refrigerator
d. Freezer
11. Reading time: 30 seconds
a. Bilirubin
b. Ketones
c. Specific gravity
d. pH
12. The protein section of urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
a. Albumin
b. Bence Jones protein
c. Mucoprotein
d. Globulin
13. Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to
coagulate at ___ and dissolve at ___.
a. 30-50oC : 80-100oC
b. 40-50oC : 80-90oC
c. 50-60oC : 90-100oC
d. 40-50oC : 80-100oC
14. SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation, no flocculation”
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
15. The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich units
is:
a. Bilirubin
b. Urobilinogen
c. Glucose
d. Leukocytes
16. Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.
a. 0.4
b. 4
c. 40
d. 400
17. Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in what urine
reagent strip?
a. Blood
b. Bilirubin
 c. Leukocytes
d. All of the choices
18. Soluble in ether, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Lipids
c. Chyle
d. Lymphatic fluid
19. Soluble in dilute acetic acid, except:
a. Red blood cells
b. Amorphous phosphates
c. Calcium carbonates
d. White blood cells
20. Ascending sequence of casts:
a. Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular
b. Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular
c. Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy
d. Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy
21. Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates
or thin prisms often in rosette form:
a. Amorphous phosphates
b. Struvite
c. Apatite
d. Calcium carbonate
22. If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this other
type of abnormal crystal may be precipitated:
a. Bilirubin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Leucine
d. Cystine
23. Manner of reporting for RTE cells:
a. Average number per LPF
b. Average number per HPF
c. Average number per OIO
d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
24. Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be
reported using rare/few/moderate/many by using the:
a. Scanner field
b. Low power field
c. High power field
d. Oil immersion field
25. In a urine specimen, ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per
high power field (HPF). How do you report the findings?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
26. In a urine specimen, nine bacteria were seen per high power field
(HPF). How do you report the finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many
27. Most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Giardia lamblia
28. A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough
surface:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Uric acid
c. Cystine
 d. Phosphate
29. Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular
basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement
membranes:
a. Berger’s disease
b. Wagener’s granulomatosis
c. Goodpasture syndrome
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
30. The sperm acrosomal cap should encompass approximately ___ of the
head and covers approximately ___ of the nucleus.
a. One half, two-thirds
b. One third, one half
c. Two-thirds, one fourth
d. One fourth, one third
31. Sperm motility grading: “Slower speed, some lateral movement”
a. 4.0
b. 3.0
c. 2.0
d. 1.0
32. Reagent/s used for the assessment of sperm viability:
a. Papanicolau
b. Wright’s
c. Giemsa
d. Eosin-Nigrosin
33. Computer-Assisted Semen Analysis (CASA) is used to determine sperm
cell:
a. Vertical movement
b. Lateral movement
c. Circular movement
d. Velocity and trajectory
34. Florence test, which choline, uses which reagent?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Picric acid
c. Trichloroacetic acid
d. Silver nitroprusside
35. Pellicle clot formation after 12-24 hours refrigeration of
cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis
36. Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum,
except:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Encephalitis
c. Neurosyphilis
d. Guillain-Barre disease
37. Normal synovial fluid glucose should not be more than ___ mg/dL
lower than the blood value.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
38. Cell which could be seen in synovial fluid resembles polished rice
macroscopically:
a. Ragocytes
b. Cartilage cells
c. Rice bodies
d. Reiter cell
39. The normal color of gastric fluid is
a. Colorless
b. Green
 c. White
d. Gray
40. What reagent is used for the APT test?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Sodium hydroxide
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Potassium hydroxide
HEMATOLOGY
1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:
a. 0.5-1.0 inch
b. 1.0-1.5 inches
c. 1.5-2.0 inches
d. 2.0-2.5 inches
2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from
the label or end of the slide should be:
a. 1.0 cm
b. 2.0 cm
c. 3.0 cm
d. 4.0 cm
3. After staining a blood smear, the RBCs appeared bluish when viewed
under the microscope. The following are possible causes, except:
a. Stain of buffer is too basic
b. Inadequate rinsing
c. Inadequate buffering
d. Heparinized blood was used
4. Macrocytes: 25-50%
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
5. Codocytes: 41 per oil immersion field
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
6. Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion firld
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
7. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear. How
do report this finding?
a. Positive
b. Rare, few, moderate, many
c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
d. average number / OIO
8. Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell
diameter”
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
9. Polychromasia grading: 1+
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%
10. How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in
order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of
a blood smear?
a. 4-10
 b. 6-15
c. 8-20
d. 10-30
11. Hematopoietic stem cell marker:
a. CD10
b. CD34
c. CD35
d. CD56
12. Capillary tube:
a. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3.0 mm
b. Length: 30.0 cm Bore: 2.6 mm
c. Length: 7.0 cm Bore: 1.0 mm
13. Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit;
a. Plasma
b. Buffy coat
c. Fatty layer
d. Packed red cells
14. If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 1012/L, what is the
approximate hemoglobin value?
a. 12 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL
c. 15 g/dL
d. 20 g/dL
15. MCHC: 28 g/dL
a. Outside reference range and considered normal
b. Within reference range and considered normal
c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal
d. Within reference range and considered abnormal
16. Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification
of anemia?
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
17. Normocytic and normochronic anemia is usually seen in patients
with ___.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Anemia of chronic disease
18. What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell
media anemia?
a. Aplastic crises
b. Infectious crises
c. Vaso-occlusive crises
d. Bleeding
19. Effect of multiple myeloma on ESR:
a. Markedly increased
b. Moderately increased
c. Normal decreased
20. A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer and 15,000
WBC/L were counted. When the differential count was performed,
the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100 total WBC.
Calculate the corrected WBC count.
a. 10,000 WBC/L
b. 11,500 WBC/L
c. 12,000 WBC/L
d. 12,500 WBC/L
21. If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as
high as 100 to 300 x 109/L, a ___ dilution is used.
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:200
 d. 1:250
22. How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC count
is below 1.0 x 109/L?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
23. A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows the
following abnormal distribution, except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils
b. Below 2% basophils
c. Over 11% monocytes
d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children
24. Which of the following cells could be seen in lesions of mycosis
fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Neutrophils
25. Fresh blood smears made from capillary blood are used for this
cytochemical stain:
a. Sudan Black B
b. Chloroacetate esterase
c. Periodic Acid Schiff
d. Peroxidase
26. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia:
a. Mauve lavender
b. Chocolate brown
c. Cherry red
d. Bright red
27. In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta chain is
replaced by which amino acid?
a. Lysine
b. Valine
c. Arginine
d. Glutamine
28. Five-part differential:
a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythrocytes
b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes. Leukocytes,
platelets
c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes
d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
29. Negative instrumental error:
a. Bubbles in the sample
b. Extraneous electrical pulses
c. Aperture plugs
d. Excessive RBC lysis
30. In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather
than directly measured:
a. RBC count
b. WBC count
c. Hemoglobin
d. Hematocrit
31. Side angel scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used
to measure:
a. Cell size
b. Cell number
c. Cytoplasmic granularity
d. Antigenic identification
32. Number of platelet stages:
a. Six
b. Seven
 c. Eight
d. Nine
33. Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visible:
a. Metamegakaryocyte
b. Megakaryocyte
c. Promegakaryocyte
d. Megakaryoblast
34. Platelet estimate: 100,000-149,000
a. Low normal
b. Slight normal
c. Normal
d. Moderate decrease
35. Normal value for template bleeding time:
a. 3-6 minutes
b. 6-10 minutes
c. 2-4 minutes
d. 7-15 minutes
36. Condition in which blood escaped into large areas of skin and
mucous membranes, but not into deep tissues:
a. Petachiae
b. Purpura
c. Ecchymosis
d. Hematoma
37. This is one of the coagulation factors which is activated in cold
temperatures:
a. III
b. V
c. VII
d. IX
38. Similarity of factors V and VIII:
a. Vitamin-K dependent factors
b. Present in serum
c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins
d. Labile factors
39. Euglobulin clot lysis time:
a. Screening test
b. Confirmatory test
c. Other test
d. None of these
40. Visual detection of fibrin clot formation:
a. Fibrometer
b. Electra 750
c. Coag-A-Mate X2
d. Tilt tube
41. Concentration of fibrinogen (mg/dL) that will affect PT and PTT
tests? (Per)
a. 75
b. 100
c. 200
d. 400
42. First factor affected by Coumarin is:
a. VII
b. X
c. VIII
d. HMWK

HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS

1. Panunumpa ng Propesyunal: Ako, si (Pangalan) ng (_____) ay taimtim
na nanunumpa…
a. Tirahan
 b. Paaralan
c. Bansa
d. Kurso
2. Cursing a co-worker which part of the code of ethics?
a. Share my knowledge and expertise with my colleagues
b. Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions within
constructive limits.
c. Treat any information I acquire in the course of my work as
strictly confidential
d. Contribute to the advancement of the professional
organization and other allied health organizations.
3. Non-biodegradable wastes are contained in ___ -colored bags:
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Orange
4. Stat means:
a. Immediately
b. As soon as possible
c. Now
d. None of these
5. It is a general purpose fixative.
a. Mercuric chloride
b. Acetone
c. Chromate
d. 10% neutral buffered formalin
6. Clearing is also known as:
a. Dealcoholization
b. Dehydration
c. Infiltration
d. Embedding
7. In double embedding, the tissue is first infiltrated with ___,
followed by embedding with ___.
a. Celloidin > Paraffin
b. Paraffin > Celloidin
c. Celloidin > Gelatin
d. Paraffin > Gelatin
8. Most rapid embedding technique:
a. Manual
b. Vacuum
c. Automatic
d. None of the choices
9. He invented the Cambrides microtome:
a. Minot
b. Adams
c. Trefall
d. Queckett
10. The following characterizes honing except:
a. Heel to toe
b. Removal of nicks
c. Knife sharpening
d. Uses paddle made of horse leather
11. Polyclonal antibodies used in immunohistochemical techniques are
derived from:
a. Rabbit
b. Goat
c. Pig
d. Mice
12. Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is ___ in color, is a common
chromogen for peroxidases which should be made fresh immediately
before use.
a. Red
 b. Brown
c. Orange
d. Pink
13. It is a surgical connection between two structures. It usually
means a connection that is created between structures, such as
blood vessels or loops of intestine.
a. Anastomosis
b. Network
c. Matrix
d. Reticulum
14. In an anatomic procedure, the prosector is the:
a. Pathologist
b. Medical technologist
c. Assistant
d. Patient
15. This anatomic site for gynecologic samples is used for the
detection of endocervical lesions or intrauterine lesions.
a. Upper third of the vaginal wall
b. Ectocervix
c. Endocervix
d. Vulva
16. Instruments used in obtaining cervical samples for Papanicolau
smear, except:
a. Glass pipette
b. Ayre’s spatula
c. Laryngeal cannula
d. Syringe
17. Which of the following is used for embedding EM Sections?
a. Epon
b. Araldite
c. Tissuemat
d. Paraplast

IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING

1. He was said to have been given the world’s first blood transfusion
by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio, who had him drink
the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
a. Pope Innocent VII
b. Pope Pius I
c. Pope Gregory III
d. Pope Boniface IV
2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified are:
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
3. Greatest amount of H antigen:
a. A1
b. O
c. AB
d. B
4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions:

FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING

Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
O 4+ 3+ O
 a. Type O
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type AB
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-H
d. All of the choices
6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency transfusion
when there is no time to type the recipient’s sample?
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian ancestry:
a. Diego
b. Cartwright
c. Colton
d. Gerbich
8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic
environment.
a. Anti-S
b. Anti-U
c. Anti-N
d. Anti-M
9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through open system
with ACD anticoagulant:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
c. 42 days
d. None of the choices
10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Thalassemia
d. Hydrops fetalis

11. Citrate in ACD functions as:

a. Anticoagulant
b. ATP source
c. RBC membrane stabilizer
d. Caramelization inhibitor
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
a. Whole blood
b. Packed red blood cells
c. Leukocyte concentrates
d. Platelets concentrates
13. Major advantage of gel technology:
a. Decreased sample volume
b. Improved productivity
c. Enhanced sensitivity
d. Standardization
14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear
background”
a. 4+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 1+
15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is collected
from the patient before the start of surgery. The patient’s blood
 volume is returned to normal with fluids, and autologous blood may
be returned to the patient after the surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative
b. Normovolemic hemodilution
c. Intraoperative salvage
d. Postoperative salvage
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing is:
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Citrate
d. Oxalate
17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of
bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is typical
of:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body
temperature of ___ occurring in association with the transfusion
of blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. 1oC or more
b. 1oF or more
c. 3oC or more
d. 3oF or more
19. The most severe form of HDN is associated with:
a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-D
20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of the baby’s
blood is removed from the umbilical cord for testing:
a. Cordocentesis
b. PUBS
c. Both
d. None of the above

21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:

a. 1964
b. 1974
c. 1984
d. 1994
22. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 75-85%
23. C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
d. Cytokine
24. What is the most common complement component deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4
25. Which of the following is the most common congenital
immonudeficiency?
 a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency
26. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?
a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Myasthenia gravis
27. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by:
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
28. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus
infected patients as early as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO),
and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1
b. C
c. E
d. prM
29. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly
dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are
absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes
b. Sarcoma
c. Oncofetal antigens
d. Tumor specific antigen
30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
31. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic

32. Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
33. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:
a. Isotopes
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes
34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are
immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate
35. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella, macroscopic
agglutination is graded as 25%. Interpret.
a. Non-reactive
b. Negative
c. Positive
 d. 1+
36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Viral clade
b. Surface antigen
c. Viral load
d. Core antigen
37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg
38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of HLA?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
39. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
d. Phytohemagglutinin
40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC)
for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD12

MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY

1. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large,
multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?
a. Fonsecaea pedrosi
b. Microsporum audouinii
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
2. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida albicans through the
organism’s production of:
a. Chlamydospore
b. Urease
c. Germ tube
d. Inositol
3. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.
a. Germ tube test
b. Latex agglutination
c. Hair perforation test
d. Chlamydospore test
4. In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus
neoformans in wet preparations of patient specimens, what should be
used?
a. Methylene blue
b. India ink
c. Malachite green
d. Safranin
5. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?
a. Flowerette conidia
b. Asteroid body
c. Sclerotic body
d. Germ tube
6. Rose gardener’s disease:
a. Sporotrichosis
b. Histoplasmosis
 c. Coccidioidomycosis
d. Blastomycosis
7. Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?
a. Urease medium
b. Rice agar
c. Czapek’s agar
d. Blood agar
8. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Taenia saginata
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
9. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic
infection and their corresponding causative agent. Which of the
following is correctly matched?
a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria philippinensis
b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania
c. Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae
d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura

10. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius

vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative
c. Capillary blood
d. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region
11. Heart-lung migration except:
a. Roundworm
b. Whipworm
c. Hookworm
d. Seatworm
12. Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia saginata
d. Spirometra
13. Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:
a. Snail
b. Fish
c. Freshwater crab
d. Vegetation
14. What is a schistosomule?
a. Cercaria minus a tail
b. Cercaria minus a head
c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria with a tail
15. The third teania spp.:
a. T. asiatica
b. T. crassiceps
c. T. taeniaeformis
d. T. saginata
16. The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:
a. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles)
d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)
17. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?
a. Amastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Promastigote
d. Sporozoites
18. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:
 a. Monkey kidney cells
b. A549 cells
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
d. Embryonated hen’s eggs
19. It is the smallest RNA virus:
a. Enterovirus
b. Picornavirus
c. Cytomehalovirus
d. Togavirus
20. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:
a. Size
b. Ether stability
c. Ribonuclease treatment
d. Acid resistance
21. A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms
based on their appearance on the medium is called:
a. Enriched
b. Differential
c. Selective
d. Transport
22. Which of the following is a suitable transport medium for bacteria
and virus?
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP)
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution
c. Eagles minimum essential medium
d. Stuart’s medium

23. Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
b. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
24. Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by
this staphylococcal species:
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
d. S. pyogenes
25. Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to 5µg novobiocin?
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
d. S. pyogenes
26. In the β-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method, which of the
following indicates a positive reaction?
a. Production of acid
b. Reduction of nitrates
c. Color change
d. Turbidity
27. The following are DNase positive, except:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Serratia marcescens
28. For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of group A beta-
hemolytic streptococci, how many units of bacitracin is used?
a. 10.00
b. 0.02 – 0.04
c. 5.00
d. 1.00 – 2.00
29. Characteristically, species from the genus Enterococcus are:
a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
 b. Bile esculin positive
c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin
d. Sodium hippurate negative
30. A positive Quellung test is:
a. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
b. Visible only by fluorescent light
c. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction
d. Oxidation but not fermentation

31. A medical technologist cultured a specimen from a suspected cystic

fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of incubation, the MT noticed
colonies which were spreading and flat, with serrated edges and a
metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn taco-like odor.
Identify the bacteria.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

32. Serratia strains are readily differentiated from Klebsiella on the

basis of their:
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment lactose
c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
d. All of the above
33. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed best by culture of:
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Bone marrow
d. Blood
34. Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies which of the following for
cultures of Haemophilus?
a. III factor
b. I factor
c. X factor
d. V factor
35. String test is used for the diagnosis of which bacteria?
a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Campylobacter jejuni
36. Which diphtheroid has the same morphology as Corynebacterium
diphtheriae on blood agar plate (BAP)?
a. C. ulcerans
b. C. minutissimum
c. C. jeikeium
d. C. urealyticum
37. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from
Mycobacterium bovis by:
a. Growth rate
b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
d. Catalase test at 68oC
38. Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the ___ form of anthrax.
a. Gastrointestinal
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Urinary
39. Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods produce terminal “lollipop”
spores?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Eubacterium lentum
c. Clostridium butyricum
d. Bacteroides ureolyticus
40. In water bacteriology, the following are used as confirmatory test
media except:
a. Lactose broth
b. Endo agar
c. Eosin methylene blue agar
d. Brilliant green lactose broth