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READING 16

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-16, which are


based on Reading Passage 1 below.

MOBILE PHONES AND DRIVING

A. Though once perceived a luxury cell phones have become a


common possession over the last ten years or so. Due to modern
day technology and public demand cell phones have been made
affordable to most. However, one of the most controversial topics
of today is whether or not we should be using our cell phones whilst
driving, Does it pose a danger to ourselves and other drivers? Or
doesn’t it make any difference to the likelihood of an accident.

B. Several countries around the world have already imposed a


national Jaw with heavy infringements. More recently the UK,
Australia and Finland have joined the ranks of countries opposing
this very hazardous act, with Ireland imposing the harshest
penalties on the continent (a third offence can mean 3 months
imprisonment). Also in Europe, the Netherlands is fining offenders
2000 Euros and 2 weeks in jail.

C. This dangerous distraction contributes largely to motor vehicle


accidents and the statistics are Increasing daily as we continue to
take our eyes off the road to call or even more dangerously text.
Research by road safety groups suggests speaking on a phone
whilst driving increases your chances of an accident, increasing to
nine times more likely when texting. Time and again, in study after
study replicated across the world, the use of a cell phone by the
driver has been proven, beyond any sense of reasonable doubt, to
dramatically increase the probability of a motor vehicle crash.

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D. In New Zealand, a proposal made by a previous Labour led
Government suggests a $50 fine and 27 demerit points for any
person using a cell phone whilst driving, although the Ministry of
Transport is still preparing a report based on public consultation.
Although this is only a pending idea, the government knows this
will be a difficult infringement to police but a start needs to be
made and people need to understand the consequences of what
potentially could happen. It is a common misconception that hands
free kits are safe to use, but research conducted by Waikato
University has proven that these can be equally as dangerous as
hand held phones.

E. On one hand, using a cell phone whilst driving has become an


integral part of our lives and is going to be a hard habit to kick. But
it has been proven that our reaction time is never fast enough when
confronted with a road hazard, but if you are having a conversation
at the same time it will slow your reaction time by even more. Most
people find It takes 2 and a half seconds to react in a dangerous
situation but if you are on the phone you can add another 2 seconds
onto that. Your attention is divided; part of you concentrates on
your conversation, the other on driving. The demands of die
conversation and the road are competing, therefore making it a
cognitive distraction as well as physical as you are removing one
hand from the steering wheel to hold the phone. On the other hand,
an American radio host suggested that banning cell phones whist
driving was taking it a step too far, “if we ban cell phones, what’s
next? No billboards, coffee drinking, or CD players?” The host
agreed that texting whilst driving was a danger but phoning was
not.

F. Many people agreed with him in saying that texting was a


definite hazard as the act of looking down would lead your eyes off
the road. However, doesn’t holding a conversation while driving
seems just as distracting as eating food or reaching for a CD?
Accidents were happening decades before the cell phone was
introduced so should we be taking this matter so seriously?

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G. Obviously opinions will differ on this matter, and it will always
remain a debatable issue. A long list of countries seems to be
following the trend and imposing a law against cell phones on the
road, but there is still and even longer list yet to follow. Lack of
data leaves uncertain results but it seems research is ongoing and
surveys and tests are being carried out on a regular basis to reach
some kind of conclusion as to just how dangerous and potentially
fatal this habit may be.

Questions 1 – 6

Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A – G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B – G from the list of


headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6.

List of Headings

i. Impact of mobile phones in hazards

ii. Texting statistics

iii. International reactions

iv. Further research required

v. Evidence from around the globe

vi. Challenges of enforcement

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vii. Global agreement on penalties

viii. Contradictory data

ix. Risks of talking to passengers

x. Balancing the risks

1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
Questions 7 – 11

Look at the following list of statement (questions 7-11) based on


‘Mobile phones and driving’

Match the statement with the correct person or department A-E.

A. Ministry of Transport

B. Road safety groups

C. Waikato University

D. American radio host

E. The New Zealand government

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7. is currently putting together feedback from the general public.
8. proposed specific penalties for mobile phone use while driving.
9. statistically proven the higher likelihood of an accident.
10. believes any use of a phone while driving has potential risks.
11. speaking on the phone is an overrated risk.
Questions 12 – 16

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 12-16 an your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts with the


information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

12. The law in Ireland regarding mobile phone use while driving
is the world’s most serious.
13. According to research conducted by road safety groups,
speaking on a phone makes an accident nine times more likely.
14. Reaction times in an emergency are doubled if the driver is
using a mobile.
15. Eating while driving is statistically as dangerous as using a
mobile.
16. More research is required to form a clearer conclusion.

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READING PASSAGE 2

THE EIFFEL TOWER

 High above the city of Paris the Eiffel Tower looks over the
thousands of tourists that visit her each day. One of the greatest
sites in Paris, the Eiffel Tower was erected in 1889 for the great
Paris Exposition.

 Alexandre Gustave Eiffel, who also designed the Statue of Liberty,


put his design forward amongst 700 other designs and Eiffel’s
design was chosen collectively without any further thought. The
decision was made to build this radical creation and two years later
it was completed. Eiffel had originally decided to build the tower in
Barcelona, for the Universal Exposition of 1888, but organizers and
planners in Barcelona thought it was a bizarre and expensive
construction, which did not fit into the design of the city.

 After the design and build of the Eiffel Tower was confirmed for
Paris, a petition was signed by over 300 names to fight against the
building of this project. These names included Parisian architects,
engineers and famous citizens of Paris. Eiffel was heavily
castigated for his design and was accused of designing something
for its appearance and artistic appeal with no regard to
engineering; opponents to the building claimed that the design did
not have sufficient stability to withstand the high winds its height
would be exposed to. But Eiffel and his team of ex bridge builders
understood the importance of wind forces, and the shape of the
tower was largely decided by mathematical calculation involving
wind resistance.

 French painters, sculptures and writers did not see the beauty in
the tower and referred to it as useless and monstrous. However,
the Eiffel tower was admired by many notable people (Rousseau
was particularly impressed) and construction began in 1887 and
was soon completed by the end of 1889. In 1909 it was almost
demolished because of the expiration of its 20 year lease but was

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saved due to its antennas used for telegraphy at the time, With
such a difficult beginning to the Tower. It is now internationally
recognized and is a symbol of Paris completely accepted and valued
by its French Citizens.

 It took 300 workers and 15,000 pieces of iron to complete this


massive landmark which now stands at 320 metres tall. With three
different levels, the third and highest level offers panoramic views
of the City of Paris and sits 276 metres above the ground. Today
all three levels of the Eiffel Tower are observatory platforms. The
first level offers a souvenir kiosk, gallery and restaurant. The
second level offers telescopes, shops and another restaurant with
even more spectacular views, the third offers a gallery featuring
the history of the Eiffel Tower; a wax reproduction of Gustave Eiffel
and his original office restoration. Although stairs are still available,
lifts commonly take passengers to all three of these levels.

 On a dear day you can see as far as 67 kilometres across Paris.


More than 300,000,000 people have visited the Tower since its
completion in 1889 making it one of the most visited monuments
in Europe.

 Every seven years, the Eiffel Tower is repainted with 50 to 60


tonnes of paint to protect its framework from rust. So that the Eiffel
Tower appears the same colour at each level when viewing it from
the ground up, the Tower is painted in three different shades of the
same colour. The bottom painted with the darkest brown and the
lightest at the top of the tower. At the time of its completion, the
Eiffel Tower was the world’s tallest structure until New York’s
Chrysler building was completed in 1930.

 Today more than 500 hundred people operate the day to day
running of the Eiffel Tower. Each and every day the Eiffel Towers
335 spotlights and 20,000 bulbs create a glistening affect and at
night the Eiffel Tower lights up the city of Paris and is a sight not
to be missed by anyone. The Tower lights up every evening from
sunset to lam, coupled with the light house on the top that sends
out its light beams during the same hours. As recognisable as a

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night time picture of the Tower is, rulings made in the early 1990s
actually made copyrighted the illuminated image, Unless it is taken
as part of a wider panoramic view, the image is protected under
French law. The argument is that the arrangements and display of
the lighting constitutes an original visual creation, much as a major
work of art, and thus should be entitled to the same degree of
protection, The ruling was and remains highly controversial, with
concerns that an innocent tourist taking a photograph of the tower
at night is potentially breaching copyright.
Questions 17 – 19

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 17- 19 on your answer sheet

17. The Eiffel Tower was


A. first built in Barcelona.

B. the only design considered.

C. selected by one man.

D. built in time for an exposition.

18. In Paris, some people


A. argued that it was too expensive.

B. wrote letters against the project.

C. thought it would not last in the environment.

D. believed there was not enough room for the design.

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19. The Eiffel Tower
A. is 276 metres tall.

B. has a souvenir shop on the third floor.

C. has two restaurants.

D. is the oldest monument in Europe.

Questions 20 – 22

Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN TWO


WORDS from Reading Passage 2 for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 20 – 22 on your answer sheet

Despite some opposition, construction of the tower was concluded


by 20_______________ . It was almost dismantled in the early
1900s as its 21______________ had expired, but was kept
because of an 22______________ used for telegraphic transfers.

Questions 23 – 29

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE


WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Write your answer in boxes 23 – 29 on your answer sheet.

23. Which famous person championed the construction of the


Eiffel Tower?
24. On what floor of the tower can gifts be bought?

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25. What is the most common way of accessing the three floors?
26. Protection from what requires the tower to be painted so
often?
27. The Tower is painted using three shades of brown so that it
appears what?
28. What was taller than the Eiffel Tower in 1930?
29. When are the illuminations switched on?

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 30-40, which


are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

HAZARD MANAGEMENT

 In many industrial or manufacturing workplaces, managing


hazards is essential for a successful health and safety system.
Hazard management is an ongoing process that goes through five
different stages, with each step becoming a stage on tire hazard
management plan.

 The first step is to identify potential hazards, remembering that


hazards are classed as anything that could potentially cause harm
not only to people, but also to the organisation. To illustrate, an
industrial accident can cause an injury to employees, but can also
result in lost production, broken machinery and wasted resources
for the company, In many cases, local and national government
legislation has strict regulations concerning hazard identification,
and in many industries, especially those perceived to be

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dangerous, severe penalties can be incurred by companies
overlooking such hazard identification.

 Having identified the potential hazards, the next step is to assess


the hazard; that is, to consider to what extent they are significant.
To a degree, this is a subjective aspect of risk management, as
what may be seen by one person to be a significant issue can be
seen by another to be an acceptable feature of a workplace. To
allow for a degree of uniformity, in this stage, hazards are rated
using risk assessment tables. These tables work by assigning a
point value to three areas. The first is the exposure score, which
assesses how often people are exposed to the hazard. If this is a
continuous risk which employees face all the time, the score will
be high; if the exposure is very rare, the points given will be
substantially lower, The score is then multiplied by the likelihood
of this hazard causing an injury, ranging from ‘Definite’ (it happens
all the time) down to ‘Unlikely’ (it hasn’t happened yet). This is
referred to as the chances rating. The sum of the first two scores
is again multiplied by the effects score, which considers how
serious any accident might be. This can be rated from 1 (requiring
minor fist aid) right up to multiple deaths (classed as disaster ). All
3 scores then give the final risk assessment result. Generally, a
result in excess of 100 points requires caution, but a result of 200
hundred or more is classed as high priority. Certain jobs are, for
the most part, permanently gamer scores of over 200 (firefighting,
for example) and in many cases additional payments, informally
known as ‘danger money’, are applied.

 The third step on the hazard management plan is to control


hazards that have been identified. There are 3 stages to hazard
control. The first aim is to eliminate the hazard – that is, to get rid
of it altogether. This can be achieved by removing debris or
unnecessary obstacles from the workplace. Often, however, this is
not possible, so the next step is to isolate the hazard, to store it
out of the way. For example, a cleaning company cannot
completely eliminate hazardous chemicals, but they can keep these
chemicals locked away until required. Isolating hazards is an
ongoing process which requires companies to have very dear and

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enforced guidelines regarding safe storage of potentially hazardous
products.

 If the hazards cannot be isolated, then the aim must be to minimise


the risk. This is achieved through staff training in safe handling
techniques and best practices, as well as the provision of personal
protection equipment (PPE). PPE commonly includes items such as
gloves, overalls and footwear with steel reinforced areas.

 The fourth and fifth steps on a hazard management plan are


connected – to record and review’ the hazard. The recording is
done in the hazard register, and this register is continually
reviewed to ensure best practices are maintained. If a severe
accident does occur in the workplace, it is the hazard register that
investigators often first turn to, to see if the issue had previously
been reported and if so what the company bad done about the
hazard.

 It is worth noting that since more rigorous application of hazard


management systems, workplace accidents have experienced a
significant decline in many industries previously identified as ‘high
risk’.
Questions 30 – 31

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE


WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your glower in questions 30 and 31 on your answer sheet.

30. The 5 stages of the managing hazards are put together as


what?
31. Damaged machinery and discarded resources are two
examples of hazards to what?
Questions 32 – 37

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Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32 – 37 on your answer sheet

To mathematical calculate risk assessment, 32_____________


stages need to be calculated. The exposure score considers the
amount of time employees spend working near the hazard. The
33____________ then measures the probability of an accident,
ranging from not likely to 34____________ .The results are then
35_______________ by each other, and then again by the degree
of seriousness of an accident. The highest ‘effect’ score is given
when more than one person is killed (this is rated as a
36___________). When calculated, a result of 200 or more is
considered 37_____________ .

Questions 38 – 40

Complete the flowchart

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3


for each answer.

STAGES OF HAZARD CONTROL

1st step is to 38_________________ if possible

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Locate the hazard ( e.g. 39______________ it out
of the way)

40____________ hazard by wearing protective


clothing and following safety training

READING 17
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

THE LOCH NESS MONSTER

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 In the Scottish Highlands there, is believed to be a monster Jiving
in the waters of Loch Ness. The waters of Loch Ness are one mile
wide and 24 miles long, the largest body of freshwater in the United
Kingdom. To many sceptics, this monster is only a modem day
myth, but to others who claim they have seen it, the monster exists
and still lurks in the waters of Loch Ness today.

 Throughout Scotland, research has been done at several lakes but


Loch Ness Is the icon for monsters – Nessie, as the monster is
affectionately named, being the most popular of them all. Both
professionals and amateurs flock to this lake with their cameras in
the hope of capturing a brief glimpse of Nessie and possibly solving
the mystery of the Loch Ness monster.

 The very first sighting of Nessie was as far back as 565 AD. It is
believed that she ate a local farmer and then dived back into the
waters, with no accounts of being seen again for over 100 years.
However, since the turn of the 20th century, several other people
have claimed to see her. Some people believe that old Scottish
myths about water creatures such as Kelpies and water horses
have contributed to the idea of tills wondrous monster lurking
beneath.

 2007 brought about the most recent sighting of Nessie. A tourist


named Gordon Holmes from Yorkshire visited the Loch Ness waters
and claims lie not only saw her, but has captured her on video. He
claimed she was jet black, about 15 metres long and travelling in
a very straight line at about 6 miles per hour. Despite this supposed
evidence, controversy still reigns and opinion clearly divided about
its existence. The video footage has been discredited amid
accusations of tampering, whilst others claim mat the image
caught by Holmes could be nothing more than a tree trunk or even
one of the otters that inhabit the loch.

 Some scientists believe that the Loch Ness monster could a mirage
or a psychological phenomenon in as much as sometimes we see
what we want to see. Of course those who have seen her beg to
differ, but many experiments have been conducted to arrive at

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theories to explain what it is that people could be witnessing. It
has been suggested that Nessie could be related to a prehistoric
animal known as a Plesiosaur, an animal that measured up to ten
metres in length and is otherwise thought to be extinct, although
this theory is unsupported by any data, One scientist in particular
has been researching the lake itself to find out more about its
history, It seems that for such a large animal to Jive in this lake it
would require a vast food source, but for such an amount of fish to
survive there would need to be plenty of microscopic animals called
zooplankton. The only way to find out how much of this there is in
the water is to measure the amount of algae. Algae needs light to
survive so by measuring just how deep the daylight can penetrate
the lake scientists can then start to work out what kind of
population can be sustained. Despite results that suggest that the
fish population was too small, the conclusions drawn were
inconclusive.

 In the 1900s, a ten year observational study was carried out,


recording an average of 20 sightings of Nessie per year, The
phenomenon exploded in second half of the century, when photos
were publicly released of a ‘flipper’, Submarines were sent into die
Loch Ness to try to discover more about this creature (and now are
actually run as tourist attractions). Another theory behind why
Nessie rose to the top of the waters where she was more likely to
be seen, was that disruption from nearby road works in the 1930s
forced her to move to higher levels due to the amount of vibration
fell in the water. Another argument centres on the geographical
placement of the Loch, which sits on the Great Glen fault line
formed over 400 million years ago. Some scientists have claimed
that resulting seismic activity in the lake could cause disturbances
on its surface and people could be mistaking this for Nessie.

 Up until today, there is no convincing proof to suggest that the


monster is real, which, given the preponderance of digital cameras,
webcams trained on the loch and other technological advances in
recording equipment, suggests that the myth of Nessie may be just
that – a myth. Nonetheless, accommodation all over the Scottish
Highlands offers tours of the lake itself so tourists can try to catch

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their own glimpse of Nessie, In 2007, it was estimated that related
tourism brought in an estimated £6 million to the region, thanks in
pan to the attention of the film industry.
Questions 1 – 6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The first reported sighting of the Loch Ness monster was in 1962.
2. It is believed the idea for the Loch Ness monster may have been
inspired by other stories of sea creatures.
3. The last person who claims to have seen the Loch Ness monster
has video footage.
4. There is evidence to suggest that the Loch Ness monster is related
to the plesiosaur.
5. Testing of algae in the loch proved that the food source was
insufficient to sustain Nessie.
6. Movement along a fault line could have caused Nessie to rise to the
surface.
Questions 7 -13

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE


WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

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Write your answers in boxes 7 -13 on your answer sheet.

7. When was the first recorded sighting of Nessie?


8. What was Cordon Holmes suspected of doing to the video footage?
9. What common animal may have been caught on camera and
mistaken as proof of Nessie?
10. Images of what, caused an increase in the number of Nessie
enthusiasts?
11. What can visitors hoping to see Nessie travel in?
12. Disturbances caused by what could have caused the creature
to surface?
13. What has promoted tourism in the Loch Ness area in recent
years?

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-28, which


are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

A. The ‘production line’ system of creating and assembling goods


was for many years been the standard mode of operation for many
industries. Cars, electronic equipment, packaging – many diverse
companies have employed the same methods, and most have hit
two main problems, The first is that unscheduled maintenance
required on essential machinery has often held up production all
along the line, and the second Is the significant impact on

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employee morale, This has given rise to the increasingly adopted
method of Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) – a maintenance
program which governs the maintenance of plants and equipment.
The goal of the TPM program is to markedly increase production
while, at the same time, increasing employee morale and job
satisfaction.

B. The concept of TPM was first developed in Japan in the late


1970s, only moving to the western world a decade later, initial
success of the programme in countries such as Australia was
limited, but in the late 1990s a ‘westernised’ version of TPM was
launched. TPM brings maintenance into focus as a necessary and
vitally important pan of the business. It is no longer regarded as a
non-profit activity. Down time for maintenance is scheduled as a
part of the manufacturing day and, in some cases, as an integral
part of the manufacturing process. The goal is to keep emergency
and unscheduled maintenance to a minimum.

C. TPM involves directing participating companies and industries to


move away from traditional methods of production to more
efficient mechanisms. This is evident in TPM’s operational focus on
lea production rather than mass production. The lean approach
favours flexibility within a team, rather than the specialisation of
labour Introduced with mass production. It also involves a shift
away from being driven by the financial department of the
company to a more customer focussed goal. Another goal of the
TPM method is to introduce quality control not by being overseen
by managers, but rather by engendering a sense if responsibility
amongst all staff; a move from autocratic management to
empowerment. This shift means that shop floor workers are being
able to take a sense of pride in their work, and with that comes the
desire to perform well ultimately leading to higher productivity for
the company.

D. in order to apply the concepts of TPM, a company will have to


work through a number of stages. First, there must be universal

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agreement that the system has the potential to be successful within
the company. Then a specific person or team needs to be appointed
to coordinate the changes required to apply TPM methodologies,
an aim that begins with training and education for all employees.
Once the coordinator is convinced that the work force is sold on
the TPM program and that they understand it and its implications,
the first action teams are formed. These teams are usually made
up of people who have a direct Impact on the problem being
addressed. Operators, maintenance personnel, shift supervisors,
schedulers, and upper management might all be included on a
team. Each person becomes a stakeholder in the process and is
encouraged to do his or her best to contribute to the success of the
team effort. Usually, the TPM coordinator heads the teams until
others become familiar with the process and natural team leaders
emerge.

E. The concept of TPM is built on what are referred to as the three


pillars – work area management, risk management and equipment
management. An illustration of these pillars is highlighted in the
importance of recognising and eliminating defects within the
machinery used in a company, This refers to issues such as the
accumulation of dust and grime on equipment, gauges that are
broken or too dirty to read clearly and missing or loose bolts, nuts
and screws, Using a sample company, statistics collected from a
three month period Indicate a substantial reduction in machine
maintenance costs, felling by $ 30,000 between 1996 and 1999.
At the same time, the effectiveness of the equipment increased
significantly, with machine uptime rising by almost 2096 over the
same period.

F. Many observers have identified similarities between TPM and an


earlier industry concept – total quality management (TQM), and in
many respects, TPM and TQM resemble each other. Both require
total commitment to the program by upper level management, and
both promote the empowerment of all employees to initiate
corrective action, Additionally, both processes require a long range
outlook, as it may take a year or more to implement and is an

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ongoing process, Changes in employee mind-set toward their job
responsibilities must take place as well, Indeed, initial results for
at least the first quarter may actually lead to reduced productivity
while changes are put into effect.

G. The difference between the two systems, however, becomes


apparent in when looking at what each system considers to be a
priority. TQM is essentially an output focussed system, whereas
TPM is singular in that it looks more at input – the equipment used
and the causes of real or potential maintenance failures. Also,
although both programme stress the need for complete
involvement of all parties, TPM stresses the equal importance of all
levels of employee, whereas TQM has a more traditional focus on
management structure, The main target of both is also slightly
different; whereas TQM alms to improve quality, TPM aims to
reduce wastage and minimise losses.

Questions 14 – 20

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of
headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 14-20.

List of Headings

i. Unique focus of TPM

ii. Common issues TPM was establish to combat

iii. Statistical weakness of TPM

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iv. The introduction of TPM

v. Parallels with a former concept

vi. Types of TPM coordination and training

vii. Implementing TPM

viii. The guiding principles of TPM

ix. The impact of staff involvement

x. Efficiency through involving all employees

xi. The value of mass production techniques

14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D
18. Paragraph E
19. Paragraph F
20. Paragraph G
Questions 21 – 24

Complete the flowchart.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 2


for each answer.

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Agreement about the 21_________________ offered
by implementing TPM


Nomination/ establish of 22 __________


Education and training of workforce


Creation of 23__________


Emergence of 24____________ to head group

Questions 25 – 28

Label the diagram below using words from the box below. USE
EACH CHOICE ONCE ONLY

Write the correct letter A – I in boxes 25 – 28 on your answer


sheet

A. Overall equipment effectiveness

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B. % uptime

C. $000s / quarter

D. Machine maintenance costs

E. % downtime

F. $000s / month

G. Employee costs

H. Wasted resources

I. Hours spent cleaning maintaining machinery

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READING PASSAGE 3

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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29 – 40, which
are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

CO- EDUCATIONAL VERSUS SINGLE SEX CLASSROOMS

 It seems that across the western world, an increasing number


parents are opting to return to more traditional divisions with
regards their children’s education, with a significant rise in most
western countries of single sex classrooms, in which the classroom
set up involves the teacher working with only boy’s or only girls.
For many, the issue is whether to opt for a mode of teaching that
improves a child’s academic learning or to choose a co-educational
schooling offering a more ‘rounded’ education. There is no doubt
that boys and girls have a very different way of learning, with
research showing that boys learn better through movement, sound
and touch, whereas girls learn better through visual and oral
means. One clear advantage of a single sex educational setting is
that the teacher fs able to focus on specific styles of teaching to
the gender they are teaching. Naturally, the resurgence of single
sex education has meant that many teachers have had to undergo
additional in appropriate techniques for the environment.

 There are many potential advantages for children studying in single


sex schools, Some children succeed in single sex schools because
of the lack of social pressure – children are more able to learn and
grow at their own pace without the pressure commonly found
between the genders in co-educational schools, Research done in
a single sex school concluded that students thrived in what often
became a dose-knit environment with closer interaction with
teachers. In surveys of over 1000 single sex schools, it was
reported that not having the opposite sex around was ‘missed’, but
the absence of boys or girls allowed students to have a more direct
and serious approach to their education.

 In many western countries, the traditional way of thinking around


thirty years ago was that co-education would somehow break down
gender stereotypes, but this hasn’t always proved to be the case,

26
The advocates of single sex education argue that boys in
coeducational settings are less likely to study the arts or advanced
academic subjects just to avoid the social categorization of certain
subjects as being more in the feminine realm. Equally, girls may
tend avoid the sciences and technology subjects as this has
traditional been more of a male domain. Single sex schools are
flourishing once again as parents realise that allowing their son or
daughter to learn in his or her own individual way is a very
important consideration in choosing a school.

 For students attending single-sex secondary schools, there was a


slight tendency for males to outperform females. In contrast, for
students attending coeducational schools, there was a clear
tendency for females to outperform males. It was also noted that
in single sex schools girls were more likely to be involved in
leadership activities such as student councils, athletic associations,
and other activities additional to the school timetable. Accordingly,
girls have reported to have favoured single sex schools as co-
educational environments tend to be dominated by males, a
situation often perpetuated by teaching staff.

 Regardless of increased levels of academic performance and


preference, a small percentage of people concerned about gender
equality have argued against single-sex education as an ethical
issue, in that forced separation between the sexes is forced on
students. In order for schools to run single-sex classrooms, they
must also offer parents the opportunity to enrol their children in a
traditional co-educational classroom.

 In regards to those who may oppose gender segregation in schools,


many advocates of the idea believe single-sex classes actually
negate gender stereotypes, As mentioned earlier, in a mixed
classroom, boys tend to avoid tasks related to the arts while girls
show Jack of interest in science and technology. However, in
single-sex environments, there is no existing bias that “this is for
boys” or “that is for girls”. In fact, a 2005 study released by
Cambridge University showed that in single-sex rooms, as
compared to to traditional settings, girls are more interested in

27
math and science, subjects generally preferred by boys in co-
educational settings.

 It is important to remember that coeducation is a modern concept,


introduced into mainstream education less titan fifty years ago,
despite being a change which has brought huge changes to the
societies in which this method is observed. It was first introduced
in Switzerland, and swept quickly around most western countries,
and is certainly not without its benefits. Parents have said that a
coeducational classroom has been excellent for their children’s
confidence levels, has helped them to overcome issues such as
shyness and helped students to converse about everyday topics
with the opposite gender, surveys have also shown that a higher
percentage of girls in the classroom lower classroom disruption,
also creating a better relationship between the students and the
teacher.

 Which type of schooling is best comes down to what suits the


individual child and which environment they best thrive in,
therefore parents are recommended to seek advice and do their
research before making that all important decision.
Questions 29 – 31

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 29 – 31 on your answer sheet.

29. In single sex classes


A. girls learn faster than boys.

B. teachers need a wider variety of teaching styles than in a co-


education setting,

C. some children can thrive due to a more comfortable


environment.

28
D. the opposite sex was not missed

30. Co-education schools


A. allow boys and girls to get a more rounded picture of the
opposite sex.

B. may discourage males from studying certain subjects.

C. are falling in popularity.

D. have fewer people involved in extracurricular teams and groups.

31. Parents
A. must be offered the option of co-educational schools for their
children.

B. often push boys to succeed in language tasks.

C. have reported that single sex classrooms have helped their child
with confidence issues.

D. have been influential in the academic performance of single sex


schools.

Questions 32 – 36

Complete the notes below USING NO MORE THAN TWO


WORDS.

Co-educational schools

29
32. intended to reduce gender 32_______________ , but actually
may not be successful.
33. started in 33______________ but quickly spread.
34. allow students to 34______________ more easily with
opposite sex about general topic.
Single sex schools

35. girls have higher interest in traditionally male dominated


35___________________.
36. often have better relationship with 36__________________.
Questions 37 – 40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

37. Single sex schools are becoming more popular again.


38. Girls do not learn as well as boys through speaking.
39. Surveys have found that coeducational schools are preferred
socially.
40. The majority of equal opportunity activists have argued that
forcing gender separation on children is unethical

30
READING 18
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1- 12, which
are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

MOUNT EVEREST AND HILLARY

 Mount Everest, also known as Sagarmartha (Goddess of the Sky),


is 8,348 metres tall, the highest mountain on earth above sea
level. Formed about 60 million years ago and lying between Tibet
and Nepal, Mount Everest appeals to climbers of every level, from
novice to experienced climber. Each mountaineer pays a
considerable amount of money to an experienced guide to help
them achieve a successful climb. Everest was given its official
English name in 1865 by the Royal Geographic Society upon
recommendation of Andrew Waugh, the British Surveyor General
of India at the time.

 When Everest was officially announced as the world’s highest


mountain in 1852, it won interest from people all over the world,
and the idea of climbing all (lie way to the summit was viewed as
the ultimate feat. Nobody was able to climb Everest until 1920
when Tibet first opened its borders to outsiders, and between 1920
and 1952, seven major expeditions failed to reach the tip of Mount
Everest, In fact, the mountain has a history of adversity and
failure. With advances in climbing equipment in the last ten years
or so, and more experienced guides, the fatality rates have
dropped from 37% in 1990 to 4% in 2004. Nonetheless, the
deadliest year in Mount Everest’s history was 1996, when 19
people died near the summit.

 In 1924, Mount Everest claimed the lives of its first two climbers.
George Mallory and Andrew Irvine were two British climbers,
attempting to reach the summit. The men were last seen heading
for the top of the mountain until clouds surrounded Everest and
they disappeared. Mallory’s body was not seen again until 75 years

31
on, in May of 1999, and Irvine’s body is yet to be found. There is
still no evidence as to whether these two men made it to the top
or not, although disputes rages on, Those that believe the pair were
the first; to climb Everest point to two specific points, firstly,
Mallory’s daughter has always said that Mallory carried a
photograph of his wife on his person with the intention of leaving
it on the summit when he reached it. This photo was not found on
the body when it was discovered. Secondly, Mallory’s snow’
goggles were in his pocket when the body was found, indicating
that he died at night. This implies that he and Irvine had made a
push for the summit and were descending very late in the day.
Given their known departure time and movements, had they not
made the summit, it is unlikely that they would have still been out
by nightfall.

 The first time the actual peak of this monstrous mountain was
reached was in 1953, in a combined effort by Sir Edmund Hillary
and Tenzing Norgay. On the 29th of May that year, the duo
conquered this epic mountain, standing at the highest point in the
world for a brief 15 minutes. After a brief but fruitless search for
evidence of the 1924 Mallory expedition, they buried a cross and
some candy in the snow, taking a few photographs of the historic
event. As Norgay had never operated a camera, there are no
photographs of Hillary on top of the mountain, just shots of Norgay,
and some additional photos looking down the mountain, ensuring
evidence of their conquest and that the ascent was not faked.

 When the news reached London on June 2nd, Sir Edmund Hillary
was knighted in the Order of the British Empire and Norgay (a
subject of the King of Nepal) was granted the George Medai by the
UK, Sir Hillary turned to Antarctic exploration and led the New
Zealand section of the Trans-Antarctic expedition from 1955 to
1958. In 1958, he took part in a mechanised expedition to the
South Pole. Hillary continued to organise further mountain-
climbing expeditions but, as the years passed, he became more
and more concerned with the welfare of the Nepalese people. In
the 1960s, he returned to Nepal, to aid in the development of the
society, building clinics, hospitals and schools. After conquering

32
Everest, Sir Edmund Hillary devoted most of his life to helping the
Sherpa people of Nepal through the Himalayan Trust.

 In January 2007, Sir Edmund Hillary went to Antarctica to


commemorate the 50th anniversary of the founding of Scott Base.
He flew to the station on 18 January 2007 with a delegation
including the Prime Minister. On the 22nd of April 2007, while on a
trip to Kathmandu, he was reported to have suffered a fall. There
was no comment on the nature of his illness and lie did
not immediately seek treatment. He was hospitalized after
returning to New Zealand. Sadly, Sir Edmund Hillary died of a heart
attack on the morning of January the 11th 2008. Hillary’s life was
marked by wonderful achievements, his giving nature, grand
discovery, and excitement. But he was a humble man who did not
admit to being the first man to reach the summit of Everest until
long after 1386, well after the death of his climbing companion
Tenzing Norgay.

 The latest record for climbing Mount Everest was set on the 30th
of May in 2005 by Nepalese Mona Mulepati and PemDorje Sherpa,
who were the first couple to get married on top of Mount Everest.
Questions 1 – 6

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE


WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet.

1. Who suggested that the name Everest be used to refer to the


mountain?
2. Which country prevented explorers climbing Everest until 1920?
3. What has not yet been recovered?
4. What was not found on Mallory’s body that indicates he may have
reached the summit?
5. Who was photographed at the top of the mountain?

33
6. What was the name of Hillary’s charitable organisation?
Questions 7 – 12

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 7- 12 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7. Mortality rates on Everest have consistently declined since


1990.
8. Hillary found evidence of the Mallory expedition.
9. Photographs were taken from the summit as proof of the Hillary/
Norgay climb.
10. Both Hillary and Norgay received recognition of their
achievement from Britain.
11. Hillary was the first person to reach the South Pole by
mechanised transport.
12. Hillary’s death was attributed to an accident that occurred in
Kathmandu.

READING PASSAGE 2

34
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-27, which
are based on Reading Passage 2 below

SLEEP

A. Like many things about your body, scientists and medical


professionals still have a lot to learn about the process of sleep.
One earlier misconception that has now been revised is that the
body completely slows down during sleep; it is now dear that the
body’s major organs and regulatory systems continue to work
actively – the lungs, heart and stomach for example. Another
important part of the body also operates at night – the glands and
lymph nodes, which strengthen the immune system. This is
commonly why the body’s natural immunity is weakened with
insufficient sleep.

B. In some cases, certain systems actually become more active


while we sleep. Hormones required for muscle development and
growth, for instance, as well as the growth of new nerve cells. In
the brain, activity of the pathways needed for learning and memory
is increased.

C. Another common myth about sleep is that the body requires less
sleep the older we get. Whilst It is true that babies need 16 hours
compared to 9 hours and 8 hours respectively for teenagers and
adults, this does not mean that older people need less sleep.
However, what is true if that for a number of different factors, they
often get less sleep or find their sleep less refreshing. This is
because as people age, they spend less time in the deep, restful
stages of sleep and are more easily awakened. Older people are
also more likely to have medical conditions that affect their sleep,
such as insomnia, sleep apnoea and heart problems.

D. Getting a good sleep is not just a matter of your head hitting


the pillow at night and waking up in the morning. Your sleep goes

35
in cycles throughout the night, moving back and forth between
deep restorative sleep and more alert stages with dreaming. As the
night progresses, you spend more time in a lighter dream sleep.

E. Sleep patterns can be broken down into two separate and


distinct stages – REM and NREM sleep, REM (Rapid Eye Movement)
sleep is when you dream. You usually have 3 to 5 periods of REM
sleep each night, lasting from 5 minutes to over an hour, during
which time your body’s activities increase. Breathing becomes fast,
shallow and uneven, with an increase in brain activity, heartbeat
and blood pressure. Although your major muscles generally don’t
move, fingers and toes may twitch and body temperature changes
and you may sweat or shiver.

F. Research has concluded that this sleep is most important for


your brain. It is when it is most active, processing emotions and
memories and relieving stress. The areas used for learning and
developing more skills are activated. In fact, the brain waves
measured during REM sleep are similar to those measured when
awake.

G. NREM (Noil-Rapid Eye Movement) sleep is dreamless sleep.


NREM sleep consists of four stages of deeper and deeper sleep. As
you move through the stages, you become more relaxed, less
aware of what is happening around you and more difficult to wake.
Your body’s activity will also decrease as you move through the
NREM stages, acting in the opposite manner to REM sleep. Stage 1
of NREM sleep is when you are falling to sleep. This period generally
lasts between 5 and 10 minutes, during which time you can be
woken easily. During stage 2, you are in a light sleep- the in-
between stage before your fall into a deep sleep. It lasts about 20
minutes. In stage 3, deep sleep begins, paving the way for stage
4, in which you are difficult to awake and unaware of anything
around you. This is when sleep walking and talking can occur. This
is the most important stage for your body. Your brain has slowed
right down and is recovering. Blood flow is redirected from your

36
brain to your large muscles allowing them to mend any damage
from your day at work. People woken quickly from stage 4 sleep
often feel a sense of disorientation, which is why it is helpful to use
an alarm clock with an ascending ring.

H. About an hour and a half into your sleep cycle you will go from
deep Stage 4 sleep back into light Stage 2 sleep, then into REM
sleep, before the cycle begins again. About 75% of your sleep is
NREM sleep. If you sleep for eight hours, about six of them will be
NREM sleep. As the night progresses, you spend more time in
dream sleep and lighter sleep.

I. When you constantly get less sleep (even 1 hour less) than you
need each night, it is called sleep debt. You may pay for it in
daytime drowsiness, trouble concentrating, moodiness, lower
productivity and increased risk of falls and accidents. Although a
daytime nap cannot replace a good night’s sleep, it can help make
up for some of the harm done as a result of sleep debt. But avoid
taking a nap after 3 pm as late naps may stop you getting to sleep
at night. And avoid napping for longer than 30 minutes as longer
naps will make it harder to wake up and get back into the swing of
things.

Questions 13 – 16

Do the following statements agree with the information, given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 13-16 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the in formation

FALSE if the statement contradicts the in formation

37
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

13. It was previously believed that biological processes slowed


during sleep.
14. Teenagers lose less sleep than adults when they have a
medical condition.
15. During the night, our sleep becomes increasingly deep.
16. Lack of sleep can cause heart problems and other medical
conditions.
Questions 17-20

Complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN THREE


WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer,

Write your answers in boxes 17 – 20 on your answer sheet.

17. REM sleep can help reduce _____________________.


18. During REM sleep, __________________ are similar to those
recorded whilst awake.
19. During Stage 1 NREM sleep, you can be ______________with
little effort.
20. Suddenly being woken from deep sleep can cause
_____________________.
Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write your answers in boxes 21 and 22.

NB Your answers may be given in either order.

38
REM sleep

A. is more common for younger people.

B. is when we dream.

C. may cause your extremities to move of their own accord.

D. lasts about an hour a night.

E. is when the brain is most relaxed.

Questions 23 – 27

The reading passage has nine paragraphs, A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-I in boxes 23-27.

23. Differences in sleep patterns between generations


24. Brain activity is limited as resources are diverted
25. Repetition of the cycle
26. Dangers of accumulated lack of sleep
27. Increased activity during sleep

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend shout 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40, which


are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

39
A. A constellation is a group of stars which when viewed
collectively appear to have a physical proximity’ in the sky.
Constellation boundaries and definitions as used today in Western
culture, and as defined by the International Astronomical Union
(IAU), were formalised in 1930 by Eugene Delporte. There are 88
official constellations as recognised by the IAU, those visible in the
northern hemisphere being based upon those established by the
ancient Greeks, The constellations of the southern hemisphere –
since invisible to the Greeks due to geographical location – were
not defined until later in the early modem era.

B. Arguably, the twelve constellations through which the sun


passes – as used to represent the signs of the zodiac to define birth
characteristics – are the most culturally significant and well known
of those established by the ancient Greeks. Cultural differences in
Interpretation and definition of star constellations mainly relate to
these zodiac interpretations, Chinese constellations, for example,
which are different to those defined in the western world due to
the independent development of ancient Chinese astronomy,
includes 28 ‘Xiu’ or ‘mansions’ instead of the 12 western zodiac
counterparts. In Hindu/Vedic astronomy, in which constellations
are known as ‘rashis’, 12 rashi corresponding directly to the twelve
western star signs are acknowledged; these are however, divided
again into 27 ‘Nakshatras’ or ’lunar houses’. Many cultures have an
intricate mythology behind the stars and their constellations. In
Greek mythology, for example Pegasus, the winged horse, is said
to have sprung from the decapitated head of Medusa, and later
was used by the God King Zeus to carry thunder and lightning to
Earth, before being put into a constellation.

C. In Western astronomy, all modern constellation names derive


from Latin, some stars within the constellations are named using
the genitive form of the Latin word by using the usual rules of Latin
grammar. For example the zodiac sign for the Fish constellation
Pisces relates to Piscium. In addition, all constellation names have
a standard three-letter abbreviation as assigned by the IAU, under
which, for example, Pisces becomes PSC.

40
D. Some star patterns often wrongly considered constellations by
laymen are actually ‘asterisms’ – a group of stars that appear to
form patterns in the sky -and are not in fact one of the 88 officially
divided areas truly defined as a constellation. A famous example of
an asterism oft mistaken for a constellation is the Big Dipper’ (as
it is termed in North America) or the ‘Plough’ as it is known in the
UK. In astronomical terms, this famous star formation is in fact
considered only part of the larger constellation known as Ursa
Major.

E. In order to identify the position of stars relative to the Earth,


there are a number of different celestial coordinate systems that
cart provide a detailed reference point in space. There are many
different systems, all of which are largely similar with the exception
of a difference in the position of the fundamental plane – the
division between northern and southern hemispheres. The five
most common celestial systems are the Horizontal system, the
Equatorial system, the Ecliptical system, the Galactic system and
the Supergalactic system.

F. The launch of the Hubble space telescope in April 1990 changed


the way that astronomers saw the universe, providing detailed
digital images of constellations, planets and gas- clouds that had
never been seen before. Compared to ground-based telescopes,
Hubble is not particularly large. With a primary mirror diameter of
2.4 meters (94.5 inches). Hubble would be considered a medium-
size telescope on the ground. However, the combination of its
precision optics, state-of-the-art instrumentation, and
unprecedented pointing stability and control, allows Hubble to
more than make up for its lack of size, giving it a range of well over
12 billion light years.

G. The telescope’s location above the Earth’s atmosphere also has


a number of significant advantages over land based telescopes.
The atmosphere bends light due to a phenomenon known as
diffraction (this is what causes starlight to appear to twinkle and

41
leads to the often blurred images seen through ground-based
telescopes). The Hubble Space Telescope can also observe infrared
light that would otherwise be blocked by the atmosphere as the
wavelength (distance between successive wave crests) of
ultraviolet light is shorter than that of visible light.

H. Despite early setbacks – one of the reflective mirrors had to be


replaced after finding that it had been ground incorrectly and did
not produce the images expected – the telescope has reignited
interest in space amongst the general public – a requirement, given
that taxpayer funding paid for the research, deployment and
maintenance of the telescope.

Questions 28 – 35

Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list of
headings below.

Write the correct number i-xii in boxes 28-35.

List of Headings

i. Different methods of locating and identifying

ii. A better view of the constellations

iii. Technological advances in research and development

42
iv. Atmospheric weaknesses of telescopes in orbit

v. Different interpretations of star groupings

vi. Common misconceptions

vii. Bypassing terrestrial limitations

viii. Renewed interest in the stars

ix. Ethnic differences in celestial mapping

x. Formal marking of constellations

xi. Universal myths of constellations

xii. Historical and modern reference

28. Paragraph A
29. Paragraph B
30. Paragraph C
31. Paragraph D
32. Paragraph E
33. Paragraph F
34. Paragraph G
35. Paragraph H
Questions 36 – 40

Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO


WORDS.

43
Write the correct answers in boxes 36-40.

Despite an initial flaw in a 36_______________, the Hubble space


telescope is superior to telescopes on land as it can identify 37
_________________ which would not normally reach the Earth’s
surface. This is all the more impressive given that Hubble is only
classified as a 38 _______________ telescope. Being above the
atmosphere, it also has the advantages of not being affected by 39
_____________, which would otherwise lead to 40
______________ images.

READING 19
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12, which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

FLIGHT OF THE HONEY

 Honeybees are characterised by their ability to produce liquefied


sugar (honey) and a propensity to construct colonial nests using
wax, two tasks that necessitate a significant level of social
integration among members. As a result, they maintain strict
divisions of labour, based on sex, with all males functioning as
drones to fertilize and care for the eggs, and all females, with the

44
exception of the single fertile queen, responsible for fetching nectar
for the colony’s progeny. In addition, honeybees have devised a
sophisticated system of communication to relay important
information from member to member.

 Perhaps the most intriguing feature of honeybee communication is


a series of flight moves only performed by a female worker bee
that has returned to the nest with nectar and needs to tell the rest
of her colony that she has discovered food supplies and where they
can be found. This so-called honeybee dance was first interpreted
by German zoologist Karl von Frisch in the early 1970s. To facilitate
observation, von Frisch and his students built several glass walled
hives and marked a collection of worker bees, or foragers, with
paint. He then trained those foragers to find nectar at designated
sources at various distances from the hives, and when the bees
returned he carefully recorded their movements, the angle and
direction of their flight, and any additional visual cues offered to
the colony. What von Frisch discovered was that each aspect of the
dance indicated certain details about the location of the nectar
reserves and recruited others to return to the site.

 The first piece of information conveyed by dancing bees is the


distance of the field to the hive, and they do this in one of three
ways. If it is less than 50 meters from the colony’s nest the bee
will fly around in narrow circles, and then suddenly fly in the
opposite direction. She will repeat this pattern, which von Frisch’s
team called the round dance, until she has recruited several other
workers to return with her to the field. When the distance is greater
than 50 meters, but less than 150 meters, she will perform a sickle
dance, a crescent shaped flight course. If the field is farther than
150 meters, the forager will act out a waggle dance in which she
will run straight ahead briefly before returning to her original
position in a semi-circular movement. Then, she will run forward
again and return from the opposite side. The length of the forward
run coincides with the distance of the food supplies; for example,
a 2.5 second run indicates that the nectar was found about 2500
meters way.

45
 Recruits also need to know the direction in which they should fly to
arrive at the appropriate foraging location, and this information is
communicated via the bee’s angular orientation to the hive. It,
however, is not a direct connection to the position of the food
supplies from the hive, but its location relative to the sun.
Therefore if the food is situated directly opposite from the sun, the
bee will fly a straight run vertically downward; if it is in the same
direction as the sun, it will fly directly upward from the colony nest.
A position 60 degrees to the right of the sun will prompt the bee to
fly downwards at a 60 degrees angle toward the right of the nest.
Moreover, because the sun is in constant motion throughout the
day, the bee’s orientation will shift depending on the time at which
the dance is performed. Sceptics of von Frisch’s findings, however,
claim that visual cues are not enough to provide all the clues
necessary to convey the location of a food resource. Several
scientists, among them Adrian Wenner, believe that the dance is
only one component of honeybee communications; odour is the
second key element. Using robotic bees to perform the same
dances, Wenner was unable to attract new recruits to the foraging
activities; however, when he added a bit of nectar to the robot,
workers quickly followed. He also discovered that the odors must
be representative of the actual flowers containing the food source;
otherwise the bees will arrive at the site, but not know which ones
will be profitable.
Questions 1 – 3

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 1 – 3 on your answer sheet.

1. Honeybees
A. have a rudimentary ability to convey information.

B. have clearly segregated roles.

46
C. are found in equal numbers of male and female.

D. often relocate to areas with certain types of flower.

2. Research conducted in the 1970s


A. was undertaken using traditional hives.

B. determined that forager bees had special markings.

C. closely studied the phenomenon of the honeybee body


language.

D. concluded that there was no discernible pattern to the


movement of the bees.

3. To identify that the source of nectar is close, forager bees


A. will repeatedly fly the same direction.

B. will begin to move only when other bees are watching.

C. will run straight forward.

D. will repeat a pattern of flying in one direction then abruptly


reversing direction.

Questions 4 – 8

Complete the sentences below USING NO MORE THAN TWO


AND/OR A NUMBER.

Write your answers in boxes 4- 8 on your answer sheet.

47
4. Von Frisch focussed on a number of ________________clues
to deduce how bees communicated.
5. The bee will move forward for one________________ for every
1000 metres away the food source is.
6. To locate the direction of the nectar, the forager will base its
movements on the position of ________________ .
7. For food sources over 150 metres away, the forager will indicate
distance with a _____________ dance.
8. It has been argued that ________________ as well as movement
may help to locate food sources.
Questions 9 – 12

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 9 -12 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9. Drone bees communicate using a complicated set of


movements.
10. The honeybee dance is performed until a number of other
bees join in the collection of the nectar.
11. The honeybee dance is only performed when the sun is visible.
12. Wenner concluded that a matching smell will help bees find
the rough area of the nectar but not the specific source.

48
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-25, which


are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

A. Recent research in Hong Kong indicates that staying in bed after


a long week at school is just what children need to avoid becoming
obese, The research, which focused on children aged five to fifteen,
discovered that those who slept late on Saturdays and Sundays
decreased the probability of having weight problems as they grew
up. Published in the journal Paediatrics, the findings add to
previous research that indicated a connection between regular
sleep deprivation and obesity.

B. The scientists involved believe the weekend lie-in is vital for


school-age children to catch up on the sleep they lose during a
busy week at school. This catch up sleep helps the children to
regulate calorie consumption by cutting down on eating snacks
during waking hours, Scientists and others in the medical fields
have long known that a lack of sleep and irregular sleep patterns
causes obesity as this combination affects the body’s natural
metabolism and tends to also encourage snacking to reduce the
feeling of tiredness. However, this is thought to be the first time
researchers have found sleeping in at weekends to be a key factor
in helping ‘reset’ children’s sleeping patterns.

C. Since the 1980s, obesity rates among children in the UK and in


the United States have been on the rise and medical and childcare
experts fear a diabetes and heart disease epidemic is developing.

49
Although estimates for obesity rates have recently been lowered,
current expectations are that close to one in three boys aged from
two to eleven are likely to be overweight or obese by the year
2020. The prediction for girls is slightly over one in four, a much
lower prediction than ten years ago when forecasts were that
almost half would be overweight.

D. The relationship between sleep deficiency and obesity has been


drawing much attention in the past several years with studies
showing that sleeping just a few hours a night can seriously disturb
the body’s natural metabolism, leading to an increase in overall
calorie intake and a much greater danger of weight-related
illnesses. Yun Kwok Wing of Hong Kong University and other
experts investigated the possibility that catching up on sleep at the
weekends would help youngsters to overcome such disruption of
the bodies metabolism. They questioned the parents of over 5,000
schoolchildren and accumulated data on diet, lifestyle, weight and
sleeping habits. During school time, the average amount of sleep
was a little over nine hours on average. However, a surprising
number of kids slept well under eight hours a night.

E. What the researchers found most interesting was that those


children who managed to catch up on missed sleep on the weekend
actually remained relatively slim while those who did not had a
higher probability of putting on weight (as measured by body mass
index, or BMI). A report the researches published revealed:
“Overweight and obese children tended to wake up earlier and had
shorter sleep durations throughout weekdays, weekends and
holidays than their normal-weight peers. Our study suggests
sleeping longer on weekends or holidays could lower the risk of
being overweight or obese.”

F. The study authors mentioned that reduced sleep duration has


become a hallmark of modern society, with people generally
sleeping one to two hours less than a few decades ago and children
were no exception to this. However, the researchers were not quite

50
sure why obese and overweight children were less likely to sleep
late on weekends, but indicated that they tended to spend more
time doing their homework and watching television than their
normal- weight peers. Still, the researchers urged caution in the
interpretation of their findings, acknowledging that “an irregular
sleep-wake schedule and insufficient sleep among school-aged
children and adolescents has been documented with a variety of
serious repercussions, including increased daytime sleepiness,
academic difficulties, and mood and behavioral problems.”

G. The precise nature of the link between short sleep duration and
obesity remains unclear, said Mary A. Jackson, Professor of
Psychiatry and Human Behavior at Brown University’s Alpert
Medical School in Providence, and Director of Chronobiology at
Bradley Hospital in East Providence. “Evidence has shown that
there are changes in satiety and in levels of the hunger hormones
leptin and ghrelin,” Jackson said. “But there’s also evidence that
kids who are not getting enough sleep get less physical activity,
perhaps simply because they’re too tired. It’s just not cut-and-
dried.” The findings could be of help in slowing down the ongoing
increase in childhood obesity, but for the time being, parents
should be observant of their children’s wake-sleep cycles, and take
steps to ensure they are getting enough sleep, the researchers
advised. Perhaps this is a reminder to us all that despite school,
homework, extracurricular activities, and family time, sleep still
needs to be a priority in a child’s life.

Questions 13 – 15

Choose THREE letters A-G.

Write your answers in boxes 13-15 on your answer sheet.

NB Your answers may be given in any order.

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Which THREE of the following statements are true of the research
in Hong Kong?

A. Researchers discovered that overweight children tend to sleep


more.

B. The researchers believe the weekend lie-in is very important for


busy children.

C. The findings show that overweight children tend to wake up


earlier and sleep less.

D. Obesity in children may be triggered by a fluctuation in sleep


patterns.

E. The researchers do not know the reasons why obese children


are less likely to sleep late on weekends.

F. The researchers interviewed the children’s teachers to gain


information.

G. All children investigated slept more than eight hours a day.

Questions 16 – 21

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 16-21.

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16. Predictions on rates of obesity in children.
17. An outline of the most notable research finding.
18. Ideas on why overweight children don’t sleep in on weekends.
19. How sleeping in on weekends can help a child keep slim.
20. A study looking into sleep deprivation and the affect on body
metabolism.
21. Advice for parents concerned about their children becoming
overweight.
Questions 22 – 25

Complete the summary with the list of words A-L below.

Write the correct letter A-L in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet.

A. recent B. past C. lost E. put F.


difficulty G. inconclusive I. remains J. future
K. immediate

The main findings of the research showed that children who were
able to catch up on 22 ______________ sleep stayed fairly slim
whereas children who did not were much more likely to 23
_______________weight. The researchers mentioned that in
24________________ times a reduction in sleep time has become
common with most people sleeping an hour or two less than in the
past. However, the reasons why overweight children tended to
sleep less on weekends than their slimmer peers 25
________________ a mystery.

53
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40, which are


based on Reading Passage 3 below.

TEAM BUILDING

 Particularly in times of economic downturn, efficiency is of supreme


importance across all industry bases; whilst companies may be
looking to cut their costs, many still invest in staff motivation,
training and development programmes, having developed an
understanding of just how crucial strong internal relationships can
be for success.

 Louise Edwards of HR Success says that one of the barriers she


comes across time and time again is that corporate heads often
seem to understand that ‘team building’ is important but are not
quite sure what it is or how to achieve it. In the terms of a sports
club, she says, the team (i.e. what it is and how it is defined) is
obvious and easy to identify. In contrast, she says, within a
company – particularly a multi-layered, larger organisation,
definitions may become more confused. Many define a business
‘team’ as the group of people who report to the same boss – a
department, for example. However, according to Edwards, it is
more productive to define a team as a group of people working
towards a common goal. In training terms, therefore, this group
could be members of a department with the same roles and
responsibilities, such as a sales team with the common goal of
selling or even the organisation as a whole, whose ‘goal’ in this
case is the continued success of the organisation, their many
different skills and roles all contributing to this in a number of ways.

 Brenda Durham of Corporate Trouble-Shooters believes it


inevitable that to some extent conflict will exist in a successful
workplace since the necessary diversity of skills and personalities
required for success will also unavoidably lead to

54
misunderstandings and disharmony from time to time. A cohesive
unit that minimises friction, she believes, can however be
developed in any organisation committed to investment in its
people. Whilst the taking on of external expertise for staff training
and team building programmes can be costly, a number of
companies, particularly those with a robust human resources
department, are undertaking the training themselves. Liaison
Wizards, established in 2001 and headed by Jeff Blackshaw, offers
free training and development advice to companies wishing to offer
motivation seminars designed in house, in the belief that
contextualised training is always more effective. The company’s
own business model is based upon generating revenue from
advertising on their popular website – a great success, so far,
having surpassed financial projections for each year it has been in
operation to date.

 Blackshaw likens the key to successful corporate team building to


the tactics employed in a less formal sporting environment. He says
that bonds, connections and empathy developed between
members of a rugby team, for example, can also be developed
within a department in the business world or even at company
level. He says that good team work is fostered by respect,
encouragement, shared enthusiasm and a caring and supportive
workplace. Trying to exploit or dictate to personnel is sure to lead
to failure, Blackshaw says.

 Brian Osbourne, Human Resources Director of Opmax Inc, believes


that programmes developed in house are inherently more likely to
be of greater success than external offerings for two main reasons.
Most importantly, he says, people are much easier to motivate if
they themselves can be involved in designing and deciding
activities – this level of consultation at the planning stage being
much easier to achieve for an internal department than an external
consultant. Of only slightly less importance, says Osbourne,
training activities must be perceived by participants as providing
outcomes geared towards developing the individuals’ potential,
Once again, programmes developed by people with an insight into

55
the personalities and culture at hand can be more easily tailored to
suit the distinctive needs of that particular audience.

 According to Osbourne, one of the biggest barriers to successful


staff training is the perception that activities are too game-
focussed, with no real objectives; many professionals, believing
that such games are trite or patronising, are unable to appreciate
the hidden benefits of building understanding and camaraderie
within the group. If presented correctly, within the correct context
and in conjunction with other, more staid approaches, Louise
Edwards holds that games can be an enormous asset in staff
training. In simple terms, Edwards defines the objectives of team
building activities as a process, starting with the first stage – the
clarification of the collective goals. This leads to the identification
of the inhibitors preventing achievement of those goals and the
introduction of enablers which will assist in goal achievement. This
is followed by stage four – the final stage, where outcomes are
measured and from that point on are monitored to ensure that
goals are achieved and continue to be achieved. In stages 2 and 3
(identifying barriers and introducing positive alternatives) Edwards
believes that the use of humour goes a long way towards
relationship building on a personal level through development of
empathy and removal of antipathy, ultimately fostering
cooperation and support on a more formal level.

 Alan Kidman, HR Manager of Tellam Industries agrees that the use


of humour and games within a training context can go a long way
towards helping an organisation achieve its goals. He has recently
designed a two month long in house team building programme for
senior management and will soon be delivering the first of a series
of 8 workshops and activities. The goal of the project, he says, was
to strengthen communication and support within the extremely
diverse departments of the organisation. Heads of six
departments, collectively responsible for over 200 staff members,
are to be involved in the series of seminars. The programme,
Kidman says, is experimental and if it proves to be a success is
also intended for use in the organisation’s branches overseas.
Previously the organisation has taken a more formalised approach

56
to staff development training relying on methods such as
psychometric testing discussions, motivational conferences and
formal appraisals. The new, and as yet untried, approach will
challenge participants in, by comparison, rather radical ways. One
initiative, for example, requiring the writing, organisation and
delivery of a theatrical performance to which all staff members will
be invited to view.

 Team building and motivational approaches include a wide variety


of methodologies, techniques, theories and tools. Experts generally
agree that different options may succeed or fail depending upon
the culture of the organisation in which they are implemented. A
fit with the personalities involved in crucial to success. Not only is
delivery of appropriate training sessions themselves important but
professional and measurable follow up is also a must.
Questions 26 – 30

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


the reading passage?

In boxes 26 -30 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

26. Typical stresses of working with different people are removed


with the correct training.
27. Liaison Wizards claims that training has increased their
income every year since the company started.
28. Many companies are unsuccessful because they are dogmatic
and take advantage of staff.

57
29. In house training is more successful primarily because
employees feel more involved in the planning.
30. The value of games as a training tool can be misunderstood.
Questions 31 – 35

Look at the following list of statements based on Reading Passage


3.

Match the statement with the correct person A-E. You can use
each letter more than once.

A. Louise Edwards

B. Brenda Durham

C. Jeff Blackshaw

D. Brian Osborne

E. Alan Kidman

31. Many companies will experience friction between staff.


32. Training specifically tailored to a company is more efficient
than generic training.
33. Modern methods of training, although still only being piloted,
can bring people from different perspectives together.
34. Successful team relationships are formed in a positive work
environment.
35. A lack of clarity as to what the term ‘team building’ means.
Questions 36 – 40

58
Complete the summary USING NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.

Team building can be considered to have 36 ____________ clear


stages. Initially, it is essential to be clear as to the
37______________ of the entire team or company. Those barriers
which are preventing the team from achieving these aims are
identified as 38 _______________, and are addressed by
introducing enablers. Here the use of 39 ________________ can
be used to help build a cooperative relationship. Finally, success
can be quantified and continually 40 ______________.

READING 20
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12, which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

THE NATURE OF ADDICTION

A. Many people would perhaps, at least as an immediate response,


not consider themselves to be ‘addicts’, yet a closer look into
aspects of lifestyle and mental attitude often reveal a far different
picture. The main problem at presents that the traditional definition
of the word has become blurred and the lines between addiction
and interest are far harder to identify. In the past, the label ‘addict’
was generally applied to those with an insatiable appetite for
certain substances that were traditional known to be harmful,
illegal or both: psychoactive drugs, alcohol and nicotine, for
example. More recently, however, we find that a there is a
multitude of potential addictions. Gambling, food, work, shopping
– all of which are potential areas where addiction can lurk.

B. To try to define the subject of addiction (and in many cases the


subsequent course of treatment to best combat it), psychologists

59
now commonly referred to three distinct categories. The first is
related to those forms of addictions that are perhaps not life-
threatening or particularly dangerous, and are often labelled in an
almost tongue-in-cheek manner, such as the consumption of
chocolate possibly leading to the creation of a ‘chocoholic’. This
category is referred to as soft addiction and is generally related
only to a potential loss of productivity; in the workplace, an
employee who is addicted to social networking sites is likely to be
a less useful member of staff.

C. Substance addiction, however, is a completely different


category, and focuses ‘ on ingestion of a drug (either natural or
synthetic) to temporarily alter the chemical constitution of the
brain. It is a combination of physical and psychological dependency
on substances that have known health dangers, and the knock-on
problem that users in an addicted state will often go to great
lengths to acquire these substances, hence leading to the very
strong connection between drug abuse and crime.

D. Finally there is behavioural addiction, which is regarded as ‘a


compulsion to engage in some specific activity, despite harmful
consequences’ and is a relatively recent entrant to the field. This is
where the ‘soft’ addictions taken go beyond a safe limit and can
become dangerous. Overeating, especially on sweetened foods, is
one of the more common behavioural addictions, potentially
leading to morbid obesity and associated health risks. Also included
in this grouping are concerns like excessive gambling, and for
many the combination of the availability and anonymity of the
internet, as well as a plethora of online gambling sites, has led to
a vast increase in this form of addiction.

E. However, the point at which a soft addiction becomes a


behavioural addiction is both hard to define and cause for
significant controversy. A child who comes home after school and
plays on the internet for three hours is considered by some to be
suffering from a behavioural addiction; to others, this is just a

60
modern form of leisure time and just as valid as reading a book or
playing outside. Another point of friction among people involved in
studying and treating sufferers is that some of the issues covered
by the umbrella term ‘addiction’ are actually mislabelled, and they
belong more to a different category altogether and should be
referred to as ‘Impulse control disorders’.

F. The correct course of action when attempting to overcome an


addiction varies greatly between the type of addiction it is, but also
varies considerably among the medical community. Take
substance addiction, for example. The traditional approach has
been to remove the source – that is, remove the availability of the
drug – but this is now no longer concerned the best long term
approach. The old idea of incarcerating the addict away from any
drugs proved faulty as this did not prevent relapses when back in
society. There is now an increasing tendency to consider not only
the mechanical nature of addiction, but the psychological source.
Often, extreme addictions – both substance based and behavioural
– stem front a psychological root such as stress, guilt, depression
and rejection, and it is for this reason that counselling and open
discussion are having more successful long-term results.

G. For non-professionals with people in their lives who are suffering


from some form of addiction, the importance now is in focussing
on supporting their recovery, not enabling their dependence.
Judgemental attitudes or helping to conceal addiction have been
shown not only to perpetuate the problem, but in many cases
actually exacerbate it.

Questions 1 -6

Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B to G from the list of


headings below.

61
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. A change in methods

i. The falling level of addiction

iii. Biological changes and associated risks

iv. The long term damage of addiction

v. Disagreements about definition

vi. Advice for those involved

vii. The changing nature of addiction in children

viii. The lack of clarity in modem interpretations of addiction

ix. Modern label for taking addiction to extremes

x. Not all addictions are cause for concern

Example: Paragraph A; Answer: viii

1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E

62
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
Questions 7 -12

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-12 on your answer sheet.

7. It is increasingly difficult to differentiate between an addiction


and what?
8. What can soft addictions can lead to a decline in?
9. Addictions that involve consumption of a drug and have a clear
connection with what?
10. What specific addiction has increased considerably over
recent years?
11. In some cases, addictions should actually be labelled as what?
12. Extreme addictions often have what kind of root cause?

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-26 which


are based on Beading Passage 2 below.

POISONOUS ANIMALS

63
 Often benign and beautiful, there are so many potential dangers,
often lethal, hidden in the natural world that our continued
existence on the planet is actually quite astounding. Earthquakes,
tsunami and volcanoes are some of natures more cataclysmic risks,
but fade in comparison to the dangers presented by the more
aggressive flora and fauna around the world.

 There are two classes of creature that use chemicals in either


attack or defence, but it is important to draw a distinction between
those that are considered poisonous and those that are venomous.
A poisonous creature is one that has a chemical component to
dissuade potential predators; they usually secrete toxins through
their skin so that their attacker is poisoned. A venomous creature,
on the other hand, is not so passive – they use toxins not in defence
but in attack. This differentiation is often seen in the colouring of
the creatures in question – those with poisonous toxins are often
brightly coloured as a warning to potential predators, whereas
those classed as venomous are often camouflaged to blend in with
their surroundings, making them more efficient hunters.

 One of the most poisonous animals know to man is the poison


arrow frog, native to Central and South America. Secreting poison
through its skin, a single touch is enough to kill a fully grown
human (in fact, the frog earned its name from the practice of
putting tiny amounts of this poison onto blow darts used by the
native population mainly for hunting and, historically at least, also
for battle). It is interesting to note, however, that when bred in
captivity, the dart frog is not actually poisonous – it generates its
protection from its diet of poisonous ants, centipedes and mites.

 Another poisonous creature is the puffer fish, which is actually


served as a delicacy in Japan. Although not aggressive or externally
dangerous, its extremely high levels of toxicity cause rapid
paralysis and death when ingested, and there is at this point no
known antidote, hence preparation of puffer fish (called ‘fugu’ in
Japan) is restricted only to licensed chefs, In the last ten years, it
has been estimated that over 40 people have been killed by fugu
poisoning due to incorrect preparation of the fish.

64
 Although there are many hundreds, even thousands of poisonous
fauna, the number of venomous animals on the planet far exceeds
their number, perhaps the most well-known of which are snakes
and spiders. In the snake world, the most lethal is the Inland
Taipan. Able to kill up to 100 humans with the intensity of the toxin
in one bite, it can cause death in as little as 45 minutes.
Fortunately, they are not only very shy when it comes to human
contact, there is also a known antivenin (cure), although this needs
to be administered quickly. In the arachnid world, the spider that
has been identified as being the most venomous is the Brazilian
wandering spider. It is responsible for the most number of human
deaths of any spider, but perhaps more alarmingly it is true to its
name, hiding during daytime in populated areas, such as inside
houses, clothes, footwear and cars.

 When scientifically calculating the most venomous, there are two


points which are considered: how many people can be killed with
one ounce of the toxin, and how long it takes for death to occur.
Without doubt, the overall winner in this category is the box
jellyfish. Found mainly in waters in the Indo-Pacific area, they are
notorious in Australia and have even been seen as far south as New
Zealand. The box jellyfish has tentacles that can be as long as 10
feet (hence their other name ‘Fire Medusae’ after Medusa, a
mythological character who had snakes for hair). Each tentacle has
billions of stinging cells, which, when they come into contact with
others, can shoot a poisonous barb from each cell. These barbs
inject toxins which attack the nervous system, heart and skin cells,
the intense pain of which can cause human victims to go in shock,
drown or die of heart failure before even reaching shore.
Questions 13-15

According to the information in the passage, classify the following


information as relating to:

A Poisonous creatures

65
B Venomous creatures

C Both poisonous and venomous creatures

Write the correct letter, A, B or C in boxes 13-15 on your answer


sheet

13. are protected by secretions on their skin.


14. are often colored to match the environment.
15. aggressively use toxins.
Questions 16 – 22

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 16-22 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

16. There is a common misunderstanding of the difference


between poisonous and venomous
17. Significant environmental disasters are more damaging than
animals
18. The poison dart frog obtains its poison from its environment
19. Touching a puffer fish can cause paralysis
20. The Brazilian Wandering spider kills more people every year
than any other venomous creature.

66
21. The box jellyfish can cause death by drowning
22. The tentacles on a box jellyfish are used for movement
Questions 23 – 26

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

23. What do the people of South and Central America principally


use poisoned blow darts for these days?
24. The venom of which creature can be neutralised if medical
intervention is swift?
25. Where does the Brazilian Wandering spider often sleep?
26. After whom does the box jellyfish have its other name?

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 – 40 which


are based on Reading Passage 3.

PROBLEM SOLVING AND DECISION MAKING

 In the business world, much as in life in general, there are


challenges that need to be faced, problems that need solutions and
decisions that need to be made and acted upon. Over recent years,
the psychology behind problem solving and decision making in a
business context has been analysed and taught at a tertiary level.

 Marie Scrive, senior lecturer at Carling University, argues that poor


management skills can be identified in many arenas, but few are

67
perhaps as illustrative as the ability to make accurate judgements
about a course of action to overcome an obstacle. She argues that
there is a tendency for decisions to be made quickly, leading to
only short term solutions and a recurrence of the problem at a later
date. Pressure from other managers, senior staff or even
employees can cause those in middle management to make
decisions based quickly, reacting at speed to a problem that would
have been better solved by a calmer, more inclusive style of
management, However, Martin Hewings, author of Strategic
Thinking, believes that the root of the issue is not in the speed at
which a response is required but in a flawed way of looking at the
problem from the outset. His argument is that most repetitive
problems are actually not permanently resolved because of a lack
of focus as to the true nature of the problem. He advocates a
system whereby the problem must be clearly defined before the
appropriate course of action can be decided upon, and this is
achieved by applying questions to the problem itself: why is this
happening? When is this happening? With whom is this happening?

 Garen Filke, Managing Director of a large paper supply company,


has put Hewings’ steps to the test, and although he referred to the
results as ‘potentially encouraging’, there remains the feeling that
the focus on who is causing the problem, and this in itself is the
main reason for any implemented solution to falter if not fail. With
over 30 years of management experience, Filke holds that looking
at the problem as an organic entity in itself, without reference to
who may be at fault, or at least exacerbating the issue, is the only
way to find a lasting solution. Finger-pointing and blaming leads to
an uncomfortable work environment where problems grow, and
ultimately have a detrimental effect on the productivity of the
workplace.

 Anne Wicks believes that our problem solving abilities are first run
through five distinct filters, and that good managers are those that
can negotiate these filters to arrive at an unbiased, logical and clear
solution. Wicks has built the filters into a ladder through which all
decisions have the potential to be coloured, the first step being
programming – from the day we are born, there is an amount of

68
conditioning that means we accept or reject certain points of view
almost a reflex action. Programming will of course vary from
person to person, but is often more marked when comparing
nationalities. Our programming is the base of our character, but
this is then built on by our beliefs, remembering that for someone
to believe something does not necessarily mean it is true. So
having built from programming to belief, Wicks argues that next
on the ladder are our feelings – how we personally react to an issue
will skew how we look at solving it. If you feel that someone
involved is being unfair or unreasonable, then a solution could
over-compensate for this, which of course would not be effective
in the long run. This has the potential to impact on the next step –
our attitudes. This involves not only those attitudes that are
resistant to change, but also the daily modifications in how we feel
– our mood. A combination of all these steps on the ladder
culminate in our actions – what we choose to do or not do – and
this is the step that most directly controls the success or failure of
the decision making process.

 For some, however, the more psycho-analytical approach to


problem solving has little place in a business decision – a point of
view held by John Tate, former CEO of Allied Enterprise and
Shipping, who believes the secret behind a solid decision is more
mechanical. Tate argues that a decision should be made after a
consideration of all alternatives, and a hierarchical structure that
then takes responsibility for the decision and, most importantly,
follows that decision through to verify whether the problem has
indeed been resolved. From his point of view, a flawed decision is
not one that did not work, but one that was decided on by too
many people leaving no single person with sufficient accountability
to ensure its success.
Question 27 – 33

Match each statement with the correct person.

69
Write the correct answer A-D in boxes 27-33 on your answer
sheet.

27. A successful solution can only be found when there is a clear


corporate structure for decision making.
28. Decisions made without full consideration of the details are a
potential by-product of pressure.
29. Decision making that does not look into motives for the issue
is the primary reason for continued problems.
30. Poor decision making is the most easily identified form of
weak managerial ability.
31. Seeking a staff member on whom responsibility can be placed
can have negative effects.
32. Decision making abilities are at least partly formulated long
before they have any business application.
33. Long term solutions can only be found by asking the right
questions.
List of People

A. Marie Scrive

B. Martin Hewings

C. Garen Filke

D. Anne Wicks

E. John Tate

70
Questions 34-37

Complete the flowchart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 34 to 37 on your answer sheet.

ACTIONS
what we opt to either do or not do


APTITUDES
can be short term and relate to 37_____________ at a particular time


36_________________
could lead to complications when reacting to others

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BELIEFS
possibly only personally held beliefs, not necessarily universally
35_______________


34_______________
conditioned to react; often influenced by place of birth

Questions 38 – 40

Do the following statements agree with the views given in Reading


Passage 3?

In boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views given

NO if the statement contradicts the views given

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say

38. It is only in recent years that the mental processes behind


decision making have been studied.
39. Garen Filke completely disagrees with the conclusion drawn
by Martin Hewings.

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40. John Tate believes that successful decision making is not
related to psychology

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READING 21
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

AUSTRALIA’S PLATYPUS

 Of all the creatures on the earth, the Australian


platypus, Omithorbynchusparadoxus, is perhaps one of the most
mysterious and reclusive. Derived from the Latin platys meaning
‘flat and broad’ and pous meaning ‘foot’, the platypus has long
been an iconic symbol of Australia. Upon being discovered in
Australia in the 1700s, sketches of this unusual creature were
made and sent back to England whereupon they were considered
by experts to be a hoax. Indeed, the incredible collection of its body
parts – broad, flat tail, rubbery snout, webbed feet and short dense
fur – make it one of the world’s most unusual animals.

 Officially classified as a mammal, the egg-laying platypus is mostly


active during the night, a nocturnal animal. As if this combination
of characteristics and behaviours were not unusual enough, the
platypus is the only Australian mammal known to be venomous.
The male platypus has a sharply pointed, moveable spur on its hind
foot which delivers a poison capable of killing smaller animals and
causing severe pain to humans. The spur – about 2 centimetres in
length – is quite similar to the fang of a snake and, if provoked, is
used as a means of defence. Those who have been stung by a
platypus’ spur report an immediate swelling around the wound
followed by increased swelling throughout the affected limb.
Excruciating, almost paralysing pain in the affected area
accompanies the sting which, in some victims has been known to
last for a period of months. One report from a victim who was stung
in the palm of the hand states that “…the spur could not be pulled
out of the hand until the platypus was killed.” During the breeding
season, the amount of venom in the male platypus increases. This
has led some zoologists to theorise that the poisonous spur is

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primarily for asserting dominance amongst fellow-males. To be
stung by a male platypus is a rare event with only a very small
number of people being on the receiving end of this most reclusive
creature.

 In the same area of the hind foot where the male has the poisonous
spur, the female platypus only develops two buds which drop off in
their first year of life never to appear again. The female platypus
produces a clutch of one to three eggs in late winter or spring,
incubating them in an underground burrow. The eggs are 15-18
millimetres long and have a whitish, papery shell like those of
lizards and snakes. The mother is believed to keep the eggs warm
by placing them between her lower belly and curled-up tail for a
period of about 10 or 11 days as she rests in an underground nest
made of leaves or other vegetation collected from the water. The
baby platypus drinks a rich milk which is secreted from two round
patches of skin midway along the mother’s bell)’. It is believed that
a baby platypus feeds by slurping up milk with rhythmic sweeps of
its stubby bill. When the juveniles first enter the water at the age
of about four months, they are nearly (80-90%) as long as an
adult. Male platypus do not help to raise the young.

 In Australia, the platypus is officially classified as ‘Common but


Vulnerable’. As a species, it is not currently considered to be
endangered. However, platypus populations are believed to have
declined or disappeared in many catchments 1, particularly in urban
and agricultural landscapes. In most cases, the specific underlying
reasons for the reduction in numbers remain unknown. Platypus
surveys have only been carried out in a few catchments in eastern
Australia. It is therefore impossible to provide an accurate estimate
of the total number of platypus remaining in the wild. Based on
recent studies, the average platypus population density along
relatively good quality streams in the foothills of Victoria’s Great
Dividing Range is only around one to two animals per kilometre of
channel. Because platypus are predators near the top of the food
chain and require large amounts of food to survive (up to about
30% of a given animal’s body weight each day), it is believed that
their numbers are most often limited by the availability of food,

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mainly in the form of bottom-dwelling aquatic invertebrates such
as shrimps, worms, yabbies, pea-shell mussels, and immature and
adult aquatic insects. Small frogs and fish eggs are also eaten
occasionally, along with some terrestrial insects that fall into the
water from overhanging vegetation.
1
: Catchments are an area of land drained by a creek or river
system, or a place set aside for collecting water which runs off the
surface of the land.

 Until the early twentieth century, platypus were widely killed for
(heir fur. The species is now protected by law throughout Australia.
Platypus are wild animals with specialised living requirements. It is
illegal for members of the public to keep them in captivity. A
platypus which has been accidentally captured along a stream or
found wandering in an unusual place should never be taken home
and treated as a pet, even for a brief time. The animal will not
survive the experience. Only a small number of Australian zoos and
universities hold a permit to maintain platypus in captivity for
legitimate display or research purposes. Current Australian
government policy does not allow’ this species to be taken overseas
for any reason.
Questions 1-5

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?

In boxes 1- 5 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in


the passage

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1 The appearance of the platypus caused experts to doubt
it was real.

2 The amount of venom in a male platypus changes during


the year.

3 Most platypus live in Eastern Australia.

4 Snake venom and platypus venom are very similar.

5 Because their environment is specialised, platypus cannot


be kept as pets.

Questions 6 -9

Complete the summary.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

Male and Female Platypus

Platypus are unique Australian animals. Although all platypus share


many similarities, the male and female are somewhat different
from each other. For example, on the hind feet, the male has a
6____________ while the young female has 7______________.
In the 8_______________ the mother keeps her eggs warm and,
once born, supplies her 9_______________. On the other hand,
the male platypus does not help raise the young at all.

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Questions 10 -13

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 1.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

10 Even though the platypus is not endangered, it is


considered _________________.

11 Platypus numbers in ________________ areas have


declined in many catchments.

12 Platypus numbers are low which is probably due to a lack


of _________________.

13 Platypus captivity for research and study purposes requires


a _________________.

READING PASSAGE 2

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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are
based on Reading Passage 2.

Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of
headings below.

Write the correct number i-ix in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Research into short periods of sleep

ii. Famous people, short sleepers

iii. Measuring sleep movement

iv. Sleep experiments over the past century

v. Monitoring the effects of sleep deprivation

vi. Antarctic and Arctic sleep means quality sleep

vii. Challenging research in reduced normal sleeping hours

viii. Are we getting enough sleep?

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ix. The impact of noise on sleep

x. Sleep experiments in an isolated area

Example: Paragraph A; Answer: viii

14 Paragraph B

15 Paragraph C

16 Paragraph D

17 Paragraph E

18 Paragraph F

A. Almost every living creature sleeps. For humans, it is typically


something we dislike doing when we are younger and, as we age,
something we increasingly look forward to at the end of each day.
On the one hand, it is something that we absolutely need to sustain
our life and on the other, we tend to feel guilty if we spend more
time in bed than we should. Sleep researcher Professor Stanley
Limpton believes that 7 hours – the average amount of sleep most
people get per night – is not enough. Limpton points out that the
average person is now getting 2 hours less sleep than those who
lived 100 years ago and contends that this lack of sleep is one of
the main reasons so many people are often clumsy, unhappy,
irritable and agitated. Other scientists share Limpton’s thinking.
Many other researchers feel that we are not getting enough sleep
and the negative impacts are being regularly felt around the world
in the workplace and in the home.

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B. The first experiments in recorded scientific history on the effects
of people not getting enough sleep took place in the late 1800s.
According to records, three volunteers were deprived of sleep for
a total of 90 hours. Later on, in 1920 more experiments in sleep
deprivation were conducted by scientists where several people
were deprived of sleep for a period of 60 hours. The results of many
sleep deprivation experiments have been recorded and conducted
by American ‘sleep scientist’ Nathaniel Kleitman. Often referred to
as ‘the father of modern sleep research’, Kleitman’s work has
formed the foundation for many areas of current sleep research.
In one experiment, Kleitman examined thirty five volunteers who
had been awake for 60 hours and also conducted an experiment
on himself, remaining awake for a total of 100 hours. It was
revealed that people who are sleep-deprived for periods of more
than 60 hours try to fall asleep in any environment and show- signs
of mental disturbances, visions and hallucinations. As the length of
sleep deprivation increases, so too does the mental decline in an
individual. Having studied a group of 3 sleep deprived people, sleep
researcher Dr. Tim Oswald, concluded that chronic sleep
deprivation often leads to drastic consequences. Oswald’s
experiments reinstated the necessity of sleep for proper human
functioning.

C. Studies of sleep patterns in some of the more remote areas of


the world have also been a subject of interest amongst sleep
researchers. It is well-known that during the summer months in
both the Arctic and Antarctic Circles the phenomenon known as the
midnight sun occurs. Given fair weather conditions, the sun is
visible for a continuous 24 hours. One summer, Dr. Peter Suedfeld
traveled to the Arctic and conducted a series of research projects.
All participants were required to get rid of all clocks, watches and
any other timekeeping devices and conduct work and sleep
according to their own ‘body dock’. Those involved in the
experiment were required to note down when they- had a nap and
when they actually went to bed. The results were that most people
slept around 10 hours per day and all participants reported feeling
completely invigorated and refreshed.

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D. The affect of sleep interruptions have also been a focal point of
some sleep research. In urban societies, traffic and aircraft noise
are often referred to as ‘the bane of urban existence’. Tom
Grimstead took people who were classified as ‘good sleepers’ from
quiet neighbourhoods and introduced into their bedrooms and
night the noise equivalents of a major urban road. An actimeter –
a device which measures the amount of movement in sleep – was
used to gauge the quality of the participant’s sleep. The
participants emerged from the experiment in a depressed-like
state after four days. Grimstead reported that participants had
depression and mood scores similar to people with clinical
depression…a reduction in certain performance tasks was also
noted’.

E. Another area of interest in the field of sleep study involves such


famous people as Thomas Edison and Winston Churchill who,
reportedly, were known to be and have been classified as short
sleepers. A short sleeper is one who claims to be able to get by
with only 4 or 5 hours of sleep per night. Dr David Joske. secretary’
of the British Sleep Association believes that ‘genetically short
sleepers may have some natural resistance to the effects of sleep
deprivation but it is not entirely certain why some people seem to
require more and others less՝. Determining what makes up the
differences between short and long sleepers has been difficult for
researchers. Says Joske, ‘When we brought long and short sleepers
into controlled environments which were dark and soundproof we
found that all participants slept between nine and ten hours, which
seemed to preclude the short sleeper category.’

F. A study in Norway was undertaken on a number of bus drivers.


They were hooked up to various computers which monitored their
states of being awake. The study revealed that bus drivers were
asleep for as much as 25% of the time they were driving the bus.
What the drivers w ere having was a series of ‘micro-sleeps’ – short
periods of time of 10 to 20 seconds where they would be classified
as being asleep. In the micro-sleep state, the individual may

82
appear awake, even with their eyes open but in fact they are
actually sleeping.

Questions 19 – 23

Look at the following list of statements (Questions 19-23) and the


list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct company.

Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

19 People need to increase their average amount of sleep.

20 Extended periods of no sleep causes serious health


problems.

21 Some need more sleep and others seem to get by with less
sleep.

22 The quality of sleep can be measured by an individual’s


sleep activity.

23 Most people need to sleep the same number of hours.

List of Researchers

A David Joske

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B Stanley Limpton

C Tim Oswald

D Tom Grimstead

Questions 24 and 25

Choose TWO letters A-F.

Write your answers in boxes 24 and 25 on your answer sheet.

The list below lists some health issues associated with lack of sleep.

Which TWO of these health issues are mentioned by the writer?

A. heart problems

B. nervous disorders

C. dizziness

D. depression

E. problems with mental state

F. increased blood pressure

Question 26

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Choose the correct letter, A-E

Write the correct letter in box 26 on your answer sheet.

Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage
2?

A. The importance of sleep

B. Studies in sleep

C. How much sleep we need

D. The effect of sleep patterns

E. Modern perspectives on sleep

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are


based on Reading Passage 3.

THE SEARCH FOR FRESH WATER

 The assertion that water has always been the essence of life is
nothing new. Water comes in many forms: spring water, sea and
river water, rainwater, and fog and dew water. Yet water is
becoming scarce and this scarcity is becoming a very real worry for
governments all around the world. The reality is that one of the
main obstacles to the economic development of a particular
country is its lack of an adequate supply of fresh water. Current
figures show that an inhabitant of a wealthy, modern town

85
consumes 100-400 litres of water daily. In some developing
countries the amount of water consumed does not exceed 20-30
litres per day. Rich or poor, annual water consumption has
continued to grow, increasing fourfold over the last 50 years.

 The world’s fresh water supplies are drawn from a number of


sources. The largest cache of the estimated 35 million km3 fresh
water reserve is located in glaciers and snow. The amount
contained in these ‘storehouses’ has been estimated to be around
24 million km3. Ground water is also a big contributor to the
world’s fresh water supplies amounting to an estimated 10.5
million km3. Considering that the total volume of water, salt and
fresh, is estimated to be around 400 million km3 it can be clearly
seen that the amount of fresh water available in the world is only
the proverbial ‘drop in the bucket՝. Artesian wells, rivers and lakes
only account for about 0.1 and 0.5 million km3 respectively, all of
which include atmospheric precipitation such as rain and snow.

 Since water is such an important commodity, various attempts to


acquire stores of it have been tried with varying degrees of
success. The question of what are the alternative water sources
available to us today is not an easy one to answer but is certainly
worthy of our best efforts to find one. One such area of interest
has been desalination – the turning of salt water into drinkable
water. As there is much more salt water on the earth than dry land,
the idea of using desalinated seawater seems a logical one.
However, some estimates put the annual quantity of desalinated
water at only around ten cubic kilometres – a tiny amount given
the amount of sea water available. In parts of Senegal, for
example, the greenhouse effect has been one way to desalinate
seawater whereby the salt in the water is separated from the water
through a process of evaporation. As part of the process, water
vapour forms on large panes of glass at outside air temperature
and is transported via gravity into drums. This method yields only
a few cubic meters per day of fresh water but is surprisingly energy
efficient. In larger scale production however, the energy efficiency
plummets. The best systems bum at least a tonne of fossil fuel to

86
produce approximately one hundred cubic metres of fresh water.
This amounts to almost $ 1 per cubic metre – a considerable cost.

 Although there are several different areas from which water can be
sourced, paradoxically the most extensive are the most difficult to
tap. The atmosphere, for example, contains vast amounts of fresh
water composed of 2% condensed water in the form of clouds and
98% water vapour. The vastness of this water source is
comparable to the renewable liquid water resources of all inhabited
lands. The amounts are easy to calculate, but being able and
knowing how to economically obtain this water in liquid form is
most challenging. One approach in drawing water from the
atmosphere is fog nets. Places such as the coastal desens of West
Africa and areas of Chile and Peru have favourable condensation
conditions. In these areas, ocean humidity condenses in the form
of fog on the mid-range mountains (over 500m). This fog
composed of droplets of suspended water can be collected in nets.
In the 1960s, a University in Northern Chile conducted the first
major experiments with fog nets. Drawing on the knowledge
gained from these experiments, further testing was done which
culminated in one village using fog nets to yield a healthy daily
average of 11,000 litres of water. On a smaller scale, fog-collecting
nets have recently been used in the Canary Islands and Namibia.

 Unfortunately, due to its need for a combination of several factors,


fog is not readily available. Dew however appears far more
frequently and is less subject to the constraints of climate and
geography. In order for dew to form there needs to be some
humidity in the air and a reasonably clear sky. Many hot areas of
countries that suffer from a lack of water such as the Sahel region
of Northern Africa for example, experience significant quantities of
dew. When the temperature is lowered over a short space of time
by ten degrees or so, the water-harvesting possibilities from the
air yield an amazing ten grams of water from each cubic meter of
air – significant drops in air temperature make for greater yields.
Unlike fog, dew formation can occur even in a relatively dry
atmosphere, such as a desert. All it takes is for the right mix of

87
temperatures between the earth and the air to combine and dew
formation occurs.
Questions 27 -29

Choose the correct letter, A, B. C or D

Write your answers in boxes 27-29 on your answer sheet.

27. As a method of obtaining fresh water, fog


A. forms best when the air is dry.

B. is easier to collect than dew.

C. is being tried in a large-scale way in Senegal.

D. is not easy to collect.

28. Small-scale ‘greenhouse effect’ desalination


A. uses a considerable amount of energy.

B. is the most effective way to obtain larger water reserves.

C. uses very little energy.

D. burns quite a lot of fossil fuel.

29. One of the largest stores of fresh water in the world is


A. rivers and lakes.

B. atmospheric rain and snow.

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C. ground water.

D. artesian wells.

Questions 30 – 34

Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F from the box
below.

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 30-34 on your answer sheet.

30 Turning salt water into drinking water

31 Large-scale fresh water production through evaporation

32 Water available in the atmosphere

33 The use of dew as a water source

34 The amount of water collected from dew

A. is quite popular due to it not being too affected by temperature


and location.

B. is being tried via an evaporation process.

C. is not energy efficient.

D. is best for poorer countries.

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E. is made up of both clouds and water vapour.

F. is increased when temperatures fall rapidly.

Questions 35 – 40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

35. The amount of water consumed by wealthier countries is just


as much as poorer countries.

36. Glaciers, rivers, artesian wells and ground water are all sources
of fresh water.

37. Large bodies of water, such as the sea, have yielded the most
fresh water.

38. The collection of water through the use of fog nets is becoming
increasingly more popular around the world.

39. If the sky is cloudy, dew will not form.

90
40. Dew and fog are major sources of water in smaller villages and
isolated areas.

READING 22
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

91
LOOKING IN THE TELESCOPE

A story is told that around 400 years ago some children were
fooling around in an eye glass shop. They noticed that when they
placed lenses one on top of the other, they were able to see a
considerable distance. They played around with the concept for a
while, experimenting with what happened when they varied the
distance between the lenses. Hans Lippershey, the Dutch lens
maker who eventually applied for the first telescope patent, credits
children as having been his motivation for the invention of the first
telescope.

The first telescopes built in the early 1600s were very primitive
inventions allowing the user to see around 3-times further than the
naked eye. It was not too long however, until Italian astronomer
Galileo heard about the invention ‘that through use of correctly-
positioned lenses, allowed people to see things a long way away’.
The tools used in the manufacturing of the first refracting telescope
was all Galileo needed to know and within 24 hours he had
developed a better one. In fact, the process of improvements
Galileo made on Lippershey’s telescope were quite dramatic.
Whereas the original version had a magnification of 3, the new
telescope had a magnification of around 30. Galileo achieved these
extraordinary results by figuring out the combination of the
positions of the lenses and also by making his own lenses which
were of better quality. Although he originally thought they were
stars, the better quality lenses – and some scientific analysis –
enabled him to eventually use his telescopes to see the moons of
Jupiter. Galileo’s refracting telescopes – so-called due to the way
they handled the light that passed through them – were the
standard at that time.

Some 70 years later, British scientist Isaac Newton, explored the


way a prism refracts 1 white light into an array of colors. He
recognised that a lens was a circular prism and that the separation
of colors limited the effectiveness of the telescopes in use at the

92
time. Newton created a Reflective Telescope, one that used a dish-
shaped or parabolic mirror to collect light and concentrate the
image before it was visible in the eyepiece. Thus, lenses used for
magnification in telescopes were replaced by mirrors. Mirrors have
since been the standard for telescopes. In fact, according to
telescope researcher Dr. Carl Addams, the basic designs of
telescopes have not changed much in the last 100 years. What has
changed however, is the way technology has been used to improve
them. For example, the larger telescopes in the world today are
around 10 metres in diameter and the mirrors placed within them
are so finely polished that even at the microscopic level there are
no scratches or bumps on them at all. To achieve such a flawless
surface requires a very expensive process that operates with the
utmost precision.

1
: The separation or change of direction of a ray of light when
passed through a glass of water.

The mid 1700s, saw the discovery and production of the


Achromatic telescope. This type of telescope differed from previous
ones in the way it handled the different wavelengths of light. The
first person who succeeded in making achromatic refracting
telescopes seems to have been the Englishman, Chester Moore
Hall. The telescope design used two pieces of special optical glass
known as crown and flint Each side of each piece was ground and
polished and then the two pieces were assembled together.
Achromatic lenses bring two wavelengths – typically red and blue
– into focus in the same plane. Makers of achromatic telescopes
had difficulty locating disks of flint glass of suitable purity needed
to construct them. In the late 1700s, prizes were offered by the
French Academy of Sciences for any chemist or glass-manufacturer
that could create perfect discs of optical flint glass however, no one
was able to provide a large disk of suitable purity and clarity.

Currently the largest telescopes are around eight to ten metres in


size. These extremely expensive and sophisticated pieces of

93
equipment are located primarily throughout Europe and America.
Dr Addams believes that the telescopes of the future will be a
gigantic improvement in what is currently considered state-of-the-
art. Telescopes that are 20 or 30 metres in diameter are currently
being planned, and there has been a suggestion put forward by a
European firm that they would like to build a 100-metre telescope.
Says Addams, ‘The quality of the glass needed to build a 100 meter
telescope is like building a lens the size of a football field and
having the largest bump in that football field being a ten-
thousandth of a human hair’. The engineering and technology
required to build such a flawless reflective surface is most
impressive.

Questions 1 – 5

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

1.According to the writer, the first telescope was

A. invented by children.

B. made by a lens maker.

C. a reflective telescope.

D. quite a complex piece of equipment.

2. The writer states that Galileo

A. improved on the design of the first telescope.

94
B. created the first reflective telescope.

C. took 24 hours to make a reflective telescope.

D. allowed people to see 3 times further than the first telescope.

3. The Galileo telescope was better than the first telescope because
it

A. used mirrors rather than glass.

B. was longer than the first telescope.

C. used better lens positioning and quality.

D. used better quality lenses and glass.

4. The writer states that today large telescopes are

A. 20 or 30 metres in size.

B. as big as 100 metres.

C. very costly items.

D. as good as will ever be built.

5. Large, powerful telescopes are difficult to build because

A. designs have not changed in nearly 100 years.

95
B. it is difficult to locate the flint glass needed for them.

C. the area needed to house the telescope is simply too large.

D. the lenses must be extremely reflective.

Questions 6 – 10

Classify the following features as belonging to

A. the Achromatic telescope

B. the Reflective telescope

C. the Refracting telescope

Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 6-10 on your answer


sheet.

6. The first telescopes made.


7. Uses a series of lenses one on top of the other.
8. Highly polished lenses.
9. First use of mirrors to collect light.
10. Two pieces of glass stuck together.
Questions 11 -13

Complete the summary below using words from the passage.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

96
Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet

There have been a number of changes in telescopes since they


were first invented. For example, Galileo’s telescope increased
magnification of the previously made telescope by a factor of 30.
He did this by altering the lenses 11_______________ and also
constructing lenses 12______________. Other improvements
followed but the most significant step forward, and still a major
factor today in telescope design, has been the inclusion of
13_______________.

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which


are based on Reading Passage 2.

A. The intense rate of change in the world gives rise to numerous


new products – many of them electronic. What is brand new and
state-of-the-art one month is quickly relegated to old model’ status
the next. Within the world of computing, this frenetic pace of
change has led to millions of out-dated, worthless products.
Keystone, an American-based research company reported. In
2005, one computer became obsolete for every new one introduced
in die market. By the year 2010, experts estimate that in the USA
there will be over 500 million obsolete computers. Most of these
computers will be destined for landfills, incinerators or hazardous
waste exports.’ Old, outdated keyboards, monitors and hard drives
all combine to produce what is now widely known as ‘e-waste’ and
the way to appropriately dispose of them is proving to be a
challenge.

B. Most computers are a complicated assembly of hundreds of


different materials, many of which are highly toxic. Most computer
users are unaware that these toxic metals, acids, plastics and other
substances have been shown to be the cause of various blood

97
diseases and cancers, Amongst workers involved in the recycling
of computer products, there has been a proliferation of blood
diseases Printed circuit boards for example, contain heavy metals
such as antimony, silver, chromium, zinc, lead, tin and copper.
Environmentalist Kieran Shaw estimates there is hardly any other
product for which the sum of the environmental impacts of raw
material, extraction, industrial refining and production, use and
disposal is so extensive as for printed circuit boards.

C. Workers involved in the disposal of computers via incineration


are themselves being exposed to significantly high levels of
toxicity. Copper, for example, is a catalyst in the release of harmful
chemicals when exposed to the high tempera lures of incineration.
In US and Canadian environments, incineration is one of the
greatest sources of heavy metal contamination of the atmosphere.
Unfortunately, another form of incineration, smelting, can present
dangers similar to incineration. Concerns have been expressed that
the Noranda .Smelter in Quebec, Canada is producing atmospheric
pollutants from the residual presence of plastics in the e-scrap.

D. In an effort to explore other alternatives, landfills have been


tried, Studies have Shown however, that even the best landfills are
not completely safe, In feet the shortcomings of dealing with waste
via modern landfills are well documented. The main ‘offender’ in
the area of metal leaching is mercury. In varying degrees, mercury
escapes or leaches from certain electronic devices such as circuit
breakers, condensers and computer circuit boards into the soil,
According to Phil Stevenson, managing director of CleanCo a
recycling plant in the UK, ‘Everyone knows that landfills leak – it
has become common knowledge Even the best, state-of-the-art
landfills are not completely tight throughout their lifetimes, to one
degree or another, a certain amount of chemical and metal
leaching occurs The situation is far worse for older or less stringent
dump sites. If uncontrolled fires are allowed to burn through these
landfill areas, other toxic chemicals such as lead and cadmium are
released.

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E. An overwhelming majority of the world’s hazardous e-waste is
generated by the industrialised market economies. Because labour
costs are cheap and government regulations in some countries are
decidedly lax, the exporting of e-waste has been practiced as
another method to deal with its disposal. In the USA for example,
Datatek, a research company, estimated that it was 12 times
cheaper to ship old computer monitors to China than it was to
recycle them. Data on the prevalence of this activity is scarce due
to past bad publicity and dealers of e-scrap not bothering to
determine the final destination of the products they sell in 1989
the world community established the Basel Convention on the
Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Waste for final Disposal to
stop the industrialised nations of the OECD from dumping their
waste on and in less-developed countries.

F. Europe has taken the lead on e-waste management by requiring


governments to implement laws controlling the production and
disposal of electrical products. The European Union (EL) lias drafted
legislation on Waste from Electrical and Electronic Equipment (the
WE EE Directive) based on a concept known as Extended Producer
Responsibility (EFR), Essentially, EFR places the responsibility’ of
the production and disposal squarely on the shoulders of the
producers of electronic products, it requires that producers
consider carefully the environmental impact of the products they
bring to the marketplace. The aim of EPR is to encourage producers
of electrical equipment to prevent pollution and reduce resource
and energy use at each stage of the product file cycle. The lead in
Europe has been necessary’ because WERE is about three times
higher than the growth of any other municipal waste streams.

G. WEE legislation will phase-out the use of toxic substances such


as mercury, cadmium and lead in electronic and electrical goods
by the year 2008. It will require producers of electrical equipment
to be responsible financially for the collection, recycling and
disposal of their products. It has stipulated that products
containing any lead, mercury, cadmium and other toxic substances
must not be incinerated. It encourages producers to integrate an

99
increasing quantity of recycled material in any new products they
produce. In fact, between 70% and 90% by weight of all collected
equipment must be recycled or re-used. These directives will go a
long way toward improving the e-waste problem in Europe and
other governments of the world should look seriously at
implementation of some or all of the legislation.

Questions 14 – 20

Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of
headings below.

Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 14-20 on your answer


sheet.

List of Headings

i. Exporting e-waste

ii. The hazards of burning computer junk

iii. Blame developed countries for e-waste

iv. Landfills are not satisfactory

v. Producer’s legal responsibility

vi. The dangers of computer circuit boards

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vii. Electronic changes bring waste

viii. European e-waste laws

ix. The dangerous substances found in computers

x. Landfills and mercury leaching

xi. New products must contain recycled products

14 Paragraph A

15 Paragraph B

16 Paragraph C

17 Paragraph D

18 Paragraph E

19 Paragraph F

20 Paragraph G

Questions 21 -24

Look at the following list of statements (Questions 21-24) and the


list of companies below.

Match each statement with the correct company.

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Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 21-24 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

21 waste sites without strict dumping rules leads to big


problems

22 e-waste should be re-located to other countries

23 most old computers will be buried or burned

24 it is impossible to contain metal waste in soil

List of companies

A. Noranda Smelter

B. Datatek

C. Keystone

D. CleanCo

Questions 25 -27

Choose THREE letters, A-G,

Write the correct letters in boxes 25-27 on your answer sheet.

102
According to the information in the text, which THREE of the
following pollution laws have been proposed in Europe?

A Manufacturers will have to pay for disposal of their


products.

B Manufacturers must dispose of the electronic goods they


produce.

C Products made in Europe must be completely recyclable.

D Consumers are responsible for the disposal of the products


they purchase.

E Disposal of products containing mercury should be


incinerated.

F Other governments around the world will implement the


EU laws.

G A large percentage of old products must be included in new


products.

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which


are bused on Reading Passage 3.

PREPARING FOR THE THREAT

It is an unfortunate fact that over the past 20 pars, around 260


million people a year have been affected by natural disasters

103
around the world. Regrettably, a vast majority of the victims of this
staggering number are from developing countries. Whether it be
earthquakes, tornadoes, floods, volcanoes or tsunamis, over the
past twenty years, natural disasters have been happening more
frequently and affecting more people than ever before. It follows
that the international community should address the issue of
‘disaster preparedness’ and establish a process by which natural
disasters are dealt with.

On December 26, 2004, a massive earthquake centered off the


coast of the Indonesian island of Sumatra caused a series of deadly
tsunamis in the Indian Ocean. The damage from this extraordinary
disaster was estimated to be in the vicinity of US $ 13 billion – the
equivalent to the combined GDP 1 of the world’s developing
countries for an entire year. In a matter of seconds, the tsunami
waves wiped out the long years of struggle for development, and
the world was once again reminded of the fearsome and
destructive power of natural disasters.

1
Gross Domestic Product is the total value of goods and services
produced by a country in a year.

The United Nations designated the 1990s as the International


Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction, and has been active in
promoting and developing international cooperation on disaster
preparedness. The UN’s Yokohama Strategy for a Safer World:
Guidelines for Natural Disaster Prevention, Preparedness and
Mitigation was adopted in 1994. Among the guidelines, developing
countries are encouraged to organise and implement their
domestic resources for disaster reduction activities and donor
developed countries are encouraged to give greater priority to
disaster prevention, mitigation and preparedness in their
assistance programs and budgets, including through increasing
financial contributions.

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In January, 2005 the UN World Conference on Disaster Reduction
(WCDR) met in Kobe, Hyogo Prefecture to discuss and debate how
the international community should address issues of disaster
preparedness and mitigation. The meeting itself attended by over
4,000 delegates representing some 168 countries occurred almost
10 years to the day after the Great Hanshin earthquake in Kobe.
The January meeting of the WCDR in Kobe provided experts and
scientists from over 150 countries, government officials, Non-
Government Organisation (NGOs) and United Nations
representatives an opportunity to review the Yokohama Strategy.
It recorded on the 2005-15 Yokohama Strategy Action Plan that
participant countries and agencies should work over the next 10
years to reduce vulnerability to natural disasters. The Action Plan
encourages as a first step, the integration of disaster prevention
programs in all development and policy-making plaits for all
countries. Jim Edgeland, UN representative stated, “Disaster risk
reduction is not an additional expense – it is an essential
investment in our common future, but the benefits of this
investment will be calculated not only in dollars or euros or yen
saved, but most importantly, in saved lives in every corner of the
globe.”

Perhaps the most significant work done at the WCDR meetings was
the drafting and adoption of the Hyogo Declaration, This document
expresses the united determination of the international community
to rely not only on advanced technology or facilities for disaster
preparedness, but on a people-centered early warning system. The
people-centered system requires effective communication and
education in the building of disaster-resilient countries and
communities.

As the intergovernmental panels of the WCDR were meeting, the


Great Hanshin-Awaji Earthquake Forum was also underway. The
earthquake measuring a magnitude of 7.3, led to the Joss of over
6,400 lives and widespread destruction affecting some 460,000
households. This public forum offered a variety of sessions, during
which the lessons learned from the disastrous earthquake were

105
discussed. Earthquake expert Professor Tomohiro Kawata said,
“Because this disaster happened over a decade ago, the memory
of the devastation can be forgotten. Part of our gathering here
today is to make sure that we do not forget what happened back
in 1995.’’ Also included were some personal stories from the
earthquake victims themselves. Earthquake victim Kumiko Nagota
told attendees that her house collapsed in the Kobe earthquake
and she was trapped under it. She tried to call for help but after a
while she lost her voice and just had to wait there until help came.
Attendees were told of bow the town mobilised to facilitate
recovery and reconstruction. An exhibition hall showed pictures of
mounds of rubble produced by the earthquake as well as a display
of objects donated by earthquake victims including a broken clock
and a child’s toy that molted in the fires caused by the earthquake.
Said Kawata, “As well as being a memorial, our facility and, indeed
this forum, is a place to learn from earthquake experiences and
incorporate the things we learned into our preparations for future
disasters”. During the forum, it was agreed that in May 2005, a
new hub for the coordination of international disaster recovery
support activities wrould be established in Kobe.

Questions 28 – 31

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

106
28 Mostly people from poorer countries are affected by natural
disasters.

29 Present-day natural disasters are more dangerous than


disasters of the past.

30 It will take the countries affected by the tsunami many


years to rebuild.

31 Being prepared and knowing what to do in a disaster should


be a global issue.

Questions 32 -35

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet

32. According to the passage, reducing the risk of disasters is


important because

A. countries can then focus on growth and development.

B. communities will be drawn together in support of each other.

C. help international communities to be more economically stable.

D. it will save lives and money.

33. According to the writer, the most important outcome of the


World Conference on Disaster Reduction (WCDR) was the

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A. discussion and debate amongst the international community
attendees.

B. chance for participants to review the Yokohama Strategy.

C. writing and acceptance of the Hyogo Declaration.

D. acknowledgement that disaster risk reduction is an investment


in the future.

34. The town of Kobe was effectively rebuilt due to

A. the support of the United Nations.

B. the people of Kobe.

C. the Government of Japan.

D. the leadership of Professor Kawata.

35. The stated purpose of the Great Hanshin-Awaji Earthquake


Forum was

A. to help others Ire better prepared for any future natural


disasters.

B. for people to learn more about natural disasters.

C. to remember the Kobe earthquake of 1995.

D. for people to remember and team from what happened.

108
Questions 36 – 40

Look at the following statements (Questions 36 – 40) and the list


of disaster control initiatives below.

Match each statement with the correct disaster control


initiative, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 36-40 on your answer


sheet.

36. people should be the early broadcasters of disaster information

37. led to a new central area for support in disaster recovery

38. a reminder of the impact of disasters

39. in times of disaster, developed countries should do more to


help less-developed countries

40. national development and disaster prevention should be


considered at the same time

Disaster Control Initiatives

A. Hyogo Declaration

B. Great Hanshin-Awaji Earthquake Forum

C. World Conference on Disaster Reduction

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D. Yokohama Strategy for a Safer World

READING 23
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

POLLUTING SOUNDS: IN SEARCH OF SILENCE

In a self-imposed solitary confinement, 22-year old Tom


Wonnacott, a Princeton graduate student, spent four days lying in
a lightless, sound-proofed isolation chamber. Unable to see or
hear, he also wore thick gloves to restrict his sense of touch.
Wonnacott volunteered to undergo this experience to help US-

110
based psychologists find out what happens to people isolated from
the outside world and deprived of the normal use of their senses.
While over a longer period of time such extremes of silence in
conjunction with sensory deprivation are harmful, there are many
today who are in search of quieter areas.

An over-abundance of noise has always been a significant


environmental issue for man. In ancient Rome, rules existed to
ensure that the noise emitted from the large iron wheels of wagons
which rolled over the stones on the pavements and caused
disruption of sleep and annoyance was minimised by allowing
people to travel only during certain times. The same rules existed
in Medieval Europe. To ensure inhabitants were given the best
chance at a peaceful night’s sleep, in some cities, horse-drawn
carriages and horseback riding were not allowed at night time.
However when today’s noise problems arc compared with the noise
pollution problems of the past they are almost incomparable.

An immense number of vehicles of various shapes and sizes are


regularly driven around and through most of the world’s cities and
countrysides. Loud, large diesel engines power the enormous
trucks that roll around highways day and night. Aircraft and trains
add to the environmental noise scenario. In industry, machinery
emits high noise levels and amusement parks and pleasure
vehicles distract leisure time and relaxation. One hundred years
ago, environmental experts predicted that in the 21st century there
would be a shortage of water and silence. They were correct.
Silence is scarce. More and more silence is drowned out by sound.

A lack of knowledge about the effects of noise pollution on humans


in comparison to other pollutants has been lacking as an area of
research. Although it has been generally regarded that noise
pollution is primarily a ‘luxury’ problem – for those developed
countries able to afford the purchase price of large quantities of
loud, noisy machinery – it is actually a fact that due to bad planning
and poor construction of buildings, noise exposure is often higher

111
in developing countries. This means that regardless of the
economic status of a particular country, the effects of noise are just
as widespread and the long-term consequences for health the
same. Therefore, practical action plans based upon proper scientific
evaluation of available data on the effects of noise exposure, with
the express purpose of limiting and controlling the exposure of
people to environmental noise is a most worthwhile undertaking.

It has been well established that exposure to loud noises for


extended periods of time causes trauma to the inner ear and often
results in irreversible hearing loss. When it initially receives sound,
the human ear actually amplifies it by a factor of 20. In 1965, in a
remote part of Ghana, scientists went about studying the impact
of ‘insignificant’ exposure to industrial noise and transportation. In
tandem, the Ghanese group was compared with a control group in
industrial USA. A number of startling conclusions were drawn from
the experiments. For example, both locations revealed that aging
is an almost insignificant cause of hearing loss. Instead it was
show-n that chronic exposure to moderately high levels of
environmental noise led to hearing loss. Cardiovascular complaints
also emerged from among those with prolonged exposure to
industrial noise above 70 dBA. In fact, over a single eight-hour
period, it was shown that participants experienced a rise in blood
pressure thus indicating noise pollution contributes to human
stress levels. If this was not alarming enough, also noted was an
increase in the incidence of heart disease.

The findings from various noise studies had the effect of changing
the perspectives of many of the world’s governments. Whereas
noise had been considered a ‘nuisance’ rather than an
environmental problem, laws were made to protect citizens against
it. In the United States and Ghana, federal standards for highway
and aircraft noise were introduced. State governments created
noise regulations pertaining to building codes, urban planning and
road construction. In Canada and the EU, noise laws are the
domain of local governments. Activities in those countries deemed
mandatory such as the collection of rubbish or some medical

112
services are the only allowed exceptions to what otherwise are
quiet local neighbourhood zones.

Typically, quiet times in neighbourhoods are between 6am and


10pm with restricted higher decibel levels after these hours. What
happens if these quite times are violated? Unfortunately, the
enforcement of noise laws has proven problematic for many local
governments with enforcement agencies often not following up on
noise complaints. For persistent nuisances, individuals may seek
compensation through the local courts and in some cities, police
are authorised to impound such things as stereos and cars. These
are extreme cases; most issues are handled by negotiation
between the emitter and the receiver.

Questions 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. Noise pollution is a relatively new pollution.


2. Experts forecasted that water and noise pollution would be major
future problems.
3. Noise pollution seems to be a bigger problem in richer, developed
countries.

113
4. Noises that enter the human ear are actually heard louder than
they really are.
5. There is a strong relationship between hearing loss and age.
6. Loud noise exposure studies have caused government changes.
7. In Canada, police monitor the level of noise in local
neighbourhoods.
Questions 8 – 9

Choose TWO letters, A-G.

The list of problems below can be caused by exposure to high noise


levels.

Which TWO are mentioned by the writer of the text?

A. increased ear sensitivity

B. reduced reaction time

C. increased aging of the body

D. heart disease

E. stomach cancer

F. sleep apnea

G. increased blood pressure

Questions 10 – 13

114
Classify the following features as applying to

A. people from the USA

B. people from Ghana

C. both people from the USA and Ghana

Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 10-13 on your answer


sheet.

10. individuals participated in a noise study


11. conducted a silence study
12. introduced air traffic regulations
13. the relationship between industrial noise and blood pressure

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 26 which


are based on Reading Passage 2.

UNEARTHING JÓRVÍK

A. From 1976 to 1981 in what is now known as the city of York in


North Yorkshire, England, an archaeological dig was conducted in
and around the street of Coppergate. This excavation played a
most significant part in bringing to life the Viking kingdom of Jorvik.

B. Because most artifacts are made of materials which arc readily


destroyed by Ore, coming across an abundance of them after so

115
many years is indeed a rare thing. The five-year excavation in and
around the street of Coppergate by the York Archaeological Trust,
managed to uncover some breathtakingly well-preserved remains
of Jorvik. Due to the unusual abundance of dense, anoxic wet clay,
Jorvik’s mostly timber buildings, pits and wells, work areas and
animal pens were remarkably very much intact.

C. Most commonly, household items from long ago were made of


organic material and therefore tended to decompose completely in
oxygen-rich soil. However, the complete lack of oxygen in the earth
meant that decay bacteria was unable to break down the
embedded Viking objects. An oxygen-free organic ‘cocoon’
comprising a mix of plant debris, including remains of plants, wood
chips, twigs, straw used for bedding and thatch used in building,
created an environment which enabled archaeologists to uncover
an abundance of relics left over from a period dating back to the
10th century. Excavations of up to nine meters comprising
numerous layers of deposits uncovered a number of household
articles such as pottery and eating utensils as well as items made
of wood and leather – all remarkably well-preserved. Many
beautifully-decorated combs were among the most common items
found at Coppergate. Combs at various stages of production, from
sawn off-cuts of antler to the finished product, were all uncovered
at the site.

D. The unusual number of combs found in the area indicated to


archaeologists that there had been significant head lice infestations
during the period. Head lice continue to be a menace in many parts
of the world today and. excavations in the area revealed that such
was the case for the residents of Jorvik. Though probably not too
harmful to their health, also uncovered in the stomachs of many of
the residents were parasitic worms, some of them up to a third of
a metre long. Given the close proximity of household waste (food
scraps, shells, bones) to houses, archaeologists deduced that
sanitation in the area was generally poor. This poor sanitation
would have impacted upon life expectancy with records indicating
that most people did not live beyond the age of 50.

116
E. Archaeologists are concerned with studying the environment of
a past civilisation and, like a detective, try to reconstruct a picture
of what life in a particular area must have been like. Remains from
the city of Jorvik told archaeologists a story about life in the Viking
kingdom. A cap made of silk which was uncovered indicated a
connection with the Byzantine Empire and beyond. Coins bearing
inscriptions from the Uzbekistan city of Samarkand and a cowrie
shell indicated contact with the Persian Gulf or Red Sea tus showing
how far some of the inhabitants must have traveled. Also
uncovered side-by-side were Christian and pagan objects probably
indicating that Christians were probably not in power at the time.

F. It was clear from the wide range of everyday items uncovered


that under the Vikings, Jorvik excelled as an important
manufacturing center. The name ‘Coppergate’ means ‘the street of
cup-makers’ in the old Norse language and further illustrated the
manufacturing nature of the area as hundreds of wooden cores –
the waste or off-cuts from wooden bowls and cups – were found in
the area. This evidence points to a well-developed wood-working
industry with the mass production of household wooden items.
Another excavated area uncovered yet another manufacturing
industry: metal work. Iron objects such as tools and knives for
everyday purposes as well as moulds for making various types of
jewellry were all uncovered. Shoemakers and repairers also were
in significant number. Belts, straps, pouches, knife sheaths and
piles of leather off-cuts all evidenced a thriving leather-craft trade.
Balls of beeswax used to lubricate the needles as they passed
through the leather were all tell-tail signs of a flourishing industry.
Textile making materials such as needles and spindles to hold
material were also uncovered.

G. Re-created from the excavation of just four Viking-Age house


plots, the small Jorvik Viking Centre which was opened in April
1984 reminds tourists and visitors of life long ago. Using innovative
interpretive methods, the York Archaeological Trust has recreated
a model of what they believe the city of Jorvik would have been
like. Mid 10th century single-storey homes with upright posts

117
supporting thatched roofs, open fireplaces and simple earthen
floors have all been constructed.

Questions 14 -15

Choose TWO letters, A-F.

Write the correct letters in boxes 14-15 on your answer sheet.

The list below gives some factors which may explain why the
artifacts at Jorvik were so well preserved.

Which TWO reasons are mentioned by the writer of the passage?

A. the complete absence of fires

B. the clay

C. the lack of oxygen in the soil

D. the organic composition of the artifacts

E. the abundance of decay bacteria

F. the combination of plants, wood chips and twigs in the area

Questions 16 -21

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?

118
In boxes 16-21 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the


information in the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the


information in the passage

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement


in the passage

16. The archaeological findings in Jorvik are unusual.


17. The number of combs discovered evidence large-scale head
lice problems in J6rvik.
18. Poor standards in cleanliness resulted in shorter life-spans.
19. Most of the town of Jorvik has now been uncovered by
archaeologists.
20. Coins from Samarkand indicated that Jorvik had visitors from
other countries.
21. Coppergate was so called because many cups were made in
the area.
Questions 22-26

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-G in boxes 22-26 on your answer


sheet.

119
NB You may use any letter more than once.

22 examples of the types of industries in Jorvik

23 a reference to the material used in mid-10th century


bedding in Jorvik

24 a reference to the number of Viking homes uncovered in


Jorvik

25 a simple job definition

26 an example of an annoying type of insect

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which


are based on Reading Passage 3.

It is no small intellectual task that a child learns a language. In


order to begin to communicate, a young child must first gain an
understanding of the internal structure of a system that, in reality,
contains tens of thousands of units, all generated from a small set
of basic building blocks. In the case of English, these basic building
blocks’ are the alphabet and the units’ are words. Although initially,
a child may be able to grasp and manipulate the basic letters of a
language to form an infinite number of units’, he or she must
progress to another higher form of comprehension – the
understanding that only a subset of those combinations is correct
– what are actual meaningful words. Somehow, a young child must
become familiar with the structure of a particular language system
such that he or she can use it to communicate with others.

120
Given the complexity of the process of language acquisition, the
question of how infants learn to speak in their native language so
rapidly is an interesting one. Among linguists, the answer to this
question has been researched and debated for decades. Some
researchers think that the answer to the question – if indeed there
is one – may unlock a secret to faster language acquisition amongst
older people. Over the years, experiments where researchers have
devised an artificial language that contained certain aspects of
natural language structure have been tried. The artificial language
was presented to the infants one ‘piece’ or ‘sample’ at a time. Once
they became familiar with one piece of the language, another piece
from the same artificial language was introduced. Once the infant
appeared comfortable with this process, a piece of real or bona fide
language was introduced. The researchers then measured such
things as surprise and interest shown in the new language samples
to determine whether or not the infant related to them as being
completely new or as being more of what had been previously
learned. The infant’s reactions to the new stimuli helped linguists
to determine what mechanisms underpin the first stages of
language acquisition. Experiments like this have uncovered some
astonishing facts namely the rate at which an infant, even as young
as 7 or 8 months, can take on the new’ information. Some infants
demonstrated the ability to process the new information after as
little as 3 minutes of exposure. Their young minds were able to
structure the linguistic input into relevant and ultimately
meaningful units of information.

Much of a child’s future social and intellectual development hinges


upon their ability to acquire language. For this reason, language
acquisition is one of the key milestones in early childhood
development. Many child development experts encourage parents
to start talking to their infant from the day of their birth. Some
researchers maintain that the best way for a child to learn is to
simply hear language as those around them talk. Repetition of
structures seems to be a logical and academically defensible
method of child language acquisition. Quite a large body of
research has shown that optimal language development occurs

121
when the same stories are read over and over again to young
children. In one experiment, a mother exposed her son to only one
book for nearly two years. The results were that the child spoke
much earlier than his other siblings and was able to recite 90% of
the text on each page by the age of two. Other studies have
revealed that a knowledge of nursery rhymes among three-year-
olds has been a significant predictor of later reading skill.

These examples of language learning, processing and producing,


represent just a few of the many developments between birth and
the eventual linguistic maturity that most children naturally attain.
It is during this early period that children discover the raw
materials in the sounds of their language, learn how they are
assembled into longer strings, and then used in meaningful
contexts. These processes unfold simultaneously, requiring
children to organise the code of communication that surrounds
them. Even though each layer is complex, young children readily
solve the linguistic puzzles they encounter.

Regardless of the methods employed, the acquisition of a language


is not an automatic process but rather one that occurs as a result
of a process of learning. If a child does not take on a new language,
then isolation and withdrawal often accompany learning difficulties
and poor academic performance.

Questions 27 – 31

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27. According to the writer, an ‘internal language structure’

A. consists only of the alphabet.

122
B. is the starting point for communication.

C. comprises an infinite number of words.

D. is another term for linguistic comprehension.

28. The writer states that understanding a language occurs

A. once the learner understands the ‘basic building blocks’.

B. once the learner grasps the ‘units’ of a language.

C. once the alphabet is learned.

D. naturally, as soon as a child is old enough.

29. An ‘artificial language’

A. is a new form of communication amongst young children.

B. was used as a contrast with real language.

C. was devised slowly, over a considerable period of time.

D. is a mixture of real and artificial words.

30. According to the writer, infant surprise and interest

A. indicated infant intelligence.

123
B. was greater amongst infants exposed to a bona fide language.

C. revealed how language is initially learned.

D. were die most dependable indicators of gauging infant reaction


to new stimuli.

31. What greatly surprised researchers of infant language


acquisition was

A. how readily participants demonstrated an ability to learn new


languages.

B. how quickly the infants learned to verbally communicate.

C. how young the participants in the experiment were.

D. how quickly some infants learned new information.

Questions 32 – 35

Complete the summary.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

If a child does not 32………………………in early childhood, he or she


will be greatly restricted in both the ability to interact with others
and academic growth and development. To teach infants language,

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some researchers recommend that they 33………………..…………. it,
while others feel that 34…………….………….is the most effective way
for them to learn. Regardless of which method of language
acquisition is used, most children reach 35…………..………………as
they grow and develop.

Questions 36 – 40

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the information in the


passage

NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the


passage

36 Understanding how children learn language may help


adults learn language.

37 The reactions of infants to artificial languages were quite


similar.

38 Learning about, organising and then using sounds occurs


regularly among children.

39 Language learning ability impacts upon writing ability.

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READING 24
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

THE CREATIVITY MYTH

A. It is a myth that creative people are born with their talents:


gifts from God or nature. Creative genius is, in fact, latent within
many of us, without our realising. But how far do we need to travel
to find the path to creativity? For many people, a long way. In our
everyday lives, we have to perform many acts out of habit to
survive, like opening the door, shaving, getting dressed, walking
to work, and so on. If this were not the case, we would, in all
probability, become mentally unhinged. So strongly ingrained are
our habits, though this varies from person to person, that
sometimes, when a conscious effort is made to be creative,
automatic response takes over. We may try, for example, to walk
to work following a different route, but end up on our usual path.
By then it is too late to go back and change our minds. Another
day, perhaps. The same applies to all other areas of our lives. When
we are solving problems, for example, we may seek different

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answers, but, often as not. Find ourselves walking along the same
well-trodden paths.

B. So, for many people, their actions and behaviour are set in
immovable blocks, their minds clogged with the cholesterol of
habitual actions, preventing them from operating freely, and
thereby stifling creation. Unfortunately, mankind’s very struggle
for survival has become a tyranny – the obsessive desire to give
order to the world is a case in point. Witness people’s attitude to
time, social customs and the panoply of rules and regulations by
which the human mind is now circumscribed.

C. The groundwork for keeping creative ability in check begins at


school. School, later university and then work, teach us to regulate
our lives, imposing a continuous process of restrictions which is
increasing exponentially with the advancement of technology. Is it
surprising then that creative ability appears to be so rare? It is
trapped in the prison that we have erected. Yet, even here in this
hostile environment, the foundations for creativity’ are being laid;
because setting off on the creative path is also partly about using
rules and regulations. Such limitations are needed so that once
they are learnt, they can be broken.

D. The truly creative mind is often seen as totally free and


unfettered. But a better image is of a mind, which can be free when
it wants, and one that recognises that rules and regulations are
parameters, or barriers, to be raised and dropped again at will. An
example of how the human mind can be trained to be creative
might help here. People s minds are just like tense muscles that
need to be freed up and the potential unlocked. One strategy is to
erect artificial barriers or hurdles in solving a problem. As a form
of stimulation, the participants in the task can be forbidden to use
particular solutions or to follow certain lines of thought to solve a
problem. In this way they are obliged to explore unfamiliar
territory, which may lead to some startling discoveries.
Unfortunately, the difficulty in this exercise, and with creation

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itself, is convincing people that creation is possible, shrouded as it
is in so much myth and legend. There is also an element of fear
involved, however subliminal, as deviating from the safety of one’s
own thought patterns is very much akin to madness. But, open
Pandora’s box, and a whole new’ world unfolds before your very
eyes.

E. Lifting barriers into place also plays a major part in helping the
mind to control ideas rather than letting them collide at random.
Parameters act as containers for ideas, and thus help the mind to
fix on them. When the mind is thinking laterally, and two ideas
from different areas of the brain come or are brought together,
they form a new’ idea, just like atoms floating around and then
forming a molecule. Once the idea has been formed, it needs to be
contained or it will fly away, so fleeting is its passage. The mind
needs to hold it in place for a time so that it can recognise it or call
on it again. And then the parameters can act as channels along
which the ideas can flow, developing and expanding. When the
mind has brought the idea to fruition by thinking it through to its
final conclusion, the parameters can be brought down and the idea
allowed to float off and come in contact with other ideas.

Questions 1-5

Reading Passage 1 has five paragraphs, A-E.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. the way parameters in the mind help people to be creative


2. the need to learn rules in order to break them

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3. how habits restrict us and limit creativity
4. how to train the mind to be creative
5. how the mind is trapped by the desire for order
Questions 6-10

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.

6. According to the writer, creative people


A. are usually born with their talents.

B. are born with their talents.

C. are not born with their talents.

D. are geniuses.

7. According to the writer, creativity is


A. a gift from Cod or nature.

B. an automatic response.

C. difficult for many people to achieve.

D. a well-trodden path.

8. According to the writer


A. the human race’s fight to live is becoming a tyranny.

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B. the human brain is blocked with cholesterol.

C. the human race is now circumscribed by talents.

D. the human race’s fight to survive stifles creative ability.

9. Advancing technology
A. holds creativity in check.

B. improves creativity.

C. enhances creativity.

D. is a tyranny.

10. According to the author, creativity


A. is common.

B. is increasingly common.

C. is becoming rarer and rarer.

D. is a rare commodity.

Questions 11 – 14

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?

In boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet write

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YES if the statement agrees with the
information in the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the


information in the passage

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the


statement in the passage

11. Rules and regulations are examples of parameters.


12. The truly creative mind is associated with the need for free
speech and a totally free society.
13. One problem with creativity is that people think it is
impossible.
14. The act of creation is linked to madness.

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which are


based on Reading Passage 2.

LOCKED DOORS, OPEN ACCESS

The word, ‘security’, has both positive and negative connotations.


Most of us would say that we crave security for all its positive
virtues, both physical and psychological – its evocation of the
safety of home, of undying love, or of freedom from need. More
negatively, the word nowadays conjures up images of that huge
industry which has developed to protect individuals and property
from invasion by outsiders’, ostensibly malicious and intent on theft
or wilful damage.

Increasingly, because they are situated in urban areas of escalating


crime, those buildings which used to allow free access to

131
employees and other users (buildings such as offices, schools,
colleges or hospitals) now do not. Entry areas which in another age
were called ‘Reception’ are now manned by security staff.
Receptionists, whose task it was to receive visitors and to make
them welcome before passing them on to the person they had
come to see, have been replaced by those whose task it is to bar
entry to the unauthorized, the unwanted or the plain unappealing.

Inside, these buildings are divided into ‘secure zones’ which often
have all the trappings of combination locks and burglar alarms.
These devices bar entry to the uninitiated, hinder circulation, and
create parameters of time and space for user access. Within the
spaces created by these zones, individual rooms are themselves
under lock and key, which is a particular problem when it means
that working space becomes compartmentalized.

To combat the consequent difficulty of access to people at a


physical level, we have now developed technological access.
Computers sit on every desk and are linked to one another, and in
many cases to an external universe of other computers, so that
messages can be passed to and fro. Here too security plays a part,
since we must not be allowed access to messages destined for
others. And so the password was invented. Now correspondence
between individuals goes from desk to desk and cannot be
accessed by colleagues. Library catalogues can be searched from
one’s desk. Papers can be delivered to, and received from, other
people at the press of a button.

And yet it seems that, just as work is isolating individuals more


and more, organizations are recognizing the advantages of team-
work’; perhaps in order to encourage employees to talk to one
another again. Yet, how can groups work in teams if the
possibilities for communication are reduced? How can they work
together if e-mail provides a convenient electronic shield behind
which the blurring of public and private can be exploited by the less
scrupulous? If voice-mail walls up messages behind a password? If

132
I can’t leave a message on my colleague’s desk because his office
is locked?

Team-work conceals the fact that another kind of security, ‘job


security’, is almost always not on offer. Just as organizations now
recognize three kinds of physical resources: those they buy, those
they lease long-term and those they rent short-term – so it is with
their human resources. Some employees have permanent
contracts, some have short-term contracts, and some are regarded
simply as casual labour.

Telecommunication systems offer us the direct line, which means


that individuals can be contacted without the caller having to talk
to anyone else. Voice-mail and the answer-phone mean that
individuals can communicate without ever actually talking to one
another. If we are unfortunate enough to contact organizations
with sophisticated touch-tone systems, we can buy things and pay
for them without ever speaking to a human being.

To combat this closing in on ourselves we have the Internet, which


opens out communication channels more widely than anyone could
possibly want or need. An individual’s electronic presence on the
Internet is known as a Home Page’ – suggesting the safety and
security of an electronic hearth. An elaborate system of 3-
dimensional graphics distinguishes this very 2-dimensional
medium of ‘web sites’. The nomenclature itself creates the illusion
of a geographical entity, that the person sitting before the
computer is travelling, when in fact the site’ is coming to him.
‘Addresses’ of one kind or another move to the individual, rather
than the individual moving between them, now that location is no
longer geographical.

An example of this is the mobile phone. I am now not available


either at home or at work, but wherever I take my mobile phone.
Yet, even now, we cannot escape the security of wanting to locate’
the person at the other end. It is no coincidence that almost

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everyone we see answering or initiating a mobile phone-call in
public begins by saying where he or she is.

Questions 15 – 18

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 15-18 on your answer sheet.

15. According to the author, one thing we long for is

A. the safety of the home.

B. security.

C. open access.

D. positive virtues.

16. Access to many buildings

A. is unauthorised.

B. is becoming more difficult.

C. is a cause of crime in many urban areas.

D. used to be called ‘Reception’.

17. Buildings used to permit access to any users

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A. but now they do not.

B. and still do now.

C. especially offices and schools.

D. especially in urban areas.

18. Secure zones

A. do not allow access to the user.

B. compartmentalise the user.

C. are often like traps.

D. are not accessible to everybody.

Questions 19-24

Complete the summary below using words from the box.

Write your answers in boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet.

The problem of physical access to buildings has now


been 19………………………..by technology. Messages are sent
between 20……………………..with passwords not
allowing 21…………………..…..to read someone else’s messages. But,
while individuals are becoming
increasingly 22……………..……………socially by the way they do their
job, at the same time more value is being put

135
on 23………………………….. However, e-mail and voice-mail have led
to a 24 ……………….………..opportunities for person-to-person
communication.

reducing of decrease in team-work similar

no different
from solved overcame physical

computer computers combat


developed

other people cut-off isolating

Questions 25 – 27

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 2.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 25-27 on your answer sheet.

25. The writer does not like ……………………..


26. An individual’s Home Page indicates their…………………….on the
Internet.
27. Devices like mobile phones mean that location
is………………………
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3.

136
A. Between the Inishowen peninsula, north west of Derry, and the
Glens of Antrim, in the east beyond the Sperrin Mountains, is found
some of Western Europe’s most captivating and alluring landscape.

B. The Roe Valley Park, some 15 miles east of Derry is a prime


example. The Park, like so many Celtic places, is steeped in history
and legend. As the Roc trickles down through heather bogs in the
Sperrin Mountains to the South, it is a river by the time it cuts
through what was once called the ‘garden of the soul’ – in Celtic
‘Gortenanima’.

C. The castle of O’Cahan once stood here and a number of houses


which made up the town of Limavady. The town takes its name
from the legend of a dog leaping into the river Roe carrying a
message, or perhaps chasing a stag. This is a wonderful place,
where the water traces its way through rock and woodland; at
times, lingering in brooding pools of dark cool water under the
shade of summer trees, and, at others, forming weirs and leads for
water mills now long gone.

D. The Roe, like all rivers, is witness to history and change. To


Mullagh Hill, on the west bank of the River Roe just outside the
present day town of Limavady, St Columba came in 575 AD for the
Convention of Drumceatt. The world is probably unaware that it
knows something of Limavady; but the town is, in fact, renowned
for Jane Ross’s song Danny Roy, written to a tune once played by
a tramp in the street. Limavady tow n itself and many of the
surrounding villages have Celtic roots but no one knows for sure
just how old the original settlement of Limavady is.

E. Some 30 miles along the coast road from Limavady, one comes
upon the forlorn, but imposing ruin of Dunluce Castle, which stands
on a soft basalt outcrop, in defiance of the turbulent Atlantic lashing
it on all sides. The jagged-toothed ruins sit proud on their rock top
commanding the coastline to east and west. The only connection
to the mainland is by a narrow bridge. Until the kitchen court fell

137
into the sea in 1639 killing several servants, the castle was fully
inhabited. In the next hundred years or so, the structure gradually
fell into its present dramatic state of disrepair, stripped of its roofs
by wind and weather and robbed by man of its caned stonework.
Ruined and forlorn its aspect maybe yet, in the haunting Celtic
twilight of the long summer evenings, it is redolent of another age,
another dream.

F. A mile or so to the east of the castle lies Port na Spaniagh, where


the Neapolitan Galleas, Girona, from the Spanish Armada went
down one dark October night in 1588 on its way to Scotland, of the
1500-odd men on board, nine survived.

G. Even further to the east, is the Giant’s Causeway stunning


coastline with strangely symmetrical columns of dark basalt – a
beautiful geological wonder. Someone once said of the Causeway
that it was worth seeing, but not worth going to see. That was in
thê days of horses and carriages, when travelling was difficult. But
it is certainly well worth a visit. The last lingering moments of the
twilight hours are the best lime to savour the full power of the
coastline s magic; the time when the place comes into its own. The
tourists are gone and if you are very lucky you will be alone. A fine
circular walk will take you down to the Grand Causeway, past
amphitheatres of stone columns and formations. It is not
frightening, but there is a power in the place – tangible, yet
inexplicable. The blackness of some nights conjure up feelings of
eeriness and unease. The visitor realises his place in the scheme
of the magnificent spectacle. Once experienced, it is impossible to
forget the grandeur of the landscape.

H. Beyond the Causeway, connecting the mainland with an outcrop


of rock jutting out of the turbulent Atlantic, is the Carrick-a-Rede
Rope Bridge, when first constructed, the bridge was a simple rope
handrail with widely spaced slats which was used mainly by salmon
fishermen needing to travel from the island to the mainland. In
time, the single handrail was replaced with a more sturdy caged

138
bridge, however, it is still not a crossing for the faint- hearted. The
Bridge swings above a chasm of rushing, foaming water that seems
to drag the unwary- down, and away. Many visitors who make the
walk one way are unable to return resulting in them being taken
off the island by boat.

Questions 28 – 32

Looking at the following list of places (Questions 28 – 32) from the


paragraphs A-E of reading passage 3 and their locations on the
map.

Match each place with its location on the map

Write your answers m boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. The Sperrin Mountains

29. Dunluce Castle


30. Inishowen
31. The Glens of Antrim
32. Limavady

139
Questions 33 – 38

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 33-38 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the information in the


passage

NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage

140
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the
passage

33. After 1639, the castle of Dunluce was not completely


uninhabited.
34. For the author, Dunluce Castle evokes another period of
history.
35. There were more than 1500 men on die Girona when it went
down.
36. The writer believes that the Giant’s Causeway is worth going
to visit.
37. The author recommends twilight as the best time to visit the
Giant’s Causeway.
38. The more study cage added to the Carrick-a-Rede Rope
Bridge has helped to increase the number of visitors to the area.
Questions 39 – 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

39. The writer feels that the Giant’s Causeway is

A. an unsettling place.

B. a relaxing place.

C. a boring place.

D. an exciting place.

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40. Which of the following would be a good title for the passage?

A. The Roe Valley Park.

B. The Giant’s Causeway.

C. Going East to West.

D. A leap into history.

READING 25
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

TEA TIMES

A. The chances are that you have already drunk a cup or glass of tea
today. Perhaps, you are sipping one as you read this. Tea, now an
everyday beverage in many parts of the world, has over the centuries

142
been an important part of the rituals of hospitality both in the home
and in trader society.

B. Tea originated in China, and in Eastern Asia tea making and


drinking ceremonies have been popular for centuries. Tea was first
shipped to North Western Europe by English and Dutch maritime
traders in the sixteenth century. At about the same time, a land mule
from the Ear East, via Moscow, to Europe was opened up. Tea also
figured in America’s bid for independence from British rule – the
Boston Tea Party.

C. As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leaves became available
throughout much of Asia and Europe, the ways in which tea was
drunk changed. The Chinese considered the quality of the leaves and
the ways in which they w-ere cured all important. People in other
cultures added new ingredients besides tea-leaves and hot water.
They drank tea with milk, sugar, spices like cinnamon and
cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are
endless. For example, in Western Sudan on the edge of the Sahara
Desert, sesame oil is added to milky tea on cold mornings. In England
tea, unlike coffee, acquired a reputation as a therapeutic drink that
promoted health. Indeed, in European and Arab countries as well as
in Persia and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative and health
giving properties. One Dutch physician, Cornelius Blankaart, advised
that to maintain health a minimum of eight to ten cups a day should
be drunk, and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups could be consumed with
safely.

D. While European coffee houses were frequented by men discussing


politics and closing business deals, respectable middle-class women
stayed at home and held lea parties. When the price of tea fell in the
nineteenth century poor people took up the drink with enthusiasm.
Different grades and blends of tea were sold to suit every pocket.

143
E. Throughout the world today, few religious groups object to tea
drinking In Islamic cultures, where drinking of alcohol is forbidden,
tea and coffee consumption is an important part of social life.
However, Seventh-Day Adventists, recognising the beverage as a
drug containing the stimulant caffeine, frown upon the drinking of
tea.

F. Nomadic Bedouin are well known for traditions of hospitality in


the desert. According to Middle Eastern tradition, guests are served
both tea and coffee from pots kept ready on the fires of guest tents
where men of the family and male visitors gather. Cups of ‘bitter’
cardamom coffee and glasses of sugared tea should be constantly
refilled by the host.

G. For over a thousand years, Arab traders have been bringing Islamic
culture, including tea drinking; to northern and western Africa,
Techniques of tea preparation and the ceremony involved have been
adapted, in West African countries, such as Senegal and The Gambia,
it is fashionable for young men to gather in small groups to brew
Chinese ‘gunpowder’ tea. The tea is boiled with large amounts of
sugar for a long time.

H. Tea drinking in India remains an important part of daily life.


There, tea made entirely with milk is popular, ‘Chai’ is made by
boiling milk and adding tea, sugar and some spices. This form of tea
making has crossed the Indian Ocean and is also popular in East
Africa, where tea is considered best when it is either very milky or
made with water only. Curiously, this ‘milk or water’ formula has
been carried over to the preparation of instant coffee, which is served
in cafes as either black, or sprinkled on a cup of hot milk.

I. In Britain, coffee drinking, particularly in the informal atmosphere


of coffee shops, is currently in vogue. Yet, the convention of afternoon
tea lingers. At conferences, it remains common practice to serve

144
coffee in the morning and tea in the afternoon. Contemporary’ China,
too, remains true to its long tradition. Delegates at conferences and
seminars are served lea in cups with lids to keep the infusion hot. The
cups are topped up throughout the proceedings. There are as yet no
signs of coffee at such occasions.

Questions 1 – 8

Reading Passage 1 has nine paragraphs A-I.

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph.

Write the appropriate numbers i – xiii in boxes 1-8 on your answer


sheet.

List of Headings

i. Diverse drinking methods

ii. Limited objections to drinking tea

iii. Today’s continuing tradition – in Britain and China

iv. Tea – a beverage of hospitality

v. An important addition – tea with milk

vi. Tea and alcohol

vii. The everyday beverage in all parts of the world

145
viii. Tea on the move

ix. African tea

x. The fall in the cost of tea

xi. The value of tea

xii. Tea-drinking in Africa

xiii. Hospitality among the Bedouin

Example Answer

Paragraph F xiii

1. Paragraph A

2. Paragraph B

3. Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D

5. Paragraph E

6. Paragraph G

146
7. Paragraph H

8. Paragraph I

Questions 9-13

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 1.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. For centuries, both at home and in society, tea has had an


important role in…………… .
10. Falling tea prices in the nineteenth century meant that people
could choose the……………………….of the tea they could afford.
11. Because it…………………..Seventh-Day Adventists do not approve of
the drinking of tea.
12. In the desert, one group that is well known for its traditions of
hospitality is the………………………..
13. In India,……………………, as well as tea, are added to boiling milk
to make ‘chai’.

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READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27 which are


based on Reading Passage 2.

Caveat Scriptor!

Let the would-be writer beware! Anyone foolhardy enough to


embark on a career as a writer – whether it be an academic treatise,
a novel, or even an article – should first read this!

People think that writing as a profession is glamorous; that it is just


about sitting down and churning out words on a page, or more likely
these days on a computer screen. If only it were! So what exactly
does writing a book entail? Being a writer is about managing a
galaxy of contradictory feelings: elation, despair, hope, frustration,
satisfaction and depression-and not all separately! Of course, it also
involves carrying out detailed research: first to establish whether
there is a market for the planned publication, and second what
should be the content of the book. Sometimes, however, instinct
takes the place of market research and the contents are dictated not
by plans and exhaustive research, but by experience and knowledge.

Once the publication has been embarked upon, there is a long


period of turmoil as the text takes shape. A first draft is rarely the
final text of the book. Nearly all books are the result of countless
hours of altering and re-ordering chunks of text and deleting the
superfluous bits. While some people might think that with new’
technology the checking and editing process is sped up, the
experienced writer would hardly agree. Unfortunately, advanced
technology now allows the writer the luxury of countless editing’s; a
temptation many writers find hard to resist. So a passage, endlessly
re-worked may end up nothing remotely like the original, and
completely out of place when compared with the rest of the text.

148
After the trauma of self-editing and looking for howlers, it is time to
show the text to other people, friends perhaps, for appraisal. At this
stage, it is not wise to send it off to a literary agent or direct to
publishers, as it may need further fine-tuning of which the author is
unaware. Once an agent has been approached and has rejected a
draft publication, it is difficult to go and ask for the re vamped text
to be considered again. It also helps, at this stage, to offer a synopsis
of the book, if it is a novel, or an outline if it is a textbook. This acts
as a guide for the author, and a general reference for friends and
later for agents.

Although it is tempting to send the draft to every possible agent at


one time, it is probably unwise. Some agents may reject the
publication out of hand, but others may proffer some invaluable
advice, for example about content or the direction to be taken,
information such as this may be of use in finally being given a
contract by an agent or publisher.

The lucky few taken on by publishers or agents, then have their


books subjected to a number of readers, whose job it is to vet a
book: deciding whether it is worth publishing and whether the text
as it stands is acceptable or not. After a book has finally been
accepted by a publisher, one of the greatest difficulties for the warier
lies in taking on board the publisher’s alterations to the text. Whilst
the overall story and thrust of the book may be acceptable, it will
probably have to conform to an in-house style, as regards language,
spelling and punctuation. More seriously, the integrity of the text
may be challenged, and this may require radical re-drafting which is
usually unpalatable to the author. A books creation period is
complex and unnerving, but the publisher’s reworkings and text
amputations can also be a tortuous process.

For many writers, the most painful period comes when the text has
been accepted, and the writer is wailing for it to be put together for

149
the printer. By this stage, it is not uncommon for the writer to be
thoroughly sick of the text.

Abandon writing? Nonsense. Once smitten, it is not easy to escape


the compulsion to create and write, despite the roller-coaster ride of
contradictory emotions.

Questions 14-21

Complete the summary below using words from the box.

Write your answers in boxes 14-21 on your answer sheet.

People often associate writing with 14…………………… But being a


writer involves managing conflicting emotions as well
as 15……………………… and instinct. Advanced technology, contrary to
what might be thought, does not make the 16……………………….faster.
When a writer has a draft of the text ready, it is a good idea to
have a 17……………………. for friends and agents to look at. If an author
is accepted by a publisher, the draft of the book is given
to 18……………………. for vetting. 19……………………… are then often
made, which are not easy for the writer to agree.
However, 20…………………..compelling, even though there
are 21……………………. .

editing
beware first draft glamour a literary agent
process
Alterations profession publisher challenges writing
Dictating research publishing summary ups and downs
roller-coaster readers
Questions 22 and 23

150
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 22-23 on your answer sheet.

22. In the planning stages of a book,

A. instinct can replace market research.

B. market research can replace instinct.

C. market research is essential.

D. instinct frequently replaces market research.

23. The problem with the use of advanced technology in editing is


that

A. it becomes different from the original.

B. it is unfortunate.

C. it is a luxury.

D. many writers cannot resist changing the text again and again.

Questions 24-27

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 2.

151
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.

24. Once a text is finished, the writer needs to get the………………..of


other people.
25. Some agents may reject the draft of a book, while others may
offer………………………..
26. Apart from the need for a draft to conform to an in-house style,
a publisher’s changes to a text may include…………………..
27. The publisher’s alterations to a book are difficult for a writer, as
is the………………….as the book grows.

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which


are based on Reading Passage 3.

Pronunciation and physiognomy

152
Imagine the scene: you are sitting on the tube and on gets someone
you instinctively feel is American. To make sure you ask them the
time, and arc fight, but how did you know?

When we say someone ‘looks American’, we take into consideration


dress, mannerism and physical appearance. However, since the
Americans do not constitute one single race, what exactly is meant
by ‘look’? In fact, one salient feature is a pronounced widening
around the jaw – a well-documented phenomenon.

Writer Arthur Koestler once remarked that friends of his, whom he


had met thirty years after they’ emigrated to the United States, had
acquired an ‘American physiognomy’, i.e. a broadened jaw, an
appearance which is also prevalent in the indigenous population. An
anthropologist friend of his attributed this to the increased use of
the jaw musculature in American enunciation. This ‘change of
countenance’ in immigrants had already been observed by the
historian M. Fishberg in 1910.

To paraphrase the philosopher Emerson, certain national, social


and religious groups, such as ageing actors, long-term convicts and
celibate priests, to give just a few examples, develop a distinguishing
‘look’, which is not easily defined, but readily recognised. Their way
of life affects their facial expression and physical features, giving the
mistaken impression that these traits are of hereditary or ‘racial’
origin. All the factors mentioned above contribute, as well as
heredity. But the question of appearance being affected by
pronunciation – as in the case of American immigrant including
those from other English speaking countries over the course of
many years – is of great interest, and calls for further study into the
science of voice production. This can only benefit those working in
the field of speech therapy, elocution and the pronunciation of
foreign languages, and help the student from a purely physiological
point of view. Naturally, the numerous psychological and socio-
linguistic factors that inhibit most adult learners of foreign

153
languages from acquiring ‘good’ pronunciation constitute a
completely different and no less important issue that require
separate investigation.

The pronunciation of the various forms of English around the world


today is affected by the voice being ‘placed’ in different, parts of the
mouth. We use our Speech organs in certain ways to produce
specific sounds, and these muscles have to practise to learn new
phonemes. Non-Americans should look in the mirror while
repeating ‘1 really never heard of poor reward for valour’ with full
use of tile USA retroflex /r/ phoneme, and note what happens to
their jawbones after three or four repetitions. Imagine the effect of
these movements on the jaw muscles after twenty years! This
phoneme is one of the most noticeable features of US English and
one that non-Americans always exaggerate when mimicking the
accent. Likewise, standard British RP is often parodied, and its
whine of superiority mocked to the point of turning the end of one’s
nose up as much as possible. Not only does this enhance the
‘performance’, but also begs the question of whether this look is the
origin of the expression ‘stuck up’?

Once on a Birmingham bus, a friend pointed to a fellow passenger


and said, ‘That man’s Brummie accent is written all over his face.’
This was from someone who would not normally make crass
generalisations. The interesting thing would be to establish whether
thin lips and a tense, prominent chin are a result of the way
Midlands English is spoken, or its cause, or a mixture of both.
Similarly, in the case of Liverpool one could ask whether the
distinctive ‘Scouse accent was a reason for, or the frequency of high
cheekbones in the local population.

When one learns another accent, as in the theatre for example, voice
coaches often resort to images to help their students acquire the
distinctive sound of the target pronunciation. With ‘Scouse’, the
mental aid employed is pushing your cheekbones up in a smile as

154
high as they will go and you have got a very slack mouth full of
cotton wool. The sound seems to spring off die sides of your face-
outwards and upwards. For a Belfast accent, one has to tighten the
sides of the jaws until there is maximum tension, and speak opening
the lips as little as possible, This gives rise to the well-known ‘Ulster
jaw’ phenomenon. Learning Australian involves imagining the
ordeals of the first westerners transported to the other side of the
world. When exposed to the merciless glare and unremitting heat of
the southern sun, we instinctively screw up our eyes and grimace for
protection.

Has this contributed to an Australian ‘look’, and affected the way


‘Aussies’ speak English, or vice versa? It is a curious chicken and egg
conundrum, but perhaps the answer is ultimately irrelevant Of
course other factors affect the way people look and sound, and it
would certainly be inaccurate to suggest that all those who speak
one form of a language or dialect have a set physiognomy because of
their pronunciation patterns. But a large enough number do, and
that alone is worth investigating. What is important, however, is
establishing pronunciation as one of the factors that determine
physiognomy, and gaining a deeper insight into the origins and
nature of the sounds of speech And of course, one wonders what
‘look’ one’s own group has!

Questions 28-30

Look at the following people (Questions 28-30) and the list of


statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

28. Koestler

155
29. Fish berg

30. Emerson

A. Americans use their jaw more to enunciate

B. immigrants acquire physiognomical features common among the


indigenous population

C. facial expression and physical features are hereditary

D. lifestyle affects physiognomy

E. Americans have a broadened jaw

F. His friends appearance had changed since they moved to the


United States.

G. the change of countenance was unremarkable

Questions 31-36

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the information in the


passage

156
NO if the statement contradicts the information in the
passage

NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in


the passage

31. Further study into the science of voice production will cost
considerable sums of money.
32. The psychological and socio-linguistic factors that make it
difficult for adult learners of foreign languages to gain ‘good’
pronunciation are not as important as other factors.
33. Speech organs are muscles.
34. New phonemes are difficult to learn.
35. People often make fun of standard British RP.
36. Facial features contribute to the incomprehensibility of
Midlands English.
Questions 37- 40

Complete each of the following statements (Questions 37-40) with


the best ending A-I from the box below.

Write the appropriate letters A-I in boxes 37-40 on your answer


sheet

37. Voice coaches


38. The Scouse accent
39. Whether the way we look affects the way we speak or the other
way round
40. It is important to prove that pronunciation
A can be achieved by using a mental aid.

157
B is irrelevant.

C is worth investigating.

D use images to assist students with the desired pronunciation.

E is a chicken and egg conundrum.

F get the target.

G can affect appearance.

H is not as easy as a Belfast one.

I makes you smile.

READING 26
REFLECTING ON THE MIRROR

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are


based on Reading Passage 1.

158
In all likelihood the first mirrors would have simply been pools of
water that reflected the image of the one who looked into it. Nature’s
mirror, while cheap and readily accessible, must have also been quite
frustrating with the slightest disturbance on the surface of the water
making it difficult to see clearly. It is not altogether clear when the
first man-made mirrors were produced but mirrors made of brass are
mentioned in the Bible, and after that mirrors of bronze were in
common use among the ancient Egyptians, Romans and Greeks. In
addition to bronze, the Greeks and Romans experimented with
polished silver to produce simple mirrors.

Crude forms of glass mirrors were first made in Venice in 1300. Small
sheets of glass were cut from disks made by a spinning process. When
this glass was backed with a covering of tin or lead, a ‘mirror’ resulted.
During the early periods of their development, mirrors were rare and
expensive. France had glass factories but only in Venice, Italy was the
secret of mirror foiling know n. The chemical process of coating a
glass surface with metallic silver was discovered by German chemist
Justus von Liebig in 1835, and this advance inaugurated the modern
techniques of mirror making.

By the end of the 17th century mirrors were made in Britain and the
manufacture of mirrors developed subsequently into an important
industry in many other European countries. People wore them in
their hats, or set them like jewels in their rings. Society glittered and
shone like the firmament. A little later on, America was gripped by
the mirror craze, only this time they wore interested in larger mirrors.
In house after house in residential districts and eastern cities there
could be found one long mirror after another placed between two
front parlour windows.

In the manufacture of mirrors today, plate glass is cut to size, and all
blemishes are removed by polishing with rouge. The glass is scrubbed
and flushed with a reducing solution before silver is applied. The
glass is then placed on a hollow, cast-iron tabletop, covered with felt,

159
and kept warm by steam. A solution of silver nitrate is poured on the
glass and left undisturbed for about 1 hour. The silver nitrate is
reduced to a metallic silver and a lustrous deposit of silver gradually
forms. The deposit is dried, coated with shellac, and painted. Most
present-day mirrors therefore, are made up of these layers. Glass is
used on top because it is smooth, clear, and protects the reflective
surface. A mirror needs to be very smooth in order for the best
reflection to occur.

Mirrors may have plane or curved surfaces. A curved mirror is


concave or convex depending on whether the reflecting surface faces
toward the centre of the curvature or away from it. Curved mirrors in
ordinary usage have surfaces of varying shapes. Perhaps the most
common is spherical. Spherical mirrors produce images that are
magnified or reduced – exemplified, by mirrors for applying facial
makeup and by rear-view mirrors for vehicles. Cylindrical mirrors are
another common type of shape. These focus a parallel beam ©flight
to a linear focus. A paraboloidal mirror is one which is often used to
focus parallel rays to a sharp focus, as in a telescope mirror, or to
produce a parallel beam from a source at its focus, such as a
searchlight. A less common but useful shape is the ellipsoidal. Such a
mirror will reflect light from one of its two focal points to the other.

While the mirror is the focus of the production, the frame plays an
important albeit slightly lesser role as the anchor by which the mirror
is affixed to its proper place. From the late 17th century onward,
mirrors and their frames played an increasingly important part in the
decoration of rooms. Complementing the shiny reflective mirror, the
early frames were usually of ivory, silver, ebony, or tortoiseshell or
were veneered with walnut, olive, and laburnum. Needlework and
bead frames were also to be found. Craftsmen such as Grinling
Gibbons often produced elaborately carved mirror frames to match a
complete decorative ensemble. The tradition soon became
established of incorporating a mirror into the space over the
mantelpiece; many of the early versions of these mirrors, usually

160
known as overmantels, were enclosed in glass frames. The
architectural structure of which these mirrors formed a part became
progressively more elaborate. Focusing heavily on the effect created
by mirrors, 18th century designers such as the English brothers Robert
and James Adam created fireplace units stretching from the hearth
to the ceiling. Oil the whole, mirror frames reflected the general taste
of the time and were often changed to accommodate alterations in
taste – frames usually being cheaper and hence more easily replaced
than the mirror itself.

By the end of the 18th century, painted decoration largely supplanted


carving on mirrors, the frames being decorated with floral patterns
or classical ornaments. At the same time the French started
producing circular mirrors. Usually surrounded by a neoclassical gilt
frame that sometimes supported candlesticks, these mirrors enjoyed
great popularity well into the 19thImproved skill in mirror making also
made possible die introduction of the cheval glass, a freestanding full-
length mirror, supported on a frame with four feet. These were
mainly used for dressing purposes, though occasionally they had a
decorative function. New, cheaper techniques of mirror production
in the 19th century led to a great proliferation in their use. Not only
were they regularly incorporated into pieces of furniture – such as
wardrobes and sideboards – they were also used in everything from
high-powered telescopes to decorative schemes in public places.
Their popularity continues today. Through them, infants are able to
develop an awareness of their individuality through ‘mirror games’.
This type of emotional reflection stimulates babies to move various
parts of their body and even promotes verbal utterances.

Questions 1-5

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 1?

161
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agree with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The Creeks arid Egyptians used polished silver to make mirrors.


2. The first man-made mirrors were made of bronze.
3. Only the wealthy could afford the first mirrors.
4. The first mirrors in America were used for decoration.
5. Spherical mirrors are commonly used in cars.
Questions 6 – 9

Complete the labels on Diagram A below.

Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

Diagram A: Magnified side-view of a mirror

162
A. rouge

B. cast iron

C. felt

D. steam

E. shellac

F. glass

G. metal

H. silver nitrate paint

I. reducing solution

163
Questions 10-13

Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.

Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

10. The type of mirror used for looking at the stars is

A. paraboloidal.

B.spherical.

C. cylindrical.

D. ellipsoidal.

11. 17th century craftsmen

A. blended mirror frames well with other household furniture.

B. hung mirrors above fireplaces.

C. used mirror frames as a focus for home decoration.

D. established floral patterns as a standard for mirror frames.

12. 18th century craftsmen

A. designed furniture which highlighted the unique properties of


mirrors.

164
B. experimented largely with mirror frames made of ebony and ivory.

C. built spherically-shaped minors.

D. experimented with ceiling mirrors around fireplaces.

13. 19th century craftsmen

A. used mirrors less than any previous time in history.

B. introduced mirrors as learning tools.

C. used mirrors extensively in bedroom furniture.

D. etched designs into mirrors.

165
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are


based on Reading Passage 2

EFFORT AND SCIENCE TO WIN

Winning nowadays is not only a question of disciplined


training: The triumph of victory today involves the collaboration of
several medical specialists who combine their particular knowledge
in an effort to help each athlete to reach their potential.

A. In Mexico, the Medicine Direction and .Applied Sciences of the


National Commission of Deporte analyses all aspects of sports
science from the role of the auditory system in sporting achievement
to die power of the mind and its role in the ability to win. Everything,
it seems, is open to scrutiny. Recently, the focus has been evaluating
the visual acuity of cyclists and long distance runners but they also
focus on the more traditional areas of sports research, among them
psychology, nutrition, anthropology, biochemistry and odontology1.
From budding child athletes as young as 9 to the more mature-aged
sportsperson, the facility at Deporte has attracted some of Mexico’s
most famous sporting and Olympic hopefuls.

B. “The study of elite athletes is now more scientific than ever” says
doctor Francisco Javier Squares, “after each competition, athletes are
exposed to vigorous medical examinations and follow-up training in
order to help US arrive at a program that is tailor-made. “The modern
athlete has become big business, no longer is there a one-size-fits-all
approach. For example, in the past two people both 1.70 meters tall
and weighing 70 kilograms would have been given the same program
of athletic conditioning – now this idea is obsolete. It may be that the
first individual has 35 kgs of muscle and 15 kgs of fat and the other
person, although the same height and weight may have 30 kgs of

166
muscle and 20 kgs of fat. Through detailed scientific evaluation here
at our facility in Deporte,” says Squares, “… we are able to construct
a very specific training programme for each individual.”

C. Whereas many countries in die world focus on the elevation of the


glorious champion, the Mexican Olympic team takes a slightly
different approach. Psychologically speaking an athlete must bring to
his endeavour a healthy dose of humility. As Squares said, “When an
athlete wins for Mexico, it is always as a result of a combined team
effort with many people operating behind the scenes to realise the
sporting achievement. When an athlete stands on the dais, it is
because of great effort on the part of many.”

D. As is often the case in some poorer countries, sportsmen and


women are stifled in their development due to budgetary constraints.
However this has not been a factor for consideration with the team in
Mexico. The Mexican government has allocated a substantial sum of
money for the provision of the latest equipment and laboratories for
sports research. In fact, the quality of Mexico’s facilities puts them on
a par with countries like Italy and Germany in terms of access to
resources. One example of sophisticated equipment used at the
Mexican facility is the hyperbaric chamber. This apparatus is used to
enhance oxygen recovery after a vigorous physical workout. Says
Squares, “When you breathe the air while inside a hyperbaric
chamber the natural state of the oxygen does not change. Green
plants produced the oxygen; modern technology just increases the air
pressure. This does not change the molecular composition of oxygen.
Increased pressure just allows oxygen to get into tissues better. Due
to our purchase of the hyperbaric chamber, athletes are able to
recover from an intense workout in a much shorter space of time. We
typically use the chamber for sessions of 45 to 60 minutes daffy or
three times per week.”

E. When pushed to the limit, the true indicator of fitness is not how
hard the heart operates, but how quickly it can recover after an

167
extreme workout. Therefore, another focus area of study for the team
in Mexico has been the endurance of the heart. To measure this
recovery rate, an electroencephalograph (EEG) is used. The EEG
enables doctors to monitor the brainwave activity from sensors
placed on the scalp. Athletes exert intense effort for a sustained
period after which they are given time to rest and recover. During
these periods between intense physical exertion and recovery,
doctors are able to monitor any weaknesses in the way the heart
responds. The CCG has had a big impact upon our ability to measure
the muscular endurance of the heart.

F. In 1796, the life expectancy of a human being was between 25 and


36 years, in 1886 that number basically doubled to between 45 and
50. In 1996, the life expectancy of an average Mexican stood at
around 75 years. People are living longer and this is due in large part
to the advances of modern science. It is not all sophisticated medical
equipment that is playing a part; although lesser in impact, basic
advances in engineering are also greatly assisting. Take for example,
a professional tennis player. In the past, most tennis players’ shoes
were constructed with fabric and a solid rubber sole. These shoes
were of poor construction and resulted in hip and foot injuries. Today
the technology of shoe construction has radically changed. Now some
shoes are injected with silicone and made of more comfortable,
ergonomic1 construction. This has helped not only the elite but also
the recreational sportsperson and thus, helps in the preservation of
the human body.

1objects designed to be better adapted to the shape of the human


body

Questions 14 -17

The passage has eight paragraphs labelled A-F

168
Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

14. the natural process of oxygen production


15. standard after-competition procedure
16. the areas of study undertaken to improve athletic performance
17. the Mexican viewpoint on winning
Questions 18 -20

Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.

Write your answers in boxes 18-20 on your answer sheet.

18. The hyperbaric chamber


A. helps athletes to breathe more easily.

B. increases the level of oxygen an athlete breathes.

C. decreases the pressure of the oxygen for Mexican athletes.

D. speeds up recovery time for athletes.

19. The electroencephalograph (EEC)


A. measures how fast brainwaves move during exercise.

B. helps doctors to determine heart problems.

169
C. measures how hard the heart works during exercise.

D. strengthens the heart muscle in athletes.

20. The life-span of individuals in Mexico has increased due to


A. medical improvements.

B. more committed doctors.

C. better made sporting equipment.

D. advances in ergonomics.

Questions 21-26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 21 -26 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

21. There are limits to the level of sporting enquiry.


22. Specific athletic programs differ mostly between men and
women
23. Mexico and Germany have similar sporting resources.

170
24. Lack of money is what stops athletic improvement in some poor
countries.
25. Wealthy countries enjoy greater athletic success.
26. Mexican athletes have the support of their government.

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3.

FUELING THE FUTURE

The world’s 750 million motor vehicles emit well over 900 million
metric tonnes of carbon dioxide each year. Traffic-related air
pollution has been responsible for 6% of deaths per year and is
associated with certain forms of leukaemia, inflammatory lung
diseases, increased cardio-vascular disease, low birth-weight babies
and male infertility. It stands to reason that tackling traffic- related
air pollution should be high on any government’s list of priorities.
Thus, in an attempt to minimise this situation many governments
around the world have been looking at ways to implement alternative
fuel sources. The most widely accepted way of doing this is to replace
the crude oil that our vehicles currently run on with renewable,
‘environmentally friendly’ One serious contender put forward as a
solution to the pollution problem is ethanol.

Ethanol is a type of alcohol made by fermenting plant material. Water


and organic matter from the plants including com, sorghum, sugar
cane and wood are mixed together and fermented to make ethanol.

171
After fermentation there are three layers remaining. The first is water
and small particles of grain and alcohol. It takes on a syrup
consistency. The second layer is the remaining grain, which is 17 per
cent dry matter. The third layer is the actual ethanol – a colourless,
volatile, flammable liquid. It is the only layer sold and accounts for
exactly one-third of the total dry matter used for its production. There
are three primary ways that it is used as a fuel for transportation: as
a blend of 10 per cent ethanol with 90% unleaded fuel (E10); as a
component of reformulated gasoline and; as a primary fuel with 85
parts of ethanol blended with 15 parts of unleaded fuel (E-85). In the
1800s in the USA, it was first used as lamp fuel. Later on , due to
skyrocketing oil prices in the 1970s, E10 was produced as a type of
‘fuel-extender’ for vehicles with E-85 being produced in the 1990s.
Brazil has also used ethanol-blended fuels. Like America, the high
prices in the 1970s prompted a government mandate to produce
vehicles which could be fuelled by pure ethanol Today there are more
than 4,2 million ethanol- powered vehicles in Brazil (40 per cent
passenger carrying) which consume 4 billion gallons of ethanol
annually. Today, Brazil is the largest transportation ethanol fuel
market in the world.

Given that Ethanol is made from a variety of plant substances when


it is used in fuel production, it increases the monetary value of feed
grains grown by farmers. In fact, in the USA, the largest ethanol
consuming nation in the world, ethanol production adds £4.5 billion
to the farm economy every year. According to the United States
Department of Agriculture, ethanol production adds 30 cents to the
value of a bushel of corn. Another of its benefits, according to Brian
Keating, deputy chief of Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and
Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO) is that a 10% ethanol
blend (E10) would reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 2 to 5% over
the full lifecycle of ethanol production and consumption. Said
Keating, “The precise benefits depend on specific factors in the
production cycle. An important component of which is the energy
source used by the ethanol factory. If it’s being powered by coal or oil,
there are obviously associated greenhouse gas emissions.” In

172
America, The Clean Air Act of 1990 and the National Energy Policy
Act of 1992 have both created new market opportunities for cleaner,
more efficient fuels with many state governments in America’s Mid-
west purchasing fleet vehicles capable of running on E-85 fuels.

Although it makes a good fuel, some drawbacks have been


documented. The economics of ethanol production are improving as
the technology improves but ethanol has two problems: It does not
explode like gasoline, and it can absorb water, which can cause
oxidation, rust and corrosion. The claims of possible damage to
vehicles from the use of ethanol blends above 10% has therefore
attracted considerable negative publicity. Compared to diesel – the
standard fuel in the heavy moving industry – ethanol is known to
have a lower energy content so ethanol trucks require larger fuel
tanks to achieve the same range as a diesel-powered vehicle. In
Australia, a government review’ into the impacts of a 20% ethanol
blend on vehicles found the information to be insufficient or
conflicting, but did identify a number of problems such as the
possible perishing and swelling of elastomeric and plastic materials
in fuel systems. Stakeholders in the motor vehicle industry have
slated that warranties on motor vehicles and pump dispensing
equipment could be at risk with the use of blends above 10% ethanol.
Principle economist for the Australian Bureau of Agriculture Andrew
Dickson points out that the money sugarcane growers get for their
cane is not determined by the domestic consumption or domestic
demand for ethanol, it is entirely determined by the world sugar
market and the world trade in molasses He believes that the only way
the sugar industry’ can benefit from the existence of an ethanol
industry is if they invest in the ethanol industry. “The sugar producer
does not get any more money for their molasses so what incentive do
they have to produce any more?.” The cost of production also
represents some challenges. In Australia, fuel ethanol costs around
70 cents per litre compared with around 35 cents per litre for
unleaded petrol. In America, one report revealed that even with
government assistance, ethanol is dose to 35 per cent more than the
price of diesel. Consequently, production of ethanol requires

173
government assistance to be competitive. A recent study by the
Australian Bureau of Agricultural and Resource Economies found
that without assistance, large-scale production of ethanol would not
be commercially viable in Australia.

Regardless of whether the Australian sugar industry will benefit from


a mandated 10% ethanol mix, the expansion of ethanol production
would certainly lead to increased economic activity in farming areas.
It is inevitable that some expansion would be at the expense of
existing industry. If ethanol becomes more popular, there will soon
be more plants producing it. This means there will be a need for
workers for the plants. The American National Ethanol Vehicle
Coalition (NBVC) projects that employment will be boosted by
200,000 jobs and the balance of trade will be improved by over $2
The future of ethanol looks promising, for better or worse ethanol
looks to be a serious contender for tomorrow’s fuel.

Questions 27 -31

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the


writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks


about this

27. The need to control air pollution is why ethanol came into use.

174
28. Brazil uses more ethanol for transportation than America.
29. Select food crops become more expensive due to ethanol
production
30. The Australian sugar industry will benefit from the production
of ethanol.
31. Primary ethanol (E-85) has been extensively tested in Australia.
Questions 32 – 35

Look at the following list of descriptions (Questions 32-35) and the


list of fuel types below.

Match each description to the fuel type.

Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

32. costs about half the price of ethanol

33. reacts poorly with some metals

34. is the reason why trucks have been fitted with larger fuel tanks

35. commonly used in the trucking industry

A. regular gasoline

B. unleaded gasoline

C. ethanol

175
D. diesel

Question 36 – 40

Classify the following statements according to which country they


apply to. Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 36-40 on your
answer sheet.

A. Australia only

B. America only

C. both Australia and America

D. neither Australia nor America

36. makes ethanol out of sugar cane

37. uses more ethanol than any other country in the world

38. receives government assistance for ethanol production

39. proved ethanol production is costly

40. their government bought ethanol-friendly cars

176
READING 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-12 which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

THE ‘BEAUTIFUL’ GAME

A Every nation has a sport to represent it. In the U.S., there is


baseball; in New Zealand, rugby. In the UK, football is the national
sporting obsession. While many UK teams have gained international
recognition, Manchester United is among those most well-known on
a global scale. Yet while most people, regardless of the sporting
preference or nationality, have some passing knowledge of
Manchester United, fewer can claim knowledge of the origins of the
team. Manchester United came into being in 1902 as a result of
bankruptcy of the team formerly known as Newton Heath. Newton
Heath began life as Newton Heath LYR (Lancashire and Yorkshire

177
Railway) club and as the name suggests, the original team was
comprised of railway workers. Despite turning professional in 1885
and becoming the founding member of the Football Lions in 1889,
Newton Heath – nicknamed the ‘Heathens’ – was constantly troubled
by financial difficulties.

B Salvation came in the form of local brewer, John Henry Davis, who
agreed to invest in the team on condition of being given some interest
in running it. After consideration of the alternatives titles of
Manchester Central and Manchester Celtic, the club was christened
Manchester United in April 1902. United’s first manager, though
officially titled Secretary, was Ernest Mangnall, who was appointed
in September 1903, but it was not until the season of 1905/1906, that
United experienced its first taste of success. His side reached the
quarterfinals of the F.A, Cup and were runners up in the second
division.

C In 1907, United claimed the championship for the first time and
won the first ever Charity Shield trophy in 1908. In the following year,
United claimed the F.A. Cup trophy after beating Bristol City.
Manchester United moved to its new stadium, Old Trafford, in early
1910. The move to the stadium, owned by the John Henry Davis
brewery (a Manchester beer-making company), was proven to be
fortunate as on the 17th of February, 1910, two days before the team’s
first scheduled game, the previous stadium Banks Street was
destroyed in a fire. The new stadium had a capacity for a crowd of
80,000 spectators and despite losing to their first visiting team
Liverpool, Manchester United were once again league champions at
the end of the first full season playing from Old Trafford.

D The following years were to be less of a success. From 1912 to the


onset of the First World War, no significant victories were achieved.
During the war the football league was suspended and only regional
competitions took place. 1919 saw the return of Manchester United
to league football with only two of the original members in the team.

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E Although Britain has a long and proud history of football adoration,
contemporary football supporters from the UK have gained a
negative reputation for outbursts of violence against rival supporters,
earning the label ‘football hooligan’. The football hooliganism
phenomenon has attracted the attention of a number of researchers
and psychologists who have offered theories relating to its causes. It
is generally agreed that a combination of factors may initiate this type
of anti-social behaviour and that it is unrealistic to contend that all
such behaviour stems from a particular psychological make-up or
belongs to a specific age or class. Experts do however believe that
rampaging hooligan behaviour can instil a sense of belonging and
‘community’ in participants who feel that they can strongly identify
with their group, regardless of the fact that the group’s behaviour is
negative.

F Analysts also argue that the motivations for outbursts of violence


experienced in an international setting are even more complex.
Whilst alcohol and xenophobia no doubt play a part they say, some
psychologists hold that policing tactics, to a large degree, dictate the
level of disturbance likely to occur. Evidence supports the view that
confrontational policing is much more likely to escalate than calm
any incidences of trouble. The media’s actions have also been
criticised due to the belief by some that messages given in newspaper
reporting may also exacerbate the existing problem of football
hooliganism.

G Critics say that certain headlines used by tabloid newspapers may


glorify acts of violence and at least, the prolific news reports which
are published in the UK about this issue cause perpetrators to receive
undue attention and acknowledgement for their actions. Whilst few
disagree that football hooliganism is a significant social problem,
many researchers hold that sensationalist media reporting may also
be creating undue panic since the problem is often presented as much
more widespread than is the reality. Extreme cases of hooliganism
from British fans has reduced significantly over recent years, and

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while it may take some considerable time for the negative reputation
they have earned to subside, it is also true that a large proportion of
supporters have no involvement in violence and simply share a love
of the game.

Questions 1 – 3

Choose THREE letters A-H.

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

NB Your answers may be given in any order

Which THREE of the following statements are true of Newton


Heath?

A. Newton Heath football club was established in 1902.

B. It was the only Lancashire-based club at the time.

C. It developed from a club with a similar name.

D. It ceased being an amateur team in 1885.

E. It was the most famous British football club of the period.

F. The club experienced economic hitches.

G. Its name changed one more time before becoming Manchester


United.

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Questions 4 -7

Complete the summary with the list of words A-K below.

Write the correct letter A-K in boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet.

According to expert opinion, there is little 4________________


that football hooliganism occurs as a result of a number of issues and
does not necessarily correlate with age, psychological profile or
5______________. External triggers such as newspaper reports
and antagonistic 6_____________ can be attributed to escalation
of the problem in certain situations. Some psychologists believe that
such behaviour and membership of trouble-making groups can give
certain individuals a sense of 7________________ that may
otherwise be missing in their lives.

A isolation B policing C anger D occupation

E belief F proof G class H intelligence

I excitement J unity K doubt

Questions 8 -12

Reading Passage 1 has 7 paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-12 on your answer sheet

NB Each paragraph may be used more than once

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8. details about stipulations made to offer financial assistance to
the club
9. reasons for disruption of national competitions
10. information about why the problem of violence at football
matches may be perceived by the general public to be larger than it
is.
11. deliberations about the Manchester United name
12. a reference to a new competition

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 13-25 which are


based on Reading Passage 2 below.

CAN WE BELIEVE OUR OWN EYES?

A. An optical illusion refers to a visually perceived image that is


deceptive or misleading in that information transmitted from the eye
to the brain is processed in a way that the related assumption or
deduction does not represent the true physical reality. Our
perceptions of what we think we see can be influenced by a number
of external factors; ‘illusions’ can be classified into two main
categories these being ‘physiological illusions’ and ‘cognitive’
illusions, the latter category can then be divided again into four sub-
types.

B. Physiological illusions occur as a result of excessive stimulation of


the eyes and brain which leads to a temporary state of confusion and
mixed messages. For example, after exposure to extremely vivid
lights, the eyes may need time to adapt and immediately after the
stimulus, we may see things that would not be the norm. In the same

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way a contingent perceptual after-effect may be experienced after
staring at a particular colour and the receptors in the brain may
process subsequent colours inaccurately until overload has passed.

C. Cognitive illusions, on the other hand, are said to arise not as a


result of neurone activity as with the aforementioned category, but
due to assumptions we may consciously make based on our
knowledge and experience of the world. The four categories of
cognitive illusion are ‘ambiguous’ illusions, ‘distorting’ illusions
‘paradox’ illusions and ‘fictional’ illusions. Inclusion of ‘fictional’
illusions into the cognitive group is somewhat misleading; however,
as this type of illusion is unique in that it is only seen by an individual
in a given situation and exists in no tangible form. A fictional illusion
is in reality a hallucination which arises as a result of drug use or a
brain condition such as schizophrenia.

D. Ambiguous illusions are pictures or objects which are structured


in such a way that alternative perceptions of their structure are
possible. Different individuals may instantly perceive the object or
picture in a different way than another and, in fact, the same
individual is often able to see and interpret the image or object in
more than one form. A classic example of an ambiguous illusion is the
Necker cube. This cube is a standard line drawing which our visual
senses generally interpret as a three dimensional box. Wien the lines
of the box cross, the picture intentionally does not define which is in
front and which is behind. However, when individuals view the box,
it is the automatic response of the mind to interpret what is seen.
Generally our thought process patterns work in the way that we view
objects from above; for this reason, when most people look at the
Necker Cube they will interpret the lower left face as being the front
of the box, the base of the front face being parallel to the floor as their
thought processes convert the image to three dimensions. However,
it is also possible to interpret the image differently in that the front of
the box could also be seen to be in a different position.

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E. The Necker Cube made contributions to researchers’
understanding of the human visual system, providing evidence that
the brain is a neural network with two distinct and interchangeable
states. It has also been used in epistemology – the study of knowledge
– as evidence to disprove the theory upheld by ‘direct realism’ that
the way the human mind perceives the world is the way the world
actually is. To illustrate, with the՜ Necker cube we are generally able
to see one or both versions of a three dimensional cube, when in fact
only a two dimensional drawing comprised of 12 lines exists.

F. Distorting illusions affect an individual’s ability to judge size,


length, or curvature; the Muller-Lyer illusion which consists of three
lines with arrow-like endings is a prime example. In this illusion the
middle arrow has both arrow ends pointing out, while the line above
it has arrow’ ends pointing in and the third and final line possesses
one inward pointing and one outward pointing arrow’ end. ¿Most
respondents from certain backgrounds generally respond that the
middle arrow is the longest (though all are in fact the same).
However, cultural backgrounds affect perceptions related to this
illusion; international research having shown that non-Western
subjects, particularly those generally not exposed to rectangular
shaped buildings and door frames in their day to day life, are less
likely to misinterpret the true length of the three drawings.

G. Paradox illusions encourage the mind to believe that we are seeing


something we know to be impossible. The Penrose Stairs and the
Penrose Triangle, developed by Lionel Penrose are examples of
models created to illustrate this phenomenon. Many naturally
occurring optical illusions also exist. Throughout the world there a
number of locations where objects can be perceived to roll uphill; our
cognitive and pre-learned knowledge inform us that this is
impossible; however information received by the visual senses of
observers creates conflict. These areas are often known as ‘gravity
hills or ‘magnetic’ hills and are often popular with tourists; the
mystical properties of the area often promoted vigorously to add

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mystique or claimed to arise as a result of the special properties and
magnetic influence of the area’s land.

H. The scientific explanation for such phenomenon is that such areas


are set on slightly sloping ground without a visible horizon against
which to establish perspective. In addition, surrounding points of
reference we would generally expect to be perpendicular, such as
trees, are in fact on a slope. The interpretation of what observers
believe they are experiencing is therefore confused, downward slopes
may be perceived to be horizontal or tilting upwards and cars with
hand brakes released on such ground appear to roll upwards when in
fact they a rolling, as gravity dictates, in a downhill direction. While
our innate sense of balance under normal situations helps us
determine the inclination of the ground, interference from the visual
stimuli as outlined above and lack of reference from points on the
horizon can override this ability in such situations, especially if the
gradient is gentle.

Questions 13 -15

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 13-15 on your answer sheet.

13. What type of illusion is a result of interference with neurone


activity?
14. Which two factors influence the way we process information on
a cognitive level?
15. Which theory holds that individuals see only the true reality of
a situation?

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Questions 16 – 20

According to the information in Reading Passage 2, classify the


following as relating to

A. Fictional illusions

B. Paradox illusions

C. Distorting illusions

D. Ambiguous illusions

Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 16-20 on your answer sheet.

16. may be perceived differently by individuals of diverse ethnic


origin
17. may override our natural ability to make rational judgement
18. may be interpreted differently even by the same subject
19. may result due to chemical stimulation
20. has been used to question the validity of arguments in a
different field
Questions 21 – 25

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 21-25 on your answer sheet.

21. Fictional illusions


A. may eventually lead to schizophrenia.

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B. are the only type which are completely subjective.

C. are very similar to paradox illusions.

D. are typical of cognitive illusions.

22. According to ambiguous illusion theory, which face of the


Necker Cube is interpreted to be the front of the box due to the
general tendency to view objects from above?

23. Which diagram represents the Muller-Lyer illusion?

24. The Penrose Stairs are an example of a model which

187
A can persuade the viewer they are seeing something infeasible.

B has disproven established theories on knowledge.

C is a naturally occurring paradox illusion.

D can be seen in a number of international locations.

25. Occurrences on ‘gravity’ or ‘magnetic’ hills result due to


A the mineral content of soil in the area.

B factors currently unexplained from a scientific perspective.

C misleading natural points of reference.

D rising slopes being misinterpreted as on a decline.

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READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3 below.

GRAVITY

A. Without forces of gravitation, Earth and other planets would be


unable to stay in their orbits around the Sun. the Moon would be
unable to orbit the Earth, tidal waves would not occur and the rising
of hot air or water convection would be impossible. Gravitation is a
phenomenon winch allows objects to attract other matter; the physics
behind it have been explained in The Theory of Relativity and
Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation; though attempts to explain
gravity hail back to ancient times. In 4th Century B.C. the Greek
philosopher Aristotle developed the hypothesis that all objects were
drawn into their correct position by crystalline spheres and that a
physical mass would fall towards the earth in direct proportion to its
weight.

B. In the late 16th century Galileo deduced that while gravitation


propels all objects to the ground at the same rate, air resistance
resulted in heavier objects appearing to fall more quickly; his theories
contradicting earlier belief systems put in place by Aristotle and
others; so paving the way for formulation of the modern theories of
today. Though the two terms are now used interchangeably in layman

189
use, strictly by scientific definition, there are distinct differences
between ‘gravitation’ and ‘gravity’. The first relates to the influence
exerted by different objects which allow them to attract other objects,
whereas ‘gravity’ refers specifically to the force possessed by such
objects which facilitates gravitation. Certain scientific theories hold
that gravitation may be initiated by a combination of factors and not
simply the existence of gravity alone; though doubts have been raised
regarding some of these theories.

C. Gravity is directly proportional to mass; a smaller object


possessing less gravity. To illustrate, the Moon is a quarter of the
Earth’s size and possesses only 1/6 of its gravity. The mass of the
Earth itself is not spread out proportionally, being flatter at the poles
than the equator as a result of its rotation; gravity and gravitational
pull in different locations throughout the world also vary. In the
1960s, as a result of research into the worldwide gravity fields, it was
discovered that inexplicably areas around and including the Hudson
Bay area of Canada appeared to possess significantly lower levels of
gravity than other parts of the globe; the reasons for this dissimilarity
have since been extensively investigated resulting in two
explanations.

D. The original theory presented attributed this anomaly to activity


which occurs 100-200 kilometres below the Earth’s surface within
the layer known as the ‘mantle’. The mantle is comprised of hot
molten rock known as magma which flows under the earth’s surface
causing convection currents. These convection currents can result in
the lowering of the continental plates which make up the Earth’s
surface, as a result when this occurs, the mass in that area and its
gravity is also reduced. Research findings indicated that such activity
had occurred in the Hudson Bay region.

E. More recently a second conjecture suggested that, in fact, lower


levels of gravity in the area are a result of occurrences during the Ice
Age. The Laurentidelcesheet, which covered most of Canada and the

190
northern tip of the USA until it melted 10,000 years ago, is thought
to have been 3.2 kms thick in most parts and 3.7 kms thick over two
areas of Hudson Bay. The sheer weight of the ice layer weighed down
the surface of the earth below, leaving a deep indentation once it had
melted, having caused the area around Hudson Bay to become
thinner as the earth’s surface was pushed to the edges of the icesheet.

F. Extensive investigation has since been carried out by the Harvard-


Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics using data collected by satellites
during the Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment (GRACE)
between 2002 and 2006. The satellites are placed 220kms apart and
orbit 500kms above Earth. Being extremely sensitive to even minor
differences in gravitational pull of the areas of earth they pass over,
as the first satellite enters an area with decreased gravity it moves
slightly away from the earth as the gravitational pull is reduced and
also moves slightly further away from the sister satellite that follows,
such activity allowing scientists to create maps of gravitational fields.
The GRACE findings also allowed scientists to estimate the
appearance of Hudson Bay over 10,000 years ago, prior to the great
thaw. The areas possessing the lowest gravity today correlate with the
areas covered in the thickest layers of ice at that time.

G. Researchers now believe that both theories regarding reduced


gravity levels in the Hudson Bay region are accurate and that the
area’s characteristics are a result of both magma activity and the
impact of the Laurentidelcesheet. It has been estimated that the
former has resulted in 55-75% of gravity reduction and that pressure
resulting from the latter accounts for 25-45%.

H. The effects of the Laurentidelcesheet are reversible due to the


earth layer’s capability to ‘rebound’ in response to removal of the
weight which once restricted it. Return to the original position,
however, is an extremely slow process; it is estimated that the area
around Hudson Bay will take a further 5,000 years to recover the
altitude it once possessed prior to the Laurentidelcesheet. The

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rebound activity in the area is also measurable through observation
of sea levels; unlike the rest of the world, sea levels are not rising in
the area as a result of melting icecaps, but are dropping as the land
recovers its previous form

I. Research conducted into the Laurentidelcesheet has significant


implications on a global scale. The increased knowledge of how that
particular area has changed over time and the long-term implications
activity in the Ice Age had, pave the way to a better understanding of
how current changes elsewhere will manifest themselves over the
long term.

Questions 26 – 31

Reading Passage 3 has nine paragraphs A-I.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B, C and E-H from the
list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 26-31 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Return to previous form

ii. Substantiating a hypothesis

iii. Historic theories

iv. The general rule of gravity and an exception

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v. The initial explanation

vi. How proximity to the poles affected Hudson Bay

vii. Scientific definition and contemporary views

viii. Relevance to our future

ix. An alternative view point

x. Consolidating theories

Example Answer
Paragraph D v

Paragraph I vii

26. Paragraph B
27. Paragraph C
28. Paragraph E
29. Paragraph F
30. Paragraph G
31. Paragraph H
Questions 32 – 36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 3?

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In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

32. Differentiation between gravity and gravitational pull is


generally only made by academics in the field.
33. Gravity levels in areas around the equator are significantly
higher than around the poles.
34. It was first believed that lower gravity levels in Hudson Bay
could be attributed to its location between the poles and the equator.
35. Molten rock activity within the magma layer has had less of an
impact on gravity levels in the Hudson Bay area than the
Laurentidelcesheet.
36. The GRACE project’s main focus was areas of Canada and North
America once thought to be covered by the Laurentidelcesheet.
Questions 37 – 40

Complete the sentences below with words from the box below.

Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 37- 40 on your answer sheet.

37. The impact of ___________________ on objects falling to


the ground was not considered by Aristotle.
38. Investigations of ________________ first led to the
discovery of the unusual levels in Hudson Bay.
39. The earth’s surface has been observed to sink as a direct result
of ________________

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40. The largest proportion of the Laurentideicesheet was
_______________ in depth

READING 28
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-11 which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

THE WORLD IS OUR OYSTER

A Independent travel is on the increase and while package holidays


which offer an all-inclusive price for transport, accommodation and
often even food are financially attractive to many, according to
tourism analyst Thomas Cooper, an increasing number of people now
prefer a less-tailored holiday and the freedom to make spur of the
moment decisions and changes to their intended plan.

B Internet based information sites about backpacking destinations


are prolific and publications aimed at independent travellers on a
budget exist for almost every destination imaginable. Some people,
particularly first-time backpackers, may elect to travel with a friend
or acquaintance; however, a large percentage of backpackers travel

195
alone, assured by the knowledge that they are likely to meet, with
ease, a number of like-minded individuals throughout their journey
and staying in their backpacker accommodation. Alan Park, who has
travelled extensively through Europe, Australasia and several other
parts of the globe, says most accommodation establishments aimed
at the backpacker market are designed with communal kitchens,
dormitories and entertainment areas which lend themselves to
allowing residents to socialize with ease and quickly breakdown
barriers with strangers that may usually exist in day to day life.

C Many backpackers of European origin are attracted to the Southern


Hemisphere, Australia being a major destination of choice. Cooper
attributes this high level of interest to the possibilities of legal
working holiday visas for many nationalities and consequent short-
term work opportunities making extended travel financially feasible,
in addition to the attractive climate and outback appeal. Australia
also has the reputation of being a relatively safe destination, with a
warm and jovial population and its size and contrast between
locations is alluring to many. University student Rebecca Thompson,
who has just returned from a twelve month overseas trip, says that
the cosmopolitan and modern nature of Australian cities such as
Sydney and Melbourne contrasted with the rugged outback appeal of
Western Australia and the Northern Territory, or the marine paradise
of the Great Barrier Reef offer sufficient variation to attract a wide
base of visitors. Sydney based travel consultant Brad Connor advises
that it is also possible to obtain bargain deals on internal flights
within this massive island when purchasing an international ticket,
highly recommended, he says, for those who do not have the luxury
of a long length of time, in order to ensure that key spots can be
visited.

D Equal in popularity to Australia, for the backpacking market is


South East Asia and Rebecca Thompson says that, in her experience,
the majority of travellers on extended trips to Australasia also include
a visit to one or more South East Asia destinations in their itinerary.

196
Thailand, in particular, has a long tourism history and well-
established service industry. It is often considered one of the more
accessible Asian destinations for the novice European backpacker
due to its reasonable prices, large volume of Western visitors and well
established backpacker trails. Brian Johnson, who is currently
employed by the British Consulate in Bangkok, believes that the
welcoming nature and level of English spoken by Thais involved in
the tourism industry has also impacted positively on the destination’s
overseas image. Thai food is delicious and now fairly familiar to those
outside the country and while precautions such as drinking bottled
water and washing of fruit and vegetables should be practiced,
generally standards of accommodation and restaurants are high.
Thomas Cooper says Thailand’s attractions are wide ranging,
encompassing idyllic beaches, an insight into Buddhist culture and
impressive ancient temples, mountain trekking, a vibrant nightlife
and for bargain hunters bustling night markets and bazaars.

E South East Asia neighbour, Vietnam, alongside its rapidly


developing economy has also over recent years established a solid
tourism industry, the majority of visitors entering and exiting by
plane via its urban centres Ho Chi Minh (formerly Saigon) in the
south and Hanoi in the north. Vietnam offers incredible vistas and
contrasts of rugged mountain areas, lush green rice paddies, crystal
clear waters and dense forest areas. Alan Park, who spent a month
travelling independently around the country, says bus and rail
networks allow visitors to travel from centre to centre relatively
inexpensively, though he does not recommend these forms of
transport to visitors on a short time-frame as the pace is unhurried.

F The list of potentially safe and enjoyable backpacking destinations


is endless. Technology and transport developments over recent time
have resulted in more areas of the world becoming increasingly
accessible, it is now possible to keep in regular contact with friends
and family back home via email or even mobile phone, providing
added reassurance to those concerned about travelling and their

197
worried parents. Brian Johnson says friends, family and
acquaintances who have previously travelled to the destination of
choice are a useful source of first-hand advice and information and
Simon Hartwell of the Backpackers Association adds travellers are
advised to ensure that they are aware of visa requirements for their
destination and are urged to seek medical advice regarding any
necessary vaccinations or medical precautions. It is always wise to be
as well informed as possible prior to embarking on a trip.

G The youth of today are undoubtedly becoming more adventurous,


which Hartwell ascribes to higher disposable income in the developed
world than were available to previous generations and also the fact
that we can more easily familiarise ourselves with the unknown via
the internet and other communication methods. Many travellers,
particularly experienced backpackers, are keen to experience more
obscure destinations well off the well-trodden backpacker trail.

Questions 1 – 4

Match each statement with the correct person.

Write the correct answer A-D in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1. Opportunities to fund expenses through casual work increase the


volume of visitors to a particular destination.
2. Attitude to the tourism industry of the local people has had a positive
impact on visitor numbers.
3. Diverse attractions mean a destination is able to appeal to a wider
range of people.
4. Motivations for different approaches to travel by different
generations.
List of People

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A. Simon Hartwell

B. Brian Johnson

C. Thomas Cooper

D. Rebecca Thompson

Questions 5 – 8

Do the following statements agree with the views given in Reading


Passage 1?

In boxes 5 – 8 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views given

NO if the statement contradicts the views given

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say

5. Interaction with others is generally more difficult when


travelling alone than in normal life situations.
6. Travelling by plane to other domestic destinations in Australia is
cheaper than other forms of transport.
7. Train travel in Vietnam can be too time-consuming for short visits.
8. Experienced backpackers rarely travel to destinations such as
Australia.
Questions 9 – 11

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Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 9-11 on your answer sheet.

 Vietnam – tourism industry growing as is its


9__________________.
 Thailand – certain 10_______________ are advisable – e.g. wash
fruit.
 Australia – Great Barrier Reef can be described as a
11_________________.

READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 12 – 25 which


are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

AN AVIATION WONDER AND ITS CREATOR

A The Supermarine Spitfire was a single-seater fighter plane used by


the British Royal Airforce and pilots from a number of the country’s
allies during the Second World War. The first flight of a
Spitfire prototype was on 5 March 1936 and usage of the plane

200
continued until the 1950s. It was said to be one of the most effective
fighter planes available during that period and was produced by
Vickers-Armstrongs, a British engineering corporation which was
formed in 1927 as a result of the merger of Vickers Limited and Sir W
G Armstrong Whitworth & Company.

B The Spitfire was designed by aeronautical engineer Reginald


Joseph Mitchell. His career began when he joined a locomotives
engineering company in 1911 at the age of 16. However, in 1917 he
moved from his hometown to join the Supermarine Aviation works in
Southampton and was promoted to Chief Designer within his first
year of employment. By the time the company was taken over by
Vickers-Armstrongs in 1928, Mitchell had held the post of Technical
Director for a year; and his capabilities and contributions were
deemed so significant Vickers-Armstrong made his continual
employment for a five year period a condition of the purchase of the
company.

C In the fifteen years prior to 1936 Mitchell designed 24 aircraft of


differing categories including fighter planes, bombers and seaplanes.
The first predecessor of the Spitfire in the fighter plane category to
gain him national acclaim was the Supermarine S.B for which he won
the Schneider Trophy (a cup and monetary award for technical
advances in aviation which came to focus mainly on speed) in 1931.
Despite withdrawal of financial support from the British Government
that year, the Supermarine S.B. was able to compete for the Schneider
Trophy as a result of a private donation of 100,000 pounds. Mitchell’s
team won outright on September 13th their aircraft achieving a new
world speed record of 606 km/h; within days the Supermarine S.B.
went on to break its own newly achieved record when on the 29th of
the same month it became the first aircraft ever to achieve speeds of
over 400 miles per hour (640 kilometres) when it reached 407.5 mph
(640 kilometres per hour).

201
D Reginald Joseph Mitchell was awarded a CBE in 1932 for his
contributions to high speed flight. CBEs being awarded by the British
Monarch and reserved to recognise individuals who have ‘fulfilled a
conspicuous leading role in regional affairs, through achievement or
service to the community, or making a highly distinguished,
innovative contribution in his or her area of activity’. Mitchell’s
achievements with the Supermarine S.B. also prompted the Air
Ministry to contract his company for design of a new fighter aircraft,
despite the organisation’s reputation being built predominantly on
sea-plane and not fighter plane manufacturing.

E The first type, the 224, was to prove unsuccessful and it was
eventually rejected by the Royal Air Force due to unsatisfactory
performance; however, private sponsorship enabled research,
development and modifications which led to the creation of the Type
300 which would eventually become the Spitfire. Soon after the first
flight of the Spitfire prototype (trial version) and prior to completion
of all stages of its official trials, convinced by its potential, the British
Royal Air Force ordered 310 models. With its smooth lines, load-
bearing metal shell, and heavy eight-machine gun armament, the
Spitfire was considered revolutionary. In 1938, the aircraft was first
put into official service; however, Mitchell, who died from cancer in
1937 at the age of 42, was not to witness this or the extensive impact
and longevity of use the aircraft would have. In total 20,351 spitfires
of different versions were produced making it the most produced
British aircraft of the Second World War. .

F After Mitchell’s death, his former Chief Draughtsman Joe Smith


took over the position of Technical Director and led the subsequent
development of the Spitfire which would keep it at the forefront of
aircraft technology while many other designs quickly became
obsolete; 24 models of spitfire were designed along with many sub-
variants containing different engine types and possessing different
wing configurations; the most widely used being the Spitfire Mark V,
of which 6,479 were built. The original version first used for active

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service in 1938 had a top speed of approximately 580 km per hour;
while one of the last models used in the later stages of the Second
World War – the Spitfire XIV – had a top speed capability of 710 km
per hour. Spitfires were used continually by the Royal Air Force, later
purely as surveillance planes (to monitor activity overhead though
carrying no armament), until 1954 when the last model was retired.

G In his home town, Reginald Joseph Mitchell C.B.E. is today


remembered in a number of ways. A combined theatre and education
centre ‘The Mitchell Memorial Theatre’ bears his name, and the city
museum, at the entrance of which stands a bronze statue of Mitchell,
displays an authentic and complete Spitfire as part of its collection.
In addition, a local high school is named after him; as is a major
roadway and he is locally recognised as one of the most significant
historical sons of the town.

Questions 12 – 17

Complete the flowchart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 12 and 17 on your answer sheet.

203
204
Questions 18 – 20

According to the information in the passage, classify the following


information as relating to:

A. the Supermarine SB

B. the Spitfire

C. neither the Supermarine SB or the Spitfire

D. both the Supermarine SB and the Spitfire

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D in boxes 18-20 on your answer


sheet.

18. Its development was commissioned by the Air Ministry


19. Mitchell was awarded the CBE due to its development.
20. It was innovative for its time.
Questions 21 – 25

Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 21-25 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

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21. where the Royal Air Force showed faith in Mitchell’s
engineering capability without complete evidence
22. where Mitchell’s involvement influenced a business purchase
23. how Mitchell has been honoured since his death
24. details of specific differences between spitfire models
25. details of what differentiated the Spitfire from other alternatives

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3 below.

NATURE’S MOST VIOLENT WIND

A Tornados have been observed in every continent on the planet with


the exception of Antarctica. Hurricanes differ from tornadoes, in that
the former develop in warm, tropical oceans whereas tornados
develop on land and are more aggressive and potentially destructive.
The majority of tornados are initiated by thunderstorms. Tornados
are relatively common occurrences at differing magnitudes
throughout the world. The geographical features of the U.S.A. lend
themselves to high incidence of tornado activity. In that country the
highest proportion of tornados occur in the southern states in spring
from March to May and in the northern states from late spring
extending into summer. Generally tornados travel from southwest to

206
northeast, though neither time of year nor direction they will take is
completely predictable.

B Several factors cause the U.S.A. to experience a high incidence of


tornado formation. While the continent reaches from arctic areas in
the north to a tropical climate in the south there is no barrier
protection from significant mountain ranges in the east or west;
however, the Rocky Mountains in the middle latitudes of the country
obstruct atmospheric flow’ and moisture. In addition, drier air from
the southwest deserts and low level moisture from the Gulf of Mexico
meet in the area, many collisions of w-arm and cool air occur and
optimum conditions for tornado formation are created. Tornados in
this central part of the U.SA. are so prolific that the area has been
named Tornado Alley, the site of the highest number of powerful
tornados in the country and throughout the world. In the USA alone,
in an average year 1200 tornados occur causing 70 fatalities and 1500
injuries and in addition extensive damage to property and natural
vegetation.

C Connected between a cloud base above (usually cumulonimbus)


and the earth below, a tornado is a rapidly rotating column of air; they
can be as much as 20 kilometres in height. The majority are less than
75 metres in diameter reaching wind speeds of less than 177kms per
hour and travel less than 10 kilometres before dissipating; however,
some of the larger and rarer of this type of weather phenomenon may
reach wind speeds of more than 480kms/hour traveling more than
100 kilometers before cessation. The inside of a tornado is made up
of descending air and this is surrounded by a spiraling upward
current which has the ability to carry with it and destroy even
substantial obstacles such as tress, cars and houses in its path.
Scientific research and eyewitness accounts indicate that most
tornados also possess a calm centre in their core, surrounded by the
layers of the downward and upward currents of air; this core has been
likened to the peaceful central ‘eye’ at the centre of a tropical cyclone
or hurricane.

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D A tornado itself is not necessarily visible; though the intense low
pressure it causes often results in condensation of water vapour
which forms into a noticeable condensation funnel. Colours of
tornados are also dictated by the environment in which they form.
The force of the swirling air causes them to pick up din as they travel
across the landscape; those with minimal debris remaining grey or
white turning darker blue the more they collect, while others in areas
such the Great Plains in the USA turn red in colour due to the red soil
they collect and carry with them. Background lighting in which a
tornado presents itself also affects the naked eye’s ability to identify
its form as it appears on the horizon. When viewing a tornado with
the sun behind it, it will appear to be dark in colour; however, when
viewed without the sun in the background, the same tornado appears
to be grey or white. On the rare occasions that tornados occur after
dark, they pose an increased level of danger as darkness can make
them invisible and only radar warnings or possibly sound can warn
those in their path that a tornado is on its way.

E Tornados are classified into three levels of intensity; these being


weak, strong and violent. 88% of tornados occurring in the USA are
classified into the first category making them the most common; they
account for less than 5% of fatalities resulting from tornado activity,
generally reach wind speeds of less than 177kms/hour and have a
duration of between 1 and 10 minutes before cessation. In contrast,
‘violent’ tornados exceed 330 kilometres per hour, can continue for
over an hour and while they account for only 1% of incidence of
tornados they result in approximately 70% of resultant deaths. The
greatest devastation to date, inflicted on the USA by a violent tornado
was on March 18th, 1925. The tornado was the longest, fastest and
widest tornado known to have formed in North America and resulted
in 695 deaths, an additional 2279 being injured. Now known as the
Tri-state Tornado, it travelled over 350 kilometres affecting 13
counties in the three different states of Missouri, Illinois and Indiana.
Around 11% of tornados are classified as ‘strong’ tornados. These
tornados account for slightly more than 25% of tornado-related fatal

208
accidents and reach mid-range speeds of between 177 and 330
kilometers per hour with an average duration of around 20 minutes.

F Today in the USA, early warning systems, which cannot necessarily


protect property in the path of a tornado, can allow people time to
leave the area and therefore significantly reduce death tolls. However
in countries such as Bangladesh, fatalities caused by tornado impact
remain extremely high. The rural, central region of the country also
experiences a high frequency of strong tornados and the danger is
exacerbated due to its densely populated areas, lack of warning
systems and vulnerability of building structures. Between 1967 and
1996 the Bangladesh Observer and Pakistan Observer reported 5,373
tornado related deaths: an average of 179.1 per year. The Manikganj
Tornado which occurred in 1989 is thought to have caused as a many
as 1300 deaths and is known as the deadliest tornado to have
occurred anywhere in the world. Many projects delivered by
organizations such as the Asian Disaster Reduction Center (ADRC)
have been established with the aim of minimising devastation and
death rates caused by tornados in such areas.

Questions 26 – 30

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answer in boxes 26-30 on your answer sheet.

26. Hurricanes are described as


A. more hostile than tornados and occurring in the sea.

B. occurring on land and less harmful than tornados.

C. less damaging than tornados and occurring in marine


environments.

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D. only occurring in certain oceans with a fiercer effect than a
tornado.

27. Tornados in the USA


A. occur only in spring and summer.

B. continually travel from southwest to northeast.

C. are less prevalent in winter.

D. are experienced exclusively by the southern and northern


states.

28. Tornados are common in the USA because


A. the Rocky Mountains inhibit cold air from the north and warm
air from the south making contact.

B. because warm, humid air which builds up meets cooler air


without interference.

C. of the high incidence of thunderstorms which are experienced


in central USA.

D. warm air from the tropics allows optimum conditions to


develop.

29. Tornados may be very light in colour if


A. the observer stands with their back to the sun.

B. they occur at night.

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C. they occur in the Great Plains of the USA.

D. they pick up substantial dirt on their journey.

30. Tornados in Bangladesh


A. are of greater intensity than in USA.

B. can now be effectively predicted,

C. occur mainly in urban areas.

D. cause extensive damage due to sociological factors.

Questions 31- 35

Label the diagram below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for


each answer

Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet

211
Questions 36 – 40

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A


NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

212
Classification Weak Strong Violent
make up
make up about make up the smalle
36____________
Incidence 37____________ of minority of tornado
of tornados in the
tornados in the USA USA
USA
less than between 177 and 330
Wind speed more than 830 kms
177kms/hr kms/hr
can last for
Lifespan 1-10 minutes 20 minutes
38____________
cause just over
cause less than 5% The most violent ex
39______________
Impact of tornado related in the USA was the
of tornado related
deaths 40___________
deaths

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READING 29
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13, which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

A The climate of the Earth is always changing. In the past it has


altered as a result of natural causes. Nowadays, however, the term
‘climate change’ is generally used when referring to changes in our
climate which have been identified since the early part of the
twentieth century. The changes we’ve seen over recent years and
those which are predicted to occur over the next 100 years are
thought by many to be largely a result of human behavior rather than
due to natural changes in the atmosphere. And this is what is so
significant about current climactic trends; never before has man
played such a significant role in determining long-term weather
patterns – we are entering the unknown and there is no precedent for
what might happen next.

B The greenhouse effect is very important when we talk about climate


change as it relates to the gases which keep the Earth warm. Although
the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, it is
believed that the effect could be intensified by human activity and the
emission of gases into the atmosphere. It is the extra greenhouse
gases which humans have released which are thought to pose the
strongest threat. Certain researchers, such as Dr Michael Crawley,
argue: ‘even though this natural phenomenon does exist it is without
a doubt human activity that has worsened its effect; this is evident
when comparing data regarding the earth’s temperature in the last
one hundred years with the one hundred years prior to that.’ Some
scientists, however, dispute this as Dr Ray Ellis suggests: ‘human
activity may be contributing a small amount to climate change but
this increase in temperature is an unavoidable fact based on the
research data we have compiled.

214
C Scientists around the globe are looking at all the evidence
surrounding climate change and using advanced technology have
come up with predictions for our future environment and weather.
The next stage of that work, which is just as important, is looking at
the knock-on effects of potential changes. For example, are we likely
to see an increase in precipitation and sea levels? Does this mean
there will be an increase in flooding and what can we do to protect
ourselves from that? How will our health be affected by climate
change, how will agricultural practices change and how will wildlife
cope? What will the effects on coral be? Professor Max Leonard has
suggested, ‘while it may be controversial some would argue that
climate change could bring with it positive effects as well as negative
ones’.

D There are many institutions around the world whose sole priority
is to take action against these environmental problems. Green Peace
is the organisation that is probably the most well-known. It is an
international organisation that campaigns in favour of researching
and promoting solutions to climate change, exposes the companies
and governments that are blocking action, lobbies to change national
and international policy, and bears witness to the impacts of
unnecessary destruction and detrimental human activity.

E The problem of climate change is without a doubt something that


this generation and the generations to come need to deal with.
Fortunately, the use of renewable energy is becoming increasingly
popular, which means that less energy is consumed as renewable
energy is generated from natural resources—such as sunlight, wind,
rain, tides, and geothermal heat—which can be naturally replenished.
Another way to help the environment, in terms of climate change, is
by travelling light. Walking or riding a bike instead of driving a car
uses fewer fossil fuels which release carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere. In addition, using products that are made from recycled
paper, glass, metal and plastic reduces carbon emissions because they
use less energy to manufacture than products made from completely

215
new materials. Recycling paper also saves trees and lets them
continue to limit climate change naturally as they remain in the
forest, where they remove carbon from the atmosphere. Professor
Mark Halton, who has completed various studies in this field, has
stated: ‘with all this information and the possible action that we can
take, it isn’t too late to save our planet from over-heating and the even
worse side-effects of our own activity

Question 1 – 5

Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs, A – E. Which paragraph


contains the following information? Write the correct letter A – E in
the boxes below.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. A natural phenomenon that could also affect climate change.


2. Steps we can take to help reverse the situation.
3. An explanation of what climate change is.
4. Organisations that want to help.
5. Possible effects of climate change.
Question 6 -9

Look at the following people (Questions 6 -9) and the list of


statements below. Match each person with the correct statement, A –
F.

6. Professor Max Leonard


7. Dr Michael Crawley
8. Professor Mark Halton
9. Dr Ray Ellis

216
A. We have the ability to change the situation

B. Climate Change is Inevitable

C. Humans have made the situation much worse

D. Climate Change might not be all bad

E. Human activity and natural weather phenomena

F. While we may not be too late to save our planet, there are bound
to be some extreme side-effects of past human activity one way or
the other

Questions 10-13

Write the correct letter, A – F, in spaces 6-9.

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 1? In spaces 10-13 below, write

YES if the statements agrees with the information

NO If the statements contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

10. Man is not entirely responsible for global warming.


11. Scientists have come up with new evidence about the negative effects
of carbon-free sources of energy such as nuclear power

217
12. One of the purposes of Green Peace is to find out which
companies and governments are doing things which don’t help the
actions of environmentalists.
13. Most people aren’t willing to start using renewable energy.

218
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 26, which are


based on Reading Passage 2 below.

PRIVATE SCHOOLS

Most countries’ education systems have had what you might call
educational disasters, but, sadly, in many areas of certain countries
these ‘disasters’ are still evident today. The English education system
is unique due to the fact that there are still dozens of schools which
are known as private schools and they perpetuate privilege and social
division. Most countries have some private schools for the children of
the wealthy; England is able to more than triple the average number
globally. England has around 3,000 private schools and just under
half a million children are educated at them whilst some nine million
children are educated at state schools. The overwhelming majority of
students at private schools also come from middle-class families.

The result of this system is evident and it has much English history
embedded within it. The facts seem to speak for themselves. In the
private system almost half the students go on to University, whilst in
the state system only about eight per cent make it to further educa-
tion. However, statistics such as these can be deceptive due to the fact
that middle-class children do better at examinations than working
class ones, and most of them stay on at school after 16. Private schools
therefore have the advantage over state schools as they are entirely
‘middle class’, and this creates an environment of success where
students work harder and apply themselves more diligently to their
school work.

Private schools are extortionately expensive, being as much as


£18,000 a year at somewhere such as Harrow or Eton, where Princes
William and Harry attended, and at least £8,000 a year almost

219
everywhere else. There are many parents who are not wealthy or even
comfortably off but are willing to sacrifice a great deal in the cause of
their children’s schooling. It baffles many people as to why they need
to spend such vast amounts when there are perfectly acceptable state
schools that don’t cost a penny. One father gave his reasoning for
sending his son to a private school, ‘If my son gets a five-percent-
better chance of going to University then that may be the difference
between success and failure.” It would seem to the average person
that a £50,000 minimum total cost of second level education is a lot
to pay for a five-percent-better chance. Most children, given the
choice, would take the money and spend it on more enjoyable things
rather than shelling it out on a school that is too posh for its own good

However, some say that the real reason that parents fork out the cash
is prejudice: they don’t want their little kids mixing with the
“workers”, or picking up an undesirable accent. In addition to this, it
wouldn’t do if at the next dinner party all the guests were boasting
about sending their kids to the same place where the son of the third
cousin of Prince Charles is going, and you say your kid is going to the
state school down the road, even if you could pocket the money for
yourself instead, and, as a result, be able to serve the best Champagne
with the smoked salmon and duck.

It is a fact, however, that at many of the best private schools, your


money buys you something. One school, with 500 pupils, has 11
science laboratories; another school with 800 pupils, has 30 music
practice rooms; another has 16 squash courts, and yet another has its
own beach. Private schools spend £300 per pupil a year on invest-
ment in buildings and facilities; the state system spends less than
£50. On books, the ratio is 3 to 1.

One of the things that your money buys which is difficult to quantify
is the appearance of the school, the way it looks. Most private schools
that you will find are set in beautiful, well-kept country houses, with
extensive grounds and gardens. In comparison with the state schools,

220
they tend to look like castles, with the worst of the state schools
looking like public lavatories, perhaps even tiled or covered in graffiti.
Many may even have an architectural design that is just about on the
level of an industrial shed

Question 14 – 20

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

14. The English educational system differs from the other ones
because
A. it tries to make state and private equal.

B. more students are educated at private schools than state schools

C. it contributes to creating a class system within society.

D. it is more expensive to run

15. There are more private school children who go to university


because

A. the lessons and teachers at the private schools are much better.

B. their parents often send their children to private schools

C. they have more teaching hours

D. the school create a successful environment.

16. A lot of parents often send their children to private schools

221
A.because they are not well-informed.

B. to show how much money they have to their friends

C. to increase their chances of succeeding in the university exams.

D. because of the better sports facilities.

17. It is suggested that some parents of children at private schools are

A. prejudiced and superficial.

B.more intelligent that those with children at state schools.

C.well-brought-up and cultivated.

D. overly protective.

18. Private school

A. always have their own beaches.

B. teach sports that state schools do not.

C. spend more money per student than stateschools.

D. spend more money on hiring good teachers.

19. writer thinks that private-school buildings

222
A. are very attractive and luxurious.

B.generally do not look very nice.

C. are too big for the amount of students who attend the school.

D. are not built to suit student’s needs.

20. In general, what do you think the writer’s opinion of private


schools is?

A. It isn’t fair that those without money can’t attend them.

B. They divide social classes but they offer better facilities and a more
creative environment.

C. There is little difference between private and state schools.

D. They have the best teachers.

Questions 21 – 26

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

The fact that there are so many private schools in England, in


comparison to other countries, makes the English educational system
21__________Most students in these schools are from
22 __________ families. These students seem to do better at exams
although statistics can be 23__________One of the advantages of

223
private schools is that they seem to provide students with a better,
more positive environment that encourages them to
24__________themselves to their school work with more
enthusiasm. A lot of not very well-off parents make huge sacrifices for
their children’s 25__________ to help them go to respectable
universities. Unfortunately, many state school buildings sometimes
have the appearance of an industrial 26

READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 – 40, which are


based on Reading Passage 3 below.

Martin Luther King

Martin Luther King was born on January 15, 1929, in Atlanta,


Georgia. He was the son of the Reverend Martin Luther King, Sr. and
Alberta Williams King. He had an older sister, Willie Christine King,
and a younger brother Alfred Daniel Williams King. Growing up in
Atlanta, King attended Booker T. Washington High School. He
skipped ninth and twelfth grade, and entered Morehouse College at
age fifteen without formally graduating from high school. From the
time that Martin was born, he knew that black people and white
people had different rights in certain parts of America. If a black
family wanted to eat at a restaurant, they had to sit in a separate
section of the restaurant. They had to sit at the back of the cinema,

224
and even use separate toilets. Worse, and perhaps even more
humiliating still, in many southern states, if a black man was on a bus
and all the seats were taken, he would have to endure the indignity of
relinquishing his own seat to a white man. King could never
understand the terrible injustice of this.

In 1948, he graduated with a Bachelor of Arts degree in sociology.


Later, King began doctoral studies in systematic theology at Boston
University and received his Doctor of Philosophy on June 5, 1955.
King married Coretta Scott, on June 18, 1953 and they had four
children.

Returning to the South to become pastor of a Baptist Church in


Montgomery, Alabama, King first achieved national renown when he
helped mobilise the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system in
1955. This was organised after Rosa Parks, a black woman, refused to
give up her seat on the bus to a white man – in the segregated south,
black people could only sit at the back of the bus. The 382-day boycott
led the bus company to change its regulations, and the Supreme
Court declared such segregation unconstitutional.

In 1957 King was active in the organisation of the Southern


Leadership Christian Conference (SCLC), formed to co-ordinate
protests against discrimination. He advocated non-violent direct
action based on the methods of Gandhi, who led protests against
British rule in India culminating in India’s independence in 1947. In
1963, King led mass protests against discriminatory practices in
Birmingham, Alabama, where the white population were violently
resisting desegregation. The city was dubbed ‘Bombingham’ as

225
attacks against civil rights protesters increased, and King was
arrested and jailed for his part in the protests.

After his release, King participated in the enormous civil rights


march, in Washington, in August 1963, and delivered his famous ‘I
have a dream’ speech, predicting a day when the promise of freedom
and equality for all would become a reality in America. In 1964 he was
awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. In 1965, he led a campaign to register
blacks to vote. The same year the US Congress passed the Voting
Rights Act outlawing the discriminatory practices that had barred
blacks from voting in the south.

As the civil rights movement became increasingly radicalised, King


found that his message of peaceful protest was not shared by many in
the younger generation. King began to protest against the Vietnam
War and poverty levels in the US. On March 29, 1968, King went to
Memphis, Tennessee, in support of the black sanitary public works
employees who had been on strike since March 12 for higher wages
and better treatment. In one incident, black street repairmen had
received pay for two hours when they were sent home because of bad
weather, but white employees had been paid for the full day. King
could not bear to stand by and let such patent acts of racism go unno-
ticed. He moved to unite his people, and all the peoples of America
on the receiving end of discriminatory practices, to protest for their
rights, peacefully but steadfastly.

On his trip to Memphis, King was booked into room 306 at the
Lorraine Motel, owned by Walter Bailey. King was shot at 6:01 p.m.

226
April 4, 1968 while he was standing on the motel’s second-floor
balcony. King was rushed to St. Joseph’s Hospital, where doctors
opened his chest and performed manual heart massage. He was
pronounced dead at 7:05 p.m. King’s autopsy revealed that although
he was only 39 years old, he had the heart of a 60-year-old man.

Questions 27 – 31

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

27. From a young age Martin Luther King


A wanted to protest for the rights of black people.

B could not understand why black people were treated differently.

C was not allowed to go to the cinema or to restaurants.

D was aware that black people were being humiliated in many


northern states.

28. What initially made Martin Luther King famous?

A the black boycott of the Montgomery bus system

B becoming a pastor at a Baptist Church

C when Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat on a bus

D when he persuaded Rosa Parks not to give up her bus seat to a


white man

227
29. What influenced Martin Luther King regarding non-violence?
A India’s independence in 1947

B Christianity

C the Southern Leadership Christian Conference

D the methods of Gandhi

30. What did Martin Luther King fight for in 1965?

A the right of black people to vote

B the actions of the US Congress

C the right to win the Nobel Peace Prize

D the right of black people to travel abroad

31. How did Martin Luther King feel about the civil rights movement?

A It was helping the war in Vietnam.

B It brought the younger generation together.

C It had been exploited by politicians who wanted to get more


votes.

D The protesters sometimes behaved too violently.

228
Questions 32 – 34

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 3? In spaces 32 – 34 below, write

YES if the statements agrees with the


information

NO If the statements contradicts the


information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

32. The black boycott of the Montgomery bus system was a success.

33. In 1963 the white people in Alabama wanted desegregation.

34. Martin Luther King achieved a lot in his protest against the
Vietnam War.

Questions 35 – 40

Reading Passage 3 has 6 paragraphs.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph A – F, from the list of
headings. Write the correct number, i – viii, in spaces 35 – 40 below.

35. Paragraph A

36. Paragraph

229
37. Paragraph C

38. Paragraph D

39.Paragraph E

40. Paragraph F

1. the memorable speec


2. Unhappy about violence
3. A tragic incident
4. Protests and action
5. The background of an iconic man
6. Making his mark internationally
7. Difficult childhood
8. Black street repairmen

230
READING 30
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are
based on reading passage 1

IN OR OUT.

In the 803, with an increased consciousness of


equal opportunities, the focus of the further education college moved
to widening participation, encouraging into colleges students from
previously under-represented groups, particularly from ethnic
minorities. This, in turn, led to a curriculum which was more
representative of the new student body. For example, there were
initiatives to ensure the incorporation of literature by black writers
into A-level literature courses; history syllabuses were altered to
move beyond a purely Eurocentric view of the world; and geography
syllabuses began to look at the politics of maps.British further
education colleges did not traditionally have any concerns about
student drop-out, because the origins of the sector were in vocational
apprenticeship training for employers where the apprentice could not
drop out without endangering their job. In the 703, this sector began
to expand into more general education courses, which were seen both
as an alternative to school for 16-18 year-olds and a second chance
for adults. The philosophy was mainly liberal with students regarded
as adults who should not be heavily monitored, but rather free to
make their own decisions; it was not uncommon to hear academic
staff argue that attendance at classes was purely voluntary.

A turning point came in 1991 with the publication of a report on


completion rates by the government inspection body for education,
Her Majesty’s Inspectorate for England and Wales, (HMI 1991).
However, this report was based on academic staff’s explanations of
why students had left. It suggested that the vast majority left either
for personal reasons or because they had found employment and that

231
only 10% left for reasons that could in any way be attributed to the
college.

Meanwhile, Britain had been going through the Thatcherite


revolution and, in parallel to the Reagan politics of the US, a key
principle was the need to focus on radical taxation reduction. At this
point (and to a large extent still), further and higher education
colleges were almost entirely funded from the public purse. There had
been many cuts in this funding through the 805, but no one had really
looked at value for money. However in the early 9os, the Audit
Commission with Office of Standards in Education (OF STED) (the
new version of HMI) turned the spotlight onto further education and
published a seminal report, Unfinished Business (Audit Commission
and OFSTED 1993), which showed that drop-out was happening on
a significant scale and, crucially given the politics of the time,
attributed a cost to the state of £500 million, arguing that this was a
waste of public (i.e. taxpayers’) money. To quote Yorke (1999), non-
completion became political. The Audit Commission report coincided
with government moves to privatise the functions of the state as much
as possible; and with the decision to remove further education from
the control of local government and give it a quasi-dependent status,
where colleges were governed by independent boards of governors
bidding to the state for funding to run educational provision. As part
of this, a new series of principles for funding and bidding were
developed (FEFC 1994) which incorporated severe financial penalties
for student drop-out. In essence, the system is that almost all the state
funding is attached to the individual student. There is funding for
initial advice and guidance, on-course delivery and student
achievement, but if the student drops out, the college

loses that funding immediately, so that loss of students in the first


term leads to an immediate loss of college finding for the other two
terms. Not surprisingly, this focused the concern of colleges
immediately and sharply on the need to improve student retention
rates.

232
Recently, therefore, there has been considerable effort to improve
retention but, as Martinez (1995) pointed out, there was no body of
research on which to base strategies. An additional complexity was
that colleges had been slow to computerise their student data and
most colleges were in the position of not knowing what their retention
rates were or any patterns involved. Where data did exist it was held
separately by either administrative or academic staff with poor
communication between these groups. Colleges, however, jumped
into a number of strategies based largely on experience, instinct and
common sense and publication of these began (Martinez 1996;
Martinez 1997; Kenwright 1996; Kenwright 1997).

The main strategies tried are outlined in the literature as summarised


by Martinez (1996). These include sorting activities around entry to
ensure ‘best fit’, supporting activities including child care, financial
support and enrichment/learner support, connecting activities to
strengthen the relationship between the college and the student,
including mentoring and tutorials and activities to transform the
student, including raising of expectations and study/career
development support and tutoring.

Questions 1 – 3

Look at the follow-12mg dates (Questions 1-3) and key events in the
development of further education below.

Match each date with a key event.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1 1991

2 1993

233
3 1994

Key Event
A Severe penalties for drop-out are developed as part of college
funding mechanisms.

B Serious attempts are made to improve student support

C An influential report showing that non-completion rates are


significantly high is published.

D The lack of a strategical basis is officially recognised.

E The HMl is created.

F Data on student completion rates for further education are


published.

G A minor report showing that non-completion rates are


significantly high is published.

Questions 4 – 8

Complete the sentence: below with words taken from Reading


Passage 1.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 4-8 on your answer sheet.

234
4 Further education colleges in Britain were originally not
worried about student drop-out, because students did not leave
college for fear of………………….

5 According to the writer, the philosophy at further education


colleges was………………

6 As people became more aware of equal opportunities, colleges


encouraged students from under-represented groups, as a move
to……………….

7 The HMI‘s report focused on completion rates, based


on……………of reasons for students’ departure from college.

8 In the early 19905, the political situation, both in Britain and


the US, demanded a major……………….

Questions 9 – 14

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9 The report Unfinished Business

A pointed out the politics of the time.

B gave £500 million to the state,

C linked drop-out to wasting money.

235
D turned the spotlight.

10 The new series of principles developed in 1994 by the FEFC

A gave money to each student,

B was quasi-independent

C meant colleges had to turn their immediate attention to


improving student retention rates.

D was aimed at improving teacher retention rates

11 Attempts to reduce the student drop-out rate were hindered,


because

A there was a lack of research data upon which to base strategies.

B colleges did not know what to do.

C computers in colleges were slow.

D colleges had no patterns.

12 Further hindrances in reducing the student drop-out rate were

A colleges’ slowness in computerising data and not knowing their


retention rates, nor what patterns of retention existed.

B college inertia and administrative incompetence.

236
C computer glitches and strikes, which occurred at most colleges.

D colleges not knowing their retention rates or where the patterns


were.

13 Colleges’ strategies to deal with the problem of low retention

A brought administrative and academic staff together.

B varied enormously.

C jumped.

D were based on something other than data.

14 The main strategies to improve retention included

A ‘best fit’ supporting activities.

B activities to support and transform the student.

C the raising of college expectations.

D a summary by Martinez.

READING PASSAGE 2

237
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-28 which are
based on Reading Passage 2.

Tyes and Greens

There are a number of settlements in this part of East Anglia with


names containing the word ‘tye’. The word is Anglo-Saxon in origin,
and the Oxford English Dictionary quotes the earliest usage of the
term as dating from 832. Essentially a ‘tye’ was a green, or a small
area of open common land, usually sited away from the main village
or settlement, perhaps at the junction of two or more routes. Local H
W people and passing travellers had the right to pasture their horses,
pigs and other farm animals on the tye.

In the Pebmarsh area there seem to have been five or six of these tyes,
all, except one, at the margins of the parish. These marginal clearings
are all away from the richer farming land close to the river, and, in
the case of Cooks Green, Hayles Tye, and Dorking Tye, close to the
edge of still existing fragments of ancient woodland. It seems likely
then that, here, as elsewhere in East Anglia, medieval freemen were
allowed to clear a small part of the forest and create a smallholding.
Such unproductive forest land would, in any case, have been
unattractive to the wealthy baronial or monastic landowners. Most of
the land around Pebmarsh village belonged to Earls Colne Priory, a
wealthy monastery about 10 kilometres to the south, and it may be
that by the 13th and 14th centuries the tyes were maintained by
tenant farmers paying rent to the Priory.

Hayles Tye seems to have got its name from a certain John Hayle who
is documented in the 13803, although there are records pointing to
occupation of the site at a much earlier date. The name was still in use
in 1500, and crops up again throughout the 16th and 17th centuries,
usually in relation to the payment of taxes or tithes. At some point
during the 18th century the name is changed to File’s Green, though

238
no trace of an owner called File has been found. Also in the 18th
century the original dwellings on the site disappeared. Much of this
region was economically depressed during this period and the land
and its dwellings may simply have been abandoned. Several farms
were abandoned in the neighbouring village of Alphamstone, and the
population dwindled so much that there was no money to support the
fabric of the village church, which became very dilapidated. However,
another possibility is that the buildings at File’s Green burnt down,
fires being not infrequent at this time.

By 1817 the land was owned by Charles Townsend of Ferriers Farm,


and in 1821 he built two brick cottages on the site, each cottage
occupied by two families of agricultural labourers. The structure of
these cottages was very simple, just a two-storey rectangle divided in
the centre by a large common chimney piece. Each dwelling had its
own fireplace, but the two families seem to have shared a brick bread-
oven which jutted out from the rear of the cottage. The outer wall of
the bread-oven is still visible on the remaining cottage. The fireplaces
themselves and the chimney structure appear to be older than the
1821 cottages and may have survived from the earlier dwellings. All
traces of the common land had long disappeared, and the two
cottages stood on a small plot of less than an acre where the labourers
would have been able to grow a few vegetables and keep a few
chickens or a pig. The bulk of their time was spent working at Ferriers
farm.

Both cottages are clearly marked on maps of 1874, but by the end of
the century one of them had gone. Again, the last years of the 19th
century were a period of agricultural depression, and a number of
smaller farms in the area were abandoned. Traces of one, Mosse’s
Farm, still partly encircled by a very overgrown moat, may be seen
less than a kilometre from File’s Green. It seems likely that, as the
need for agricultural labour declined, one of the cottages fell into
disuse, decayed and was eventually pulled down. Occasional

239
fragments of rubble and brick still surface in the garden of the
remaining cottage.

In 1933, this cottage was sold to the manager of the newly-opened


gravel works to the north-west of Pebmarsh village. He converted
these two dwellings into one. This, then, is the only remaining
habitation on the site, and is called File’s Green Cottage.

Questions 15 – 18

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 15-18 on your answer sheet.

15 A tye was

A a green.

B a large open area.

C common land with trees.

D found at the junction of two or more routes.

16 The Pebmarsh area

A probably had seven tyes.

B probably had six tyes.

240
C appears to have had five or six tyes.

D was not in East Anglia.

17 The tyes in the Pebmarsh area were

A near the river.

B used by medieval freemen.

C mostly at the margins of the parish.

D owned by Earls Colne Priory.

18 According to the writer, wealthy landowners

A did not find the sight of forest land attractive.

B found the sight of forest land attractive.

C were attracted by the sight of forest land.

D considered forest land unproductive.

Questions 19 – 28

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for


each answer.

241
Write your answers in boxes 19-28 on your answer sheet.

John Hayle who is documented apparently gave his


13805
name to Hayles Tye
The name ofHayles Tye was still 19 ……. and 20 ………
15005 again in the following two centuries in relation to
taxes.
Hayles Tye was renamed 21………. ; the original
18th
dwellings may either have disappeared, or were 22
Century
……………
Charles Townsend of Ferriers Farm 23………….. Files
1817
Green.
At File’s Green, Charles Townsend built 24 ……….
cottages, which housed families employed as 25…………
1821 The chimney structure and the 26 ………. appear to
pre-date the cottages.

The cottage now called File’s Green Cottage was


1933 bought by the local 27………… manager who convened
the cottage into 28 …………

242
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 1.

Questions 29 – 35

Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph.

Write the appropriate numbers i-ini in boxes 29-35 on your answer


sheet

List of Headings
i Social solutions
ii The law backs noise

iii Some practical solutions

iv The beautiful countryside

v Noise from mobiles

vi Neighbour noise

vii Noisy travellers

243
viii Noise to entertain you

ix Noisy restaurants

x The law and noise

xi Rural peace shattered

xii A quiet evening at the


restaurant
xiii
Noise on the increase

Example Answer
Paragraph A xiii

29 Paragraph B

30 Paragraph C

31 Paragraph D

32 Paragraph E

33 Paragraph F

34 Paragraph G

35 Paragraph H

244
A According to the Royal National Institute for Deaf People, there has
been a threefold increase in hearing loss and, in the future, deafness
will become an epidemic. It is hardly surprising that new research
shows complaints about noise, in particular loud music and barking
dogs, are on the increase. So dire has the 4; situation become that the
National Society for Clean Air and the Environment was even moved
to designate 7 June 2000 as Noise Action Day.

B There are so many different sources of noise competing for people’s


attention. Travelling on a train as it saunters gently through the
countryside was once a civilised and enjoyable experience. That
delight has but disappeared. Because we have to reach our
destination more quickly, the train hurtles at break-neck speed along
tracks not designed to carry carriages at such high velocity. The train
is noisier, and so are the occupants. They have to compete with the
din of the train and the conversations of their fellow travellers. And
then there are the ubiquitous headphones (one set if you are lucky);
not to mention that bane of all travellers, the mobile phone -not one’s
own, of course, because one has switched it off. The noise sensitive, a
growing minority group, are hit by a double whammy here: the phone
going off and the person answering in a loud voice, because they
cannot believe the other person can hear. And let us not forget
computer games making horrid noises given by parents to keep their
children quiet! It is, however, gratifying to see that some train
companies request people to keep the volume of their headphones
down. It still strikes one as strange that people have to be reminded
to do this. Like no-smoking carriages they should have more no-noise
carriages: mobile-free, headphone-free, computer-free zones!

C And the answer? Should people simply stay at home? No, not really.
The neighbours do DIY: if you are lucky between 9 am and 7pm, and
if you are not, 24 hours a day. They play loud music, sing, play the
piano, rip up their carpets; they jump up and down on bare
floorboards to annoy you further. They have loud parties to irritate
you and cats, dogs and children that jump onto bare wooden floors

245
and make your heart stop. And, because they want to hear the music
in other parts of their flat they pump up the volume, so that you can
feel the noise as well as hear it. And if you are very fortunate, they
attach the stereo to the walls above your settee, so that you can vibrate
as well. Even if you live in a semi-detached or detached property, they
will still get you.

D People escape to the countryside and return to the urban


environment. They cannot tolerate the noise – the tractors, the cars
and the motorbikes ripping the air apart as they career along country
roads. Then there are the country dirt-track rallies that destroy the
tranquillity of country weekends and holidays. And we must not
forget the birds! Indeed, the dawn chorus is something to contend
with. So, when you go to the countryside, make sure you take your
industrial ear-muffs with you!

E A quiet evening at the cinema, perhaps, or a restaurant? The former


will have the latest all-round stereophonic eardrum-bursting sound
system, with which they will try to deafen you. Film soundtracks
register an average of 82 decibels with the climax of some films
hitting as high as 120! And in the restaurant, you will be waited on by
waiters who have been taking their employers to court, because the
noise in their working environment is way above the legal limits.
Normal conversation registers at 60 decibels but noise levels of up to
90 are frequent in today’s restaurants. The danger level is considered
to be any noise above 85 decibels! What is it doing to your eardrums
then? Shopping is also out, because stereophonic sound systems have
landed there, too.

F Recently the law in the United Kingdom has been changed Vis-a-
vis noise, with stiffer penalties: fines, confiscation of stereo
equipment and eviction for serious offences. Noise curfews could also
be imposed in residential areas by enforcing restrictions on noise
levels after certain times in the evenings, tighter legislation is a step
in the right direction but there is no one solution to the problem, least

246
of all recourse to the law. In some well-publicised cases, the legal and
bureaucratic process has been unbearable enough to drive people to
suicide.

G The situation needs to be addressed from a variety of different


angles simultaneously. There are practical solutions like using
building materials in flats and houses that absorb sound: sound-
proofing material is already being used in recording studios and,
whilst it is far from cheap to install, with research and mass sales,
prices will come down. Designers have begun to realise that there is
a place for soft furnishings in restaurants, like carpets, soft wall-
coverings and cushions. As well as creating a relaxing ambiance, they
absorb the noise.

H Informal solutions like mediation are also frequently more


effective than legislation. And the answer may partly be found in the
wider social context. The issue is surely one of public awareness and
of politeness, of respect for neighbours, of good manners, and also of
citizenship; in effect, how individuals operate within a society and
relate to each other. Perhaps we need to be taught once again tolerate
silence.

Questions 36 – 39

Look at the following areas where noise is a problem (Questions 36-


39) and the list of solutions for noise problems below.

Match each area with the correct solution.

Write the correct letter A-K in boxes 3 6-39 on your answer sheet.

36 Trains

247
37 Restaurants

38 Homes

39 Living in a rural setting

List of Solutions
People should be sent to prison.
A More sophisticated sound systems are needed.
B
Sofi fiirnishings are needed.
C
People should stay at home.
D
Sound-proofing materials should be used.
E
Music should be turned down.
F
The noise laws should be relaxed.
G
Shops should have restricted opening hours.
H
Trains should be sound-proofed.
I
More noise-free carriages should be
J introduced on trains.

K Visitors should take industrial ear-muffs with


them.

248
Question 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, D or E.

Write your answers in box 40 on your answer sheet.

40 Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading


Passage 3?

A The legal impact of increased noise

B Societal noise: problems and solutions

C A call for increased noise tolerance within neighbourhoods

D Deafness: a by-product of modern society

E Neighbourhood sounds on the increase

249
Reading 31
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are
based on Reading Passage 1

HOW TO HANDLE THE SUN

The medical world appears to be divided on the effects of the sun


upon the human body. From statements like, “There is no known
relationship between a tan and health” to “perhaps sun-tanned skin
absorbs the ultraviolet rays and converts them into helpful energy”,
there are some things which are still the topic of research. Doctors
agree on one of the benefits of the sun – vitamin D. It is well known
that vitamin D is acquired from the direct rays of the sun – an
entirely separate miracle from sun tanning. The sun’s ultraviolet
rays penetrate only a tiny amount into the human skin, but in the
process they irradiate an element in the skin called ergosterol,
winch is the substance that stores up reserves of vitamin D received
from the sun. This is both healthful and beneficial for human skin.

All around the Western World, people have developed an obsession


with the sun. In many western countries, a sun tan has become the
trade-mark of a healthy, active, outdoor person. The basic reddish
hue just beneath the surface of our skin is the outward reflection of
the millions of red corpuscles flowing through tiny blood vessels.
This is most noticeable in the pure skin of a baby which can change
in a moment from porcelain white (with anger or a switch in
temperature) to crimson. In Caucasians, this colouring is somewhat
hidden by an acquired layer of sun-made pigment, which varies in
tone according to the complexion and occupation of the individual.

250
Locale plays a big part in the effectiveness of the sun tan. Mountain
tops and beaches are nonpareil sun spas because they receive far
purer sunlight than the rest of the land. Urban areas with their
smoke and smog act as a filter removing all the healthful properties
of the sun. Perhaps the seashore is best of all, with its air estimated
to have at least a fifth of a percent more oxygen than inland ether –
free of city and inland dust, tars, pollen and allergens.

The sun has long been called nature’s greatest health giver and
healer and has played a chief role at health resorts ever since August
Rollicr, the Swiss father of heliotherapy, opened his first high-Alps
sanatorium in 1903. Dr. W. W. Coblentz suggests that the sun cure
is a major factor in the treatment of at least 23 skin diseases,
ranging from acne and eczema to ulcers and wounds. Another
specialist, Dr. Richard Kovacs writes, “Sun treatment is often
helpful to persons suffering from general debility – repeated colds,
respiratory diseases, influenza and the like”. After a long winter, the
return to the sun writes Dr. Leonard Dodds, the British sunlight
scholar, “is a general stimulus to the body, more potent if applied
after a period when it has been lacking which gradually loses its
effect if exposure is over prolonged, even when not excessive”.

Over many years of study dermatologists have proven that excessive


exposure to sunlight over a period of years is responsible for a large
proportion of skin cancer amongst the population. Those with the
greatest chance of doing permanent damage to their skin are the
year-round outdoor workers – 90% of which occurs on the heavily
exposed hands and face. The first line of defence against permanent
sun damage is the skins’ own natural fatty matter and sweat, which
combine to form an oily acid surface shield against the ultra violet
rays. At the beach, the salt water washes away this natural oily coat,
the hot sun overworks the sweat glands so that the excess becomes
ineffective and the dry wind and hot sun combine to dehydrate the
skin itself. Over the years, women have shown far greater wisdom in
the care of their skin than men. Since the ladies of ancient Egypt

251
first began to apply the fat of the so-called sacred temple cats to
their faces, women have been tireless in waging this battle against
damage to the skin from the sun. Both sexes now contribute
annually to a multi-million dollar global sun screen business.

Other pans of the human body which tend to suffer from exposure
to the sun are the eyes and hair. Many years ago, optometrists
undertook studies in America to examine the influence of the sun
upon the eyes by studying Atlantic City lifeguards and found that
even a few hours in the bright sun without sunglasses could cause a
significant loss of vision – a loss that might take several weeks from
which to recover. So gradual was the change that the lifeguards were
unaware that their sight had been affected. The solution to this
problem was to introduce sunglasses as a standard part of the
lifeguard uniform. These were dark enough to absorb the sun’s
harmful UV rays and most of its infrared and ultraviolet rays.

Of a lesser impact is the effect of the sun upon hair. The penalty of the
sun’s parching is a brittle dryness. Hair care professionals
recommend a nutritional cream treatment with a substance
containing lanolin to bring your hair back its natural softness, these
usually come in the form of leave-in conditioners, and should be
applied frequently, just as you would a sunscreen for the skin. Or,
easier still, wear a hat. Wearing a hat has a dual effect: it protects the
hair and helps to prevent the most dangerous of outdoor afflictions:
sunstroke.

Question 1-4

Look at the following people (Questions 1-4) and the list of


statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

252
Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1 Richard Kovacs

2 August Rollier

3 W. Coblentz

4 Leonard Dodds

A believes that the benefits of the sun are not scientifically provable

B claims to have discovered the vitamin released in the skin by the


sun

C suggests that the sun is an excellent healer

D invented the first sun screen

E suggests that the sun assists with common illnesses

F thinks that initially the sun is of benefit to the body

G is unsure about the benefits of the sun

H thinks location is very important in maximizing benefit from the


sun

253
Question 5-9

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 1 ?

In boxes 5-9 on your answer sheet write

if the statement agrees with the


TRUE
information
if the statement contradicts the
FALSE
information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
5 Most doctors are in agreement when it comes to the health
benefits of the sun.

6 Beaches are best for a sun tan because the air has far less
pollution.

7 Women applied fat to their skin for protection from the sun.

8 Extended exposure of the eyes to the sun can lead to blindness.

9 The human eye cannot heal itself when it is damaged by the sun.

Question 10-14

Complete the summary using the words from the box. Write your
answers in boxes 10-14 on your answer sheet.

254
HANDLING THE SUN

Many doctors agree that skin cancer can be caused by excessive


exposure to the sun. As tar as the human body is concerned, it is
primarily the face and hands that are 10_____________. When
human skin is exposed to the sun, the body has a defence: a
11________________ of the skin’s natural oils and acids. For
some time, women have been more effective than men in
12________________ for their skin. Eyes are a significant part of
the body which are negatively affected by the sun. The damage often
goes undetected because it happens quite 13_____________ . On
the other hand, hair becomes quite dry and brittle when exposed to
the sun for an extended period. A lanolin-based conditioner is
recommended by hair care professionals to 14_____________
this problem. Perhaps a simple hat may be the best solution for hair.

overcome maintaining located slowly triumph


mixed Quickly extended caring minding
prolonged Blend arrangement surprisingly affected
succeed Combined

255
Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-26 which are


based on Reading Passage 2

New Directions – Map Making

A “A map may lie, but it never jokes” wrote poet Howard McCordin.
When it comes to getting to our destinations on time, there are
few things more important than an uncluttered and accurate map. By
definition, maps show the features of the earth graphically, to scale,
on a two-dimensional surface. They may be thematic – showing
vegetation, wildlife, geology; navigational – showing hydrographic,
aeronautical or automotive routes; topographic – showing the
natural and man-made features of the land or any other of a number
of variations. Their creation is a work of art and science involving a
merger between creativity and precision.

B One of the biggest influences upon map creation


or cartography was World War n. In the war zone, maps of targets
and terrain played a huge part and so topographers’ and members of
the air force alike were engaged in the production of them. The need
to accurately measure distances using air photos gave birth to the
process of photogrammetry. Great cartographic and mathematical
skill was required in a process that was initially limited by a lack of
photographic coverage. Planes flying at a constant altitude flew in
grid patterns with cameras mounted on them, facing straight down.
When the weather was good, this process provided photos in the
perpendicular axis – the preferred optical axis for mapping. In order
to include both sides of the horizon, some cameras were specially
designed to take three pictures at once – one vertical and two side-
looking obliques. It was a difficult task to keep the plane running
smoothly but the latest refinements of map-making techniques were
put to immediate use.

256
C Using a novel combination of optics and the overlapping of air
photos to create three-dimensional pictures of terrain, the
stereoscope was the next refinement in map making which was of
limited value. Shortly thereafter, the photogrammetric stereoplotter
improved upon the technology used by the stereoscope allowing
cartographers to precisely measure the elevation of features in air
photos and then transfer them to paper. After World War II had
ended, this new technology led to an increased interest in
cartography. Mappers began to use newly invented devices such as
tellurometers, air profile recorders, magnetometers and scintillation
counters. From these precision instruments came maps packed with
information.

D In 1957, the Soviet satellite Sputnik 1 joined the moon in orbit


around the earth. Although it only operated for 21 days, it began the
‘space race’ and shortly after a number of American and other
Russian rockets were put into orbit progressing cartography into an
even more sophisticated realm. Only a few years later in 1959 the first
space photograph of earth was received. Pageos 1, launched by the
United States in 1966, was the first satellite with an instrument
package on board specifically designed for surveying the earth. Two
years later, the American Satnav system was launched utilising six
carefully positioned Transit satellites which fed back information for
mapping based upon the Doppler effect. The Landsat 1 satellite
launched in 1972 was the first satellite to collect data specifically on
the earth’s surface and natural resources. More than 20 other equally
spaced satellites now orbit the earth every 12 hours at an altitude of
20,000 kilometres. Navstar, the US military’s global-positioning
system can determine geodesic positioning accurate within
millimetres anywhere on earth. What took months to plot and record
in the past can now be easily done in an hour.

E In addition to all the advances in aerial satellite technology, some


very advanced computer hardware has been designed to aide
cartographers in map production. Storing trillions of bits of

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information and working with a Geographic Information System
(GIS), the system uses geographic position as a common thread.
Although it became popular in the 1990s, GISs were developed in the
early 1960s. Programmed with topographic information – lakes,
roads, rivers and place names – taken from existing sheets and
updated from new’ surveys, a GIS was the next gigantic leap forward
for cartographers. Maps, air photos, municipal plans and a host of
other things can be scanned and entered and later on, updated and
revised in an infinite number of ways on a computer terminal to
create a virtually custom-made map every time. The distinction
between map producer and map user becomes blurred with a GIS. A
map of an urban neighbourhood may be brought up on the screen
and by zooming in or out, streets, buildings, fields, lakes, street
lamps, bus stops, even sewers can be displayed. But it goes even
further: an associated database enables the operator to ascertain the
number of people who live in the household, even property values can
be listed. There is basically an unlimited amount of information
which can be superimposed on a map using this system.

F A brief history of cartography shows that map types have changed


to reflect the needs of the time. Thus, early maps depicted concrete,
tangible features such as coastlines, rivers, mountains, roads and
towns. Later, the focus moved to the spatial distribution of
environmental phenomena – vegetation, soils, geology, and climate.
Societal issues such as population and disease have also been closely
examined. Most recently, attention has shifted to short-lived
phenomena such as tornados, air pollution and floods, and to
visualization of the results of conceptual modelling of environmental
phenomena such as groundwater contamination. The trend has been
one of shifting from simply mapping obvious features to discovering
relationships and implications between different levels and layers of
geographic information. It is clear today that cartography is closely
associated with the broader field of scientific visualization. This
technique takes the map-reader beyond the printed page and shows
them terrain as if they were flying in a helicopter.

258
Topographer: The physical appearance of the natural features of an
area of land

Doppler effect:The apparent change in radio waves as the source


moves toward or away from the observer

Geodesic: Related to the geometry of curved surfaces

Question 15-19

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs A-F.

Choose the correct heading for sections B-F from the list of headings
below. Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 15-19 on your
answer sheet.

List of Headings

i transferring air photos to paper maps

ii computers make map production easy

iii maps for seeing into the future

iv the role of weather in map-making photography

v interest grows in map-making

vi map-making responsible for space programs

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vii new process enables calculation of distance

viii the future of cartography rests with helicopters

ix the impact of satellites on map-making

x defining map making

Example

Section A x

15 Section B
16 Section C
17 Section D
18 Section E
19 Section F
Question 20-23

Classify the following as first occurring

A between 1955 and 1960


B between 1960 and 1965
C between 1965 and 1970
D after 1970
Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 20-23 on your answer
sheet.

20 The first images of the earth are taken in space.

21 Parts of the earth are mapped through use of radio waves.

260
22 A satellite is launched in search of forests, lakes and rivers.

23 Work began on what would be the most advanced map-making


system in the future.

Question 24-26

The list below gives possible factors that contributed to


improvements cartography.

Which THREE of these factors are mentioned in the text?

Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 24-26 on your answer


sheet.

A magnetometers

B Sputnik I

C World War II

D stereoplotters

E aeroplanes and helicopters

F stereoscopes

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READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3.

How Children Learn

The way in which children learn is an ever-growing area of study. It


is obvious that children differ from adults in many ways, but what is
interesting is that there arc quite a number of commonalities across
learners of all ages. A study of young children fulfils two purposes: it
helps to highlight the strengths and weaknesses of the learners who
populate a nation’s schools, and it offers a window into the
development of learning that cannot be seen if one considers only
well-established learning patterns and expertise. When an observer
studies the development of children over time, a dynamic picture of
learning unfolds. An understanding of infant thinking mental
processes or cognition and how young children from 2 to 5 years old
add information to their knowledge ‘data base’ helps child
psychologists to better equip students for their transition into formal
school settings.

For much of the 20th century, most psychologists accepted the


traditional thesis that a newborn’s mind is a tabula rasa or blank
slate upon which the record of experience is gradually impressed. It
was further thought that verbal communication was a prerequisite for
abstract thought and so, in its absence, a baby could not have
comprehension. Since babies are born with a limited range of
behaviours and spend most of their early months asleep, they
certainly appear passive and unknowing. Therefore, it was commonly
thought that infants lack the ability to form complex ideas. Until

262
recently, there was no obvious way for them to demonstrate anything
to the contrary to researchers.

In time however, challenges to this view arose. It became clear that


with carefully designed scientific procedures, psychologists could
find ways to pose rather complex questions about how much infants
and young children know and what they are capable of doing.
Psychologists began to employ new methodologies and began to
gather a substantial amount of data about the remarkable abilities
that young children possess. Their research stood in great contrast to
the older emphases which focussed almost entirely on what children
lacked. The mind of young children came to life through this research,
it became clear that very young children are both competent and
active when it comes to their conceptual development.

A major move away from the earlier tabula rasa view of the infant
mind w-as taken by the Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget. Beginning in
the 1920s, Piaget argued that the young human mind could best be
described in terms of complex cognitive or ‘thinking’ structures.
From close observations of infants and careful questioning of
children, he concluded that the development of the mind proceeds
through certain stages, each involving radically different thinking
processes. Piaget observed that infants actually seek stimulation from
their surroundings thus promoting their intellectual development.
He showed that their initial representations of such things as space
and time as well as awareness of objects and self are constructed only
gradually during the first 2 years. He concluded that understanding
in young infants is built up through the gradual coordination of sight,
sound and touch.

After Piaget, perceptual learning theorists studied how newborns


begin to integrate sight and sound and explore their surroundings.
They saw that learning in infants proceeded rapidly when they were
given the opportunity to explore the objects and events they
encountered. Theories were developed which attempted to describe

263
how the brain processes information. It was around this time that the
metaphor of the mind as computer came into wide usage.

In order to study what babies know and can learn about readily,
researchers needed to develop techniques of ‘asking’ infants what
they know. Because infants are so limited physically and verbally,
experimenters interested in finding out how babies think had to find
methods suitable to an infant’s motor capabilities. New ways were
developed for measuring what infants prefer to look at and detecting
changes in events to which they are sensitive. Three such methods
that were used were sucking, habituation, and visual expectation.

Although theories put forward during this time differed in many


ways, they shared an emphasis on considering children as active
learners, those who actually assemble and organise information.
Therefore, primarily cognitive development involves the acquisition
of organised knowledge such as, an early understanding of basic
physics, some biological concepts and early number sense. In
addition, cognitive development involves gradually learning
strategies for solving problems, understanding and remembering.

The active role of learners was also emphasized by Vygotsky, who


focused on the role of social support in learning. According to
Vygotsky, all cognitive skills and patterns of thinking are not
primarily determined by the skills people are born with; they are the
products of the activities practiced in the social environment in which
the individual grows up. From Vygotsky’s research into the role of the
social environment in the development of thinking came what he
called a zone of proximal development. This zone which refers to
tasks learners can do with the assistance of others, had a big impact
upon developmental psychology. This line of work has drawn
attention to the roles of parents, and teachers in challenging and
extending children’s efforts to understand. It has also contributed to
an understanding of the relationship between formal and informal
teaching as well as learning situations and cognition.

264
Question 27-30

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS


for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 What did early research into child capabilities focus on?

28 Who thought infants needed to communicate verbally in order


to show advanced omprehension?

29 In what period of their growth do infants develop an awareness


of time?

30 What TWO things is the infant mind compared to?

Question 31-35

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 31 -35 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

265
31 In many ways, children learn the same way adults learn.

32 20th century psychologists thought infants were unintelligent


because they were usually asleep.

33 The focus of early research methods in child development have


been similar to those conducted more recently.

34 Piaget showed that each new stage of learning builds upon the
previous one.

35 Vygotsky’s research has had a positive impact upon many


primary school teachers.

Question 36-40

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 3. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40.

36 When it comes to learning new concepts, recent research has


shown that children are both competent
and__________________ .

37 Not only are young children capable of assembling information


they are also able to __________________ .

38 One of the ways scientists measured infant preference was


through __________________

266
39 An indicator of cognitive development is that knowledge must
be__________________

40 Vygotsky believed that the key to learning lay in the


individual’s__________________

267
Reading 32
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are
based on Reading Passage 1

Running Dry

The problems of water shortages have always been with us.


Worldwide consumption of water is doubling every 20 years, a
solution is desperately needed.

A Government water commission maps in Mexico show 96


overexploited aquifers1. Seawater has polluted 17 others because of
too much pumping, while toxic seepage is spreading fast. According
to the World Health Organisation (WHO), Mexican children are
contracting digestive diseases due to poor water storage. Mexico City,
built eight centuries ago atop vast lagoons, cannot adequately supply
water for its 22 million inhabitants, bike many cities in the world, less
than half of the city’s waste is treated. The rest sinks into
underground lakes or flows toward the Gulf of Mexico, turning rivers
into sewers. This presents an extremely difficult prospect for Mexico’s
future. The Mexican National Water Commission lists some 35 cities
that must shrink dramatically unless more water can be found. A
forced exodus from parched cities seems far-fetched, and no one
suggests it will happen next week but it is a spectre haunting Mexico’s
future.

B Much of the water that Mexico depends upon is the same water that
is badly needed in California, Arizona, New Mexico and Texas. One
forecast is that Corpus Christi, Texas (population: 277,454), will run
out of water around 2018. In the meantime the problem is getting
worse. Deputy director of the Mexican National Water Commission
Cantu Suarez reports, “In Oaxaca, south of Mexico City, women line

268
up at dawn to fill a few plastic containers from a passing water truck.
In Alamos, far to the north, ancient aquifers are pumped at five times
the sustainable rate.”

C Mexico is only one example of desperation in a world running short


of water. Parts of the earth are dying, with fields poisoned by salt and
village wells running dry. And there are legal battles looming. The
Colorado River, drained by 10 U.S. states with their own water crises,
is a muddy trickle by the time it reaches the rich farmland of Baja
California. Under complex water agreements with the United States,
Mexico can take water from the Rio Grande but must pay it back.
President Vicante Fox has promised to pay the debt, which amounts
to enough to put the state of Delaware under a flood of water. But
with Mexico already so short of water, it is not realistic to think it can
happen.

D Canada with its thousands of lakes and rivers would be viewed by


most people as having an inexhaustible water supply. In comparison
to Africa and other dry- places, most of Canada’s waters are pristine.
But the cumulative effect of mistreatment over the years has taken an
evident toll. The cities of Victoria on the west coast and Halifax on the
east still dump billions of litres of raw sewage into their oceans. The
world’s biggest freshwater basin, the Great Lakes, are described as a
chemical soup not fit to drink from or swim in. Some concerned
experts view them as loaded with toxic chemicals, heavy metals,
pesticides and sewage. Far too many rivers and streams in Canada
have been badly contaminated by industrial activity.

E Humans can live about a month without food but only a few days
without water. Because 70 percent of the human body is water, weight
loss in some quick diets is dramatic due to water loss. Of all the water
in the world, only about 2.5 percent is fresh and two thirds of this is
locked up in glaciers and ice caps. Nobody knows how much water is
underground or in permafrost2. All life on earth is sustained by a
fraction of one percent of the world’s water. If a five- litre jug (about

269
1.3 gallon) represented the world’s water, the available fresh water
would not quite fill a teaspoon.

F Overall, in most parts of the planet there is enough water to supply


human needs. The huge problem however, is the rapidly increasing
populations in places that lack adequate water resources, as well as
mismanagement of available resources. Canada, with only 0.5
percent of the world’s population, has 5.6 percent of its usable fresh
water supply. China, with 22 percent of the population on earth, has
only 5.7 percent of usable fresh water. We cannot just move fresh
water to where it is most needed – like in the Sahara, Ethiopia,
Somalia or India.

G In January 2000, the Newfoundland government identified a


dozen of its communities with high levels of potentially dangerous
THMs (trihalomethanes) in water supplies. In an attempt to solve
this issue the main solution put forward by scientists is sterilisation
of the water. However, this approach can also be the cause of
problems. Drinking such water over a long period can cause bladder
and colon cancers, but health experts maintain the benefits far
outweigh these risks. As a result, the bottled water business is
booming. In just one decade, sales have surged from $2.6 billion to
$7.7 billion in the United States of America alone. This represents a
10 percent growth rate for the past 10 years. But is it safe? Canadian
standards for testing bottled water are lower than those for municipal
supplies, so there are no assurances that bottled water is any better
than tap water.

H At the start of the 20th century, there were 1.65 billion people; 100
years later there are more than 6 billion, and the United Nations
estimates there will be nearly 9 billion by 2050. But the annual supply
of renewable fresh water will remain the same, so the amount of water
available to each person decreases and the population grows, raising
the possibility of water shortages. The supply of water to the future is
a major issue that will confront tomorrow’s leaders.

270
(1) aquifers: underground bed yielding ground water for wells and
springs

(2) 2 ground that is permanently frozens

Question 1-4

Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1 where most fresh water is located in the world

2 a way Mexican women obtain water

3 the effect of waste upon Mexican rivers

4 Mexico’s financial commitment for its water

Question 5-8

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 1 ?

In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer

271
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the
writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks


about this

5 Unhealthy water is causing illness amongst Mexican children.

6 Mexicans are moving to other cities because of water shortages.

7 Mexican food crops will fail without water from America.

8 Drinking water in Canada has been polluted by industry.

Question 9-13

Complete the summary of paragraphs F-H below.

Chose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each

answer.

Write your answer in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

The main issue that confronts cities with poor water supplies is their
growing 9____________ . Canada, which contains
10_______________ of the world’s fresh water, has dealt with
water pollution in some cities through a process of
11_________________ . Although treated for dangerous
pollution, some health experts believe city water to be a cause of

272
12_____________ . Not all people are content to drink town water
and this has added to a demand for 13_____________

Section 2

273
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are
based on Reading passage 2

How to Reduce Employee Turnover

A The chief executive of a large hotel became aware that his company
was experiencing annual employee turnover of about 60 percent, at
an annual cost estimated between $10 to $15 million. This large
amount of money was calculated based on three factors: the money
spent hiring and training replacements; the cost to the business in
lower productivity due to employees becoming familiar with the
requirements of their new job; and reduced occupancy rates, due to
poor guest satisfaction levels.

B The Chief Executive knew that in order to save his company, he had
to reduce the high turnover costs. Making up for the lost income due
to turnover is not an easy task and many companies have not declared
war on unwanted employee turnover because they have not taken the
time to work out the costs of lost revenues and productivity. But the
hotel boss decided to tackle the issue head-on by implementing a 4
point plan, the hotel first took the time to calculate their turnover
costs; secondly to evaluate the main causes for the staff turnover and;
thirdly to discuss some of the solutions to the problems and lastly to
prioritise actions and evaluate future returns following implemented
changes.

C Within a two-year period, the results were significant. The annual


employee turnover was reduced by 78 percent and this impacted
upon down time due to training and guest satisfaction. The result was
a $10 million savings for the company.

D Because most do not know the root causes of employee turnover


and costs have often not been accurately estimated, causes are usually
not known. As an result, solutions are commonly not targeted at a

274
company’s individual, specific causes. The following is an
examination of what the Chief Executive did to turn the hotel around.

E Two factors were considered in relation to the calculation of costs:


those departments who had the highest rates of turnover and those
whose turnover had the greatest potential effect on profit. After some
investigation it was shown that some of the positions with the highest
turnover rates such as cleaners and gardeners did not carry with them
high associated costs. In fact, what was revealed was that only’ 6
percent of employees accounted for 43 percent of the turnover.
Positions that involved a substantial amount of time in training were
the ones that attracted the highest costing. Analysis revealed that
those positions within the hotel which had the greatest impact on
profit were people like the front office receptionists and those
working in accounts.

F As unusual as it may sound, it is now a common understanding that


offering employees more money is not necessarily a good solution to
high employee turnover – often they leave because they simply dislike
the work. Therefore, it was important to tackle the analysis from the
perspective of what were the chief causes for staff leaving. A holistic
approach was undertaken and several key findings emerged. The
hotel found that fundamentally they adopted poor recruiting and
selection practices. For example, it was shown that almost 35 percent
of the cleaning staff left after the first week and a further 25 during
the first month. Candidates were being over-sold the job by recruiters
and left soon after they encountered unrealistic job expectations.

G Devising solutions to these issues was the other half of the


equation. As far a recruiting was concerned, they changed their
approach by getting personnel from the hotel to handle it. Once this
change was made, the attrition rates decreased substantially. To add
to employee motivation, new staff were made aware of the mission
and goals of the organisation and how they would be paid above
industry standard for striving to attain to hotel values. New staff were

275
shown where the hotel was heading and how they would have a
guaranteed, stable employment situation with a major force in the
hotel industry’ – it was even suggested that after a period of
employment, new staff might be given the opportunity to contribute
to organisational goal setting. They had been losing many of their
employees during the first month or two of employment, so they
made new staff aware that bonuses would be offered to newly-hired
employees at the end of their first three months which greatly assisted
in goal setting. Staff luncheons and the in-house volleyball and
basketball competitions remained an effective part of staff unity and
development and a support program was also introduced to help all
staff with any job-related issues which gave employees a heightened
sense of being cared for by the establishment.

H Another area of change which proved successful was the


introduction of the Valuable Employee Program (VEP). When a
person was employed in the past they were assigned a senior member
of staff who assisted them with getting used to their new job. Due to
the limitations of the senior member’s position however, they were
often not in a position to explain any details regarding future
advancement. Now, when staff are employed, they are clearly told
what is expected in the job and where it might lead for the right
candidate. Hotel surveys revealed that over 30 percent of employees
were not satisfied with the career opportunities in their current jobs
so the articulation of the definite and realistic opportunity for
advancement through the VEP led to a major decrease in employee
attrition.

I Once the ship had been righted and the relative returns on human
resource investments had been calculated, setting priorities became
a formality. Although at first a daunting task, the enormous cost of
employee turnover offered an excellent opportunity for the hotel to
improve profitability.

Question 14-18

276
Complete the summary below of paragraphs A-D of Reading Passage
2. Choose ONE or TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

Training new employees; down time as new employees get used to


their new job; and unfavourable guest satisfaction levels all led to a
large 14____________ for a large hotel. It was determined that the
solution to these problems, was in the reduction of the company’s
15___________ . The hotel addressed these issues in 4 ways
through the implementation of a 16_______________ . The
efforts of the hotel chief executive decreased down time and reduced
employee turnover which, in turn resulted in improvements in
17________________ The company position was improved by
$10 million. It is not common for big companies to experience such
18____________

Question 19-21

Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading


Passage 2?

In boxes 19-21 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


this

19 It was surprising that positions with the highest turnover were


not connected to high costs.

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20 There was a clear connection between high costs and length of
training.

21 New employees were given an incorrect description of their job.

Question 22-26

Reading Passage 2 gives FIVE effective changes that the hotel


introduced for staff

Choose these changes from the list A-K below.

Write the appropriate letters A-K in boxes 22-26 on your answer


sheet.

CHANGES

A discussed future plans

B introduced regular staff luncheons

C started a regular sports program

D clearly defined job expectations

E did their own staff recruiting

F built new sporting facilities

278
G involved new staff in goal setting H offered bonuses to proven,
committed new staff I began meeting regularly with new staff
J implemented a support program

K began recruiting through an employment service

Section 3

279
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are
based on Reading Passage 3.

A Political and family values within society have impacted upon the
modern family structure. Traditionally, it has been the man’s role to
be the breadwinner for the family – providing the funds to pay for
food and shelter. However, due to the many new and unique
responsibilities placed upon families, in numerous cases both men
and women – fathers and mothers – have had to enter the workforce.
Generally, the reasons for both being involved in the workforce
revolve around the need to add to the family’s current financial base.
To a lesser extent, the need to interact with ‘adults’ in a stimulating
work environment is another popular reason. Whatever their
reasons, for many families, the decision for father and mother to go
out of the home and join the labour force has led to a number of side
effects within the home which, in turn, impact upon their
performance as employees.

B Many researchers agree that attitudes towards work are carried


over into family life. This spillover can be positive or negative.
Positive spillover refers to the spread of satisfaction and positive
stimulation at work resulting in high levels of energy and satisfaction
at home. If the amount of research is to be taken as an indication, it
would seem that positive spillover is not a dominant occurrence in
the workplace with most research focussing on the effects of negative
spillover. Often pointing out the incompatible nature of work and
family life, the research focuses on problems and conflict at work
which has the effect of draining and preoccupying the individual,
making it difficult for him or her to participate fully in family life.

C Social scientists have devised a number of theories in an attempt to


explain the work-family dynamic. Compensation theory is one which
has been widely used. It assumes that the relationship between work
and family is negative by pointing out that high involvement in one
sphere – invariably the work sphere – leads to low involvement in the

280
other. As an individual advances within a career, demands typically
fluctuate from moderate to more demanding and if the advancing
worker has younger children, this shift in work responsibilities will
usually manifest itself in the form of less time spent with the family.
Researchers subscribing to this theory point out that the drain on
family time is significantly related to work-family conflict with an
escalation in conflict as the number of family members increase.

D The human state is one of change. In exploring the work-family


dynamic it can be clearly seen that as the pattern of adult
development for men and women differs and as family and career
demands fluctuate, individuals may link work and family roles
differently at different stages of their life. Hence, the relationship
between work and family is constantly changing over a person’s life.
The developmental approach therefore adopts a psychological-
developmental framework to explore the dynamics of the
relationship between individual, family, and career developments in
the life-span of a worker.

E Interpersonal ‘climates’ influence motivation of family and work-


related activities. Within the family, the feeling of being valued by
one’s partner directly affects a person’s self-determination, while at
the same time within the workplace, the feeling of being ‘autonomy-
supported’ by one’s employer has been shown to have a positive effect
on one’s self-determined motivation towards wfork-related activities.
Studies built on the theory of self-determination therefore point out
that if people have abundant levels of self-determination,
participation in those areas will most often result in desirable
outcomes.

F Segmentation theory proposes that work and family are actually


two entirely separate domains and individuals are able to maintain a
clear demarcation between the two. Theorists subscribing to this
view maintain that emotions, attitudes and behaviours enlisted in the
two different environments are separate and will not have any impact

281
upon work or family. While this theory is certainly applicable for
some, apparently not all men and women are able to neatly divide the
two experiences. Winthrope points out that, “Even though a woman
may enter the workforce, research has shown that within the context
of the family, the care of her husband and children as well as the
living quarters is still heavily the woman’s domain.” This kind of idea
is tied up in the old adage; a woman’s place is in the home. She is seen
as the one who takes care of all domestic duties whereas,
stereorypically, it is the man who brings home the food for the family.
The degree to which this is felt is certainly based upon societal
expectations and behavioural norms. Despite this, there has been no
positive link shown that one sex experiences greater difficulty in
managing work-family conflicts over another.

G Perhaps the most positive relation that could be established


between work and family conflict was in regard to irregular work
hours. Factors such as having to work on weekends, having to work
longer than nine hours per day or having to work during vacation
periods all added to the conflict dynamic. Additionally, rank or
position and thus expectations of workers and time demands all
showed a negative impact upon family and work relations. Many
have conducted empirical research in relation to work-family
conflict and job satisfaction with significantly varying results.
However, one generally recognised outcome about which few
researchers disagree is that when work-family conflict arises, job
satisfaction decreases.

Question 27-30

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

27 The main reason fathers and mothers join the workforce is

A they want to escape the boring environment of home.

282
B they want to be able to retire comfortably.

C they need extra money.

D they need the mature interaction that goes on between adults.

28 ‘Spillover’ is

A mostly positive when it comes to the workplace.

B a term researchers use to describe work life.

C a dominant area of scientific research.

D a term which relates to how work life affects family life.

29 I he significance of Winth rope’s comment is that working women

A should not do the work of men.

B are heavily relied upon to do household duties.

C should not work outside of the home.

D leave household work for their husbands to do.

30 Regarding work and family the writer concludes that

A work itself plays an important role in job satisfaction.

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B more empirically-based theories are yet to be offered by
researchers.

C family relationships have a significant effect upon job satisfaction.

D work and family are best kept separate from each other.

Question 31-34

Look at the following list of theories (Questions 31-34) and the list of
definitions below.

Match each theory with its related idea.

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 31-34 on your answer sheet.

31 Segmentation
Self-
32
determination
33 Compensation
34 Developmental
A family and career remain essentially changeless

B work and family are totally unrelated

C the relationship between work and family is constantly changing

D negative working environments hurt work performance

E high levels lead to positive work and family outcomes

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F family duties tend to dominate work duties

G determined people tend to have successful families

H high work involvement results in family neglect

Question 35-39

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in


Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 35-39 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

35 Lack of money is the main reason both fathers and mothers


enter the workforce.

36 Conflict between work and family increases according to the


size of the family.

37 High income earners balance work and family life better than
low income earners.

38 Men handle work stresses better than women.

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39 Work-family conflict is due largely to constant changes in work
hours.

Question 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D

Write your answer in box 40 on your answer sheet.

What is the best title for Reading Passage 3?

A Family relationships and job promotion.

B The psychological effects of work.

C Theories on family and work.

D Work-family conflict and job satisfaction.

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Reading 33
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are
based on Reading Passage 1.

The Grapes of Winter

If an artist must suffer to create great art, so does the winemaker


when it comes to producing ice wine.

A Ice wine, or Eiswein as the Germans call it, is the product of frozen
grapes. A small portion of the vineyard is left unpicked during the fall
harvest those grapes arc left on the vine until the mercury drops to at
least -7°C. At this temperature, the sugar-rich juice begins to freeze.
If the grapes are picked in their frozen state and pressed while they
are as hard as marbles, the small amount of juice recovered is
intensely sweet and high in acidity. The amber dessert wine made
from this juice is an ambrosia fit for Dionysus1 himself – very sweet,
it combines savours of peach and apricot.

B The discovery of ice wine, like most epicurean breakthroughs, was


accidental. In 1794, wine producers in the German duchy of
Franconia made virtue of necessity by pressing juice from frozen
grapes. They were amazed by an abnormally high concentration of
sugars and acids which, until then, had been achieved only by drying
the grapes on straw mats before pressing or by the effects of Botrytis
cinerea, a disease known as ‘root rot’. Botrytis cinerea afflicts grapes
in autumn, usually in regions where there is early morning fog and
humid, sunny afternoons. A mushroom-like fungus attaches itself to
the berries, punctures their skins and allows the juice to evaporate.
To many, the result is sheer ambrosia. The world’s great dessert
wines, such as Sauternes, Riesling and Tokay Aszu Essencia, are
made from grapes afflicted by this benign disease.

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C It was not until the mid-19th century in the Rheingau region of
northwestern Germany that winegrowers made conscious efforts to
produce ice wine on a regular basis. But they found they could not
make it every year since the subzero cold spell must last several days
to ensure that the berries remain frozen solid during picking and the
pressing process, which alone can take up to three days or longer.
Grapes are 80 percent water; when this water is frozen and driven off
under pressure and shards of ice, the resulting juice is wonderfully
sweet. If the ice melts during a sudden thaw, the sugar in each berry
is diluted.

D Not all grapes are suitable for ice wine. Only the thick-skinned, late-
maturing varieties such as Riesling and Vidal can resist such
predators as grey rot, powdery mildew, unseasonable warmth, wind,
rain and the variety of fauna craving a sweet meal. Leaving grapes on
the vine once they have ripened is an enormous gamble. If birds and
animals do not get them, mildew and rot or a sudden storm might. So
growers reserve only a small portion of their Vidal or Riesling grapes
for ice wine, a couple of hectares of views at most.

E To ensure the right temperature is maintained, in Germany the


pickers must be out well before dawn to harvest the grapes. A
vineyard left for ice wine is a sorry sight. The mesh-covered vines arc
denuded of leaves and the grapes are brown and shrivelled, dangling
like tiny bats from the frozen canes. The stems of the grape clusters
are dry and brittle. A strong wind or an ice storm could easily knock
the fruit to the ground. A twist of the wrist is all that is needed to pick
them, but when the wind howls through the vineyard, driving the
snow- before it and the wind chill factor can make a temperature of -
10° seem like -40°, harvesting ice wine grapes becomes a decidedly
uncomfortable business. Pickers fortified with tea and brandy, brave
the elements for two hours at a time before rushing back to the winery
to warm up.

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F Once the tractor delivers the precious boxes of grapes to the winery,
the really hard work begins. Since the berries must remain frozen, the
pressing is done either outdoors or inside the winery with the doors
left open. The presses have to be worked slowly otherwise the
bunches will turn to a solid block of ice yielding nothing. Some
producers throw rice husks into the press to pierce the skins of the
grapes and create channels for the juice to flow- through the mass of
ice. Sometimes it takes two or three hours before the first drop of juice
appears.

G A kilogram of unfrozen grapes normally produces sufficient juice


to ferment into one bottle of wine. Depending on the degree of
dehydration caused by wind and winter sunshine, the juice from a
kilogram of ice wine grapes produces one-fifth of that amount or less.
The longer the grapes hang on the vine, the less juice there is. So
grapes harvested during a cold snap in December will yield more ice
wine than if they are picked in February. The oily juice, once extracted
from the marble-hard berries, is allowed to settle for three or four
days. It is then clarified of dust and debris by ‘racking’ from one tank
to another. A special yeast is added to activate fermentation in the
stainless steel tanks since the colourless liquid is too cold to ferment
on its own. Because of the high sugar content, the fermentation can
take several months. But when the wine is finally bottled, it has the
capacity to age for a decade or more.

While Germany may be recognised as the home of ice wine, its


winemakers cannot produce it every year. Canadian winemakers can
and are slowly becoming known for this expensive rarity as the home-
grown product garners medals at international wine competitions.
Klaus Reif of the Reif Winery at Niagara-on-the-Lake has produced
ice wine in both countries. While studying oenology, the science of
winemaking, he worked at a government winery in Neustadt in the
West German state of Rheinland-Pfalz. In 1983 he made his first
Canadian ice wine from Riesling grapes. Four years later he made ice
wine from Vidal grapes grown in his uncle’s vineyard at Niagara-on-

289
the-Lake. “The juice comes out like honey here” says Reif, “but in
Germany it has the consistency of ordinary wine”.

Question 1-7

Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G

From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph.

Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet

List of Headings

i International comparisons

ii Unique grapes withstand various attacks

iii Production of initial juice

iv Warm temperatures reduce sweetness

v Cold temperatures bring a sweet taste

vi From grape to wine

vii More grapes produce less wine

viii Temperature vital to production

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ix Infection bring benefits

x Obstacles to picking

xi The juice flows quickly

Example Answer
Paragraph
V
A

Paragraph
1
B
Paragraph
2
C
Paragraph
3
D
Paragraph
4
E
Paragraph
5
F
Paragraph
6
G
Paragraph
7
H
Question 8 -10

Choose the correct letter. A, B, C or D

Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

8 Growers set aside only a small area for ice wine grapes because

291
A not all grapes are suitable.

B nature attacks them in various ways.

C not many grapes are needed.

D the area set aside makes the vineyard look extremely untidy.

9 Rice husks are used because they

A stop the grapes from becoming ice blocks.

B help the berries to remain frozen.

C create holes in the grapes.

D help producers create different tastes.

10 According to Klaus Reif, Canadian ice wine

A flows more slowly than German wine.

B tastes a lot like German ice wine.

C is better than German ice wine.

D is sweeter than German ice wine.

Question 11-14

292
Complete each of the following statements (questions 11-14) with the
best ending A-G from the box below.

Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 11-14 on your answer


sheet.

11 Franconia ice wine makers

12 Famous dessert winemakers

13 Ice wine grape pickers in Germany

14 Canadian ice wine makers

A use diseased grapes to produce their wine.


B enjoy working in cool climates.
C can produce ice wine every year.
were surprised by the high sugar content
D
in frozen grapes.
made a conscious effort to produce ice
E
wine.
F drink tea and brandy during their work.

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which are


based on Reading Passage 2.

Islands That Float

Islands are not known for their mobility but, occasionally it


occurs.Natural floating islands have been recorded in many parts

293
of the world (Burns et al 1985). Longevity studies in lakes have been
carried out by I lesser, and in rivers and the open sea by Boughey
(Smithsonian Institute 1970). They can form in two common ways:
landslides of (usually vegetated) peaty soils into lakes or seawater
or as a flotation of peat soils (usually hound by roots of woody
vegetation) after storm surges, river floods or lake level risings.

The capacity of the living part of a floating island to maintain its


equilibrium in the face of destructive forces, such as fire, wave
attack or hogging and sagging while riding sea or swell waves is a
major obstacle. In general, ocean-going floating islands are most
likely to be short-lived; wave wash-over gradually eliminates enough
of the island’s store of fresh water to deplete soil air and kill
vegetation around the edges which, in turn, causes erosion and
diminishes buoyancy and horizontal mobility.

The forces acting on a floating island determine the speed and


direction of movement and are very similar to those which act on
floating mobile ice chunks during the partially open-water season
(Peterson 1965). In contrast to such ice rafts, many floating islands
carry vegetation, perhaps including trees which act as sails. In
addition, Burns et al examined the forces acting and concluded that
comparatively low wind velocities are required to establish free-
floating islands with vegetation standing two meters or more tall.

The sighting of floating islands at sea is a rare event; such a thing is


unscheduled, short-lived and usually undocumented. On July 4th,
1969- an island some 15 meters in diameter with 10-15 trees 10-12
meters tall was included in the daily notice to mariners as posing a
shipping navigation hazard between Cuba and Haiti. McWhirter
described the island as looking “…as though it were held together by
a mangrove-type matting; there was some earth on it but it looked
kind of bushy around the bottom, like there was dead foliage, grass-
like material or something on the island itself. The trees were
coming up out of that. It looked like the trees came right out of the

294
surface brown layer. No roots were visible”. By the 14th of July the
island had apparently broken up and the parts had partially
submerged so that only the upper tree trunks were above the water.
By July 19th, no trace of the island was found after an intensive six
hour search.

Another example albeit freshwater, can be found in Victoria,


Australia – the floating islands of Pirron Yallock. Accounts of how the
floating islands wrere formed have been given by local residents.
These accounts have not been disputed in scientific literature. Prior
to 1938, the lake was an intermittent swamp which usually dried out
in summer. A drainage channel had been excavated at the lowest
point of the swamp at the northern part of its perimeter. This is likely
to have encouraged the development or enlargement of a peat mat on
the floor of the depression. Potatoes were grown in the centre of the
depression where the peat rose to a slight mound. The peat was
ignited by a fire in 1938 which burned from the dry edges towards a
central damp section. A track was laid through the swramp last
century and pavement work was carried out in 1929-30. This
causeway restricted flow between the depression and its former
southern arm. These roadworks, plus collapse and partial infilling of
the northern drainage channel, created drainage conditions
conducive to a transition from swamp to permanent lake.

The transformation from swamp to lake was dramatic, occurring over


the winter of 1952 when rainfall of around 250nun was well above
average. Peat is very buoyant and the central raised section which had
been isolated by the fire, broke away from the rocky, basalt floor as
the water level rose in winter. The main island then broke up into
several smaller islands which drifted slowly for up to 200 meters
within the confines of the lake and ranged in size from 2 to 30 meters
in diameter. The years immediately following experienced average or
above average rainfall and the water level was maintained. Re-
alignment of the highway in 1963 completely blocked the former
south-east outlet of the depression, further enhancing its ability to

295
retain water. The road surface also provided an additional source of
runoff to the depression.

Anecdotal evidence indicates that the islands floated uninterrupted


for 30 years following their formation. They generally moved between
the NW and NE sides of the lake in response to the prevailing winds.
In 1980, the Rural Water Commission issued a nearby motel a
domestic licence to remove water from the lake and occasionally
water is taken for the purpose of firefighting. The most significant
amount taken for firefighting was during severe fires in February
1983. Since then, the Pirron Yallock islands have ceased to float, and
this is thought to be related to a drop in the water level of
approximately 600 nun over the past 10-15 years. The islands have
either run aground on the bed or the lagoon or vegetation has
attached them to the bed.

Floating islands have attracted attention because they are uncommon


and their behaviour has provided not only explanations for events in
myth and legend but also great scope for discussion and speculation
amongst scientific and other observers.

(1) Peat = a dark brown substance that is formed by plants dying


and becoming buried.

Question 15-19

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 15-19 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

296
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15 Natural floating islands occur mostly in lakes.

16 Floating Islands occur after a heavy storm or landslide.

17 The details of the floating island at sea near Cuba and Haiti
were one of many sea-going islands in that area.

18 Floating islands at sea sink because the plants on them


eventually die.

19 Scientists and local residents agree on how the Pirron Yallock


Islands were formed.

Question 20-23

Look at the following people (questions 20-23) and the list of


statements below.

Match each person to the correct statement.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

20 Burns

21 Peterson

297
22 McWhirter

23 Hesser

A compared floating islands to floating blocks of ice

B documented the breakup of a sea-going island

C examined floating islands in a confined area

D studied the effect of rivers on floating islands

E like floating islands, floating mobile ice chunks carry vegetation

F even comparatively light winds can create a floating island

G recorded the appearance of a sea-going floating island

H tall trees increase floating island mobility

Question 24-27

Complete the labels on Diagram B below.

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.

298
A 5 meters

B 30 meters

C basalt

D 200 meters

E 250 meters

299
F causeway

G highway

H drainage channel

300
Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are


based on Reading Passage 3.

Ocean Plant life in decline

A Scientists have discovered plant life covering the surface of the


world’s oceans is disappearing at a dangerous rate. This plant life
called phytoplankton is a vital resource that helps absorb the worst of
the ‘greenhouse gases’ involved in global warming. Satellites and
ships at sea have confirmed the diminishing productivity of the
microscopic plants, which oceanographers say is most striking in the
waters of the North Pacific – ranging as far up as the high Arctic.
“Whether the lost productivity of the phytoplankton is directly due to
increased ocean temperatures that have been recorded for at least the
past 20 years remains part of an extremely complex puzzle”, says
Watson W. Gregg, a NASA biologist at the Goddard Space Flight
Center in the USA, but it surely offers a fresh clue to the controversy
over climate change. According to Gregg, the greatest loss of
phytoplankton has occurred where ocean temperatures have risen
most significantly between the early 1980s and the late 1990s. In the
North Atlantic summertime, sea surface temperatures rose about 1.3
degrees Fahrenheit during that period, while in the North Pacific the
ocean’s surface temperatures rose about 0.7 of a degree.

B While the link between ocean temperatures and the productivity of


plankton is striking, other factors can also affect the health of the
plants. They need iron as nourishment, for example, and much of it
reaches them via powerful winds that sweep iron-containing dust
across the oceans from continental deserts. When those winds
diminish or fail, plankton can suffer. According to Gregg and his
colleagues, there have been small but measurable decreases in the
amount of iron deposited over the oceans in recent years.

301
C The significant decline in plankton productivity has a direct effect
on the world s carbon cycle. Normally, the ocean plants take up about
half of all the carbon dioxide in the world’s environment because they
use the carbon, along with sunlight, for growth, and release oxygen
into the atmosphere in a process known as photosynthesis. Primary
production of plankton in the North Pacific has decreased by more
than 9 percent during the past 20 years, and by nearly 7 percent in
the North Atlantic, Gregg and his colleagues determined from their
satellite observations and shipboard surveys. Studies combining all
the major ocean basins of the world has revealed the decline in
plankton productivity to be more than 6 percent.

D The plankton of the seas are a major way in which the extra carbon
dioxide emitted in the combustion of fossil fuels is eliminated.
Whether caused by currently rising global temperatures or not, the
loss of natural plankton productivity in the oceans also means the loss
of an important factor in removing much of the principal greenhouse
gas that has caused the world’s climate to warm for the past century
or more. “Our combined research shows that ocean primary
productivity is declining, and it may be the result of climate changes
such as increased temperatures and decreased iron deposits into
parts of the oceans. This has major implications for the global carbon
cycle” said Gregg.

E At the same time, Stanford University scientists using two other


NASA satellites and one flown by the Defense Department have
observed dramatic new changes in the vast ice sheets along the west
coast of Antarctica. These changes, in turn, are having a major impact
on phytoplankton there. They report that a monster chunk of the
Ross Ice Shelf – an iceberg almost 20 miles wide and 124 miles long
– has broken off the west face of the shelf and is burying a vast ocean
area of phytoplankton that is the base of the food web in an area
exceptionally rich in plant and animal marine life.

302
F Although sea surface temperatures around Western Antarctica are
remaining stable, the loss of plankton is proving catastrophic to all
the higher life forms that depend on the plant masses, say Stanford
biological oceanographers Arrigo and van Dijken. Icebergs in
Antarctica are designated by letters and numbers for aerial surveys
across millions of square miles of the southern ocean, and this berg
is known as C-19. “We estimate from satellite observations that C-19
in the Ross Sea has covered 90 percent of all the phytoplankton there”
said Arrigo.

G Huge as it is, the C-19 iceberg is only the second-largest recorded


in the Ross Sea region. An even larger one, dubbed B-15, broke off, or
‘calved’ in 2001. Although it also blotted out a large area of floating
phytoplankton on the sea surface, it only wiped out about 40 percent
of the microscopic plants. Approximately 25 percent of the world’s
populations of emperor penguins and 30 percent of the Adelie
penguins nest in colonies in this area. This amounts to hundreds of
thousands of Adelie and emperor penguins all endangered by the
huge iceberg, which has been stuck against the coast ever since it
broke off from the Ross Ice Shelf last year. Whales, seals and the
millions of shrimp-like sea creatures called krill are also threatened
by the loss of many square miles of phytoplankton.

Question 28-32

The passage has seven paragraphs labelled A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28 the role of plankton in dealing with carbon dioxide from


vehicles

303
29 the effect on land and marine creatures when icebergs break off

30 the impact of higher temperatures upon the ocean

31 the system used in naming icebergs

32 the importance of phytoplankton in the food chain

Question 33-36

Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading


Passage 3. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

33 Much needed iron for plant life is transported to the ocean


by______________

34 An increase in greenhouse gases is due to a decrease


in______________

35 Phytoplankton forms the___________________ of the food


web.

36 I he technical term used when a piece of ice detached from the


main block is___________

Question 37-40

Complete the summary of paragraphs A-C below. Choose NO MORE


THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

304
A decline in the plant life located in the world’s oceans has been
validated by 37_________________ . The most obvious decline
in plant life has been in the North Pacific. A rise in ocean
temperatures in the early 1980s and late 1990s led to a decline in
38____________________________ . In addition to higher
ocean temperatures, deficiencies in 39______________ can also
lead to a decline in plankton numbers. This, in turn, impacts upon
the world’s 40____________________ .

305
Reading 34
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are
based on Reading Passage 1 below.

Prehistoric Cave Paintings Took up to 20,000


Years to Complete

It may have taken Michelangelo four long years to paint his fresco on
the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel, but his earliest predecessors spent
considerably longer perfecting their own masterpieces. Scientists
have discovered that prehistoric cave paintings took up to 20,000
years to complete. Rather than being created in one session, as
archaeologists previously thought, many of the works discovered
across Europe were produced over hundreds of generations, who
added to, refreshed and painted over the original pieces of art.

Until now it has been extremely difficult to pinpoint when prehistoric


cave paintings and carvings were created, but a pioneering technique
is allowing researchers to date cave art accurately for the first time
and show how the works were crafted over thousands of years.
Experts now hope the technique will provide a valuable insight into
how early human culture developed and changed as the first modem
humans moved across Europe around 40,000 years ago.

Dr Alistair Pike, an archaeologist at Bristol University who is leading


the research, said: The art gives us a really intimate window into the
minds of the individuals who produced it, but what we don’t know is
exactly which individuals they were as we don’t know exactly when
the art was created. If we can date the art then we can relate that to
the artefacts we find in the ground and start to link the symbolic
thoughts of these individuals to where, when and how they were
living.’

306
Hundreds of caves have been discovered across Europe with
elaborate prehistoric paintings and carvings on their walls. It is
thought the designs, which often depict scenes of animals, were
created up to 40,000 years ago – some time after humans began
moving from southern Europe into northern Europe during the last
ice age.

Traditional dating techniques have relied on carbon dating the


charcoal and other pigment used in the paintings, but this can be
inaccurate as it only gives the date the charcoal was created not when
the work was crafted. ‘When you go into these caves today there is
still charcoal lying on the ground, so the artists at the time could have
been using old charcoal rather than making it fresh themselves/
explained Dr Pike.

‘If this was the case, then the date for the painting would be very
wrong. Taking samples for carbon dating also means destroying a bit
of these precious paintings because you need to take away a bit of the
pigment For carvings, it is virtually impossible to date them as there
is no organic pigment containing carbon at all.’

The scientists have used their technique to date a series of famous


Palaeolithic paintings in Altamira cave, northern Spain. Known as the
‘Sistine Chapel of the Palaeolithic’, the elaborate works were thought
to date from around 14,000 years ago. But in research published by
the Natural Environment Research Council’s new website Planet
Earth, Dr Pike discovered some of the paintings were between 25,000
and 35,000 years old. The youngest paintings in the cave were 11,000
years old. Dr Pike said:’We have found that most of these caves were
not painted in one go, but the painting spanned up to 20,000 years.
This goes against what the archaeologists who excavated in the caves
found. It is probably the case that people did not live in the caves they
painted. It seems the caves they lived in were elsewhere and there was
something special about the painted caves.’

307
Dr Pike and his team were able to date the paintings using a technique
known as uranium series dating, which was originally developed by
geologists to date rock formations such as stalactites and stalagmites
in caves. As water seeps through a cave, it carries extremely low levels
of dissolved radioactive uranium along with the mineral calcium
carbonate. Overtime small amounts of calcium carbonate are
deposited to form a hard layer over the paintings and this layer also
traps the uranium. Due to its radioactive properties, the uranium
slowly decays to become another element known as thorium. By
comparing the ratio of uranium to thorium in the thin layers on top
of the cave art, the researchers were able to calculate the age of the
paintings.

The researchers have also applied their technique to engravings


found in rocks around Creswell Crags in Derbyshire, which are
Britain’s only examples of ice age cave art They proved the engravings
were made at least 12,000 years ago. Professor Pablo Arias, an expert
on Palaeolithic cave art at the University of Cantabria, Spain,
said:’Until about ten years ago it was only possible to date cave art by
using the style of the figures, but this new technique developed by
Bristol University allows that date to be accurately bracketed. We
want to study how the people of the time behaved and how they felt
and Palaeolithic art gives us a way of looking at the type of symbols
that were important to them, so we need to know when the people
who were making the art actually lived.’

Questions 1-5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 1? Write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

308
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 Cave paintings inspired Michelangelo to paint the ceiling of the


Sistine Chapel.

2 It now seems that cave paintings were painted in one go and then
left untouched.

3 Dr Pike is focusing on dating artefacts found on the ground in the


caves.

4 There are a number of disadvantages to using carbon dating to


date paintings and carvings.

5 The Allamira cave contains more cave paintings than any other
cave in Europe.

Question 6-8

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

6 Dr Pike believes that

A most caves remained undiscovered for thousands of years.

B archaeologists should not have excavated the caves at all.

C the caves were uninhabited but were treated as important.

D the paintings were painted by the people living in the caves.

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7 Uranium series dating

A was previously used for other purposes.

B is a technique which was invented by Dr Pike.

C relies on the presence of stalactites in the caves.

D only works with caves which are underwater.

8 Professor Pablo Arias

A is sceptical about the benefits of the new dating technique.

B is enthusiastic about what the new technique will achieve.

C used the technique to successfully date Creswell Crags.

D believes it is necessary only to study the symbols in the art.

Questions 9-14

What is said about each of these things found in the caves?

Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to
Questions 9-14.

A When this is removed, it damages the painting.


B This can damage the stalactites and stalagmites in the caves.

310
C Over time, this turns into a different element.

D We could determine when it was made, but not when it was used.

E This is produced as a result of radioactive decay.

F Scientists used to think that this was a mineral.

G This contains no carbon-based elements at all.

H This can act as a firm coating over something.

9 charcoal

10 pigment

11 carving

12 uranium

13 calcium carbonate

14 thorium

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27, which are


based on Reading

311
Children Tested to Destruction?

English primary school pupils subjected to more tests than in any


other country.

English primary school pupils have to deal with unprecedented levels


of pressure as they face tests more frequently, at a younger age, and
in more subjects than children from any other country, according to
one of the biggest international education inquiries in decades. The
damning indictment of England’s primary education system revealed
that the country’s children are now the most tested in the world. From
their very earliest days at school they must navigate a set-up whose
trademark is’high stakes’testing, according to a recent report

Parents are encouraged to choose schools for their children based on


league tables of test scores. But this puts children under extreme
pressure which could damage their motivation and self-esteem, as
well as encouraging schools to’teach to the test’at the expense of
pupils’wider learning, the study found. The findings are part of a two-
year inquiry – led by Cambridge University – into English primary
schools. Other parts of the UK and countries such as France, Norway
and Japan used testing but it was,’less intrusive, less comprehensive,
and considerably less frequent’, Cambridge’s Primary Review
concluded.

England was unique in using testing to control what is taught in


schools, to monitor teaching standards and to encourage parents to
choose schools based on the results of the tests, according to Kathy
Hall, from the National University of Ireland in Cork, and Kamil
Ozerk, from the University of Oslo, who conducted the research.
‘Assessment in England, compared to our other reviewed countries,
is pervasive, highly consequential, and taken by officialdom and the
public more generally to portray objectively the actual quality of
primary education in schools,’their report concluded.

312
Teachers’leaders said the testing regime was ‘past its sell-by date’and
called for a fundamental review of assessment

Steve Sinnott, General Secretary of the National Union of Teachers,


said England’s testing system was having a’devastating’impact on
schools.’Uniquely, England is a country where testing is used to
police schools and control what is taught,’ he said.’When it comes to
testing in England, the tail wags the dog. It is patently absurd that
even the structure and content of education is shaped by the demands
of the tests. I call on the Government to initiate a full and
independent review of the impact of the current testing system on
schools and on children’s learning and to be prepared to dismantle a
system which is long past its sell-by date.’

John Dunford, General Secretary of the Association of School and


College Leaders, warned that the tests were having a damaging effect
on pupils.The whole testing regime is governed by the need to
produce league tables,’ he said. ‘It has more to do with holding
schools to account than helping pupils to progress.’ The fear that
many children were suffering intolerable stress because of the tests
was voiced by Mick Brookes, General Secretary of the National
Association of Head Teachers. There are schools that start rehearsing
for key stage two SATs [Standard Assessment Tests] from the
moment the children arrive in September. That’s just utterly
ridiculous/ he said. There are other schools that rehearse SATs
during Christmas week. These are young children we are talking
about. They should be having the time of their lives at school not just
worrying about tests. It is the breadth and richness of the curriculum
that suffers. The consequences for schools not reaching their targets
are dire – heads can lose their jobs and schools can be closed down.
With this at stake it’s not surprising that schools let the tests take
over.’

David Laws, the Liberal Democrat schools spokesman, said:The


uniquely high stakes placed on national tests mean that many

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primary schools have become too exam focused.’ However, the
Government rejected the criticism. The idea that children are over-
tested is not a view that the Government accepts/a spokesman said.
The reality is that children spend a very small percentage of their time
in school being tested. Seeing that children leave school up to the
right standard in the basics is the highest priority of the Government.’

In another child-centred initiative, both major political parties in the


UK – Labour and the Conservatives – have announced plans to make
Britain more child-friendly following a report by UNICEF which
ranked the UK the worst place to be a child out of 21 rich nations.

Parents were warned that they risked creating a generation


of’battery-farmed children’ by always keeping them indoors to ensure
their safety. The family’s minister, Kevin Brennan, called for an end
to the’cotton wool’culture and warned that children would not learn
to cope with risks if they were never allowed to play outdoors.

Questions 15-19

Complete the sentences.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.

15 According to the inquiry, the amount of testing puts a lot of


_______________ on young children.

16 The education report describes testing in England


as_________________________ testing.

17 Parents often select their childrens schools after studying test


results in _________________ .

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18 Kathy Hall and Kamil Ozerk believe testing in England is also
used to evaluate ______________ in schools.

19 The major political parties have promised to make Britain


_______________ in view of the UNICEF report.

Question 20-23

Do the following statements agree with the information given in


Reading Passage 2? Write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

20 Steve Sinnott says what is taught at school should be more


tightly controlled.

21 According to John Dunford, children would make more progress


with much shorter and easier tests.

22 Mick Brookes wants to see earlier student preparation for SATs.

23 David Laws agrees with the opinions of Mick Brookes.

Questions 24-27

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

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24 What does the government argue?

A There is not enough testing at present.

B Tests at primary school are too easy.

C Tests are not given too frequently.

D Teachers should take more tests.

25 The government spokesman

A is extremely critical of the way exams are written.

B accepts many of the points made by the teachers’ leaders.

C thinks education is what the government is most interested in. D


argues it is the teachers fault that students are tested so much.

26 According to UNICEF, children in the UK

A often spend too much time in the worst kind of places.

B are not so well behaved as in other countries.

C are not as rich as children in 21 other countries.

D could be having much more fulfilling childhoods.

27 What is the point Kevin Brennan makes?

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A Children use too many electrical devices.

B Children would learn by being outside more.

C Its too risky for children to be outside on their own.

D The most important thing is children’s safety.

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are


based on Reading Passage 3 below.

Three ways to Levitate a Magic Carpet

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It sounds like a science fiction joke, but it isn’t. What do you get when
you turn an invisibility cloak on its side? A mini flying carpet- So say
physicists who believe the same exotic materials used to make
cloaking devices could also be used to levitate tiny objects. In a
further breakthrough, two other research groups have come a step
closer to cracking the mysteries of levitation.

Scientists have levitated objects before, most famously using


powerful magnetic fields to levitate a frog. But that technique, using
the repulsive force of a giant magnet, requires large amounts of
energy. In contrast, the latest theories exploit the natural smaller
amounts of energy produced by the quantum fluctuations of empty
space.

In May 2006, two research teams led by Ulf Leonhardt at St Andrew’s


University, UK, and John Pendry at Imperial College, London,
independently proposed that an invisibility cloak could be created
from exotic materials with abnormal optical properties. Such a
cloaking device – working in the microwave region – was
manufactured later that year.

The device was formed from so-called ‘metamaterials’, exotic


materials made from complex arrays of metal units and wires.The
metal units are smaller than the wavelength of light and so the
materials can be engineered to precisely control how electromagnetic
light waves travel around them. They can transform space, tricking
electromagnetic waves into moving along directions they otherwise
wouldn’t says Leonhardt.

Leonhardt and his colleague Thomas Philbin, also at St Andrew’s


University, realised that this property could also be exploited to
levitate extremely small objects. They propose inserting a
metamaterial between two so-called Casimir plates. When two such
plates are brought very close together, the vacuum between them

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becomes filled with quantum fluctuations of the electromagnetic
field. As two plates are brought closer together, fewer fluctuations can
occur within the gap between them, but on the outer sides of the
plates, the fluctuations are unconstrained. This causes a pressure
difference on either side of the plates, forcing the plates to stick
together, in a phenomenon called the Casimir effect.

Leonhardt and Philbin believe that inserting a section of


metamaterial between the plates will disrupt the quantum
fluctuations of the electromagnetic field. In particular, metamaterials
have a negative refractive index, so that electromagnetic light waves
entering a metamaterial bend in the opposite way than expected, says
Leonhardt. That will cause the Casimir force to act in the opposite
direction – forcing the upper plate to levitate. The work will appear
in the New Journal of Physics.

Federico Capasso, an expert on the Casimir effect at Harvard


University in Boston, is impressed.’Using metamaterials to reverse
the Casimir effect is a very clever idea’ he says. However, he points
out that because metamaterials are difficult to engineer, it’s unlikely
that they could be used to levitate objects in the near future.

But there are good signs that quantum levitation could be achieved
much sooner, by other methods. Umar Mohideen at the University of
California Riverside and his colleagues have successfully
manipulated the strength of the Casimir force by increasing the
reflectivity of one of the plates, so that it reflects virtual particles more
efficiently. Modifying the strength of the Casimir force is the first step
towards reversing it, says team member Galina Klimchitskaya at
North-West Technical University in St Petersburg, Russia.

Capasso and his colleagues have also been working on an alternative


scheme to harness a repulsive Casimir effect Their calculations show
that a repulsive Casimir force could be set up between a 42.7

319
micrometre-wide gold-coated polystyrene sphere and a silicon
dioxide plate, if the two are immersed in ethanol. ‘Although the
Casimir force between any two substances – the ethanol and gold, the
gold and the silicon dioxide, or the silicon dioxide and the ethanol –
is positive, the relative strengths of attraction are different, and when
you combine the materials, you should see the gold sphere levitate’
he says.

Capasso’s early experiments suggest that such repulsion could occur,


and that in turn could be used to levitate one object above another.
It’s very early work, and we still need to make certain this is really
happening, but we are slowly building up experimental evidence for
quantum levitation/says Capasso, who presented his results at a
conference on Coherence and Quantum Optics in Rochester, New
York, in June.

This is a very exciting experimental result because it is the first


demonstration that we can engineer a repulsive Casimir force/ says
Leonhardt.

Questions 28-32

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in


Reading Passage 3? Write

YES if the statement agrees with the writers claims

NO if the statement contradicts the writers claims

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


this

28 A mini flying carpet is a possibility according to some scientists.

320
29 Cloaking devices can be used for levitation.

30 Scientists now know all about levitation.

31 Things can be transported from place to place using empty


space technology.

32 The most recent research into levitation has made use of large
magnets.

Question 33-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

33 Ulf Leonhardt and John Pendry

A worked together on a project in 2006.

B both came up with the same idea.

C invented the microwave oven.

D used only basic objects in their research.

34 Metamaterials are

A similar to light, but with a smaller wavelength.

B a combination of simple metals and wires.

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C able to change where electromagnetic waves go.

D engineered when light waves travel around them.

35 The importance of the Casimir effect is that it

A doesn’t require a vacuum in order to work.

B increases the number of plates that can be used.

C creates large and frequent fluctuations.

D creates pressure difference and stickiness.

36 Leonhardt and Philbin think that putting a metamaterial between


two plates will A cause the top plate to rise above the bottom plate.

B stop electromagnetic light waves bending.

C stop the Casimir force from working.

D not affect electromagnetic fluctuations.

37 Why is it important to change the strength of the Casimir force?

A to reflect the plates

B to help reverse the force

C to see virtual particles better

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D to enable other scientists to progress

Questions 38-40

Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F below.

38 Capasso is unconvinced that


________________________________

39 Capasso has calculated that


_________________________________

40 Capasso has admitted that


__________________________________

A gold can be used to produce levitation.

B a particular type of ethanol has to be used.

C the levitation will last for only a few seconds.

D using metamaterials will help lead to levitation in the short term.

E his experiment will be extremely costly to perform.

F his idea is still only a theory.

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