URANIUM TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION(UTSE) - 2017

(CBSE/ICSE)

Time: 60 minutes(2 mm - 3 noon) Class- IX F.M - 240(+4/-1 system)

Declaration of Result in the internet(www.theuranium.org) : 06.03.2017

(There are 60 MCQs and each has one correct answer. You are required to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR
answer sheet with the help of a HB pencil. Eraser can be used to change any
answer. Note that improper darkening will make your answer sheet invalid by the computer. 4 marks will be given for
each correct answer and 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. Ball point pen can be used for darkening but
once darkened cannot be erased)
(Uploading of correct answer in the internet: 06.02.2017
40
1. Atom of an element is an isobar of 20 Ca and it has 22 neutrons. The element is

(a) 1840 Ar (b) 42

20 Ca (c) 1842 Ar 40
(d) 18 Ca

2. The electronic configuration of an element is 2,8,8,1 and its mass number is 39. Then calculate the
number of moles of neutrons that would be present in 0.2 mole of the element.

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

3. Which of the following is false according to Rutherford’s experiment?

(a) the centre of an atom has a heavy positively charged body.
(b) the volume occupied by the positive unit is very small.

(c) electrons revolve around the nucleus in some fixed circular Orbit.

(d) None of these

4. Which of the following is fixed for a given element?

(a) atomic mass(b) electronic configuration (c) atomicity (d) all of these three

5. One atom of an element (X) is bonded to three atoms of another element (Y) by sharing with 3
electrons(one electron from each of Y) and acquires octet configuration. The number of neutrons in (X)
is 7. (Y) is the most abundant isotope of th element and has one proton in it. How much X will be present
in 1.5 moles of the compound?

(a) 14g (b) 17g (c) 21g (d) can’t be predicted

6. Maximum how many moles of aluminium sulphate can be obtained from 2.7 grams of Al, 3.2
grams of S and 1.6 grams of oxygen?( Atomic mases of Al-27, S-32)

(a) 8.33 ×10–3 (b) 1.7 ×10-3 (c) 0.1 (d) None of these

7. Aqueous solution of a sodium carbonate has 0.23 grams of Na+ ions then, how many moles of
carbon will be present in it?(Atomic mases of Na-23)

(a) 0.6 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.005 (d) 0.02

8. 2.8 grams of nitrogen gas reacts with excess of hydrogen so as to completly exhaust all nitrogen
gas to equivalent amount of ammonia. Ammonia gas is then dissolved in 2L of water to form aqueous
solution. Find the concentration of ammonia in moles per liter.

(a) 0.1 (b) 1.4 (c) 0.05 (d) 1.7

9. 0.5 mole of sodium sulphate and 0.5 mole of barium chloride were allowed to react in aquous
solution. The maximum number of moles of barium sulphate and sodium chloride formed respectively is

(a) 0.5, 0.5 (b) 1, 0.5 (c) 1.0, 1.0 (d) 0.5, 1.0

10. 20L of methane is combusted with 50L of oxygen and the product is cooled to room temperature
so as to elimnate water vopuor from the gaseous mixture. Find the total volume gaseous mixture left in the
container. (Temperature and Pressure remain constant)

(a) 20L (b) 30L (c) 40L (d) 70L

11. Boiling point of a liquid
(a) increases with increase in surface area of the liquid
(b) decreases with the increases in surface area of the liquid
(c) always remain fixed (d) depends upon atmospheric pressure
12. Which of the following has lowest force of attraction among its molecules?

(a) Water (b) Acetone (c) Milk (d) Oil

13. Which one of the following is heterogenous mixture ?

(a) aqueous solution table sugar (b) copper sulphate solution

(c) starch solution (d) all the above

14. 4.68 g of an aquous solution of sodium chloride contains 0.04 moles of chloride ion. The
concentration of the solution in terms of mass percentage(mass/mass %).will be

(a) 25 % (b) 50 % (c) 75% (d) 85%

15. Dispersed phase and dispersion medium of a soft drink like coca cola (taken as colloidal solution)are

(a) liquid,gas (b) gas, liquid (c) liquid, liquid (d) depends on the brand

16. During the separation of components of a mixture by paper chromatograpy , the component which
has greater affinity for filter paper,

(a) move slowly in the filter paper (b) move to a longer distance at a faster rate

(c) can’t be separated (d) special chromatograpic technique is needed

17. Elements are always pure but compounds are

(a)sometimes pure (b)sometimes impure (c)always pure (d)nature can’t be predicted

18. The particles of dispersed phase present in a colloidal solution can be separated by

(a)filtration (b)distillation (c)centrifugation (d)sublimation

19. A 5 gms impure sample of calcium carbonate gives 2.2 gms of CO2, when reacts with excess of
HCl. Calculate the percentage purity of calcium carbonate in the sample(Assume the impurities present in
the sample do not react with HCl)

(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 87.5 % (d) 95.0%

20. Calculate the mass of phosphorous present in a sample of ammonium phosphate if it has 4.2 gms of
nitrogen ? (Atomic mases of P=31)

(a) 1.03gm (b) 2.1 g (c) 1.4gms (d) 3.1gm

21. Generally fish belongs to which class of animals ?

(a) vertebrata - amphibia (b) protochordata - pisces

(c) vertebrate-pisces (d) Echinochordata - aves
22. The seeds of which plant does not exists in the naked state ?
(a) marchantia (b) cycas (c) paphiomedilum (d) None of these
23. By which process carbon dioxide gas exits and oxygen gas enters into a cell ?
(a) diffusion (b) osmosis (c) endocytosis (d) exocytosis

24. Which cell organelle of the vertebrates is responsible for storage and packaging of sustances such
as proteins ?
(a) ribosome (b) golgi body (c) smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER)
(d) rough endoplasmic reticulum(RER)
25. Which of the following matching is wrong?
(a) Endoplasmic Reticulum-Vesicles (b) lysosome - digestive enzyme filled sacs
(c) plastids-stroma (d) mitochondria – one-membrane covering
26. Which cell organelle have its own DNA and ribosome ?
(a) leucoplasts (b) mitochondria (c) both a) and b) (d) none
27. Which of the following does have a well defined nuclear membrane in the cell ?
(a) bacteria (b) blue-green algae (c) amoeba (d) none of these
28. Which is correct about the squamous epithelial tissue ?
(a) pushes the mucus forward to clear it (b) extremely thin, flat and delicate lining
(c) forms the lining kidney tubules (d) None of these
29. Which tissue smoothens bone surfaces at the joints ?
(a) tendon (b) neuron (c) cillia (d) cartilage
30. Buoyancy to aquatic plants is provided by __________ type of tissue ?
(a) collenchyma (b) aerenchyma (c) chlorenchyma (d) all of these
31. Organism that can become multicellular and is heterotrophic
(a) diatoms (b) agaricus (c) bacteria (d) euglena
32. Amphibian of the plant kingdom is
(a) Riccia (b) algae (c) marsilea (d) pinus
33. In summer, you found that the bottle containing coconut oil has been mixed with some water.
Without wasting any oil, the easiest method to separate the oil from water will be
(a) simple distillation (b) fractional distillation
(c) chromatography (d) using separating funnel
34. 1 of the mass of one carbon atom will be equal to
12
(a) 1.0 g (b) 1.67 × 10–24 kg (c) nearly same as the mass of one hydrogen atom
(d) all of these
35. Which of the following will not show variable valency ?
(a) S (b) Fe (c) Cl (d) Zn
36. The number of electrons present in the valence shells of S, F and Ca elements respectively are
(a) 6, 7, 2 (b) 4, 7, 2 (c) 6, 5, 1 (d) 6, 7, 1
37. The area bound by the graph of time – velocity and time - axis gives
(a) acceleration (b) displacement (c) average velocity (d) none of these
38. Which of the following is a vector quantity ?
(a) displacement (b) momentum (c) weight (d) all of these
39. Suppose an oil particle is falling down freely under the action of gravity. After some time of the free
fall, the frictional forces due to layers of air(resulting visocity) developed a force equal in magnitude but
opposite in direction to the weight of the oil particle. At that time, what will be the state of motion of the
particle ?
(a) it will be static (b) fall down with uniform velocity (c) the acceleration will decrese
(d) cannot be said
40. You jumped to the river bank(land) from a boat standing near the river bank. You jumped in the
land to a much greater extent than the boat receded back in the water. This can be easily explained by
which principle ?
(a) Newton’s first law (b) Newton’s second law (c) conservation of momentum
(d) all of these
41. A shell of mass 200 g is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05
kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is approximately
(a) 100 m/s (b) 80 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) 120 m/s
42. The position – time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at t = 2 sec is

(a) 0.2 kg.m/s (b) 0.02 kg. m/s (c) 0.1 kg. m/s (d) 0.4 kg. m/s
43. A stone is dropped from a height ‘h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum ‘p’. If the same
stone is dropped from a height 100% more than previous height, the momentum when it hits the
ground will change by
(a) 68% (b) 41% (c) 200 % (d) 100%
Q. No. 44 - 47 are ASSERTION-REASONING Type
A : Assertion is true, Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
B : Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion
C : Assertion is true but Reason is false
D : Both Assertion and Reason are false
44. Assertion : No force is required to move a body uniformly along a straight line.
Reason : Because F = m. a = m. 0 = 0
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
45. Assertion : Friction is a self adjusting force
Reason : Becasue friction does not depend upon the mass of the body
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
46. Assertion : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
47. Assertion : The speed of a body can be negative .
Reason : If the body is moving in the opposite direction of motion, then its speed is negative
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
48. The given graph shows the variation of velocity and time of two bodies A and B. Which of the
following is correct about their average velocities.
(a)average velocities of both are same since they have same initial and final velocities
 (b) average velocities of both are same since both cover equal distances in equal interval of time
(c) average volocity of A is greater than that of B since it covers greater distance than B in 10 secs.
(d) nothing can be said as their accelerations are not given
49. Which one of the following expressions has the same units as displacement ?

velocity
(a) velocity  time (b)
time
(c) velocity  accelerati on (d) acceleration  time
50. Which of the velocity-time graphs in the four options matches the acceleration - time graph given

(a) (b) (c) (d)

51. Units of length, velocity and force in a certain system of unit are three times of those in SI unit(i.e
unit of length in this system is 3m, and so on for force and velocity) Read the following statements.
(i) unit of mass is unchanged (ii) unit of time is unchanged
(iii) unit of linear momentum is tripled (iv) unit of energy is tripled
Among the above statements which are correct ?
(a) all four (b) only i), ii) and iii) (c) only i) and ii) (d) only ii) and iii)
52. What will be the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet whose mass is
double that of earth and volume is 8 times that of earth ( g on the surface of earth = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 4.9 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2 (c) 2.45 m/s2 (d) 19.6 m/s2
53. A body is thrown vertically up reaches a maximum height and returns back. It acceleration is
(a) downward during both ascent and descent
(b) downward at all positions except at the highest point where it is zero
(c) upward durinb both ascent and descent
(d) downward during ascent and upward during descent

54. Velocity of a particle moving along a straight line varies with time as shown in the figure. Forces
acting on the particle in different intervals OA, AB, BC,CD and DE are respectively F1, F2, F3, F4
and F5. Identify the correct statements from the following ?
(a) F1 increases with time (b) F5 is initially positive and then becomes negative
(c) F1 and F2 are in opposite directions (d)F3 is negative
55. A car covers 30 Km in a uniform speed of 30 Km/hr. What should be its speed for the next 60 Km
if the average speed for the entire journey is 50 Km/hr
(a) 60 Km/hr (b) 100 Km/hr (c) 60 Km/hr (d) 75 Km/hr
56. When the speed of the particle is tripled, the ratio of kinetic energy to its momentum
(a) gets doubled (b) gets tripled (c) becomes one third (d) becomes half
57. If two forces are acting at a point such that the magnitudeof each force is 2 N and the magnitude
of their resultant is also 2 N. Then the angle between the two forces is
(a)1200 (b) 600 (c) 900 (d) 00
58. Which one is the lowest acceleration among the following ?
(a) 10 Km/s2 (b) 100 m/min2 (c) 0.4 m/s2 (d) 10 cm/s2
59. Two aluminium balls A and B of mass 50 kg and 5 kg are separated by a distance of 5 m. The
gravitational force of attraction
(a) of A on B is equal to that of B on A
(b) of A on B is 10 times greater than that of B on A
(c) of B on A is more (d) none of the above
60. Gravitational force of attraction between two masses is F. It the distance between the masses is
increased by 50%, by what percentage the gravitational force between them changes ?
(a) increases by about 56% (b) increass by about 44%
(c) decreases by about 56% (d) decreases by about 44%

Anser Keys to UTSE-2017(Class IX) EM

1.a 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.c 6.a 7.c 8.a 9.d 10.b 11.d 12.b 13.c
14.b 15.b 16.a 17.c 18.c 19.a 20.d 21.c 22.c 23.a 24.b 25.d 26.c
27.c 28.b 29.d 30.b 31.b 32.a 33.d 34.c 35.d 36.a 37.b 38.d 39.b
40.c 41.a 42.a 43.b 44.a 45.c 46.a 47.d 48.c 49.a 50.c 51.b 52.a
53.a 54.c 55.d 56.b 57.a 58.b 59.a 60.c