DATE : 24/07/2016 Test Booklet Code

BB

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

1. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A 3. The correct structure of the product A formed in the
reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an reaction
unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol,
forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the O
molecular formula C 12 H10 N2O. The structure of
compound A is H2(gas, 1 atmosphere)
A
Pd/carbon, ethanol
CONH2
(1)
is

NH2 OH OH
(2)
(1) (2)

NO2
(3)
O OH

CN
(3) (4)

(4)

Answer (3)
Answer (3)

O O

NO2 NH2 H2(gas, 1 atm.)

Sn/HCl HNO2 Sol.
Sol. Pd/carbon, ethanol

OH
4. Which among the given molecules can exhibit
N2Cl tautomerism?

O O
O
Ph
Ph
N=N OH I II III
(1) Both II and III

(2) III only

2. Consider the reaction

CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN  CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr (3) Both I and III

This reaction will be the fastest in (4) Both I and II

(1) Water Answer (2)

(2) Ethanol Sol. Bridge-head carbocation is unstable, therefore,
(3) Methanol O
(4) N, N-dimethylformamide (DMF) tautomerism will be shown only by and the

Answer (4) OH
Sol. Q The reaction is S N 2, most suitable solvent enolic form would be .
should be polar aprotic i.e., DMF.
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

5. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids 9. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten
at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because
COOH COOH COOH the

O (1) Rate of decomposition is very slow

O
I II III (2) Rate is proportional to the surface coverage
(3) Rate is inversely proportional to the surface
is coverage
(1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III (4) Rate is independent of the surface coverage
(3) II > III > I (4) III > II > I Answer (2)

Answer (3) Sol. Rate is proportion to the surface coverage

10. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the
Sol. On the basis of –I effect, the correct acidic strength
electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are
would be
given below :

COOH COOH COOH I. (NaCl) = 52

> > II. (BaCl2) = 0.69
O
O
II III I III. (MgSO4) = 0.22
The correct order of their coagulating power is
6. The compound that will react most readily with
gaseous bromine has the formula (1) III > I > II (2) I > II > III
(3) II > I > III (4) III > II > I
(1) C2H4 (2) C3H6
Answer (4)
(3) C2H2 (4) C4H10
1
Answer (2) Sol. Coagulating power 
Coagulation value
Sol. In gas phase allylic substitution takes place.
11. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the
7. Which one of the following compounds shows the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? using a current of 3 amperes is
(1) Concentrated acetic acid (1) 330 minutes (2) 55 minutes
(2) H2O2 (3) 110 minutes (4) 220 minutes
(3) HCN Answer (3)
(4) Cellulose Sol. For 1 mole Cl2, 2 F electricity is required

Answer (4)  For 0.1 mole Cl2, 0.2 F electricity will be

required
Sol. Fact.
 Q=I×t
8. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution of
Q 0.2  96500
AgNO 3 with electrolytic conductivity of or, t 
  110 min.
5.76 × 10–3 S cm–1 at 298 K I 3  60
12. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which
(1) 28.8 S cm2/mol (2) 2.88 S cm2/mol
n = 3 and l = 1?
(3) 11.52 S cm2/mol (4) 0.086 S cm2/mol (1) 14 (2) 2
Answer (3) (3) 6 (4) 10

  1000 5.76  103  1000 Answer (2)

Sol. m  
M 0.5 Sol. An orbital can accommodate maximum of
= 11.52 S cm2/mol 2 electrons with anti-parallel spins.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

13. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is Sol. In CaF2, Ca2(+) has fcc arrangement and F(–) ions are
changed isothermally from p i to p f, the entropy present in all tetrahedral voids.
change is given by
 Co-ordination numbers for Ca2(+) and F(–) ions are
⎛p ⎞ ⎛p ⎞ 8 and 4.
(1) S  RT ln ⎜ i ⎟ (2) S  nRln ⎜ f ⎟
⎝ pf ⎠ ⎝ pi ⎠ 17. If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative value,
⎛p ⎞ which of the following gives the correct relationships
⎛p ⎞
(3) S  nRln ⎜ i ⎟ (4) S  nRT ln ⎜ f ⎟ for the values of G° and Keq?
⎝ pf ⎠ ⎝ pi ⎠
(1) G° < 0; Keq < 1 (2) G° > 0; Keq < 1
Answer (3) (3) G° > 0; Keq > 1 (4) G° < 0; Keq > 1

⎛p ⎞ Answer (2)
Sol. S  nRln ⎜ i ⎟
⎝ pf ⎠ o
Sol. Q Ecell  – ve
14. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution
of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is  G° = +ve & Keq = –ve
(1) 3 (2) 0 i.e., G° > 0 & Keq < 1
(3) 1 (4) 2 18. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal
Answer (1) solution?
Sol. Ba(OH)2  Ba2(+) + 2OH(–) (1) Gmix = 0
 van't Hoff factor = 1 + 2 = 3 (2) Hmix = 0
15. The percentage of pyridine (C 5H 5N) that forms
(3) Umix = 0
pyridinium ion (C 5H5N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 × 10–9) is (4) P = Pobs – Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0
(1) 1.6% (2) 0.0060% Answer (1)
(3) 0.013% (4) 0.77%
Sol. Gmix for ideal solution is positive.
Answer (3)
19. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product
Sol. C5H5N + H2O C5H5N H + OH 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be
t=0 C (1) Zero
t = eq. C(1 – ) C C (2) 1.26 × 10–5 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–9 M
C 2
 Kb   C2
1  (4) 1.6 × 10–11 M
Answer (3)
Kb 1.7  109
  
C 0.1
Sol. AgCl(s) Ag (aq)  Cl(–) (aq)
S S S
= 1.3 × 10–4
 (–)
NaCl Na (aq)  Cl (aq)
 %  = 1.3 × 10–4 × 100 = 0.013% 0.1 M 0.1 M
16. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the
coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and  Ksp(AgCl) = S(S + 0.1)
fluoride ion (F–) are Q S << 0.1
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 4 and 2  S + 0.1  0.1
(3) 6 and 6 (4) 8 and 4  1.6 × 10–10 = S × 0.1
Answer (4)  S = 1.6 × 10–9 M

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

20. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two 23. AIF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is
compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 due to the formation of
weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the (1) K[AIF3H] (2) K3[AIF3H3]
atomic weights of X and Y are
(3) K3[AIF6] (4) AIH3
(1) 30, 20 (2) 40, 30
Answer (3)
(3) 60, 40 (4) 20, 30
Sol. Fact.
Answer (2)
24. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron
Sol. For XY2, but the reverse is not possible. It is because
Q 0.1 mole XY2  10 g (1) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than
iron
 1 mole XY2  100 g
(2) Zinc is lighter than iron
and X + 2Y = 100 …(i)
(3) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
For X3Y2,
(4) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than
Q 0.05 mole X3Y2  9 g iron
 1 mole X3Y2  180 g Answer (1)
and 3X + 2Y = 180 …(ii) 
Sol. E Zn2(  ) /Zn  0.76 V
On solving,

X = 40 EFe 2(  )
/Fe
 0.44 V

and Y = 30 25. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

21. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode (1) Aqueous solution of slaked lime
during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in (2) Limewater
60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 × 10–19 C)
(3) Quicklime
(1) 7.48 × 1023 (2) 6 × 1023
(4) Milk of lime
(3) 6 × 1020 (4) 3.75 × 1020
Answer (4)
Answer (4) Sol. Fact.
Sol. Q = I  t 26. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
= 1 A  60 s NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are
= 60 C
(1) sp2, sp and sp3
60 (2) sp, sp3 and sp2
 No. of electrons = 19
1.602  10 (3) sp2, sp3 and sp
= 3.75  1020 (4) sp, sp2 and sp3
22. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule Answer (4)
(1) Combines with proton from water molecule O (–)

(2) Contains replaceable H+ ion O = +1 

N = O
(+)
;


Sol. –1 N ;
O –1
O



sp +1
 

 

(3) Gives up a proton

(4) Accepts OH– from water releasing proton sp2

Answer (4) (+)

H
Sol. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule accepts N
OH(–) from water releasing proton. H H
H
B(OH)3 + H2O  [B(OH)4](–)(aq) + H(+)(aq) sp3
5
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

27. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most Sol. CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF
likely to behave as a Lewis base? In this reaction there is no change in oxidation state
(1) SiF4 (2) BF3 of any atom.

(3) PF3 (4) CF4 31. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have
electron density along the axes?
Answer (3)
(1) d xy , d x 2  y 2 (2) d z2 , d xz
Sol. In PF3, P has a lone pair of electrons.
28. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic (3) dxz, dyz (4) d z2 , d x 2  y 2
and isostructural?
Answer (4)
(1) CIO3 , SO32 (2) CO32 , NO3 Sol. z y

(3) CIO3 , CO32 (4) SO32 , NO3

Answer (1 & 2)
Sol. Option (1) : x
– 2(–)

;
O Cl (–) O S
(–) dz 2 dx 2 – y 2
 

 

O O O O




(–) 32. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are




Both have 42 electrons with pyramidal structure. (1) Square planar, sp3d2
Option (2) : (2) Octahedral, sp3d2

O 2(–)
O
–1 (3) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
(4) Planar triangle, sp3d3
C ; N
O O
 O +1 O
 Answer (2)
 

 

 

 

–1 –1 –1 –1
Sol. XeF4, has octahedral geometry where hybridisation of
Both have 32 electrons with trigonal planar structure. Xe is sp3d2.
33. Among the following, which one is a wrong
29. In context with beryllium, which one of the following
statement?
statements is incorrect?
(1) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric (1) I3 has bent geometry

(2) It is rendered passive by nitric acid (2) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist

(3) It forms Be2C (3) p-d bonds are present in SO2

(4) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
(4) Its salts rarely hydrolyze
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Shape of SeF4 would be see saw whereas that of
Sol. Salts of beryllium is readily hydrolysed due to CH4 would be tetrahedral.
presence of vacant p-orbital.
34. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the
30. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately following species is
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the folllowing   
(1) CN  Br  C6H5  NH3
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?
(2) NH3  CN  Br   C6H5
(1) CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF
(2) Cu + 2H2SO4  CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O (3) CN  C6H5  Br   NH3

(3) 3S + 2H2SO4  3SO2 + 2H2O (4) Br   CN  NH3  C6H5

(4) C + 2H2SO4  CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O Answer (3)

Answer (1) Sol. Fact.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)
35. Which one of the following statements related to 39. Which one of the following structures represents
lanthanons is incorrect? nylon 6,6 polymer?
(1) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing O
agent in volumetric analysis H2 H ( CH ) NH
(1) C( C N 2 6

(2) Europium shows +2 oxidation state C 2 C

H2
(3) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius O n

decreases from Pr to Lu
(4) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than H2 H2
C H C H
aluminium (2) C C
Answer (4) NH2 CH3 66

Sol. Fact.
H2 H2
36. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin C H C H
(3) C C
complexes of
NH2 CH2 66
(1) d 9 (2) d 7
(3) d 8 (4) d 4 H2 H2
C H C H
H2 H2 C C
Answer (3) C H C H 6
(4) C C CH3 COOH
Sol. Fact.
NH2 Cl 6
37. Which of the following can be used as the halide
component for Friedel-Crafts reaction? Answer (1)
(1) Isopropyl chloride (2) Chlorobenzene Sol. Nylon-6,6 is the co-polymer of adipic acid and
hexamethylene diamine.
(3) Bromobenzene (4) Chloroethene
Answer (1) O O H H
|| || | |
Sol. Isopropyl chloride would form stable carbocation nHO – C –(CH2 )4 – C– OH  nH – N –(CH2 )6 N H

H3C — C — CH3
O O H H
H
C ( CH2)4 C N (CH2)6 N + 2nH2O
38. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are n

coplanar? 40. In pyrrole

4 3
(1) (2) 5 2
N1
H

the electron density is maximum on

(1) 2 and 5
CH3 CN
(3) (4) C C (2) 2 and 3
CH3 CN
(3) 3 and 4

Answer (2) (4) 2 and 4

Sol. Biphenyl is a planar system, where all the carbon Answer (1)
atoms and H-atoms are in same plane. Sol. At 2 and 5 negative charge is more stable.
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

41. Which of the following compounds shall not produce 44. The correct corresponding order of names of four
propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination aldoses with configuration given below
or direct only elimination reaction?

H2
(1) H3C C CH2Br CHO CHO
H OH HO H
(2) H2C CH2 H OH H OH
C CH2OH CH2OH
H2
CHO CHO
H2
(3) H3C C CH2OH HO H H OH
HO H HO H
(4) H 2C C O CH2OH CH2OH
Answer (4)
Sol. H 2C C O , has only two carbon atom, cannot respectively, is
be converted into propene as the conditions are
given. (1) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

42. Which one of the following nitro-compounds does (2) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
not react with nitrous acid? (3) D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose

H2 (4) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose

CH3
H3C C
Answer (1)
(1) H3C C (2) C NO2
H NO2 H2 Sol. Fact.
O 45. In the given reaction

H2 HF
H3C C H3C + 0°C P
(3) CH NO2 (4) H3C C NO2
H3C H3C the product P is

Answer (4)
F
CH3
(1) (2)
Sol. H3C C NO2
CH3

No acidic H-atom on the carbon atom having

NO2-group.
F
43. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that (3) (4)
the genetic information flows from
(1) DNA  RNA  Carbohydrates
(2) Amino acids  Proteins  DNA Answer (4)

(3) DNA  Carbohydrates  Proteins

(4) DNA  RNA  Proteins HF 
Sol. –H
Answer (4)
Sol. Fact.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

46. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same Answer (4)
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a Sol. Today the number of hotspots identified by ecologists
recombinant plasmid using is 34 covering an area less than 2% of land surface
(1) Ligase (2) Eco RI with about 20% of human population living there.
(3) Taq polymerase (4) Polymerase III 51. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal
vent ecosystem are
Answer (1)
(1) Coral reefs
Sol. In DNA recombinant technology, linking of foreign
DNA and plasmid is made possible by DNA ligase (2) Green algae
which is also called "molecular glue". (3) Chemosynthetic bacteria
47. Which of the following is not a component of (4) Blue-green algae
downstream processing?
Answer (3)
(1) Expression (2) Separation
Sol. The primary producers of the deep sea hydrothermal
(3) Purification (4) Preservation vent ecosystem are Archaebacteria, they have
Answer (1) chemosynthetic mode of nutrition.

Sol. After the completion of biosynthetic pathway, 52. Which of the following is correct for r-selected
downstreaming processing includes all the steps species?
involved in isolation, purification and preservation of (1) Small number of progeny with large size
products. All the steps before the completion of
(2) Large number of progeny with small size
pathway are included in upstreaming processing i.e.,
expression of genetic material. (3) Large number of progeny with large size
48. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces (4) Small number of progeny with small size
blunt ends? Answer (2)
(1) Hind III (2) Sal I Sol. r-selected species  species whose population
(3) Eco RV (4) Xho I growth is function of biotic potential (r). They have
large number of progeny with small size.
Answer (3)
53. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '–' sign
Sol. Eco RV cuts the DNA in the centre of restriction
to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then
sites forming blunt ends.
the population interaction represented by '+' '–' refers
The pallindromic sequence for Eco RV is to
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism
5 3
G AT AT C (3) Amensalism (4) Commensalism
C T AT A G Answer (1)
3 5
Sol. Parasitism Parasite is benefitted (+) but host is
49. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four- harmed (–) so it is a (+, –) type of population
year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) interaction.
deficiency? 54. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Radiation therapy (2) Gene therapy (1) Stratification – Population
(3) Chemotherapy (4) Immunotherapy (2) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
Answer (2) (3) Age pyramid – Biome
Sol. Gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl (4) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to
child with ADA deficiency.
biodiversity
50. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have
Answer (4)
been identified till date by Norman Myers?
Sol. Parthenium hysterophorus is an exotic or alien
(1) 43 (2) 17
species which causes extinction of native (or)
(3) 25 (4) 34 indegenous species.

9
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

55. Red list contains data or information on 60. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental
(1) Marine vertebrates only conditions because of

(2) All economically important plants (1) Presence of vessels

(3) Plants whose products are in international trade (2) Broad hardy leaves

(4) Threatened species (3) Superficial stomata

Answer (4) (4) Thick cuticle

Sol. IUCN [International Union Conservation of Nature and Answer (4)

Natural Resources] (or) WCU [World Conservation Sol. In conifers, the needle like leaves, thick cuticle and
Union] maintains red list which is a catalogue for sunken stomata help to reduce water loss.
threatened species.
61. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
56. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
(1) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(2) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
(2) They are eukaryotic
the immediate environment
(3) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(3) Algin is obtained from red algae, and
(4) They are heterotrophic carrageenan from brown algae
Answer (3) (4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
Sol. Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin and Gracilaria
polysaccharides. Answer (3)
57. Methanogens belong to Sol. Algin is obtained from brown algae, and carrageenin
(1) Slime moulds (2) Eubacteria from red algae.
(3) Archaebacteria (4) Dinoflagellates 62. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to
Answer (3) (1) Calyx (2) Gynoecium
Sol. Methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophiles are (3) Androecium (4) Corolla
archaebacteria.
Answer (3)
58. Select the wrong statement.
Sol. The stamens may be united into one bundle
(1) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in (monoadelphous), or two bundles (diadelphous) or
water into more than two bundles (polyadelphous).
(2) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible 63. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania,
(3) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish,
of diatoms gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths
in their flowers?
(4) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(1) Six (2) Three
Answer (2)
(3) Four (4) Five
Sol. The cell walls of diatoms are embedded with silica
and thus the walls are indestructible. Answer (3)
59. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry Sol. Brassicaceae, A2+4 Mustard, Radish, Turnip
information on
Lamiaceae, A2+2 Salvia
(1) Height of the plant (2) Date of collection
64. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
(3) Name of collector (4) Local names
(1) Cassia (2) Brassica
Answer (1)
(3) Trifolium (4) Pisum
Sol. The herbarium sheets carry a label providing
Answer (2)
information about date and place of collection,
English, local and botanical names, family, collector's Sol. Radial or actinomorphic symmetry is found in flowers
name. like mustard, Datura, Chilli.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

65. Free-central placentation is found in 70. Select the wrong statement.

(1) Citrus (2) Dianthus (1) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism
(3) Argemone (4) Brassica (2) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
Answer (2) (3) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
Sol. Dianthus, Primrose – Free central placentation. bacterial cells

Argemone – Parietal placentation. (4) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells

Citrus – Axile placentation. Answer (3)

66. Cortex is the region found between Sol. Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of the
bacteria that do not play a role in motility.
(1) Endodermis and vascular bundle
71. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is
(2) Epidermis and stele
(1) Mesosome (2) Lysosome
(3) Pericycle and endodermis
(3) Microsome (4) Ribosome
(4) Endodermis and pith
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be
Sol. Cortex is the region present between epidermis and
very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes.
stele.
72. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in
67. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
(1) M phase (2) S phase
(1) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem
vessels (3) G1 phase (4) G2 phase

(2) Originate in the lumen of vessels Answer (2)

(3) Characterize the sapwood Sol. DNA replication occurs in S-phase of cell cycle.

(4) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into 73. Which of the following biomolecules is common to
vessels respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins?
Answer (4)
(1) Acetyl CoA
Sol. Tyloses are balloon-shaped structures in xylem
vessels developed by xylem parenchyma cells. (2) Glucose-6-phosphate
68. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is (3) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(1) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Pyruvic acid
(2) Lysozyme Answer (1)
(3) Ribozyme Sol. Acetyl CoA is common to fat, carbohydrate and
protein catabolism.
(4) Ligase
Answer (3) 74. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across
a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was
Sol. Ribozyme is RNA acting like an enzyme or tested chemically. Which one of the following test
biocatalyst. results indicates that it is phloem sap?
69. Select the mismatch. (1) Absence of sugar
(1) Methanogens – Prokaryotes (2) Acidic
(2) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria (3) Alkaline
(3) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells (4) Low refractive index
(4) Protists – Eukaryotes Answer (3)
Answer (3) Sol. Alkaline pH (7.8 – 8.0) is present in phloem sap
Sol. Large central vacuole is present in plant cells. whereas xylem sap is acidic.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

75. You are given a tissue with its potential for Answer (4)
differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the Sol. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from
following pairs of hormones would you add to the the nodes present on modified stem.
medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
80. Which one of the following generates new genetic
(1) Gibberellin and abscisic acid combinations leading to variation?
(2) IAA and gibberellin (1) Nucellar polyembryony
(3) Auxin and cytokinin (2) Vegetative reproduction
(4) Auxin and abscisic acid (3) Parthenogenesis
Answer (3) (4) Sexual reproduction
Sol. Auxins and cytokinin induce development of root Answer (4)
and shoot in a culture medium (respectively). Sol. Sexual reproduction generates new genetic
76. Phytochrome is a recombination leading to variations.

(1) Chromoprotein (2) Flavoprotein 81. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option using the codes given below
(3) Glycoprotein (4) Lipoprotein
Column-I Column-II
Answer (1)
a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis
Sol. Photochrome is a blue-green pigment which absorb
b. Formation of gametes(ii) Pistillate
red and far red light. It is a coloured protein i.e.
chromoprotein. c. Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous

77. Which is essential for the growth of root tip? Ascomycetes

(1) Mn (2) Zn d. Unisexual female (iv) Dikaryotic

(3) Fe (4) Ca flower

Answer (4) Codes :

a b c d
Sol. Calcium is required by dividing and differentiating
cells. (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
78. The process which makes major difference between (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C3 and C4 plants is (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Respiration (2) Glycolysis (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) Calvin cycle (4) Photorespiration Answer (1)
Answer (4) Sol.  Syncarpous – Pistils fused together.
Sol. Photorespiration is present in C3 plants but absent  Gametogenesis – Formation of gamete.
in C4 plants.  Dikaryotic hyphae – Hyphae of ascomycetes
79. Which one of the following statements is not  Pistillate flower – Unisexual female flower.
correct?
82. In majority of angiosperms
(1) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water,
(1) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
drains oxygen from water that leads to the death
of fishes (2) Egg has a filiform apparatus
(2) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction (3) There are numerous antipodal cells
are called clone (4) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore
(3) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive mother cells
structures are called zoospores Answer (4)
(4) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise Sol. Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to
from the internodes present in the modified stem form megaspore.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

83. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought 88. A true breeding plant is
about by the agency of
(1) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic
(1) Bats (2) Water constitution
(3) Insects or wind (4) Birds (2) One that is able to breed on its own
Answer (3) (3) Produced due to cross-pollination among
Sol. Water hyacinth and water lily are aquatic plants unrelated plants
pollinated by insect or wind. (4) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its
84. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent own kind
to Answer (4)
(1) Megaspore Sol. True breeding line is one that, having undergone
(2) Megasporangium continuous self pollination, shows the stable trait
(3) Megasporophyll inheritance and expression for several generations. It
is both homozygous recessive as well as dominant
(4) Megaspore mother cell in genetic constitution.
Answer (2) 89. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA
Sol. Integumented and stalked megasporangium is called as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
ovule.
(1) 5.8 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA
85. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
(3) 18 S rRNA (4) 23 S rRNA
semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
on Answer (4)
(1) E. coli Sol. 23S rRNA is a component of larger subunit of
ribosome and it acts as peptidyl transferase
(2) Vinca rosea
(ribozyme).
(3) Vicia faba
90. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(4) Drosophila melanogaster
(1) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
Answer (3) vessel
Sol. Semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
(2) Purification of product
was proved by Taylor in Vicia faba.
(3) Addition of preservatives to the product
86. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from
one linkage group to another is called (4) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(1) Crossing-over (2) Inversion Answer (4)
(3) Duplication (4) Translocation Sol. Stirred-tank bioreactor is provided with stirrer for
availability of oxygen throughout the process.
Answer (4)
Sol. Translocation is a phenomenon of transfer of a gene 91. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
segment between non-homologus chromosome, i.e., fulfill the traits given below, except
different linkage group. (1) It should provide the scope for slow changes
87. The equivalent of a structural gene is that are required for evolution

(1) Recon (2) Muton (2) It should be able to express itself in the form of
'Mendelian characters'
(3) Cistron (4) Operon
(3) It should be able to generate its replica
Answer (3)
(4) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
Sol. Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a
polypeptide. Answer (4)
Eukaryotic structural gene is monocistronic whereas Sol. A molecule which is unstable structurally and
prokaryotic structural gene is polycistronic. chemically cannot act as a genetic material.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

92. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes 96. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is correct option using the codes given below :
called the Column-I Column-II
(1) Antistrand (2) Template strand a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
(3) Coding strand (4) Alpha strand b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
Answer (2) c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

Sol. The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyze the d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus
polymerisation in only one direction that is 5 3, Codes :
the strand with polarity 5 3 act as template and a b c d
is called as template strand.
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
93. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(1) More closely related individuals within same (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
breed for 4–6 generations
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) Animals within same breed without having
Answer (3)
common ancestors
Sol. Microbe Product
(3) Two different related species
Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
(4) Superior males and females of different breeds
Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin-A
Answer (3)
Monascus purpureus - Statins
Sol. Interspecific hybridization is mating of animals of two Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid
different related species.
97. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a
94. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
causative agent HIV? effluents from
(1) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired (1) Sugar industry (2) Domestic sewage
immune response (3) Dairy industry (4) Petroleum industry
(2) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule Answer (4)
of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
Sol. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is not a good
reverse transcriptase
index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents
(3) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical from petroleum industry as the generated waste is
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two mostly non-biodegradable in nature.
molecules of reverse transcriptase 98. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
(4) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus (1) Verhulst and Pearl (2) C. Darwin
Answer (3) (3) G. F. Gause (4) MacArthur
Sol. Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped Answer (3)
virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA Sol. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
and two molecules of reverse transcriptase. G. F. Gause.
95. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a 99. Which of the following National Parks is home to the
marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty famous musk deer or hangul?
acids? (1) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(1) Mackerel (2) Mystus (2) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
(3) Mangur (4) Mrigala (3) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
Answer (1) (4) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

Sol. Mackerel is a marine fish having rich source of Answer (1)

omega-3 fatty acids. Sol. Conservation of Musk deer or Hangul.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

100. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in Answer (2)
(1) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen Sol. Housefly belongs to
(2) Increased population of aquatic organisms due to (i) Phylum - Arthropoda
minerals
(ii) Class - Insecta
(3) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom
(4) Increased population of fish due to lots of (iii) Order - Diptera
nutrients (iv) Family - Muscidae
Answer (1) 104. Choose the correct statement.
Sol. Micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic (1) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
matter consume oxygen as a result there is a sharp
decline in oxygen causing mortality of fish and other (2) All mammals are viviparous
aquatic creatures. (3) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired
101. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain fins.
shall occur in
(4) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
(1) Eel (2) Phytoplankton
Answer (3)
(3) Seagull (4) Crab
Sol. Cyclostomes belong to the division agnatha. They are
Answer (3)
jawless vertebrates without paired fins.
Sol. Maximum DDT concentration occurs in fish eating
birds like seagull due to biomagnification. This 105. Study the four statements (A–D) given below and
happens because a toxic substance accumulated by select the two correct ones out of them:
an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, A. Definition of biological species was given by
thus passed to higher trophic level. Ernst Mayr.
102. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused
B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in
by bacteria?
plants.
(1) Herpes and influenza
C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by
(2) Cholera and tetanus
R.H. Whittaker.
(3) Typhoid and smallpox
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is
(4) Tetanus and mumps synonymous with growth.
Answer (2)
The two correct statements are
Sol. Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae
and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium (1) A and B (2) B and C
tetani. (3) C and D (4) A and D
103. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly Answer (4)
classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below : Sol. Photoperiod affect reproduction in plants.

Column-I Column-II Bionomial nomenclature system was given by

Carolus Linnaeus
a. Family (i) Diptera
b. Order (ii) Arthropoda 106. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which
part of the reproductive system?
c. Class (iii) Muscidae
(1) Vas deferens
d. Phylum (iv) Insecta
Codes: (2) Seminal vesicles
a b c d (3) Mushroom glands
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) Testes
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Answer (2)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Sol. In male cockroach, sperms are stored in seminal
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) vesicle.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

107. Smooth muscles are
(1) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
(2) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(3) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(4) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of
enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

Answer (2) (4) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence

of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
Sol. Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform, nonstriated
Answer (3)
muscles.
Sol. Potential energy of substrate is more than the
108. Oxidative phosphorylation is
product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A'
(1) Formation of ATP by energy released from represents the activation energy in the presence of
electrons removed during substrate oxidation enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e.,
enzyme lowers down the activation energy.
(2) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group
from a substrate to ADP 111. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(3) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(1) Both G2 / M and M (2) G1 / S
(4) Addition of phosphate group to ATP
(3) G2 / M (4) M
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. Oxidative phosphorylation uses energy of oxidation- Sol. G1 / S check point of cell cycle is a major check point.
reduction of substrate to generate ATP.
112. Match the stages of meiosis of Column-I to their
109. Which of the following is the least likely to be characteristic features in Column-II and select the
involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of correct option using the codes given below:
most proteins?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Ester bonds a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous
(2) Hydrogen bonds chromosomes

(3) Electrostatic interaction b. Metaphase I (ii) Terminalization of

chiasmata
(4) Hydrophobic interaction
c. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place
Answer (1)
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at
Sol. Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate equatorial plate
in a nucleotide.
Codes
110. Which of the following describes the given graph a b c d
correctly?
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
B (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Potential Energy

Answer (2)
A
Sol. Pachytene - Stage of crossing over
Substrate
Metaphase-I - Chromosome align at equatorial plate

Product Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata

Reaction Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosome

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

113. Which hormones do stimulate the production of Answer (2)

pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
Sol. Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is
(1) Insulin and glucagon responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin
(2) Angiotensin and epinephrine for crossbridge activity during muscles contraction.

(3) Gastrin and insulin 118. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number
can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss
(4) Cholecystokinin and secretin
of blood from the body.
Answer (4)
(1) Thrombocytes (2) Erythrocytes
Sol. Cholecystokinin and secretin both hormones
increase the secretion of pancreatic juice. (3) Leucocytes (4) Neutrophils

114. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the Answer (1)
lungs is Sol. Deduction in thrombocytes (platelets) can cause
(1) Less than that of carbon dioxide clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood
(2) Equal to that in the blood from the body.

(3) More than that in the blood 119. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
(4) Less than that in the blood
glucose uptake and utilization.
Answer (3)
(1) Gastrin (2) Insulin
Sol. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli of lungs is
(3) Glucagon (4) Secretin
104 mm of Hg that is more than that of blood in
pulmonary artery (40 mm of Hg). Answer (2)
115. Choose the correct statements. Sol. Insulin is a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
(1) Receptors do not produce graded potentials hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
glucose uptake and utilisation so it decreases the
(2) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure
blood glucose level.
(3) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors
120. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal
(4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are system, may occur due to
depolarised during darkness and become
hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus (1) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation
of joints
Answer (4)
(2) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
Sol. Photoreceptors (Rod cells) in human eye are
junction leading to fatigue
depolarised during darkness and become
hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus. (3) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
116. Graves' disease is caused due to (4) Decreased level of estrogen
(1) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland Answer (4)
(2) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland Sol. Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due
(3) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland to decreased level of estrogen.
(4) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland 121. Serum differs from blood in
Answer (3) (1) Lacking antibodies
Sol. Grave's disease is due to the hypersecretion of (2) Lacking globulins
thyroid gland.
(3) Lacking albumins
117. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active
sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during (4) Lacking clotting factors
muscle contraction. Answer (4)
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium Sol. Serum is plasma without clotting factors. It never
(3) Magnesium (4) Sodium clot.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

122. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some Answer (3)
air always remains in the lungs which can never be Sol. In vasectomy, sperms occur in epididymis. In this,
expelled because vas deferens are cut so sperms are not present in
(1) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the semen.
atmospheric pressure 127. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
(2) There is a negative pressure in the lungs to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into
(3) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling (1) Cervix (2) Uterus
at the lung walls (3) Fallopian tube (4) Fimbriae
(4) There is a positive intrapleural pressure Answer (2)
Answer (3) Sol. In intrauterine transfer (IUT), embryo more than 8
Sol. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is
air always remains in the lung which can never be transferred in uterus.
expelled because there is a negative intrapleural 128. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway
pressure pulling at the lung walls. of transport of sperms?
123. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine (1) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens
gland because  Epididymis
(1) It secretes enzymes (2) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis
(2) It is provided with a duct  Vas deferens

(3) It only stores and releases hormones (3) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules
 Vas deferens
(4) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(4) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules
Answer (3)  Epididymis
Sol. Posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland Answer (2)
because it only stores and releases hormones.
Sol. Pathway of transport of sperms in human male is
124. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of
Rete testis  Efferent ductules (Vasa efferentia) 
sodium is
Epididymis  Vas deferens.
(1) Descending limb of Henle's loop 129. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
(2) Distal convoluted tubule correct option using the codes given below:
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule Column-I Column-II
(4) Bowman's capsule a. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation
Answer (3) b. Antrum (ii) Sperm
Sol. Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in active c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia
reabsorption of sodium. d. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle
125. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD? Codes:
(1) Cu7 (2) LNG-20 a b c d
(3) Multiload-375 (4) Lippes loop (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer (2) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Sol. LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel) is a hormone releasing (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
IUDs. (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
126. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Answer (3)
vasectomy?
Sol. Correct matching is :
(1) Irreversible sterility
(a) Mons pubis - Female external genitalia
(2) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(b) Antrum - Graafian follicle
(3) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(c) Trophoectoderm - Embryo formation
(4) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(d) Nebenkern - Sperm
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

130. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, Answer (3)

progesterone are produced by
Sol. In Hardy-Weinberg equation,
(1) Pituitary p2 = Homozygous dominant individuals
(2) Ovary 2pq = Heterozygous individuals
(3) Placenta q2 = Homozygous recessive individuals
(4) Fallopian tube 134. The chronological order of human evolution from
Answer (3) early to the recent is

Sol. Hormones secreted by placenta are hCG, hPL, (1) Australopithecus  Homo habilis 
Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
estrogen and progesterone.
(2) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus 
131. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is
Homo habilis  Homo erectus
homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability
of their son being colour-blind is (3) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(1) 1
(4) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis 
(2) 0 Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(3) 0.5 Answer (3)
(4) 0.75 Sol. The chronological order of human evolution from
Answer (2) early to the recent is

Sol. Colour-blindness is X-linked recessive disease and Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 

shows criss-cross inheritance. Homo habilis  Homo erectus
135. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
XCY × XX
(Colour-blind (Normal vision events in the origin of life?
man) woman)
(i) Formation of protobionts
Progeny X C
Y
C
(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers
X XX XY
C (iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
X XX XY
(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
100% - carrier daughters (Phenotypically normal)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
100% - Normal son
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
132. Genetic drift operates in
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Slow reproductive population
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Small isolated population
Answer (4)
(3) Large isolated population
Sol. Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is
(4) Non-reproductive population
Synthesis of organic monomers
Answer (2)

Sol. Genetic drift operates in small isolated inbreeding
Synthesis of organic polymers
population.

133. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
heterozygous individual is represented by Formation of protobionts

(1) q2 (2) p2 

(3) 2pq (4) pq Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

136. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie Answer (2)
between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order
to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision h p2 h2 hc
Sol. Momentum P =  E  ⇒ 
to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens,  2m 2m 2 0
the person has to use, will be
hc
(1) Convex, +0.15 diopter ⇒ 0  2m 2
h2
(2) Convex, +2.25 diopter
(3) Concave, –0.25 diopter 2mc  2

(4) Concave, –0.2 diopter h

Answer (3) 139. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode

Sol. Maximum distance of distinct vision = 400 cm. C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
So image of object at infinity is to be formed at emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of
400 cm. energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will
Use lens formula reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A
relative to C is
1 1 1
– 
v u f (1) –3 V
1 1 1
–  (2) +3 V
–400  f
P = –0.25 D (3) +4 V
137. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed (4) –1 V
immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm.
The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel Answer (1)
beam of wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The distance of
the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the Sol. Emax = E – 
centre of the screen is
2 eV = 5 eV –   = 3 eV
(1) 0.15 cm
(2) 0.10 cm Now eV0 = E' – 

(3) 0.25 cm = 6 eV – 3 eV = 3 eV
(4) 0.20 cm
So stopping potential is –3V.
Answer (1)
140. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
 y
Sol.    y orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength
a f
 . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit,
f f
y the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
a
138. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength 
20
fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff (1) 
wavelength (0) of the emitted X-ray is 13

(1) 0 = 
16
(2) 
2mc  2 25
(2) 0 
h

2h 9
(3) 
(3)  0  16
mc

2m 2c 2 3 20
(4) 0  2 (4) 
h 7
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

Answer (4) Answer (3)

Sol. Rc = 2 k V0 = 4 V
1
Sol.  
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 4V 4V
R⎜ 2 – 2 ⎟ IC  
⎝2 3 ⎠ RC 2k = 2 mA

1 IC
'    100
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ IB
R⎜ 2 – 2 ⎟
⎝3 4 ⎠
IC
 IB   2  10 –5 A
100
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
–
 ' ⎜⎝ 22 32 ⎟⎠ Vin = IBRi = 2 × 10–5 × 1 k= 20 mV
 20
 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞  ' 
⎜ 2 – 2⎟ 7 143. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as
⎝3 4 ⎠ shown in the figure below. The current flowing through
the resistance R1 will be
141. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes.
2
The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and
85% decay of the same radioactive substance is R1 D1 D2
10 V
(1) 60 R2 3  R3 2 

(2) 15
(1) 3.13 A
(3) 30 (2) 2.5 A
(4) 45 (3) 10.0 A
Answer (1) (4) 1.43 A
Sol. Number of active nuclei falls from Answer (2)

60% to 15% Sol. D1 is reverse biased

D2 is forward biased
1
So sample becomes th
4 10 V
I = 2.5 A
(2  2)
1
= th 144. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when
22
all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?
So number of half-lives = 2 A
B P
Q Y
Time t = 2 × 30 = 60 minute C
(1) 1, 1
142. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
across the collector resistance of 2 k is 4 V. If the (2) 0, 1
current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 (3) 0, 0
and the base resistance is 1 k then the input
signal voltage is (4) 1, 0
Answer (4)
(1) 15 mV

(2) 10 mV Sol. Output Y   A  B   C  A  B  C

(3) 20 mV When A, B, C are 0  Y = 1

(4) 30 mV When A, B, C are 1  Y = 0

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

145. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) Answer (4)
and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three
v2
fundamental constants. Which of the following Sol. a cos 30 
combinations of these has the dimension of length? r
3 v2
Gc hG  15 
(1) (2) 2 2.5
h3/2 c 3/2
 v = 5.7 m/s
hG hc
(3) (4) 148. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and
c 5/2 G gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the
Answer (2) figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the
Sol. L  hacbGc wall on the ball will be
m
[L]1 = [M1L2T–1]a [LT–1]b [M–1L3T–2]c
V
Solving,
1 1 3 60°
a , c , b 60°
2 2 2
hG V
 L 3/2
c
mV
146. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same (1) (2) mV
time in a straight line and their positions are 3
represented by xP(t) = at + bt 2 and xQ(t) = ft – t 2. mV
(3) 2mV (4)
At what time do the cars have the same velocity? 2
Answer (2)
f a af
(1) (2) r r r
2(1  b ) 1 b Sol. | J |  | P2  P1 |  2mV cos   mV
af af
(3) (4) 149. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a
2(b  1) 2(1  b ) velocity of 400 ms–1 strikes a wood block of mass
Answer (1) 2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string
of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
dxP
Sol. v P   a  2bt the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm.
dt
The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
dx
vQ  Q  f  2t horizontally from the block will be
dt
(1) 160 ms–1 (2) 100 ms–1
vP = vQ
(3) 80 ms–1 (4) 120 ms–1
 a + 2bt = f – 2t
Answer (4)
2t + 2bt = f – a
Sol. Apply conservation of linear momentum.
f a
 t CM rises through height h, so its velocity after
2(b  1)
collision = 2gh
147. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total
acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise 0.01 400  2  2gh  0.01 v
direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given  v = 120 m/s
instant of time. The speed of the particle is
150. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of
0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically
in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the
30°

R
a collision respectively will be
O
(1) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
(2) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
(1) 6.2 m/s (2) 4.5 m/s (3) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s
(3) 5.0 m/s (4) 5.7 m/s (4) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

Answer (3) 154. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2
attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of
Sol. They will exchange their velocity, so
the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod
vB = 0.5 m/s and vA = –0.3 m/s and passing through the centre of mass is
151. A particle moves from a point ( 2iˆ  5 jˆ) to m1m2 2
(1) m1m2 l 2 (2) l
(4 jˆ  3kˆ ) when a force of (4iˆ  3 jˆ) N is applied. m1  m2
How much work has been done by the force? m1  m2 2
(3) l (4) (m1 + m2)l2
(1) 2 J (2) 8 J m1m2
(3) 11 J (4) 5 J Answer (2)

Answer (4) l
r r r Sol. x1 CM x2
Sol. s  r2  r1  (4 ˆj  3kˆ )  ( 2iˆ  5 jˆ) m1 m2
 2iˆ  jˆ  3kˆ x1 
m2l
and x2 
m1l
r m1  m2 m1  m2
F  4iˆ  3 ˆj
ur r m1m2 2
W  F s  8  3  5 J I  m1x12  m2 x22  l
m1  m2
152. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m 155. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R,
with moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and L B be their shown by
angular momenta respectively, then
LB g g
(1) LA > LB (2) LA 
2
(1) (2)
(3) LA = 2LB (4) LB > LA
O O
Answer (4) R r R r

L2 g g
Sol. E 
2I
 EA = EB (3) (4)
O O
R r R r
L2A L2
  B Answer (3)
2I A 2IB
IB > IA  LB > LA GMr
Sol. gin  ⇒ gin  r
R3
153. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating
GM 1
about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass gout  ⇒ g out 
and same radius is also rotating about its r2 r2
geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of
the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of
rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
156. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius
(3) 1 : 5 R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of
(4) 1 : 4 the satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration
due to gravity at the earth's surface, is
Answer (3)
2mg0 R 2 mg0 R 2
1⎛ 2 2⎞ 2 (1)  (2)
⎜ mR ⎟  Rh 2(R  h )
Esphere 2 ⎝ 5 ⎠ 1
Sol.   mg 0 R 2
Ecylinder 1⎛ 1 ⎞ 5 2mg0 R 2
⎜ mR ⎟ (2)
2 2
(3)  (4)
2⎝2 ⎠ 2(R  h ) Rh

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

Answer (3) 159. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which
the heat capacity increases with temperature. One
GMm
Sol. Total energy =  of these is at 100°C, while the other one is at 0°C.
2r
If the two bodies are brought into contact, then
Here, r = R + h and GM = g0R2 assuming no heat loss, the final common
temperature is
mg0 R 2
 E (1) 0°C
2(R  h )
157. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (2) 50°C
(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done (3) More than 50°C
is 3 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of the
(4) Less than 50°C but greater than 0°C
liquid is
Answer (3)
(1) 8.0 Nm–1
Sol. Loss of heat by hot body = Gain of heat by cold body
(2) 0.250 Nm–1
Tc1 1  Tc2 2
(3) 0.125 Nm–1
Tc1  Tc2 ⇒ 1  2
(4) 0.2 Nm–1
Answer (3) 160. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in
10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that
Sol. W = 2(Af – Ai)T Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The
temperature of the body at the end of next
W
 T = 10 minutes will be
( Af  Ai )  2
(1) T
3  104 J
=
2[5  4  104  4  2  104 ] 7
(2) T
= 0.125 Nm–1 4

158. Three liquids of densities 1, 2 and 3 (with 1 > 2 3

> 3), having the same value of surface tension T, (3) T
2
rise to the same height in three identical capillaries.
The angles of contact 1, 2 and 3 obey 4
(4) T
3

(1)   1  2  3 
2 Answer (3)

 T1  T2 ⎛ T  T2 ⎞
(2)  1  2  3  0 Sol.  K⎜ 1  T0 ⎟
2 t ⎝ 2 ⎠

(3) 0  1  2  3 
2 3T  2T
 K (2.5T  T )
10

(4)  1  2  3  
2 T
  K (1.5)T
Answer (3) 10

2T cos  1
Sol. h  K=
r g 15
 r  cos (as T, h and r are constants)
   T x ⎛T  x ⎞
Now,  K⎜ T⎟
10 ⎝ 2 ⎠
1 < 2 < 3

 3T
Its rise so 0  1  2  3  Solving x 
2 2

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

161. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a Answer (3)

process described by the equation PV 3 = constant.
The heat capacity of the gas during this process is P kT
Sol. 
 m
3
(1) R (2) R
2 Pm
 
kT
5
(3) R (4) 2R 164. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of
2
a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has
Answer (1) negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled
Sol. PV3 = constant polytropic process with n = 3 down and released, it oscillates with a time period
of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the
R
C = Cv  time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value
1 n
of m in kg is
R R
=  9 3
r  1 1 n (1) (2)
16 4
R R
= 5   R
1 3 4 16
1 (3) (4)
3 3 9
162. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 °C and the
Answer (1)
room temperature is t1 °C. The amount of heat
delivered to the room for each joule of electrical
m
energy consumed ideally will be Sol. T1  3  2
K
t1  t2 t1
(1) t  273 (2) t  t m 1
1 1 2 Then, T2 = 5 = 2
K
t1  273 t2  273
(3) t1  t2 (4) t1  t2 3 m
Dividing, 
5 m 1
Answer (3)
9 m
Q2 1 
Sol. K   25 m 1
W t1
1
t2 9m + 9 = 25m
16m = 9
t W
Q2  2
t1  t2 9
m=
t2W 16
Q1  Q2  W  W
t1  t2 165. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the
same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe
t1W t1  273
= t t  t t L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be
1 2 1 2
(1) 4L (2) L
163. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The L
(3) 2L (4)
mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of 2
the following gives the density of the gas?
Answer (3)
P
(1) mkT (2) 3V 3V
(kT )
Sol. 2L  4L
1
Pm P
(3) (4)
(kT ) (kTV )  L1 = 2L

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

166. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have 1 1 1 1 3

frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to (1) k  k  k  k  2k
1 2 3 4
give beats. The number of beats produced per
second will be (2) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4
(1) 2 2
(3) k  (k1  k2  k3 )  2k 4
(2) 1 3

(3) 4 2 3 1
(4) k  k  k  k  k
(4) 3 1 2 3 4

Answer (1) Answer (4)

Sol. (n – 1) and (n + 1) suppose to form frequency n Sol. k1, k2 and k3 are in parallel so Arithmetic mean.

n and n will be at resonance k1  k2  k3

keq 
n – 1 and n  produce 1 beat 3
keq is in series with k4. So harmonic mean.
n + 1 and n  produce 1 beat
Number of beats formed are ‘2’. 2 1 1
  
k keq k4
167. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with
an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It experiences
2 3 1
a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole,   
k k1  k2  k3 k 4
if the dipole length is 2 cm, is
(1) 7 C 169. The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points
A and B in the given figure is
(2) 8 mC
(3) 2 mC
(4) 5 mC
(1) +9 V (2) –3 V
Answer (3)
(3) +3 V (4) +6 V
Sol.   PE sin 
Answer (1)
   qlE sin 
Sol.

 q 
lE sin  VA – VB = (2 × 2) + 3 + (2 × 1)
4 =4+3+2
=  2 mC
2  102  0.5  2  105 =9V
168. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation 170. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a
d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
materials having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb
k4 as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric consumes 500 W. The value of R is
material is to be used to have the same capacitance (1) 13  (2) 230 
C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is
(3) 46  (4) 26 
given by
Answer (4)

P 500
Sol. I    5A
V 100
Voltage across resistance R will be
230 – 100 = 130 V

130
R   26 
5

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

171. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a 174. Which of the following combinations should be
circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for
centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular communication?
coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of
(1) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 F
this coil of n turns will be
(2) R = 20 , L = 1.5 H, C = 35 F
(1) 2n2B (2) nB
(3) n2B (4) 2nB (3) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45 F

Answer (3) (4) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 F

0 I Answer (4)
Sol. B  , when made n turns radius becomes r '
2r
R
Sol. Better tuning means low bandwidth =
r L
n  2r '  2r ⇒ r ' 
n
175. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region
0 nI  I of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at
Now, B '   n 2 0  n 2B
2r ' 2r r
dB
172. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a a rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the
dt
uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium
state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region
Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then
new position is the e.m.f. generated is

2W W
(1) (2)
3 3 R R
1 2
3W
(3) 3W (4) r
2
dB 2
(1) – r in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
Answer (3) dt
Sol. W = PE(cos 1 – cos 2) (2) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
W = PE(cos 0 – cos 60°) r r
dB 2 dB 2
(3) – r in loop 1 and – r in loop 2
dt dt
PE
= r
2 dB
(4) – R 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
 PE = 2W
Answer (1)
 = PE sin  = 2W sin 60° = 3W
Sol. Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 1 is r2
173. An electron is moving in a circular path under the r
influence of a transverse magnetic field of dB 2
So emf in loop 1 is – r .
3.57 × 10–2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 1011 C/kg, dt
the frequency of revolution of the electron is Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 2 is zero
(1) 6.28 MHz (2) 1 GHz
So emf in loop 2 = 0
(3) 100 MHz (4) 62.8 MHz
176. The potential differences across the resistance,
Answer (2) capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and
100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power
qB 1.76  1011  3.57  102 factor of this circuit is
Sol. f = 
2m 2  3.14 (1) 1.0 (2) 0.4
= 109 Hz = 1 GHz (3) 0.5 (4) 0.8

27
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-BB)

Answer (4) 179. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5
(near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed
R VR 80 from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from
Sol. cos    
z V 802  (100 – 40)2 the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab
is
80
  0.8 (1) 16
100
(2) 8
177. A 100  resistance and a capacitor of 100 
(3) 10
reactance are connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the (4) 12
peak value of the displacement current is Answer (4)
(1) 11 2 A (2) 2.2 A Sol. d = (d1 + d2) 
= 1.5(5 + 3) = 12 cm
(3) 11 A (4) 4.4 A
180. The interference pattern is obtained with two
Answer (2)
coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
Sol. R = 100 , Xc = 100  interference pattern, the ratio
200 V 220 V Imax – Imin
Imax    2.2 A
100 100  Imax  Imin

178. Two identical glass (g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of will be

focal length f each are kept in contact. The space
between the two lenses is filled with water (w = 4/3). 2 n
(1)
The focal length of the combination is  n  12
(1) 3f / 4 (2) f / 3
n
(2)
(3) f (4) 4f / 3 n 1

Answer (1) 2 n
(3)
1 2 1 ⎛ 3⎞ n 1
Sol.  (g  1)  , ⎜ g  ⎟ , R  f
f R R ⎝ 2⎠
n
1 2 –2 2 (4)
f1 = –(w – 1) R  3R  3f
 n  12
Answer (3)
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
     –
feq f f f1 R R 3R I1
Sol. I  n
1 1 1 2 2
  
feq f f 3f
   
2 2
Imax  I1  I2 n  1 I2
1 2 2
 
feq f 3f
   
2 2
Imin  I1 – I2 n – 1 I2
1 4

feq 3f
Imax – Imin 4 n 2 n
3f  
feq  Imax  Imin 2(n  1) n  1
4

  

28