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8. A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. When connected to a 100 V
supply, the output is
A. 500 V
B. 20 V
C. 25 V
9. In the previous question, the secondary is connected to a 10 ohm load. The primary current is
A. 10 amps
B. 0.4 amps
C. 2 amps
11. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A flowing
through the secondary what is the efficiency?
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 85%
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B. it must have a synchronized 3 phase supply to operate
C. it rotates at a speed that is synchronized with the applied dc current
17. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator
18. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required is
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
21. An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400 Hz it must achieve a speed of
A. 6000 RPM
B. 8000 RPM
C. 12000 RPM
22. How many poles do a generator has if it rotates at 8000 RPM and produced a 400 Hz output
A. 6 poles
B. 8 poles
C. 12 poles
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B. on load
C. Either of the above
27. The series wound generator's terminal voltage will, when below saturation
A. increase with an increase in load
B. decrease with an increase in load
C. decrease with a decrease in rotational speed
32. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called
A. universal motor
B. an induction motor
C. a synchronous motor
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A. made from material having large hysteresis loop
B. made from material having narrow hysteresis loop
C. a squirrel cage type
A. Less maintenance, better power to weight ratio and output voltage, current and frequency are
controlled by GCU.
B. Frequent maintenance provides better output voltage, current and frequency with APU.
C. Continuous maintenance is required for better output voltage, current and frequency
43. In an inductive load, the current in the circuit __________ the circuit voltage by 90.
A. Lags
B. Leads
C. inphase
44. Which type of ac generator rotor construction is the best and state the advantages?
A. Cylindrical Rotor provides less windage losses, less susceptible to centrifugal forces and used
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for high speeds
B. Salient Pole Rotor provides high windage (drag) losses, has more number of poles(heavy) and used for
low speeds.
C. Squirrel cage Rotor provides stable and high speed with various load
47. Small type Induction motor uses another method of starting by using
A. Squirrel cage rotor.
B. Exciter voltage.
C. shaded pole induct
48. In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and armature current, the motor will
A. stop
B. change direction
C. continue to run in the same direction
49. Induction motor rotor is constructed with bars, which runs parallel to axis of rotation and the bars are
connected at each end by the end rings to allow
A. various paths of low resistance through the core material.
B. narrow paths of high resistance through the core material.
C. various paths of high impedance through the core material.
55. What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Steel Core
56. To supply a 24 volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio, the input required is
A. 120V
B. 4.8V
C. 24V
57. A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What value of load resistance would be
required to give a reflected impedance of 1000 ohms
A. 1 kohm
B. 4 kohm
C. 16 kohm
58. A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it's primary connected to 120VAC, if the secondary is connected
to a load with 1600 ohms resistance what is the current in the primary
A. 1 amp
B. 0.3 amps
C. 1.2 amps
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B. may only be used at the rated frequency or above
C. may only be used at the rated frequency or below
71. What is the potential between the neutral point and earth in a balanced load 3-phase generator?
A. Equal to line volts
B. Equal to phase volts
C. Zero volts
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B. for the same power output there is a weight reduction and the drive is constantly engaged
C. it can produce a greater power output
78. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current would
A. lead
B. lag
C. be in phase
80. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator
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A. rises to max in one direction, falls to zero and rises in the same direction
B. rises to max in one direction then falls to zero then rises to max in the opposite direction
C. rises to max in one direction and remains
83. In a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the neutral point and earth is
A. equal to line volts
B. equal to phase volts
C. zero volts
84. How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
87. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to
A. stop
B. run a 2/3 speed
C. run at the same speed
88. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously rated" motor
A. Flap drive actuator
B. Fuel pump motor
C. Cargo door actuator
91. An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would be
A. in series with the supply
B. in series with the field
C. in series with the armature
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A. the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields
B. a shifting of the MNA of the motor
C. a symptom of a weak field
100. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Solid core
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C. To measure resistance in the circuit.
102. What is ammeter used for?
A. To measure the emf's and potential differences
B. To measure the current flow
C. To measure the electron leakage
127. If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current would
A. lead
B. lag
C. in phase
128. On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is
A. DC
B. AC
C. pulsed
129. The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
A. the rotor
B. the stator
C. either the rotor or the stator
130. A frequency wild AC generator system has
A. variable voltage and frequency
B. variable frequency only
C. variable voltage only
131. A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required are
A. 6
B. 2
C. 3
132. In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used
A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations
B. to prevent voltage overshoot
C. to control output current
133. In a an AC motor, the rotation of the MNA
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A. is the same as the rotation of the armature
B. is opposite to the rotation of the armature
C. is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature
134. Form Factor for a sine wave AC output is
A. 0.707
B. 1.414
C. 1.1
135. If the supply to a DC shunts motor was reversed
A. it would rotate in the opposite direction
B. it would fail to run
C. it would rotate in the same direction
141. An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called
A. a universal motor
B. an induction motor
C. a synchronous motor
142. in a DC motor, B-EMF rises if the motor
A. speed rises
B. speed falls
C. load rises
155. What happens if you reverse the supply to the field and armature of a DC shunt motor?
A. Reverses direction of rotation
B. Continues to rotate in same direction
C. Fails to start
156. Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is
A. at operating speed
B. just starting to rotate
C. under heavy load
157. Which of the following applications would require a "continuously rated" motor
A. Flap drive actuator
B. Fuel pump motor
C. Cargo door actuator
158. Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to
A. stop
B. run a 2/3 speed
C. run at the same speed
166. A filter that passes all frequency component between some low cut-off frequency Fc1 , and some high
cut-off frequency fc2 and blocks all frequencies below fc1 and above fc2 is called
A. Band Stop filter
B. Band Pass Filter
C. Band Filter
167. Differentiator circuit (CR) consisting of Capacitor C, and Resistor R can be used for _________filter and
with the position of C and R changed into Integrator circuit (RC) it can be used as _______________filter.
A. High pass, low pass
B. Low pass, high pass
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C. Band pass, bandstop
172. A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer is delta / star wound, what will
the line voltage output be?
A. 115V
B. 200V
C. 346V
173. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load 24v 45 amps)
is used, what is the current drawn?
A. 205 amps
B. 9 amps
C. 4.5 amps
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174. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is
A. 1:6
B. 6:1
C. 1/6
176. In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual inductance will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
177. A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power will be
A. 28.5 V at 4 A
B. 28.5 V at 16 A
C. 460 V at 0.25 A
178. The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10 resistance. The primary coil has 1 k
resistance. How many turns does the primary coil have?
A. 15,000
B. 150,000
C. 1,500,000
179. In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the secondary winding?
A. Star only
B. Delta only
C. Either delta or star
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180. A step up transformer has
A. one winding
B. two windings
C. three windings
181. In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no load.
What is the core loss at full load?
A. 200 W
B. 220 W
C. 0 W
182. The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms and 1500 turns. For the primary
winding to have an impedance of 1 k ohm, how many turns must it have?
A. 15,000
B. 150,000
C. 1,500,000
184. 150. Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the loss will be
A. A.110 Watts
B. 440 Watts
C. 55 Watts
185. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?
A. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter
B. The transformer will get hot in normal operation
C. The output voltage will be high
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186. The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual
A. Reactance
B. Inductance
C. Capacitance
187. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
A. primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary
B. primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary
C. primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary
188. Why are the iron cores of most transformer coils laminated?
A. To reduce the effects of eddy currents
B. To increase the core permeability
C. To reduce the core reluctance
190. Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?
A. primary turns secondary turns
B. primary turns secondary turns
C. secondary turns primary turns
192. The voltage in a transformer secondary coil that contains twice as many loops as the primary coil will be
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A. less and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
B. greater and the amperage greater than in the primary coil
C. greater and the amperage less than in the primary coil
194. A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 26V output. What is the input
A. 120 V DC
B. 4.8 V AC
C. 130 V AC
197. A Transformer with 115v primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load 24v 45 amps)
is used, what is the current drawn?
A. 205 amps
B. 9 amps
C. 4.5 amps
198. A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is
A. 1:6
B. 6:1
C. 1/6
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199. A transformer is built with a material having a
A. narrow hysteresis loop
B. wide hysteresis loop
C. high coercive force
201. What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?
G. Combined line voltages
H. Zero voltage
I. Phase voltage
202. A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turn's ratio will have what primary supply?
A. 120 VDC
B. 48 VAC
C. 4.8 V
203. A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the secondary. What would be the
line voltage if the transformer were Delta/Star connected?
A. 200V
B. 346V
C. 450V
206. An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
A. Air core
B. Laminated core
C. Solid core
207. In a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the load on the secondary is 1600 Ohms.
What is the current in the primary?
A. 0.075A
B. 1.2A
C. 3A
208. A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285 A flowing
through the secondary what is the efficiency?
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 85%
A. one
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B. two
C. not mentioned
A. circuit breaker
B. fast switches
C. fuses
213. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down when
B. all circults
217. What is the meaning the number of separated switches controlled by a single physical actuator?
A. number of terminals
B. number of wires
C. number of poles
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218. How many pair of contacts a single-throw switch has?
A. two pairs
B. one pair
C. no pair
B. When the contacts are contacted to flow the currents, it called `open'
C. The terms of pole and throw are also used to describe switch contact variations.
A. two
B. one
C. three
C. Ideal switche has so accurate solution in circuit that it is used on large networks of switch
A. circuit breaker
B. toggle switch
C. capacitor
A. by rotating
B. by pusing
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C. by fliping
A. computer keyboard
B. bending machine
C. heating process
A. pressure
B. current
C. heat
A. current
B. frequency
C. voltage
A. momentary
B. toggle
C. microswitch
A. gap
B. contacts
C. diode
231. Which switch was 1 of the most popular type of switch in aircraft in the past few years?
A. Rotary switch
B. Toggle switch
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C. Rocker switch
A. Microswitch
B. AP switch
C. Rotary switch
A. Solenoid
B. Relay
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
237. The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be
A. higher than the phase voltage
B. lower than the phase voltage
C. the same as the phase voltage
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238. On a linear actuator, the field cut-off coil will be energized when
A. the actuator is running
B. the actuator is not running
C. only as the actuator commences movement
242. As the generator load is increases (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
A. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
B. decrease and the amperage output will increase
C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase
244. The exciter winding in a brushless AC generator is supplied with electrical power from
A. permanent magnets
B. the busbar
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C. a rotating generator integrally mounted on the same shaft as the AC windings
247. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?
A. Reduce field strength
B. Overcome armature reaction
C. Reduce arcing at the brushes
249. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type, with
each revolution of the rotor?
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
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251. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
A. remain relatively constant over the starting speed range
B. increase as the engine speed increases
C. decrease as the engine speed increases
256. Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services would
A. reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar
B. increase the current consumption from the bus-bar
C. not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage
A. Ground
B. Chassis Ground
C. Signal Ground
261. The value of the deflection on the galvanometer _____ directly as the velocity of relative motion of the
coil and the magnet
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No change
262. Inserting the North Pole of the magnet gives an opposite deflection to that when the ______ is inserted
A. North Pole
B. South Pole
C. No pole
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263. The use of a more powerful magnet gives a _____ deflection
A. Weaker
B. No change
C. Stronger
264. If the coil is replaced by one having a greater number of turns a _____ deflection is obtained.
A. Lesser
B. No change
C. Greater
265. To find the direction of the induced emf what rule is used?
A. Ohm's law
B. Flemming's right hand rule
C. Flemming's left hand rule
267. What is the rotating component, which carries the loops and commutator is called?
A. Rotor
B. Motor
C. Armature
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