Module 13 - Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems Sample Questions

Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems
Sample Questions
Module 13
Aircraft Aerodynamics,
Structures and Systems
1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed
b) decrease take off speed
# c) decrease landing speed
2. Lowering of the flaps

# a) increases drag and lift
b) increases drag
c) increases lift
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal

# a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing
4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

a) Check of aircraft structure
b) Bonding and insulation tests
# c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
5. What do ruddervators do?

# a) Control pitch and yaw
b) Control pitch and roll
c) Control yaw and roll
6. On a helicopter what is dragging?

a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges
# b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
# c) Elevons
8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

# a) an internal doubler
b) external doubler
c) an intercostals
9. What does a trim tab do?

# a) Eases control loading for pilot
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Sample Questions
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot
Page 1 - Mod 13
10. How does a balance tab move?
a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
b) In the same direction a small amount
# c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
11. Satellite transmits updates on every

a) 13th orbit
b) 9th orbit
# c) 2nd orbit
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a) DC bus
# b) AC bus
c) GND services
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a) modulator and power amp
# b) local oscillator and modulator
c) local oscillator and demodulator
14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer

points to
a) 0
b) 090
# c) 180
15. What is power at pulse?

# a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power
c) Average power
16. What frequency increases radar relative range

a) high
# b) low
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change
17. If radar pulse is reduced there is

a) increased relative range
b) reduced relative range
# c) no effect
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Sample Questions
18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,
resistance would be
# a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm
Page 2 - Mod 13
19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
# c) 12 foot error
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a) widest width
b) narrowest width
# c) number of joints and bends
21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?

# a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between legs
22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

# a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust
23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

# a) Pfifer damper
b) Swashplate
c) Scissor levers
24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

# a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio
25. Relative velocity of rotor

# a) increases at fwd travelling blade
b) increases at retreating blade
c) is equal for all blades
26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating

ceiling?
a) Increase
# b) Decrease
c) No effect
27. How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8
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Sample Questions
# b) 4
c) 6 90o apart
Page 3 - Mod 13
28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently
low. Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water
b) replacing
# c) recharging
29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

# a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut down
30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees
# b) 15 degrees
c) 10 degrees
31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a
single failure
32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a) QDH
# b) QDM
c) QDR
33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros
# b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
a) roll errors
b) localiser deviation errors
# c) heading errors
35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
# c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power
setting
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Sample Questions
36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when autopilot is engaged
# b) after glideslope capture
c) at any time
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37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known
as the
# a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200 meters
39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
# c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing

equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
# b) no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

a) assist the aerodynamic response
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
# c) block the Dutch roll frequency
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system

will disconnect
a) all channels
# b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal
# c) integrating course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot

modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
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Sample Questions
# b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM
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45. Which modes are incompatible
a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
# b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
c) HDG + V/S HOLD
46. To carry out an autopilot check first

a) switch off all power
# b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
c) switch on NAV receivers
47. FAIL PASSIVE means

a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system
# b) system self monitors, failure does affect system
c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue
autoland
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft
would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
# c) fly parallel to the beam
49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system

are laid down in
# a) JAR AWO
b) CAIPs
c) BCARs
50. VOR capture can be determined by

a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the
selected radial
b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error
and radio deviation signals
# c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from
the selected radial
51. Versine is generated by

a) torque receiver synchros
# b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers
52. Automatic trim is used to

a) maintain level flight
# b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
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Sample Questions
c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
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53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by
a) measured radio deviation
# b) rate of change of radio deviation
c) rate of change of course
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
# b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions
engagement
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level
flight when the autopilot is engaged
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are
used for
# a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations
56. The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel
# b) pressing a button on thrust levers
c) making a selection on the mode control panel
57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode

a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
# c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
58. To know the valid data base on the FMS

a) perform a BITE check
# b) call up the relevant page on the CDU
c) call up the relevant current status
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

a) yaw rate gyro signals
# b) aileron to rudder crossfeed
c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
60. A yaw damper system operates on

a) all yaw frequencies
b) only mid range frequencies
# c) low range frequencies
61. A GCR will trip if what is detected?
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Sample Questions
a) Under frequency and over frequency
b) Over frequency and under current
# c) Over current and over frequency
Page 7 - Mod 13
62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?
a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
# c) 50 ohms
63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar
receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
# b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts
64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator

# a) the resistor is in series with the field
b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage coil
65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of
emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft
a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
# b) JAR OPS (M)
c) Maintenance Manual
66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/
shut off
# c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can
be fixed
67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?
a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
# c) 140 degrees
68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be

bedded first, this can be done
# a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the
bench
c) at the manufacturers only
69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative
density of a lead acid battery?
# a) The temperature
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Sample Questions
b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity
Page 8 - Mod 13
70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided
# a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
c) to prevent the wire from chafing
71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

a) the use of special conductive paint
# b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-conducting grease
72. An elevator tab moves down

# a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
b) to make the nose go down
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

# a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same
c) any single cell as all the others will be the same
74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or -

feet
a) 400ft
b) 160ft
# c) 80ft
75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by
using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control
surfaces
# b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed
and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
# b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
77. What type of memory do CMCs have?

a) Volatile
# b) Non-volatile
c) Hard
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Sample Questions
78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for CofG
# b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
Page 9 - Mod 13
79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
# a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
80. The stall margin is controlled by

a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
# c) angle of attack and flap position
81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

a) only with the Flight Director selected
b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System
(DFCS) engaged
# c) only after take off
82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of

a) electronic engine control unit only
# b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
83. A FADEC system does not have the following system?

a) An automatic starting capability
b) Control of thrust reverser operation
# c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
# b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold
85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know
as the
# a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
86. The ICAO weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
# c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200m
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Sample Questions
Page 10 - Mod 13
87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of
# a) 15 m
b) 60 m
c) 0 m
88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
# b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide
path signals
89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal
accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
# b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8
90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III
# c) ILS system must be working
91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle

system is
# a) mandatory
b) a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

a) automatically
# b) by a selector on the throttle control panel
c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum
93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

a) 300 ft
b) the decrab phase
# c) start of flare phase
94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when the autopilot is engaged
# b) at any time after autoland has been engaged
c) at any time
95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been
initiated after the selection of autoland
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Sample Questions
a) ILS localiser an IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
# c) IAS and steering or heading
Page 11 - Mod 13
96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
# c) increase speed and rotate nose up
97. V NAV can be selected

a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D selected
# c) only if A/T selected
98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) system degrade to CAT II
b) autoland is continued
# c) go-around is initiated
99. The order of autoland approach is

# a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

a) assist with localiser tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
# c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
# c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of
signal failure
102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

a) is increased as the aircraft descends
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
# c) is decreased as the aircraft descends
103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros
# b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

a) fail passive
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Sample Questions
# b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
Page 12 - Mod 13
105. on touchdown, auto pilot
a) remains engaged ready for G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
# c) disconnects after a short time
106. When will the decision height aural warning sound

a) at D.H.
# b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.
107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system
# b)the runway localiser
c) the airfield marker beacon
108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from

# a) radio altimeter
b) the glide slope receiver
c) the localiser receiver
109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

# a) fail passive
b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will

a) produce a significant out of trim condition
# b) produce no significant out of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a

a) simplex system
# b) duplex system
c) dual-dual system
112. The two parameters used for category classification are

a) radio height/runway visual range
b) localiser and glideslope
# c) decision height and runway visual range
113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

a) Decision height
# b) Radio altimeter
c) Glideslope signal
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Sample Questions
Page 13 - Mod 13
114. CAT-3b allows
a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
# b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the
order of 50 meters
115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
# b) continue to control after any first fault
c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim
116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

# a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias
c) No signal
117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?

a) Ailerons
b) Throttles
# c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals
118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents

a) distance to go
# b) ground speed and distance to go
c) take off speed and distance to go
119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
120. Versine is used in which channel?

# a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
# b) decreased
c) is the same
122. A Master Warning is issued when

# a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
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Sample Questions
c) engine fire and generator trip occurs
Page 14 - Mod 13
123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is
# a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms
124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors
# b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead
c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead
125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by

# a) low spring tension
b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on

HIRF installations?
# a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections

which are open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
# c) Leave the terminals open circuit
128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
# b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will

totally disconnect if it is a
a) Triplex system
# b) Duplex system
c) Simplex system
130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk

of high potential differences would be
# a) painted in a conductive paint
b) painted in a non-conductive paint
c) bonded to the primary structure
131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
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Sample Questions
# a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively
Page 15 - Mod 13
132. TAS uses which inputs
a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
# c) Mach and Temp
133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
# c) Either side of the Fuselage
134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
# a) Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same
135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
# c) remains in the previous position
136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

# a) poor channel selectivity
b) poor audio output
c) poor volume output
137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use

which inputs to issue a warning?
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
# b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
c) A low range altimeter and GPS
138. Alert Height is when

a) a decision of whether to land is made
# b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the ground proximity is made
139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?

a) Placards in the cockpit
# b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
c) Crew retraining
140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was
found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
# b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
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Sample Questions
c) a leak test is never required
Page 16 - Mod 13
141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of
# a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090 MHz
142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried

out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus
a) 1 degree
# b) 3 degree
c) 5 degree
143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

a) 000
# b) 045
c) 090
144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced

a) DC generators
# b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators
145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

# a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps
146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of

a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
# c) 50 degree
147. Stall warning will be given at speeds

# a) that are higher than stall speed
b) that are lower than stall speed
c) at the actual stall speed
148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground
staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
# b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) Flashing the landing light
149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at

# a) 1500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 3500 ft
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Sample Questions
Page 17 - Mod 13
150. FADEC system gets its power supply from
a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated
Generator
# b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated
Generator
c) emergency Batt bus
151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

# a) excessive charging current
b) insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage
152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to

# a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
c) both a & b
153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a

a) green colour
# b) yellow colour
c) red colour
154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is

a) 131.55
# b) 121.5
c) 118.00
155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out

a) on the ground only
# b) continuously when the systems are working
c) only in the air
156. The electrical A/H has a movement of

a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
# c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch
157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to

# a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power
b) remove/disconnect electrical power
c) pull the appropriate CB
158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in

a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
# c) JAR OPS
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Sample Questions
Page 18 - Mod 13
159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what
is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
# b) 120 nm
c) 140 nm
160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
# b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

# a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator
162. The units of vibration are measured in

a) phons
b) decibels
# c) relative amplitude
163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for

a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
# c) cannot be adjusted
164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

# a) true north and magnetic north
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) the compass north and magnetic north
165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive

a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
# c) rate of descent
166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address

a) 12
# b) 24
c) 36
167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

# a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed
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Sample Questions
Page 19 - Mod 13
168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of
# a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship
169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
# b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

# a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency
c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency
171. During flare mode autothrottle will

# a) retard throttles to idle
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust
172. A CSD is monitored for

a) low temp and high oil pressure
# b) high temp and low oil pressure
c) high temp and high oil pressure
173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the
reward travelling blades pitch angle?
# a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change
174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
# c) it is centralized by the airflow
175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?

a) 115v ac
b) 200v ac
# c) High voltage stepped up
176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
# a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale
Page 20
Sample Questions
Page 20 - Mod 13
177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
a) increase capacitive reactance
# b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
178. Float fuel gauge system is

a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) adjusted when tanks are empty
179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

# a) bulkheads
b) longerons
c) frame
180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by

# a) excessive electrical loading
b) high charge current
c) low charge current
181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.

a) This is normal
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
# c) You would adjust the Tx
182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would

carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
# b) damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after
charging shows substantially lower value.
# a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell
184. Suppressor line is required for

a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
# c) all L band equipments including TCAS
185. Differential GPS requires

a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
# c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters
Page 21
Sample Questions
Page 21 - Mod 13
186. GPS has
a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
# b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
187. When the captain calls attendant

# a) a high low chine and pink light comes on
b) a low chine and blue light comes on
c) a high chine and pink light comes on
188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received

a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
# c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
# b) the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected
190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost

a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift
# b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle
191. IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
# b) voltage is regulated by GCU
c) voltage is regulated by IDG
192. The over-station sensor is activated by

a) radio deviation signal
# b) rate of radio deviation signal
c) deviation and course error
193. When moving the control column

# a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal
b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal
Page 22
Sample Questions
Page 22 - Mod 13
194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown
a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail

plane down force
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
# c) there is an increased tailplane down-force
195. Equivalent airspeed is

a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE
b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
# c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

# a) after reverse thrust is applied
b) after affixed period of the time after landing
c) manually after landing
197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?

# a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll
b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll
198. Acceleration error produces

a) a false indication of left bank
b) a false indication of right bank
# c) a false indication of climb
199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through

a) the centre of rotor disc
# b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral
axis
c) a line parallel to rotor axis
200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100

a) Door
# b) Left wing
c) Right wing
Page 23
Sample Questions
Page 23 - Mod 13
201. Shock stall
a) is a flap down stall
# b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds
202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

a) flapping
b) dragging
# c) centrifugal force
203. During a left turn

a) left rudder to be used
b) right rudder to be used
# c) ball is to be maintained in centre turn and slip indicator
204. Align light flashes during alignment

# a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off fore
b) It is attracting operators attention
c) It is indicating progress of alignment
205. During decent with power on in a helicopter

a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
# b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter
206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire system
# a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures

a) specific gravity of fuel
# b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity
208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC
coupling?entrifugal force
a) Heading and Deviation
# b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled

by
# a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) SPCU
Page 24
Sample Questions
Page 24 - Mod 13
210. As you approach supersonic
# a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced
211. Range resolution is obtained by

a) High PRF
# b) Shorter pulse width
c) Shorter beam width
212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by

# a) Larger pulse width
b) Larger beam width
c) Larger frequency
213. When the trailing edge flap is extended

a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to
nose up
b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change
# c) CP move rearward
214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails

a) Auto throttle disengages
# b) Throttle hold is annunciated
c) Fail light illuminates
215. Flight director command bars indicate

# a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Direction in which the beacon is
216. Mode S has

a) 12 address bits
# b) 24 address bits
c) 36 address bits
217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable

phases are
a) In phase
b) Opposite phase
# c) Phase quadrature
218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is

# a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft
c) 500 ft
Page 25
Sample Questions
Page 25 - Mod 13
219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable
and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
# c) 9 inch
220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

a) tester reads zero
# b) tester reads full scale
c) tester would be zero centred
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
# b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic

conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and
main earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm
# c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is
less
223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists

# a) longitudinal stability
b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability
224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central
Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
# a) it must be installed on LH side
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side
225. Main electric trim is controlled by

# a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
c) a wheel on the center pedastal
226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
# b) lower mach number
c) not effected
Page 26
Sample Questions
Page 26 - Mod 13
227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective
# a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place
228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is
leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
# b) indicate decent
c) not be affected
229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check,

which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?
a) ASI
# b) VSI
c) Altimeter
230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

# a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
c) It may be rotated either direction
231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized

by
a) Having filters in power supply lines
b) Separating the affected and affecting cables
# c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit
232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted
in aligning the aircraft is
a) 1 degree
# b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict,
which aircraft changes the decision?
# a) The one with the higher address
b) The one with the smaller address
c) Neither changes the decision
234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?

# a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%
Page 27
Sample Questions
Page 27 - Mod 13
235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement
of the cockpit control is prevented by
a) synchros attached to the control
# b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
c) a lock on the cockpit control
236. Helicopter blades are

a) highly cambered
b) reverse cambered
# c) Symmetrical
237. GPS antenna is

a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
# c) circular polarized
238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is

a) to the left
b) to the right
# c) in the centre
239. An autopilot computer

# a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
240. What type of flap is this?
# a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap
241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to

a) transmit motion
# b) reverse direction and transmit motion
c) adjust friction
242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by

means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
# a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimise power losses
Page 28
Sample Questions
Page 28 - Mod 13
243. DH is based on
a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
# c) RVR transmitted by ATC
244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is

corrected by
a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b) mercury switches on the outer ring
# c) flux valve slaving
245. Index error is

a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P
# c) misalignment of compass lubber line
246. Helicopter derives its lift from

# a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
c) air is pushed downward
247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

a) rigid rotor
# b) semi rigid rotor
c) fully articulated rotor
248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
b) to amplify the RF signal
# c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers
249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position
b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
# c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives

a) excessive ground clutter
# b) no signal
c) excess signals
251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
# b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
Page 29
Sample Questions
Page 29 - Mod 13
252. Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
# b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
253. Spring Tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
# b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

# a) 20 degrees per second
b) 30 degrees per second
c) 15 degrees per second
255. Omega ground stations

# a) transmit pulses of CW
b) carrier modulated by three audio tones
c) series of CW
256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set
# a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure
257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in
contact
a) before the primary stops
# b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops
258. EICAS indicates

# a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and aircraft status
259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right

# a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in
another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
260. Magnetic heading errors will be

# a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
Page 30
Sample Questions
Page 30 - Mod 13
261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
# b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north
262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

# a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC

a) records all faults in volatile memory
# b) records all faults in non-volatile memory
c) all memory is erased when aircraft lands
264. A helicopter autopilot uses

# a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
# a) Radio deviation
b) Glideslope deviation
c) Course deviation
266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in

correct sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
# b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
# b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
# a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
Page 31
Sample Questions
Page 31 - Mod 13
269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from
above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the
helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
# b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
270. A spring balance control system you

# a) can move the control surface on the ground
b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) cannot move the control surface on the ground
271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?

a) To prevent corrosion
# b) To prevent precipitation static
c) To provide lightning protection
272. What is a versine signal attenuated with?

a) Increase in airspeed
# b) Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude
273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you
do with the control switch? Select it to
a) OFF
# b) AM
c) either USB or LSB
274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
# b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
# b) FROM
c) Neither
276. What does the Radar contour button do?

a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
# c) Alter the video amplifier
Page 32 - Mod 13
Page 32
Sample Questions
277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
# b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?

a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
# c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
279. What controls are used in response to PVD display?

# a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit
280. DME transponder transmits on receipt

a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command request
# c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P

# a) does not move
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
c) is insignificant
282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is

a) 16ft
b) 12ft
# c) 28ft
283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits
b) 64bits
# c) 24bits
284. The rotor cone is formed by

a) blade alignment
# b) centrifugal force and lift
c) centrifugal force only
285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path

a) balance
b) restore
# c) align
Page 33 - Mod 13
Page 33
Sample Questions
286. Artificial feel is gained by using a
a) hydraulic damper
# b) spring bias unit
c) 'feel' generator
287. The ground run monitor presents information

# a) of distance to go and ground speed
b) duration of ground run
c) angle of crosstrack on ground
288. A mode C transponder

# a) can be used for TCAS
b) cannot be used for TCAS
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only
289. The audio select panel allows the crew to

a) transmit on one channel, listen on one
# b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others
290. The crew select DH on

a) the altimeter
b) the DH annunciator panel
# c) the rad alt display
291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should
consider
a) power requirements
# b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables
292. GPS has

# a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9
293. Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows voice ident of DME
# b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident
294. GPS frequency is

a) 1575 GHz
# b) 1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz
Page 34 - Mod 13
Page 34
Sample Questions
295. Radio switches are normally
# a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft

# a) systems is disabled
b) no traffic will be shown
c) all traffic produces aural alert
297. Mode S pulses. Which are used?

a) F1,F2,F4,F5
# b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2
298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

a) it amplifies output stages
# b) it improves signal to noise ratio
c) it couples noise factors
299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
# c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units
300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving

a) one moving in direction of relative air flow
b) highest blade
# c) one moving forward into relative airflow
301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
# b) speed decrease
c) height decrease
302. Back beam is captured

# a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
303. With a bonding meter

# a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead
to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
c) it does not matter which lead goes where
Page 35 - Mod 13
Page 35
Sample Questions
304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b) lower
# c) higher or lower
305. Flight director incompatible modes are

# a) VOR and glideslope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold
306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm
# b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm
307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

a) c/a code only
# b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only
308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a

helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
b) design of engine and gearbox supports
# c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

a) rad alt to barometric
# b) rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
310. on power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position
# b) longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position
311. Krueger flaps make up part of the

a) wing upper surface leading edge
b) wing lower surface trailing edge
# c) wing lower surface leading edge
312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

# a) control column
b) flight control panel
c) behind thrust levers
Page 36 - Mod 13
Page 36
Sample Questions
313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as
# a) apparent A
b) real A
c) true A
314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in

a) BCARs
# b) JAR OPS subpart M
c) maintenance manual
315. Carbon microphones require

# a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) no supply
316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with

a) FM
# b) phase drift keying
c) Manchester code
317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable

a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not
combined
b) flights must not continue after four days
# c) flights must not continue after 72 hours
318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

a) +/- 35 degrees
b) +/-40 degrees
# c) +/-60 degrees
319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to

aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
a) 30 degrees
# b) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
# c) earth primary conductors
321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
# b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
Page 37 - Mod 13
Page 37
Sample Questions
322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is
a) the y code
b) the p code
# c) the c/a code
323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video
amplifier should be for good pulse shape are
a) wide and narrow
# b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide
324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost

a) the aircraft flies in a circle
# b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle
325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires

a) pitot only
b) static only
# c) pitot and static
326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply
corrective rudder to
# a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance
327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance
b) attitude of aircraft
# c) rate of yaw
328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed

a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
# c) to assist the up going aileron
329. Glideslope deviation signals are

# a) DC polarity sensitive
b) AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only
330. A triplex system loses one channel

# a) pilot can continue with autoland
b) pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land
Page 38 - Mod 13
Page 38
Sample Questions
331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b) 50% authority
# c) 10% authority
332. Stall warning will be given

# a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall
333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central

maintenance function (CMF) is to
# a) log relevant maintenance data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
334. How are spoilers normally operated?

# a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to

permit the
# a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude
without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel
system forces
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause

a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
# c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are
paralleled
337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline

battery
a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged
# c) in the charging room only
338. When removing the load from a current transformer

# a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal
c) leave the terminals open
Page 39 - Mod 13
Page 39
Sample Questions
339. Wing steady light must be visible through
a) 70 degrees
# b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees
340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins

a) a and b
b) c and d
# c) e and f
341. When paralleling two AC generators

a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on
in sequence ABC
# b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in
either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase
342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that

# a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the
stabiliser
b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to

a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
# c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals
# c) integrating course error signals
345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC

ratiometer would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid scale
# c) the pointer to read full scale
346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to

# a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
Page 40 - Mod 13
Page 40
Sample Questions
347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
# b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
# b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
349. The glideslope equipment operates in the

a) HF band
# b) UHF band
c) VHF band
350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
# b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the
navigation receiver are
# a) DC
b) AC
c) pulsed DC
352. Fuel quantity test set consists of

a) resistance decade
# b) capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
353. EICAS provides the following

a) engine parameters
# b) engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when

# a) the flaps are moving down
b) the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
# b) passive
c) simplex
Page 41 - Mod 13
Page 41
Sample Questions
356. DSR TK (desired track) means
a) the bearing to capture the track
# b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way
points
c) distance left or right from desired track
357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from

# a) the barometric alt capsule
b) a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is

a) FM Modulated
# b) AM Modulated
c) modulated with a 9960Hz
359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
# a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS
360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the

audio would relate to the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
# c) rate of frequency change
361. The normal axis on a helicopter is

# a) straight down the rotor head
b) at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head
362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used

# a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
b) make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume
363. A GPS aerial is polarised

a) vertically
b) horizontally
# c) right hand circular
364. Mach trim threshold are set by the

a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
# c) manufacture
Page 42 - Mod 13
Page 42
Sample Questions
365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to
a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
# c) stop moisture entering the wave guide
366. An RMI requires the following inputs:

# a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only
367. The versine signal is used in the

# a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel only
c) pitch and roll channel
368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall.
This is called
# a) transient droop
b) static droop
c) under swing
369. Loran C Uses

a) 16 KHz
b) 20 Mhz
# c) 100 Khz
370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is

a) 50% of control movement
# b) 10% of control movement
c) full control movement
371. GPS Telemetry consists of

a) week number and time label
# b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information
372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at

maximum flap at
# a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o
373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by

a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
# b) JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
Page 43 - Mod 13
Page 43
Sample Questions
374. The rotor disc is
# a) the distance between tip to tip
b) the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
375. A DME is in auto stand by when

a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
# b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting
376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90 o What

is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b) 0o
# c) 180o
377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal
is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
# b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are

# a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are

a) not less than 100 ft.
# b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.
380. When GA is initiated?

a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level
b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the
throttles
# c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
# a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by

# a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
Page 44 - Mod 13
Page 44
Sample Questions
283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
# b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will

a) disconnect all channels
# b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual
approach
285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will

# a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.
386. Roll out mode occurs

# a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height
287. High and low signal to voter are

# a) average
b) removed
c) added
388. Basic monitoring is function of

a) voting
# b) signal comparison
c) signal summing
389. In series rudder system

a) the pilot cannot input to the system
# b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input
390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that

a) the indicator is not serviceable
# b) the control system is out of trim
c) the system is trimmed
391. in parallel rudder system,

a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
# b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
Page 45 - Mod 13
Page 45
Sample Questions
292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel
amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b) DC
# c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
393. An increase in mach number will cause the

# a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail
plane
b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail
plane
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
394. If one FMS fails in a duel system

a) system operation will not be affected
# b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS

# a) use database loader
b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU
396. To know the valid database on FMS

a) perform bite check
# b) call up relevant page on CDU
c) call up relevant current status
397. Magnetic heading errors will be

# a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading
# b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north
399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

# a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
400. A helicopter autopilot uses

# a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
Page 46 - Mod 13
Page 46
Sample Questions
401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
a) Height Deviation
# b) Radio deviation
c) Course deviation
402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct

sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
# b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
# b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
# a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above

where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter
backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
# b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are

# a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift
407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

# a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque
rotor
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control
408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
# b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
Page 47 - Mod 13
Page 47
Sample Questions
409. What does the Radar contour button do?
a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
# c) Alter the video amplifier
410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
# b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
411. With a spring balance control system you can

# a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground
412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

# a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
413. Alert Height is when

# a) a decision of whether to land is made
b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
# c) remains in the previous position
415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
416. Versine is used in which channel?

# a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw

# a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip occurs
Page 48 - Mod 13
Page 48
Sample Questions
418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on
HIRF installations?
# a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
# b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030

relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) 030
# b) 060
c) 090
421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?

a) 12,000ft
b) 5,000ft
# c) 18,000ft
422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the
aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
# a) Left Rudder
b) Right Rudder
c) No Rudder
423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what
will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
# c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the
surface
424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

# a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?

# a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning
Page 49 - Mod 13
Page 49
Sample Questions
426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
a) nose up
# b) go one wing down
c) nose down
427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the

localiser signal?
# a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation

a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
# b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots
instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
# b) Amber
c) White
430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?

a) FM
b) Pulse
# c) FM and Pulse
431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
# c) They Disappear out of view
432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?

# a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral
433. The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabiliser
# b) elevator
c) spoilers
434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes

# a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move
up
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
Page 50 - Mod 13
Page 50
Sample Questions
435. What are ground spoilers used for?
# a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft
436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in
this command?
# a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals
437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?

# a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi
438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable

you must
# a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but
larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead
439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the
current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
# b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG
440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

a) 0.5
# b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000
441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?

# a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber
442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

# a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag
443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it

have?
# a) 10% approximately
b) 100%
c) 50%
Page 51 - Mod 13
Page 51
Sample Questions
444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
a) Polarity sensitive AC
# b) Polarity sensitive DC
c) Either
445. What does an INS calculate on power up?

a) Last Known Longitude
# b) Last Known Latitude
c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude
446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a

helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
# b) The cyclic lever will not move
c) The flight director bars only will move
447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system
pages?
# a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?

# a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position
449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?

a) 62
# b) 42
c) 20
450. When using a bonding tester you

# a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points
b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points
c) use either leads for the testing
451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?

# a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades
c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?

a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
# c) Pressure changes
Page 52 - Mod 13
Page 52
Sample Questions
453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens
when the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface
# c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control

surfaces?
# a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection
455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of

Vertical Speed by
a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
# b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer
456. What is the glide slope frequency range?

a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
# c) 329 - 335 Mhz
457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
# b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in

# a) increase in lift without an increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed
459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?

a) Bell sound
# b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound
460. What is a slot used for?

# a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach
c) Increase the speed of the airflow
461. ADF is
a) Rho
# b) Theta
c) Rho-Theta
Page 53 - Mod 13
Page 53
Sample Questions
462. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
# b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and

# a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
464. If cyclic is moved to the right

a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
# b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system

a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
# c) 100 KHz
466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of

attack had an aileron going down?
a) Decrease stall speed
# b) Increase stall speed
c) Have no effect on the stall speed
467. A high lift device is used for

# a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only
468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load

bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
# b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer
469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

# a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission
b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area
470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

a) 100
b) 50
# c) 20
Page 54 - Mod 13
Page 54
Sample Questions
471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?
a) Material of the coil
# b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle
472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the

helicopter would
a) roll back to the horizontal
# b) continue to roll further
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to
473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?

# a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator
474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?

a) To enable vowels to be heard better
# b) To enable consonants to be heard better
c) To enable numbers to be heard better
475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

# a) underswing
b) overswing
c) a hole in one
476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same
level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
# c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected

a) by replacing capacitance probes
# b) in parallel with capacitance probes
c) in series with capacitance probes
478. What is aileron droop?

a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
b) One aileron lowered
# c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator

controlled?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
# c) By a swashplate
Page 55- Mod 13
Page 55
Sample Questions
480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?
a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
# b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of
rotation
481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is

# a) semi rigid
b) rigid
c) fully articulating
482. Earths atmosphere is

# a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
483. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
# b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a

compass?
# a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature
c) Press relief valve
485. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the

structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
# c) inner plate
486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse

frequency?
# a) 60
b) 63
c) 1000
487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

# a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position
488. TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
# b) 24 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
Page 56 - Mod 13
Page 56
Sample Questions
489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a
a) servomotor
# b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman
490. FMC changes movement via

a) A/P actuator
# b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator
491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors

# a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC
492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

# a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency
493. What is lapse rate?

a) Pressure changes with altitude
# b) Temperature changes with altitude
c) Density changes with altitude
494. In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the

# a) sidebands only
b) carrier only
c) sidebands and carrier equally
495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a

battery?
a) The outside temperature
# b) Electrolyte temperature
c) Charge state of the battery
496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
# c) Elevator up, right aileron down
497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?

# a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case
c) Instrument case
Page 53 - Mod 13
Page 57
Sample Questions
498. DC power into the GCU comes from
# a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service
499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

a) 1 capsule
# b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the
control surface will
# a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place
501. Spring tabs

a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
# a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the

a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
# c) longitudinal axis
504. LOC signal modulation is

a) 50 %
# b) 20 %
c) 10 %
505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter
would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
# c) come back to level flight
506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
# a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI
Page 58 - Mod 13
Page 58
Sample Questions
507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
# b) increase
c) remain the same

# a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & trip occurs
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
# b) Elevons
c) Ailerons
510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine

generator give?
# a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
# b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?

# a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?

# a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation
514. What does a vibration type sensor measure?

a) Maximum deflection
# b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing
515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock
circuit?
a) A and B
b) B and C
# c) E and F
Page 53 - Mod 13
Page 59
Sample Questions
516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
# a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
c) Piston and oil
517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as

# a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C
518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen
to the precession?
# a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected
c) Decrease
519. A 'q' feel system supplies

a) aerodynamic damping
# b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
520. ADF operates within which frequencies?

# a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz
521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?

# a) Roll out
b) Flare
c) Touchdown
522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
# c) CRZ
523. Mode C response is

a) 21microseconds
# b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds
524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude

reporting system?
# a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary
c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table
Page 60 - Mod 13
Page 60
Sample Questions
525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by
a) climb
b) descent
# c) roll
526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires

# a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites
527. The term `circling current' refers to

# a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators
528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and

you only have one to dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it?
# a) LH side
b) RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
# c) aircraft flies in circles
530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via

the
a) IDG
b) CSD
# c) swash plate
531. WX radar display the time base is

# a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form
532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost,
following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
# b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is

# a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal
Page 61 - Mod 13
Page 61
Sample Questions
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim
# a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude
indicator
535. If the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in value, the

resonant frequency
a) remains the same
# b) decreases
c) increases
536. When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth

# a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director

computer is
# a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure
538. In audio clipping

a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
# b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels
539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

# a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) no attenuation but amplification
540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
# a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected

dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b) 200 ohms
# c) more than 20 mega ohms
542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect

# a) ADI
b) Flight director computer
c) both of the above
Page 62 - Mod 13
Page 62
Sample Questions
543. A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
# b) a system which monitors time period of components in service
and warns of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade
544. When the flaps are lowered

a) the lift vector moves forward
# b) the lift vector moves rearward
c) there is no effect on the lift vector
545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a

# a) large increase in lift and drag
b) small increase in lift and drag
c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag
546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a

long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected
# a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)
b) between the aerial and ATU
c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)
547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim
indicator will indicate
# a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum
548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually

# a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise
549. with no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit

a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive
# c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive
550. MLS azimuth range is

a) +/- 30
# b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62
551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI

indicates
a) 90
# b) 180
c) 0
Page 63 - Mod 13
Page 63
Sample Questions
552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
# a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236

microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant
range to the station?
# a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles
554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
# a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5
555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?

a) 2-30 MHz
# b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals

a) above the carrier signal
b) below the carrier signal
# c) No sidebands present
557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning

a) would initiate a Go Around
# b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only
558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

# a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying

pressure
# a) to the control wheel
b) to the control column
c) to the rudder pedals
Page 64 - Mod 13
Page 64
Sample Questions
560. On a modern aircraft about to stall
# a) the outboard slats extend automatically
b) engine power increases automatically
c) the flaps retract automatically
561. Wing can spoilers be used?

a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
# b) As ground spoilers on landing
c) To assist the elevators
562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder

a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
# b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
563. Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
# c) yaw and roll simultaneously
564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the
vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
# b) will move down
c) will not move
565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to

a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
# c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out
and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
# b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
at any one heading only
567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
# b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
Page 65 - Mod 13
Page 65
Sample Questions
568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
# b) residual error
c) index error
569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with

cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error
# b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
570. Versine signal is governed by

# a) roll
b) pitch
c) yaw
571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed
by
a) 4%
# b) 7%
c) 10.321%
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical
cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
# b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is
carried out with
# a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

# a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor
575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight

control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
# c) droop
576. Radar beamwidth improves

a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
# c) bearing resolution
Page 66 - Mod 13
Page 66
Sample Questions
577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output
voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
# c) 460V
578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2

inches dia. This is the
a) opening dia. of pitot head
b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates
# c) external dia of pitot head
579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication

# a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
b) it does not have any adjustment
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments
580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset

potentiometer is fitted
# a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
c) in series with the generator output
581. Battery trays are

a) metal for earthing purposes
# b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
582. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in

a) parallel
b) series
# c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option
583. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

a) Ground or earth
b) Positive to battery relay
# c) Positive to external power relay
Page 67 - Mod 13
Page 67
Sample Questions
584. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit
starts is
# a) 115 degrees F
b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C
585. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by

# a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically
switches to constant voltage
586. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

a) Chapter 24 Section 21
# b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
587. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing
length
# b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area
contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing
length
588. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

# a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
589. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
# c) zeners and transistors
590. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by

a) voltage coil
b) current coil
# c) voltage and current coil
591. Increasing the real load primarily

a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
# c) increases output voltage and increases frequency
592. Inductive reactive load causes

a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
# c) increase in torque only
Page 68 - Mod 13
Page 68
Sample Questions
593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
# c) real power from the generator that does work
594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical

generator frequency is by
# a) angle of swash plate
b) IDG
c) restriction valve
595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
# c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
# a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync
597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

# a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator
598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely

consequence is
# a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energise the bus tie relay
599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it

would be an indication that the
# a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical

load increases, generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases
b) increases and amperage output increases
# c) remain constant and amperage output increases
601. Directional property is exhibited by

a) the sense antenna
# b) the loop antenna
c) both the sense and loop ant.nna
Page 69 - Mod 13
Page 69
Sample Questions
602. In ADF system, Goniometer
a) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense
antenna
# b) effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
c) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense
antenna
603. In an aircraft VOR receiver

a) 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable
phase signal
# b) 30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz
variable phase signal
c) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable
phase signal
604. In CVOR,9960 c/ s AM subcarrier is used in

a) VAR phase
# b) REF phase
c) station identification Morse code
605. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because

# a) DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors
b) DVOR ground installation is relatively simpler
c) DVOR is compatible for digital processing
606. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on

a) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of 20.3
microseconds
# b) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on
mode of interrogation
c) a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3
microseconds
607. In ILS, the glide slope provides

a) lateral steering
# b) vertical steering
c) distance checks
608. The components of an ILS are:

a) A localizer and a glide slope
# b) A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
c) A localizer and the marker beacons
609. If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver ,the deviation

indicator will show
a) the flag
# b) fly right
c) fly left
Page 70 - Mod 13
Page 70
Sample Questions
610. Localizer modulation depth is
a) 2%
# b) 20%
c) 50%
611. The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should

have a midband length of
# a) p /4
b) p /2
c) p
612. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip
must have a length of about
a) 29 cm
# b) 59 cm
c) 70 cm
613. An isotropic radiator

a) is an end fed p/ 2 unipole
# b) has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
c) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram
614. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a
reflected power of 4W will be
# a) 1.5:1
b) 2:1
c) 2.5:1
615. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the

fuselage to the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must be
# a) reverse R 1+ R 2 connections only
b) reverse R 1+ R 2 and S 1 + S2 connections
c) reverse R 1+ S 2 connections
616. The mode S squitter pulse will

a) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
# b) contain the aircraft identity
c) contain the aircraft range and altitude information
617. When using the GPS

a) database card must be replaced every 28 days
# b) once the database card has expired the system will continue to
operate with a warning message
c) once the database expires the system will not operate
618. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo

# a) receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12 db
b) increased by 10 to 12 db
c) marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level
Page 71 - Mod 13
Page 71
Sample Questions
619. In a CVR system hot mics
a) are as selected by the boom/mic switches
# b) is a term applied to all the aircrafts mics
c) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch
620. A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472

microseconds, the slant range to the transponder is approximately
# a) 196 nm
b) 200 nm
c) 200 statute miles
621. The most common type of gyro used in an INS is

# A) a single rate integrating gyro wih viscosity damping
b) a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy
current damping
c) a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to
sense rate of displacement
622. A laser dither mechanism ensures that

# a) optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams
to lock together
b) the contra rotating beams are synchronised together
c) that the two contra rotating beams are each at different
frequencies
623. Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited

a) modes 1, 3, 4 a, 6
b) modes 2, 4, 5
# c) modes 4b ,5
624. The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated

# a) once only
b) twice only
c) three times only
625. DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how
many sub-frames?
# a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
626. The middle marker is keyed with

a) dots
b) dashes
# c) alternate dots and dashes
Page 72 - Mod 13
Page 72
Sample Questions
627. What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?
a) 25/75
b) 25/5
# c) 75/75
628. An accelerometer in an INS must be able to detect accelerations

down to
a) 10-3 g
b) 10-2 g
# c) 10-6 g
629. An accelerometer has

a) low inertia, free suspension
# b) high inertia, restrained
c) high inertia, free suspension
630. When a compass is in the slave mode

a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
# b) azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the
flux valve
c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser
circuit
631. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the

a) battery bus bar
# b) battery bus bar or ground services
c) ground services
632. Bandwidth of HF transmission is

a) 1 khz
b) 1.5 khz
# c) 3 khz
633. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the

effect?
# a) More deviation
b) More variation
c) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only
634. GPS
# a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b) uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
635. During a system overload, load sharing will first affect

# a) galley servic
b) IFE
c) first officers transfer bus
Page 73 - Mod 13
Page 73
Sample Questions
636. What manoeuvre does TCAS II adv
a) TA
# b) RA
c) either RA or
637. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

# a) White diamonds, red squa s and amber circles
b) White squares, red diam .
c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
638. A RAT provides AC power of around

# a) 7.5 kva
b) 63 kva
c) 28 VAC
639. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it

would be an indication that the
a) Phase sequence detection circuit has operated
# b) CSD drive shaft has sheared
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
640. Paralleling in AC constant frequency is affected by

a) contactors
b) Generator Control Unit (GCU)
# c) But Tie Bar (BTB)
641. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

a) reactive power from the generator that does work
b) apparent power from the generator that does work
# c) real power from the generator that does work
642. Parallel distribution systems can typically found on all

a) twin-engined aircraft
# b) aircraft with 3 or more engines
c) aircraft with 4 or more engines
643. Aircraft generators are connected in

a) series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel
to each other
# b) series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to
each other
c) parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel
to each other
644. Mach trim counters

# a) longitudinal instability
b) lateral instability
c) vertical instability
Page 74 - Mod 13
Page 74
Sample Questions
645. Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from
a) Ground services bus
b) Ground handling bus
# c) Transfer bus
646. TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if

# a) aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet
vertically of each other
b) a collision is within 25 -35 seconds of occurring
c) a collision is within 35 -40 seconds of occurring
647. A split flap

a) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
b) forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
# c) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
648. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. The

aircraft will enter MCP SPD mode when
a) APP switch is pressed
# b) the aircraft captures the glideslope
c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
649. The auto gain voltage of weather radar is set

a) in the workshop
# b) by the manufacturer
c) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is
obtained
650 . Airspeed hold is a

# a) pitch mode
b) lateral mode
c) heading mode
651. When servicing an RVSM aircraft

a) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable
# b) the alt alert must be serviceable
c) the alt hold must be serviceable
652. An ASI compressibility error correction will be

a) Positive
# b) Negative
c) Both
653. A GNS satellite system transmis

a) vertically polarise
b) horizontally polarise
# c) right hand circular
Page 75 - Mod 13
Page 75
Sample Questions
654. An anti-servo tab
# a) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
b) moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the
pilot
c) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist
the pilot
655. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would use

a) 3 phase AC
# b) Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitter
c) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter
656. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will be

a) 300 m
# b) 400 m
c) 800 m
657. ADF quadrantal error will be at

a) 0 Degrees
# b) 45 Degrees
c) 90 Degrees
658. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing

a) trailing edge
b) leading edge lower surface
# c) leading edge upper surface
659. A plain flap

a) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower
surface
b) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper
surface
# c) when deployed increases the camber of the wing
660. Compass error Q corrections correct

a) A error
b) B error
# c) C error
661. ICAO Standard atmosphere is

a) taken from data measured at the equator
# b) taken from data measured at 45 degrees North
c) relevant to set parameters
662. In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver fails before localizer capture

a) No auto land
b) Reverts to cat II
# c) Continues to auto land
Page 76 - Mod 13
Page 76
Sample Questions
663. a receiver having an IF of 465 KHz .is tuned to 1300 Khz, which of
the following signals could interact with the L O second harmonics to
produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used
# a) 3995 Khz
b) 2230 Khz
c) 465 khz
664. On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time?
# a) multiple Rx and only one Tx
b) multiple Rx and multiple Tx
c) only one Rx and only one Tx
665. The frequency range 300KHz-3 MHz is called the

a) LF band
# b) MF band
c) VHF band
666. DME squitter comes from

# a) DME station
b) interrogator
c) test set
667. The decision height on the Radio Altimeter system is adjusted by

# a) moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication
b) selecting a switch on the control panel
c) moving a bug on the Barometric altimeter
668. How does the crew select decision height?

a) selected on the main altimeter
# b) Selected on the radio al
c) selecting a switch on the control panel
669. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?
# a) Switchable d.c
b) Switchable a.c
c) variable d.c
670. The AFCS remains in control:

a) until 2 seconds after touchdown
b) until reverse thrust is selected
# c) until disengaged by flight crew
671. The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the

# a) E field lies
b) H field lies
c) E and H fields are parallel
Page 77 - Mod 13
Page 77
Sample Questions
672. A typical ratiometer indicating system would use
a) 3-phase AC
# b) single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
c) single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter
673. The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by

a) direct coupling to an RF amplifier
# b) a buffer amplifier
c) tight coupling to an RF amplifier
674. What does a current limiter fuse do?

a) Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit
damage
# b) Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds
c) React when the circuit gets warm
675. How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave

landing system?
a) Reverse the phases
b) TO/FRO
# c) Note scan cycle start time
676. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be

carried out before crimping?
a) Just terminate
# b) Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
c) Degrease spripped cable
677. The distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is

limited
a) by local weather conditions in the troposphere
# b) to radio line of sight
c) to conditions in the ionosphere
678. Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA 100 system?
# a) Fin
b) Horizontal Stabilizer
c) Fuselage
679. A Mach meter

# a) compensates for square law
b) does not compensate for square law
c) uses a spring and bar
680. An aircraft increases in altitude, the ASI indication remains

constant, what will happen to the True airspeed value?
# a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
Page 78 - Mod 13
Page 78
Sample Questions
681. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has
# a) maximum impedance
b) minimum impedance
c) the same impedance as at any other frequency
682. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to

a) 1000 MHz
b) 100 MHz
# c) 30 MHz
683. The RF resistance of an inductor

a) decreases as frequency is increased
# b) increases as frequency is increased
c) is independent of frequency
684. At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit

a) offers minimum impedance
b) has minimum voltage developed across it
# c) has maximum circulating currents
685. The aircraft is programmed to leave the glideslope at

a) 300 ft
b) the decrab phase
# c) the start of flare
686. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in

a) COMPLETELY blank display on one CDU
b) down-grade of the landing category
# c) no effect on the CDU
687. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle?

# a) Before takeoff
b) After takeoff
c) Only with the autopilot engaged
688. Tx output stages are normally run in class C

# a) because the efficiency is high
b) so that the output is rich in harmonics
c) as higher gains can be obtained
689. Which of the following has the best frequency stability?

a) Hartley
# b) Colpitts
c) Tuned collector tuned base
690. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a

a) resistive bridge network
# b) high 'Q' resonant circuit
c) pair of tuned circuits
Page 79 - Mod 13
Page 79
Sample Questions
691. Air density compensation requires
a) OAT
b) altitude
# c) altitude and OAT
692. Time base of PPI display is

a) a ramp
b) a square wave
# c) a trapezoid
---693. The image channel ratio is

a) response at image channel frequency over response at
wanted signal frequency
b) response at image channel frequency over response at 2 nd
channel frequency
c) response at wanted channel frequency over response at
image channel frequency
694. Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at
twice the
a) L O frequency away from the selected frequency
b) I F away from the selected frequency
# c) I F away from the L O frequency
---695. The maximum acceptable tuning ratio of an RF amplifier is

a) 9:1
b) 6:1
c) 3:1
696. Single Side Band filters are

# a) 3 Khz
b) 1 Khz
c) 6 Khz
697. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the

receive
a) decrease for low signal
# b) increase for low signal
c) increase for high signal
698. Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about

# a) 80 knots
b) 110 knots
c) 30 knots
699. Go-around mode can be initiated

a) after glideslope capture
b) at any time
# c) below 2000 ft
Page 80 - Mod 13
Page 80
Sample Questions
700. An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around
during the autoland phase, the aircraft will
a) increase speed
# b) increase speed and rotate nose up
c) rotate nose up
701. The integrity of an auotpilot must be increased when the aircraft is

flying at
a) higher speeds
b) lower speeds
# c) approach and landing phases
702. Vortex ring start requires

a) retreating blade stall
b) advancing blade stall
# c) power on descent
703. A receiver with a high I F will successfully reject

a) the adjacent/image frequency
# b) the 2nd channel/image frequency
c) the 2nd channel/adjacent frequency
704. An I F amplifier unit consist of four amplifiers. The amplifiers are

normally coupled by
a) resistor/capacitor coupling
b) pure resistor coupling
# c) transformer coupling
705. Man made noise

a) mainly above 12mhz
b) only in the LF band
# c) mainly below 12 mhz
706. A receiver having an IF of which of the following signals

coulharmonics to produce a receivused
# a) 3995 Khz .
b) 2230 Khz .
c) 465 Khz
707. With a Vertical Gyro simulatescanner in left hand position

a) tilt up
# b) tilt down
c) tilt right
708. Signals used during the flare are

a) GS and rad alt
b) GS and integrated pitch
# c) Rad alt and integrated pitch
Page 81 - Mod 13
Page 81
Sample Questions
709. An autoland is carrid out in which sequence
a) GS capture, LOC capture, attitude hold, flare
# b) LOC capture, GS capture, Attitude hold, Flare
c) LOC capture, GS capture, Flare, Attitude hold
710. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach, the system will

totally disconnect if it is a
a) triplex system
# b) duplex system
c) dual/dual system
711. A single side b

a) High level modulation
# b) Low level modulation
c) One half of the high le
712. Three RF amplifiers of is the output?

# a) 30 dB and 10 KHz
b) 10 dB and 1000 KHz
c) 30 dB and 1000 KHz
713. What aircraft system supplies horizon?

a) Generator bus
b) Normal power, then switches to emergency supply in an
emergency
# c) Battery Bus
714. Flight Director bars controls move up in slow increments, what

controls their rate/speed?
a) Rate feedback
b) Position feedback
# c) Instrument amplifier gain
715. Voice clipping

a) increases the depth of modulation
# b) decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice
signals
c) maintains an average depth of modulation
716. A padder capacitor has most efficiency at

# a) the lowest frequency of the L O
b) the middle frequency of the L O
c) the highest frequancy of the L O
717. The ATC aerial has a polar diagram which is

# a) directional
b) omni-dirrectional
c) limacon shaped
Page 82 - Mod 13
Page 82
Sample Questions
718. The speech clipping modulating circuit
a) increases the average depth of modulation
b) clips high amplitude signals
# c) cuts out high tone sounds
719. The Glide-slope signal integrator

a) maintains the glideslope signal
b) increases the glide-slope signal
# c) decreases the glide-slope signal
720. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate, the instrument
that s most affected is the
# a) rate of change indicator
b) altimeter
c) airspeed indicator
721. Glide slope gain programming is based on

a) pressure altitude
b) altitude above MSL and radio altitude
# c) radio altitude
722. Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation

# a) above about 100 MHz
b) not below 1000 MHz
c) from about 10 MHz upwards
723. API Trim pointers are fed by

a) a synchro
b) an RVDT
# c) an LVDT
724. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for

maximum power transfer is
# a) 50 ohms
b) 25 to 75 ohms
c) 129 ohms
725. A valid interrogation will

# a) disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME
b) enable the RX, disable the encoder and disable the DME
c) disable the R
726. When calibrating an electronic fuel capacitance indicating system,

what piece of test equipment would you use?
# a) a bridge
b) a decade
c) a potentiometer
Page 83 - Mod 13
Page 83
Sample Questions
727. To check side lobe suppression
a) select ATC on ASP
# b) use a ramp test set
c) carry out a self test
728. On an FMCS CDU, you can select

# a) N 1 Thrust
b) VNAV
c) VOR
729. What is an Ideal VSWR on a Radio Transmission line?

# a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1.5:1
730. What is Track angle?

# a) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the
aircraft ground track
b) The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the
aircraft longitudinal axis
c) The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track
731. RNAV accuracy is

a) +/- 5nm
# b) +/- 5nm 95%
c) +/- 1nm 85%
732. In colour WXR AGC is set

a) in workshop
# b) automatically on receiver noise level
c) by operator on manually adjusted gain control
733. Tail rotor effects the helicopter in

a) Vertical
# b) Horizontal
c) Pitch and Roll
734. With an ATC code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are
# a) B 2 and B 4
b) B 1 and B 5
c) B 0 and B 6
735. What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?

# a) 2 DME signals
b) 1 VOR and
c) 1 VOR /DME signal
Page 84 - Mod 13
Page 84
Sample Questions
736. The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters.
Master frequency
a) higher than slave
b) lower than slave
# c) same as slave
737. The loop aerial polar diagram is a

a) c ardioid
# b) figure 8
c) c ircle
738. Single Side Band filters are

# a) 3 Khz
b) 1 Khz
c) 6 Khz
739. Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the

receiver will
a) decrease for low signal
# b) increase for low signal
c) increase for high signal
740. A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target
distance
a) 12.5 Nautical miles
# b) 25 Nautical miles
c) 30 Nautical miles
741. A receiver in which selected converted to a single frequen

a) Wideband TRF
b) Multi-channel receive
# c) superhet rece
742. The noise factor of a receiveis 15:1 and O/P signal to

a) 0.8
# b) 1.25
c) 2.5
743. A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject

a) the adjacent/image frequency
# b) the 2nd channel/image frequency
c) the 2nd channel/adjacent frequency
744. The frequency spectrum of noise is

# a) infinitely wide
b) restricted to the audio band
c) restricted to the HF band
Page 85 - Mod 13
Page 85
Sample Questions
745. Man made noise causes interference
a) mainly above 12 Mhz
b) only in the LF band
# c) mainly below 12 Mhz
476. The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of

a) capacitive reactance
b) resistance
# c) capacitance
747. Rad Alt failure effects which system?

a) Mode S transponder
# b) GPWS
c) nav management systems
748. A Mode S equipped aircraft has its RA area breached by a Mode A

only equipped aircraft. What warning does the Mode S aircraft get?
# a) TA visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning
b) RA visual and climb or descend aural warning
c) ATA visual warning only
749. A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is

a) highly cambered
# b) symmetrically camber
c) reverse camber
750. What is the maximum value of installation tester that may be used
on a fuel contents system?
a) 300 Volt
b) 250 Volt
# c) You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
751. The glideslope signal integrator

a) maintains glideslope signal
b) increases glideslope signal
# c) decreases glideslope signal
752. On a Cat 3 B landing the localizer signal is used at which phase?

# a) Rollout
b) Flare
c) Touchdown
753. ARINC 429 operates at which speed?

# a) 13 kb/s or 100 kb/s
b) 2 Mb/s
c) 1.3 Mb/s
Page 86 - Mod 13
Page 86
Sample Questions
754. An aircraft landing on QFE the altimeter will
# a) read zero on touchdown
b) read airfield height on landing
c) read local area pressure
755. A rate gyro has

a) one degree of freedom along the lateral axis
# b) a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal
axis
c) a calibrated spring bet
756. Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag
clearing may cause
a) the instrument to erect false datum
# b) application of a large torque to the control phase windings
causing failure
c) You must use the Fast erection switch to clear the flag
757. Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will

# a) cause contents to overead
b) cause contents to under read
c) short out capacitance probe and trip CB
758. A Loran C transmission consists of

a) 6 pulses each 270 microseconds long
# b) 8 pulses each 270 microseconds long
c) 6 pulses with a total pulse train length of 8.27 ms
759. ARINC 629 operates at which speed ?

a) 1300 Kb/s
b) 1000 Kb/s
# c) 2000 Kb/s
760. With an increase in fwd velocity of a helicopter the increase in

parasitic drag will cause the fuselage attitude to
a) remain level
b) pitch up
# c) pitch down
---761. On a helicopter rotor disc lift happens

# a) immediately
$ b) 90 degrees later
c) 180 degrees later
762. Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR

a) Increase
b) Decrease
# c) Do not affect
Page 87 - Mod 13
Page 87
Sample Questions
763. GPS L 1 and L 2 signals are
# a) Bi phase 50 bit/ sec
b) 10.2 KHZ send rate
c) 1KHz send rate
764. ILS indicator is

a) parallel to filters
# b) series with filters
c) across filters
765. Voice/Range switch selected to range

a) allows NAV/ADF and DME through cancelling out voice
spectrum
# b) allows NAV/ADF and cancels out voice spectrum
c) allows noise spectrum through
766. Altitude hold mode, what signal is washed out?

a) Altitude
# b) Pitch angle
c) Rate of climb
767. Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows NAV, and ADF through
$ b) allows NAV, ADF, and DME through
c) allows NAV, and DME through
768. ADF, quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators

# a) Across loop aerial
b) Across sense aerial
c) Across goniometer
769. With AGC inop, sensitivity will be effected to signals with

# a) low signal strength
b) High signal strength
c) Both
770. Lift in a helicopter is a result of

a) Angle of attack X velocity squared and forward speed
# b) Angle of attack X velocity squared
c) Pitch X square root of speed
771. The versine signal is used in the

# a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel
c) pitch and roll channel
Page 88 - Mod 13
Page 88
Sample Questions
772. The stall margin mode is controlled by
a) EPR limits
b) Speed bug cursors
# c) A O A and flap position sensors
773. In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in

# a) a blank display on one CDU
b) a down grade of the landing category
c) no effect on the CDU di
774. When a compass is in the slave mode

a) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
# b) azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the
flux valve
c) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser
circuit
775. Versine signal is governed by

# a) roll
b) pitch
c) yaw
776. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation
a) 2 degrees
# b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
777. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses

# a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first the
c) no attenuation but amplification
778. In audio clipping

a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
# b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels
779. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
a) Lateral
# b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
780. If one FMS fails in a dual system

a) system operation will not be affected
# b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
Page 89 - Mod 13
Page 89
Sample Questions
781. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at
maximum flap at
# a) 90 o
b) 180 o
c) 0 o
782. When approaching the speed of s

# a) pressure above the wing the wing in places
b) pressure above the wing equals the pressure below the wing
c) pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below
the wing
783. A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the
length of the P 2 pulse?
# a) 0.8 s
b) 1.6 s
c) 2 s
784. ATCRBS reply pulses are

a) 0.8 s wide
# b) 0.45 s wide
c) 1.45 s wide
785. What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?
a) 1.45 s
b) 2 s
# c) 4.35 s
786. Range resolution in a radars

# a) shorter Pulse
b) longer Pulse
c) narrower Beam
787. What is the time between the ATCRBS reply

a) 21 s
# b) 20.3 s
c) 21.7 s
788. Rear navigation lights have

a) steady white light with a viewing angle of 60 degrees
b) flashing white light with a viweing angle of 60 degrees
# c) steady white light with a viewing angle of 140 degrees
789. Runway turn off lights have a viewing angle of

# a) 50 degrees
b) 110 degrees
c) 160 degrees
Page 90 - Mod 13
Page 90
Sample Questions
790. Using the following: FS 345, RWS 45, where is this located?
a) 345" back from the nose, 45" from the longitudinal centre line
of the right wing
b) 345" back from the datum line, 45" from the longitudinal
centre line of the right wing
# c) 345" back from the nose and 45" along the right wing
791. When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you
would expect
a) 1 Megohm when cold
# b) 3 Megohm when hot and when cooled down
c) 5 Megohm
792. Slewing of the INS gimballed platform simulates in-flight attitude

changes up to
a) 360 deg in roll and 85 deg in pitch
# b) 71 deg in pitch and 180 deg in azimuth
c) 110 deg in pitch and 360 deg in azimuth
793. Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in

a) output datum advanced 180 deg
b) data to coincide
# c) output datum advanced 240 deg
794. Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when

# a) spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom
b) gimbal rings are mutually not at right angles to each other
c) bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance
795. In a turn co-ordinator the output axis of the rate gyro is

a) parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
# b) set at 30 deg to the longitudinal axis
c) parallel to the lateral axis to make the gyro sensitive to rolling
and banking as well as turning
796. All fly to information in an EFIS System is displayed in

a) White
# b) Magenta
c) Green
797. In an EICAS display all scales, normal operating range of pointers

and digital readouts a
# a) White
b) green
c) Magenta
Page 91 - Mod 13
Page 91
Sample Questions
798. The scratch pad in an FMS CDU occupies
a) 24 character spaces of the bottom line
b) the last 12 character spaces of the bottom line
# c) first 12 character spaces of the bottom line
799. The term oblate spheroid refers to

a) tilting of the earth about the axis
# b) flattening at the Polar Regions
c) the network of meridians imagined to cover the earth
800. The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic
meridian at any place is
a) inclination
# b) declination
c) angle of dip
801. Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas

temperature indications are
a) Copper-Constantan
b) Iron-Constantan
# c) Chromel-Alumel
802. Wing loading of an aircraft

a) varies with dynamic loading due to air currents
# b) is independent of altitude
c) decreases with density
803. Glide slope frequency is

a) 108.10-119.95
# b) 328.6-335.4
c) 108.00-118
804. ADF operation range is at

# a) MF band
b) HF band
c) VHF band
805. ADF system sense aerial is

a) null
# b) null Cardioid
c) rotating figure of 8
806. Outer marker frequency is

a) 3000 hz
b) 1300 hz
# c) 400 hz
Page 92 - Mod 13
Page 92
Sample Questions
807. Tripping the GCR will
a) trip the GCB
b) de-excite the generator
# c) both (a) and (b)
808. In a synchronous motor the rotor is

# a) excited by DC
b) excited by AC
c) self excited
809. the difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed is

called
a) differential speed
b) loss
# c) slip
810. A squirrel cage rotor will be found in

# a) an induction motor
b) a synchronous motor
c) a hysteresis motor
811. Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the
speed of sound are
a) hypersonic
# b) supersonic
c) hyposonic
812. If the pilot reports autoland failure, and no fault found during
ground checks. What action do you take?
a) Sign off as no fault found
$ b) Ask Pilot to carry out CAT 1 autoland
c) Ask pilot to carry out CAT 1 or CAT 2 autoland
813. What is a fairlead?

# a) A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc
b) A guard to prevent control cables coming off pulleys
c) An extension to a control cable
814. FMC provides data envelope for

a) ATC
b) TCAS
# c) GPWS
815. In a capacitive fuel contents system changes in temperature are

compensated by
# a) placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance
b) adjustment of a potentiometer
c) placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance
Page 93 - Mod 13
Page 93
Sample Questions
816. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch
a) removes all messages from the display
# b) removes caution and advisory messages
c) removes advisory messages
817. The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by

information fed from
a) The Pitot and Static sensors
b) The Mach unit
# c) The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor
818. The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables

a) the accelerometers to correct the axes
b) sets the start co- ordinates
# c) Gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination
819. Pin Programming is allowed

a) under CAA Rules
# b) to provide reference to FMS computer as to which side of
datum it is fitted to
c) to enter aircraft performance data base
820. The Janus beam is for

a) working out acceleration
b) levelling the aerial
# c) to compensate for attitude changes
821. Absolute pressure of 25 psi is

a) 39.7 PSI
b) 14 PSI
# c) 10.3 PSI
822. JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after
accident or incident
a) 30 days after incident 60 days after accident
# b) 60 days
c) 30 Days
823. Coefficient A correction is carried out

a) before C after B
# b) after B and after C
c) before B and after C
824. A combined ASI indicates Mach

a) above 0.15
b) above 10000 feet
# c) all the time airspeed present
Page 94 - Mod 13
Page 94
Sample Questions
825. Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the
magnets are
a) Parallel
b) 45 degrees
# c) 90 degrees
826. Sonar Locator Beacons are a

# a) ICAO Requirement
b) ANO Requirement
c) Company Requi
827. INS power is provided by

a) DC normal and DC emerge
# b) AC normal and DC emergency
c) AC normal and AC emergen y
828. Aircraft is 9000 ft. When is it out of VHF range

a) 100 nm
b) 120 nm
# c) 140 nm
829. CVR is unserviceable

a) The aircraft cannot fly unless required data is recorded by FDR
# b) The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceablity
c) The aircraft can fly for 4 days since unserviceablity
830. A semi monocoque structure is one which has

a) an external load bearing skin with no internal load bearing
structure
# b) an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing
structure
c) a tubular internal structure fabric covered
831. Which of the following is correct?

a) feedback = error - demand
# b) error = demand - feedback
c) demand = feedback - error
832. A member designed to take mainly compressive load is called a

a) tie
b) beam
# c) strut
833. Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting

the skin between longerons are called
a) ribs
# b) stringers
c) frames
Page 95 - Mod 13
Page 95
Sample Questions
834. A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally be
constructed from
a) warren truss structure
# b) semi monocoque structure
c) geodetic structure
835. If the common portion of the winding of a autotransformer used to

supply a 26 vac light bulb from a 115 vac busbar goes open circuit the
light bulb will
a) flicker
b) go dim
# c) blow
836. MCDUs
a) are used to transmit dat to ground
# b) enable dialog with cent
c) store fault data
837. The uploading function on a on -board maintenance system

enables
a) data to be taken from on-board maintenance system
# b) the on-board data base to be updated
c) the on-board maintenance system to be interrogated by the
engineer
838. If the output of the generator starts to fall, a pulse width modulated
field supply will
# a) increase the mark-to -space ratio
b) decrease the mark-to- space ratio
c) double the mark-to-space ratio
839. In a starter generator which coil is used for starting?

# a) Shunt, series and compensating windings
b) series compensating windings
c) Shunt compensating windings
840. A gate valve is installed in a vacuum system is to prevent

a) back pressure due to engine surge
# b) oil entering gyro when shut down
c) reverse flow due to engine backfire
841. Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is

a) 800 ft
b) 1000 ft
# c) 2000 ft
Page 96 - Mod 13
Page 96
Sample Questions
842. The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in
a) Millibars
# b) Inches of Mercury
c) PSI
843. Before processing an AM USB signal what needs to be done?

# a) Carrier added
b) Carrier removed
c) Carrier integrated
844. On power up, IRS

a) obtains latitude from previous position
# b) compares longitude from previous position
c) obtains both from previous position
845. The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a

a) ASI
b) VSI
# c) Mach Meter
846. Speed mode stall margins are governed by

# a) AOA and flap position
b) Pitch angle and speed
c) AOA and speed
847. When performing an ADF bearing check, commercial stations

a) can be used
# b) can be used in addition to ADF nav stations
c) can not be used as they are the wrong frequency
848. A fuel system that corrects fuel SG is calibrated in

# a) Pounds or KGs
b) Litres
c) Gallons
849. DME interrogation is carried out

a) 63 kHz above transmitted frequency
b) 63 kHz below transmitted frequency
# c) 63 kHz above or below transmitted frequency
850. In ground mode the FMS uses which of the following for velocity
calculations?
# a) IRS
b) RHO-RHO
c) RHO-THETA
Page 97 - Mod 13
Page 97
Sample Questions
851. Component P relates to
a) coefficient A
# b) coefficient B
c) coefficient C
852. During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor
fails, THR CLP is annuciated on the mode annunciator panel when
# a) aircraft leaves ground
b) a pre-determined rad alt setting
c) V 2, as determined by the autothrottle computer
853. Confirmation of the correct operation of an ATC transponder ident

function, is verified by
# a) use of a ramp test set
b) observation of the ATC transponder control head ident light
c) telephone contact with the receiving ATC cell
854. IRS serviceability for in-service drift is ascertained by

# a) 3+3t
b) CDU fault code interrogation
c) apparent drift divided by flight time
855. In a IRS system the accelerometer is double interrogated for

# a) distance
b) acceleration
c) velocity
856. During an ACARS transmission a 1 is generated by

a) the +ve half of a 1200 hz waveform
# b) the -ve half of a 1200 hz waveform
c) a 2400 hz waveform
---857. ACARS transmits it's data using

a) hexadecimal code
b) binary code
c) octal code
858. In flight mode, the FMS preference of data source is

# a) IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA
b) RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA
c) RHO-THETA, RHO-RHO, IRS
859. In aileron control

# a) the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron
b) the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron
c) it is assisted by the rudder
Page 98 - Mod 13
Page 98
Sample Questions
860. RNAV uses which inputs?
a) IRS, ADF, VOR, DME
b) ADF, GPS, VOR
# c) IRS, VOR, GPS, DME
---861. To calibrate a temp bulb

a) connect decade box in series with bulb
b) connect decade box to power supply
c) disconnect temp bulb and install decade box in its place
862. Janus in doppler radar

a) Adjusts signal for overwater flight
# b) allows adjustment for antenna pitch
c) adjusts for lateral and vertical steering
863. ATC altitude readout is

# a) series Tx with binary encoding
b) series Tx with octal encoding
c) parallel Tx with binary encoding
864. If radio deviation is fed only to the autopilot roll channel what will
happen?
# a) Aircraft will fly in circles
b) Aircraft will drift from centreline
c) Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline
865. Attenuation in a co-axial cable

# a) increases with frequency increase
b) decreases with frequency decrease
c) is not affected by frequency
866. Stab trim goes into high speed mode when

# a) Flaps are extended
b) Flaps are retracted
c) cruise altitude is reached
867. A standby artificial horizon is a

a) space gyro
# b) earth gyro
c) free gyro
878. Pitot static lines in helicopters

a) are made of stainless steel, and must withstand twice normal
working pressure
b) must provide an accurate indication of the flight regime below
20 knots
# c) must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified
flight envolope
Page 99 - Mod 13
Page 99
Sample Questions
869. EGPWS mode 2 announces
a) sink rate
# b) whoop whoop pull up
c) too low flaps
---870. The maximum power developed in a radar system waveguide is

controlled by
a) the minimum size of the slot
b) the maximum size of the slot
c) It is not affected by slot size
871. Altitude hold, when engaged, provides a washout input to the?

a) vertical gyro
b) roll channel
$ c) autopilot pitch servo
872. An electro-magnetic microphone requires which type of input

a) dc
b) ac
$ c) none
873. Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing)
would be indicated by
$ a) VSI showing rate of climb
b) VSI showing rate of descent
c) VSI remaining in a fixed position
874. Alpha angle relates to which system?

$ a) Angle of attack system
b) Mach trim system
c) Flap blowback system
875. When a standby compass is replaced, on installation the

compensator magnets should be set to
a) the same setting as the removed compass
$ b) the neutral setting on the new unit
c) maximum setting on the new unit
---876. Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest

influence at
a) 90 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) when parallel to each other
---877. If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the
aircraft is at altitude, mach meter will indicate
a) an increase
b) a decrease
c) no change
Page 100 - Mod 13
Page 100
Sample Questions
---878. The FBW system uses two elevator and aileron computers
(ELACs)
a) this is to provide redundancy
b) they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and
elevator computers (SECs) fail
c) each computer achieves control and monitoring of the three
electric motors which power the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)
879. In a minimum speed protection mode the autothrottle uses signals

derived from the angle of attack (AOA) sensors and
a) landing gear position sensors to maintain the aircraft speed
above stall
# b) flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach
speed
c) flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the
correct angle of attack within the stall margin
---880. A versine signal is typically fed from the roll channel

a) to adjust the roll angle to suit the approach turn during
autoland
b) and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position
signals to adjust for loss of lift during a turn
c) and modified by aircraft attitude and pitch rate signals to
limit the pitch angle during approach
881. What is the main operating principle of MLS?

a) phase shift between Tx and Rx
# b) time difference between TO and FRO pulse
c) signal strength (mV) difference between left and right beam
882. How does a Rx know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been
selected?
a) Manually selected by operator
# b) Logic control circuit in control unit
c) A different receiver is used
883. What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase

of an AC generator?
a) Negative phase sequencing
b) Open phase
# c) Differential protection
884. An aircraft is on course on an ILS Localiser. What is the depth of

modulation?
# a) zero
b) 20%
c) 50%
Page 101 - Mod 13
Page 101
Sample Questions
885. What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?
a) Relative humidity
# b) Absolute humidity
c) Dew point
886. How is the flight deck informed of an ACARS transmission?

a) SELCAL
# b) ONSIDE VHF T/R
c) A double chime
887. EFIS display ,SG 1 + SG 2 are for captain and FO displays what is
the purpose of SG 3?
# a) Backup for SG 1 and 2
b) ECAM upper display
c) ECAM lower display
---888. The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings
for
a) SG of fuel
b) permittivity
c) zero reading
---889. How do you reset a GCR trip?

a) Manually from the flight deck
b) Automatically once the fault goes away
c) Manually at the GCU
---890. Peak power = 10 kW, duty cycle = 2.4 ms, pulse duration =6
microseconds. What is mean power?
a) Approx .4 W
b) 14 W
c) 24 W
891. In a FBW system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control

system in pitch
a) is not possible because of the built-in redundancy for all
elements
# b) would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch
using pitch trim wheel
c) would cause the captain's sidestick controller to take over
pitch functions
892. Capture of a localiser beam is normally dependent on a change of

bank angle command based on
a) airspeed, deviation and altitude
# b) attitude, distance from transmitter and runway heading
c) ground speed, intercept angle and distance form beam
Page 102 - Mod 13
Page 102
Sample Questions
893. A control wheel action in roll, with the autopilot engaged, operates
a transducer which outputs a signal
$ a) via a force level detector, which on changeover, cancels
attitude hold and feeds a supply allowing the pilot gradual and
increasing bank angle control
b) which disengages the autopilot allowing total manual freedom
of operation and requires no re-engage action on completion
c) which on changeover, causes the aircraft to roll wings level
through a supply feeding to a point between the roll rate limiter and the
EHSV, allowing the pilot total freedom of control
---894. The roll-down solid state switch in a typical flight control

computer is designed to
a) roll down the trim integrator output to zero allowing the aircraft
to wings level from an angle of up to ten degrees
b) roll down the attitude integrator output to zero allowing the
aircraft to wings level from an angle of up to five degrees
c) apply a nose down signal to the aircraft within two seconds of
main wheel touchdown during autoland
---895. Engaging an autopilot to command with the flight director on

causes the autopilot to engage to the existing flight director roll mode
except if the flight director is in
a) go-around, the command mode is heading hold
b) glide-slope, the command mode is flight level change
c) take-off, the command mode is speed
896. The Dutch roll filter used on most yaw damper systems operates
with a demodulator and modulator in series, between which is an
electronic circuit. this circuit is a
a) wide band pass filter featuring an integrated output
b) wide band pass filter featuring a differentiate output
$ c) narrow band filter featuring a differentiate output
897. During tests on the yaw damper servo actuator, the output shaft
constantly over-runs its desired displacement. A probable cause is that
the
a) detent spring has lost its tension
$ b) position LVDT (linear variable differential transformer) is out
of tolerance
c) the rate feedback circuit is open-circuit
898. In a typical lateral central control actuator, the pressure regulator

module is designed to
$ a) allow manual control inputs to override the autopilot inputs
b) limit the amount of detent piston movement so that the
controls remain within safe working limits
c) allow control of the input crank backdrive so that excessive
stick movement is limited
Page 103 - Mod 13
Page 103
Sample Questions
899. The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a
frequency of thirty seven kilo-hertz
# a) with an operational time of at least thirty days
b) and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four
thousand feet
c) and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres
900. The flight recorder accelerometer used in the DFDR system

measures vertical acceleration as one of its parameters to values
between
a) plus four g and minus two g with a null output of one point
six to plus or minus twenty eight millivolts dc
# b) plus six g and minus three g with a null output of one point
eight volts plus or minus twenty five millivolts dc
c) plus eight g to minus four g with a null output of two volts
plus or minus twenty millivolts
901. Panels that are attached to the aircraft by answered

questionfasteners are:
# a) tertiary structure
b) secondary structure
c) primary structure
902. As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to
carry out a check using the self Start page and Bookshopthe aircraft
integrated data system (AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes the
printer to print in
a) eighty column mode
$ b) sixty six column mode
c) forty column mode
903. When the busyindicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR

system, this indicates that the:
a) cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use
$ b) data is being received and the cartridge cannot be ejected
c) data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected
904. In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of
currently received data can be achieved at
a) the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight
data acquisition unit (DFDAU)
$ b) the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder
(QAR)
c) the DFDAU built in test equipment (BITE)
Page 104 - Mod 13
Page 104
Sample Questions
905. During a change to a lower altitude the piston unit in an IVSI
(instantaneous vertical speed indicator) will create, for an instant more
# a) more pressure to the capsule only
b) pressure to both case and capsule
c) more suction to the capsule only
906. Movement of the collective control will

a) increase the pitch of the tail rotor
b) tilt the disc and increase engine power
# c) increase the pitch of the main rotor blades
907. Gust Load Alleviation Function in a FBW system

a) may be controlled by the elevators
# b) uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for
sudden gusts
c) is achieved by the weight saving from elimination of cables, feel
units and other conventional items
908. Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is

fitted to
a) increase roll control authority of the autopilot
b) improve trim control due to lateral centre of gravity changes
# c) improve fatigue life, due to aero elasticity and high lift loads
909. When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to
structure with a single fastener
a) place the smallest terminal nearest the structure, covered by a
spacer, with the others, to a maximum of six, stacked in increasing size
# b) install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the
others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned in decreasing size
c) connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the
others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in any order
910. If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the

expected resistance value when carrying out a check should be
# a) 0.5 milliohms
b) 1.5 milliohms
c) 2.5 milliohms
911. An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that runs

normally the length of the fuselage is known as
a) intercostal
# b) stringer
c) cleat
Page 105 - Mod 13
Page 105
Sample Questions
912. A panel at STN + 88 /WL -12 is located 88 units
a) rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water line
datum
b) forward of the aircraft vertical centre and 12 units below the
water line datum
# c) rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline
913. Cantilever construction is structure supported at

a) each end and in the centre
# b) one end only
c) each end
914. A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is
known as:
a) semi-monocoque
b) semi-stressed
# c) monocoque
915. The purpose of the mercury switch in the rotating platform system
is to
a) always ensure that the platform is maintained level in space
when the autopilot is engaged
$ b) level the platform when the autopilot is disengaged
c) level the platform system when installing
916. When the rotor of an ac tacho-generator is stationary, the rotor has

a) no circulating currents
# b) circulating currents
c) no magnetic field
917. An AC tacho-generator stator has

a) two windings 180 apart
b) three windings 120 apart
# c) two windings 90 apart
918. The sense of a control surface feed back signal will

a) assist the signal displacing the servo
b) reverse when the control surface limit is reached
$ c) oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface
919. A servo tacho-generator feed back signal is required to

a) assist the demand applied to servo-motor
b) ensure proportional control movement for a given command
signal
$ c) damp out oscillations of a control movement
Page 106 - Mod 13
Page 106
Sample Questions
920. One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must
a) disengage on A/P engagement
$ b) be engaged at all times
c) disengage as soon as hard over is detected
921. When the autopilot is disengaged, moving the control column

forward will cause the pitch CWS sensor
a) to produce only a small pitch down signal
$ b) to produce a significant signal which has pitch down sense
c) to produce a significant signal witch has a pitch up sense
922. To increase the gain of an amplifier it is necessary to

$ a) reduce the tacho-generator feedback
b) increase the tacho-generator feedback
c) increase to position feedback
---923. The advantage of a force-balanced rate gyro over a simple

mechanically restrained gyro is
a) the gyro can be self-monitored
b) the gyro can have a larger signal output
c) cross channel feedback is not required
924. The outputs of a slaved directional gyro to an autopilot consist of

a) pitch and roll angles
b) azimuth rate signals
$ c) azimuth direction information
925. The type of amplifier used to over come difficult in amplifying DC or

very low frequency signals and to prevent drift is
a) buffer amplif
b) chopper ampli
$ c) integrator amplifier
926. In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and
dual roll-framcommand output from the autopilot servo amplifier
a) both valves will be closed
$ b) both valves will be open for an equal period of time
c) both roll fram actuators will fully retract
927. A resistance capacitor low pass filter will have

a) both resistance and cap
b) the output taken across the resistor
$ c) the out put taken across the capacitor
928. The maximum level output of a series limiter using switch diode is
set by
a) voltage of the signal
$ b) the dc bias passing through the diodes
c) diode reverse resistance
Page 107 - Mod 13
Page 107
Sample Questions
929. When DC motors are used as servomotors they are usually
a) high current low voltage type
$ b) split field type
c) high torque heavy armature type
930. Buffer amplifiers are used when

a) an impedance change (low to high) is required
$ b) an impedance change (high to low) is required
c) high amplification factors are required
---931. A dead zone amplifier used , a CWS circuit

a) passes only signals above a certain magnitude
b) limits the CWS signal to a safe level
c) passes only signals below a certain magnitude
---932. Servo amplifiers of the pulse width type are used because
a) efficiency is good
b) they cause very little radio interference
c) they automatically produce DC output
---933. The purpose of using altitude rate signal to develop the capture
point in the altitude acquire mode is
a) to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude
earlier if the vertical speed is high
b) to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude
later if the v rtical speed is high
c) as a backup
---934. When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals
used are
a) beam deviation and course error
b) cross track distance and track angle error
c) drift angle and cross track distance
935. A leak in the static line in a pressurised part of an aircraft can cause
the mach indication to
a) rise
# b) decrease
c) no change
936. A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called

# a) slat
b) slot
c) flap
937. During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to
a) flap up
b) no change
# c) flap down
Page 108 - Mod 13
Page 108
Sample Questions
938. Asymmetric flaps will cause
a) the aircraft to ascend
# b) one wing to rise
c) the aircraft to descend
939. How many satellites comprise the space segment for GPS?
# a) 4 satellites in six orbits
b) 6 satellites in four orbits
c) 8 satellites in three orbits
940. ACARS message is transmitted in which word format?

# a) Binary
b) Hex
c) Decimal
941. What type of system is an ADF?

a) rho
# b) theta
c) rho-theta
942. The full testing of a FDR system is accomplished by

a) bite test of the FDR
# b) bite test of the FDR acquisition unit
c) real time monitoring of system with ground test equipment
---943. Connection to the centre terminal of an ADF aerial is via

a) belun
b) diplexer
c) dipole
---944. Why is a rubber 'o' ring fitted between wave guide joints?
a) To prevent moisture ingress
b) To prevent arcing across the flanges
c) To prevent wave distortion
---945. GPWS Mode 7 Windshear is activated at

a) 1500 rad alt for take-off and landing
b) 1500 rad alt for take-off and 2500 rad alt for landing
c) 2500 rad alt for take-off and landing
---946. Cabin assistance when activated from the toilet

a) activates a high chime and an amber light
b) activates a high / low chime and a blue light
c) activates a musical fanfare and a red light
---947. Seatbelts sign is accompanied by

a) high chime
b) low chime
c) high / low chime
Page 109 - Mod 13
Page 109
Sample Questions
948. Small pins on an AC GPU receptacle
# a) prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector
b) use AC as part of an interlock circuit
c) are used to prevent incorrect orientation
949. Mach meter is

a) not square law compensated
# b) is automatically compensated
c) is compensated with square law screws and an arm
950. Mach meter reads the correct value

a) above 10,000 feet only
b) at sea level only
# c) at any altitude
951. Constant speed drive is monitored in the cockpit for

# a) low oil pressure and high oil temperature
b) Oil pressure and speed
c) Oil pressure and quantity
---952. Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6? s and duty cycle is 2.4 ms.
What is the average power transmitted?
a) 25W
b) 14.4W
c) Just over 4W
---953. In a triple RAD ALT installation on a large aircraft, interference is

prevented by
a) varying the modulating frequency of each system
b) by using a different PRF for each system using PIN
Programming
c) changing the antenna orientation with phased signal control
---954. The doppler shift frequency from the front beam will equal the
shift from the back beam
a) only in level flight
b) in any aircraft attitude
c) when climbing
955. Which modes are incompatible?

# a) VOR & G/S
b) VOR & ALT hold
c) HDG hold & speed hold
---956. Sidetone relay in an HF T/R is operated by

a) the PTT Switch
b) rectified audio signal
c) rectified RF signal
Page 110 - Mod 13
Page 110
Sample Questions
957. Battery charging on an aircraft
a) may produce excessive charging initially, especially if the
battery charge is low
b) will be reasonably stable due to constant voltage charging
# c) will be reasonably stable due to constant current charging
958. A vibrating contact voltage regulator

# a) has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts
b) has a resistor in series with the two contacts
c) has a resistor in series with the voltage coil
959. A fuel system that measures SG will be displayed in

# a) Lbs or kgs
b) Ltrs or gals
c) Ltrs or kgs
960. Rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system

# a) prevents oscillations of the control surfaces
b) provides proportional response to commanded inputs
c) indicates control surface feedback
---961. In a Loran navigation system, master station transmitter

frequency
a) higher than the slave
b) lower than the slave
c) the same as the slave
962. When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the
pitch of the retreating blade?
# a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
963. Data communication between the aircraft and the operational

control centre is possible through
a) selcal system
# b) ACARS system
c) satcom system
964. Which is not displayed on an attitude director indicator (ADI)

a) glide slope deviation
b) localizer deviation
# c) VOR lateral deviation
965. Communication between the aircraft earth station (AES) and the
satellite is on
a) C band
# b) L band
c) S band
Page 111 - Mod 13
Page 111
Sample Questions
---966. The monopulse aerial system is used to provide T.C.A.S with
a) Altitude information
b) Bearing Information
c) Mode 'S' lock out
967. In an interrogator Mode S addressing format when does the first

sync phase reversal occur?
a) 0.8 seconds after P2
b) 1.25 seconds after P2
# c) 2.75 seconds after P2
968. If a ground station interrogating an aircraft transmits P1, P2 and P6

through the rotating beam antenna and P5 is radiated by omni
-directional antenna, which mode is it addressing
a) Mode A and C only
# b) Mode S only
c) Mode A&C and S
969. When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident
pulse appear?
a) 1.6 seconds after the P2 pulse
# b) 4.35 seconds after the last frame pulse
c) 0.8 seconds after the last frame pulse
---970. A magnetron can be used as an

a) oscillator only
b) oscillator or an amplifier
c) amplifier only
971. Which of the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic

navigation system
a) Loran C
b) VLF omega
# c) Doppler
972. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is

a) lambda
# b) lambda/2
c) lambda/4
973. A typical emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

a) receives 2 frequencies
b) transmit 3 frequencies
# c) transmits 2 frequencies
974. The pulse repetition frequency (PRF)

a) high for long ranges
# b) low for long ranges
c) low for short ranges
Page 112 - Mod 13
Page 112
Sample Questions
975. Radio altimeter (radar) normally indicates the altitude of
a) plus-minus 2500feet
b) to 2500feet pressure altitude
# c) 0 to 2500 feet above the ground level
976. GPS consists of 24 orbiting satellites located

# a) in a 10900 miles high orbit
b) in a 5000 miles high orbit
c) in a 8800 miles high orbit
977. The path of a point which moves such that the difference in
distance from two fixed points is called
a) parabola
b) circle
# c) hyperbola
978. A selcal signal transmits

a) a pair of tones continuously
b) four tones continuously
# c) two pair of tones-one pair after the other
979. The frequency of 111.1 MHz is used by

# a) ILS localiser
b) VOR
c) ILS glideslope
980. In VOR the manual phase shift resolver is a

# a) 30 Hz signal
b) 9960 Hz signal
c) 1020 Hz signal
981. The impedance of an HF aerial is

a) 50 ohms
b) 75 ohms
# c) dependent on frequency
982. The VHF aeronautical emergency frequency is

a) 125.5 MHz
# b) 121.5 MHz
c) 121.0 MHz
983. On an RMI the input to the ADF pointer is fed via

a) a differential synchro
# b) a synchro
c) a matching unit
Page 113 - Mod 13
Page 113
Sample Questions
984. Full scale deflection on a VOR system is
a) 2 degrees
b) 5 degrees
# c) 10 degrees
985. A VHF comm blade aerial has a length of

# a) a quarter wavelength
b) a half wavelength
c) a full wavelength
986. Doppler VOR, when received by a conventional VOR receiver

a) has normal reception but no ident signal
# b) has normal reception with an ident signal
c) can not be received on CVOR equipment
987. At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is

a) reactive
b) high
# c) low
988. A mode 'S' transponder utilises a

a) linear amplifier
# b) logarithmic amplifier
c) Darlington pair
989. What is the time taken for one radar statute mile?
# a) 10.75 seconds
b) 12.36 seconds
c) 11.03 seconds
990. What is the main cause of standing waves in waveguide?

# a) Mismatch of impedances
b) The frequency transmitted is too high
c) The velocity of propagation is too high
991. The code in an altitude reporting system uses

a) all C pulses together
# b) at least one C pulse
c) C1 and C4 pulses together
992. In a secondary radar system at what frequency does the

interrogator transmit on?
a) 1090MHz
# b) 1030MHz
c) 1090KHz
Page 114 - Mod 13
Page 114
Sample Questions
993. In the OBS the printing report system is activated:
a) Manually
b) Automatically
# c) Both of the above
994. In the downlink 11 format a 0.5 per sec pulse in the first half of the
slot represents a logic
# a) a logic one
b) a logic zero
c) the start of the preamble
995. The uplink 11 format utilises

# a) Differential Phase Shift Keying
b) Pulse Position Monitoring
c) Mono-pulse Dual Interrogation
996. In a universal all-call transponder interrogation P2 is radiated by the

# a) Omni-directional aerial
b) Directional aerial
c) Horizontal dipole
997. Group countdown in a transponder receiver changes the

a) Selectivity
# b) Sensitivity
c) Fidelity
998. T.C.A.S transmits squitter pulses on a frequency of

a) 1060 MHz
b) 1030 MHz
# c) 1090MHz
999. T.C.A.S considers another aircraft to be on the ground at a

difference height between the barometric altimeter and rad/alt of
a) 200ft
b) 160ft
# c) 180ft
1000. In a radio altimeter installation the aerial spacing between aerials

must be
a) 12 feet
# b) 8 feet
c) 10 feet
1001. ACARS is used to transmit

a) in Flight
b) on the ground
# c) both of the above
Page 115 - Mod 13
Page 115
Sample Questions
1002. A Class 3 fault reporting failure
a) may have an operational consequence
b) does not have an operational consequence but may do if a
second failure occurs
# c) has no consequences on aircraft safety
1003. Audio frequency range is

a) 20 to 2000 Hz
# b) 20 to 20,000 Hz
c) 20 to 200,000 Hz
1004. An engine vibration indicator system uses

a) AC/DC in the indicator
# b) 2 filters in the indicator
c) AC/DC in the transmitter
1005. GCU power derives its power supply from

a) AC/DC power supplies
b) generator's own supply
# c) initially a trickle voltage from the permanent magnet
1006. Bedding of brushes of a generator in the air

# a) cannot be done
b) can be done if limits of brush wear are not exceeding 80%
depth 50% width
c) can be done once bedded in on the ground
1007. GCU is reset

# a) manually
b) by engine shut down restart
c) automatically
1008. turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left what is the aircraft
doing
# a) turning left
b) rolling left
c) turning right
1009. Alpha floor protection to the autothrottle will

a) withdraw flaps
# b) increase speed
c) increase angle of attack
1010. Throttle hold will occur

a) with weight on wheels
b) at the beginning of the take-off run
# c) at a predetermined take-off speed
Page 116 - Mod 13
Page 116
Sample Questions
1011. An autopilot transfer valve
a) converts hydraulic power to electrical power
# b) converts electrical power to hydraulic power
c) converts hydraulic power to electrical power and converts
electrical power to hydraulic powe
1012. The autothrottle controls the aircraft

# a) vertically
b) laterally
c) both later ally and vertically
1013. Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from

# a) the CADC
b) the IRS
c) the DME
1014. On replacement of an actuator that incorporates an autopilot

actuator, the autopilot must be checked for
a) correct sense of movement
b) correct sense and range of movement
# c) correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout
checks
1015. On replacement of an autopilot servo motor

a) position feedback must be checked
b) elevator and aileron must be checked
# c) torque limiting settings must be checked
1016. The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by

# a) aileron to rudder cross feed
b) rudder to aileron cross feed
c) rudder to pitch cross feed
1017. The frequency of dutch roll oscillations are

a) high
b) medium
# c) low
1018. A series yaw damper

# a) moves the rudder only
b) moves ailerons and rudder
c) moves the rudder and the rudder pedals
1019. The purpose of a yaw damper is to prevent

a) loss of height in a turn
b) adverse yaw
# c) dutch roll
Page 117 - Mod 13
Page 117
Sample Questions
1020. Mach trim usually operates between
a) 6.0 mach 7.0 mach
b) 9.0 mach and 9.99 mach
# c) 7.0 and 8.0 mach
1021. An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause

a) a red warning light to illuminate
# b) a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning
c) an aural warning only
1022. Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from

# a) CADC
b) IRS
c) Vertical gyro
1023. Mach trim prevents

a) the nose dropping in a low speed turn
b) the nose lifting at high speed
# c) the nose dropping at high speed
1024. Auto trimming trims the aircraft by

# a) moving the leading edge of the stabiliser
b) movement of the elevator
c) movement of either the elevator or the stabiliser
1025. Automatic trimming starts on the detection of

a) loss of position feedback
# b) standing load on the elevator
c) loss of servo input
1026. An autopilot runaway is prevented by

a) position feedback
b) a fuse
# c) torque limiting devise
1027. An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by

# a) loss of position feedback
b) loss of servo power supply
c) loss of clutch supply
1028. Inner loop servo control of an autopilot will provide

a) stability and navigation commands
b) navigation commands only
# c) stability only
1029. A signal at 120 MHz freq will normally propagate by means of

a) ground waves
b) sky waves
# c) space waves
Page 118 - Mod 13
Page 118
Sample Questions
1030. The length of a resonant antenna dipole is
a) lambda
b) lambda/2
# c) lambda/4
1031. In a vertically polarized electromagnetic wave

# a) the electric field vectors are vertical
b) the magnetic field vectors are vertical
c) both electric and magnetic are vertical
1032. In yagi-array antenna, the signal is fed through a cable to

a) dipole
b) parasitic elements
# c) both
Page 119

Module 13 - Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems Sample Questions

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Module 13 - Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems Sample Questions

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Module 13 Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems

1. Flaps at landing position

2. Lowering of the flaps

3. Pushing the left rudder pedal

4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

5. What do ruddervators do?

6. On a helicopter what is dragging?

7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

9. What does a trim tab do?

11. Satellite transmits updates on every

12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on

13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between

14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer

15. What is power at pulse?

16. What frequency increases radar relative range

17. If radar pulse is reduced there is

20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?

22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

25. Relative velocity of rotor

26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating

27. How many satellites required for GNS?

29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing

41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to

42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system

43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot

46. To carry out an autopilot check first

47. FAIL PASSIVE means

49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system

50. VOR capture can be determined by

51. Versine is generated by

52. Automatic trim is used to

54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

56. The GA mode is usually initiated by

57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode

58. To know the valid data base on the FMS

59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

60. A yaw damper system operates on

61. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator

66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be

71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

72. An elevator tab moves down

73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or -

77. What type of memory do CMCs have?

80. The stall margin is controlled by

81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of