This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. ANS: greater larger wider 8.25. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. ANS: zero 6. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude. ANS: bandwidth 7. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. and direction b. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: FDM 9. frequency. . and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: 1863 2. ANS: TDM 10. The part. ANS: 1901 3. frequency. its amplitude. ANS: channel 5. ANS: base 4. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. or parts. In ____________________. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. its amplitude c. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. The more information per second you send. In ____________________. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________.
Receiver. Channel. For satellite communications. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: wavelength 14.ANS: very high 11. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: 30 12. ANS: Source. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. Transmitter. Mathematically. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. ANS: 300 13. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. ANS: solar 19. Destination 2. ANS: Fourier 17. In free space. . The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 million 15. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________.
5. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. transit-time 3. . 1/f. Find its noise figure. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. 4. ANS: 1. ANS: 50 µV 6. the output of which is a noise current. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. Partition. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. Calculate the total noise voltage. both across the same 100-ohm load. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. NF = 100 8. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. Shot. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7.ANS: Thermal. Find the total NF for the pair. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Likewise.4 10. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. ANS: 20 dB. Likewise. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.5 9. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. both in dB and as a ratio. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Find NF. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. ANS: 5.
increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. reactance only . remove RF from non-RF circuits b.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. base-to-emitter capacitance d. a simple form of bandpass filter b. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. inductance of collector lead b. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. capacitance. reduce the Miller effect c. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. capacitance and resistance only b. and resistance d. have no effect on Q c. neutralize amplifiers d. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. transit time d. Miller time ANS: B 2. base-to-collector capacitance c. it cannot be avoided c. A resonant circuit is: a. none of the above c. A real capacitor actually contains: a. inductance. all of the above c. base time c. charge time b. the Miller Effect is due to: a. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. using a common-emitter amplifier b. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. "multiply" the Q d. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. In a BJT. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. The "Miller Effect" can: a. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. both a and b d. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a.
a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. an RC time constant d. the Bode criteria b. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. a piezoelectric crystal . the Hartley criteria d.9. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. In RF amplifiers. RC coupling c. a nonlinear circuit b. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. transformer coupling d. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. none of the above ANS: C 13. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. a modified Hartley oscillator b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. both a and b. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. an RC time constant d. the loop-gain criteria c. a signal containing harmonics d. direct coupling b. a tapped inductor b. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. a linear amplifier c. it requires: a. The Clapp oscillator is: a. only built with FETs c. loop gain equal to unity b. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a tapped inductor b. a piezoelectric crystal c. impedance matching is usually done with: a. decoupling it d. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. but at just one frequency d. lumped reactance ANS: B 10.
are fed to a mixer. c. none of the above ANS: A 20. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. the output: a. does not contain the input frequencies d. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b.17. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. a diode ANS: D c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. "VFO" stands for: a. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. A varactor is: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. the output: a. ANS: short 2. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. used in tuner circuits d. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. used for a precise frequency b. In a balanced mixer. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Generally. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. If two signals. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. all of the above ANS: D 19. contains the input frequencies c. all of the above 18. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. At UHF frequencies and above. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped".
parallel . the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. ANS: ground-plane 4. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: shielding 5. it is called a ____________________. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: 10 10. ANS: Q 9.ANS: distributed 3. Electrically. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. collector current). In high-frequency RF circuits. ANS: tuned circuit 11. ANS: neutralization 12. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. In a class C RF amplifier. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: series.g. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: bypass 8. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. ANS: components 6. ANS: capacitive 13.
4 µH 2. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider.05% 7. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. 0. To produce sum and difference frequencies.14. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. V1 and V2. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. 5. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. V2 is a 5MHz signal. Two sinusoidal signals. ANS: linear 15. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. At some bias point. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius.1 4.
39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.8. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .
none of the above c. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. m = Emin / Emax c. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = Va / Vc d. m = ωa / ωc c. At 100% modulation. twice the carrier power d. distortion b. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. The modulation index. none of the above c. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). half the carrier power b.414 × carrier power c. m. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. equal to the carrier power c. Audio Modulation b. Antenna Modulation . the amplitude signal d. m. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. the baseband signal b. is: a. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. it will produce the frequencies: a. Angle Modulation d. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. AM stands for: a. then the modulation index. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). the total sideband power is: a. is: a. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. splatter ANS: C 6. both a and b d. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. Overmodulation causes: a. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. 1. none of the above ANS: A 8. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = Emax / Emin d. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b.
none of the above ANS: B 10. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. AM is susceptible to noise c. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. all of the above ANS: C 13. 250 watts b.005 MHz b. Peak Envelope Power b. PEP stands for: a. 1000 watts c. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. 0 watts ANS: D 17.ANS: C 9. requires too much power d. the time-domain signal b. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. requires less bandwidth d. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. the received RF signal to increase d. 1. As compared to plain AM. 5 kHz c. The modulation index can be derived from: a. sideband-carrier d. none of the above c. none of the above c. Peak Envelope Product d. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. requires too much bandwidth c. none of the above . both a and b d. is more efficient b. 500 watts d. single-carrier b. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. all of the above ANS: D 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. SSB AM: a. 10 kHz d. you would expect: a.
Compared to the USB. the receiver must: a. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. all of the above ANS: C 18. commercial AM stations use low power c. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. ANS: simple 2. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. The total modulation index is: a. Compared to the USB. ANS: two 5. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. be set to USB mode c. In AM. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. m1 + m2 c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. ANS: envelope 4. ANS: the same 6. reinsert the carrier d. digital data b. video d. the information in the LSB is ____________________. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. the power in the LSB is ____________________.b. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. ANS: the same . all of the above ANS: D 19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. audio c. both a and b b. ANS: inefficient 3. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.
then the USB will extend up to ____________________.3. ANS: one 10. as the modulation index increases. what is the power in the USB at 70.6 .7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation.707 4. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. In AM. In AM. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.4. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0.5. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. 0. the carrier power _________________________. ANS: less 8. and 0. ANS: remains constant 9. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. In AM. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. With a 1-MHz carrier. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________.7.
what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts . A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.5. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts.
the threshold effect d. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. National Broadcast FM b. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. none of the above . Near Band FM d. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Narrowband FM c. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. Armstrong's Rule b. Bessel functions d. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. the limit effect ANS: B c. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. Taylor series b. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. fractals ANS: B 5. the noise effect b. Mathematically. it is called: a. Carson's Rule d. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. it is band-limited at the receiver d. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. the capture effect c. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. The FM modulation index: a. NBFM stands for: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c.
The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. the "two-station" effect b. can use amplitude modulation b. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. An SCA signal: a. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. the threshold effect d. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. none of the above ANS: A 9. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. all of the above c. ANS: data c. FM stereo: a. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. the capture effect c. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. ANS: angle 2.8. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. is monaural d. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. the time delay between the L and R channels d. is not compatible with mono FM .
ANS: stay constant 7. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. As the FM modulation index increases. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: better 4. ANS: any number 12. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. Compared to AM. their power ____________________. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS: C 6. ANS: decreases 11. ANS: decreases 14. the modulation index ____________________. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. as the frequency deviation decreases. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. Mathematically. Compared to AM. ANS: wider greater 5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. the modulation index ____________________. ANS: amplitude 8. ANS: infinite 10. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: frequency 9. In FM. . In FM. Mathematically. as the modulating frequency decreases. In FM.3. ANS: increases 13.
If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. ANS: Bessel 18. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. ANS: Carson's 17. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. such as 2. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. For certain values of mf. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency.ANS: increases 15. 1-kHz audio signal? . If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. ANS: threshold 19. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2.4. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. ANS: capture 20. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4.
Record the audio frequency.5. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9.4. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. For example. 5. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. At a modulation index of 2.4 watts 6.1. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values.2 watt) 8. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. . if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. Using Carson's rule. Using a spectrum analyzer. then δ is 11 kHz.ANS: 2 5. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier.5. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. At a modulation index of 2. At a modulation index of 2.
Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. ALC is used to: a. With high-level AM: a. a smaller number of signals d. agility c. all of the above ANS: D 3. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. VFO b. none of the above ANS: B 4. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. all of the above c. is a measure of efficiency c. Baseband compression produces: a. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. Amplitude Level Control b. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. keep the modulation close to 100% b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. may require water cooling b. all of the above c. expansion d. none of the above . the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. With high-level AM: a. In an AM transmitter. Accurate Level Control d. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. heats the transmitter d. maximize transmitted power d. ALC stands for: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. minimum RF power is required d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8.
the resistor is called: a. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. the driver stage b. has variable amplitude d. the power level of the carrier b. a test load ANS: B 16. wire-wound c.ANS: C 9. all of the above ANS: B 17. none of the above ANS: C 13. a dummy load d. "high-level" refers to: a. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. both a and b b. 75 ohms resistive d. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. In high-level AM. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. a temporary load b. A Class D amplifier is: a. is complex c. T network d. In high-level AM. has variable frequency b. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. the RF amplifier d. 300 ohms resistive b. pi network c. a heavy load c. very efficient c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. the carrier ANS: A 12. 1% tolerance or better b. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. the modulating amplifier c. the resistor must be: a. 50 ohms resistive c. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. none of the above . approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. all of the above ANS: B 10. noninductive d. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11.
The carrier is suppressed in: a. the carrier frequency can be raised b. a mechanical filter c.b. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. both a and b d. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. essentially balanced modulators b. Frequency multipliers are: a. To generate a SSB signal: a. both a and b d. integrates the modulating signal c. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. a crystal filter d. a mixer ANS: A d. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. none of the above ANS: C 21. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. An indirect FM modulator: a. start with full-carrier AM b. Automatic Frequency Control d. none of the above ANS: B 23. all of the above c. Audio Frequency Control . the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. none of the above ANS: A 22. none of the above 20. With mixing: a. none of the above c. start with a quadrature signal d. a balanced modulator b. both a and b b. all of the above c. A direct FM modulator: a. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. AFC stands for: a. essentially mixers d. a frequency multiplier d.
Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. ANS: compression 9. ANS: linear 11. .d. ANS: PEP 6. ANS: agility 5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: efficiently 10. In the USA. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: compression 7. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. a ____________________ stage is used. In Canada. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ALC is a form of ____________________. ANS: Industry Canada 4. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: expansion 8. ANS: FCC 3. ANS: carrier 2. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1.
ANS: mixing 22. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: driver 19. ANS: higher 13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load.ANS: buffer 12. To allow a high modulation percentage. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. ANS: harmonic 16. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: 50 14. To generate a SSB signal. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: receiver 18. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: T 15. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. ANS: duration 20. ANS: mismatch 17. ANS: DSBSC . Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. ANS: D 21.
Assuming high-level modulation. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. ANS: phase 24. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.23. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator.005 MHz 6. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC.8% 3. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2. ANS: reactance 25.001%. To pass the USB.
what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. .7. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. ANS: First. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation.
The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. intermediate frequency b. "Skin effect" refers to: a. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. Active Gain Conversion c. AGC stands for: a. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. Hertz ANS: C 3. small adjustable capacitors . the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. the spurious response and the tracking d. Trimmers and padders are: a. Active Gain Control d.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above c. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. indeterminate frequency d. Foster c. image frequency c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tuner b. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. is above the RF frequency c. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. "IF" stands for: a. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. Armstrong b. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. the mixer d. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. two types of adjusting tools b. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. Seeley d. Audio Gain Control b. small adjustable inductors d. none of the above ANS: C 5.
with two signals close in frequency.b. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. the detector ANS: D 15. there is no ideal value . it increases selectivity d. a value of 1. color video receivers ANS: B c. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. ANS: C 9. the mixer b. none of the above ANS: A 11.414 dB is ideal b. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. sensitivity measures: a. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. both values are basically equivalent d. Basically. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. is below the RF frequency c. all of the above c. voice communications systems b. all of the above c. Basically. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. none of the above c. When comparing values for shape factor: a. it increases sensitivity c. monochrome video receivers d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. selectivity measures: a. When comparing values for shape factor: a. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. Phase distortion is important in: a. a value of 0. the IF amplifiers d. typically at 455 kHz. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. a value of 1.0 is ideal d. is fixed. it is cheaper ANS: D 10.707 is ideal ANS: C 13.
having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. all of the above c. enter the mixer. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. PLL b. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. images cannot be rejected . envelope detector ANS: B 21. A common SSB detector is: a. enter the mixer. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. all of the above ANS: C 23. are transmitted on the same frequency b. a product detector c. ratio detector d. they are faster than silicon diodes b. enter the mixer. a diode ANS: D c. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. a BFO d. none of the above ANS: C 20. all of the above c. noise generated in the receiver d. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. An image must be rejected: a. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. the dynamic range of the receiver b. prior to mixing b. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. the AGC c. a PLL b. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. A common AM detector is the: a. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. quadrature detector d. An FM detector is the: a. PLL b.16. ratio detector ANS: D 22. prior to detection d.
An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. The function of a limiter is: a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Foster-Seeley detector c. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. LNA stands for: a. Audio Frequency Compensator b. to limit dynamic range d. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. a quadrature detector d. AFC b. reinject the carrier c. you need to: a. Automatic Frequency Control d. all of the above ANS: C 28. squelch d. coherent detection ANS: B 27. AGC c. limiting ANS: B 30. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. to limit noise response c. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. AFC stands for: a. carrier detection b. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. ratio detection .24. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. Low-Noise Audio d. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. envelope detection d. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. The function of AFC is: a. to remove amplitude variations b. maintain a constant IF frequency b. BFO stands for: a. a PLL detector b. use double conversion d.
c. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Digital Signal Processor c. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. SAW stands for: a. Distorted Signal Packet d. Tuned Radio Frequency b. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. none of the above ANS: B 33. Software-Activated Wave . it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. TRF stands for: a. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. none of the above c. ANS: superheterodyne 2. Tuned Receiver Function c. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. SINAD stands for: a. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. DSP stands for: a.c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. it is a stable bandpass filter d. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. The important property of a SAW is: a. The main function of the AGC is to: a. all of the above ANS: C 36. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Dynamic Signal Properties b.
ANS: AGC 10. In low-side injection. In a superhet.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: lower 12. ANS: intermediate IF 9. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: track 4. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: front end 7. ANS: autodyne 11. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: Sensitivity . The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. the other changes with it. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. ANS: Selectivity 13. In a receiver. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: 1918 6. ANS: mixer 8. ANS: skin 5. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. In a superhet. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted.
While still commonly found. ANS: product 19. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: gate 25. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. ANS: conversion 15. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: obsolescent 23. ANS: coherent 21. ANS: detector 17. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________.14. ANS: S 22. ANS: carrier 20. . Unlike the PLL detector. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. ANS: amplitude 24. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. ANS: noisy 26. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: image 16. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal.
ANS: over 28. ANS: adjustment 30. In a block converter. ANS: higher 31. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: stagger 29. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ANS: S 34. ANS: IF 33. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Typically. ANS: limiting 35.ANS: A 27. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: fixed constant 32. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. Compared to tuned circuits.
What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. Assuming high-side injection.20 kHz 2.01 . What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz.25 4.5 MHz.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5.06 7. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.
The Shannon Limit is given by: a. none of the above . a sample-and-hold circuit b. TDM stands for: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. true binary numbers ANS: A c. Morse code d. I = ktB b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. all of the above ANS: C 3. In digital transmission. Baudot code ANS: C 2. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. SR = 2fmax c. I = ktB b. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. Natural Sampling does not use: a. I = ktB b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. SR = 2fmax c. Hartley's Law is: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. I = ktB b.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a regenerative repeater b. a fixed sample rate d. SR = 2fmax c. SR = 2fmax c. Time-Division Multiplexing b. The first digital code was the: a. an amplifier c. ASCII code b. a filter d. signal degradation can be removed using: a. Ten-Digital Manchester d. an analog-to-digital converter c. Ten Dual-Manchester c. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7.
the µ Law (mu law) c. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. ANS: D 10. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. d. too few samples per second d. You can have one or the other. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PCM d. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. PDM c. a sample alias b. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. The immediate result of sampling is: a. the A Law c.9. PWM d. In North America. PPM b. They are the same thing. c. b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. none of the above ANS: A 15. noise b. PPS ANS: D 13. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. Companding is used to: a. but not both. PAM ANS: B 12. PDM c. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. decreases as the sample rate increases b. They are two types of sampling error. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. companding uses: a. the α Law (alpha law) d. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. all of the above . reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. the Logarithmic Law b.
provides strong timing information d. Manchester d. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. the A Law ANS: B 18. delta modulation: a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the Logarithmic Law b. Compared to PCM. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. 4-bit numbers c. the α Law (alpha law) d. Coder-Decoder b. transmits fewer bits per sample b. 12-bit numbers b. In delta modulation. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. is a biphase code b. the bit rate is too high b. none of the above c. AMI c. the µ Law (mu law) . 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. unipolar NRZ b. "granular noise" is produced when: a. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. can suffer slope overload d. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. In Europe. Compared to PCM. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. all of the above c. Codec stands for: a. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. Manchester coding: a. only over shorter distances b. the signal does not change d. Code-Compression d. all of the above ANS: D 25.ANS: D 17. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. 8-bit numbers d. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. companding uses: a.
bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d.a. 1. 8 29. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. In DS-1. 56 k d. 8 k c. 8 c. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 64 kb/s d.544 MB/s c. 4 d. 1. 24 d. 6 b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. all of the above c. 4 d. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. 64 k b. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. A typical T-1 line uses: c.544 × 106 ANS: A 30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 12 ANS: B 34. 56 kb/s d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. pulse-width coding c. Manchester coding b. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 2 ANS: D c. detect errors b. detect errors b.544 Mb/s b. 2 ANS: A 26. 1. 8 kb/s . carry signaling ANS: C 27. 48 c. NRZ coding d. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. all of the above c. A T-1 cable uses: a. 1 b. 56 kb/s b. 1 b.
using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. ANS: improved better 2. twisted-pair wire b. To send it over an analog channel. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. somewhat better d. on-hook/off-hook condition b. ANS: digitized 4. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. all of the above 36. ringing d. Compared to standard PCM systems. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. microwave c. about the same b. busy signal ANS: D c. In analog channels. fiber-optic cable d. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. ANS: modulated 3. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. A vocoder implements compression by: a. an analog signal must first be ____________________. much better c. ANS: binary . the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. To send it over a digital channel. constructing a model of the human vocal system c.a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality.
____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: Foldover . The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. information capacity. ANS: Time 10. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. Ignoring noise. ANS: Nyquist 16. ANS: Hartley's 12. and bandwidth. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ANS: limited 11. ANS: Shannon 14. ANS: Natural 15. ANS: regenerative 7. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: correct 8. ANS: error noise 9.6. All practical communications channels are band-____________________.
compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: codec 25. ANS: µ mu 23. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: higher . ANS: 12 26. In North America. ANS: Aliasing 18.17. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. In Europe. ANS: Quantizing 21. In a PCM system. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: A 24. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: 1 one 27. ANS: amplitude 19. ANS: Pulse-code 20. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: Companding 22. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
ANS: DC 33. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: zeros 35. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: 24 38. ANS: framing 39. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: half 32. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. In delta modulation. ANS: polarity 34. ANS: step 31. . ANS: transition 36. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.28. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: Granular 29. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. In DS-1. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. In AMI. ANS: timing 37. ANS: slope 30. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. ANS: 8000 40.
What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . From a group of twelve frames. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. in dB. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. What is the approximate dynamic range. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. ANS: sixth 43.ANS: 1.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.544 × 106 41.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. ANS: 5 seconds 2. ANS: superframe 42. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1.
Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.833 volt .388 volt? ANS: 0. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame. what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8.ANS: 64 kbps 7.
a way of accessing a tandem office d. Primary Operational Test System d. DTMF stands for: a. A LATA is a: a. an interexchange office c. Public Switched Telephone Network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. a tandem office b. local loops b. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Local loops terminate at: a. Central offices are connected by: a. POTS stands for: a. trunk lines ANS: B 7. a local calling area b. occurs only on long-distance cables d. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. a toll station ANS: C 8. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. a way of accessing a central office c. a central office d. Local Area Transport Access c. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . none of the above c. Private Office Telephone System b. Local Access and Transport Area b. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Call blocking: a. Local Area Telephone Access d. LATA stands for: a. PSTN stands for: a. Plain Old Telephone Service c. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. both a and b d. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6.
POP stands for: a. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. 90 volts DC b. Post Office Protocol b. fiber-optic c. ESS ANS: C 16. 2 mA to 8 mA b. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. DC current flows through a telephone: a. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. 20 hertz AC d. step-by-step switching control c. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. FITL stands for: a. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. only when it is ringing c. crossbar control d.ANS: D 9. twisted-pair copper wire b. Framing In The Loop d. none of the above . 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. coaxial cable d. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. 48 volts DC c. 20 µA to 80 µA c. when it is on hook b. Loading coils were used to: a. 48 volts. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. common control b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. Power-On Protocol d. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. In telephony. 90 volts. reduce crosstalk d. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 200 µA to 800 µA d. Framing Information for Toll Loops b.
volume net loss ANS: C 20. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. DSBSC d. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. PABX stands for: a. 90 volts DC d. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. prevent oscillation d. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 90 volts. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. voice is put on a carrier using: a. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. VNL stands for: a. via net loss d. all of the above c. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 1 pW d. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. 6 c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. voice noise level . voltage net loss b. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. SSB c. eliminate reflections c. PDM b. 24 b. 12 d. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. PCM ANS: A 25. 1 mW b. 60 ANS: B 23. mastergroups ANS: D 24. 48 volts DC b. prevent "singing" d. 20 hertz AC 18.a. all of the above ANS: C 19. supergroups b. In telephone system FDM. 0 dBr c. jumbogroups d. 48 volts.
Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. c. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. carry signaling ANS: B 28.26. A ____________________ is a local calling area. much faster c. Integrated Services Data Network d. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. ANS: LATA 2. provide synchronization b. compensation b. Compared to ISDN. much more expensive b. ADSL stands for: a. Access to Data Services Line . Integrated Services Digital Network b. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. In DS-1. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. frame alignment c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. cancel echoes d. SLIC stands for: a. justification d. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. it is too slow c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. rectification ANS: C 29. Information Systems Digital Network 30. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. about the same speed d. it took to long to develop b. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. ISDN stands for: a. check for errors c.
ANS: flat 9. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: tip 12. ANS: twisted-pair 8. ANS: blocking 6. As compared to a hierarchical network. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: ten 5. ANS: ring 11. ANS: Loading 10. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. ANS: green 13. ANS: seized 14. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. With 7-digit phone numbers. Of the red and green 'phone wires. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. . ANS: digital 7. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ANS: tandem 4.ANS: trunk 3. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. the green wire is called ____________________.
ANS: conditioned 20. In the telephone system. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: suppressor 22. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. In FDM telephony. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. ANS: DTMF 19. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: repeaters 21. ANS: 56 . In FDM telephony. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.ANS: BORSCHT 15. Because of "bit robbing". ANS: guard 25. In a crosspoint switch. ANS: hybrid 16. ANS: large 18. ANS: lines 17. amplifiers are called ____________________. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: C-message 23. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. the modulation is usually ____________________. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data.
SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: D 32. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. In ADSL. ANS: superframe 27. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: B 33. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. ANS: stuff 28. In ISDN. ANS: TE1 34.26. In DS-1C. ANS: packet 31. If the loop current is 40 mA. In ISDN. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: in-channel 29. ANS: asymmetrical 35. For a certain telephone. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ANS: common-channel 30. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1.
ANS: 1 dB 5.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. For a certain telephone. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. If the loop current is 40 mA. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4.
Line Forward c. LF stands for: a. alphanumeric characters b.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Western Union d. all of the above c. Line Feed c. data link control characters ANS: D 6. they do not have any other name d. numerical data b. none of the above c. In practical terms. FIGS data c. escape characters ANS: C 8. both a and b c. Emile Baudot . binary data d. character codes b. American Standard Character-set 2 b. Data codes are also called: a. nonstandard character codes b. all of the above ANS: B 5. American Standard Code 2 d. character sets ANS: C 4. the Morkum Company b. control characters d. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. BS. usually over long distances d. over short distances only c. and CR are examples of: a. over any distance b. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. ASCII stands for: a. FF. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. graphic control characters d. parallel data transmission is sent: a. Character codes include: a. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a.
To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. Link Feed ANS: A d. the channel must be noise-free .b. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. UART stands for: a. 128 bytes long d. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. the frames are: a. the CRC bits b. equal to zero c. the clock bits c. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. In asynchronous transmission. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. In synchronous transmission. In synchronous transmission. not a set length ANS: D 12. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. the data bits d. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. much longer than asynchronous frames c. Link Forward 9. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. In asynchronous transmission. all of the above ANS: A 14. the time between consecutive frames is: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. Unaltered Received Text d. not synchronized at all. equal to one bit-time d. the transmitter and receiver are: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11.
CRC stands for: a. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. VRC is another name for: a. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. is identical to SDLC d. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. "bit-stuffing" b. all of the above c. automatic receiver queue d. BISYNC: a. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. FEC b. requires the use of DLE d. Cycle Repeat Character c. False Error Condition c. automatic request for queue c. LRC d. FEC stands for: a.ANS: A 16. parity c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. none of the above c. ARQ ANS: D 23. Forward Error Correction d. put data into a temporary buffer d. FEC d. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. ARQ is used to: a. correct bit errors b. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. Huffman codes: a. Fixed Error Control b. automatic request for resynchronization b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. is an IBM product b. is an IBM product b. Control Receiver Code b. ARQ c. all of the above . HDLC: a.
HDLC is: a. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: Baudot 3. Synchronous Data Line Character c. allows the use of digital signatures b. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. all of the above c. Synchronous Data Link Control b. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25.d. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. avoids the "password problem" d. a bit-oriented protocol b. ANS: short 2. ANS: character 4. an ISO standard d. ANS: FF c. SDLC stands for: a. compress data ANS: B 26. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Public-key encryption: a. Run-length encoding is used to: a. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. ANS: ASCII 5. all of the above c. none of the above . Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. correct data d. encrypt data b. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page.
ANS: flag 16. ANS: data 14. When receiving digital data.6. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. At the end of an asynchronous frame. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: stop 8. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. ANS: start 7. . ANS: 01111110 17. ANS: UART 10. ANS: buffers 11. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. the line will be at the ____________________ level. ANS: transitions 13. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: efficient 12. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. In HDLC. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: mark binary 1 9.
Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. DLE stands for data link ____________________.ANS: block 18. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: forward 22. . An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: decrypted 30. ANS: ARQ 23. ANS: compression 26. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: Burst 21. ANS: long 29. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. Because it is ____________________-intensive. ANS: escape 19. ANS: burst 25. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. If the key is ____________________ enough. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: password 28. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. ANS: cipher 27. ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: even 24.
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. ANS: 66. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. a parity bit. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). ANS: 97. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5.0% . How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2.7% 6. and two stop bits (it could happen). What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1.
In a circuit-switched network: a. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. none of the above ANS: B 6. all of the above c. Most LANs: a. are based on Ethernet b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. a network of networks b. Carrier Detection b. communication is half-duplex only b. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. CSMA stands for: a. Each computer on a network is called a: a.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. Dumb terminals are still used: a. a very large CSMA/CD network d. slower c. not as widely used c. use UTP cable d. token ANS: C 8. each channel carries only one data stream c. circuit c. Collision Delay c. hub b. not really a network at all c. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. token-passing rings are: a. node d. none of the above . in token-passing networks b. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Collision Detection d. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. The Internet is: a. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Carrier Server Master Application d. all of the above ANS: B 7.
users d. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. the network goes down b. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. the network slows down ANS: B 16. packets c. excess traffic b. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. MAU stands for: a. In an Ethernet-based network. nodes c. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. collisions ANS: D 15. a central bus d. contention d. multiple access ANS: B 12.b. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. it is called: a. packets b. data is lost . it is called: a.3 c. all of the above 9. Ethernet d. EIA 232 c. the cable overheats d. nodes d. none of the above c. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. The effect of too many collisions is: a. token-passing b. a collision c. a node b. more expensive ANS: D d. multiple access ANS: A 13. none of the above ANS: D 10. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. tokens ANS: A 11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. Multistation Access Unit b. On networks. IEEE 802. CSMA c. a collision c. contention d. carriers b. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. a central ring c. excess traffic b. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17.
it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. fiber-optic cable b. Network Interface Code d. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. to increase the data rate b.1 ANS: C 18. Network Interface Card b. an RJ45 connector c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. a BNC connector c. NRZ encoding b. INTEL ANS: C d. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. Xerox d. Manchester encoding c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. all of the above ANS: C 23. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. 50-ohm coaxial cable . NIC stands for: a. RG-58U coaxial cable d. CCITT ITU-E c. Ethernet was invented by: a. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. Three-Level encoding d. the cable carries baseband signals b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to increase the data rate b. IEEE 488. Network Internal Code c. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. none of the above ANS: A 22. all of the above ANS: C 24. IBM b.b.
are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. Broadband LANs: a. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. A switch: a. are cheaper c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. client-server networks d. A hub: a. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. all of the above ANS: D 32. use coaxial cables c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. all of the above ANS: C 31. UTP stands for: a. both a and b b. allow faster bit rates b. a T connector ANS: C 26.b. it is faster when used in large networks c. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. an RS11 connector c. none of the above ANS: B . cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. Unicode Text Packet 27. modulate the data onto a carrier b. all of the above ANS: C 28. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. CAT-5 cables: a. peer-to-peer networks c. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c.
Record locking is used to: a. ANS: networks 3. A "thin" client is: a. ANS: circuit 5. a PC with no disk drives b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. ANS: packet c. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. all nodes are connected to a central computer. Novell certified ANS: C 35. ANS: topology 6. ANS: Local 2. In a ____________________ network. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. basically. same as a "dumb" terminal d. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. ANS: star 4. none of the above ANS: C 34. In a ____________________-switched network. all of the above . Ring networks often use ____________________-passing.33. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: token 7. UNIX-based c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. multitasking b. The Internet is a network of ____________________. store records securely on a server b. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. WINDOWS-based d. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.
ANS: NIC 17.8. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: detected 11. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: collision 10. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: length 16. ANS: 100 mega 14. In CSMA/CD. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. one big hub. ANS: Contention 9. all collisions must be ____________________. In CSMA/CD networks. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. In CSMA/CD. ANS: address . ANS: minimum 15. in effect. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: stacked 19. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: backbone 13.
The collision would not be detected. What is a NIC address. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. send a packet. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. It still works like a token-passing ring. 3. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. 5. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1.20. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. 4. the entire network is inoperative. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. 2. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. . ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub.
physical layer ANS: D 7.25 ANS: D c. link layer c. frame layer b. Standard Network Access b. frame c. Frame Relay: a. allows for variable length packets d. transport layer ANS: A 6.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. is faster than X. cable layer b. Standard Network Architecture d. Metropolitan-Area Network d. link layer ANS: C 8. Packet switching is based on: a. physical layer c.25 b. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. 8 c. Multiple Access Network . A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. real-time delivery d. link layer d. all of the above c. SNA stands for: a. network d. MAN stands for: a. store-and-forward b. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. all of the above c. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. 5 ANS: C 5. 7 d. does less error checking than X. user b. Systems Network Architecture c. switched circuits ANS: A 3. 3 b. Manchester Access Network b. error-check layer d. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2.
Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. User Data Packet d. Automatic Test Mode 10. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. datagrams c. TCP/IP consists of: a. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. HTTP stands for: a. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. User Datagram Protocol b. an application and a process d. Interconnect Procedure . Together. Interconnect Protocol d. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. 5 layers b. looks at the address of each packet c. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. connection-oriented protocol b. Transfer Connection Protocol d. UDP stands for: a. non-robust protocol c. Internet Process b. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. A bridge: a. IP stands for: a. operate at the data-link level d. 7 layers ANS: A 14. connectionless protocol d. none of the above c. ATM stands for: a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. is essentially forever b. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. TCP stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. Universal Data Packet c.9. Transmission Control Process b. IP is a: a.
web page layout d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. a 32-bit binary number b. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. file transport ANS: C 19. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. none of the above ANS: A 23. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. File Transfer Protocol b. running out of available values d. browsers d. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. all of the above c. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. dumb terminals b. SMTP stands for: a. Internet Service Protocol b. none of the above . File Test Procedure d. Internet Service Procedure d. all of the above c. telneting b. HTML stands for: a.b. none of the above c. HTML allows: a. Hypertext Markup Language b. FTP stands for: a. HTTP allows the use of: a. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. ISP stands for: a. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. four groups of base-ten numbers c. FTP is used to: a. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. Fast Transport Packet c. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c.
a DNS c. ANS: forward 6. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. has become obsolete on the Internet b. Domain Naming System . Domain Numbering System d. Open Systems Internet d. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. Open Systems Interconnection b.ANS: D 26. ANS: Metropolitan 2. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. translates words to numbers c. stores all domain addresses d. A DNS: a. a "brick wall" d. DNS stands for: a. a "firewall" b. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. OSI stands for: a. ANS: switched 5. c. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. ANS: Wide 3. Domain Name Server b. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. ANS: leased 4. none of the above c.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. margin of noise b. none of the above . too many bits high c. amperes b. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. bits d. the eye is half open b. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. PSK stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. Full-Signal Keying d. QAM ANS: A c. Phase-Signal Keying d. Pulse-Signal Keying b. AFSK d. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. Phase-Shift Keying c. M is the: a. In the equation I = ktB. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. none of the above c. number of possible states per symbol d. bits per second c. the eye is maximally closed d. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. amperes per second ANS: C 5.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. modulation index ANS: C 6. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. maximum number of symbols per second c. the eye is maximally open c. PSK b. intermodulation distortion b. FSK c. I is measured in: a. too many bits low d. QAM stands for: a. FSK stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. Full-Shift Keying b.
600 bps. FSK c. angles of π/4. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. full-duplex.N. CCITT b. random bits c. frequency and phase angle b. 1200 bps. FSK ANS: A 14. amplitude and phase angle d. International Telecommunications Units c. angles of 45. FSK b. angles of 0. 180. half-duplex. 225. 135. 300 bps. a random sequence c. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. For QAM. For QAM. International Telecommunications Union d. a QPSK symbol contains: a. 1200 bps. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. effects of noise on symbols d. ANSI c. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. 3π/4. and 4π/4 b. 2π/4. a dibit b.9. IEEE d. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. noise and interference b. 90. FSK d. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. uneven phase and frequency response c. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. and 315 degrees d. a byte c. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. full-duplex. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. and 270 degrees c. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. 4 bits d. low SNR d. amplitude and frequency c. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. Instead of a single bit. To reduce the need for linearity. the U. all of the above . Gaussian bits b. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. ANS: B 16. a training sequence d. full-duplex. International Telephony Unit b.
On a DB-25 RS-232 connector.42 bis are both: a. 3 d. and MNP10 are all: a. 7 ANS: C 26. both a and b d. a DSR ANS: D 25. signal ground is pin: a. The V.ANS: C 18. RTS/CTS handshake b. MNP3. flow control is done using: a. the ISO . data-compression schemes b. 1 c. 1 c. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. the EIA b. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. the TIA ANS: C 19. signal ground is pin: a. ISO-232C/D d. In RS-232. In RS-232. a DSR ANS: C 24. a DCE d. none of the above c.90 standard is issued by: a. RS-232C b. 3 d. a personal computer would be: a. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. both a and b d. ANSI-232C c. MNP5 and V. data-compression schemes b. a DTE c. a modem would be: a. both a and b d. a DCE d. In RS-232. The official name for RS-232C is: a. 5 b. the ITU d. 5 b. a DTR b. a DTE c. a DTR b. MNP2. none of the above c. 7 c. MNP4. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. none of the above c.
+9 volts b. Digital Subscriber Line d. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a. TD and RD ANS: A 30. XON and XOFF b. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. none of the above c. RTS and CTS d. and signal ground . Asynchronous DSL b. RD.ANS: D 27. TD and RD ANS: C 29. DSR and DCD c. Head Frequency Control b. Analog DSL d. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. ADSL d. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. TD. Hybrid Fiber Control c. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. +15 volts c. DSL stands for: a. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. +12 volts d. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. In a CATV system. In a CATV system. RD. Double-Speed Loop c. TD and RD b. ADSL Lite b. and signal ground ANS: B 28. RTS and CTS d. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Data Signal Line b. All DSL c. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. TD. CMTS stands for: a. DSR. Hardware flow control uses: a. RD. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. CTS. RTS. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. Software flow control uses: a. TD. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. DSR and DCD c. and signal ground d. HFC stands for: a. Any DSL scheme c. XON and XOFF b.
ANS: C COMPLETION 1. The response to RTS is ____________________. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ANS: baud 7. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: Telecommunications 12. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. ANS: dibit 8. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. . ANS: four 9. ANS: Data 5. ANS: CTS 3. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ANS: Quadrature 6. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. In QAM modems. ANS: Keying 4. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ANS: Delta 10. RTS means Request To ____________________. ANS: constellation 11. ANS: Send 2. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation.
a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. In a CATV system using cable modems. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. In RS-232. ANS: 3 19. ____________________ flow control is preferred. ANS: hardware 18. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. .ANS: Trellis 13. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ANS: Equalization 14. ANS: 54k 15. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: CMTS 23. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: 20k 16. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: tree 22. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: null 20.
how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . ANS: 4000 2. ANS: ADSL 25. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. ANS: DMT 27. A DMT system uses 4. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol.ANS: Ranging 24. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. ANS: lite 26. If half the modems are active at any given time.
Besides data bits. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. Time Domain Multiple Access b.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. the signals come from different sources c. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. signaling bit d. Tone Division Multiple Access d. 256 kbps d.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. all of the above ANS: C 5. framing bit c. the bandwidth of each signal b. 1. A DS-1 signal contains: a.536 Mbps b. 12 channels b. every other frame c. every frame b. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. 24 channels ANS: B 6. TDM is used in RF communications d. When calculating the maximum number of users. Code-Division Multiple Access b. 1. the length of the channel d. 64 channels c. all the signals come from the same source b. every twelfth frame c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. timing bit b. CDMA stands for: a. T-bit ANS: D 8. none of the above c. TDMA stands for: a. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. 32 channels d. 64 kbps c. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. every sixth frame d. the type of media used c. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. none of the above . In DS-1.
all of the above c. the S/N ratio b. line switching b. A digital space switch is a: a. a wideband receiver d. the chip size ANS: B 17. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. To calculate processing gain. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. direct-sequence systems. multiplexer b. about the same bandwidth c. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. space switching d. direct-sequence method d. a CDMA receiver c. much less bandwidth b. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. a narrowband receiver c. RF gain b. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. bandwidth of original baseband d. TDM switch ANS: D 12. For a given data rate. computerized Strowger switch d. spreading gain d. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. space switching d. signal switching b. computer speed ANS: C 16. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. direct-sequence method d. all of the above c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. time switching c. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. time switching c. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. use: a. compared to standard RF systems. crosspoint switch . a direct-conversion receiver b.ANS: C 9. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. much more bandwidth d. the digital data bit rate c. cross-point switching ANS: B 10.
ANS: frequency . a wideband receiver d. TDMA. ANS: time 7. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. CDMA requires the use of: a. Using CDMA on a radio channel. and ____________________. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. ANS: CDMA 3. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. true-random PN sequences b. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. In FDM. ANS: all 4. In TDM. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. ANS: part 5. a direct-conversion receiver b. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. ANS: share 2. ANS: all 6. cannot be used on an RF channel d. CDMA: a. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19.ANS: A 18. For optimal performance. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. a narrowband receiver c. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. orthogonal PN sequences c.
A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: space 15. ANS: time 16. ANS: 1. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: 24 9. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal.8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels.544 Meg 12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: hopping 19. ANS: difficult 20. ANS: superframe 14. ANS: 8 13. . Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. ANS: pseudo 18. ANS: AMI 10. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. ANS: 193 11. ANS: Rayleigh 17.
the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. the higher the possible bit rate. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. So the more bandwidth available. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. ANS: code 24. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. 5. ANS: ten 23. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. spread out over a very wide bandwidth.ANS: difficult 21. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. 4. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. by definition. 2. ANS: chips 22. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission.
f23. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. f12. as it is in spread-spectrum. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. f12. If the two sets of frequencies. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. have no frequencies in common.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. (f11. f22.). and so forth. . At some point in time.. f13. f22. and so forth.. 6..) and (f21. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. . f23. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission.. . f13.
the resistance per foot of the wire used b. decreases d. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. distributed d. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. An example of an unbalanced line is: a.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. the Ohmic effect d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. the skin effect b. a coaxial cable b. all of the above c. increases c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. Shorted Wave Radiation b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. When analyzing a transmission line. TDR stands for: a. As frequency increases. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. I2R loss c. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. Time-Domain Response d. lumped c. Transmission Delay Ratio c. stays the same b. the resistance of a wire: a. ideal elements ANS: B 5. none of the above . decreases d. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. Shorted Wire Region d. SWR stands for: a. an open-wire-line cable d. changes periodically ANS: A 6. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. stays the same b. Total Distance of Reflection b. equal reactances b. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. increases c. As frequency increases.
The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. none of the above . For best matching. the dielectric constant d. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. higher than Z0 d. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. increases with length b. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. all of the above ANS: B 12. zero b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. higher voltage peaks on cable d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. standing waves b. equal to Z0 b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. as large as possible d. the load on a cable should be: a. The optimum value for SWR is: a. all of the above c. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. lower than Z0 c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d.ANS: D 9. would reflect as a negative pulse c. the inductance per foot b. the wire resistance c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. increases with voltage d. there is no optimum value c. one ANS: B 16. loss of power to load c. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15.
you "normalize" the impedance by: a.ANS: D 17. VSWR stands for: a. the current d. find the position of a defect in a cable c. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. the characteristic impedance b. zero c. is zero d. the impedance b. would be more d. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. A TDR is commonly used to: a. transmission line losses c. On a Smith Chart. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. none of the above . 50 ohms ANS: C 19. one d. would be the same b. none of the above ANS: C 25. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. is infinite c. optimum length of a transmission line d. Compared to a 300-ohm line. by using a "balun" b. is the characteristic impedance b. the voltage c. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. transmission line impedances b. voltage SWR d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. none of the above ANS: D 24. assuming it to be zero c. would be less c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. multiplying it by 2π b. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. dividing it by 2π d. by using a filter d. variable SWR b. directly c. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
7. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable.5 8. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .2 9. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0.
In free space. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above c. the miniature cell-site d. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. perpendicular to each other c. 300 × 10 meters per second d. radio waves b. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. True Electromagnetic d. Transverse Electromagnetic b. Hertz d. Armstrong c. both a and b b. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. reuse of frequencies b. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. the microprocessor chip c. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. high-power microwave transmitters b. high antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 4. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. Armstrong c. Marconi ANS: B 3. high power levels c. Marconi ANS: C 2. Maxwell b. TEM stands for: a. Maxwell b. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. all of the above ANS: C 5. 3 × 106 meters per second c. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. gamma waves d. Hertz d. none of the above ANS: C 7. light ANS: D 6. all of the above .
a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. none of the above . all of the above ANS: D 11. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. an isotropic radiator b. circular b. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. vertical c. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. many ANS: B 12. all of the above ANS: D 10. below about 2 MHz b. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a.9. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. circular b. a ground-wave antenna d. reflection c. 2 d. 3 b. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. at microwave frequencies d. horizontal d. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. Ground waves are most effective: a. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. horizontal d. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. a flat body of water c. when using horizontally polarized waves c. vertical c. 1 c. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. EIRP stands for: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. refraction c.
A "repeater" is used to: a. send a message multiple times over a channel b. fading b. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. are same as space waves d.b. are line-of-sight b. diffraction ANS: C 23. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. extend the range of a radio communications system d. repeaters ANS: D 25. Sky waves: a. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. in the "silent" zone d. the cell area is increased c. high power b. frequency diversity b. reflected off the ionosphere c. multipath distortion d. fading c. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. diffraction 18. Space waves are: a. the reuse of frequencies c. cancellation due to reflection c. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. same as sky waves d. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. the radio horizon d. in the "skip" zone . line-of-sight b. close to the transmitter b. diffusion ANS: D d. the power levels are increased c. diffraction d. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a.
Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. a "sectoring" process occurs d. used for radio telephony b. multiple receivers b. ANS: Maxwell 2. none of the above ANS: B 28. both cells will handle the call b. a "handoff" process occurs c. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. the number of channels is reduced 26. a "rake" receiver d. ANS: 300 × 106 5. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. To receive several data streams at once. also called "ducting" d. not possible c. a "funnel" receiver c. highest layer of the atmosphere b.b. The troposphere is the: a. ANS: photons 6. ANS: Hertz 3. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. Unlike sound or water waves. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. c. the cell area is split ANS: B d. ANS: transverse 4. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves.
ANS: medium 7. ANS: isotropic 9. ANS: electric 12. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: decrease 17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: gain 16. ANS: perpendicular 13. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. ANS: 3 × 106 8. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. ANS: perpendicular 14. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. At a far distance from the source. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. ANS: specular . ANS: plane 11. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. ANS: circular 15. ANS: sphere 10.
The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. ANS: skip 24. ANS: microprocessor . ANS: Ground 22. ANS: Sky 23. ANS: Refraction 19. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ANS: Space 21. ANS: diffraction 20. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. to reduce interference. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: low 27. ANS: Sectoring 29. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. ANS: reflected 26.18. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. each covering a third of the cell area. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ANS: reuse 28. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. ANS: multipath 25.
What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. What.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3.SHORT ANSWER 1. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. approximately. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function.9 km 5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt. what is the power density 10. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space.
The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. one half-wavelength d. from +90° to –90° b. none of the above .Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. one wavelength c. 10 dB b. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. 3 dB d. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. active antenna b. 0 dB c. from front to back c. SWR along the feed cable d. between the minor side-lobes c. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. all of the above ANS: A 2. directivity c. Measured on the ground. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. the reflected signal d. radiation resistance of the antenna b. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. infinite ANS: A 8. in one direction c. a Marconi antenna b. a Yagi antenna d. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. in two directions d. the radiated signal c. between half-power points d. selectivity d. in all directions b. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. resonance ANS: A 7. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. the SWR b.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. ANS: balun 17. ANS: wider greater more 19. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. ANS: ground 22.14. . ANS: one 24. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. ANS: effective 15. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: gain 16. ANS: horizontal 18. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ANS: vertical 20. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. ANS: parasitic 25. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21.
the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. ANS: five 27. If an LPDA had five elements.ANS: log-periodic 26. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. ANS: horn 30. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. ANS: collimated 29. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. If an antenna has 10. ANS: focus 28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.14 dB of gain compared to a point source.
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .
TE 01 b. both b and c ANS: D 8. TM 01 ANS: C 6. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. the point of signal injection b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. depends on the frequency it carries c. 10 GHz b. is fixed b. none of the above ANS: A 4. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. of its circular symmetry d. below the microwave range b. 100 MHz c. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. it is dominant c. through a hole in the waveguide b. TE 10 a. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. TM 01 d. above the microwave range d. TM10 ANS: C 5. TE 01 c. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. with an electric field probe d. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. TM11 b. it is the only mode possible b.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. same as the microwave range . the power level of the signal d. TE 11 d. all of the above c. The UHF range is: a. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. the shape of the waveguide c. with a magnetic field probe c. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a.
couple sections of waveguide b. Transverse Wave Transmission b. GaAs stands for: a. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. A "circulator" is a device that: a. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. gallium arsenide b. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. tuned circuit b. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. their coupling specification d. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. none of the above . A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. all of the above ANS: D 10. none of the above c.ANS: D 9. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. an H-plane TEE b. TWT stands for: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. all of the above c. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. separates signals among various ports d. a "magic" TEE d. couple components on a circuit board d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. Traveling-Wave Tube d. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. their insertion loss c. none of the above c. An "isolator" is a device that: a. antenna d. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. their directivity b. gallium assembly ANS: A c. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. separates signals among various ports d. gallium astenite d.
magnetron b. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. none of the above c. magnetron b. TWT c. an "exciter" signal 20. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. klystron d. the Doppler effect d. Fresnel lenses b. klystron d. remote detection and ranging . Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. continuous transmission ANS: D c. Yagis d. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. TWT c. YIG ANS: C 21. YIG ANS: A 22. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. none of the above c. impact avalanche and transit time b. all of the above c. IMPATT stands for: a. implied power at transmission terminal d. klystron d. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. radio detection and ranging d. an electric field b. radio ranging b. RADAR uses: a. mechanical pressure d. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. all of the above ANS: A 24.17. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. slots c. TWT c. RADAR stands for: a. YIG stands for: a. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. magnetron b. a magnetic field ANS: B c. pulsed transmission b. YIG ANS: B 23.
the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. ANS: zero 3. decreases with increasing pulse duration d.26. ANS: electric 5. In a circular waveguide. ANS: faster 10. In a waveguide. ANS: Dispersion 2. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ANS: slower 9. none of the above ANS: B 27. In a waveguide. increases with increasing repetition rate c. In TE10 mode. ANS: dominant 4. decreases with increasing pulse period b. In a waveguide. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: TM01 7. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. . ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ANS: high 8. In TE20 mode. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. ANS: two 6. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. increases with increasing pulse duration c. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. decreases with increasing repetition rate d.
ANS: patch 19.ANS: decreases 11. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: linear 17. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. ANS: high 13. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: cavity 14. . The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. ANS: slot 18. ANS: smaller 20. ANS: wave 16. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.
ANS: 14.ANS: 3 GHz 2. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4.8 6. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 15 km 7. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.
skip b. Microwave systems use: a. noise level d. FM b. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. additional repeaters increase the: a. SSB ANS: D 3. Too much antenna gain causes: a. 20 watts d. jitter b. In digital microwave systems. 90% c. all of the above ANS: B 6. Line-Of-Signal c. none of the above ANS: A 5. reliability c. 99. LOS stands for: a. reliability c. additional repeaters increase the: a.99% ANS: D 4. QAM d. excessive noise d. 2 watts c. all of the above . hop d. section c. jitter c.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. noise level d. all of the above ANS: C 7. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. 200 watts b. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. Line-Of-Sight d. jitter b. 99% d. a very narrow microwave beam b. jump ANS: B 2. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a.9% b. 99. Loss Of Skip b. In analog microwave systems.
accumulation of noise is reduced d. Fading is caused by: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. less bandwidth is required c. above 10 GHz d. all of the above . baseband type ANS: D 16. below 10 GHz c. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. multipath reception b. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. ducting d. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. regenerative type d. Microwave repeaters can be: a. diversity c. always b. it requires less power b. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. MMDS stands for: a. all of the above ANS: B 17. high level of ERP c. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. IF type b.9. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. 60% of the Faraday zone c. high-gain antennas b. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. all of the above c. power d. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. low level of transmitted power b.
Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. In digital microwave systems. ANS: fading c. ANS: year 4. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. ANS: hop 2. none of the above . it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. ANS: studio 3. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. ANS: jitter 5. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. bidirectional b. Local Microwave Distribution System b. multidirectional d. In microwave systems. ANS: temperature 6. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. ANS: noise density 7. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. One microwave link is called a ____________________. LMDS is: a. LMDS stands for: a. Local Multichannel Distribution System d.b.
for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . ANS: diversity 10. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. what would it be. ANS: Repeaters 12. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. MMDS is unidirectional. but ____________________ is bidirectional.8.4 meters 3. ANS: baseband 13. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. approximately. ANS: noise 14. ANS: ten 11. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: space 9. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system.
ANS: 201 K 5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. The noise power is –100 dBm. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB .4 dBm 4.ANS: –42.
IEEE ANS: C 3. 50 b. National Television Systems Committee c. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. contrast c. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 25 c. 30 d. 25 c. 1250 ANS: A 5. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. Red-Green-Blue . 525 c. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. National Television Systems Council d. Red-Green Bandwidth d. IRE d. FCC c. Red-Green Burst b. National Television Systems Commission b. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. chroma d. raster c. 60 ANS: D 7. EIA b. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 50 b. 30 d. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 625 : 525 c. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. brightness b. 3 : 4 b.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. RGB stands for: a. 625 d. NTSC stands for: a. 1024 b. 525 : 625 d. Luminance refers to: a. 60 ANS: B 6.
horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. blacker than black ANS: B 12. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. equalize the DC level d. peak white ANS: B 11. composite video signal. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. In a color TV receiver. in-phase video component.ANS: A 9. none of the above c. luminance signal. blacker than black ANS: D 13. is less than vertical resolution d. all white d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. quadrature phase color component b. all of the above c. horizontal resolution: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. maintain horizontal sync b. lumins ANS: C 10. black d. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. quadrature phase color component c. white c. max white b. quadrature video color component d. The smallest picture element is called a: a. NTSC units . When measured in lines. Y I Q refers to: a. in-phase color component. pixel d. IRE units d. is greater than vertical resolution b. composite color signal. dot b. black d. The maximum luminance level is called: a. whiter than white c. in-phase color component. white c. whiter than white b. whiter than white b. Luminance is measured in: a. pic ANS: C 16. foot-candles b.
the video transformer d. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. SSB c. much lower b. much less b. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. sync amplitude pulse d. detect the presence of a color video signal b.17. SSB c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. much higher d. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. separate audio program b. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. vestigial sideband AM d. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. Compared to the luminance signal. vestigial sideband AM d. sync audio pulse . separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. the flyback transformer b. suppressed-carrier AM b. Compared to a monochrome CRT. the yoke ANS: C 24. suppressed-carrier AM b. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. SAP stands for: a. vestigial sideband AM d. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. much greater c. the isolation transformer c. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. about the same d. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. about the same c. all of the above ANS: D 22. FM ANS: D 20. SSB c. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. suppressed-carrier AM b. FM ANS: C 21. FM ANS: B 19. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25.
ANS: porch c.d. ANS: scanning 4. ANS: Aquadag 2. Brightness information is called ____________________. ANS: composite 6. ANS: retraces 5. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. Color information is called ____________________. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. ANS: NTSC 3. ANS: luma luminance 8. automatic frequency and picture control d. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. allowed full picture chroma b. AFPC stands for: a. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. none of the above . automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: aspect 7. During the horizontal blanking interval.
not including blanking. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: pixels 15. ANS: phosphor 22.58 18. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: 62. ANS: 10 13.5 12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. ANS: 20 to 30 21. ANS: 3.3 14. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. ANS: ultor 20. ANS: position 11. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.10. ANS: separate 19. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: green 17. . ANS: 1. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. ANS: 525 16. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds.
Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: killer 25. Color intensity is called ____________________. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: purity 31. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: dBmV 26. ANS: head 27. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: vectorscope 28. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal.ANS: flyback 23. ANS: phase 30. ANS: convergence . ANS: comb 24. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: saturation 29.
The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. solar cells b. 104 watts ANS: C 8. 3. is constant b. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. azimuth and declination d. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. earth station c. transponders c. respectively. 103 watts 2 b. 357. downlink d. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. apogee and perigee c. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. 50 to 250 watts d.800 km b.: a. all of the above . 101 watts c. footprint b. is zero (freefall) c. plate ANS: C 4. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation b. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a.578 km c. perigee and apogee d. uplink and downlink b. 10 watts d. 500 to 2500 watts b. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. 35. 5 to 25 watts c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called.780 km d. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. batteries d.
low power to a large antenna b. mesh c. television receive only b. low power to a small antenna d. television repeater only ANS: A 14. power-down b. backoff d. LNA stands for: a. DBS stands for: a. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. decibels of signal b. none of the above . A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. low north angle ANS: A 12. video satellite b. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. low-noise amplifier b. On the uplink from a terminal. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. time-division multiple access d. none of the above c. backdown c. low-noise amplitude d. ring d. low-noise array c. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. VSAT stands for: a. TVRO stands for: a. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. orbital adjustments d. direct-broadcast satellite c. television remote origin d. repeater c. antenna maintenance b. very small aperture terminal c. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. a VSAT system uses: a. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. TDMA stands for: a. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. high power to a small antenna c. very small antenna terminal d. transmit delay minimum aperture c. star b. direct-broadcast system d.ANS: A 9.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Manual Identification Number b. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Number Assignment Module c. Maximum Signal Carrier d. MSC stands for: a. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Numerical Access Mode b. Emission Strength Number d. American Mobile Phone System b. MIN stands for: a. PCS stands for: a. Maximum In-band Noise d. Mobile Switching Center b. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Portable Communications Systems c. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Number Access Module d. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. none of the above c. ESN stands for: a. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Personal Communications Service b. AMPS stand for: a. Personal Cell phone Service d. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. NAM stands for: a. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Electronic Serial Number b. Minimum In-band Noise c. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. MTSO stands for: a. RCC stands for: a. Radio Common Carrier b. none of the above c.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5.
Digital Communications Carrier d.9. set the access code of the cell phone c. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. signal classification (analog or digital) d. Central Mobile Access Control d. Service Class Mark b. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Digital Color Code b. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. The CMAC is used to: a. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Direct Channel Code . identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. SCM stands for: a. SCM identifies the: a. In an AMPS system. CMAC stands for: a. FSK c. SAT stands for: a. voice is sent using: a. control access to the cell site b. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. System Identification Number d. Station Antenna Tower b. SID stands for: a. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. recognize an AMPS system c. DCC stands for: a. set its transmitted power level d. base-station class ANS: D 11. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. none of the above c. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. code number of a cell phone b. Serial-Code Mode c. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. AM c. maximum power level of a cell phone c. Signal Class Mark d. Supervisory Access Tone d.
Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. Basic Service Contract d. Basic Service Code . as small as possible d. BSC c. CDMA ANS: C 19. CDPD stands for: a. CDMA 18. decrease the number of cells d. less than 600 µW. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. none of the above c. increase the number of cells c. Coded Digital Packet Data d. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. FM ANS: B d. control-channel signals are sent using: a. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. increase the ERP b. BSC stands for: a. air interface ANS: D 22. c. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. 4 watts ANS: B 20. d. In an AMPS system. 0. less than 600 mW. AM c.5 km ANS: D 23. Base Station Controller b.b. erlangs ANS: B 24. Code-Division Packet Data b. Phone traffic is measured in: a. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. RF interface b. between 1 and 2 watts b. FM d. number of blocked calls c. number of users d. FSK b. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. MTSO d. 2 km b. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. calls b.
5 6. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. ANS: 800 2. ANS: attenuation 12. A portable. ANS: III three 10. handoffs will occur too frequently. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________.1. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. ANS: AMPS 3. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. ANS: three 7. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. . handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. For security. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. ANS: 600 mW 9. ANS: handoff 5. ANS: I one 8. ANS: 0. ANS: land station 11. ANS: reuse 4. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: erlangs 16. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. ANS: microcell 19. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. ANS: MTSO 14. What is the traffic in erlangs? . Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. ANS: dropped 17. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. 2. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. ANS: 1. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. ANS: picocells 20. If a 28. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: traffic 15. ANS: splitting 18. 2. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________.6 3. Compared with AMPS.ANS: public 13. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.
the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. .ANS: 30 4. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.
4 b. from mobile to mobile d. use built into an automobile d. digital-generation . CDMA technology was invented by: a. GSM is used in: a.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. higher-power c. AMPS was designed for: a. all of the above c. 800 MHz c. 900 MHz d. from the base to the mobile b. 2 c. Asia b. Compared to AMPS. many ANS: B 7.9 GHz b. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. third-generation d. 1. second-generation ANS: B 2. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. PCS cell sites are: a. Qualcomm c. POTS b. North America d. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. Lucent ANS: D 8. AT&T b. Bell Labs d. voice ANS: D 6. smaller ANS: B 5. 3 d. bigger b. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. distributed d. all of the above c. Europe ANS: D c. first-generation b. same as the uplink c.
Short Inbound Message b. CDMA d. greater than in a TDMA phone b. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. bearer channels d. all of the above . In GSM. SIM stands for: a. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. Subscriber ID Module d. In GSM. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. frequency hopping b. voice channels ANS: A 10. IS-95 uses: a. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. CDMA b. CDMA d. IMSI stands for: a. none of the above 11. TDMA c. GSM uses: a. all of the above c. AMPS uses: a. all of the above c. frequency hopping b. less than in a TDMA phone c.9. GSM only d. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. no PCS system c. no better than in an AMPS phone d. talking channels c. spread-spectrum d. TDMA ANS: C 17. frequency hopping b. voice channels are called: a. IS-136 uses: a. traffic channels b. Other things being equal. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. TDMA ANS: D c. CDMA d. Subscriber ID Method c. TDMA only b.
In North America. rotating d. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d.ANS: B 18. ANS: smaller 5. ANS: GSM 6. Compared to AMPS. ANS: second 3. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: Personal 2. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. wider roaming area b. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. ANS: 1900 4. unique ANS: D 20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. common b. faster data rates c. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. all frequencies are used in all cells b. Internet access d. In CDMA: a. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. orthogonal . ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS.
IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. ANS: random 12. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. ANS: variable 15. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. ANS: closed 17. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. ANS: Universal . ANS: less 14. ANS: Walsh 10. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. Unlike AMPS. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: soft 9. ANS: frequency hopping 8. ANS: Packet 18. ANS: Frequency 13. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. Unlike other systems. ANS: 50 16. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: all 11. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: Mobile 19. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells.7.
2.20. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. To demodulate.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. 6. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. 4. Why was PCS assigned to 1. 7. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. 8. With offset QPSK. 3. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. ANS: Wireless 21. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. 5. and what causes it? . it never goes to zero. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots.
This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. .
Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. and Messaging d. both the VHF and UHF bands d. In a one-way pager system: a. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. and Medical . all pages are sent from all transmitters b. the UHF band only c. the VHF band only b. transmitters use relatively high power d. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. 802. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. CAPCODE is: a. require error detection d. POCSAG stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 5.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. require "handoffs" b. Pagers use: a. IEEE Standard Message b. ISM stands for: a. the VHF band. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d.10 c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. Industrial. all of the above c. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. the UHF band. A typical pager system does not: a. Scientific.12 c. Scientific. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. 802. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. Industrial.
all of the above ANS: A 10. infrared band ANS: C 9. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. TDD stands for: a. TDD net d. Time Delay Difference d. VHF band b. CDMA b. Total Distance Delay c. Bluetooth uses the: a.13 8. QPSK d. 10 cm to 100 meters c. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. CDMA b. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. ISM band d. 802. CSMA/CD d.b.11 ANS: B d. ISM band b. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. 2 nodes b. Basic Service Set b. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. 10 cm to 1 meter c. all of the above c. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. Time-Division Duplex b. 2 to 16 nodes c. infrared band c. UHF band ANS: C 13. Bluetooth uses: a. BSS stands for: a. 2 to 8 nodes d. none of the above . UHF band d. 802. Bluetooth Service System d. scatternet c. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. multinet ANS: D 16. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. CSMA/CA c. micronet b. VHF band c.
several meters d. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 foot d. can use reflected infrared beams d. 1 meter b. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. all of the above 20. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. cannot penetrate walls b. several hundred meters b. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. 10 feet c. within 10 feet c. several thousand meters. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. ANS: 10 5.11 6.b. ANS: TDMA 3. ANS: Post 4. IRDA stands for: a. ANS: 802. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. Infrared networks: a. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. . 1 meter c. Infrared Data Association b. 10 meters ANS: A 19. ANS: capcode 2. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d.
ANS: ISM 8. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: piconet 9.ANS: 1 watt 7. ANS: piconets 10. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. ANS: 1 meter . A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________.
4 db per km d. greater d. all of the above c. loss b. waveguide dispersion d. generate EMI d. plastic ANS: A 4. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. carry current b.02 dB c. dispersion ANS: A 7. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. glass b. 0. none of the above ANS: B 5. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. 0. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. none of the above c. the same c. Scattering causes: a.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Compared to the core. modal dispersion b. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. all of the above . all of the above c. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. 1 dB c. less b. both a and b d.4 dB per km b. 40 dB per km c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. in an explosive environment b. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. intersymbol interference d. zero loss ANS: C 8.
a phonon . SMA b. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a.02 dB c. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Avalanche Photo Detector d.b. In the core. 3 dB 9. In a PIN diode. Avalanche Photodiode b. a photon d.2 db ANS: A d. mA per joule b. For a light detector. The quantum of light is called: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. zero-point current d. all of the above ANS: D 11. 0. ST c. SC d. responsivity is measured in: a. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________. Advanced Photo Detector c. 3 dB ANS: B 10. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. LASER stands for: a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. amps per watt c. E-H current ANS: C 15. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. baseline current c. APD stands for: a. 0. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. ANS: reflection c. 1 dB b. an erg b. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. 0.2 db d. an e-v ANS: C 12. µW per amp d. dark current b.
ANS: energy 5. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. ANS: linewidth 11. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. With optical fiber. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. ANS: time 12. ANS: graded 10. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ANS: sine 6. ANS: internal 7. . Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: Intersymbol 13. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: infrared 9. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. For laser diodes. ANS: loose-tube 14.2. ANS: intramodal 8. ANS: critical 4. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. In multimode fiber. ANS: cladding 3.
A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. ANS: look .ANS: tight-buffer 15. ANS: photon 19. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: laser 18. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. ANS: PIN 20. For safety. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. ANS: pigtail 16. ANS: single 17.
Synchronous Optical Network d. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. SDH b. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Fiber In The Loop b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. FITL stands for: a. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. bit-synch d. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. defect in the glass b. FTTC stands for: a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. type of optical network c. WDM ANS: A 8. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. FDDI stands for: a. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. Frequency Input to The Loop d. none of the above c.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. type of particle ANS: C 7. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. excess gain c. bit stuffing c. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. A Soliton is a: a. type of pulse d. DWDM stands for: a. gain margin c. SONET stands for: a. Simple Optical Network b. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d.
1000 miles c. ANS: Curb 2. overdrive 9. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. Optical Cable type 1 . c. Synchronous Transmission System c. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. 10 km ANS: C 10. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Typically. In SONET. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. FDDI c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. OC-1 stands for: a. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Synchronous Transport Signal b. not possible c. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Channel one d. obsolete d. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a.b. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. gigabit Ethernet b. Optical Time-Delay Response b. 100 km b. common b. all of the above ANS: D 13. high-speed Ethernet d. FTTC d. 100 miles d. In SONET. STS stands for: a. experimental ANS: B 14. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. Optical Time-Division Relay c. OTDR stands for: a. FDDI c. FITL b. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. system margin ANS: B d.
ANS: token 14. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________.84 11. ANS: erbium 8. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: Distributed 7. ANS: 51. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: Synchronous 6. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: Wavelength 5. ANS: WDM 10. ANS: pump 9. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.ANS: Loop 3. ANS: Hierarchy 4. ANS: opposite . ANS: pointer 13. ANS: stuffing 12.
15. ANS: 100 M 18. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: transport 25. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 774 21. ANS: node 16. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. In SONET. ANS: 810 20. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 1 24. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. ANS: 4 23. ANS: 9 22. ANS: multi 17.
receiver. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter.1 MHz 2.6 nanoseconds . ANS: 86. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.
This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
Lo hemos llevado donde lee en su other device.
Obtenga el título completo para seguir escuchando desde donde terminó, o reinicie la previsualización.