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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
ANS: FDM 9. its amplitude. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. frequency. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band.25. ANS: greater larger wider 8. ANS: base 4. its amplitude and frequency d. In ____________________. and direction b. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. The more information per second you send. ANS: zero 6. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. In ____________________. its amplitude c. The part. ANS: TDM 10. ANS: 1863 2. or parts. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. . frequency. ANS: 1901 3. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: channel 5. ANS: bandwidth 7. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. its amplitude.
Receiver. Transmitter. ANS: Fourier 17. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series.ANS: very high 11. ANS: 30 12. Destination 2. ANS: Source. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. Channel. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. ANS: 300 million 15. . ANS: solar 19. In free space. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: wavelength 14. Name five types of internal noise. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. For satellite communications. ANS: 300 13. Mathematically.
Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. ANS: 50 µV 6. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise.5 9. 4. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. Shot. ANS: 20 dB. NF = 100 8. Find the total NF for the pair. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. the output of which is a noise current. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. . Likewise. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. ANS: 5. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. Find NF. 5.4 10.ANS: Thermal. both across the same 100-ohm load. transit-time 3. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. both in dB and as a ratio. Calculate the total noise voltage. Partition. Likewise. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. ANS: 1. 1/f. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Find its noise figure. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum.
base time c. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. reduce the Miller effect c. using a common-emitter amplifier b. a simple form of bandpass filter b. neutralize amplifiers d. capacitance and resistance only b. The "Miller Effect" can: a. the Miller Effect is due to: a. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. and resistance d. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. A resonant circuit is: a. all of the above c. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. base-to-emitter capacitance d. transit time d. "multiply" the Q d. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. it cannot be avoided c. Miller time ANS: B 2. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. base-to-collector capacitance c. inductance. have no effect on Q c.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. charge time b. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. inductance of collector lead b. reactance only . Bypass capacitors are used to: a. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. none of the above c. both a and b d. In a BJT. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d.
none of the above ANS: C 13. the Bode criteria b. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. the Hartley criteria d. a linear amplifier c. none of the above ANS: A 11. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. direct coupling b. it requires: a. In RF amplifiers. a piezoelectric crystal . decoupling it d. an RC time constant d. the loop-gain criteria c. but at just one frequency d. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. a tapped inductor b.9. loop gain equal to unity b. impedance matching is usually done with: a. a nonlinear circuit b. transformer coupling d. a tapped inductor b. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a piezoelectric crystal c. RC coupling c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a. only built with FETs c. a modified Hartley oscillator b. an RC time constant d. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. a signal containing harmonics d. both a and b. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. The Hartley oscillator uses: a.
all of the above ANS: D 19. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. used for a precise frequency b. "VFO" stands for: a. a diode ANS: D c. the output: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. none of the above ANS: A 20. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. c. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. contains the input frequencies c. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. At UHF frequencies and above. does not contain the input frequencies d. used in tuner circuits d. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above 18. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . the output: a. are fed to a mixer. Generally. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. ANS: short 2. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. If two signals. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. In a balanced mixer. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b.17. A varactor is: a.
the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. In high-frequency RF circuits.g.ANS: distributed 3. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. it is called a ____________________. ANS: 10 10. ANS: Q 9. In a class C RF amplifier. ANS: ground-plane 4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: bypass 8. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: components 6. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. ANS: neutralization 12. ANS: series. ANS: shielding 5. Electrically. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: capacitive 13. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. collector current). The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: tuned circuit 11. parallel .
5. V1 and V2.1 4. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . are fed into an ideal balanced mixer.05% 7. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. 0. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider.14. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. At some bias point. Two sinusoidal signals. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. V2 is a 5MHz signal. ANS: linear 15. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. To produce sum and difference frequencies. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer.4 µH 2.
8. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.
the baseband signal b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. splatter ANS: C 6. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). equal to the carrier power c. then the modulation index. m = Emin / Emax c. Angle Modulation d. The modulation index. m. it will produce the frequencies: a. m = ωa / ωc c. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. Antenna Modulation . m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. none of the above ANS: A 8. distortion b. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. Overmodulation causes: a. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. the amplitude signal d.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the total sideband power is: a. none of the above c. half the carrier power b. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. is: a. twice the carrier power d. Audio Modulation b. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. none of the above c. m = Emax / Emin d. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a.414 × carrier power c. is: a. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. At 100% modulation. 1. m = Va / Vc d. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. both a and b d. m. AM stands for: a.
1000 watts c. 1. none of the above . Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. you would expect: a. none of the above ANS: B 10. requires too much bandwidth c. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. The modulation index can be derived from: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. sideband-carrier d. PEP stands for: a. single-carrier b. none of the above c. 500 watts d. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. As compared to plain AM.ANS: C 9. 5 kHz c. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. 10 kHz d. all of the above ANS: C 13. 250 watts b. SSB AM: a. Peak Envelope Power b. AM is susceptible to noise c. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. all of the above ANS: D 14. both a and b d. requires less bandwidth d. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. the time-domain signal b. is more efficient b. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. the received RF signal to increase d. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much power d.005 MHz b. none of the above c. Peak Envelope Product d. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. 0 watts ANS: D 17. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation.
reinsert the carrier d. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. ANS: envelope 4.b. both a and b b. audio c. the power in the LSB is ____________________. all of the above ANS: C 18. the receiver must: a. Compared to the USB. the information in the LSB is ____________________. m1 + m2 c. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. digital data b. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. Compared to the USB. video d. In AM. commercial AM stations use low power c. ANS: two 5. be set to USB mode c. ANS: the same . commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. ANS: inefficient 3. ANS: simple 2. ANS: the same 6. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. The total modulation index is: a. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. all of the above ANS: D 19.
In AM. the carrier power _________________________. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. ANS: one 10. ANS: 6000 Hz 11.4. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. as the modulation index increases. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. In AM. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. what is the power in the USB at 70. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. With a 1-MHz carrier. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. In AM. and 0. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.7.707 4. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0.3.5. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. ANS: remains constant 9. 0. ANS: less 8.6 . if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz.
what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts . If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.5.
the limit effect ANS: B c. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. Carson's Rule d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. NBFM stands for: a. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. Taylor series b.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the threshold effect d. Near Band FM d. Bessel functions d. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Armstrong's Rule b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. the capture effect c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. The FM modulation index: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. Mathematically. fractals ANS: B 5. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. it is band-limited at the receiver d. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. National Broadcast FM b. Narrowband FM c. the noise effect b. none of the above . When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. it is called: a.
can use amplitude modulation b. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. the capture effect c. is not compatible with mono FM . has a higher S/N than mono FM d. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the "two-station" effect b. none of the above ANS: A 9. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. all of the above c. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. An SCA signal: a. ANS: angle 2. is monaural d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. FM stereo: a. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d.8. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. the time delay between the L and R channels d. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. the threshold effect d. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. ANS: data c. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b.
ANS: decreases 11. ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: C 6. ANS: wider greater 5. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: better 4. ANS: amplitude 8. Mathematically. Compared to AM. ANS: increases 13.3. their power ____________________. In FM. ANS: infinite 10. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. the modulation index ____________________. as the frequency deviation decreases. Mathematically. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. In FM. ANS: frequency 9. Compared to AM. as the modulating frequency decreases. the modulation index ____________________. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. . ANS: any number 12. As the FM modulation index increases. In FM. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. ANS: decreases 14.
what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Carson's 17.4. such as 2. ANS: capture 20. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule.ANS: increases 15. ANS: Bessel 18. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. For certain values of mf. ANS: threshold 19. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. 1-kHz audio signal? . ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1.
Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. At a modulation index of 2. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. At a modulation index of 2. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7.ANS: 2 5.5. Using Carson's rule. 5. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.4. . how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. Using a spectrum analyzer. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.2 watt) 8.4 watts 6. then δ is 11 kHz. At a modulation index of 2. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. For example.5.1. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.
all of the above c. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. ALC is used to: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. In an AM transmitter. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. Amplitude Level Control b. minimum RF power is required d. With high-level AM: a. maximize transmitted power d. ALC stands for: a. all of the above c. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. expansion d. a smaller number of signals d. agility c. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. keep the modulation close to 100% b. Accurate Level Control d. is a measure of efficiency c. all of the above ANS: D 3. With low-level AM: a. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. none of the above . Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. heats the transmitter d. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. With high-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. may require water cooling b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. none of the above ANS: B 4. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. VFO b. Baseband compression produces: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.
the carrier ANS: A 12. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. has variable amplitude d. both a and b b. 75 ohms resistive d. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. a dummy load d. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. a heavy load c. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. a test load ANS: B 16. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. is complex c. 300 ohms resistive b. has variable frequency b. the modulating amplifier c. In high-level AM. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. 50 ohms resistive c. wire-wound c. the RF amplifier d. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. 1% tolerance or better b. the power level of the carrier b.ANS: C 9. noninductive d. the resistor is called: a. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. all of the above ANS: B 17. the driver stage b. pi network c. very efficient c. "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. a temporary load b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. T network d. In high-level AM. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. none of the above . all of the above ANS: B 10. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. A Class D amplifier is: a. the resistor must be: a. none of the above ANS: C 13.
none of the above ANS: C 21. none of the above ANS: A 22. a mechanical filter c. A direct FM modulator: a. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. both a and b d. the carrier frequency can be raised b. start with a quadrature signal d. all of the above c.b. none of the above ANS: B 23. both a and b d. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. To generate a SSB signal: a. none of the above 20. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. both a and b b. With mixing: a. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. a balanced modulator b. essentially mixers d. all of the above c. essentially balanced modulators b. a frequency multiplier d. none of the above c. a mixer ANS: A d. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. a crystal filter d. An indirect FM modulator: a. integrates the modulating signal c. start with full-carrier AM b. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. The carrier is suppressed in: a. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. Automatic Frequency Control d. AFC stands for: a. Frequency multipliers are: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. Audio Frequency Control .
The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ANS: FCC 3. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: efficiently 10. a ____________________ stage is used. ANS: carrier 2. In Canada. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. ANS: linear 11. ANS: Industry Canada 4. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: PEP 6.d. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: compression 9. In the USA. ANS: agility 5. . Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ALC is a form of ____________________. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: compression 7. ANS: expansion 8. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1.
ANS: driver 19. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: 50 14. ANS: harmonic 16. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. ANS: D 21. ANS: mixing 22. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. To generate a SSB signal. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: T 15. To allow a high modulation percentage. ANS: duration 20. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box".ANS: buffer 12. ANS: DSBSC . ANS: higher 13. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. ANS: mismatch 17. ANS: receiver 18.
ANS: phase 24.23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. ANS: reactance 25. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5.005 MHz 6. Assuming high-level modulation. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation.8% 3. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. To pass the USB. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop.001%. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC.
put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation.7. ANS: First. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. .
The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. "IF" stands for: a. Active Gain Control d. indeterminate frequency d. intermediate frequency b. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. Seeley d. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. none of the above ANS: C 5. Foster c. the spurious response and the tracking d. AGC stands for: a. small adjustable inductors d. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. Active Gain Conversion c. Audio Gain Control b. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. the mixer d.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. Trimmers and padders are: a. is above the RF frequency c. "Skin effect" refers to: a. Armstrong b. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. the tuner b. image frequency c. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. all of the above c. two types of adjusting tools b. small adjustable capacitors . Hertz ANS: C 3.
a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. none of the above c. is below the RF frequency c. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. When comparing values for shape factor: a. there is no ideal value . the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. typically at 455 kHz. a value of 0. a value of 1. all of the above c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. Basically. selectivity measures: a. Phase distortion is important in: a. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. none of the above ANS: A 11.0 is ideal d. with two signals close in frequency. it increases sensitivity c. ANS: C 9. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the detector ANS: D 15. is fixed.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. monochrome video receivers d. all of the above c.b. When comparing values for shape factor: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. color video receivers ANS: B c. sensitivity measures: a. a value of 1. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. Basically. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. both values are basically equivalent d. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the IF amplifiers d. voice communications systems b. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d.414 dB is ideal b. it increases selectivity d. the mixer b.
Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. prior to detection d. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. ratio detector ANS: D 22. the dynamic range of the receiver b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. are transmitted on the same frequency b. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. enter the mixer. An image must be rejected: a. a BFO d. a PLL b. none of the above ANS: C 20. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. noise generated in the receiver d. images cannot be rejected . prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. the AGC c. prior to mixing b. ratio detector d. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. all of the above c. quadrature detector d. PLL b. A common AM detector is the: a. a product detector c. enter the mixer. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. all of the above ANS: C 23. An FM detector is the: a. all of the above c. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. envelope detector ANS: B 21. enter the mixer. a diode ANS: D c.16. A common SSB detector is: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. PLL b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c.
LNA stands for: a. to remove amplitude variations b. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. Audio Frequency Compensator b. The function of AFC is: a. Low-Noise Audio d. use double conversion d. BFO stands for: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. limiting ANS: B 30. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. ratio detection . coherent detection ANS: B 27. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. a PLL detector b. Automatic Frequency Control d. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. to limit noise response c. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. a quadrature detector d. you need to: a. AGC c. The function of a limiter is: a.24. Foster-Seeley detector c. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. Autonomous Frequency Control c. all of the above ANS: C 28. AFC stands for: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. envelope detection d. carrier detection b. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. reinject the carrier c. to limit dynamic range d. AFC b. squelch d. Which would be best for DSBSC: a.
ANS: superheterodyne 2. none of the above c. SINAD stands for: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Software-Activated Wave . Digital Signal Processor c. TRF stands for: a. SAW stands for: a. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. it is a stable bandpass filter d. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. none of the above ANS: B 33. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Distorted Signal Packet d. Tuned Radio Frequency b. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. DSP stands for: a. Tuned Receiver Function c. all of the above ANS: C 36. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. The important property of a SAW is: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. The main function of the AGC is to: a. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle.c. Transmitted Radio Frequency d.
In a receiver. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: intermediate IF 9.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: track 4. ANS: 1918 6. ANS: Selectivity 13. ANS: Sensitivity . The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: autodyne 11. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. In low-side injection. ANS: mixer 8. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: skin 5. In a superhet. ANS: front end 7. ANS: AGC 10. ANS: lower 12. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. In a superhet. the other changes with it.
A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: S 22. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve.14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: image 16. ANS: detector 17. ANS: obsolescent 23. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. . ANS: amplitude 24. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: product 19. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: coherent 21. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: gate 25. ANS: conversion 15. Unlike the PLL detector. While still commonly found. ANS: carrier 20. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. ANS: noisy 26.
The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ANS: S 34. ANS: IF 33. ANS: adjustment 30. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: limiting 35. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. Compared to tuned circuits. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: higher 31. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. ANS: over 28. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. In a block converter. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. Typically. ANS: stagger 29. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1.ANS: A 27. ANS: fixed constant 32.
06 7.20 kHz 2. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.25 4. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. Assuming high-side injection. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary.5 MHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.01 . what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.
Morse code d. a sample-and-hold circuit b. a regenerative repeater b. SR = 2fmax c. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. an amplifier c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. an analog-to-digital converter c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. a filter d. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. SR = 2fmax c. ASCII code b. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. I = ktB b. SR = 2fmax c. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. Hartley's Law is: a. The first digital code was the: a. a fixed sample rate d. all of the above ANS: C 3. signal degradation can be removed using: a. I = ktB b. Natural Sampling does not use: a. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. none of the above . C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. Time-Division Multiplexing b.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. TDM stands for: a. true binary numbers ANS: A c. In digital transmission. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. I = ktB b. Baudot code ANS: C 2. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Ten-Digital Manchester d. Ten Dual-Manchester c.
PWM d. a sample alias b. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. PDM c.9. ANS: D 10. companding uses: a. PAM ANS: B 12. b. the α Law (alpha law) d. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. They are the same thing. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. too few samples per second d. none of the above ANS: A 15. decreases as the sample rate increases b. noise b. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. The immediate result of sampling is: a. but not both. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. c. PPM b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. PPS ANS: D 13. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. d. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. PDM c. They are two types of sampling error. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. the Logarithmic Law b. PCM d. Companding is used to: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. all of the above . You can have one or the other. the µ Law (mu law) c. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. In North America. the A Law c. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a.
transmits fewer bits per sample b. the Logarithmic Law b. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. is a biphase code b. In Europe. the µ Law (mu law) . the bit rate is too high b. Compared to PCM. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. In delta modulation. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. Code-Compression d. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. the A Law ANS: B 18. AMI c. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c.ANS: D 17. all of the above ANS: D 25. Coder-Decoder b. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. Codec stands for: a. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. the signal does not change d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. unipolar NRZ b. delta modulation: a. the signal changes too rapidly c. 8-bit numbers d. can suffer slope overload d. the α Law (alpha law) d. Compared to PCM. all of the above c. Manchester coding: a. Manchester d. 12-bit numbers b. companding uses: a. provides strong timing information d. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. none of the above c. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. "granular noise" is produced when: a. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. only over shorter distances b. 4-bit numbers c. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d.
8 kb/s ANS: A 32. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 2 ANS: D c. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 8 k c. 56 kb/s b. 2 ANS: A 26. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 6 b. NRZ coding d. 24 d.544 Mb/s b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. A typical T-1 line uses: c. 4 d. A T-1 cable uses: a. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33.a. all of the above c.544 MB/s c. detect errors b. 8 kb/s . The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 64 k b. In DS-1. 1 b. 1. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. 1 b. 8 c. 4 d. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. pulse-width coding c. 48 c. 1. carry signaling ANS: B 28. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. all of the above c. detect errors b. 1.544 × 106 ANS: A 30. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 8 29. carry signaling ANS: C 27. 56 k d. 64 kb/s d. 12 ANS: B 34. 56 kb/s d. Manchester coding b.
somewhat better d. In analog channels. Compared to standard PCM systems. about the same b. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. ANS: digitized 4. To send it over a digital channel. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. ANS: binary . microwave c. fiber-optic cable d. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. an analog signal must first be ____________________. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. on-hook/off-hook condition b.a. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. much better c. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. To send it over an analog channel. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. ANS: improved better 2. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. ringing d. A vocoder implements compression by: a. busy signal ANS: D c. ANS: modulated 3. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. twisted-pair wire b. all of the above 36.
and bandwidth. ANS: Shannon 14. ANS: Time 10. ANS: Foldover . information capacity. ANS: Hartley's 12. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. Ignoring noise. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit.6. ANS: limited 11. ANS: regenerative 7. ANS: Natural 15. ANS: correct 8. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: Nyquist 16. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: error noise 9.
the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: 12 26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. ANS: A 24. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. In Europe. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: higher .17. ANS: 1 one 27. ANS: Quantizing 21. ANS: Pulse-code 20. ANS: amplitude 19. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: codec 25. In a PCM system. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: Companding 22. In North America. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: Aliasing 18. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: µ mu 23.
ANS: 8000 40. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. ANS: slope 30. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: 24 38. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: DC 33. . ANS: Granular 29. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: step 31. In delta modulation. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: transition 36. ANS: half 32.28. ANS: framing 39. ANS: zeros 35. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: timing 37. In DS-1. ANS: polarity 34. In AMI. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period.
Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. in dB. ANS: superframe 42. What is the approximate dynamic range. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. ANS: 5 seconds 2.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2.ANS: 1. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6.544 × 106 41.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . From a group of twelve frames.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. ANS: sixth 43. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.
Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.ANS: 64 kbps 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.833 volt .388 volt? ANS: 0. what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.
a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. occurs only on long-distance cables d. Primary Operational Test System d. a central office d. POTS stands for: a. a way of accessing a central office c. a local calling area b. Public Switched Telephone Network b. LATA stands for: a. a tandem office b. none of the above c. trunk lines ANS: B 7. Call blocking: a. Central offices are connected by: a. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. DTMF stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area b. an interexchange office c. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Local loops terminate at: a. A LATA is a: a. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. Private Office Telephone System b. PSTN stands for: a. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. Local Area Transport Access c. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. a toll station ANS: C 8. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. local loops b. Plain Old Telephone Service c.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Local Area Telephone Access d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . a way of accessing a tandem office d. both a and b d. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3.
as long as it is attached to a local loop d. DC current flows through a telephone: a. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. 48 volts. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. none of the above . ESS ANS: C 16. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. coaxial cable d. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12.ANS: D 9. 90 volts DC b. 2 mA to 8 mA b. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. Post Office Protocol b. when it is on hook b. FITL stands for: a. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. 200 µA to 800 µA d. step-by-step switching control c. only when it is ringing c. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 90 volts. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. common control b. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 20 µA to 80 µA c. fiber-optic c. twisted-pair copper wire b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. reduce crosstalk d. Loading coils were used to: a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. 20 hertz AC d. In telephony. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. Power-On Protocol d. POP stands for: a. crossbar control d. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. 48 volts DC c. Framing In The Loop d.
allow lines to be "conditioned" c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. supergroups b. 0 dBr c. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. VNL stands for: a. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. 60 ANS: B 23. In telephone system FDM. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. SSB c. 90 volts. PCM ANS: A 25. DSBSC d. prevent "singing" d. voice noise level . Public Automated Branch Exchange d. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 48 volts. volume net loss ANS: C 20. eliminate reflections c.a. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. allow signals to be multiplexed b. PDM b. PABX stands for: a. jumbogroups d. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 20 hertz AC 18. 6 c. via net loss d. 1 mW b. voltage net loss b. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. all of the above c. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. prevent oscillation d. all of the above ANS: C 19. 90 volts DC d. 1 pW d. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. 48 volts DC b. 12 d. 24 b. mastergroups ANS: D 24.
In DS-1. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. about the same speed d. it took to long to develop b. Compared to ISDN. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. SLIC stands for: a. check for errors c. compensation b. Allocated Digital Service Line d. much faster c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. it is too slow c. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. Information Systems Digital Network 30. ANS: LATA 2. much more expensive b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. frame alignment c. ISDN stands for: a. justification d. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c.26. ADSL stands for: a. provide synchronization b. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. rectification ANS: C 29. all of the above ANS: D 31. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Integrated Services Data Network d. c. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. A ____________________ is a local calling area. cancel echoes d. Access to Data Services Line .
With 7-digit phone numbers. ANS: seized 14. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. ANS: Loading 10. Of the red and green 'phone wires. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: green 13. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: tip 12. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. the green wire is called ____________________. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. As compared to a hierarchical network. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. the red wire is called ____________________. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: tandem 4.ANS: trunk 3. ANS: ring 11. ANS: flat 9. ANS: blocking 6. ANS: ten 5. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ANS: twisted-pair 8. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: digital 7. .
In FDM telephony. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. Because of "bit robbing". The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. the modulation is usually ____________________.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ANS: 56 . ANS: DTMF 19. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. ANS: large 18. In a crosspoint switch. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. In FDM telephony. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. ANS: lines 17. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: hybrid 16. ANS: repeaters 21. In the telephone system. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. ANS: guard 25. amplifiers are called ____________________. ANS: C-message 23. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: suppressor 22. ANS: conditioned 20.
SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. ANS: superframe 27. ANS: D 32. In ISDN.26. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. In ISDN. For a certain telephone. In ADSL. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. ANS: common-channel 30. ANS: in-channel 29. ANS: asymmetrical 35. If the loop current is 40 mA. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: B 33. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: packet 31. ANS: TE1 34. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. In DS-1C. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. ANS: stuff 28. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. If the loop current is 40 mA. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP .) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. ANS: 1 dB 5. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. For a certain telephone. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.ANS: 1000 ohms 2.
usually over long distances d. all of the above ANS: B 5. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. character sets ANS: C 4. LF stands for: a. all of the above c. American Standard Character-set 2 b. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. none of the above c. FIGS data c. and CR are examples of: a. they do not have any other name d.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FF. American Standard Code 2 d. Line Feed c. Character codes include: a. character codes b. nonstandard character codes b. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. the Morkum Company b. In practical terms. Line Forward c. BS. Emile Baudot . parallel data transmission is sent: a. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. data link control characters ANS: D 6. numerical data b. escape characters ANS: C 8. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. ASCII stands for: a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. both a and b c. over short distances only c. Data codes are also called: a. control characters d. alphanumeric characters b. over any distance b. graphic control characters d. binary data d. Western Union d.
all of the above ANS: A 14. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. In asynchronous transmission. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. the channel must be noise-free . equal to zero c. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. the time between consecutive frames is: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. Link Feed ANS: A d. the clock bits c. Unaltered Received Text d. not synchronized at all. the transmitter and receiver are: a. not a set length ANS: D 12. 128 bytes long d. In synchronous transmission. Link Forward 9. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. the frames are: a. UART stands for: a.b. In synchronous transmission. the CRC bits b. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. much longer than asynchronous frames c. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. the data bits d. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. equal to one bit-time d. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. In asynchronous transmission. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11.
HDLC: a. parity c.ANS: A 16. put data into a temporary buffer d. False Error Condition c. all of the above c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. Cycle Repeat Character c. Huffman codes: a. BISYNC: a. LRC d. automatic request for queue c. all of the above . ARQ ANS: D 23. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. FEC b. is identical to SDLC d. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. ARQ is used to: a. Control Receiver Code b. "bit-stuffing" b. requires the use of DLE d. FEC d. automatic request for resynchronization b. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. CRC stands for: a. FEC stands for: a. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. ARQ c. correct bit errors b. Forward Error Correction d. Fixed Error Control b. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. none of the above c. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. is an IBM product b. is an IBM product b. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. automatic receiver queue d. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. VRC is another name for: a.
correct data d. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. allows the use of digital signatures b. ANS: FF c. Public-key encryption: a. Run-length encoding is used to: a. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: ASCII 5. compress data ANS: B 26. Synchronous Data Line Character c. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. none of the above .d. Synchronous Data Link Character d. encrypt data b. HDLC is: a. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. all of the above c. an ISO standard d. ANS: Baudot 3. all of the above c. ANS: character 4. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. avoids the "password problem" d. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. a bit-oriented protocol b. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. SDLC stands for: a. ANS: short 2. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Synchronous Data Link Control b.
An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: flag 16. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. ANS: UART 10. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. At the end of an asynchronous frame. ANS: start 7. When receiving digital data. ANS: 01111110 17. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: transitions 13. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. the line will be at the ____________________ level. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: mark binary 1 9.6. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: stop 8. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. In HDLC. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. . ANS: efficient 12. ANS: buffers 11. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: data 14.
A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: cipher 27. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. ANS: long 29. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. ANS: burst 25. ANS: compression 26. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. .ANS: block 18. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. Because it is ____________________-intensive. ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: decrypted 30. ANS: escape 19. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: forward 22. ANS: Burst 21. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: password 28. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: ARQ 23. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: even 24. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. DLE stands for data link ____________________.
ANS: 97.7% 6. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). a parity bit. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. and two stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.0% .ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: 66. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data.
use UTP cable d. a very large CSMA/CD network d. In a circuit-switched network: a. not really a network at all c. not as widely used c. Collision Delay c. are based on Ethernet b. circuit c. CSMA stands for: a. slower c. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. node d.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above . Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. all of the above ANS: B 7. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. The Internet is: a. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. Carrier Server Master Application d. token ANS: C 8. Dumb terminals are still used: a. all of the above c. communication is half-duplex only b. Most LANs: a. Each computer on a network is called a: a. Collision Detection d. a network of networks b. none of the above ANS: B 6. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. hub b. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. token-passing rings are: a. Carrier Detection b. in token-passing networks b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. each channel carries only one data stream c.
long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. a central bus d. On networks. a collision c. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. none of the above c. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. the cable overheats d. Ethernet d. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. carriers b. more expensive ANS: D d. MAU stands for: a. packets c. none of the above ANS: D 10. The effect of too many collisions is: a. multiple access ANS: A 13. the network slows down ANS: B 16. nodes c. a central ring c. token-passing b. contention d. a node b. it is called: a. a collision c. it is called: a. IEEE 802. nodes d. multiple access ANS: B 12. excess traffic b. tokens ANS: A 11. EIA 232 c. data is lost . the network goes down b. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. CSMA c. contention d. packets b. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a.3 c. users d. Multistation Access Unit b. In an Ethernet-based network. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. all of the above 9. collisions ANS: D 15. excess traffic b.b.
twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. to increase the data rate b.b. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. Manchester encoding c. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25.1 ANS: C 18. Network Interface Code d. Three-Level encoding d. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. NIC stands for: a. IEEE 488. to increase the data rate b. an RJ45 connector c. a BNC connector c. Xerox d. 50-ohm coaxial cable . The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. IBM b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 23. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. INTEL ANS: C d. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. RG-58U coaxial cable d. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. the cable carries baseband signals b. all of the above ANS: C 24. Network Internal Code c. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. Ethernet was invented by: a. Network Interface Card b. fiber-optic cable b. CCITT ITU-E c. NRZ encoding b. none of the above ANS: A 22.
Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. it is faster when used in large networks c. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. allow faster bit rates b. UTP stands for: a. Unicode Text Packet 27. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. A hub: a. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. peer-to-peer networks c. all of the above ANS: D 32. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. use coaxial cables c. all of the above ANS: C 28. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. client-server networks d. both a and b b. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. Broadband LANs: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. CAT-5 cables: a. are cheaper c. a T connector ANS: C 26. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. all of the above ANS: C 31. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. none of the above ANS: B . it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d.b. an RS11 connector c. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b.
same as a "dumb" terminal d. Record locking is used to: a. a PC with no disk drives b. ANS: topology 6. multitasking b. The Internet is a network of ____________________. basically. ANS: networks 3. WINDOWS-based d. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. none of the above ANS: C 34. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. In a ____________________ network. Novell certified ANS: C 35. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. ANS: token 7. A "thin" client is: a. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. ANS: star 4. ANS: Local 2. ANS: circuit 5. UNIX-based c. In a ____________________-switched network.33. all nodes are connected to a central computer. all of the above . store records securely on a server b. ANS: packet c. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1.
A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. ANS: Contention 9.8. ANS: collision 10. in effect. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: minimum 15. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. In CSMA/CD networks. ANS: detected 11. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. one big hub. ANS: fiber-optic 18. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: length 16. ANS: 100 mega 14. ANS: backbone 13. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. In CSMA/CD. In CSMA/CD. ANS: NIC 17. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: stacked 19. ANS: address . all collisions must be ____________________. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.
so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. It still works like a token-passing ring. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. 2. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. What is a NIC address. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. 4. 3. . 5. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. the entire network is inoperative. send a packet.20. The collision would not be detected. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide.
link layer c. physical layer c. 7 d. 5 ANS: C 5. Packet switching is based on: a. all of the above c. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. frame c.25 b. Standard Network Access b. Frame Relay: a. Systems Network Architecture c. is faster than X. network d. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. Multiple Access Network . does less error checking than X. all of the above c. allows for variable length packets d. transport layer ANS: A 6.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Metropolitan-Area Network d. SNA stands for: a. MAN stands for: a. cable layer b. switched circuits ANS: A 3. user b. frame layer b. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. store-and-forward b. Manchester Access Network b. link layer ANS: C 8.25 ANS: D c. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. physical layer ANS: D 7. 3 b. link layer d. 8 c. real-time delivery d. error-check layer d. Standard Network Architecture d.
7 layers ANS: A 14. Transmission Control Process b. A bridge: a. none of the above c. HTTP stands for: a. Interconnect Procedure . Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. User Datagram Protocol b. Internet Process b. Interconnect Protocol d. all of the above ANS: D 11. operate at the data-link level d. Transfer Connection Protocol d. Automatic Test Mode 10. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. connectionless protocol d. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. non-robust protocol c. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. Together. looks at the address of each packet c. ATM stands for: a. UDP stands for: a. IP is a: a. an application and a process d. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. IP stands for: a. 5 layers b. is essentially forever b. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. datagrams c. connection-oriented protocol b. separates a network into "collision domains" b. TCP stands for: a. TCP/IP consists of: a. Universal Data Packet c. User Data Packet d. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a.9.
Fast Transport Packet c. running out of available values d. HTML stands for: a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. Hypertext Markup Language b. Short Message Transport Protocol b. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a.b. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. none of the above . Internet Service Procedure d. web page layout d. FTP is used to: a. all of the above c. HTML allows: a. file transport ANS: C 19. a 32-bit binary number b. none of the above ANS: A 23. Internet Service Protocol b. ISP stands for: a. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. dumb terminals b. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. browsers d. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. FTP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol b. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. none of the above c. HTTP allows the use of: a. four groups of base-ten numbers c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. all of the above c. telneting b. SMTP stands for: a. File Test Procedure d. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22.
Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. a "firewall" b. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. Open Systems Interconnection b.ANS: D 26. ANS: Wide 3. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. ANS: leased 4. has become obsolete on the Internet b. Domain Naming System . a DNS c. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. ANS: switched 5. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. OSI stands for: a. a "brick wall" d. DNS stands for: a. c. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. Open Systems Internet d. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: forward 6. translates words to numbers c. Domain Name Server b. stores all domain addresses d. ANS: Metropolitan 2. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. A DNS: a. none of the above c. Domain Numbering System d.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
modulation index ANS: C 6. Pulse-Signal Keying b. M is the: a. too many bits low d. none of the above . amperes per second ANS: C 5. FSK c. PSK stands for: a. maximum number of symbols per second c.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Phase-Shift Keying c. the eye is half open b. QAM stands for: a. none of the above c. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. Full-Signal Keying d. too many bits high c. the eye is maximally closed d. bits d. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. amperes b. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. the eye is maximally open c. AFSK d. PSK b. In the equation I = ktB. intermodulation distortion b. I is measured in: a. number of possible states per symbol d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. bits per second c. FSK stands for: a. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. Full-Shift Keying b. margin of noise b. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. QAM ANS: A c. Phase-Signal Keying d. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a.
and 315 degrees d. 180. angles of π/4. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. 90. a training sequence d. half-duplex. FSK b. For QAM. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. FSK d. 2π/4. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. full-duplex. effects of noise on symbols d. International Telecommunications Units c. amplitude and phase angle d. angles of 0. a random sequence c. a QPSK symbol contains: a. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. a byte c. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. frequency and phase angle b. To reduce the need for linearity.N. a dibit b. IEEE d. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. 1200 bps. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. International Telephony Unit b. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. 1200 bps. the U. and 4π/4 b. noise and interference b. CCITT b. angles of 45. 3π/4. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. International Telecommunications Union d. and 270 degrees c. full-duplex. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. Instead of a single bit. amplitude and frequency c. FSK c. FSK ANS: A 14. 225. For QAM. all of the above . 135. random bits c. low SNR d. 600 bps. ANSI c.9. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. 4 bits d. Gaussian bits b. uneven phase and frequency response c. 300 bps. ANS: B 16. full-duplex.
a DSR ANS: C 24. the ITU d. a DCE d. RTS/CTS handshake b. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. a DTE c. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. flow control is done using: a. The V. both a and b d. RS-232C b. a modem would be: a. MNP4. 5 b. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector.ANS: C 18. In RS-232. 1 c. ANSI-232C c. both a and b d. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. MNP3. a personal computer would be: a. none of the above c. In RS-232. a DTR b. none of the above c. the EIA b. data-compression schemes b.90 standard is issued by: a. 7 c. a DTE c. the TIA ANS: C 19. 5 b. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. and MNP10 are all: a. a DTR b.42 bis are both: a. In RS-232. signal ground is pin: a. data-compression schemes b. ISO-232C/D d. 3 d. 3 d. MNP2. both a and b d. 1 c. 7 ANS: C 26. none of the above c. a DCE d. a DSR ANS: D 25. The official name for RS-232C is: a. MNP5 and V. signal ground is pin: a. the ISO .
Hardware flow control uses: a. In a CATV system. Head Frequency Control b. XON and XOFF b. Hybrid Fiber Control c. RTS. Digital Subscriber Line d. Software flow control uses: a. TD. TD and RD b. Asynchronous DSL b. All DSL c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. DSR. DSR and DCD c. CTS. Data Signal Line b. RTS and CTS d. CMTS stands for: a. RD. Cable Modem Terminal System d. DSL stands for: a. TD and RD ANS: C 29. none of the above c. and signal ground d. TD and RD ANS: A 30. ADSL d. RD. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. RTS and CTS d. +9 volts b. and signal ground . Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. TD. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. ADSL Lite b. In a CATV system. +12 volts d. ADSL stands for: a. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. RD. +15 volts c. Double-Speed Loop c. HFC stands for: a. Any DSL scheme c. DSR and DCD c. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35.ANS: D 27. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Analog DSL d. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. and signal ground ANS: B 28. TD. XON and XOFF b.
ANS: CTS 3. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. The response to RTS is ____________________. ANS: Telecommunications 12. ANS: four 9. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. ANS: constellation 11. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. . ANS: Keying 4. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: dibit 8. ANS: Data 5. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ANS: Send 2. ANS: Delta 10.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. In QAM modems. RTS means Request To ____________________. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: Quadrature 6. ANS: baud 7. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK.
ANS: 3 19. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: 20k 16. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. In RS-232. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ANS: CMTS 23.ANS: Trellis 13. ANS: tree 22. ____________________ flow control is preferred. ANS: hardware 18. ANS: 54k 15. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: Equalization 14. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ANS: null 20. . In a CATV system using cable modems.
If half the modems are active at any given time. ANS: 4000 2. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: lite 26. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. A DMT system uses 4. ANS: ADSL 25. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL.ANS: Ranging 24. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. ANS: DMT 27. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second.
When calculating the maximum number of users. timing bit b. In DS-1. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. Time Domain Multiple Access b.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. signaling bit d. 32 channels d. 24 channels ANS: B 6. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. every frame b. 1.536 Mbps b. Tone Division Multiple Access d. none of the above c. 64 kbps c. 256 kbps d. the signals come from different sources c. TDM is used in RF communications d. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. Besides data bits. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 64 channels c. framing bit c. all the signals come from the same source b. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. every sixth frame d. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. CDMA stands for: a. the length of the channel d. the bandwidth of each signal b. 12 channels b. none of the above . all of the above ANS: C 5. Code-Division Multiple Access b. every other frame c. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. every twelfth frame c. the type of media used c. 1. T-bit ANS: D 8. TDMA stands for: a.
"Processing gain" is another term for: a. much less bandwidth b. a CDMA receiver c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. time switching c. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. For a given data rate. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. the digital data bit rate c. use: a. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. a narrowband receiver c. bandwidth of original baseband d. spreading gain d. A digital space switch is a: a. line switching b. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. the S/N ratio b. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. time switching c. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. a wideband receiver d. compared to standard RF systems. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. space switching d. a direct-conversion receiver b. the chip size ANS: B 17.ANS: C 9. computer speed ANS: C 16. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. To calculate processing gain. about the same bandwidth c. direct-sequence method d. TDM switch ANS: D 12. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. space switching d. RF gain b. direct-sequence method d. direct-sequence systems. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. all of the above c. crosspoint switch . signal switching b. much more bandwidth d. multiplexer b. all of the above c. computerized Strowger switch d.
and ____________________. ANS: time 7. orthogonal PN sequences c. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b.ANS: A 18. ANS: all 6. Using CDMA on a radio channel. ANS: all 4. ANS: share 2. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. In FDM. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: CDMA 3. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. a wideband receiver d. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. For optimal performance. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. a narrowband receiver c. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. a direct-conversion receiver b. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. CDMA requires the use of: a. TDMA. In TDM. true-random PN sequences b. ANS: part 5. ANS: frequency . cannot be used on an RF channel d. CDMA: a. non-orthogonal PN sequences d.
8. ANS: AMI 10. ANS: superframe 14. ANS: hopping 19. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: 1. ANS: 24 9. ANS: space 15. ANS: Rayleigh 17. ANS: 8 13. . ANS: difficult 20. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: 193 11. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. ANS: time 16.544 Meg 12. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. ANS: pseudo 18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________.
ANS: ten 23. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . 2. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. ANS: chips 22. 4. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. 5. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. the higher the possible bit rate. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. by definition. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system.ANS: difficult 21. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. So the more bandwidth available. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. ANS: code 24.
6.) and (f21. (f11. f13. f23. f12. . have no frequencies in common. .. as it is in spread-spectrum. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. f22. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. f22. and so forth. f23. .. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. f13.. At some point in time.).. f12.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. If the two sets of frequencies. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. and so forth.
the resistance per foot of the wire used b. all of the above c. decreases d. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. none of the above . the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. Total Distance of Reflection b. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. distributed d. ideal elements ANS: B 5. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. increases c. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. Time-Domain Response d. an open-wire-line cable d. stays the same b. When analyzing a transmission line. increases c. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. Transmission Delay Ratio c. the Ohmic effect d. the resistance of a wire: a. As frequency increases. Shorted Wire Region d. TDR stands for: a. As frequency increases. SWR stands for: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. the skin effect b.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. changes periodically ANS: A 6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. decreases d. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. Shorted Wave Radiation b. I2R loss c. a coaxial cable b. stays the same b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. lumped c. equal reactances b.
lower than Z0 c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. increases with voltage d. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. the inductance per foot b. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. standing waves b. For best matching. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. loss of power to load c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. the dielectric constant d. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. higher voltage peaks on cable d. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. equal to Z0 b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. as large as possible d. The optimum value for SWR is: a. zero b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. all of the above ANS: B 12. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. increases with length b. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. all of the above c. the load on a cable should be: a. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. one ANS: B 16. the wire resistance c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. there is no optimum value c. would reflect as a positive pulse b.ANS: D 9. higher than Z0 d. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. none of the above . A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a.
is infinite c. assuming it to be zero c. is the characteristic impedance b. dividing it by 2π d. zero c. optimum length of a transmission line d. variable SWR b. the current d. would be less c. the characteristic impedance b. none of the above ANS: C 25. by using a filter d. none of the above ANS: D 24. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. is zero d. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. transmission line losses c. VSWR stands for: a. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. A TDR is commonly used to: a. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. the impedance b. one d. by using a "balun" b. multiplying it by 2π b. directly c. cannot be connected ANS: C 22.ANS: D 17. transmission line impedances b. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. none of the above . propagation velocity ANS: A 20. find the position of a defect in a cable c. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. On a Smith Chart. would be more d. the voltage c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. voltage SWR d. Compared to a 300-ohm line. would be the same b. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. If a cable has an SWR of 1.2 9. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10.5. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .5 8.
light ANS: D 6. In free space. perpendicular to each other c. Hertz d. the miniature cell-site d. high power levels c. high-power microwave transmitters b. Hertz d. all of the above ANS: C 5. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. none of the above ANS: C 7. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. all of the above . both a and b b. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Transverse Electromagnetic b. 3 × 106 meters per second c. all of the above ANS: A 4. the microprocessor chip c. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. high antennas d. reuse of frequencies b. none of the above c. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Marconi ANS: C 2. 300 × 10 meters per second d. Armstrong c. True Electromagnetic d.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Maxwell b. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. TEM stands for: a. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. gamma waves d. Armstrong c. radio waves b. Marconi ANS: B 3. Maxwell b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a.
The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a.9. when using horizontally polarized waves c. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. below about 2 MHz b. a flat body of water c. all of the above ANS: D 11. Ground waves are most effective: a. horizontal d. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. circular b. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. all of the above ANS: D 10. vertical c. EIRP stands for: a. horizontal d. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. reflection c. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. vertical c. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. an isotropic radiator b. a ground-wave antenna d. none of the above . circular b. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. at microwave frequencies d. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. refraction c. 2 d. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. 1 c. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. 3 b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. many ANS: B 12.
reflected off the ionosphere c.b. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. the radio horizon d. high power b. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. cancellation due to reflection c. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. send a message multiple times over a channel b. diffraction 18. in the "skip" zone . frequency diversity b. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. multipath distortion d. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. are line-of-sight b. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. the cell area is increased c. the reuse of frequencies c. diffraction ANS: C 23. line-of-sight b. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. fading c. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. the power levels are increased c. Sky waves: a. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. Space waves are: a. in the "silent" zone d. repeaters ANS: D 25. extend the range of a radio communications system d. are same as space waves d. diffusion ANS: D d. A "repeater" is used to: a. close to the transmitter b. same as sky waves d. fading b. diffraction d.
radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. used for radio telephony b. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. highest layer of the atmosphere b. also called "ducting" d. both cells will handle the call b. c. ANS: 300 × 106 5. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. the number of channels is reduced 26. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. ANS: Maxwell 2. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. ANS: Hertz 3. a "funnel" receiver c. a "handoff" process occurs c. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. the cell area is split ANS: B d. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a.b. not possible c. Unlike sound or water waves. ANS: transverse 4. ANS: photons 6. The troposphere is the: a. a "rake" receiver d. To receive several data streams at once. none of the above ANS: B 28. multiple receivers b. a "sectoring" process occurs d.
The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: circular 15. ANS: perpendicular 13. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. ANS: 3 × 106 8. ANS: perpendicular 14. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. ANS: specular . a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. ANS: decrease 17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. ANS: sphere 10. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. ANS: isotropic 9. ANS: plane 11. ANS: electric 12. At a far distance from the source. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. ANS: gain 16.ANS: medium 7. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space.
____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction.18. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. ANS: low 27. ANS: skip 24. ANS: Sectoring 29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: multipath 25. ANS: Sky 23. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: reuse 28. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ANS: Ground 22. to reduce interference. ANS: reflected 26. ANS: microprocessor . each covering a third of the cell area. ANS: Space 21. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: Refraction 19. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion.
what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6.SHORT ANSWER 1. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. what is the power density 10. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. approximately. What. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures.9 km 5.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.
A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. the SWR b. infinite ANS: A 8. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. between half-power points d. the radiated signal c. from front to back c. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. the reflected signal d. a Yagi antenna d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. in all directions b. 3 dB d. one half-wavelength d. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. between the minor side-lobes c. in one direction c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. from +90° to –90° b. active antenna b. SWR along the feed cable d. Measured on the ground. resonance ANS: A 7. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. none of the above . depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. one wavelength c. selectivity d. directivity c. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. 10 dB b. in two directions d. a Marconi antenna b.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. 0 dB c. radiation resistance of the antenna b. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. all of the above ANS: A 2.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
ANS: wider greater more 19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. ANS: one 24. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. ANS: horizontal 18. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: gain 16. ANS: effective 15. ANS: parasitic 25. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ANS: balun 17. ANS: ground 22. ANS: vertical 20. . A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.14. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.
What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. If an LPDA had five elements.ANS: log-periodic 26. ANS: horn 30. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. ANS: focus 28. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. If an antenna has 10. ANS: five 27. ANS: collimated 29. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.
What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts . A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6.
TM 01 ANS: C 6. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. of its circular symmetry d. none of the above ANS: A 4. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. below the microwave range b. TE 11 d. TM10 ANS: C 5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. the power level of the signal d. 100 MHz c.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. TE 01 c. both b and c ANS: D 8. The UHF range is: a. above the microwave range d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. with an electric field probe d. through a hole in the waveguide b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. TE 10 a. the point of signal injection b. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. with a magnetic field probe c. the shape of the waveguide c. 10 GHz b. same as the microwave range . is fixed b. TM 01 d. depends on the frequency it carries c. it is the only mode possible b. 1 GHz d. TE 01 b. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. it is dominant c. TM11 b. all of the above c.
couple sections of waveguide b.ANS: D 9. their coupling specification d. their directivity b. their insertion loss c. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. gallium astenite d. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. antenna d. A "circulator" is a device that: a. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. none of the above c. Traveling-Wave Tube d. An "isolator" is a device that: a. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. a "magic" TEE d. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. tuned circuit b. separates signals among various ports d. gallium assembly ANS: A c. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. all of the above c. TWT stands for: a. gallium arsenide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. an H-plane TEE b. none of the above . all of the above ANS: D 10. none of the above c. Transverse Wave Transmission b. separates signals among various ports d. couple components on a circuit board d. GaAs stands for: a. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16.
an electric field b. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. implied power at transmission terminal d. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. radio ranging b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. klystron d. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. YIG ANS: B 23. YIG ANS: C 21.17. the Doppler effect d. magnetron b. impact avalanche and transit time b. Yagis d. RADAR stands for: a. klystron d. IMPATT stands for: a. an "exciter" signal 20. TWT c. YIG ANS: A 22. YIG stands for: a. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. slots c. all of the above ANS: A 24. pulsed transmission b. Fresnel lenses b. TWT c. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. TWT c. none of the above c. all of the above c. remote detection and ranging . none of the above c. radio detection and ranging d. RADAR uses: a. klystron d. magnetron b. magnetron b. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. continuous transmission ANS: D c. mechanical pressure d. a magnetic field ANS: B c.
The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. ANS: faster 10. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. ANS: dominant 4. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. ANS: slower 9. ANS: electric 5. none of the above ANS: B 27. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ANS: zero 3. ANS: two 6. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. decreases with increasing pulse period b. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. increases with increasing repetition rate c. ANS: TM01 7. In TE10 mode. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. In a waveguide. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. In a waveguide. . is always a tenth of the maximum range b. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.26. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: Dispersion 2. ANS: high 8. increases with increasing pulse duration c. In a waveguide. In a circular waveguide. In TE20 mode.
A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. ANS: smaller 20. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. ANS: cavity 14. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: slot 18. . ANS: patch 19. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: hybrid 12. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1.ANS: decreases 11. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. ANS: linear 17. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. ANS: wave 16. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: high 13.
Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.ANS: 3 GHz 2.8 6. ANS: 14. ANS: 15 km 7. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c.9% b. Line-Of-Signal c. 90% c. Too much antenna gain causes: a. Loss Of Skip b. all of the above ANS: B 6. excessive noise d. 2 watts c. noise level d. jitter b. jitter c. Microwave systems use: a. jump ANS: B 2. section c. SSB ANS: D 3. LOS stands for: a. additional repeaters increase the: a. all of the above . In analog microwave systems. 99. Line-Of-Sight d. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. FM b. hop d. 200 watts b. 99. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. jitter b. additional repeaters increase the: a.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. reliability c. 20 watts d. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. QAM d. none of the above ANS: A 5. a very narrow microwave beam b. skip b. 99% d. noise level d. In digital microwave systems. reliability c. all of the above ANS: C 7.99% ANS: D 4.
when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. IF type b. diversity c.9. none of the above ANS: A 11. Microwave repeaters can be: a. ducting d. power d. baseband type ANS: D 16. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. multipath reception b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. low level of transmitted power b. all of the above c. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. always b. it requires less power b. all of the above ANS: B 17. regenerative type d. less bandwidth is required c. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. Fading is caused by: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. below 10 GHz c. all of the above . Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. above 10 GHz d. high-gain antennas b. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. MMDS stands for: a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. high level of ERP c. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a.
unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. ANS: studio 3. bidirectional b. ANS: noise density 7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. LMDS stands for: a. In digital microwave systems.b. ANS: hop 2. ANS: temperature 6. ANS: fading c. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. LMDS is: a. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. In microwave systems. Local Microwave Distribution System b. multidirectional d. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. ANS: jitter 5. One microwave link is called a ____________________. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. ANS: year 4. none of the above .
By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. what would it be. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . ANS: noise 14. MMDS is unidirectional. but ____________________ is bidirectional.4 meters 3. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. approximately. ANS: space 9.8. ANS: baseband 13. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. ANS: diversity 10. ANS: ten 11. ANS: Repeaters 12. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt.
What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB .4 dBm 4. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. The noise power is –100 dBm. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. ANS: 201 K 5. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K.ANS: –42.
brightness b. NTSC stands for: a. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. 25 c. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 625 d. 50 b. FCC c. IRE d. Red-Green-Blue . 3 : 4 b. 50 b. 30 d. National Television Systems Council d. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. 60 ANS: B 6. Red-Green Bandwidth d. raster c. 1250 ANS: A 5. 60 ANS: D 7. EIA b. 525 c. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. IEEE ANS: C 3. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. National Television Systems Committee c. 625 : 525 c. 1024 b. Red-Green Burst b. National Television Systems Commission b. RGB stands for: a. contrast c. 25 c. chroma d. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 30 d. Luminance refers to: a.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 525 : 625 d.
maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. all white d. none of the above c. quadrature phase color component b. white c. blacker than black ANS: B 12. horizontal resolution: a. lumins ANS: C 10. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. quadrature video color component d. black d. all of the above c. The maximum luminance level is called: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. IRE units d. blacker than black ANS: D 13. Luminance is measured in: a.ANS: A 9. luminance signal. In a color TV receiver. foot-candles b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. black d. peak white ANS: B 11. maintain horizontal sync b. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. is less than vertical resolution d. in-phase color component. is greater than vertical resolution b. NTSC units . composite color signal. equalize the DC level d. pic ANS: C 16. Y I Q refers to: a. in-phase color component. quadrature phase color component c. When measured in lines. dot b. white c. whiter than white c. max white b. composite video signal. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. in-phase video component. whiter than white b. whiter than white b. pixel d.
the isolation transformer c. about the same c. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. suppressed-carrier AM b. SSB c. the video transformer d. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. all of the above ANS: D 22. FM ANS: D 20. suppressed-carrier AM b. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. FM ANS: C 21. separate audio program b. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. sync audio pulse . FM ANS: B 19. vestigial sideband AM d. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. SSB c. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. much less b. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. Compared to the luminance signal. SAP stands for: a. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. vestigial sideband AM d. the flyback transformer b. sync amplitude pulse d. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. vestigial sideband AM d. suppressed-carrier AM b. SSB c. much greater c. Compared to a monochrome CRT. much lower b.17. much higher d. the yoke ANS: C 24. detect the presence of a color video signal b. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. about the same d.
ANS: chroma chrominance 9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. Color information is called ____________________. AFPC stands for: a. ANS: composite 6. ANS: porch c. ANS: NTSC 3. allowed full picture chroma b. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. none of the above . The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. automatic frequency and picture control d.d. ANS: Aquadag 2. ANS: scanning 4. ANS: retraces 5. ANS: aspect 7. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: luma luminance 8. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. Brightness information is called ____________________. During the horizontal blanking interval.
The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 20 to 30 21. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds.10. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. ANS: green 17. ANS: 10 13.3 14. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: ultor 20.58 18. ANS: 62. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: 1. ANS: pixels 15. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. ANS: separate 19. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: phosphor 22. not including blanking. . ANS: position 11. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 525 16. ANS: 3. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.5 12.
The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: convergence . ANS: saturation 29.ANS: flyback 23. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. ANS: dBmV 26. ANS: phase 30. ANS: vectorscope 28. ANS: killer 25. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. Color intensity is called ____________________. ANS: purity 31. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. ANS: head 27. ANS: comb 24.
apogee and perigee c. azimuth and declination d. transponders c. is zero (freefall) c. 103 watts 2 b. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. perigee and apogee d.: a. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. 357. uplink and downlink b. solar cells b.800 km b. is constant b. 10 watts d. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. plate ANS: C 4. 5 to 25 watts c.780 km d.578 km c. earth station c. 101 watts c. azimuth and elevation c. downlink d. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. all of the above . respectively. declination and elevation b. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. 3. 104 watts ANS: C 8. 50 to 250 watts d. 500 to 2500 watts b. batteries d. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. footprint b. 35. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a.
low-noise array c. orbital adjustments d. TDMA stands for: a. VSAT stands for: a. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. direct-broadcast system d. low power to a large antenna b. video satellite b. ring d. television remote origin d. none of the above c. direct-broadcast satellite c. mesh c. low power to a small antenna d. backdown c. star b. power-down b. transmit delay minimum aperture c. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. television receive only b. low-noise amplifier b. television repeater only ANS: A 14. a VSAT system uses: a. time-division multiple access d. antenna maintenance b. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. repeater c. LNA stands for: a. very small antenna terminal d. low north angle ANS: A 12. decibels of signal b. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. backoff d. high power to a small antenna c. TVRO stands for: a. low-noise amplitude d. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10.ANS: A 9. none of the above . video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. very small aperture terminal c. On the uplink from a terminal. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. DBS stands for: a. "Station-keeping" refers to: a.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Maximum Signal Carrier d. Electronic Serial Number b. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Numerical Access Mode b. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Mobile Switching Center b. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Personal Communications Service b. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Minimum In-band Noise c. RCC stands for: a. Maximum In-band Noise d. NAM stands for: a. PCS stands for: a. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. MSC stands for: a. AMPS stand for: a. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. Radio Common Carrier b. none of the above c. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Number Access Module d. American Mobile Phone System b. Portable Communications Systems c. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. ESN stands for: a. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above c. MTSO stands for: a. Emission Strength Number d. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Manual Identification Number b. Number Assignment Module c. Personal Cell phone Service d. MIN stands for: a.
9. control access to the cell site b. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. maximum power level of a cell phone c. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. Central Mobile Access Control d. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. base-station class ANS: D 11. signal classification (analog or digital) d. System Identification Number d. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. recognize an AMPS system c. AM c. SCM stands for: a. Supervisory Access Tone d. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. set the access code of the cell phone c. Digital Communications Carrier d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. Digital Color Code b. SCM identifies the: a. Service Class Mark b. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. Signal Class Mark d. The CMAC is used to: a. none of the above c. voice is sent using: a. set its transmitted power level d. SAT stands for: a. DCC stands for: a. FSK c. SID stands for: a. Direct Channel Code . CMAC stands for: a. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Serial-Code Mode c. In an AMPS system. Station Antenna Tower b. code number of a cell phone b.
One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. Coded Digital Packet Data d. Code-Division Packet Data b. between 1 and 2 watts b. erlangs ANS: B 24.b. Basic Service Code . air interface ANS: D 22. 0. CDMA ANS: C 19. MTSO d. decrease the number of cells d. Base Station Controller b. number of users d. less than 600 µW. 4 watts ANS: B 20. BSC c. CDPD stands for: a. 2 km b. control-channel signals are sent using: a. c.5 km ANS: D 23. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. BSC stands for: a. increase the ERP b. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. FSK b. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. AM c. Basic Service Contract d. In an AMPS system. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. FM ANS: B d. less than 600 mW. calls b. number of blocked calls c. d. CDMA 18. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. increase the number of cells c. FM d. RF interface b. Phone traffic is measured in: a. none of the above c. as small as possible d.
ANS: I one 8. ANS: three 7. handoffs will occur too frequently. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________.5 6. For security.1. ANS: 800 2. ANS: attenuation 12. ANS: 600 mW 9. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. . The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. ANS: 0. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. ANS: land station 11. ANS: reuse 4. A portable. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. ANS: III three 10. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. ANS: AMPS 3. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. ANS: handoff 5.
Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. ANS: picocells 20. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. ANS: traffic 15. 2. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. ANS: MTSO 14. Compared with AMPS. ANS: 1. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. What is the traffic in erlangs? . If a 28. ANS: splitting 18. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. 2. ANS: erlangs 16.ANS: public 13.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.6 3. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. ANS: microcell 19. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. ANS: dropped 17.
ANS: 30 4. . the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.
first-generation b. Compared to AMPS. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. GSM is used in: a. Qualcomm c. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. PCS cell sites are: a. voice ANS: D 6. digital-generation . CDMA technology was invented by: a. higher-power c. from mobile to mobile d. all of the above c. smaller ANS: B 5. bigger b. Europe ANS: D c. 2 c. North America d. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. Bell Labs d. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. third-generation d. 3 d. 1. use built into an automobile d. all of the above c. from the base to the mobile b. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. many ANS: B 7.9 GHz b. 900 MHz d. second-generation ANS: B 2. AMPS was designed for: a. 4 b. distributed d. AT&T b. 800 MHz c. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. POTS b. Lucent ANS: D 8. Asia b. same as the uplink c.
AMPS uses: a. frequency hopping b. none of the above 11. talking channels c. In GSM. voice channels ANS: A 10. CDMA d. Other things being equal. CDMA b. TDMA ANS: D c. less than in a TDMA phone c. CDMA d. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. voice channels are called: a. bearer channels d. SIM stands for: a. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. GSM uses: a. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. IS-95 uses: a. spread-spectrum d. GSM only d. Subscriber ID Module d. Short Inbound Message b. CDMA d. TDMA ANS: C 17. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. greater than in a TDMA phone b. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. all of the above c. no PCS system c. frequency hopping b. In GSM. Subscriber ID Method c. no better than in an AMPS phone d. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. TDMA only b. IS-136 uses: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. frequency hopping b. all of the above . IMSI stands for: a. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. all of the above c.9. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. TDMA c. traffic channels b.
ANS: Personal 2. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. all frequencies are used in all cells b. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. faster data rates c. rotating d. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. ANS: 1900 4. In CDMA: a. orthogonal . each cell uses half the available frequencies c. ANS: GSM 6. unique ANS: D 20. In North America. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. wider roaming area b. ANS: smaller 5. ANS: second 3. Compared to AMPS. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. common b. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. Internet access d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a.ANS: B 18.
RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: Frequency 13. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. ANS: soft 9. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: Universal .7. ANS: Mobile 19. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. ANS: Walsh 10. ANS: all 11. Unlike other systems. ANS: Packet 18. ANS: variable 15. ANS: random 12. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. ANS: frequency hopping 8. Unlike AMPS. ANS: 50 16. ANS: closed 17. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. ANS: less 14. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________.
What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. With offset QPSK. and what causes it? . but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. To demodulate. 8. 4. it never goes to zero. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. 6. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. 3.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. 7. 2. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight.20. ANS: Wireless 21. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. Why was PCS assigned to 1. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. 5.
This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. .
In a one-way pager system: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. the UHF band. require "handoffs" b. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. all of the above ANS: D 5. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. and Messaging d. A typical pager system does not: a. require error detection d. CAPCODE is: a. transmitters use relatively high power d. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. the VHF band only b. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. Industrial. Industrial. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. the VHF band. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. IEEE Standard Message b. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. Scientific. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. both the VHF and UHF bands d. 802. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. all of the above c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. POCSAG stands for: a. the UHF band only c. ISM stands for: a. Scientific. 802.10 c. Pagers use: a.12 c. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. and Medical .Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c.
Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. infrared band c. BSS stands for: a. 802. TDD net d. Basic Service Set b. Total Distance Delay c. all of the above c. infrared band ANS: C 9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. UHF band d. VHF band b. multinet ANS: D 16. 2 to 8 nodes d. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. CDMA b. Time Delay Difference d. ISM band b. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. scatternet c.11 ANS: B d. Time-Division Duplex b. CDMA b. VHF band c. CSMA/CA c. Bluetooth Service System d. 10 cm to 100 meters c. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. micronet b. none of the above . TDD stands for: a.13 8. UHF band ANS: C 13. 10 cm to 1 meter c. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. ISM band d. all of the above ANS: A 10. Bluetooth uses the: a.b. 802. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. 2 nodes b. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. CSMA/CD d. 2 to 16 nodes c. Bluetooth uses: a. QPSK d.
The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. 1 foot d. ANS: Post 4. . Infrared networks: a. ANS: 10 5. 1 meter c. all of the above 20. can use reflected infrared beams d. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. cannot penetrate walls b. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. The range of an IRDA system is: a.b. ANS: TDMA 3. 10 meters ANS: A 19. ANS: capcode 2. 10 feet c. several hundred meters b. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office.11 6. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. IRDA stands for: a. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. Infrared Data Association b. several thousand meters. within 10 feet c. 1 meter b. several meters d. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. ANS: 802.
A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: ISM 8. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.ANS: 1 watt 7. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: piconet 9. ANS: piconets 10. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. ANS: 1 meter .
The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. 40 dB per km c. loss b. intersymbol interference d. both a and b d. less b. all of the above c. Scattering causes: a.4 dB per km b. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. zero loss ANS: C 8. all of the above . the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a.02 dB c. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. waveguide dispersion d. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. Compared to the core. glass b. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. none of the above c. dispersion ANS: A 7. 0. plastic ANS: A 4. the same c.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. in an explosive environment b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. none of the above ANS: B 5. 1 dB c. greater d. modal dispersion b. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. 4 db per km d. all of the above c. 0. carry current b. generate EMI d.
3 dB ANS: B 10. a phonon . E-H current ANS: C 15. In a PIN diode. baseline current c. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. all of the above ANS: D 11. a photon d. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. APD stands for: a. The quantum of light is called: a. LASER stands for: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. an erg b. µW per amp d. amps per watt c.b. Avalanche Photodiode b. responsivity is measured in: a. an e-v ANS: C 12. In the core. 1 dB b. Avalanche Photo Detector d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. 0. dark current b. ANS: reflection c. ST c. 0. mA per joule b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. For a light detector. 0. SC d. zero-point current d. Advanced Photo Detector c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. 3 dB 9. SMA b.2 db ANS: A d. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.2 db d.02 dB c.
Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ANS: internal 7. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ANS: graded 10. ANS: energy 5. ANS: infrared 9. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. ANS: critical 4. With optical fiber. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion.2. . Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. ANS: sine 6. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: Intersymbol 13. For laser diodes. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. In multimode fiber. ANS: intramodal 8. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: time 12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: loose-tube 14. ANS: linewidth 11.
A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.ANS: tight-buffer 15. ANS: PIN 20. For safety. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. ANS: pigtail 16. ANS: photon 19. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: laser 18. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. ANS: look . ANS: single 17.
Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. FTTC stands for: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. WDM ANS: A 8. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Simple Optical Network b. A Soliton is a: a. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. FDDI stands for: a. SDH b. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. bit-synch d. type of optical network c. FITL stands for: a. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. SONET stands for: a. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. gain margin c. type of particle ANS: C 7. none of the above c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. type of pulse d. excess gain c. Synchronous Optical Network d. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Fiber In The Loop b. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. bit stuffing c. defect in the glass b. DWDM stands for: a.
Optical Time-Delay Response b. all of the above ANS: D 13. FDDI c. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. Synchronous Transport Signal b. STS stands for: a. 100 miles d. OC-1 stands for: a. overdrive 9. Optical Channel one d. 100 km b. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. Optical Carrier level one b. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. obsolete d.b. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. In SONET. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Optical Time-Division Relay c. ANS: Curb 2. gigabit Ethernet b. Optical Cable type 1 . Typically. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. In SONET. c. Synchronous Transmission System c. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. 10 km ANS: C 10. FITL b. FDDI c. 1000 miles c. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. experimental ANS: B 14. not possible c. OTDR stands for: a. FTTC d. common b. high-speed Ethernet d. system margin ANS: B d.
The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.ANS: Loop 3. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: 51. ANS: opposite . ANS: pointer 13. ANS: WDM 10. ANS: Wavelength 5. ANS: Distributed 7. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: token 14. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: stuffing 12. ANS: Hierarchy 4. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: Synchronous 6. ANS: erbium 8.84 11. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: pump 9.
ANS: 774 21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: 1 24. ANS: 100 M 18. ANS: 9 22. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. ANS: multi 17. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 810 20. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 4 23. ANS: node 16.15. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: transport 25. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. In SONET.
Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter.1 MHz 2. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. receiver.6 nanoseconds . ANS: 86.
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