Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz

ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above

17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B

c. copper wire d. none of the above

c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise

c. white noise d. partition noise

c. constant power d. none of the above

21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C

The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. The more information per second you send. The part. its amplitude.25. ANS: base 4. its amplitude c. In ____________________. ANS: channel 5. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. its amplitude. ANS: 1901 3. ANS: bandwidth 7. In ____________________. ANS: greater larger wider 8. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. ANS: 1863 2. its amplitude and frequency d. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. ANS: zero 6. ANS: TDM 10. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. frequency. . or parts. ANS: FDM 9. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. and direction b. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. frequency.

ANS: very high 11. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. . In free space. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 million 15. ANS: solar 19. For satellite communications. Channel. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. Destination 2. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: 300 13. ANS: Fourier 17. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. Transmitter. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. ANS: Source. ANS: 30 12. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. Mathematically. Receiver. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. ANS: wavelength 14.

How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. 4. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. transit-time 3. ANS: 50 µV 6. Find the total NF for the pair. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors.4 10. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Find NF. ANS: 20 dB. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. both in dB and as a ratio. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.ANS: Thermal. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. Calculate the total noise voltage. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. ANS: 1. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Find its noise figure. NF = 100 8.5 9. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. Likewise. ANS: 5. 5. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. 1/f. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. Shot. both across the same 100-ohm load. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. Partition. . Likewise. the output of which is a noise current.


Bypass capacitors are used to: a. and resistance d. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. transit time d. it cannot be avoided c. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. "multiply" the Q d. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. inductance. using a common-emitter amplifier b.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. charge time b. none of the above c. both a and b d. A real capacitor actually contains: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. A resonant circuit is: a. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. have no effect on Q c. base-to-collector capacitance c. Miller time ANS: B 2. base time c. reactance only . reduce the Miller effect c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. capacitance and resistance only b. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. base-to-emitter capacitance d. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. neutralize amplifiers d. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. capacitance. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. The "Miller Effect" can: a. In a BJT. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. a simple form of bandpass filter b. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. the Miller Effect is due to: a. all of the above c. inductance of collector lead b. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d.

A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. only built with FETs c. a piezoelectric crystal . loop gain equal to unity b. a tapped inductor b. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. an RC time constant d. a piezoelectric crystal c. it requires: a. RC coupling c. a linear amplifier c. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. For a "frequency multiplier" to work.9. both a and b. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. none of the above ANS: C 13. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. but at just one frequency d. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. decoupling it d. transformer coupling d. the Hartley criteria d. the loop-gain criteria c. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. direct coupling b. a modified Hartley oscillator b. The Clapp oscillator is: a. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. In RF amplifiers. the Bode criteria b. impedance matching is usually done with: a. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. an RC time constant d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a nonlinear circuit b. a signal containing harmonics d. none of the above ANS: A 11.

Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. ANS: short 2. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. Generally. In a balanced mixer. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. a diode ANS: D c. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. A varactor is: a. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. "VFO" stands for: a. the output: a. At UHF frequencies and above. c. does not contain the input frequencies d. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). contains the input frequencies c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. used for a precise frequency b. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". used in tuner circuits d. none of the above ANS: A 20. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. all of the above ANS: D 19. are fed to a mixer.17. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. the output: a. all of the above 18. If two signals.

Electrically. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. it is called a ____________________. ANS: shielding 5. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: Q 9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground.g.ANS: distributed 3. parallel . In high-frequency RF circuits. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: bypass 8. ANS: series. ANS: 10 10. collector current). ANS: neutralization 12. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. In a class C RF amplifier. ANS: tuned circuit 11. ANS: ground-plane 4. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: capacitive 13. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: components 6.

At some bias point.1 4. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. Two sinusoidal signals. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz.14. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. ANS: linear 15. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. V2 is a 5MHz signal. To produce sum and difference frequencies. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider.05% 7. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. 0. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3.4 µH 2. V1 and V2. 5.

What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.8.

At 100% modulation. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. half the carrier power b. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. m = ωa / ωc c. both a and b d. is: a. it will produce the frequencies: a. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct).Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. none of the above c. twice the carrier power d. the baseband signal b. none of the above ANS: A 8. then the modulation index. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. splatter ANS: C 6. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. equal to the carrier power c. none of the above c. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. Audio Modulation b. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. Antenna Modulation . Overmodulation causes: a. the amplitude signal d. distortion b. m. Angle Modulation d. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. The modulation index.414 × carrier power c. m = Va / Vc d. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). is: a. m. AM stands for: a. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. m = Emax / Emin d. m = Emin / Emax c. 1. the total sideband power is: a.

none of the above c. PEP stands for: a. AM is susceptible to noise c. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. you would expect: a. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. 5 kHz c. none of the above ANS: B 10. Peak Envelope Product d. all of the above ANS: D 11. requires less bandwidth d. 1. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. all of the above ANS: D 14. 500 watts d. SSB AM: a.005 MHz b. Peak Envelope Power b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. the time-domain signal b. none of the above . none of the above c. As compared to plain AM. 0 watts ANS: D 17. all of the above ANS: C 13. 1000 watts c. single-carrier b. 10 kHz d. is more efficient b. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. requires too much power d. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16.ANS: C 9. requires too much bandwidth c. sideband-carrier d. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. 250 watts b. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. the received RF signal to increase d. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. both a and b d.

ANS: two 5. the information in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: simple 2. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. commercial AM stations use low power c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. In AM. ANS: envelope 4. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. the receiver must: a. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. the power in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: the same . sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. Compared to the USB.b. video d. all of the above ANS: D 19. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. The total modulation index is: a. both a and b b. reinsert the carrier d. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. Compared to the USB. be set to USB mode c. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. audio c. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. m1 + m2 c. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. digital data b. all of the above ANS: C 18. ANS: the same 6. ANS: inefficient 3.

the carrier power _________________________. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. With a 1-MHz carrier. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. ANS: remains constant 9. In AM.707 4. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. 0. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. ANS: one 10.7. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. what is the power in the USB at 70. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. In AM.5. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. In AM.3.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0.4. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. ANS: less 8. as the modulation index increases. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________.6 . If the carrier power is 1000 watts. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. and 0.

what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts .5. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.

the threshold effect d. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. Armstrong's Rule b. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. it is called: a. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. NBFM stands for: a. Taylor series b. Near Band FM d. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. National Broadcast FM b. the limit effect ANS: B c. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the noise effect b. Bessel functions d. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. fractals ANS: B 5. the capture effect c. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. none of the above . Carson's Rule d. Narrowband FM c. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. Mathematically. The FM modulation index: a.

is monaural d.8. the threshold effect d. none of the above ANS: A 9. FM stereo: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. the time delay between the L and R channels d. all of the above c. the capture effect c. ANS: data c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. ANS: angle 2. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. is not compatible with mono FM . PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. the "two-station" effect b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. An SCA signal: a. can use amplitude modulation b.

ANS: infinite 10. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: stay constant 7. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. the modulation index ____________________.3. Mathematically. ANS: wider greater 5. In FM. In FM. As the FM modulation index increases. ANS: decreases 14. Mathematically. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. Compared to AM. ANS: decreases 11. the modulation index ____________________. ANS: frequency 9. their power ____________________. ANS: increases 13. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. ANS: any number 12. as the frequency deviation decreases. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: C 6. Compared to AM. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. . ANS: better 4. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. In FM. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. as the modulating frequency decreases. ANS: amplitude 8.

4. 1-kHz audio signal? . what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. ANS: threshold 19. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. For certain values of mf. ANS: Carson's 17. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. such as 2. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. ANS: capture 20. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. ANS: Bessel 18.ANS: increases 15. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency.

ANS: 2 5. 5. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. then δ is 11 kHz. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. At a modulation index of 2. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. For example.4. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. . Using a spectrum analyzer.2 watt) 8. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9.5. At a modulation index of 2. At a modulation index of 2. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier.1. Record the audio frequency.5. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Using Carson's rule. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5.4 watts 6.

all of the above c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. With high-level AM: a. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. With low-level AM: a. maximize transmitted power d. none of the above ANS: B 4. Accurate Level Control d. VFO b. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. may require water cooling b. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. Amplitude Level Control b. ALC is used to: a. In an AM transmitter. all of the above c. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. Baseband compression produces: a. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. With high-level AM: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. agility c. ALC stands for: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. is a measure of efficiency c. heats the transmitter d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. none of the above . a smaller number of signals d. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. expansion d. minimum RF power is required d. all of the above ANS: D 3. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. keep the modulation close to 100% b.

Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. In high-level AM. a dummy load d. the driver stage b. noninductive d. has variable frequency b. a temporary load b. "high-level" refers to: a. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. the power level of the carrier b.ANS: C 9. is complex c. the RF amplifier d. 1% tolerance or better b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. a test load ANS: B 16. a heavy load c. 75 ohms resistive d. A Class D amplifier is: a. all of the above ANS: B 17. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. both a and b b. the resistor must be: a. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. all of the above ANS: B 10. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. T network d. none of the above ANS: C 13. the carrier ANS: A 12. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. In high-level AM. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. has variable amplitude d. the resistor is called: a. pi network c. very efficient c. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. 300 ohms resistive b. none of the above . the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. 50 ohms resistive c. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. wire-wound c. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. the modulating amplifier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier d.

b. none of the above c. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. start with a quadrature signal d. none of the above ANS: B 23. none of the above 20. the carrier frequency can be raised b. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. all of the above c. integrates the modulating signal c. a mixer ANS: A d. none of the above ANS: A 22. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. a balanced modulator b. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. a frequency multiplier d. start with full-carrier AM b. With mixing: a. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. both a and b b. Automatic Frequency Control d. An indirect FM modulator: a. Audio Frequency Control . a crystal filter d. none of the above ANS: C 21. essentially mixers d. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. To generate a SSB signal: a. both a and b d. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. a mechanical filter c. The carrier is suppressed in: a. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. Frequency multipliers are: a. essentially balanced modulators b. both a and b d. A direct FM modulator: a. all of the above c. AFC stands for: a.

ANS: compression 9. ANS: expansion 8. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. In the USA. In Canada. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. . ANS: agility 5. ANS: efficiently 10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ALC is a form of ____________________. ANS: Industry Canada 4. ANS: carrier 2.d. ANS: linear 11. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: FCC 3. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. a ____________________ stage is used. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: compression 7. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning.

ANS: duration 20. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ANS: 50 14. To allow a high modulation percentage. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: receiver 18. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". ANS: mismatch 17. ANS: driver 19. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: T 15. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: DSBSC . Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: mixing 22. ANS: D 21. ANS: harmonic 16. To generate a SSB signal.ANS: buffer 12. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. ANS: higher 13.

Assuming high-level modulation.23. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. ANS: phase 24.001%. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. To pass the USB. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.8% 3. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: reactance 25. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz.005 MHz 6. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.

. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz.7. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. ANS: First. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation.

The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. the spurious response and the tracking d. intermediate frequency b. two types of adjusting tools b. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. AGC stands for: a. Trimmers and padders are: a. Seeley d. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. Active Gain Control d. Armstrong b. Foster c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. "IF" stands for: a. Active Gain Conversion c. the mixer d.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. all of the above c. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. small adjustable inductors d. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. none of the above ANS: C 5. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. small adjustable capacitors . the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. Audio Gain Control b. Hertz ANS: C 3. the tuner b. indeterminate frequency d. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. is above the RF frequency c. "Skin effect" refers to: a. image frequency c. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a.

the mixer b. a value of 1. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. it increases sensitivity c. a value of 1.b. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. Basically.0 is ideal d. a value of 0. color video receivers ANS: B c. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. is below the RF frequency c. monochrome video receivers d. When comparing values for shape factor: a.414 dB is ideal b. is fixed.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. voice communications systems b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. with two signals close in frequency. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. selectivity measures: a. there is no ideal value . The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. Phase distortion is important in: a. it increases selectivity d. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. all of the above c. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the detector ANS: D 15. the IF amplifiers d. Basically. none of the above ANS: A 11. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. none of the above c. sensitivity measures: a. both values are basically equivalent d. typically at 455 kHz. When comparing values for shape factor: a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. all of the above c. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. ANS: C 9.

images cannot be rejected . An image must be rejected: a. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. enter the mixer. PLL b. they are faster than silicon diodes b. all of the above c. a diode ANS: D c. envelope detector ANS: B 21. all of the above c. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. noise generated in the receiver d. ratio detector d. quadrature detector d. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. prior to mixing b. the AGC c. enter the mixer. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. are transmitted on the same frequency b. a product detector c. enter the mixer. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. a BFO d. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. PLL b. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. a PLL b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. A common SSB detector is: a. ratio detector ANS: D 22.16. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. A common AM detector is the: a. An FM detector is the: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. prior to detection d. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. none of the above ANS: C 20. the dynamic range of the receiver b. all of the above ANS: C 23. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d.

Which would be best for DSBSC: a. LNA stands for: a. BFO stands for: a. AFC b. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. maintain a constant IF frequency b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. Low-Noise Audio d. limiting ANS: B 30. ratio detection . Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. The function of a limiter is: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. a quadrature detector d. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Audio Frequency Compensator b. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. AFC stands for: a. Autonomous Frequency Control c. a PLL detector b. carrier detection b. to limit noise response c. to limit dynamic range d. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. coherent detection ANS: B 27. use double conversion d. squelch d. Foster-Seeley detector c. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29.24. Automatic Frequency Control d. you need to: a. to remove amplitude variations b. reinject the carrier c. envelope detection d. all of the above ANS: C 28. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. The function of AFC is: a. AGC c.

lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. TRF stands for: a. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The main function of the AGC is to: a. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. Distorted Signal Packet d. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. c. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Software-Activated Wave . Digital Signal Processor c. ANS: superheterodyne 2. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. DSP stands for: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. none of the above c. The important property of a SAW is: a. Tuned Receiver Function c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d.c. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. it is a stable bandpass filter d. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. all of the above ANS: C 36. none of the above ANS: B 33. SAW stands for: a. Dynamic Signal Properties b. SINAD stands for: a.

ANS: Sensitivity . An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. ANS: intermediate IF 9. In low-side injection.ANS: 1887 3. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: autodyne 11. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: mixer 8. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. In a receiver. ANS: 1918 6. ANS: Selectivity 13. the other changes with it. ANS: front end 7. ANS: skin 5. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: AGC 10. In a superhet. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. ANS: lower 12. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. In a superhet. ANS: track 4.

ANS: noisy 26. ANS: amplitude 24. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. ANS: carrier 20. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver.14. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. While still commonly found. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. Unlike the PLL detector. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: gate 25. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. ANS: S 22. ANS: obsolescent 23. ANS: coherent 21. ANS: product 19. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: image 16. ANS: conversion 15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. . ANS: detector 17.

An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: adjustment 30. ANS: over 28. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. ANS: fixed constant 32. ANS: limiting 35. Compared to tuned circuits. ANS: S 34. In a block converter. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth.ANS: A 27. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. ANS: IF 33. ANS: higher 31. ANS: stagger 29. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. Typically. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides.

Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.5 MHz.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6.20 kHz 2.06 7. Assuming high-side injection.01 .25 4. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0.

The first digital code was the: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. Natural Sampling does not use: a. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. I = ktB b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. a regenerative repeater b. I = ktB b. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. all of the above ANS: C 3. Ten Dual-Manchester c. TDM stands for: a. an amplifier c. SR = 2fmax c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. In digital transmission. Baudot code ANS: C 2. a filter d. ASCII code b. SR = 2fmax c. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. none of the above . The Shannon Limit is given by: a. Morse code d. I = ktB b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax c. true binary numbers ANS: A c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Hartley's Law is: a. a fixed sample rate d.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. an analog-to-digital converter c. a sample-and-hold circuit b. SR = 2fmax c. Ten-Digital Manchester d. signal degradation can be removed using: a.

the Logarithmic Law b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. PCM d. The immediate result of sampling is: a. noise b. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. all of the above . PPS ANS: D 13. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. PDM c. PPM b. c. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. the A Law c. decreases as the sample rate increases b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. too few samples per second d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. PWM d. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. d. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. b. none of the above ANS: A 15. the µ Law (mu law) c. They are the same thing. the α Law (alpha law) d. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. a sample alias b. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. Companding is used to: a. They are two types of sampling error. companding uses: a.9. ANS: D 10. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. You can have one or the other. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. but not both. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. PDM c. PAM ANS: B 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. In North America.

delta modulation: a. AMI c. transmits fewer bits per sample b. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. "granular noise" is produced when: a. none of the above c. Manchester coding: a. Compared to PCM. Manchester d. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. the A Law ANS: B 18. Compared to PCM. the signal changes too rapidly c. provides strong timing information d. can suffer slope overload d. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. 8-bit numbers d. unipolar NRZ b. only over shorter distances b. 12-bit numbers b.ANS: D 17. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. the Logarithmic Law b. the bit rate is too high b. Code-Compression d. all of the above ANS: D 25. all of the above c. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. In delta modulation. Coder-Decoder b. the signal does not change d. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. the µ Law (mu law) . Codec stands for: a. is a biphase code b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. 4-bit numbers c. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. the α Law (alpha law) d. companding uses: a. In Europe. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24.

A T-1 cable uses: a. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 1. 8 k c. 64 k b. 12 ANS: B 34. 1.544 Mb/s b. NRZ coding d. all of the above c. all of the above c. 4 d. 2 ANS: A 26. 6 b.544 MB/s c. 64 kb/s d.544 × 106 ANS: A 30. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. detect errors b. detect errors b. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 56 k d. In DS-1. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 56 kb/s d. pulse-width coding c. Manchester coding b. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 4 d. carry signaling ANS: C 27. 8 c. 24 d. A typical T-1 line uses: c. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33.a. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 1 b. 1. 48 c. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 56 kb/s b. 8 kb/s . 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. 2 ANS: D c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 8 29. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 1 b.

ANS: decreases gets worse 5. ANS: binary . not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ringing d. ANS: digitized 4. twisted-pair wire b. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. an analog signal must first be ____________________.a. microwave c. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. much better c. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. on-hook/off-hook condition b. ANS: modulated 3. In analog channels. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. about the same b. fiber-optic cable d. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. all of the above 36. A vocoder implements compression by: a. To send it over a digital channel. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. Compared to standard PCM systems. To send it over an analog channel. ANS: improved better 2. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. busy signal ANS: D c. somewhat better d.

A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: limited 11. ANS: error noise 9. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. information capacity. Ignoring noise.6. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ANS: regenerative 7. ANS: correct 8. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: Shannon 14. and bandwidth. ANS: Time 10. ANS: Hartley's 12. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: Nyquist 16. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: Natural 15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. ANS: Foldover .

____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: A 24. ANS: Companding 22. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. ANS: Aliasing 18. In Europe. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. In a PCM system. ANS: codec 25. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. ANS: 12 26. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: Pulse-code 20. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. In North America.17. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: 1 one 27. ANS: amplitude 19. ANS: Quantizing 21. ANS: µ mu 23. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: higher .

ANS: slope 30.28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: DC 33. In DS-1. ANS: step 31. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. In delta modulation. ANS: framing 39. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: Granular 29. ANS: zeros 35. ANS: 8000 40. ANS: timing 37. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. In AMI. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: half 32. ANS: 24 38. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. . ANS: polarity 34. ANS: transition 36.

____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: 5 seconds 2.ANS: 1. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. From a group of twelve frames. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. in dB. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6.544 × 106 41. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100. ANS: superframe 42. What is the approximate dynamic range.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. ANS: sixth 43. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? .000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8.

what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8.388 volt? ANS: 0. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.ANS: 64 kbps 7.833 volt .

occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. trunk lines ANS: B 7. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. none of the above c. a central office d. local loops b. a local calling area b. DTMF stands for: a. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. Local Area Transport Access c. both a and b d. Primary Operational Test System d. Local loops terminate at: a. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Local Access and Transport Area b. PSTN stands for: a. A LATA is a: a. Central offices are connected by: a. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Private Office Telephone System b. Primary Service Telephone Network d. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. a tandem office b. Local Area Telephone Access d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. a way of accessing a tandem office d. Plain Old Telephone Service c. Call blocking: a. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. occurs only on long-distance cables d. LATA stands for: a. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. POTS stands for: a. an interexchange office c. a way of accessing a central office c. a toll station ANS: C 8.

20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. fiber-optic c. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. common control b. 20 hertz AC d. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. Framing In The Loop d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. POP stands for: a. FITL stands for: a. step-by-step switching control c. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. 48 volts DC c. crossbar control d. Loading coils were used to: a. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. 200 µA to 800 µA d. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. coaxial cable d. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. In telephony. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. ESS ANS: C 16. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. 20 µA to 80 µA c. when it is on hook b. none of the above . 2 mA to 8 mA b. only when it is ringing c. Power-On Protocol d. twisted-pair copper wire b. 90 volts DC b. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. Post Office Protocol b. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. reduce crosstalk d. 90 volts. DC current flows through a telephone: a. 48 volts. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a.ANS: D 9.

supergroups b. all of the above ANS: C 19. mastergroups ANS: D 24. 20 hertz AC 18. eliminate reflections c. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. volume net loss ANS: C 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. PABX stands for: a. voltage net loss b. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. PCM ANS: A 25. 6 c. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 12 d. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. VNL stands for: a. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. In telephone system FDM. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. PDM b. 24 b. 48 volts DC b. 1 mW b. SSB c. DSBSC d. 0 dBr c. jumbogroups d.a. 48 volts. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. prevent "singing" d. voice noise level . 1 pW d. all of the above c. 90 volts DC d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. 60 ANS: B 23. via net loss d. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 90 volts. allow signals to be multiplexed b. prevent oscillation d.

much faster c. cancel echoes d. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. compensation b. Compared to ISDN. Integrated Services Digital Network b. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. about the same speed d. In DS-1. it took to long to develop b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. ISDN stands for: a. carry signaling ANS: B 28. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. Access to Data Services Line . check for errors c. frame alignment c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. Information Systems Digital Network 30. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. rectification ANS: C 29. SLIC stands for: a. ANS: LATA 2. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. all of the above ANS: D 31. ADSL stands for: a. c.26. A ____________________ is a local calling area. provide synchronization b. Integrated Services Data Network d. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. justification d. much more expensive b. it is too slow c.

the red wire is called ____________________. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: digital 7. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. As compared to a hierarchical network. ANS: seized 14. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ANS: tandem 4. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.ANS: trunk 3. ANS: ring 11. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. the green wire is called ____________________. ANS: flat 9. ANS: ten 5. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: green 13. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. With 7-digit phone numbers. . ANS: tip 12. ANS: blocking 6. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. Of the red and green 'phone wires. ANS: twisted-pair 8. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: Loading 10.

ANS: hybrid 16. ANS: lines 17. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. amplifiers are called ____________________. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: repeaters 21. ANS: C-message 23. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. Because of "bit robbing". An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. ANS: DTMF 19. In a crosspoint switch. ANS: 56 . The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. In FDM telephony. ANS: conditioned 20. In FDM telephony. ANS: large 18. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. the modulation is usually ____________________. In the telephone system. ANS: guard 25. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ANS: suppressor 22.

ANS: D 32. ANS: B 33. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: in-channel 29. For a certain telephone. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. In ISDN. ANS: asymmetrical 35. ANS: stuff 28. If the loop current is 40 mA. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment.26. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. ANS: TE1 34. In DS-1C. ANS: superframe 27. ANS: common-channel 30. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . ANS: packet 31. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. In ADSL. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. In ISDN.

If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. If the loop current is 40 mA. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. For a certain telephone. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS: 1 dB 5. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.

usually over long distances d. the Morkum Company b. alphanumeric characters b.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Line Feed c. Character codes include: a. all of the above ANS: B 5. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. control characters d. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. FIGS data c. character codes b. BS. American Standard Character-set 2 b. numerical data b. all of the above c. Data codes are also called: a. over any distance b. Western Union d. parallel data transmission is sent: a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. over short distances only c. and CR are examples of: a. LF stands for: a. In practical terms. data link control characters ANS: D 6. escape characters ANS: C 8. binary data d. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. both a and b c. graphic control characters d. Emile Baudot . they do not have any other name d. none of the above c. character sets ANS: C 4. ASCII stands for: a. FF. nonstandard character codes b. American Standard Code 2 d. Line Forward c.

the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. In synchronous transmission. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. the transmitter and receiver are: a. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. the frames are: a. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. UART stands for: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. not a set length ANS: D 12. the time between consecutive frames is: a. In synchronous transmission. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. the channel must be noise-free . all of the above ANS: A 14. Link Forward 9. much longer than asynchronous frames c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. Unaltered Received Text d. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. equal to one bit-time d. not synchronized at all. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. the data bits d. the CRC bits b. In asynchronous transmission. the clock bits c. In asynchronous transmission. Link Feed ANS: A d. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. equal to zero c.b. 128 bytes long d.

BISYNC: a. HDLC: a. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. Control Receiver Code b. ARQ c. "bit-stuffing" b. automatic request for resynchronization b. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. none of the above c. LRC d. all of the above c. automatic receiver queue d. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. VRC is another name for: a. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. correct bit errors b. FEC d. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. parity c. ARQ ANS: D 23. is an IBM product b. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. Huffman codes: a. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. Cycle Repeat Character c. FEC stands for: a. is an IBM product b. is identical to SDLC d. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. requires the use of DLE d. FEC b. CRC stands for: a. ARQ is used to: a. put data into a temporary buffer d. Forward Error Correction d. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. Fixed Error Control b. automatic request for queue c. all of the above . False Error Condition c. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b.ANS: A 16.

compress data ANS: B 26. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. ANS: FF c. all of the above c. allows the use of digital signatures b. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. Run-length encoding is used to: a.d. ANS: short 2. HDLC is: a. an ISO standard d. ANS: ASCII 5. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. ANS: character 4. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. SDLC stands for: a. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. Synchronous Data Line Character c. ANS: Baudot 3. a bit-oriented protocol b. all of the above c. none of the above . avoids the "password problem" d. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Public-key encryption: a. encrypt data b. Synchronous Data Link Character d. correct data d.

In HDLC. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ANS: transitions 13. ANS: buffers 11. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: mark binary 1 9. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. ANS: UART 10. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. ANS: efficient 12. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ANS: flag 16. ANS: start 7. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: data 14. the line will be at the ____________________ level. ANS: stop 8. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: 01111110 17. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. . each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. At the end of an asynchronous frame. When receiving digital data.6.

ANS: cipher 27. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. private-key encryption can be quite secure. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: stuffing 20.ANS: block 18. Because it is ____________________-intensive. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: forward 22. ANS: escape 19. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: long 29. . public-key encryption can be slow. ANS: compression 26. ANS: burst 25. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: Burst 21. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. ANS: password 28. ANS: even 24. DLE stands for data link ____________________. ANS: ARQ 23. ANS: decrypted 30.

The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. ANS: 66.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. ANS: 97. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. and two stop bits (it could happen).0% . If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.7% 6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3.

Carrier Detection b. each channel carries only one data stream c. In a circuit-switched network: a. in token-passing networks b. The Internet is: a. Carrier Server Master Application d. none of the above ANS: B 6. communication is half-duplex only b. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. in networks requiring central monitoring c. node d.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. circuit c. Dumb terminals are still used: a. Most LANs: a. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. all of the above ANS: B 7. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. a very large CSMA/CD network d. token ANS: C 8. slower c. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. not as widely used c. Collision Detection d. use UTP cable d. all of the above c. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. a network of networks b. CSMA stands for: a. none of the above . are based on Ethernet b. Collision Delay c. not really a network at all c. Each computer on a network is called a: a. token-passing rings are: a. hub b.

a central ring c. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. it is called: a. MAU stands for: a. packets c. the network goes down b. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. the cable overheats d. a node b. CSMA c. none of the above ANS: D 10.b. multiple access ANS: A 13. more expensive ANS: D d. contention d. users d. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. carriers b. a collision c. IEEE 802. In an Ethernet-based network. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. excess traffic b. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. nodes c. the network slows down ANS: B 16. Multistation Access Unit b. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. none of the above c. data is lost . On networks. it is called: a. excess traffic b. The effect of too many collisions is: a.3 c. packets b. tokens ANS: A 11. Ethernet d. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. nodes d. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. EIA 232 c. all of the above 9. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. multiple access ANS: B 12. contention d. collisions ANS: D 15. token-passing b. a central bus d. a collision c.

b. NRZ encoding b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. an RJ45 connector c. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. RG-58U coaxial cable d. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. none of the above ANS: A 22. Network Interface Code d. CCITT ITU-E c. fiber-optic cable b. IEEE 488. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. Xerox d. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. Network Interface Card b. 50-ohm coaxial cable . the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. the cable carries baseband signals b.1 ANS: C 18. INTEL ANS: C d. a BNC connector c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 24. Ethernet was invented by: a. NIC stands for: a. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. Network Internal Code c. IBM b. Manchester encoding c. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. to increase the data rate b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 23. to increase the data rate b. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. Three-Level encoding d.

Broadband LANs: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. all of the above ANS: D 32. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. are cheaper c. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. peer-to-peer networks c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. both a and b b. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. it is faster when used in large networks c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. CAT-5 cables: a. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. allow faster bit rates b. all of the above ANS: C 31. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. none of the above ANS: B . A hub: a. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. UTP stands for: a.b. client-server networks d. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. an RS11 connector c. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. Unicode Text Packet 27. use coaxial cables c. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. all of the above ANS: C 28. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. a T connector ANS: C 26. it is cheaper when used in large networks b.

A "thin" client is: a. same as a "dumb" terminal d. The Internet is a network of ____________________. Novell certified ANS: C 35. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. ANS: packet c. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: token 7. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. ANS: Local 2. Record locking is used to: a. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. ANS: circuit 5. WINDOWS-based d. ANS: star 4. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. store records securely on a server b. ANS: networks 3. basically. In a ____________________-switched network. all of the above . In a ____________________ network. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. multitasking b. all nodes are connected to a central computer. a PC with no disk drives b. UNIX-based c. none of the above ANS: C 34.33. ANS: topology 6. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications.

100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. ANS: backbone 13. ANS: Contention 9. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. one big hub.8. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: NIC 17. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. all collisions must be ____________________. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. ANS: collision 10. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: address . In CSMA/CD. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. In CSMA/CD networks. In CSMA/CD. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. in effect. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. ANS: length 16. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: minimum 15. ANS: detected 11. ANS: stacked 19. ANS: 100 mega 14.

. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. send a packet. 2. 5. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. The collision would not be detected. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. the entire network is inoperative. it can be disconnected and the network still functions.20. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. What is a NIC address. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. 4. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. It still works like a token-passing ring. 3. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small.

Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Manchester Access Network b. 5 ANS: C 5. frame layer b. cable layer b. physical layer ANS: D 7. allows for variable length packets d. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. all of the above c. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. 8 c. MAN stands for: a. Multiple Access Network . Metropolitan-Area Network d. Standard Network Architecture d. transport layer ANS: A 6. 3 b. Frame Relay: a. does less error checking than X. network d. is faster than X. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a.25 ANS: D c. error-check layer d. physical layer c. store-and-forward b. Systems Network Architecture c. user b. 7 d. Standard Network Access b. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. frame c. Packet switching is based on: a. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. link layer ANS: C 8. link layer d.25 b. SNA stands for: a. switched circuits ANS: A 3. all of the above c. link layer c. real-time delivery d.

Together. A bridge: a. Universal Data Packet c. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. 7 layers ANS: A 14. all of the above ANS: D 11. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. datagrams c. Transfer Connection Protocol d. UDP stands for: a. is essentially forever b.9. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. Interconnect Procedure . is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. IP is a: a. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. Internet Process b. TCP/IP consists of: a. Automatic Test Mode 10. non-robust protocol c. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. 5 layers b. IP stands for: a. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. HTTP stands for: a. looks at the address of each packet c. TCP stands for: a. connection-oriented protocol b. operate at the data-link level d. Interconnect Protocol d. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. User Data Packet d. separates a network into "collision domains" b. User Datagram Protocol b. Transmission Control Process b. ATM stands for: a. an application and a process d. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. none of the above c. connectionless protocol d.

none of the above . The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. HTML stands for: a. running out of available values d. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. telneting b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. four groups of base-ten numbers c. Internet Service Procedure d. all of the above c. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24.b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. dumb terminals b. none of the above ANS: A 23. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. File Test Procedure d. Hypertext Markup Language b. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. HTML allows: a. none of the above c. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. Internet Service Protocol b. all of the above c. FTP stands for: a. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. web page layout d. Fast Transport Packet c. a 32-bit binary number b. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. browsers d. ISP stands for: a. SMTP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol b. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. file transport ANS: C 19. HTTP allows the use of: a. FTP is used to: a.

ANS: Metropolitan 2. A DNS: a. Open Systems Interconnection b. Domain Name Server b. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. ANS: Wide 3. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. none of the above c. has become obsolete on the Internet b. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. stores all domain addresses d. DNS stands for: a. OSI stands for: a. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1.ANS: D 26. a "firewall" b. Domain Naming System . An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. ANS: forward 6. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. Open Systems Internet d. ANS: leased 4. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. ANS: switched 5. Domain Numbering System d. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. a DNS c. c. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. translates words to numbers c. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network.

ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters

19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP

SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.

maximum number of symbols per second c. modulation index ANS: C 6. intermodulation distortion b. Phase-Signal Keying d. number of possible states per symbol d. amperes b. none of the above . Pulse-Signal Keying b.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. QAM ANS: A c. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. bits d. bits per second c. the eye is maximally open c. I is measured in: a. QAM stands for: a. In the equation I = ktB. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. Full-Signal Keying d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. too many bits high c. PSK stands for: a. AFSK d. M is the: a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. none of the above c. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. PSK b. Full-Shift Keying b. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. Phase-Shift Keying c. too many bits low d. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. the eye is half open b. FSK stands for: a. margin of noise b. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. the eye is maximally closed d. FSK c. amperes per second ANS: C 5. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8.

CCITT b. uneven phase and frequency response c. To reduce the need for linearity. full-duplex. frequency and phase angle b. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. a training sequence d. angles of 45. and 270 degrees c. noise and interference b. random bits c. ANS: B 16. angles of π/4. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. and 4π/4 b. International Telecommunications Union d. 180. 1200 bps. FSK d. IEEE d. all of the above . effects of noise on symbols d. 2π/4. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. half-duplex.N. Gaussian bits b. a random sequence c. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. For QAM. full-duplex. International Telecommunications Units c. 90. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. amplitude and phase angle d. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. 4 bits d. The ITU is under the auspices of: a.9. 600 bps. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. and 315 degrees d. Instead of a single bit. 225. a byte c. FSK ANS: A 14. the U. FSK b. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. 135. a dibit b. low SNR d. a QPSK symbol contains: a. 300 bps. 1200 bps. ANSI c. 3π/4. For QAM. International Telephony Unit b. amplitude and frequency c. full-duplex. FSK c. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. angles of 0.

both a and b d. a DSR ANS: D 25. the ITU d.42 bis are both: a. a DTR b. none of the above c. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. 3 d. and MNP10 are all: a. a DCE d.90 standard is issued by: a. the ISO . signal ground is pin: a. MNP5 and V. flow control is done using: a. 1 c. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. In RS-232. the TIA ANS: C 19. The official name for RS-232C is: a. the EIA b. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. RS-232C b. a DTR b. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. a modem would be: a. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. both a and b d. data-compression schemes b. signal ground is pin: a. a DTE c. 3 d. RTS/CTS handshake b. 7 ANS: C 26. none of the above c. In RS-232. 1 c. 7 c. ANSI-232C c.ANS: C 18. both a and b d. a DTE c. data-compression schemes b. a personal computer would be: a. MNP4. MNP3. In RS-232. 5 b. ISO-232C/D d. a DCE d. none of the above c. MNP2. 5 b. The V. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. a DSR ANS: C 24.

CMTS stands for: a. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. RD. Hybrid Fiber Control c. Double-Speed Loop c. +9 volts b. none of the above c. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. TD. Digital Subscriber Line d. Analog DSL d. RTS and CTS d. Head Frequency Control b. RD. RTS. Cable Modem Terminal System d. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. DSR and DCD c. and signal ground d. Data Signal Line b. DSL stands for: a. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. TD and RD ANS: A 30. ADSL stands for: a. XON and XOFF b. HFC stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. Any DSL scheme c. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. and signal ground . CTS. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. Hardware flow control uses: a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD ANS: C 29. +12 volts d. All DSL c. DSR. TD and RD b. In a CATV system. DSR and DCD c. ADSL d. and signal ground ANS: B 28. RD. TD.ANS: D 27. TD. RTS and CTS d. Asynchronous DSL b. +15 volts c. In a CATV system. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. ADSL Lite b. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Software flow control uses: a.

ANS: Data 5. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. In QAM modems.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. ANS: Quadrature 6. ANS: Send 2. ANS: four 9. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. ANS: Keying 4. ANS: dibit 8. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. ANS: Delta 10. . The response to RTS is ____________________. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: constellation 11. ANS: CTS 3. ANS: baud 7. RTS means Request To ____________________. ANS: Telecommunications 12. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________.

ANS: Trellis 13. ANS: 20k 16. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. In a CATV system using cable modems. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ANS: tree 22. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: hardware 18. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. . ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ANS: 54k 15. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. ANS: Equalization 14. ____________________ flow control is preferred. In RS-232. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ANS: null 20. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ANS: 3 19. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. ANS: CMTS 23.

If half the modems are active at any given time.ANS: Ranging 24. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. ANS: 4000 2. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. ANS: lite 26. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: .3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. A DMT system uses 4. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. ANS: ADSL 25. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. ANS: DMT 27. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps.

8 .

Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. Code-Division Multiple Access b. 32 channels d. the signals come from different sources c.536 Mbps b. all of the above ANS: C 5. every frame b. every sixth frame d. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. framing bit c. Tone Division Multiple Access d. none of the above . Besides data bits.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 256 kbps d. every twelfth frame c. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. all the signals come from the same source b. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. T-bit ANS: D 8. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. CDMA stands for: a. the length of the channel d. When calculating the maximum number of users. 1. signaling bit d. In DS-1. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal b. Time Domain Multiple Access b. none of the above c. 12 channels b. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. TDMA stands for: a.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. 1. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. TDM is used in RF communications d. 24 channels ANS: B 6. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 64 kbps c. 64 channels c. timing bit b. every other frame c.

a narrowband receiver c. computerized Strowger switch d. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. much less bandwidth b. a CDMA receiver c. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. crosspoint switch . the S/N ratio b. signal switching b. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. direct-sequence systems. direct-sequence method d. space switching d. all of the above c. bandwidth of original baseband d.ANS: C 9. much more bandwidth d. use: a. compared to standard RF systems. spreading gain d. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. To calculate processing gain. line switching b. For a given data rate. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. the chip size ANS: B 17. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. TDM switch ANS: D 12. a wideband receiver d. time switching c. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. about the same bandwidth c. a direct-conversion receiver b. computer speed ANS: C 16. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. multiplexer b. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. the digital data bit rate c. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. space switching d. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. time switching c. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. direct-sequence method d. all of the above c. RF gain b. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. A digital space switch is a: a.

ANS: all 6. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. ANS: share 2. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. and ____________________. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver b. In FDM.ANS: A 18. Using CDMA on a radio channel. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. CDMA requires the use of: a. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. In TDM. ANS: CDMA 3. orthogonal PN sequences c. a wideband receiver d. For optimal performance. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. cannot be used on an RF channel d. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. ANS: all 4. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. ANS: part 5. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. true-random PN sequences b. CDMA: a. ANS: time 7. ANS: frequency . TDMA. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.

ANS: hopping 19. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. ANS: 24 9. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. . ANS: space 15. ANS: difficult 20. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: pseudo 18. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: AMI 10. ANS: 1.8. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: Rayleigh 17. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.544 Meg 12. ANS: superframe 14. ANS: 193 11. ANS: 8 13. ANS: time 16.

the higher the possible bit rate. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. ANS: code 24. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. by definition. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. 5. ANS: ten 23. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. So the more bandwidth available. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth.ANS: difficult 21. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. 2. 4. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. ANS: chips 22. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission.

) and (f21. have no frequencies in common. If the two sets of frequencies.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one.. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. . f12. At some point in time. and so forth.. f23. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. f13. f22.). . Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. f23. f13. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. 6.. .. f22. as it is in spread-spectrum. (f11. and so forth. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. f12.

distributed d. none of the above . the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. lumped c. increases c. Time-Domain Response d. Transmission Delay Ratio c. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. decreases d. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. As frequency increases. I2R loss c. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. stays the same b. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. equal reactances b. an open-wire-line cable d. all of the above c. increases c. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. Total Distance of Reflection b. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. changes periodically ANS: A 6. a coaxial cable b. stays the same b. the Ohmic effect d. ideal elements ANS: B 5. decreases d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the skin effect b. TDR stands for: a. As frequency increases. Shorted Wire Region d. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. When analyzing a transmission line. SWR stands for: a. the resistance of a wire: a. Shorted Wave Radiation b.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. zero b. there is no optimum value c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. For best matching. all of the above ANS: B 12. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d.ANS: D 9. The optimum value for SWR is: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. the inductance per foot b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. the load on a cable should be: a. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. standing waves b. higher voltage peaks on cable d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. increases with voltage d. all of the above c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. higher than Z0 d. one ANS: B 16. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. increases with length b. none of the above . loss of power to load c. the dielectric constant d. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. equal to Z0 b. the wire resistance c. as large as possible d. lower than Z0 c.

propagation velocity ANS: A 20. by using a "balun" b. find the position of a defect in a cable c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. transmission line impedances b. voltage SWR d. optimum length of a transmission line d. Compared to a 300-ohm line. multiplying it by 2π b. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. On a Smith Chart. by using a filter d. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. zero c. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. is zero d. the characteristic impedance b. the impedance b. is infinite c. dividing it by 2π d. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. is the characteristic impedance b.ANS: D 17. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. VSWR stands for: a. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. A TDR is commonly used to: a. would be less c. directly c. transmission line losses c. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. none of the above ANS: C 25. none of the above . the voltage c. would be the same b. the current d. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. one d. none of the above ANS: D 24. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. would be more d. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. assuming it to be zero c. variable SWR b.

c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge

11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0

23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts

What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0.5.2 9. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load.5 8. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 . How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. If a cable has an SWR of 1. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.7.

Hertz d. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. high antennas d. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. Marconi ANS: B 3. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. none of the above c. Maxwell b. radio waves b. the microprocessor chip c. all of the above ANS: A 4. Maxwell b. Marconi ANS: C 2. light ANS: D 6. Armstrong c. high-power microwave transmitters b. reuse of frequencies b. Transverse Electromagnetic b. 3 × 106 meters per second c. both a and b b. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. the miniature cell-site d. Armstrong c. all of the above . The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. True Electromagnetic d. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. TEM stands for: a. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. none of the above ANS: C 7. Hertz d. In free space. high power levels c. gamma waves d. 300 × 10 meters per second d. all of the above ANS: C 5. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. perpendicular to each other c.

above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. vertical c. a flat body of water c. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. when using horizontally polarized waves c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. circular b. a ground-wave antenna d. reflection c. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. vertical c. at microwave frequencies d. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. all of the above ANS: D 10. 3 b. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. 2 d.9. none of the above . a flat insulating surface of the right size b. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. an isotropic radiator b. horizontal d. below about 2 MHz b. refraction c. many ANS: B 12. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. 1 c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. Ground waves are most effective: a. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. all of the above ANS: D 11. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. circular b. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. horizontal d. EIRP stands for: a. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c.

radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. Space waves are: a.b. are line-of-sight b. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. multipath distortion d. close to the transmitter b. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. diffraction d. the cell area is increased c. fading b. in the "skip" zone . repeaters ANS: D 25. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. diffusion ANS: D d. high power b. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. fading c. send a message multiple times over a channel b. in the "silent" zone d. the reuse of frequencies c. diffraction ANS: C 23. frequency diversity b. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. are same as space waves d. extend the range of a radio communications system d. diffraction 18. line-of-sight b. reflected off the ionosphere c. the power levels are increased c. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. A "repeater" is used to: a. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. same as sky waves d. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. Sky waves: a. cancellation due to reflection c. the radio horizon d.

a "sectoring" process occurs d. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. highest layer of the atmosphere b. the cell area is split ANS: B d. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. a "handoff" process occurs c. The troposphere is the: a. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. not possible c. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. ANS: 300 × 106 5. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. used for radio telephony b. none of the above ANS: B 28. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. ANS: Maxwell 2. ANS: Hertz 3. ANS: photons 6. To receive several data streams at once. a "rake" receiver d. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. Unlike sound or water waves.b. multiple receivers b. the number of channels is reduced 26. ANS: transverse 4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. both cells will handle the call b. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. a "funnel" receiver c. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . also called "ducting" d. c.

The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. ANS: isotropic 9. ANS: sphere 10. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. ANS: perpendicular 13. ANS: specular . The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. ANS: circular 15. At a far distance from the source. ANS: gain 16. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: 3 × 106 8. ANS: electric 12. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. ANS: decrease 17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. ANS: perpendicular 14. ANS: plane 11. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space.ANS: medium 7. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction.

ANS: reflected 26. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ANS: Sky 23. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: reuse 28.18. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ANS: Space 21. ANS: skip 24. ANS: Ground 22. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: low 27. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. ANS: Refraction 19. ANS: microprocessor . ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. each covering a third of the cell area. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. ANS: multipath 25. to reduce interference. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: Sectoring 29.

what is the power density 10. What. approximately.9 km 5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec .SHORT ANSWER 1. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2.

from +90° to –90° b. infinite ANS: A 8. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. in all directions b. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. in one direction c. directivity c. 3 dB d. 0 dB c. one half-wavelength d. the reflected signal d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. radiation resistance of the antenna b. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. between the minor side-lobes c. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. one wavelength c. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. 10 dB b. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. from front to back c. a Yagi antenna d. active antenna b. SWR along the feed cable d. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. between half-power points d. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. resonance ANS: A 7. in two directions d. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. none of the above . the SWR b. all of the above ANS: A 2. a Marconi antenna b.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the radiated signal c. Measured on the ground. selectivity d.

ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power

b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D

d. none of the above

c. parasitic d. all of the above

19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array

ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth

ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element.14. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: effective 15. ANS: wider greater more 19. ANS: one 24. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. ANS: gain 16. ANS: balun 17. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. . A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. ANS: ground 22. ANS: vertical 20. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: horizontal 18. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. ANS: omnidirectional 23. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. ANS: parasitic 25.

ANS: horn 30. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . ANS: collimated 29. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. ANS: 475 millimeters 2.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. If an LPDA had five elements. ANS: focus 28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________.ANS: log-periodic 26. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. ANS: five 27. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. If an antenna has 10.

A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .

10 GHz b. with a magnetic field probe c. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. 1 GHz d. the shape of the waveguide c. all of the above c. none of the above ANS: A 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. below the microwave range b. of its circular symmetry d. both b and c ANS: D 8. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. it is dominant c. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. TE 10 a. same as the microwave range . depends on the frequency it carries c. TM 01 d. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. the point of signal injection b. the power level of the signal d. TE 11 d. with an electric field probe d. it is the only mode possible b.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. TM 01 ANS: C 6. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. TE 01 b. The UHF range is: a. above the microwave range d. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. TE 01 c. 100 MHz c. TM10 ANS: C 5. through a hole in the waveguide b. is fixed b. TM11 b.

rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. couple components on a circuit board d. Traveling-Wave Tube d. separates signals among various ports d. a "magic" TEE d. gallium arsenide b. couple sections of waveguide b. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. none of the above c. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. an H-plane TEE b. antenna d. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. An "isolator" is a device that: a. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. none of the above c. gallium astenite d. their directivity b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. Transverse Wave Transmission b. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. none of the above . A resonant cavity is a type of: a. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. all of the above c. their insertion loss c. their coupling specification d. tuned circuit b. separates signals among various ports d. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12.ANS: D 9. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. A "circulator" is a device that: a. all of the above ANS: D 10. GaAs stands for: a. gallium assembly ANS: A c. TWT stands for: a.

17. YIG stands for: a. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. TWT c. Yagis d. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. magnetron b. none of the above c. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. the Doppler effect d. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. YIG ANS: C 21. klystron d. RADAR uses: a. YIG ANS: A 22. all of the above ANS: A 24. mechanical pressure d. none of the above c. slots c. Fresnel lenses b. magnetron b. implied power at transmission terminal d. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. TWT c. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. radio ranging b. continuous transmission ANS: D c. a magnetic field ANS: B c. YIG ANS: B 23. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. RADAR stands for: a. magnetron b. an "exciter" signal 20. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. radio detection and ranging d. impact avalanche and transit time b. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. all of the above c. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. klystron d. klystron d. TWT c. remote detection and ranging . pulsed transmission b. IMPATT stands for: a. an electric field b.

decreases with increasing repetition rate d. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. ANS: high 8. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. . none of the above ANS: B 27. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ANS: zero 3. In a waveguide. ANS: TM01 7.26. ANS: faster 10. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: dominant 4. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. In a waveguide. In a circular waveguide. ANS: slower 9. ANS: Dispersion 2. In a waveguide. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: electric 5. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. decreases with increasing pulse period b. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. In TE20 mode. increases with increasing repetition rate c. In TE10 mode. ANS: two 6. increases with increasing pulse duration c.

A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. ANS: high 13. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. . Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. ANS: wave 16.ANS: decreases 11. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: slot 18. ANS: smaller 20. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: cavity 14. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. ANS: linear 17. ANS: patch 19. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1.

Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses.8 6. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. ANS: 15 km 7. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4.ANS: 3 GHz 2. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 14.

all of the above . section c. In analog microwave systems. reliability c. hop d. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. Loss Of Skip b. all of the above ANS: B 6. noise level d. QAM d. additional repeaters increase the: a. Line-Of-Sight d. SSB ANS: D 3. LOS stands for: a. noise level d.99% ANS: D 4. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. skip b. 99. jump ANS: B 2. jitter b. none of the above ANS: A 5. 200 watts b.9% b. reliability c. a very narrow microwave beam b. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. In digital microwave systems. 2 watts c. jitter c. Microwave systems use: a. 90% c. additional repeaters increase the: a. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. excessive noise d. jitter b.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Line-Of-Signal c. 99% d. FM b. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. all of the above ANS: C 7. 20 watts d. 99. Too much antenna gain causes: a.

good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. accumulation of noise is reduced d. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. regenerative type d. it requires less power b. high level of ERP c. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. less bandwidth is required c. always b. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. low level of transmitted power b. high-gain antennas b. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. Fading is caused by: a. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. IF type b.9. all of the above ANS: B 17. power d. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. above 10 GHz d. ducting d. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. all of the above c. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. below 10 GHz c. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. all of the above . none of the above ANS: A 11. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. diversity c. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. baseband type ANS: D 16. Microwave repeaters can be: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. 60% of the Faraday zone c. multipath reception b. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. MMDS stands for: a.

Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. bidirectional b. Local Multichannel Distribution System d.b. LMDS is: a. LMDS stands for: a. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. multidirectional d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. ANS: year 4. ANS: hop 2. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. ANS: fading c. ANS: studio 3. One microwave link is called a ____________________. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. ANS: jitter 5. In digital microwave systems. none of the above . the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. In microwave systems. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. ANS: temperature 6. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Local Microwave Distribution System b. ANS: noise density 7.

and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. ANS: diversity 10. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: baseband 13. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. approximately. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. ANS: ten 11. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. ANS: space 9. but ____________________ is bidirectional. ANS: noise 14. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. ANS: Repeaters 12. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km.4 meters 3. what would it be.8. MMDS is unidirectional.

What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB . A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.ANS: –42. The noise power is –100 dBm. ANS: 201 K 5.4 dBm 4.

50 b. Luminance refers to: a. IEEE ANS: C 3. National Television Systems Committee c. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. NTSC stands for: a. RGB stands for: a. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. National Television Systems Council d. 30 d. IRE d. 625 d. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. 1250 ANS: A 5. 3 : 4 b. Red-Green-Blue . The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 25 c. EIA b. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 525 c. 60 ANS: D 7. contrast c. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. 50 b.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. National Television Systems Commission b. 625 : 525 c. 1024 b. raster c. brightness b. Red-Green Burst b. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. 30 d. FCC c. 60 ANS: B 6. 525 : 625 d. 25 c. chroma d. Red-Green Bandwidth d.

whiter than white c. horizontal resolution: a. When measured in lines. dot b. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14.ANS: A 9. in-phase color component. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. quadrature phase color component b. black d. composite color signal. Y I Q refers to: a. The maximum luminance level is called: a. max white b. peak white ANS: B 11. white c. The smallest picture element is called a: a. pixel d. IRE units d. blacker than black ANS: B 12. none of the above c. whiter than white b. maintain horizontal sync b. all white d. quadrature video color component d. equalize the DC level d. composite video signal. foot-candles b. pic ANS: C 16. In a color TV receiver. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. quadrature phase color component c. white c. all of the above c. is greater than vertical resolution b. lumins ANS: C 10. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. whiter than white b. luminance signal. NTSC units . black d. blacker than black ANS: D 13. in-phase color component. in-phase video component. Luminance is measured in: a. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. is about the same as vertical resolution c. is less than vertical resolution d.

much greater c. separate audio program b. SAP stands for: a. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. the isolation transformer c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. SSB c. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. about the same d. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. sync amplitude pulse d. suppressed-carrier AM b. vestigial sideband AM d. the flyback transformer b. much higher d. vestigial sideband AM d. detect the presence of a color video signal b. sync audio pulse . the video transformer d. SSB c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. FM ANS: B 19. much less b. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. Compared to the luminance signal. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. about the same c. Compared to a monochrome CRT. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. vestigial sideband AM d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. much lower b. FM ANS: D 20. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. the yoke ANS: C 24.17. FM ANS: C 21. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM b. all of the above ANS: D 22. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a.

ANS: composite 6. ANS: aspect 7. ANS: retraces 5. ANS: Aquadag 2. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. Brightness information is called ____________________. Color information is called ____________________. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. allowed full picture chroma b. AFPC stands for: a. ANS: porch c. ANS: luma luminance 8. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.d. automatic frequency and picture control d. During the horizontal blanking interval. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. none of the above . ANS: NTSC 3. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. ANS: scanning 4.

Picture elements are called ____________________. .10. ANS: position 11. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. ANS: ultor 20. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. ANS: phosphor 22.5 12. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.3 14. ANS: 3. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 1. ANS: pixels 15. ANS: 525 16. ANS: 10 13.58 18. ANS: 20 to 30 21. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. not including blanking. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. ANS: green 17. ANS: separate 19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. ANS: 62. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.

The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: killer 25. ANS: dBmV 26. ANS: comb 24. ANS: phase 30. ANS: head 27. ANS: convergence . ANS: vectorscope 28. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.ANS: flyback 23. Color intensity is called ____________________. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. ANS: purity 31. ANS: saturation 29. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________.

is zero (freefall) c. declination and elevation b. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. batteries d. uplink and downlink b. 3. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. footprint b. is constant b. downlink d. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. transponders c. perigee and apogee d.800 km b. 357. 35. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a.578 km c. apogee and perigee c. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. 500 to 2500 watts b. 103 watts 2 b. 104 watts ANS: C 8.: a. 50 to 250 watts d.780 km d. 5 to 25 watts c. earth station c. azimuth and elevation c. all of the above . solar cells b. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. 101 watts c. 10 watts d. azimuth and declination d. plate ANS: C 4. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. respectively.

video satellite b. none of the above c. EIRP drop ANS: B 13.ANS: A 9. low power to a small antenna d. repeater c. transmit delay minimum aperture c. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. very small antenna terminal d. power-down b. low-noise amplitude d. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. direct-broadcast satellite c. TDMA stands for: a. low-noise amplifier b. decibels of signal b. orbital adjustments d. On the uplink from a terminal. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. mesh c. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. backoff d. LNA stands for: a. television repeater only ANS: A 14. ring d. high power to a small antenna c. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. VSAT stands for: a. TVRO stands for: a. very small aperture terminal c. time-division multiple access d. none of the above . backdown c. low north angle ANS: A 12. low-noise array c. television receive only b. star b. antenna maintenance b. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. television remote origin d. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. a VSAT system uses: a. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. direct-broadcast system d. low power to a large antenna b. DBS stands for: a.

ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit

ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger

SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB

Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. AMPS stand for: a. Personal Cell phone Service d. MIN stands for: a. Maximum In-band Noise d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Minimum In-band Noise c. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. PCS stands for: a. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Numerical Access Mode b. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. RCC stands for: a. none of the above c. none of the above c. MSC stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center b. ESN stands for: a.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Electronic Serial Number b. Number Access Module d. Manual Identification Number b. MTSO stands for: a. American Mobile Phone System b. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Emission Strength Number d. Radio Common Carrier b. NAM stands for: a. Number Assignment Module c. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Portable Communications Systems c. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Personal Communications Service b.

SID stands for: a. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. Service Class Mark b. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. In an AMPS system. Signal Class Mark d. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. maximum power level of a cell phone c. voice is sent using: a. set its transmitted power level d. CMAC stands for: a. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. none of the above c. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. Digital Communications Carrier d. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. Station Antenna Tower b. base-station class ANS: D 11. AM c. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. SCM stands for: a. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. The CMAC is used to: a. Direct Channel Code . FSK c. Supervisory Access Tone d. signal classification (analog or digital) d. Digital Color Code b. SAT stands for: a. System Identification Number d. recognize an AMPS system c. Serial-Code Mode c. control access to the cell site b. SCM identifies the: a. code number of a cell phone b. set the access code of the cell phone c.9. Central Mobile Access Control d. DCC stands for: a.

none of the above c.5 km ANS: D 23. RF interface b. air interface ANS: D 22. CDMA ANS: C 19. AM c. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. FM ANS: B d. MTSO d. d. CDMA 18. 2 km b. In an AMPS system. 4 watts ANS: B 20. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. less than 600 mW. less than 600 µW. Basic Service Contract d. Phone traffic is measured in: a. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. c. number of users d. erlangs ANS: B 24. as small as possible d. between 1 and 2 watts b. control-channel signals are sent using: a. increase the number of cells c. Coded Digital Packet Data d. CDPD stands for: a. FM d. BSC c.b. Code-Division Packet Data b. calls b. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. increase the ERP b. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. number of blocked calls c. BSC stands for: a. Base Station Controller b. FSK b. Basic Service Code . 0. decrease the number of cells d.

5 6. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ANS: handoff 5. ANS: 600 mW 9. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. ANS: 0. ANS: land station 11. ANS: AMPS 3. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. ANS: attenuation 12. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another.1. . ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: I one 8. ANS: III three 10. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. ANS: 800 2. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. ANS: reuse 4. For security. ANS: three 7. A portable. handoffs will occur too frequently.

2. ANS: microcell 19. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. ANS: traffic 15. If a 28. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. ANS: erlangs 16. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. Compared with AMPS. ANS: splitting 18. 2. ANS: dropped 17. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. ANS: MTSO 14. What is the traffic in erlangs? . Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.6 3. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. ANS: 1. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________.ANS: public 13. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________. ANS: picocells 20.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth.

the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.ANS: 30 4. .

Compared to AMPS. smaller ANS: B 5. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. all of the above c. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. third-generation d. North America d. distributed d. 4 b. 900 MHz d. all of the above c. use built into an automobile d. 3 d.9 GHz b. 2 c. first-generation b. Bell Labs d. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. AT&T b. Europe ANS: D c. GSM is used in: a. Lucent ANS: D 8. from mobile to mobile d. voice ANS: D 6. 800 MHz c. digital-generation . AMPS was designed for: a. Asia b. same as the uplink c. CDMA technology was invented by: a. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. PCS cell sites are: a. many ANS: B 7. from the base to the mobile b. higher-power c. bigger b. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. POTS b. Qualcomm c. 1.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. second-generation ANS: B 2.

In GSM. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. TDMA ANS: D c. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. CDMA b. all of the above c. CDMA d. less than in a TDMA phone c. spread-spectrum d. bearer channels d. Other things being equal. Subscriber ID Module d. frequency hopping b. SIM stands for: a. In GSM. no PCS system c. frequency hopping b. voice channels are called: a. Subscriber ID Method c. IS-136 uses: a. all of the above . Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. CDMA d. TDMA only b. TDMA c. Short Inbound Message b. greater than in a TDMA phone b. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. voice channels ANS: A 10. traffic channels b. CDMA d. GSM only d. frequency hopping b. TDMA ANS: C 17. no better than in an AMPS phone d. IS-95 uses: a. GSM uses: a. none of the above 11.9. all of the above c. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. AMPS uses: a. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. IMSI stands for: a. talking channels c. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a.

ANS: Personal 2. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. Compared to AMPS. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. unique ANS: D 20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. Internet access d. rotating d. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. faster data rates c. In CDMA: a. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. ANS: 1900 4. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. wider roaming area b.ANS: B 18. common b. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: GSM 6. ANS: second 3. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. all frequencies are used in all cells b. In North America. orthogonal . ANS: smaller 5. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band.

ANS: random 12. ANS: frequency hopping 8. ANS: Walsh 10. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. ANS: variable 15. ANS: less 14. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: 50 16. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. Unlike other systems.7. ANS: closed 17. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. ANS: soft 9. ANS: Frequency 13. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. ANS: Mobile 19. ANS: Universal . Unlike AMPS. ANS: Packet 18. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. ANS: all 11. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.

What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. 4. ANS: Wireless 21. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. 7.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. it never goes to zero. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence.20. 3. 2. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. 5. With offset QPSK. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. 6. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. and what causes it? . To demodulate. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. Why was PCS assigned to 1. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. 8.

ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. . This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.

Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. In a one-way pager system: a. all of the above c. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. Industrial. the VHF band.12 c. require "handoffs" b. the VHF band only b. CAPCODE is: a. the UHF band only c. and Messaging d. POCSAG stands for: a. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. Scientific. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. require error detection d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. all of the above ANS: D 5.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A typical pager system does not: a. the UHF band. transmitters use relatively high power d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. Scientific. and Medical . 802. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. ISM stands for: a. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. Pagers use: a. IEEE Standard Message b. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. Industrial.10 c. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. 802.

The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. 802. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters c. ISM band b.11 ANS: B d. CDMA b. Bluetooth uses: a. scatternet c. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. UHF band d.13 8. BSS stands for: a. 2 to 16 nodes c. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. Time-Division Duplex b. CSMA/CA c. QPSK d. Basic Service Set b. infrared band ANS: C 9. all of the above ANS: A 10. ISM band d. all of the above c. 2 nodes b. Time Delay Difference d.b. TDD stands for: a. multinet ANS: D 16. UHF band ANS: C 13. CDMA b. Bluetooth uses the: a. micronet b. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. infrared band c. VHF band c. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. 2 to 8 nodes d. 802. TDD net d. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. VHF band b. CSMA/CD d. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. Bluetooth Service System d. none of the above . Total Distance Delay c.

Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. ANS: Post 4. ANS: capcode 2. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. several hundred meters b. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. 1 meter b. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. ANS: 10 5.b. several thousand meters. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. Infrared Data Association b. within 10 feet c. ANS: TDMA 3. can use reflected infrared beams d. Infrared networks: a. cannot penetrate walls b. 10 meters ANS: A 19. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 meter c. .11 6. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. ANS: 802. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. all of the above 20. 10 feet c. several meters d. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. IRDA stands for: a. 1 foot d. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d.

ANS: piconets 10. ANS: ISM 8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: piconet 9.ANS: 1 watt 7. ANS: 1 meter . An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.

40 dB per km c. none of the above ANS: B 5. both a and b d. 1 dB c. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. modal dispersion b. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. carry current b. loss b. glass b. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a.02 dB c. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. the same c. generate EMI d. Scattering causes: a.4 dB per km b. waveguide dispersion d. all of the above c. Compared to the core. all of the above c. less b. intersymbol interference d. none of the above c. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. plastic ANS: A 4. greater d. all of the above . The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. in an explosive environment b. zero loss ANS: C 8. 0. 4 db per km d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. dispersion ANS: A 7. 0.

µW per amp d. an e-v ANS: C 12.02 dB c.2 db d. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. a photon d. Avalanche Photo Detector d. The quantum of light is called: a. In a PIN diode. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. APD stands for: a. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. Advanced Photo Detector c. baseline current c. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. 3 dB 9. 0. ST c. 3 dB ANS: B 10. SC d. 1 dB b. E-H current ANS: C 15. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c.b. responsivity is measured in: a. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. Avalanche Photodiode b. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________. a phonon . amps per watt c. 0. mA per joule b.2 db ANS: A d. For a light detector. 0. all of the above ANS: D 11. SMA b. dark current b. zero-point current d. an erg b. LASER stands for: a. In the core. ANS: reflection c.

With optical fiber. ANS: loose-tube 14. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. ANS: intramodal 8. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. In multimode fiber. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. . Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. ANS: linewidth 11. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. ANS: sine 6. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. For laser diodes. ANS: critical 4. ANS: infrared 9. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: graded 10.2. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. ANS: internal 7. ANS: time 12. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: energy 5. ANS: Intersymbol 13. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.

A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. ANS: photon 19. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: pigtail 16. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. For safety. ANS: single 17. ANS: PIN 20. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. ANS: laser 18. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. ANS: look .ANS: tight-buffer 15.

SDH b. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. none of the above c. SONET stands for: a. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. Fiber In The Loop b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. FDDI stands for: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. type of particle ANS: C 7. WDM ANS: A 8. type of optical network c. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. defect in the glass b. FTTC stands for: a. A Soliton is a: a. bit-synch d. gain margin c. excess gain c. FITL stands for: a. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Synchronous Optical Network d. type of pulse d. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. bit stuffing c. DWDM stands for: a.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Simple Optical Network b. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a.

all of the above ANS: D 13. Optical Channel one d. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. 100 km b. OC-1 stands for: a. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. FDDI c. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. Optical Time-Delay Response b. overdrive 9. ANS: Curb 2. Synchronous Transport Signal b. system margin ANS: B d. c. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Synchronous Transmission System c. 10 km ANS: C 10. obsolete d. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. In SONET. 100 miles d. not possible c. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. experimental ANS: B 14. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. Optical Cable type 1 . high-speed Ethernet d. gigabit Ethernet b. FDDI c. Optical Time-Division Relay c. STS stands for: a.b. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. 1000 miles c. common b. FTTC d. Typically. In SONET. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. OTDR stands for: a. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FITL b.

ANS: Wavelength 5. ANS: token 14. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: Synchronous 6. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: Hierarchy 4. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: pump 9. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. ANS: 51. ANS: WDM 10. ANS: erbium 8. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: pointer 13. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass.ANS: Loop 3.84 11. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: Distributed 7. ANS: stuffing 12. ANS: opposite .

SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: multi 17. ANS: node 16. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 9 22.15. ANS: 774 21. ANS: 1 24. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 100 M 18. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . In SONET. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. ANS: 810 20. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: 4 23. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: transport 25.

1 MHz 2. ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds . Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter. receiver. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.

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