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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. ANS: FDM 9. frequency. its amplitude and frequency d. ANS: greater larger wider 8. its amplitude. The more information per second you send. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. ANS: 1901 3. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. frequency. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. In ____________________. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. ANS: 1863 2. The part.25. ANS: base 4. ANS: TDM 10. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: channel 5. or parts. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. its amplitude. In ____________________. and direction b. ANS: zero 6. its amplitude c. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. . The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. ANS: bandwidth 7.
ANS: Source. For satellite communications. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. Destination 2. Channel. Receiver. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. Transmitter. ANS: wavelength 14. ANS: 300 million 15. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. . ANS: 300 13. ANS: 30 12. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.ANS: very high 11. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. ANS: solar 19. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: Fourier 17. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. In free space. Mathematically. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem.
ANS: 5. ANS: 50 µV 6.ANS: Thermal. ANS: 20 dB. both in dB and as a ratio. 4. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. transit-time 3. . Find the total NF for the pair. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. Shot. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. Find its noise figure. Likewise. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. Find NF. 5. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. the output of which is a noise current. Calculate the total noise voltage. Partition. both across the same 100-ohm load. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. 1/f. NF = 100 8. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Likewise.4 10.5 9. ANS: 1.
it cannot be avoided c. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. a simple form of bandpass filter b. capacitance. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. the Miller Effect is due to: a. The "Miller Effect" can: a. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. neutralize amplifiers d. capacitance and resistance only b. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. base time c. base-to-emitter capacitance d. using a common-emitter amplifier b.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. charge time b. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. "multiply" the Q d. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. reduce the Miller effect c. all of the above c. transit time d. base-to-collector capacitance c. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. and resistance d. A real capacitor actually contains: a. In a BJT. both a and b d. Miller time ANS: B 2. inductance of collector lead b. reactance only . reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. have no effect on Q c. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. none of the above c. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. A resonant circuit is: a. inductance.
a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. direct coupling b. the Hartley criteria d. the Bode criteria b. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. only built with FETs c. a piezoelectric crystal c. impedance matching is usually done with: a. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. a linear amplifier c. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a tapped inductor b. none of the above ANS: A 11. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. transformer coupling d. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c.9. a nonlinear circuit b. RC coupling c. a tapped inductor b. both a and b. decoupling it d. a modified Hartley oscillator b. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. an RC time constant d. it requires: a. a piezoelectric crystal . an RC time constant d. In RF amplifiers. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. but at just one frequency d. none of the above ANS: C 13. the loop-gain criteria c. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a signal containing harmonics d. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. The Clapp oscillator is: a.
will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). none of the above ANS: A 20. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. In a balanced mixer. ANS: short 2. If two signals. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. all of the above ANS: D 19. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. the output: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. c. the output: a. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . At UHF frequencies and above. Generally. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". used for a precise frequency b.17. all of the above 18. does not contain the input frequencies d. are fed to a mixer. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. contains the input frequencies c. "VFO" stands for: a. A varactor is: a. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used in tuner circuits d. a diode ANS: D c.
ANS: decoupling 7. collector current). A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. ANS: neutralization 12. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: 10 10. ANS: components 6. Electrically. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground.ANS: distributed 3. it is called a ____________________. ANS: capacitive 13. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical.g. ANS: ground-plane 4. ANS: Q 9. In high-frequency RF circuits. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: tuned circuit 11. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. parallel . ANS: shielding 5. In a class C RF amplifier. ANS: bypass 8. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. ANS: series. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit.
V1 and V2. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: linear 15. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. Two sinusoidal signals. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5.05% 7. 0.14. To produce sum and difference frequencies. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6.1 4. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. 5. At some bias point. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. V2 is a 5MHz signal. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz .4 µH 2.
What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 . Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.8.
none of the above c. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. the baseband signal b. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. Angle Modulation d. none of the above c. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. Antenna Modulation . the carrier signal ANS: A 3. m. none of the above ANS: A 8. half the carrier power b. At 100% modulation. Overmodulation causes: a. then the modulation index. is: a. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. both a and b d. it will produce the frequencies: a. AM stands for: a. is: a. 1. the total sideband power is: a. the amplitude signal d. m = ωa / ωc c. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. m = Emax / Emin d. distortion b. Audio Modulation b. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. splatter ANS: C 6. m. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. twice the carrier power d. m = Va / Vc d. equal to the carrier power c. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a.414 × carrier power c. m = Emin / Emax c. The modulation index. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c.
suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. Peak Envelope Power b. PEP stands for: a. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. you would expect: a. requires less bandwidth d. 1000 watts c. none of the above c. 5 kHz c.005 MHz b. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. As compared to plain AM. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. 250 watts b. all of the above ANS: D 11. none of the above ANS: B 10. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. SSB AM: a. sideband-carrier d. the received RF signal to increase d. The modulation index can be derived from: a. none of the above . AM is susceptible to noise c. both a and b d. none of the above c. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. the time-domain signal b. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. 10 kHz d. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. all of the above ANS: C 13. Peak Envelope Product d. is more efficient b. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. 0 watts ANS: D 17.ANS: C 9. 500 watts d. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. requires too much bandwidth c. single-carrier b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires too much power d. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. all of the above ANS: D 14. 1.
commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. the information in the LSB is ____________________. digital data b. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. the power in the LSB is ____________________. m1 + m2 c. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. In AM. ANS: the same . An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. commercial AM stations use low power c. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. Compared to the USB. audio c. The total modulation index is: a. ANS: inefficient 3. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. all of the above ANS: D 19. ANS: the same 6. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2.b. reinsert the carrier d. Compared to the USB. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. both a and b b. ANS: simple 2. the receiver must: a. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. ANS: envelope 4. video d. ANS: two 5. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. all of the above ANS: C 18. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. be set to USB mode c.
The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation.6 . ANS: 1010 kHz 12. In AM. In AM. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.220.127.116.117 4. as the modulation index increases. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. ANS: less 8. In AM. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. what is the power in the USB at 70. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. 0. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.4. With a 1-MHz carrier. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. the carrier power _________________________. ANS: remains constant 9. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. ANS: one 10. and 0.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3.
If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts .5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.
National Broadcast FM b. it is called: a. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. the limit effect ANS: B c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. none of the above . increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. the threshold effect d. it is band-limited at the receiver d. Narrowband FM c. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. Bessel functions d.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the capture effect c. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. fractals ANS: B 5. Mathematically. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. NBFM stands for: a. the noise effect b. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. Carson's Rule d. Armstrong's Rule b. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. The FM modulation index: a. Near Band FM d. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. Taylor series b. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a.
is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. can use amplitude modulation b. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. is monaural d. the threshold effect d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c.8. ANS: data c. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. FM stereo: a. all of the above c. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. is not compatible with mono FM . uses DSBSC AM modulation b. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. An SCA signal: a. ANS: angle 2. the capture effect c. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. the "two-station" effect b. none of the above ANS: A 9. the time delay between the L and R channels d. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. the time it takes for the circuit to work b.
Mathematically. Mathematically. ANS: decreases 14. In FM. As the FM modulation index increases. the modulation index ____________________. Compared to AM. ANS: stay constant 7. their power ____________________. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: increases 13. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________.3. ANS: wider greater 5. Compared to AM. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. as the frequency deviation decreases. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: infinite 10. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: better 4. ANS: frequency 9. In FM. . ANS: amplitude 8. as the modulating frequency decreases. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. the modulation index ____________________. In FM. ANS: any number 12. ANS: C 6. ANS: decreases 11.
The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Bessel 18. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency.ANS: increases 15. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. such as 2. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. For certain values of mf. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. ANS: Carson's 17. ANS: threshold 19. 1-kHz audio signal? .4. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. ANS: capture 20. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16.
2 watt) 8. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0.4.1. At a modulation index of 2. Using Carson's rule. 5. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. Using a spectrum analyzer. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. . then δ is 11 kHz. For example. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. Record the audio frequency.ANS: 2 5. At a modulation index of 2. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10.5. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. At a modulation index of 2. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.5.4 watts 6.
the RF amplifiers must be linear d. With high-level AM: a. Amplitude Level Control b. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. With high-level AM: a. may require water cooling b. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. minimum RF power is required d. VFO b. heats the transmitter d. ALC is used to: a. With low-level AM: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above ANS: D 3. expansion d. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. is a measure of efficiency c. none of the above . Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. agility c. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. maximize transmitted power d. none of the above ANS: B 4. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. ALC stands for: a. all of the above c. Accurate Level Control d. Baseband compression produces: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. a smaller number of signals d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. all of the above c. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. keep the modulation close to 100% b. In an AM transmitter. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d.
a heavy load c. both a and b b. 75 ohms resistive d. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. the driver stage b. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. the power level of the carrier b. the resistor must be: a. the carrier ANS: A 12. a test load ANS: B 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. wire-wound c. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. is complex c. T network d. pi network c. a temporary load b. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. has variable frequency b. the modulating amplifier c. the resistor is called: a. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. none of the above . a dummy load d. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11.ANS: C 9. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. the RF amplifier d. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. has variable amplitude d. all of the above ANS: B 17. all of the above ANS: B 10. "high-level" refers to: a. noninductive d. In high-level AM. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. In high-level AM. 1% tolerance or better b. none of the above ANS: C 13. 50 ohms resistive c. A Class D amplifier is: a. very efficient c. 300 ohms resistive b. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d.
requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. none of the above ANS: C 21. none of the above c. An indirect FM modulator: a. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. To generate a SSB signal: a. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. the carrier frequency can be raised b. all of the above c. essentially balanced modulators b. a mixer ANS: A d. a crystal filter d. a frequency multiplier d. integrates the modulating signal c. Automatic Frequency Control d. both a and b b. Frequency multipliers are: a. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. none of the above ANS: A 22. AFC stands for: a. none of the above ANS: B 23. essentially mixers d. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. start with a quadrature signal d. A direct FM modulator: a.b. all of the above c. a balanced modulator b. With mixing: a. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. start with full-carrier AM b. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. none of the above 20. both a and b d. a mechanical filter c. Audio Frequency Control . The carrier is suppressed in: a. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. both a and b d.
ANS: expansion 8. ANS: FCC 3. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. ANS: Industry Canada 4. ANS: compression 9. In the USA. ANS: PEP 6. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. . ANS: linear 11. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: carrier 2.d. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: agility 5. In Canada. ANS: compression 7. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. a ____________________ stage is used. ALC is a form of ____________________. ANS: efficiently 10. The opposite of compression is called ____________________.
ANS: driver 19. ANS: receiver 18. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. ANS: T 15. ANS: 50 14. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: mismatch 17. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. To allow a high modulation percentage. To generate a SSB signal.ANS: buffer 12. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: higher 13. ANS: DSBSC . Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. ANS: mixing 22. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. ANS: harmonic 16. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: duration 20. ANS: D 21.
What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. Assuming high-level modulation.8% 3. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation.23.005 MHz 6. To pass the USB. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2.001%. ANS: phase 24. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. ANS: reactance 25.
7. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. . Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. ANS: First. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation.
intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. two types of adjusting tools b. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. Active Gain Conversion c. indeterminate frequency d. intermediate frequency b. Seeley d. Audio Gain Control b. "Skin effect" refers to: a. small adjustable inductors d. "IF" stands for: a. AGC stands for: a. is above the RF frequency c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. the tuner b. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. image frequency c. Active Gain Control d. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. the spurious response and the tracking d. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. Trimmers and padders are: a. Hertz ANS: C 3. small adjustable capacitors . none of the above ANS: C 5. the mixer d. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. Foster c. Armstrong b. all of the above c.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4.
Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. both values are basically equivalent d. there is no ideal value . with two signals close in frequency. a value of 1. ANS: C 9. is below the RF frequency c. Basically. is fixed. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. Basically. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. sensitivity measures: a. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d.b. the detector ANS: D 15. none of the above ANS: A 11. selectivity measures: a. typically at 455 kHz. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. Phase distortion is important in: a. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. When comparing values for shape factor: a.0 is ideal d. When comparing values for shape factor: a. voice communications systems b. the IF amplifiers d. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. all of the above c. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. the mixer b. all of the above c. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. a value of 0.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. monochrome video receivers d. it increases sensitivity c. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal b. it increases selectivity d. none of the above c. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. color video receivers ANS: B c.
An FM detector is the: a. envelope detector ANS: B 21. a diode ANS: D c. enter the mixer. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. ratio detector ANS: D 22. ratio detector d. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. PLL b. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. the AGC c. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. all of the above ANS: C 23. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. all of the above c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. A common AM detector is the: a. noise generated in the receiver d.16. the dynamic range of the receiver b. quadrature detector d. a PLL b. An image must be rejected: a. prior to detection d. they are faster than silicon diodes b. none of the above ANS: C 20. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. images cannot be rejected . are transmitted on the same frequency b. enter the mixer. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. a BFO d. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. all of the above c. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. A common SSB detector is: a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. prior to mixing b. enter the mixer. PLL b. a product detector c.
The function of a limiter is: a. LNA stands for: a. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. ratio detection . use double conversion d. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. AFC stands for: a. Foster-Seeley detector c. to remove amplitude variations b. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. to limit dynamic range d. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. The function of AFC is: a. squelch d. a PLL detector b. reinject the carrier c. Audio Frequency Compensator b. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. Automatic Frequency Control d. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. Low-Noise Audio d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. all of the above ANS: C 28. AGC c. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. coherent detection ANS: B 27. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. maintain a constant IF frequency b. to limit noise response c.24. AFC b. a quadrature detector d. BFO stands for: a. envelope detection d. carrier detection b. limiting ANS: B 30. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. you need to: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25.
it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b.c. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Digital Signal Processor c. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. none of the above ANS: B 33. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. DSP stands for: a. The important property of a SAW is: a. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. none of the above c. all of the above ANS: C 36. SAW stands for: a. c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. TRF stands for: a. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. it is a stable bandpass filter d. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. SINAD stands for: a. Distorted Signal Packet d. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. ANS: superheterodyne 2. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. The main function of the AGC is to: a. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Tuned Receiver Function c. Software-Activated Wave .
The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: intermediate IF 9. ANS: skin 5. In a superhet. ANS: AGC 10. ANS: track 4. the other changes with it. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Sensitivity . ANS: mixer 8. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. In low-side injection. ANS: autodyne 11. ANS: lower 12.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: front end 7. ANS: Selectivity 13. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. In a superhet. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: 1918 6. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. In a receiver.
ANS: envelope 18. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. . ANS: noisy 26. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.14. While still commonly found. ANS: gate 25. ANS: conversion 15. Unlike the PLL detector. ANS: amplitude 24. ANS: S 22. ANS: product 19. ANS: obsolescent 23. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. ANS: image 16. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. ANS: coherent 21. ANS: detector 17. ANS: carrier 20.
Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. ANS: fixed constant 32. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . Typically. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: over 28. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: stagger 29. ANS: limiting 35. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. ANS: S 34. ANS: IF 33. ANS: adjustment 30. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. In a block converter. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. Compared to tuned circuits.ANS: A 27. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: higher 31.
What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.01 .20 kHz 2. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6.25 4. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.06 7.5 MHz. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. Assuming high-side injection. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5.
signal degradation can be removed using: a. SR = 2fmax c. I = ktB b. Ten-Digital Manchester d. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. The first digital code was the: a. a fixed sample rate d. Ten Dual-Manchester c. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. ASCII code b. Morse code d. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. Hartley's Law is: a. I = ktB b. I = ktB b. a sample-and-hold circuit b. none of the above . The Shannon Limit is given by: a. Natural Sampling does not use: a. all of the above ANS: C 3. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. true binary numbers ANS: A c. In digital transmission. I = ktB b.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a regenerative repeater b. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. a filter d. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. TDM stands for: a. Baudot code ANS: C 2. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. an analog-to-digital converter c. an amplifier c. SR = 2fmax c. SR = 2fmax c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. SR = 2fmax c.
They are two types of sampling error. but not both. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. d. PCM d. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. noise b.9. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. PPS ANS: D 13. You can have one or the other. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. the µ Law (mu law) c. b. PAM ANS: B 12. none of the above ANS: A 15. decreases as the sample rate increases b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. a sample alias b. They are the same thing. all of the above . reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. the Logarithmic Law b. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. ANS: D 10. Companding is used to: a. c. In North America. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. PPM b. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. The immediate result of sampling is: a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PDM c. too few samples per second d. PWM d. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. the α Law (alpha law) d. PDM c. companding uses: a. the A Law c.
all of the above ANS: D 25. none of the above c. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. "granular noise" is produced when: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. the µ Law (mu law) . companding uses: a. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. unipolar NRZ b. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. only over shorter distances b. the bit rate is too high b. can suffer slope overload d. the signal does not change d. provides strong timing information d. AMI c. transmits fewer bits per sample b. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. the α Law (alpha law) d. the Logarithmic Law b. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. all of the above c. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. 8-bit numbers d. Coder-Decoder b. Compared to PCM. 12-bit numbers b. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. the signal changes too rapidly c. is a biphase code b.ANS: D 17. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. the A Law ANS: B 18. Manchester d. Manchester coding: a. Codec stands for: a. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. Compared to PCM. Code-Compression d. 4-bit numbers c. In delta modulation. In Europe. delta modulation: a. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a.
bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. Manchester coding b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 56 k d. 56 kb/s b. 2 ANS: D c. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. 1.544 Mb/s b. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 6 b. 56 kb/s d. 8 k c. 8 29. 4 d. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. 24 d. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 2 ANS: A 26. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. carry signaling ANS: C 27. detect errors b. all of the above c.544 × 106 ANS: A 30.544 MB/s c. 48 c. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. detect errors b. pulse-width coding c. NRZ coding d. 12 ANS: B 34. 4 d. 1 b. 1 b. all of the above c. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 1. In DS-1. carry signaling ANS: B 28. A typical T-1 line uses: c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s . 64 k b. 1.a. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 8 c. A T-1 cable uses: a.
ringing d. To send it over a digital channel. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. fiber-optic cable d. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. busy signal ANS: D c. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. on-hook/off-hook condition b. In analog channels. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1.a. Compared to standard PCM systems. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. ANS: binary . about the same b. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. ANS: modulated 3. To send it over an analog channel. all of the above 36. microwave c. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. an analog signal must first be ____________________. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. ANS: digitized 4. somewhat better d. twisted-pair wire b. ANS: improved better 2. A vocoder implements compression by: a. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. much better c.
ANS: Foldover . ANS: limited 11. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. Ignoring noise. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. ANS: Nyquist 16. ANS: regenerative 7. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ANS: correct 8. ANS: Natural 15. ANS: error noise 9. and bandwidth. ANS: Time 10. ANS: Hartley's 12. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. information capacity. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio.6. ANS: Shannon 14. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: amplitude 19. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: codec 25. ANS: Pulse-code 20. ANS: 1 one 27. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: A 24. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.17. ANS: Aliasing 18. In a PCM system. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: Quantizing 21. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: 12 26. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. In North America. ANS: Companding 22. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: higher . In Europe. ANS: µ mu 23.
Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. . ANS: transition 36. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. ANS: 8000 40. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity.28. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: polarity 34. ANS: DC 33. In delta modulation. ANS: framing 39. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. ANS: Granular 29. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. ANS: slope 30. In DS-1. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: half 32. In AMI. ANS: 24 38. ANS: step 31. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: timing 37. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: zeros 35.
What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. What is the approximate dynamic range.544 × 106 41. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. From a group of twelve frames. ANS: 5 seconds 2. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: sixth 43. in dB. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6.ANS: 1. ANS: superframe 42.
ANS: 64 kbps 7.833 volt . what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.388 volt? ANS: 0. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.
Central offices are connected by: a. Plain Old Telephone Service c. a way of accessing a tandem office d. none of the above c. DTMF stands for: a. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. POTS stands for: a. a way of accessing a central office c. Private Office Telephone System b. LATA stands for: a. a central office d. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. local loops b. trunk lines ANS: B 7. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Primary Operational Test System d. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Primary Service Telephone Network d. a local calling area b. both a and b d.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Local Area Telephone Access d. a tandem office b. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. A LATA is a: a. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. Call blocking: a. Local loops terminate at: a. PSTN stands for: a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Local Area Transport Access c. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. a toll station ANS: C 8. occurs only on long-distance cables d. an interexchange office c. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. Local Access and Transport Area b.
In telephony. ESS ANS: C 16. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. Post Office Protocol b. POP stands for: a. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 90 volts DC b. step-by-step switching control c. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. FITL stands for: a. 90 volts. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. crossbar control d. only when it is ringing c. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a.ANS: D 9. none of the above . reduce crosstalk d. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. coaxial cable d. when it is on hook b. Power-On Protocol d. 2 mA to 8 mA b. 200 µA to 800 µA d. common control b. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. 20 hertz AC d. Loading coils were used to: a. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. fiber-optic c. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. 48 volts DC c. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. twisted-pair copper wire b. DC current flows through a telephone: a. 20 µA to 80 µA c. Framing In The Loop d. 48 volts. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12.
0 dBm ANS: C 22. 48 volts. 1 pW d. prevent oscillation d. VNL stands for: a. In telephone system FDM. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 90 volts DC d. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. prevent "singing" d. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. SSB c. allow signals to be multiplexed b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. 48 volts DC b. 60 ANS: B 23. 6 c. volume net loss ANS: C 20. 20 hertz AC 18. 90 volts. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. via net loss d. PDM b. all of the above c.a. voltage net loss b. voice noise level . supergroups b. 0 dBr c. jumbogroups d. 24 b. 1 mW b. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. all of the above ANS: C 19. PCM ANS: A 25. eliminate reflections c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. PABX stands for: a. 12 d. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. DSBSC d. mastergroups ANS: D 24. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c.
compensation b. Allocated Digital Service Line d. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a.26. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. frame alignment c. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. A ____________________ is a local calling area. it is too slow c. it took to long to develop b. cancel echoes d. ISDN stands for: a. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. rectification ANS: C 29. Integrated Services Data Network d. about the same speed d. ADSL stands for: a. SLIC stands for: a. c. Compared to ISDN. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. all of the above ANS: D 31. carry signaling ANS: B 28. much more expensive b. Information Systems Digital Network 30. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. In DS-1. much faster c. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. Access to Data Services Line . justification d. provide synchronization b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. Integrated Services Digital Network b. check for errors c. ANS: LATA 2. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines.
New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: flat 9. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: ring 11. . ANS: seized 14. ANS: digital 7. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. ANS: Loading 10. ANS: tip 12. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: green 13. As compared to a hierarchical network. ANS: tandem 4. ANS: blocking 6. ANS: ten 5. Of the red and green 'phone wires.ANS: trunk 3. ANS: twisted-pair 8. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. the green wire is called ____________________. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. With 7-digit phone numbers. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.
The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. In FDM telephony. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. In FDM telephony. amplifiers are called ____________________. In a crosspoint switch. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. ANS: repeaters 21. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. ANS: guard 25. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. ANS: suppressor 22.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. ANS: conditioned 20. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. ANS: large 18. Because of "bit robbing". ANS: lines 17. ANS: DTMF 19. ANS: 56 . ANS: hybrid 16. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. the modulation is usually ____________________. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. In the telephone system. ANS: C-message 23.
SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. In ISDN. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: packet 31. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.26. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: B 33. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. If the loop current is 40 mA. In ISDN. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: D 32. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ANS: asymmetrical 35. For a certain telephone. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: TE1 34. ANS: common-channel 30. In ADSL. ANS: superframe 27. In DS-1C. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: in-channel 29. ANS: stuff 28.
) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. For a certain telephone. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. If the loop current is 40 mA. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. ANS: 1 dB 5. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm.
character sets ANS: C 4. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. binary data d. LF stands for: a. control characters d. Western Union d. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. none of the above c. over short distances only c. Line Forward c. both a and b c. Data codes are also called: a. data link control characters ANS: D 6. all of the above c.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. and CR are examples of: a. they do not have any other name d. FIGS data c. nonstandard character codes b. escape characters ANS: C 8. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. character codes b. graphic control characters d. ASCII stands for: a. numerical data b. all of the above ANS: B 5. the Morkum Company b. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. over any distance b. In practical terms. BS. Character codes include: a. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. usually over long distances d. parallel data transmission is sent: a. alphanumeric characters b. Line Feed c. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. FF. American Standard Character-set 2 b. Emile Baudot .
it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. equal to zero c. In asynchronous transmission. the time between consecutive frames is: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. all of the above ANS: A 14. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. the data bits d. In asynchronous transmission. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. 128 bytes long d. the channel must be noise-free . equal to the start and stop bit-times b. In synchronous transmission. In synchronous transmission. the clock bits c. the frames are: a. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. Unaltered Received Text d. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. not synchronized at all. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. equal to one bit-time d. the transmitter and receiver are: a.b. not a set length ANS: D 12. Link Forward 9. the CRC bits b. UART stands for: a. much longer than asynchronous frames c. Link Feed ANS: A d.
parity c. HDLC: a. Huffman codes: a. Forward Error Correction d. none of the above c. is an IBM product b. ARQ is used to: a. is an IBM product b. automatic receiver queue d. Cycle Repeat Character c. all of the above . allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. BISYNC: a. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. FEC b. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. put data into a temporary buffer d. Fixed Error Control b. is identical to SDLC d. ARQ ANS: D 23. False Error Condition c. all of the above c. VRC is another name for: a. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. automatic request for resynchronization b. automatic request for queue c. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. FEC stands for: a. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. requires the use of DLE d.ANS: A 16. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. "bit-stuffing" b. CRC stands for: a. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. ARQ c. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. LRC d. Control Receiver Code b. correct bit errors b. FEC d.
Synchronous Data Line Character c. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. allows the use of digital signatures b. ANS: FF c. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. a bit-oriented protocol b. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. ANS: short 2. Public-key encryption: a. none of the above . ANS: character 4. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. all of the above c. Synchronous Data Link Character d. HDLC is: a. all of the above c. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28.d. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. SDLC stands for: a. compress data ANS: B 26. an ISO standard d. correct data d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. encrypt data b. ANS: ASCII 5. avoids the "password problem" d. ANS: Baudot 3. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Run-length encoding is used to: a.
6. ANS: efficient 12. ANS: start 7. ANS: UART 10. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: transitions 13. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: mark binary 1 9. ANS: 01111110 17. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. the line will be at the ____________________ level. . ANS: flag 16. ANS: buffers 11. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: data 14. ANS: stop 8. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. When receiving digital data. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. ANS: BISYNC 15. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. At the end of an asynchronous frame. In HDLC.
private-key encryption can be quite secure. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. . CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: forward 22. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. public-key encryption can be slow. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. ANS: password 28. ANS: Burst 21. ANS: cipher 27. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: burst 25. ANS: compression 26. ANS: ARQ 23. ANS: even 24. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: long 29. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. DLE stands for data link ____________________.ANS: block 18. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. ANS: decrypted 30. Because it is ____________________-intensive. ANS: escape 19. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction.
The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.0% . How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. ANS: 97.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5.7% 6. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. and two stop bits (it could happen). Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). ANS: 66. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
each channel carries only one data stream c. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. Collision Detection d. Most LANs: a. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. use UTP cable d. none of the above ANS: B 6. Carrier Detection b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Carrier Server Master Application d. circuit c. token-passing rings are: a. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. The Internet is: a. In a circuit-switched network: a. communication is half-duplex only b. Dumb terminals are still used: a. none of the above . are based on Ethernet b. a very large CSMA/CD network d. not really a network at all c.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above ANS: B 7. slower c. Collision Delay c. token ANS: C 8. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. a network of networks b. not as widely used c. hub b. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. CSMA stands for: a. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. in token-passing networks b. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. Each computer on a network is called a: a. all of the above c. Client-Server Multi-Access b. node d.
contention d. tokens ANS: A 11. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. a collision c. none of the above c. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. excess traffic b. none of the above ANS: D 10. data is lost . Ethernet d. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. nodes c. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. carriers b. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. users d. multiple access ANS: B 12. the network goes down b. packets c. contention d. multiple access ANS: A 13. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. a central ring c. it is called: a. IEEE 802.3 c.b. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. it is called: a. MAU stands for: a. a collision c. The effect of too many collisions is: a. more expensive ANS: D d. CSMA c. EIA 232 c. nodes d. excess traffic b. the network slows down ANS: B 16. On networks. In an Ethernet-based network. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. all of the above 9. Multistation Access Unit b. collisions ANS: D 15. a central bus d. the cable overheats d. packets b. a node b. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. token-passing b.
INTEL ANS: C d. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. Ethernet was invented by: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. Xerox d. Network Interface Code d. CCITT ITU-E c. Manchester encoding c. to increase the data rate b. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. the cable carries baseband signals b. RG-58U coaxial cable d. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. fiber-optic cable b. Network Internal Code c. IBM b. 50-ohm coaxial cable .1 ANS: C 18. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25.b. Network Interface Card b. all of the above ANS: C 23. NRZ encoding b. IEEE 488. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. all of the above ANS: C 24. to increase the data rate b. Three-Level encoding d. an RJ45 connector c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. NIC stands for: a. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. none of the above ANS: A 22. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. a BNC connector c. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c.
An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. A switch: a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. none of the above ANS: B . it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. are cheaper c. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Broadband LANs: a. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. an RS11 connector c. it is faster when used in large networks c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. modulate the data onto a carrier b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. UTP stands for: a. Unicode Text Packet 27.b. both a and b b. all of the above ANS: C 28. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. client-server networks d. A hub: a. use coaxial cables c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. peer-to-peer networks c. CAT-5 cables: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. all of the above ANS: D 32. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above ANS: C 31. a T connector ANS: C 26. allow faster bit rates b. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d.
a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. multitasking b. same as a "dumb" terminal d. all nodes are connected to a central computer. ANS: networks 3. Record locking is used to: a. ANS: token 7. UNIX-based c. ANS: circuit 5. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. A "thin" client is: a. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. ANS: packet c. basically. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. In a ____________________ network. ANS: star 4. store records securely on a server b. ANS: Local 2. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. The Internet is a network of ____________________. ANS: topology 6. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. all of the above . The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.33. a PC with no disk drives b. WINDOWS-based d. In a ____________________-switched network. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. Novell certified ANS: C 35. none of the above ANS: C 34.
Hubs can be ____________________ to form. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: 100 mega 14. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: detected 11. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.8. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together. ANS: collision 10. in effect. ANS: minimum 15. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. one big hub. ANS: backbone 13. ANS: NIC 17. ANS: address . ANS: quiet free unused available 12. all collisions must be ____________________. In CSMA/CD networks. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. In CSMA/CD. ANS: Contention 9. ANS: stacked 19. ANS: length 16. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. In CSMA/CD. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. ANS: fiber-optic 18.
and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. What is a NIC address. 5. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. 3. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. 4. it can be disconnected and the network still functions. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. 2. It still works like a token-passing ring.20. the entire network is inoperative. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. send a packet. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. The collision would not be detected. .
25 ANS: D c. physical layer ANS: D 7. store-and-forward b.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Standard Network Architecture d. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. 3 b. allows for variable length packets d. 8 c. error-check layer d. physical layer c. link layer c. SNA stands for: a. network d.25 b. MAN stands for: a. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. Standard Network Access b. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. user b. link layer d. Packet switching is based on: a. transport layer ANS: A 6. Metropolitan-Area Network d. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. all of the above c. frame layer b. does less error checking than X. switched circuits ANS: A 3. 7 d. Manchester Access Network b. all of the above c. cable layer b. 5 ANS: C 5. frame c. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. Frame Relay: a. real-time delivery d. Multiple Access Network . Systems Network Architecture c. link layer ANS: C 8. is faster than X.
HTTP stands for: a. none of the above c. TCP/IP consists of: a. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. datagrams c. Transfer Connection Protocol d. connectionless protocol d. separates a network into "collision domains" b. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. non-robust protocol c. 7 layers ANS: A 14. IP is a: a. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. 5 layers b. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. all of the above ANS: D 11. Together. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. Automatic Test Mode 10. IP stands for: a. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. an application and a process d. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. A bridge: a. Transmission Control Process b. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. TCP stands for: a. Interconnect Protocol d. is essentially forever b. Internet Process b. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. connection-oriented protocol b.9. User Datagram Protocol b. looks at the address of each packet c. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. User Data Packet d. ATM stands for: a. Universal Data Packet c. operate at the data-link level d. Interconnect Procedure . UDP stands for: a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c.
Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. none of the above ANS: A 23. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. Short Message Transport Protocol b. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. running out of available values d. all of the above c. Internet Service Procedure d. SMTP stands for: a. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. web page layout d. dumb terminals b. FTP stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol b. Fast Transport Packet c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. ISP stands for: a. HTML stands for: a. a 32-bit binary number b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. File Test Procedure d. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. none of the above c. all of the above c. HTML allows: a.b. browsers d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. file transport ANS: C 19. HTTP allows the use of: a. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. telneting b. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. four groups of base-ten numbers c. none of the above . Internet Service Protocol b. Hypertext Markup Language b. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. FTP is used to: a.
a DNS c. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. OSI stands for: a. c. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. Domain Name Server b. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. Open Systems Internet d. a "brick wall" d.ANS: D 26. Open Systems Interconnection b. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. ANS: forward 6. has become obsolete on the Internet b. ANS: leased 4. Domain Numbering System d. ANS: Wide 3. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. a "firewall" b. ANS: Metropolitan 2. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. none of the above c. Domain Naming System . stores all domain addresses d. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. translates words to numbers c. A DNS: a. ANS: switched 5. DNS stands for: a.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
maximum number of symbols per second c. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. Pulse-Signal Keying b. Full-Shift Keying b. amperes per second ANS: C 5. Phase-Shift Keying c. the eye is maximally closed d. I is measured in: a. QAM ANS: A c. FSK stands for: a. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. bits d. amperes b. none of the above c. FSK c. QAM stands for: a. number of possible states per symbol d. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. margin of noise b. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. the eye is maximally open c. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. In the equation I = ktB. Phase-Signal Keying d. Full-Signal Keying d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. PSK b. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. modulation index ANS: C 6. none of the above . Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. bits per second c. M is the: a. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. too many bits low d. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. PSK stands for: a. intermodulation distortion b. too many bits high c. the eye is half open b.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. AFSK d.
a random sequence c. 3π/4. International Telecommunications Units c. a QPSK symbol contains: a. frequency and phase angle b.N. and 4π/4 b. FSK b. amplitude and phase angle d. full-duplex. ANS: B 16. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. angles of 45. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. angles of 0. the U. For QAM. CCITT b. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. Gaussian bits b. 2π/4. low SNR d. FSK d. and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. Instead of a single bit. 225. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. half-duplex. a training sequence d. amplitude and frequency c. 135. To reduce the need for linearity. FSK ANS: A 14. International Telecommunications Union d. ANSI c. full-duplex. IEEE d. 4 bits d. FSK c. effects of noise on symbols d.9. all of the above . a Q-bit ANS: C 10. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. 600 bps. For QAM. uneven phase and frequency response c. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. noise and interference b. 1200 bps. random bits c. full-duplex. a byte c. a dibit b. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. 90. 300 bps. International Telephony Unit b. 180. angles of π/4. and 270 degrees c. 1200 bps. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13.
a personal computer would be: a. flow control is done using: a. MNP4. a DTR b. a DTE c.ANS: C 18. MNP5 and V. data-compression schemes b. In RS-232. 5 b. the ISO . 7 c. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. ISO-232C/D d. data-compression schemes b. the ITU d. the EIA b.90 standard is issued by: a. a DSR ANS: D 25. a modem would be: a. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. both a and b d. RS-232C b. 1 c. a DTE c. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. 1 c. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. none of the above c. both a and b d. In RS-232. 3 d. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. 5 b. RTS/CTS handshake b. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. both a and b d. The official name for RS-232C is: a. the TIA ANS: C 19. a DSR ANS: C 24. a DTR b. and MNP10 are all: a. MNP2.42 bis are both: a. a DCE d. signal ground is pin: a. The V. In RS-232. signal ground is pin: a. none of the above c. ANSI-232C c. MNP3. a DCE d. 3 d. none of the above c. 7 ANS: C 26.
RTS. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. Double-Speed Loop c. Data Signal Line b. All DSL c. Any DSL scheme c. Hardware flow control uses: a. +9 volts b. Hybrid Fiber Control c. CTS. Software flow control uses: a. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. TD. ADSL d. DSR.ANS: D 27. Asynchronous DSL b. HFC stands for: a. RTS and CTS d. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. XON and XOFF b. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. CMTS stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. and signal ground . RD. XON and XOFF b. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. and signal ground d. In a CATV system. TD. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. Analog DSL d. Head Frequency Control b. Cable Modem Terminal System d. none of the above c. +15 volts c. DSL stands for: a. and signal ground ANS: B 28. ADSL stands for: a. TD. DSR and DCD c. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. RD. +12 volts d. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. TD and RD b. RD. In a CATV system. ADSL Lite b. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. TD and RD ANS: C 29. Digital Subscriber Line d. DSR and DCD c. TD and RD ANS: A 30. RTS and CTS d.
In QAM modems. ANS: CTS 3. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. ANS: Quadrature 6. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ANS: constellation 11. ANS: Telecommunications 12. ANS: four 9. ANS: Keying 4. ANS: baud 7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. ANS: Send 2. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. RTS means Request To ____________________. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: dibit 8. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. . The response to RTS is ____________________. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. ANS: Data 5. ANS: Delta 10.
. ANS: tree 22. ____________________ flow control is preferred. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: 3 19. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: hardware 18. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. In RS-232. ANS: 54k 15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. In a CATV system using cable modems. ANS: Equalization 14. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: 20k 16. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ANS: CMTS 23. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS.ANS: Trellis 13. ANS: null 20.
ANS: Ranging 24. A DMT system uses 4. ANS: ADSL 25. ANS: 4000 2. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. If half the modems are active at any given time.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. ANS: DMT 27. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ANS: lite 26. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4.
framing bit c. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. 256 kbps d. the length of the channel d. the bandwidth of each signal b. every sixth frame d. all the signals come from the same source b. Besides data bits. 1. every other frame c. Code-Division Multiple Access b. all of the above ANS: C 5. T-bit ANS: D 8. every frame b. In DS-1. Tone Division Multiple Access d. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. every twelfth frame c. When calculating the maximum number of users.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the type of media used c.536 Mbps b. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. 64 kbps c. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. 24 channels ANS: B 6. none of the above . 64 channels c. TDMA stands for: a. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. 12 channels b. Time Domain Multiple Access b. TDM is used in RF communications d. signaling bit d. timing bit b. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. the signals come from different sources c. A DS-1 signal contains: a. 32 channels d. none of the above c.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. CDMA stands for: a. 1. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d.
Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. direct-sequence method d. multiplexer b. space switching d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. much more bandwidth d. crosspoint switch . compared to standard RF systems. For a given data rate. bandwidth of original baseband d. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. all of the above c. much less bandwidth b. all of the above c. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. direct-sequence systems. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. computerized Strowger switch d. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. a wideband receiver d. about the same bandwidth c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. a CDMA receiver c. RF gain b.ANS: C 9. TDM switch ANS: D 12. a direct-conversion receiver b. spreading gain d. computer speed ANS: C 16. the digital data bit rate c. To calculate processing gain. a narrowband receiver c. use: a. time switching c. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. space switching d. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. line switching b. the chip size ANS: B 17. the S/N ratio b. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. A digital space switch is a: a. time switching c. signal switching b. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. direct-sequence method d.
ANS: share 2. ANS: all 4. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. a direct-conversion receiver b. cannot be used on an RF channel d. a wideband receiver d. and ____________________. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. ANS: frequency . allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. ANS: CDMA 3. CDMA: a. Using CDMA on a radio channel. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. In FDM. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: all 6. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel.ANS: A 18. For optimal performance. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. true-random PN sequences b. a narrowband receiver c. CDMA requires the use of: a. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. In TDM. ANS: time 7. orthogonal PN sequences c. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. TDMA. ANS: part 5. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b.
ANS: 8 13. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: pseudo 18. . ANS: 1. ANS: Rayleigh 17. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. ANS: AMI 10. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. ANS: hopping 19. ANS: time 16.544 Meg 12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 24 9. ANS: superframe 14. ANS: difficult 20. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: 193 11. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.8. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: space 15. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________.
by definition. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. ANS: code 24. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. 5. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth.ANS: difficult 21. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. 4. ANS: chips 22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. 2. ANS: ten 23. So the more bandwidth available. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. the higher the possible bit rate.
. as it is in spread-spectrum... Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. (f11. have no frequencies in common. f22. and so forth..). f13.) and (f21. 6. At some point in time. f12. f22. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. If the two sets of frequencies. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. f23.. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. . and so forth. . f12. f13. f23.
Time-Domain Response d. an open-wire-line cable d. stays the same b. lumped c. ideal elements ANS: B 5. all of the above c. Total Distance of Reflection b. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4. the resistance of a wire: a. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. changes periodically ANS: A 6. Shorted Wave Radiation b. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. none of the above . the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. As frequency increases. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. stays the same b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. equal reactances b. Transmission Delay Ratio c. I2R loss c. increases c. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. TDR stands for: a. SWR stands for: a. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. the Ohmic effect d. the skin effect b. As frequency increases. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. distributed d. decreases d. Shorted Wire Region d. increases c. decreases d. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When analyzing a transmission line. a coaxial cable b.
none of the above . would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. one ANS: B 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. The optimum value for SWR is: a. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. equal to Z0 b. would reflect as a negative pulse c.ANS: D 9. would reflect as a positive pulse b. zero b. lower than Z0 c. increases with voltage d. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. increases with length b. all of the above ANS: B 12. standing waves b. all of the above c. the inductance per foot b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. For best matching. higher voltage peaks on cable d. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. as large as possible d. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. the load on a cable should be: a. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. there is no optimum value c. the wire resistance c. loss of power to load c. higher than Z0 d. would reflect as a positive pulse b. the dielectric constant d. increases with frequency ANS: D 11.
On a Smith Chart. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. Compared to a 300-ohm line. none of the above ANS: C 25. directly c. the current d. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. zero c. the characteristic impedance b. optimum length of a transmission line d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. A TDR is commonly used to: a. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. voltage SWR d. variable SWR b. VSWR stands for: a. would be more d. none of the above ANS: D 24. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. by using a "balun" b. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. by using a filter d. transmission line impedances b. transmission line losses c. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. is infinite c. is zero d.ANS: D 17. dividing it by 2π d. would be less c. is the characteristic impedance b. assuming it to be zero c. the voltage c. would be the same b. multiplying it by 2π b. one d. the impedance b. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. find the position of a defect in a cable c. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. none of the above .
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable.7. If a cable has an SWR of 1. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into the line.5 8.5. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .2 9.
all of the above ANS: A 4. Maxwell b. high-power microwave transmitters b. light ANS: D 6. 3 × 106 meters per second c. Maxwell b. True Electromagnetic d. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. none of the above c. 300 × 10 meters per second d. high antennas d. radio waves b. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. TEM stands for: a.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Hertz d. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above . all of the above ANS: C 5. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Transverse Electromagnetic b. reuse of frequencies b. perpendicular to each other c. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. gamma waves d. In free space. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. both a and b b. Marconi ANS: C 2. Armstrong c. Hertz d. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. the microprocessor chip c. high power levels c. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Marconi ANS: B 3. none of the above ANS: C 7. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. Armstrong c.
a flat metallic surface of the right size d. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. 3 b. circular b. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. circular b. 2 d. EIRP stands for: a. many ANS: B 12. below about 2 MHz b. reflection c. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. horizontal d. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. all of the above ANS: D 11.9. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. 1 c. Ground waves are most effective: a. horizontal d. an isotropic radiator b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. a ground-wave antenna d. refraction c. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. a flat body of water c. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. at microwave frequencies d. when using horizontally polarized waves c. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. none of the above . vertical c. vertical c. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. all of the above ANS: D 10. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14.
cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. are line-of-sight b. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. diffraction 18. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. reflected off the ionosphere c. line-of-sight b. the radio horizon d. send a message multiple times over a channel b. multipath distortion d. Space waves are: a. are same as space waves d. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. the cell area is increased c. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. the power levels are increased c. frequency diversity b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. diffraction d. extend the range of a radio communications system d. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. in the "silent" zone d. A "repeater" is used to: a. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. fading c. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. repeaters ANS: D 25. spatial diversity ANS: A 22. close to the transmitter b. fading b. diffraction ANS: C 23. same as sky waves d.b. diffusion ANS: D d. cancellation due to reflection c. in the "skip" zone . Sky waves: a. the reuse of frequencies c. high power b.
nothing occurs ANS: A 27. both cells will handle the call b. ANS: Hertz 3. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. ANS: 300 × 106 5. a "handoff" process occurs c. used for radio telephony b. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. c. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________.b. multiple receivers b. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. also called "ducting" d. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. none of the above ANS: B 28. highest layer of the atmosphere b. Unlike sound or water waves. ANS: Maxwell 2. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. To receive several data streams at once. a "funnel" receiver c. not possible c. a "rake" receiver d. a "sectoring" process occurs d. ANS: transverse 4. The troposphere is the: a. ANS: photons 6. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. the number of channels is reduced 26. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . the cell area is split ANS: B d. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a.
ANS: isotropic 9.ANS: medium 7. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. ANS: gain 16. ANS: electric 12. ANS: specular . ANS: plane 11. ANS: perpendicular 14. ANS: circular 15. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. ANS: decrease 17. ANS: sphere 10. At a far distance from the source. ANS: perpendicular 13. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. With ____________________ polarization. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. ANS: 3 × 106 8.
The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.18. ANS: Sky 23. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. each covering a third of the cell area. ANS: Space 21. to reduce interference. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ANS: reuse 28. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: microprocessor . ANS: diffraction 20. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: Sectoring 29. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ANS: low 27. ANS: multipath 25. ANS: Ground 22. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. ANS: reflected 26. ANS: Refraction 19. ANS: skip 24.
what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. approximately. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. what is the power density 10.SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures.9 km 5. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart.
Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. directivity c. between the minor side-lobes c. all of the above ANS: A 2. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. Measured on the ground. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. in one direction c. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. between half-power points d. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. the radiated signal c. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. in all directions b. the reflected signal d. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. SWR along the feed cable d. 3 dB d. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. 0 dB c. one half-wavelength d. none of the above . infinite ANS: A 8. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. in two directions d. radiation resistance of the antenna b. a Marconi antenna b. resonance ANS: A 7. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. 10 dB b. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. the SWR b. selectivity d. one wavelength c. a Yagi antenna d. active antenna b. from +90° to –90° b. from front to back c. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. ANS: effective 15. ANS: omnidirectional 23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. ANS: parasitic 25. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: gain 16. ANS: horizontal 18. . A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. ANS: balun 17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. ANS: one 24. ANS: ground 22. ANS: vertical 20.14. ANS: wider greater more 19. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.
What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. ANS: collimated 29. ANS: five 27. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. ANS: horn 30. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . If an antenna has 10. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. If an LPDA had five elements. ANS: focus 28. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide.ANS: log-periodic 26. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________.
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .
The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. same as the microwave range . TM 01 ANS: C 6. TE 11 d. none of the above ANS: A 4. TM 01 d. TM10 ANS: C 5. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. it is the only mode possible b. the shape of the waveguide c. through a hole in the waveguide b. with a magnetic field probe c.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. TM11 b. of its circular symmetry d. The UHF range is: a. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. 10 GHz b. it is dominant c. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. the point of signal injection b. above the microwave range d. below the microwave range b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. is fixed b. with an electric field probe d. TE 01 c. 100 MHz c. depends on the frequency it carries c. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. both b and c ANS: D 8. TE 01 b. all of the above c. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. 1 GHz d. TE 10 a. the power level of the signal d. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c.
allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. none of the above . their insertion loss c. separates signals among various ports d. all of the above ANS: D 10. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. their coupling specification d. separates signals among various ports d. An "isolator" is a device that: a. GaAs stands for: a. tuned circuit b. all of the above c. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. gallium astenite d. Transverse Wave Transmission b. gallium arsenide b. a "magic" TEE d. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. TWT stands for: a. Traveling-Wave Tube d. none of the above c. couple components on a circuit board d. antenna d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. Traveling-Wave Transmission c.ANS: D 9. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. their directivity b. A "circulator" is a device that: a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. an H-plane TEE b. couple sections of waveguide b. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. gallium assembly ANS: A c. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. none of the above c. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a.
A microwave phased array is often made using: a. TWT c. YIG stands for: a. magnetron b. the Doppler effect d. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. RADAR stands for: a. continuous transmission ANS: D c. a magnetic field ANS: B c. impact avalanche and transit time b. TWT c. all of the above ANS: A 24. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. YIG ANS: A 22. IMPATT stands for: a. RADAR uses: a. none of the above c. remote detection and ranging . induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. radio detection and ranging d. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d.17. magnetron b. all of the above c. TWT c. magnetron b. klystron d. none of the above c. slots c. klystron d. mechanical pressure d. Fresnel lenses b. radio ranging b. implied power at transmission terminal d. YIG ANS: C 21. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. pulsed transmission b. an "exciter" signal 20. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. YIG ANS: B 23. Yagis d. klystron d. an electric field b. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25.
In a waveguide. none of the above ANS: B 27. ANS: dominant 4. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. increases with increasing repetition rate c.26. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. In TE20 mode. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: electric 5. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. . ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. decreases with increasing pulse period b. increases with increasing pulse duration c. In a waveguide. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. In a circular waveguide. ANS: two 6. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. In TE10 mode. In a waveguide. ANS: zero 3. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ANS: Dispersion 2. ANS: slower 9. ANS: faster 10. ANS: TM01 7. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: high 8. is always a tenth of the maximum range b.
ANS: patch 19. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. ANS: high 13. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: linear 17. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: smaller 20. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. ANS: slot 18.ANS: decreases 11. ANS: resistance 15. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. . A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: cavity 14. ANS: wave 16. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.
Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.ANS: 3 GHz 2. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4.8 6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. ANS: 14. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 15 km 7.
Line-Of-Signal c. section c. jump ANS: B 2. skip b. Line-Of-Sight d. a very narrow microwave beam b. noise level d. Too much antenna gain causes: a. LOS stands for: a. jitter b. jitter b.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. SSB ANS: D 3. FM b. all of the above ANS: C 7. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. 90% c. Loss Of Skip b. noise level d. 2 watts c. additional repeaters increase the: a. 99. reliability c. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. 20 watts d. none of the above ANS: A 5. reliability c. 99% d. Microwave systems use: a. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. additional repeaters increase the: a. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. In digital microwave systems. all of the above ANS: B 6. excessive noise d. In analog microwave systems. hop d. 99. 200 watts b. all of the above . The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. jitter c. QAM d.99% ANS: D 4.9% b.
The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. all of the above ANS: A 14. 60% of the Faraday zone c. below 10 GHz c.9. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. diversity c. Microwave repeaters can be: a. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. Fading is caused by: a. baseband type ANS: D 16. it requires less power b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. ducting d. none of the above ANS: A 11. high-gain antennas b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. all of the above . The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. always b. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. all of the above ANS: B 17. power d. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. low level of transmitted power b. MMDS stands for: a. regenerative type d. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. all of the above c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. multipath reception b. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. IF type b. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. above 10 GHz d. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. high level of ERP c. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. less bandwidth is required c.
Local Microwave Distribution System b. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. ANS: noise density 7. bidirectional b. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. Local Multipoint Distribution System c.b. ANS: studio 3. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. multidirectional d. ANS: year 4. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. One microwave link is called a ____________________. LMDS stands for: a. ANS: fading c. none of the above . ANS: temperature 6. ANS: jitter 5. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. In digital microwave systems. LMDS is: a. ANS: hop 2. In microwave systems. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. Local Multichannel Distribution System d.
____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. ANS: ten 11. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. but ____________________ is bidirectional. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power.8. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? . approximately. ANS: Repeaters 12. what would it be. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. ANS: diversity 10. ANS: baseband 13. MMDS is unidirectional. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. ANS: noise 14. ANS: space 9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________.4 meters 3. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link.
A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. ANS: 201 K 5.4 dBm 4. The noise power is –100 dBm.ANS: –42. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB .
Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 625 d. 50 b. RGB stands for: a. 50 b. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Red-Green-Blue . 525 : 625 d. FCC c. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. 30 d. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. Red-Green Burst b. 625 : 525 c. 1024 b. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. Luminance refers to: a. 3 : 4 b. 60 ANS: D 7. EIA b. National Television Systems Commission b. National Television Systems Committee c. 25 c. 525 c. chroma d. National Television Systems Council d. Red-Green Bandwidth d. contrast c. brightness b. 30 d. IRE d. IEEE ANS: C 3. 25 c. 60 ANS: B 6. raster c. 1250 ANS: A 5. NTSC stands for: a.
whiter than white b. white c. in-phase color component. pixel d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. blacker than black ANS: B 12. quadrature phase color component c. blacker than black ANS: D 13. NTSC units . max white b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. black d. none of the above c. The maximum luminance level is called: a. horizontal resolution: a. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. peak white ANS: B 11. white c. quadrature video color component d. is less than vertical resolution d. whiter than white c. all white d. foot-candles b. composite color signal. equalize the DC level d. quadrature phase color component b. maintain horizontal sync b. is about the same as vertical resolution c.ANS: A 9. whiter than white b. In a color TV receiver. composite video signal. black d. Y I Q refers to: a. all of the above c. in-phase video component. luminance signal. lumins ANS: C 10. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. is greater than vertical resolution b. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. in-phase color component. Luminance is measured in: a. pic ANS: C 16. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. dot b. When measured in lines. IRE units d.
suppressed-carrier AM b.17. sync audio pulse . the isolation transformer c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. about the same d. FM ANS: B 19. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. SSB c. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. much greater c. all of the above ANS: D 22. vestigial sideband AM d. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. vestigial sideband AM d. SSB c. much higher d. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the yoke ANS: C 24. suppressed-carrier AM b. FM ANS: C 21. SSB c. much lower b. separate audio program b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. the flyback transformer b. SAP stands for: a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. sync amplitude pulse d. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: D 20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. Compared to the luminance signal. the video transformer d. suppressed-carrier AM b. about the same c. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. much less b. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. detect the presence of a color video signal b. Compared to a monochrome CRT. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a.
ANS: aspect 7. automatic frequency and picture control d. ANS: Aquadag 2. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. ANS: NTSC 3. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ANS: luma luminance 8. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. allowed full picture chroma b. AFPC stands for: a. ANS: composite 6.d. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. none of the above . During the horizontal blanking interval. Color information is called ____________________. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: scanning 4. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. Brightness information is called ____________________. ANS: porch c. ANS: retraces 5.
3 14. ANS: 62. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. ANS: position 11. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: ultor 20. ANS: 525 16. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: phosphor 22. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. not including blanking. ANS: 10 13. ANS: pixels 15.10. .58 18. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: green 17. ANS: 3. ANS: 20 to 30 21. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds.5 12. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 1. ANS: separate 19.
ANS: purity 31. ANS: killer 25. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: head 27. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: vectorscope 28. ANS: dBmV 26. ANS: phase 30. Color intensity is called ____________________. ANS: saturation 29. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. ANS: comb 24. ANS: convergence . The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots.ANS: flyback 23. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
respectively. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 101 watts c. 104 watts ANS: C 8.780 km d. 103 watts 2 b. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a.: a. all of the above . transponders c. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. 357. footprint b. solar cells b. batteries d. 3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. declination and elevation b. is zero (freefall) c. is constant b. apogee and perigee c. perigee and apogee d. azimuth and declination d. 35. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2.578 km c. earth station c. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. 500 to 2500 watts b. azimuth and elevation c.800 km b. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. 10 watts d.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. uplink and downlink b. 50 to 250 watts d. downlink d. 5 to 25 watts c. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. plate ANS: C 4.
backdown c. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. transmit delay minimum aperture c. TVRO stands for: a. low power to a small antenna d. EIRP drop ANS: B 13. On the uplink from a terminal. DBS stands for: a. television receive only b. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. mesh c. repeater c. low north angle ANS: A 12.ANS: A 9. LNA stands for: a. power-down b. low-noise amplifier b. none of the above . television repeater only ANS: A 14. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. TDMA stands for: a. none of the above c. low power to a large antenna b. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. direct-broadcast system d. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. direct-broadcast satellite c. high power to a small antenna c. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. television remote origin d. low-noise array c. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. video satellite b. VSAT stands for: a. very small aperture terminal c. decibels of signal b. backoff d. star b. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. orbital adjustments d. ring d. antenna maintenance b. time-division multiple access d. low-noise amplitude d. a VSAT system uses: a. very small antenna terminal d.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Number Access Module d. PCS stands for: a. Personal Communications Service b. MSC stands for: a. NAM stands for: a. none of the above c. RCC stands for: a. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Personal Cell phone Service d. MIN stands for: a. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. none of the above c. Electronic Serial Number b. American Mobile Phone System b. AMPS stand for: a. Number Assignment Module c. Emission Strength Number d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. Numerical Access Mode b. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Manual Identification Number b. Minimum In-band Noise c. Maximum In-band Noise d. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Mobile Switching Center b. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Portable Communications Systems c. MTSO stands for: a. Radio Common Carrier b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. ESN stands for: a. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Minimum Signal Carrier c.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d.
Supervisory Access Tone d. SID stands for: a. Direct Channel Code . recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. SCM stands for: a. signal classification (analog or digital) d.9. Digital Color Code b. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Service Class Mark b. The CMAC is used to: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. Signal Class Mark d. voice is sent using: a. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. base-station class ANS: D 11. Digital Communications Carrier d. Station Antenna Tower b. code number of a cell phone b. AM c. In an AMPS system. maximum power level of a cell phone c. DCC stands for: a. FSK c. none of the above c. CMAC stands for: a. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. set its transmitted power level d. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. SAT stands for: a. set the access code of the cell phone c. Serial-Code Mode c. System Identification Number d. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. control access to the cell site b. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. SCM identifies the: a. recognize an AMPS system c. Central Mobile Access Control d.
Phone traffic is measured in: a. increase the ERP b. decrease the number of cells d. as small as possible d. FM d. erlangs ANS: B 24. air interface ANS: D 22. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. Code-Division Packet Data b. none of the above c. c. Coded Digital Packet Data d. MTSO d. Base Station Controller b. CDMA ANS: C 19. In an AMPS system. increase the number of cells c. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. Basic Service Code . number of blocked calls c. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. 0. RF interface b. 4 watts ANS: B 20. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. 2 km b. AM c. control-channel signals are sent using: a. FSK b. less than 600 µW. between 1 and 2 watts b. BSC stands for: a. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c.b. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. CDMA 18. FM ANS: B d. BSC c. Basic Service Contract d. d. CDPD stands for: a. calls b. number of users d. less than 600 mW.5 km ANS: D 23.
ANS: attenuation 12. ANS: I one 8. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. ANS: reuse 4. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. A portable.1. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. ANS: three 7. ANS: III three 10. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. For security. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________.5 6. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ANS: 0. ANS: AMPS 3. ANS: handoff 5. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. handoffs will occur too frequently. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. ANS: land station 11. ANS: 800 2. ANS: 600 mW 9. . A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________.
A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. 2. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. ANS: 1. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole. ANS: picocells 20. ANS: MTSO 14. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. Compared with AMPS. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. ANS: traffic 15. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________.ANS: public 13. ANS: splitting 18. ANS: erlangs 16. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. ANS: microcell 19. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. If a 28. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. 2. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the traffic in erlangs? .6 3. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. ANS: dropped 17.
. the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.ANS: 30 4.
CDMA technology was invented by: a. Compared to AMPS. all of the above c. Qualcomm c. AT&T b. 3 d. Lucent ANS: D 8. bigger b. Asia b. North America d. 900 MHz d. 1. same as the uplink c. higher-power c. GSM is used in: a. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. from mobile to mobile d. PCS cell sites are: a. Europe ANS: D c. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. digital-generation . Bell Labs d. use built into an automobile d. second-generation ANS: B 2. third-generation d. 800 MHz c. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. 2 c. first-generation b.9 GHz b.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. distributed d. POTS b. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. AMPS was designed for: a. all of the above c. smaller ANS: B 5. voice ANS: D 6. 4 b. many ANS: B 7. from the base to the mobile b. The "forward" PCS channel is: a.
no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. Subscriber ID Method c. all of the above c. IS-136 uses: a. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. frequency hopping b. all of the above . IS-95 uses: a. SIM stands for: a. voice channels are called: a. GSM only d. CDMA d. traffic channels b. TDMA ANS: D c. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. greater than in a TDMA phone b. CDMA d. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. voice channels ANS: A 10. all of the above c. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. TDMA ANS: C 17. less than in a TDMA phone c. In GSM. CDMA d. TDMA only b. In GSM. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. AMPS uses: a. frequency hopping b. no PCS system c. IMSI stands for: a. Subscriber ID Module d. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. talking channels c. frequency hopping b. none of the above 11. bearer channels d. CDMA b. Short Inbound Message b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. Other things being equal.9. spread-spectrum d. TDMA c. GSM uses: a. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a.
ANS: GSM 6. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. faster data rates c. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. orthogonal .ANS: B 18. wider roaming area b. rotating d. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. ANS: Personal 2. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. unique ANS: D 20. In CDMA: a. all frequencies are used in all cells b. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: second 3. ANS: smaller 5. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. In North America. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. common b. Compared to AMPS. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. Internet access d. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: 1900 4.
UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. Unlike AMPS. ANS: Packet 18. Unlike other systems. ANS: Frequency 13.7. ANS: Mobile 19. ANS: Walsh 10. ANS: soft 9. ANS: less 14. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. ANS: frequency hopping 8. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. ANS: all 11. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: variable 15. ANS: 50 16. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. ANS: Universal . GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: random 12. ANS: closed 17. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation.
UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. 8. To demodulate. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. 2. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. 4. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. Why was PCS assigned to 1. it never goes to zero. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. ANS: Wireless 21. 3. and what causes it? . With offset QPSK. 6. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. 7. 5.20. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA.
. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near.
Scientific. an addressing scheme used for pagers c.10 c. the UHF band. and Messaging d. Pagers use: a. the VHF band. 802. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. In a one-way pager system: a. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. require "handoffs" b. require error detection d.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. Scientific. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. POCSAG stands for: a. CAPCODE is: a. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. IEEE Standard Message b. the VHF band only b. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. all pages are sent from all transmitters b.12 c. the UHF band only c. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. both the VHF and UHF bands d. transmitters use relatively high power d. all of the above ANS: D 5. Industrial. ISM stands for: a. 802. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. all of the above c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. Industrial. and Medical . A typical pager system does not: a.
2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. 802. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. Time Delay Difference d. infrared band ANS: C 9. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. 10 cm to 1 meter c. multinet ANS: D 16. Bluetooth uses the: a. UHF band ANS: C 13. all of the above c. Bluetooth Service System d. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14.11 ANS: B d. Total Distance Delay c. BSS stands for: a. 2 nodes b. CDMA b. VHF band b. QPSK d. Bluetooth uses: a. ISM band b. 802. TDD stands for: a. scatternet c. VHF band c. all of the above ANS: A 10. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. infrared band c.13 8. CSMA/CA c. CSMA/CD d. Time-Division Duplex b.b. UHF band d. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. micronet b. TDD net d. CDMA b. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. 10 cm to 100 meters c. none of the above . 2 to 16 nodes c. ISM band d. 2 to 8 nodes d. Basic Service Set b.
Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. 1 foot d. several meters d.11 6. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. several hundred meters b. Infrared Data Association b. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. 10 feet c. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 1 meter b. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. ANS: 802. Infrared networks: a. several thousand meters. . all of the above 20. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: TDMA 3. 1 meter c. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. cannot penetrate walls b.b. IRDA stands for: a. ANS: capcode 2. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. ANS: 10 5. can use reflected infrared beams d. within 10 feet c. ANS: Post 4. 10 meters ANS: A 19.
ANS: 1 watt 7. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. ANS: 1 meter . ANS: ISM 8. ANS: piconet 9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. ANS: piconets 10. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________.
0.02 dB c. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. Scattering causes: a. Compared to the core. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. none of the above c. in an explosive environment b. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. both a and b d. all of the above . A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. zero loss ANS: C 8. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. none of the above ANS: B 5. 40 dB per km c. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. less b. 0. generate EMI d. modal dispersion b. glass b. all of the above c. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. dispersion ANS: A 7. waveguide dispersion d.4 dB per km b. loss b. 1 dB c.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. plastic ANS: A 4. intersymbol interference d. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. 4 db per km d. greater d. carry current b. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. the same c. all of the above c.
Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. Avalanche Photodiode b. 0. Avalanche Photo Detector d.2 db ANS: A d. a photon d. 0. 1 dB b. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. responsivity is measured in: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. Advanced Photo Detector c. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. ST c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. dark current b. 3 dB ANS: B 10. baseline current c. ANS: reflection c. mA per joule b. For a light detector. E-H current ANS: C 15. LASER stands for: a. amps per watt c. SC d. In a PIN diode.02 dB c. 0. SMA b. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The quantum of light is called: a. APD stands for: a. In the core. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. µW per amp d. a phonon .2 db d. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. an e-v ANS: C 12. 3 dB 9. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.b. zero-point current d. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. an erg b.
. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. In multimode fiber. ANS: Intersymbol 13. ANS: energy 5. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.2. ANS: infrared 9. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. ANS: linewidth 11. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: time 12. ANS: loose-tube 14. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: cladding 3. ANS: graded 10. ANS: internal 7. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. ANS: intramodal 8. ANS: sine 6. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. With optical fiber. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. ANS: critical 4. For laser diodes. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth.
ANS: look . ANS: pigtail 16. ANS: single 17. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. For safety. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. ANS: laser 18. ANS: photon 19.ANS: tight-buffer 15. ANS: PIN 20. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
Frequency-Division Data Interface . DWDM stands for: a. none of the above c. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. type of particle ANS: C 7. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. type of optical network c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. FITL stands for: a. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Synchronous Optical Network d. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. defect in the glass b. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. bit-synch d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. gain margin c. Simple Optical Network b. Fiber In The Loop b. FDDI stands for: a. A Soliton is a: a. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. FTTC stands for: a. SONET stands for: a. bit stuffing c. type of pulse d. WDM ANS: A 8. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. excess gain c. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. SDH b.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.
Optical Channel one d. In SONET. high-speed Ethernet d. common b. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. FDDI c. obsolete d. Typically. experimental ANS: B 14. OTDR stands for: a. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. FDDI c. Optical Carrier level one b. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. STS stands for: a. OC-1 stands for: a. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. 10 km ANS: C 10. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. Synchronous Transmission System c. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. all of the above ANS: D 13. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Optical Time-Division Relay c. FTTC d. system margin ANS: B d. gigabit Ethernet b. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. Optical Time-Delay Response b. 100 miles d. overdrive 9. ANS: Curb 2. Optical Cable type 1 . 1000 miles c. 100 km b.b. not possible c. In SONET. FITL b. Synchronous Transport Signal b. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. c.
ANS: Distributed 7. ANS: stuffing 12. ANS: token 14. ANS: Hierarchy 4. ANS: Wavelength 5. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. ANS: Synchronous 6. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface.84 11. ANS: erbium 8. ANS: opposite . ANS: pointer 13. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.ANS: Loop 3. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: pump 9. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: WDM 10. ANS: 51. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.
ANS: 810 20. ANS: 4 23. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. In SONET. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: node 16. ANS: transport 25. ANS: 1 24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. ANS: 9 22. ANS: 100 M 18.15. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: multi 17. ANS: 774 21. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: overhead 19. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1.
1 MHz 2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter.6 nanoseconds . ANS: 86. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. receiver.
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