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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude c. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. ANS: greater larger wider 8. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. The more information per second you send. ANS: channel 5. frequency. ANS: bandwidth 7. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band. ANS: FDM 9. In ____________________. ANS: TDM 10. The part. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude. or parts. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. frequency. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. In ____________________. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. ANS: 1901 3. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. ANS: base 4. .25. ANS: 1863 2. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. its amplitude. ANS: zero 6. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. and direction b. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________. the ____________________ the bandwidth required.
ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: 300 13. ANS: wavelength 14. In free space.ANS: very high 11. ANS: Source. Channel. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: Fourier 17. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: solar 19. Destination 2. Receiver. . Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. Transmitter. For satellite communications. ANS: 30 12. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. Mathematically. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. ANS: 300 million 15. Name five types of internal noise. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second.
. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. the output of which is a noise current. Find the total NF for the pair. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.ANS: Thermal. both across the same 100-ohm load. ANS: 5. Find NF. Likewise. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. NF = 100 8. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. 4. 1/f.5 9. ANS: 1. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. both in dB and as a ratio. Partition. ANS: 20 dB. Find its noise figure. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage. ANS: 50 µV 6. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. Calculate the total noise voltage. 5. Shot. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. Likewise. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum.4 10. transit-time 3.
the Miller Effect is due to: a. A real capacitor actually contains: a. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. In a BJT. charge time b. using a common-emitter amplifier b. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. inductance of collector lead b. The "Miller Effect" can: a. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. reduce the Miller effect c. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. both a and b d. used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. inductance. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. base-to-collector capacitance c. base-to-emitter capacitance d. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. transit time d. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. neutralize amplifiers d. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. it cannot be avoided c. capacitance and resistance only b. capacitance. have no effect on Q c. none of the above c. and resistance d. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. reactance only . "multiply" the Q d. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. base time c. a simple form of bandpass filter b. Miller time ANS: B 2. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. all of the above c. A resonant circuit is: a.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.
transformer coupling d. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. a nonlinear circuit b. lumped reactance ANS: B 10. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. RC coupling c. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. impedance matching is usually done with: a. direct coupling b. a tapped inductor b. a signal containing harmonics d. a modified Hartley oscillator b. In RF amplifiers. decoupling it d. the Bode criteria b. none of the above ANS: A 11. an RC time constant d. the Hartley criteria d. but at just one frequency d. both a and b. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15. only built with FETs c. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. a linear amplifier c. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. loop gain equal to unity b. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. an RC time constant d. the loop-gain criteria c. it requires: a. a piezoelectric crystal . The Clapp oscillator is: a. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. a piezoelectric crystal c. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b.9. a tapped inductor b. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. none of the above ANS: C 13. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16.
used in tuner circuits d. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. contains the input frequencies c. At UHF frequencies and above. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. A varactor is: a. all of the above ANS: D 19. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. are fed to a mixer. none of the above ANS: A 20. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". c. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: short 2. all of the above 18. the output: a. the output: a. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b.17. does not contain the input frequencies d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . a voltage-controlled capacitor b. "VFO" stands for: a. a diode ANS: D c. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. Generally. If two signals. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. In a balanced mixer. used for a precise frequency b. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a fixed-frequency RF generator d.
a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: capacitive 13. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. it is called a ____________________. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. ANS: shielding 5. parallel . The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e.g. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. collector current). A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. In high-frequency RF circuits. ANS: bypass 8. ANS: Q 9. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: series.ANS: distributed 3. ANS: components 6. Electrically. ANS: ground-plane 4. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. ANS: 10 10. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. ANS: tuned circuit 11. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: neutralization 12. In a class C RF amplifier.
ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1.4 µH 2. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. 5. V1 and V2. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. V2 is a 5MHz signal.05% 7. 0. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer.14. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. At some bias point. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0. ANS: linear 15. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. To produce sum and difference frequencies. Two sinusoidal signals. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz.1 4.
8. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.
distortion b. Overmodulation causes: a. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. Audio Modulation b. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). splatter ANS: C 6. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. The modulation index. m = Emax / Emin d. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. both a and b d. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. 1. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. the amplitude signal d. the carrier signal ANS: A 3. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. it will produce the frequencies: a. is: a.414 × carrier power c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. none of the above ANS: A 8. none of the above c. the total sideband power is: a.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Angle Modulation d. At 100% modulation. m = Emin / Emax c. equal to the carrier power c. the baseband signal b. none of the above c. twice the carrier power d. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. AM stands for: a. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). m = Va / Vc d. m. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. m = ωa / ωc c. is: a. m. half the carrier power b. then the modulation index. Antenna Modulation . (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d.
1. AM is susceptible to noise c. single-carrier b. PEP stands for: a. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. requires too much power d. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. the time-domain signal b. both a and b d.005 MHz b. 0 watts ANS: D 17. all of the above ANS: D 14. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. 250 watts b. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. The modulation index can be derived from: a. sideband-carrier d. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. SSB AM: a. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. 10 kHz d. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. none of the above . Peak Envelope Product d. none of the above ANS: B 10. requires too much bandwidth c. all of the above ANS: D 11. requires less bandwidth d. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the received RF signal to increase d. Peak Envelope Power b. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. As compared to plain AM. none of the above c. 5 kHz c. none of the above c. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. 1000 watts c. all of the above ANS: C 13. 500 watts d.ANS: C 9. is more efficient b. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. you would expect: a.
all of the above ANS: C 18. The total modulation index is: a. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. audio c. the information in the LSB is ____________________. ANS: envelope 4. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. Compared to the USB. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. ANS: the same 6. ANS: inefficient 3. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. reinsert the carrier d. ANS: two 5. ANS: the same . sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1.b. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. commercial AM stations use low power c. m1 + m2 c. all of the above ANS: D 19. the power in the LSB is ____________________. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. digital data b. video d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. In AM. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. be set to USB mode c. the receiver must: a. ANS: simple 2. Compared to the USB. both a and b b.
ANS: 1010 kHz 12.7. ANS: less 8. ANS: one 10. and 0. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. In AM. In AM.3. what is the power in the USB at 70. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation.5. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation.707 4. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________. the carrier power _________________________. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz. as the modulation index increases.6 .4. With a 1-MHz carrier.7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. 0. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0. ANS: remains constant 9. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. In AM. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1.
If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna.5. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts .
National Broadcast FM b. it is band-limited at the receiver d. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. Bessel functions d. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. fractals ANS: B 5. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. Near Band FM d. the threshold effect d. Taylor series b. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. the limit effect ANS: B c. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. the capture effect c. Carson's Rule d.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. Armstrong's Rule b. Mathematically. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. it is called: a. The FM modulation index: a. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. none of the above . it is equal to the frequency deviation c. is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. the noise effect b. Narrowband FM c. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. NBFM stands for: a. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a.
the "two-station" effect b. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12.8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. ANS: data c. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. is not compatible with mono FM . can use amplitude modulation b. is monaural d. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. ANS: angle 2. only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. none of the above ANS: A 9. An SCA signal: a. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. all of the above c. the capture effect c. the time delay between the L and R channels d. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the threshold effect d. FM stereo: a.
as the modulating frequency decreases. . In FM. ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: better 4. ANS: any number 12. ANS: C 6. ANS: frequency 9. Mathematically. ANS: amplitude 8. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. the modulation index ____________________. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. ANS: wider greater 5. the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. ANS: infinite 10. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. Compared to AM. ANS: increases 13.3. their power ____________________. ANS: decreases 14. Compared to AM. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. In FM. ANS: decreases 11. Mathematically. the modulation index ____________________. As the FM modulation index increases. as the frequency deviation decreases. In FM.
FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. such as 2. ANS: Bessel 18. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1.ANS: increases 15. The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule. 1-kHz audio signal? .4. ANS: capture 20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. ANS: threshold 19. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. ANS: Carson's 17. For certain values of mf.
Using a spectrum analyzer. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. For example.5. . Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. At a modulation index of 2. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9.2 watt) 8. At a modulation index of 2.1.5. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. 5. Using Carson's rule. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7.4 watts 6.4. At a modulation index of 2.ANS: 2 5. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. then δ is 11 kHz.
is a measure of efficiency c. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. VFO b. all of the above c. Accurate Level Control d. keep the modulation close to 100% b. Amplitude Level Control b. minimum RF power is required d. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. ALC is used to: a. With low-level AM: a. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. all of the above ANS: D 3. agility c. maximize transmitted power d. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. heats the transmitter d. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. all of the above c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. ALC stands for: a. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. In an AM transmitter. none of the above . expansion d. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. With high-level AM: a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. none of the above ANS: B 4. a smaller number of signals d. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. Baseband compression produces: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. may require water cooling b. With high-level AM: a. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c.
essentially pulse-duration modulation c. noninductive d. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. very efficient c.ANS: C 9. all of the above ANS: B 17. both a and b b. the resistor must be: a. the modulating amplifier c. the RF amplifier d. is complex c. pi network c. "high-level" refers to: a. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. all of the above ANS: B 10. 300 ohms resistive b. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. a heavy load c. a test load ANS: B 16. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. the power level of the carrier b. a temporary load b. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. the resistor is called: a. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. a dummy load d. the carrier ANS: A 12. none of the above ANS: C 13. 75 ohms resistive d. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. A Class D amplifier is: a. none of the above . has variable frequency b. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. 1% tolerance or better b. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. the driver stage b. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. wire-wound c. has variable amplitude d. In high-level AM. In high-level AM. 50 ohms resistive c. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. T network d.
b. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. the carrier frequency can be raised b. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. AFC stands for: a. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. With mixing: a. none of the above c. both a and b d. To generate a SSB signal: a. The carrier is suppressed in: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. none of the above ANS: C 21. Frequency multipliers are: a. a frequency multiplier d. A direct FM modulator: a. essentially balanced modulators b. integrates the modulating signal c. none of the above ANS: A 22. none of the above 20. both a and b b. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. none of the above ANS: B 23. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. both a and b d. a mechanical filter c. a crystal filter d. start with a quadrature signal d. An indirect FM modulator: a. start with full-carrier AM b. Automatic Frequency Control d. all of the above c. essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. Audio Frequency Control . a mixer ANS: A d. essentially mixers d. a balanced modulator b. all of the above c.
ANS: expansion 8. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. a ____________________ stage is used. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: agility 5. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. In the USA. In Canada.d. ANS: carrier 2. ANS: compression 9. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. ANS: FCC 3. ANS: PEP 6. ALC is a form of ____________________. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. ANS: compression 7. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ANS: Industry Canada 4. ANS: linear 11. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. . Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________. ANS: efficiently 10.
ANS: harmonic 16. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: T 15. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: D 21. ANS: mismatch 17. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. To generate a SSB signal. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. ANS: duration 20. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. ANS: receiver 18. To allow a high modulation percentage.ANS: buffer 12. ANS: 50 14. it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. ANS: DSBSC . ANS: higher 13. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. ANS: driver 19. ANS: mixing 22.
what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. ANS: reactance 25. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . Assuming high-level modulation. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2.23. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. To pass the USB. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75.001%.005 MHz 6.8% 3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. ANS: phase 24. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz.
If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. .7. ANS: First.
none of the above ANS: C 5. indeterminate frequency d. "Skin effect" refers to: a. Trimmers and padders are: a. Armstrong b. two types of adjusting tools b. Audio Gain Control b. AGC stands for: a. image frequency c.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Foster c. Hertz ANS: C 3. "IF" stands for: a. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. Seeley d. the tuner b. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. Active Gain Control d. small adjustable capacitors . the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. Active Gain Conversion c. the spurious response and the tracking d. is above the RF frequency c. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. all of the above c. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the mixer d. intermediate frequency b. small adjustable inductors d. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d.
none of the above c.707 is ideal ANS: C 13. it increases sensitivity c. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. Phase distortion is important in: a. voice communications systems b. the mixer b. color video receivers ANS: B c. the detector ANS: D 15. with two signals close in frequency. is fixed. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. selectivity measures: a. When comparing values for shape factor: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. ANS: C 9. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. all of the above c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d.b. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. all of the above c. a value of 1. is below the RF frequency c. both values are basically equivalent d. the IF amplifiers d. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. When comparing values for shape factor: a. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. a value of 0. sensitivity measures: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. a value of 1. there is no ideal value . it increases selectivity d. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. monochrome video receivers d. Basically.414 dB is ideal b. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. Basically.0 is ideal d. typically at 455 kHz. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b.
none of the above ANS: C 20. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. a diode ANS: D c. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. enter the mixer. the AGC c. ratio detector ANS: D 22. noise generated in the receiver d. PLL b. a PLL b. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. all of the above ANS: C 23. PLL b. prior to mixing b.16. images cannot be rejected . quadrature detector d. the dynamic range of the receiver b. a product detector c. a BFO d. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. are transmitted on the same frequency b. An image must be rejected: a. An FM detector is the: a. A common AM detector is the: a. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. envelope detector ANS: B 21. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. enter the mixer. enter the mixer. all of the above c. ratio detector d. they are faster than silicon diodes b. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. A common SSB detector is: a. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. all of the above c. prior to detection d. the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17.
Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. to remove amplitude variations b. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. a quadrature detector d. to limit noise response c. carrier detection b. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. Low-Noise Audio d. Audio Frequency Compensator b. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. envelope detection d. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. BFO stands for: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. Foster-Seeley detector c. The function of a limiter is: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. ratio detection . a PLL detector b. squelch d. coherent detection ANS: B 27. reinject the carrier c. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. AGC c. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. maintain a constant IF frequency b. you need to: a. use double conversion d. all of the above ANS: C 28. limiting ANS: B 30. to limit dynamic range d. AFC b.24. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26. Automatic Frequency Control d. LNA stands for: a. The function of AFC is: a. AFC stands for: a. Autonomous Frequency Control c.
all of the above ANS: C 36. DSP stands for: a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d.c. The important property of a SAW is: a. it is a stable bandpass filter d. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Digital Signal Processor c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. none of the above ANS: B 33. SINAD stands for: a. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. Dynamic Signal Properties b. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. Distorted Signal Packet d. ANS: superheterodyne 2. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. TRF stands for: a. Tuned Radio Frequency b. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. The main function of the AGC is to: a. none of the above c. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Tuned Receiver Function c. c. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. SAW stands for: a. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. Software-Activated Wave .
ANS: intermediate IF 9. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: autodyne 11. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. In a receiver. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. ANS: AGC 10. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. ANS: mixer 8. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. ANS: 1918 6.ANS: 1887 3. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. ANS: front end 7. In low-side injection. ANS: skin 5. the other changes with it. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: lower 12. ANS: track 4. In a superhet. ANS: Selectivity 13. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. ANS: Sensitivity . In a superhet. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency.
While still commonly found. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. ANS: coherent 21. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. ANS: detector 17. ANS: obsolescent 23. ANS: amplitude 24. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: gate 25. ANS: product 19. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: noisy 26. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. Unlike the PLL detector. ANS: conversion 15. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. .14. ANS: image 16. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________. ANS: S 22. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. ANS: carrier 20. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals.
Compared to tuned circuits. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. ANS: fixed constant 32. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. In a block converter. Typically. ANS: stagger 29. ANS: IF 33. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. ANS: S 34. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: higher 31. ANS: limiting 35. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ANS: over 28. ANS: adjustment 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal.ANS: A 27.
What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0.01 . what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.06 7. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5.20 kHz 2.5 MHz.25 4. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1. Assuming high-side injection.
The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. Hartley's Law is: a. Natural Sampling does not use: a. I = ktB b.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. an analog-to-digital converter c. In digital transmission. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. true binary numbers ANS: A c. TDM stands for: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. a fixed sample rate d. Ten-Digital Manchester d. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. I = ktB b. The Shannon Limit is given by: a. Ten Dual-Manchester c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. The first digital code was the: a. a sample-and-hold circuit b. I = ktB b. signal degradation can be removed using: a. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. Morse code d. I = ktB b. ASCII code b. all of the above ANS: C 3. Time-Division Multiplexing b. SR = 2fmax c. a filter d. a regenerative repeater b. Baudot code ANS: C 2. SR = 2fmax c. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. none of the above . SR = 2fmax c. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. SR = 2fmax c. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. an amplifier c.
decreases as the sample rate increases b. PPM b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. companding uses: a. b. Companding is used to: a. In North America. noise b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. PDM c. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. PDM c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. none of the above ANS: A 15. the µ Law (mu law) c. PPS ANS: D 13.9. all of the above . a sample alias b. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. You can have one or the other. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. They are the same thing. They are two types of sampling error. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. The immediate result of sampling is: a. the A Law c. ANS: D 10. the α Law (alpha law) d. PCM d. PAM ANS: B 12. d. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. PWM d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. too few samples per second d. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. but not both. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. the Logarithmic Law b. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d.
all of the above c. Compared to PCM. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. the µ Law (mu law) . A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. unipolar NRZ b. the A Law ANS: B 18. Codec stands for: a. can suffer slope overload d. the signal does not change d. is a biphase code b. 12-bit numbers b. Code-Compression d. Coder-Decoder b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. none of the above c. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. 4-bit numbers c. Compared to PCM. AMI c. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. "granular noise" is produced when: a. the α Law (alpha law) d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. companding uses: a. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. the Logarithmic Law b. Manchester d. transmits fewer bits per sample b. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. the signal changes too rapidly c. Manchester coding: a. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. In Europe. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. provides strong timing information d. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. delta modulation: a. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d.ANS: D 17. only over shorter distances b. all of the above ANS: D 25. the bit rate is too high b. In delta modulation.
56 kb/s b. 24 d. A T-1 cable uses: a. 8 k c. 8 29. 48 c. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. carry signaling ANS: C 27. A typical T-1 line uses: c. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 2 ANS: A 26. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 1 b. The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 12 ANS: B 34. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 1. pulse-width coding c. NRZ coding d. detect errors b.544 MB/s c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 2 ANS: D c. all of the above c. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a.a. In DS-1. 64 kb/s d. 8 c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. detect errors b. 8 kb/s . 1. 56 k d. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. 64 k b. all of the above c. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 6 b. 56 kb/s d. 4 d. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 4 d. 1 b.544 × 106 ANS: A 30.544 Mb/s b. Manchester coding b. 1.
a. twisted-pair wire b. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. ringing d. ANS: digitized 4. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. much better c. To send it over an analog channel. Compared to standard PCM systems. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. ANS: binary . a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. an analog signal must first be ____________________. ANS: modulated 3. coaxial cable ANS: A 35. In analog channels. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. A vocoder implements compression by: a. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. microwave c. on-hook/off-hook condition b. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases. all of the above 36. busy signal ANS: D c. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. fiber-optic cable d. ANS: improved better 2. somewhat better d. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. To send it over a digital channel. about the same b.
the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. ANS: Foldover . ANS: Hartley's 12. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: correct 8. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: Time 10. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. Ignoring noise. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format.6. ANS: Natural 15. ANS: Nyquist 16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ANS: Shannon 14. and bandwidth. information capacity. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. ANS: regenerative 7. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time. ANS: limited 11. ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. ANS: error noise 9.
In Europe.17. ANS: Aliasing 18. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. ANS: 12 26. ANS: higher . the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. In North America. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: µ mu 23. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. ANS: Pulse-code 20. ANS: codec 25. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: Companding 22. ANS: A 24. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: amplitude 19. In a PCM system. ANS: 1 one 27. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: Quantizing 21.
There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. In AMI. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.28. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast. In DS-1. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. ANS: timing 37. ANS: zeros 35. . ANS: Granular 29. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ANS: framing 39. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. ANS: 24 38. ANS: step 31. In delta modulation. ANS: 8000 40. ANS: transition 36. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. ANS: half 32. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. ANS: DC 33. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: slope 30. ANS: polarity 34.
ANS: sixth 43.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. What is the approximate dynamic range. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it. ANS: 5 seconds 2.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. in dB. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. ANS: superframe 42. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.544 × 106 41. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame.ANS: 1. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. From a group of twelve frames.
ANS: 64 kbps 7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame. what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.833 volt . Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.388 volt? ANS: 0.
Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. trunk lines ANS: B 7. Private Office Telephone System b. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Primary Operational Test System d. Local Area Transport Access c. a central office d. Central offices are connected by: a. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. Plain Old Telephone Service c. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. a local calling area b. an interexchange office c. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. none of the above c. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. Primary Service Telephone Network d. POTS stands for: a. A LATA is a: a. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. Local loops terminate at: a. DTMF stands for: a. Local Area Telephone Access d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. local loops b. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . occurs only on long-distance cables d. Call blocking: a. a toll station ANS: C 8. PSTN stands for: a. LATA stands for: a. a tandem office b. Local Access and Transport Area b. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. a way of accessing a tandem office d. both a and b d. Public Switched Telephone Network b. a way of accessing a central office c.
twisted-pair copper wire b. 48 volts DC c. 48 volts. 90 volts DC b. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. common control b. reduce crosstalk d. Power-On Protocol d. fiber-optic c. only when it is ringing c. crossbar control d. when it is on hook b. In telephony. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. ESS ANS: C 16. coaxial cable d. 20 hertz AC d. Post Office Protocol b. DC current flows through a telephone: a. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. Loading coils were used to: a. 20 µA to 80 µA c. FITL stands for: a. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a.ANS: D 9. Framing In The Loop d. 200 µA to 800 µA d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. 90 volts. 2 mA to 8 mA b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. none of the above . The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. POP stands for: a. step-by-step switching control c.
48 volts DC b. via net loss d. volume net loss ANS: C 20. voltage net loss b. 24 b. mastergroups ANS: D 24. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. DSBSC d. voice is put on a carrier using: a. jumbogroups d. SSB c. voice noise level . PDM b. eliminate reflections c. PCM ANS: A 25. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. 20 hertz AC 18. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. 1 mW b. 1 pW d. 90 volts DC d. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. 6 c.a. all of the above ANS: C 19. prevent "singing" d. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. 48 volts. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. 12 d. prevent oscillation d. allow signals to be multiplexed b. supergroups b. PABX stands for: a. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. 90 volts. 60 ANS: B 23. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. VNL stands for: a. 0 dBr c. all of the above c. In telephone system FDM.
ANS: LATA 2. provide synchronization b. Integrated Services Data Network d. ISDN stands for: a. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. frame alignment c. it took to long to develop b. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. much faster c. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. A ____________________ is a local calling area. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. Access to Data Services Line . SLIC stands for: a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. justification d. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. much more expensive b. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. cancel echoes d. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. c. In DS-1. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. check for errors c. Compared to ISDN. compensation b. it is too slow c. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1.26. Information Systems Digital Network 30. all of the above ANS: D 31. rectification ANS: C 29. about the same speed d. ADSL stands for: a.
ANS: ring 11. ANS: ten 5. . In a twisted-pair telephone cable. With 7-digit phone numbers. the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: flat 9. ANS: Loading 10. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other. ANS: green 13. ANS: digital 7. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. ANS: twisted-pair 8. ANS: blocking 6. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. ANS: tandem 4. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. the green wire is called ____________________. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. Of the red and green 'phone wires. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. As compared to a hierarchical network. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: tip 12. ANS: seized 14.ANS: trunk 3. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone.
ANS: 56 . In a crosspoint switch. ANS: large 18. ANS: suppressor 22. the modulation is usually ____________________. amplifiers are called ____________________. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. ANS: C-message 23. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. ANS: lines 17. ANS: repeaters 21. ANS: DTMF 19. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. In the telephone system. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: conditioned 20. ANS: guard 25. In FDM telephony. In FDM telephony.ANS: BORSCHT 15. Because of "bit robbing". ANS: hybrid 16. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group.
SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. ANS: in-channel 29. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . In ISDN. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1. For a certain telephone. In ISDN. ANS: packet 31. If the loop current is 40 mA. ANS: B 33. In ADSL. ANS: asymmetrical 35. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: common-channel 30. ANS: stuff 28. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. ANS: superframe 27. ANS: D 32. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. In DS-1C. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: TE1 34.26.
what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . If the loop current is 40 mA. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. ANS: 1 dB 5. For a certain telephone. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook.
and CR are examples of: a. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. character codes b. Emile Baudot . both a and b c. Line Forward c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code 2 d. graphic control characters d. they do not have any other name d. In practical terms. Western Union d.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. control characters d. over any distance b. none of the above c. binary data d. LF stands for: a. BS. all of the above ANS: B 5. Character codes include: a. numerical data b. nonstandard character codes b. alphanumeric characters b. Data codes are also called: a. FIGS data c. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. character sets ANS: C 4. over short distances only c. American Standard Character-set 2 b. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. FF. the Morkum Company b. Line Feed c. usually over long distances d. escape characters ANS: C 8. all of the above c. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2. data link control characters ANS: D 6. parallel data transmission is sent: a. ASCII stands for: a.
Link Feed ANS: A d. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. In asynchronous transmission. 128 bytes long d. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. the clock bits c. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. the transmitter and receiver are: a. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. equal to zero c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. much longer than asynchronous frames c. the channel must be noise-free . the CRC bits b. the data bits d. all of the above ANS: A 14. Unaltered Received Text d. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. UART stands for: a. the frames are: a.b. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. the time between consecutive frames is: a. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. In asynchronous transmission. not synchronized at all. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. In synchronous transmission. Link Forward 9. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. equal to one bit-time d. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. not a set length ANS: D 12. In synchronous transmission.
automatic request for queue c. "bit-stuffing" b. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. Fixed Error Control b. Control Receiver Code b. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. BISYNC: a. ARQ is used to: a. all of the above . VRC is another name for: a. automatic request for resynchronization b. FEC b. FEC stands for: a. parity c. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. Huffman codes: a.ANS: A 16. Forward Error Correction d. automatic receiver queue d. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. ARQ c. requires the use of DLE d. put data into a temporary buffer d. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. LRC d. CRC stands for: a. HDLC: a. False Error Condition c. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. all of the above c. Cycle Repeat Character c. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. none of the above c. FEC d. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. correct bit errors b. ARQ ANS: D 23. is identical to SDLC d. is an IBM product b. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. is an IBM product b. Cyclic Redundancy Check d.
all of the above c. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. SDLC stands for: a. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. none of the above . Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. an ISO standard d. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. ANS: character 4. correct data d. Synchronous Data Link Character d. Synchronous Data Link Control b. Synchronous Data Line Character c. ANS: short 2. a bit-oriented protocol b. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. ANS: Baudot 3. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. HDLC is: a. compress data ANS: B 26. all of the above c. Public-key encryption: a. allows the use of digital signatures b. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. avoids the "password problem" d. ANS: FF c. Run-length encoding is used to: a.d. ANS: ASCII 5. encrypt data b.
ANS: buffers 11. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. ANS: transitions 13. ANS: start 7. ANS: stop 8. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: efficient 12. In HDLC. At the end of an asynchronous frame. ANS: 01111110 17. the line will be at the ____________________ level. ANS: flag 16. . An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read. ANS: mark binary 1 9. In the ____________________ protocol. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. ANS: BISYNC 15. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. ANS: data 14. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ANS: UART 10. BCC stands for ____________________ check character. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.6. When receiving digital data.
ANS: stuffing 20. ANS: password 28. public-key encryption can be slow. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: decrypted 30. . CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. DLE stands for data link ____________________. ANS: escape 19. ANS: even 24. ANS: compression 26. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. ANS: forward 22. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: cipher 27. ANS: burst 25. ANS: long 29. ANS: ARQ 23.ANS: block 18. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: Burst 21. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. Because it is ____________________-intensive.
What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3. what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5. ANS: 66. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1.7% 6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits).0% . and two stop bits (it could happen). Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. ANS: 97. a parity bit. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.
each channel carries only one data stream c. CSMA stands for: a. Carrier Server Master Application d. not as widely used c. all of the above ANS: B 7. Collision Detection d. node d. token ANS: C 8. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. Dumb terminals are still used: a. Carrier Detection b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Most LANs: a. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. Collision Delay c. a very large CSMA/CD network d. slower c. none of the above ANS: B 6.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In a circuit-switched network: a. use UTP cable d. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. Client-Server Multi-Access b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. all of the above c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. token-passing rings are: a. not really a network at all c. communication is half-duplex only b. Each computer on a network is called a: a. The Internet is: a. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. circuit c. a network of networks b. hub b. are based on Ethernet b. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. in token-passing networks b. none of the above .
MAU stands for: a. more expensive ANS: D d. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. the network goes down b. On networks. Multistation Access Unit b. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a.3 c. excess traffic b. nodes c. a central bus d. contention d. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. a collision c. contention d. nodes d. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. users d. multiple access ANS: A 13. it is called: a. none of the above c. excess traffic b. multiple access ANS: B 12. CSMA c. data is lost . In an Ethernet-based network. EIA 232 c. Ethernet d. a collision c. a central ring c. token-passing b. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. tokens ANS: A 11. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. all of the above 9. none of the above ANS: D 10. a node b. IEEE 802. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. the network slows down ANS: B 16. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. collisions ANS: D 15. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. the cable overheats d. it is called: a. The effect of too many collisions is: a. carriers b. packets c. packets b.b.
Manchester encoding c. fiber-optic cable b. all of the above ANS: C 23. RG-58U coaxial cable d. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. Network Interface Card b. NRZ encoding b. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. to increase the data rate b.1 ANS: C 18. 50-ohm coaxial cable . the cable carries baseband signals b. none of the above ANS: A 22. INTEL ANS: C d. to increase the data rate b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. CCITT ITU-E c. Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. Ethernet was invented by: a. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. all of the above ANS: C 24. an RJ45 connector c. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. NIC stands for: a. Network Interface Code d. Network Internal Code c. IEEE 488. a BNC connector c. IBM b. Xerox d. Three-Level encoding d.b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d.
all of the above ANS: C 31. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. use coaxial cables c. UTP stands for: a. CAT-5 cables: a. client-server networks d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. none of the above ANS: B . sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Broadband LANs: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. Unicode Text Packet 27. are cheaper c. it is faster when used in large networks c. both a and b b. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. peer-to-peer networks c. all of the above ANS: C 28. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. A hub: a. a T connector ANS: C 26. A switch: a. all of the above ANS: D 32. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29.b. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. modulate the data onto a carrier b. allow faster bit rates b. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. an RS11 connector c.
ANS: token 7.33. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. Novell certified ANS: C 35. ANS: networks 3. a PC with no disk drives b. store records securely on a server b. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. all of the above . multitasking b. ANS: topology 6. The Internet is a network of ____________________. UNIX-based c. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together. same as a "dumb" terminal d. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. ANS: Local 2. basically. In a ____________________-switched network. all nodes are connected to a central computer. Record locking is used to: a. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: packet c. ANS: circuit 5. In a ____________________ network. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. WINDOWS-based d. ANS: star 4. A "thin" client is: a. none of the above ANS: C 34.
ANS: backbone 13. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. ANS: length 16. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. In CSMA/CD. In CSMA/CD. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. ANS: minimum 15. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. all collisions must be ____________________. In CSMA/CD networks. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. ANS: address . ANS: stacked 19. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together.8. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. ANS: 100 mega 14. ANS: Contention 9. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: detected 11. one big hub. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. in effect. ANS: collision 10. ANS: NIC 17.
it can be disconnected and the network still functions. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1.20. It still works like a token-passing ring. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short. 5. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. What is a NIC address. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. 2. send a packet. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. 4. the entire network is inoperative. The collision would not be detected. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. . 3.
Systems Network Architecture c. network d. all of the above c. link layer d. physical layer ANS: D 7. user b. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. transport layer ANS: A 6.25 ANS: D c. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. all of the above c. error-check layer d.25 b. 3 b. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. cable layer b. Multiple Access Network . Manchester Access Network b. switched circuits ANS: A 3. Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. SNA stands for: a. link layer c. MAN stands for: a. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. Standard Network Architecture d. link layer ANS: C 8. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. 7 d. is faster than X. 5 ANS: C 5. physical layer c. allows for variable length packets d. Frame Relay: a. frame layer b. 8 c. real-time delivery d. does less error checking than X. Metropolitan-Area Network d. Packet switching is based on: a. Standard Network Access b.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. frame c. store-and-forward b.
Together. Automatic Test Mode 10. connection-oriented protocol b. operate at the data-link level d. datagrams c. 5 layers b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. IP is a: a. Internet Process b. User Data Packet d. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. IP stands for: a. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. ATM stands for: a. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. none of the above c. all of the above ANS: D 11. Transfer Connection Protocol d. A bridge: a. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. HTTP stands for: a. connectionless protocol d. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Transmission Control Process b. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. UDP stands for: a. TCP stands for: a. Interconnect Procedure . TCP/IP consists of: a.9. non-robust protocol c. Universal Data Packet c. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. an application and a process d. 7 layers ANS: A 14. looks at the address of each packet c. is essentially forever b. User Datagram Protocol b. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. separates a network into "collision domains" b. Interconnect Protocol d.
test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. a 32-bit binary number b. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. ISP stands for: a. dumb terminals b. File Transfer Protocol b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. HTML allows: a. HTML stands for: a. web page layout d. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. running out of available values d. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c. Fast Transport Packet c. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Internet Service Procedure d. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. FTP stands for: a. Short Message Transport Protocol b. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. none of the above . four groups of base-ten numbers c. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. HTTP allows the use of: a. none of the above c. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. Hypertext Markup Language b. browsers d. none of the above ANS: A 23. File Test Procedure d. file transport ANS: C 19. telneting b. SMTP stands for: a.b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Internet Service Protocol b. FTP is used to: a. all of the above c. all of the above c.
ANS: leased 4. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis. DNS stands for: a. ANS: Wide 3. a DNS c. a "firewall" b. Domain Naming System . Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. Open Systems Internet d. A DNS: a. Open Systems Interconnection b. a "brick wall" d. Domain Name Server b. stores all domain addresses d. c. ANS: forward 6. has become obsolete on the Internet b. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. translates words to numbers c. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. ANS: Metropolitan 2. none of the above c. Domain Numbering System d. OSI stands for: a. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a.ANS: D 26. ANS: switched 5. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
AFSK d. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. Full-Signal Keying d. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. none of the above c. bits d. too many bits low d. modulation index ANS: C 6. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. Phase-Signal Keying d. amperes per second ANS: C 5.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. FSK c. none of the above . the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. Pulse-Signal Keying b. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. number of possible states per symbol d. amperes b. PSK stands for: a. the eye is half open b. Full-Shift Keying b. QAM ANS: A c. PSK b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. I is measured in: a. too many bits high c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. intermodulation distortion b. bits per second c. M is the: a. In the equation I = ktB. FSK stands for: a. margin of noise b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye is maximally open c. Phase-Shift Keying c. maximum number of symbols per second c. QAM stands for: a.
noise and interference b. a training sequence d. 225. FSK c. IEEE d. angles of 0. ANSI c. amplitude and frequency c. ANS: B 16. angles of π/4. effects of noise on symbols d. FSK d. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. 180. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. a byte c. 1200 bps. full-duplex. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a.N. FSK ANS: A 14. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. amplitude and phase angle d. angles of 45. random bits c. a QPSK symbol contains: a. 90. half-duplex. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. To reduce the need for linearity. and 270 degrees c. full-duplex. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. FSK b. all of the above . For QAM. Gaussian bits b. a random sequence c. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. full-duplex. the U. International Telecommunications Units c. 4 bits d. 2π/4. International Telephony Unit b. 600 bps. The ITU is under the auspices of: a. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. and 315 degrees d. and 4π/4 b. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. a dibit b. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. 135. For QAM. low SNR d. Instead of a single bit. uneven phase and frequency response c. International Telecommunications Union d. frequency and phase angle b. 300 bps. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. 1200 bps. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. 3π/4. CCITT b.9. location of symbols in "symbol space" b.
data-compression schemes b. a modem would be: a. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. The V. MNP4. In RS-232. The official name for RS-232C is: a. signal ground is pin: a. flow control is done using: a. a DTE c. none of the above c. both a and b d. 7 ANS: C 26. none of the above c. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. a DTR b. 7 c. a DSR ANS: D 25. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. signal ground is pin: a. a DCE d. a DSR ANS: C 24.90 standard is issued by: a. 5 b. ISO-232C/D d.42 bis are both: a. 3 d. a DTR b. a personal computer would be: a. the ISO . 1 c. a DCE d. RTS/CTS handshake b. a DTE c. RS-232C b. the ITU d. and MNP10 are all: a. 1 c. both a and b d. MNP2. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. the EIA b. 3 d. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. MNP3. data-compression schemes b. MNP5 and V. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. ANSI-232C c. the TIA ANS: C 19. In RS-232.ANS: C 18. In RS-232. 5 b. none of the above c. both a and b d.
Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. XON and XOFF b. TD and RD b. Analog DSL d. RD. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. DSR. CTS. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. All DSL c. Asynchronous DSL b. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. Software flow control uses: a. TD and RD ANS: C 29. Cable Modem Transmission Server c. Data Signal Line b. HFC stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. TD. ADSL Lite b. RTS. +9 volts b. XON and XOFF b. TD. and signal ground d. DSR and DCD c. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. RTS and CTS d. and signal ground . Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. DSL stands for: a. Double-Speed Loop c. Hardware flow control uses: a. DSR and DCD c. ADSL d. Hybrid Fiber Control c. +15 volts c. +12 volts d. In a CATV system. Any DSL scheme c. TD and RD ANS: A 30. RD.ANS: D 27. ADSL stands for: a. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. none of the above c. RD. In a CATV system. Digital Subscriber Line d. TD. RTS and CTS d. Head Frequency Control b. Cable Modem Terminal System d. and signal ground ANS: B 28. CMTS stands for: a.
. The response to RTS is ____________________. ANS: dibit 8. ANS: Data 5. ANS: Send 2. ANS: Telecommunications 12. ANS: baud 7. RTS means Request To ____________________. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ANS: constellation 11. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. ANS: Keying 4. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. In QAM modems. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: four 9. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. ANS: Delta 10. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. ANS: Quadrature 6. The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: CTS 3.
ANS: tree 22. ANS: Equalization 14. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: CMTS 23. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. ANS: 20k 16. ANS: null 20. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. . ANS: Asymmetrical 21. ____________________ flow control is preferred. In RS-232. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: hardware 18. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: 54k 15. In a CATV system using cable modems. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: 3 19.ANS: Trellis 13.
Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol. ANS: DMT 27. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.ANS: Ranging 24. If half the modems are active at any given time. ANS: lite 26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. A DMT system uses 4. ANS: ADSL 25. ANS: 4000 2.
24 channels ANS: B 6. the bandwidth of each signal b. When calculating the maximum number of users.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. 32 channels d. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. Besides data bits. the signals come from different sources c. Code-Division Multiple Access b. 256 kbps d. T-bit ANS: D 8. CDMA stands for: a. timing bit b. In DS-1. 64 kbps c. framing bit c. none of the above . signaling bit d. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. 12 channels b. all of the above ANS: C 5. the length of the channel d. TDMA stands for: a. none of the above c. all the signals come from the same source b. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. the type of media used c. A DS-1 signal contains: a. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. every frame b. every twelfth frame c. every other frame c. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. Time Domain Multiple Access b.536 Mbps b. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. every sixth frame d. 1. 1. TDM is used in RF communications d. 64 channels c. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. Tone Division Multiple Access d.
time switching c. a CDMA receiver c. direct-sequence systems. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. TDM switch ANS: D 12. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. space switching d. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. use: a. a wideband receiver d. multiplexer b. much less bandwidth b. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. a narrowband receiver c. bandwidth of original baseband d. A digital space switch is a: a. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. spreading gain d. much more bandwidth d. time switching c.ANS: C 9. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio b. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. direct-sequence method d. RF gain b. crosspoint switch . computerized Strowger switch d. the chip size ANS: B 17. compared to standard RF systems. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. all of the above c. line switching b. space switching d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. all of the above c. about the same bandwidth c. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. To calculate processing gain. For a given data rate. a direct-conversion receiver b. direct-sequence method d. computer speed ANS: C 16. signal switching b.
Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. ANS: all 6.ANS: A 18. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. ANS: frequency . The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. For optimal performance. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. ANS: CDMA 3. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. ANS: all 4. CDMA requires the use of: a. CDMA: a. and ____________________. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. a narrowband receiver c. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. orthogonal PN sequences c. Using CDMA on a radio channel. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. a direct-conversion receiver b. ANS: time 7. a wideband receiver d. In TDM. cannot be used on an RF channel d. TDMA. true-random PN sequences b. ANS: share 2. ANS: part 5. In FDM.
ANS: 24 9. ANS: pseudo 18. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal. ANS: space 15. ANS: AMI 10. ANS: hopping 19. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.544 Meg 12. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. ANS: 1. . T1 uses the ____________________ line code. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: time 16. ANS: difficult 20. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. ANS: 8 13. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 193 11. ANS: Rayleigh 17.8. ANS: superframe 14. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.
What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. the higher the possible bit rate. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise.ANS: difficult 21. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal. 4. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. So the more bandwidth available. ANS: code 24. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. ANS: ten 23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. 2. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. 5. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: chips 22. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. by definition.
.). have no frequencies in common. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy. as it is in spread-spectrum. and so forth. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21.. f13.. f23. f12. If the two sets of frequencies. f12. and so forth. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. (f11. . f13.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. . then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.. 6.) and (f21. f22. f22. f23. At some point in time.. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission.
Total Distance of Reflection b. Time-Domain Response d.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. As frequency increases. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. the resistance of a wire: a. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. stays the same b. increases c. changes periodically ANS: A 6. an open-wire-line cable d. a coaxial cable b. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. I2R loss c. Transmission Delay Ratio c. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. the skin effect b. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. TDR stands for: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. As frequency increases. decreases d. increases c. When analyzing a transmission line. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. none of the above . all of the above c. equal reactances b. SWR stands for: a. decreases d. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. lumped c. stays the same b. the Ohmic effect d. distributed d. Shorted Wire Region d. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. Shorted Wave Radiation b. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. ideal elements ANS: B 5. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4.
would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. would reflect as a negative pulse c. all of the above c. For best matching. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. all of the above ANS: B 12. the wire resistance c. the load on a cable should be: a. the dielectric constant d. equal to Z0 b. increases with length b. The optimum value for SWR is: a. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. lower than Z0 c.ANS: D 9. none of the above . A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. there is no optimum value c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. zero b. the inductance per foot b. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. loss of power to load c. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. standing waves b. higher voltage peaks on cable d. increases with voltage d. one ANS: B 16. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14. as large as possible d. higher than Z0 d. would reflect as a positive pulse b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a.
none of the above . optimum length of a transmission line d. the characteristic impedance b. On a Smith Chart. would be more d. dividing it by 2π d. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. the current d. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. transmission line losses c.ANS: D 17. transmission line impedances b. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. would be the same b. assuming it to be zero c. VSWR stands for: a. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. by using a filter d. Compared to a 300-ohm line. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. by using a "balun" b. multiplying it by 2π b. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. variable SWR b. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. A TDR is commonly used to: a. zero c. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance b. is zero d. the voltage c. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. would be less c. voltage SWR d. none of the above ANS: C 25. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. none of the above ANS: D 24. one d. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. find the position of a defect in a cable c. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. directly c. the impedance b. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 .2 transmits 100 watts into the line. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1.5 8. If a cable has an SWR of 1. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable.7. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.5.2 9.
perpendicular to each other c. reuse of frequencies b. all of the above ANS: A 4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. Maxwell b. high antennas d. Hertz d. light ANS: D 6. none of the above ANS: C 7. TEM stands for: a. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. Marconi ANS: B 3.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. all of the above . the miniature cell-site d. Marconi ANS: C 2. all of the above ANS: C 5. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. Transverse Electromagnetic b. high-power microwave transmitters b. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. 3 × 106 meters per second c. In free space. Armstrong c. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. high power levels c. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. none of the above c. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. 300 × 10 meters per second d. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. Hertz d. radio waves b. True Electromagnetic d. Armstrong c. the microprocessor chip c. both a and b b. Maxwell b. gamma waves d.
the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. horizontal d. refraction c. a flat metallic surface of the right size d. all of the above ANS: D 10. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d.9. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. 2 d. vertical c. horizontal d. circular b. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. a ground-wave antenna d. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. none of the above . the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. reflection c. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. a flat body of water c. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. many ANS: B 12. 3 b. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. when using horizontally polarized waves c. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. below about 2 MHz b. vertical c. an isotropic radiator b. circular b. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. Ground waves are most effective: a. 1 c. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. at microwave frequencies d. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. EIRP stands for: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15.
A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. are same as space waves d. diffraction 18. Space waves are: a. line-of-sight b. reflected off the ionosphere c. the radio horizon d. repeaters ANS: D 25. close to the transmitter b. frequency diversity b. diffusion ANS: D d. fading b. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. diffraction d. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. multipath distortion d. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. Sky waves: a. send a message multiple times over a channel b. fading c. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. diffraction ANS: C 23. the reuse of frequencies c. extend the range of a radio communications system d. the power levels are increased c. in the "skip" zone . in the "silent" zone d. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a.b. are line-of-sight b. cancellation due to reflection c. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. the cell area is increased c. high power b. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. same as sky waves d. A "repeater" is used to: a. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. spatial diversity ANS: A 22.
the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . also called "ducting" d.b. ANS: Hertz 3. multiple receivers b. the number of channels is reduced 26. ANS: 300 × 106 5. ANS: Maxwell 2. both cells will handle the call b. a "funnel" receiver c. To receive several data streams at once. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. a "sectoring" process occurs d. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. not possible c. none of the above ANS: B 28. highest layer of the atmosphere b. ANS: transverse 4. a "handoff" process occurs c. the cell area is split ANS: B d. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. used for radio telephony b. ANS: photons 6. c. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. Unlike sound or water waves. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. The troposphere is the: a. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. a "rake" receiver d. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1.
With ____________________ polarization. ANS: perpendicular 13. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. ANS: perpendicular 14. ANS: 3 × 106 8. ANS: specular . a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter. ANS: isotropic 9. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. At a far distance from the source. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. ANS: plane 11. ANS: gain 16. ANS: electric 12. ANS: decrease 17. ANS: circular 15. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions.ANS: medium 7. ANS: sphere 10. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions.
ANS: reflected 26. ANS: Refraction 19. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ANS: diffraction 20. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ANS: skip 24. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. ANS: Ground 22. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. to reduce interference. ANS: multipath 25. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ANS: Sectoring 29. ANS: microprocessor . "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. each covering a third of the cell area. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. ANS: reuse 28. ANS: low 27. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area.18. ANS: Sky 23. ANS: Space 21.
approximately. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2. What. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt.SHORT ANSWER 1. what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. what is the power density 10. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4.9 km 5. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space.
a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. all of the above ANS: A 2. the SWR b. resonance ANS: A 7. the reflected signal d. active antenna b. from front to back c. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. one wavelength c. in all directions b. in one direction c.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. radiation resistance of the antenna b. none of the above . directivity c. SWR along the feed cable d. between half-power points d. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. 0 dB c. from +90° to –90° b. a Marconi antenna b. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. 10 dB b. selectivity d. Measured on the ground. a Yagi antenna d. one half-wavelength d. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. between the minor side-lobes c. the radiated signal c. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. infinite ANS: A 8. in two directions d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. 3 dB d.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
ANS: gain 16. ANS: vertical 20. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction.14. ANS: horizontal 18. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization. ANS: parasitic 25. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ANS: wider greater more 19. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. ANS: balun 17. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. . ANS: one 24. ANS: ground 22. ANS: effective 15. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna.
A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. ANS: collimated 29. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. ANS: horn 30. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. ANS: five 27. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. If an LPDA had five elements. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere .ANS: log-periodic 26. ANS: 475 millimeters 2. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. If an antenna has 10. ANS: focus 28. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4.
A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .6.
The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. all of the above c. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. 1 GHz d. none of the above ANS: A 4. TE 10 a. 10 GHz b. with a magnetic field probe c. is fixed b. 100 MHz c. TE 11 d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. it is dominant c. with an electric field probe d. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. TM 01 d. depends on the frequency it carries c. through a hole in the waveguide b. the point of signal injection b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. it is the only mode possible b. TM10 ANS: C 5. the power level of the signal d. above the microwave range d. the shape of the waveguide c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. TM11 b. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c. TE 01 b. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. same as the microwave range . below the microwave range b. 100 GHz ANS: B 2.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The UHF range is: a. TM 01 ANS: C 6. of its circular symmetry d. both b and c ANS: D 8. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. TE 01 c.
a "magic" TEE d. Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. Traveling-Wave Tube d. all of the above c. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. all of the above ANS: D 10. couple components on a circuit board d. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. separates signals among various ports d. A "circulator" is a device that: a. an H-plane TEE b. none of the above . prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. TWT stands for: a. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. gallium astenite d. gallium arsenide b. GaAs stands for: a. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. separates signals among various ports d. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. their directivity b. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. their coupling specification d. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. An "isolator" is a device that: a. gallium assembly ANS: A c. none of the above c. their insertion loss c. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. Transverse Wave Transmission b. antenna d.ANS: D 9. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. tuned circuit b. couple sections of waveguide b. none of the above c.
17. klystron d. all of the above c. remote detection and ranging . IMPATT stands for: a. RADAR uses: a. magnetron b. mechanical pressure d. slots c. an "exciter" signal 20. YIG ANS: B 23. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. Yagis d. none of the above c. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. YIG ANS: C 21. TWT c. RADAR stands for: a. radio ranging b. YIG stands for: a. Fresnel lenses b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. TWT c. TWT c. magnetron b. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. impact avalanche and transit time b. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. radio detection and ranging d. a magnetic field ANS: B c. continuous transmission ANS: D c. klystron d. an electric field b. magnetron b. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. YIG ANS: A 22. none of the above c. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. implied power at transmission terminal d. the Doppler effect d. all of the above ANS: A 24. pulsed transmission b. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. klystron d. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b.
ANS: TM01 7. In TE10 mode. ANS: high 8. In a waveguide. increases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. In TE20 mode. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. ANS: zero 3. ANS: electric 5. decreases with increasing pulse period b. ANS: two 6. ANS: dominant 4. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. In a waveguide. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. ANS: Dispersion 2. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. . none of the above ANS: B 27. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. In a circular waveguide. In a waveguide. ANS: faster 10. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1.26. ANS: slower 9. increases with increasing pulse duration c. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.
The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. ANS: hybrid 12. ANS: slot 18. ANS: patch 19. ANS: wave 16. ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: linear 17. ANS: resistance 15. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. . A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: cavity 14. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: high 13. ANS: smaller 20. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.ANS: decreases 11. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger.
8 6. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 14. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.ANS: 3 GHz 2. ANS: 15 km 7. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
a very narrow microwave beam b.99% ANS: D 4. 90% c. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. 2 watts c. noise level d. Too much antenna gain causes: a. LOS stands for: a. reliability c. jitter b. all of the above ANS: C 7. SSB ANS: D 3. skip b.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. Microwave systems use: a. 99. additional repeaters increase the: a. all of the above . additional repeaters increase the: a. all of the above ANS: B 6. FM b. Line-Of-Sight d.9% b. In digital microwave systems. hop d. jitter b. excessive noise d. 20 watts d. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. 99. QAM d. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. reliability c. noise level d. none of the above ANS: A 5. 99% d. Line-Of-Signal c. In analog microwave systems. Loss Of Skip b. 200 watts b. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. jump ANS: B 2. section c. jitter c.
always b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. all of the above c. all of the above . below 10 GHz c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. Microwave repeaters can be: a. it requires less power b. MMDS stands for: a. low level of transmitted power b. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. less bandwidth is required c. ducting d. multipath reception b. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. accumulation of noise is reduced d. IF type b. all of the above ANS: A 14. Fading is caused by: a. high level of ERP c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d.9. all of the above ANS: B 17. good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. regenerative type d. diversity c. power d. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. baseband type ANS: D 16. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. above 10 GHz d. high-gain antennas b.
ANS: studio 3. Local Microwave Distribution System b. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. LMDS stands for: a. bidirectional b. ANS: hop 2. LMDS is: a. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. ANS: year 4. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. multidirectional d. In digital microwave systems. ANS: noise density 7. ANS: jitter 5. One microwave link is called a ____________________. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. ANS: fading c. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. none of the above . Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d.b. ANS: temperature 6. In microwave systems.
The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. ANS: baseband 13. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. but ____________________ is bidirectional. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. what would it be. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. MMDS is unidirectional. approximately.4 meters 3. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. ANS: Repeaters 12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. ANS: ten 11. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. ANS: noise 14. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. ANS: space 9. ANS: diversity 10.8. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? .
Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. ANS: 201 K 5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal.ANS: –42. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB . The noise power is –100 dBm.4 dBm 4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K.
525 c. 25 c. 50 b. National Television Systems Commission b. 525 : 625 d. National Television Systems Council d. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. 60 ANS: D 7. 25 c. EIA b. NTSC stands for: a. Red-Green-Blue . chroma d. 30 d. 1024 b. RGB stands for: a. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. 3 : 4 b. IEEE ANS: C 3. 1250 ANS: A 5. raster c. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. IRE d. Red-Green Burst b. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 60 ANS: B 6. 625 : 525 c. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. brightness b. 625 d. National Television Systems Committee c. FCC c. 30 d. 50 b. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. contrast c. Red-Green Bandwidth d. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. Luminance refers to: a.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a.
in-phase color component. whiter than white b. Y I Q refers to: a. max white b. pic ANS: C 16. IRE units d. maintain horizontal sync b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. When measured in lines. quadrature phase color component b. is less than vertical resolution d. composite video signal. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. composite color signal. The maximum luminance level is called: a. horizontal resolution: a. blacker than black ANS: D 13. Luminance is measured in: a. black d. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. is about the same as vertical resolution c. dot b. is greater than vertical resolution b. foot-candles b. none of the above c. all white d. luminance signal. blacker than black ANS: B 12. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. whiter than white b. equalize the DC level d. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. NTSC units .ANS: A 9. quadrature video color component d. all of the above c. peak white ANS: B 11. whiter than white c. in-phase video component. In a color TV receiver. lumins ANS: C 10. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. white c. white c. in-phase color component. black d. pixel d. quadrature phase color component c.
the video transformer d. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. about the same c. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. SSB c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18. separate audio program b. Compared to a monochrome CRT. suppressed-carrier AM b. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. FM ANS: B 19. SSB c. vestigial sideband AM d. Compared to the luminance signal. vestigial sideband AM d. much lower b. the isolation transformer c. all of the above ANS: D 22. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. SSB c. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. FM ANS: C 21. sync amplitude pulse d. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c.17. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. about the same d. vestigial sideband AM d. much higher d. detect the presence of a color video signal b. sync audio pulse . suppressed-carrier AM b. the yoke ANS: C 24. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the flyback transformer b. much less b. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. FM ANS: D 20. SAP stands for: a. suppressed-carrier AM b. much greater c.
ANS: scanning 4. During the horizontal blanking interval. ANS: composite 6. Color information is called ____________________. allowed full picture chroma b. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. ANS: NTSC 3. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. none of the above .d. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. Brightness information is called ____________________. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. ANS: Aquadag 2. AFPC stands for: a. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. automatic frequency and picture control d. ANS: aspect 7. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ANS: porch c. ANS: retraces 5. ANS: luma luminance 8.
The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. ANS: green 17. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. ANS: pixels 15. ANS: phosphor 22. ANS: 20 to 30 21. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 1.5 12. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________. ANS: ultor 20. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. not including blanking. . The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________. ANS: 3.10. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program.3 14. ANS: 62. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 525 16. ANS: position 11. ANS: 10 13. ANS: separate 19. Picture elements are called ____________________. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer.58 18. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.
ANS: killer 25. ANS: phase 30. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: purity 31. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. ANS: head 27. ANS: convergence . ANS: saturation 29. Color intensity is called ____________________. ANS: comb 24. ANS: dBmV 26. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.ANS: flyback 23. ANS: vectorscope 28.
The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee c. plate ANS: C 4. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. 101 watts c. downlink d. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. 104 watts ANS: C 8. perigee and apogee d. uplink and downlink b. is constant b. 50 to 250 watts d.780 km d. 3.: a. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. 500 to 2500 watts b. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a.578 km c. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. solar cells b. 5 to 25 watts c. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. is zero (freefall) c. all of the above . The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. azimuth and elevation c. respectively.800 km b. transponders c. 103 watts 2 b. footprint b.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 35. earth station c. declination and elevation b. 357. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. batteries d. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. 10 watts d.
transponder-directed multiple antennas b. television repeater only ANS: A 14. decibels of signal b. low-noise amplitude d. transmit delay minimum aperture c. very small antenna terminal d. ring d. time-division multiple access d. low power to a small antenna d. direct-broadcast satellite c. high power to a small antenna c. low north angle ANS: A 12. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. low-noise array c. star b. a VSAT system uses: a. none of the above c. television remote origin d. direct-broadcast system d. low-noise amplifier b. mesh c. power-down b. TVRO stands for: a. low power to a large antenna b. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. repeater c. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. orbital adjustments d. antenna maintenance b. On the uplink from a terminal. TDMA stands for: a.ANS: A 9. video satellite b. backdown c. none of the above . LNA stands for: a. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. DBS stands for: a. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. VSAT stands for: a. television receive only b. very small aperture terminal c. backoff d. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. EIRP drop ANS: B 13.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
American Mobile Phone System b. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Personal Communications Service b. MIN stands for: a. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Electronic Serial Number b. Radio Common Carrier b. RCC stands for: a. AMPS stand for: a. Personal Cell phone Service d. Maximum In-band Noise d. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Mobile Switching Center b. Portable Communications Systems c. Emission Strength Number d. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. MTSO stands for: a. ESN stands for: a. Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Manual Identification Number b. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . none of the above c. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Number Assignment Module c. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. none of the above c. Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. PCS stands for: a. Numerical Access Mode b. Number Access Module d. Minimum In-band Noise c.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. MSC stands for: a. NAM stands for: a.
SAT stands for: a. recognize an AMPS system c. SID stands for: a. FSK c. In an AMPS system. System Identification Number d. voice is sent using: a. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. SCM stands for: a. none of the above c. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. Signal Class Mark d. Central Mobile Access Control d. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. control access to the cell site b. base-station class ANS: D 11. set its transmitted power level d. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. code number of a cell phone b. Serial-Code Mode c. AM c. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. maximum power level of a cell phone c. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. CMAC stands for: a. Digital Color Code b.9. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. signal classification (analog or digital) d. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. set the access code of the cell phone c. SCM identifies the: a. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. DCC stands for: a. Service Class Mark b. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. Station Antenna Tower b. The CMAC is used to: a. Direct Channel Code . Supervisory Access Tone d. Digital Communications Carrier d.
d. Basic Service Contract d. less than 600 µW. c. control-channel signals are sent using: a. between 1 and 2 watts b. air interface ANS: D 22. Code-Division Packet Data b. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. erlangs ANS: B 24. CDPD stands for: a. RF interface b. BSC stands for: a.b. CDMA 18. none of the above c. number of blocked calls c. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. increase the number of cells c. Base Station Controller b. 4 watts ANS: B 20.5 km ANS: D 23. BSC c. FM d. AM c. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. Phone traffic is measured in: a. calls b. In an AMPS system. CDMA ANS: C 19. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. decrease the number of cells d. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. increase the ERP b. FM ANS: B d. MTSO d. Coded Digital Packet Data d. less than 600 mW. number of users d. 0. Basic Service Code . FSK b. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. as small as possible d. 2 km b.
you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex. .1.5 6. ANS: 0. ANS: reuse 4. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ANS: 800 2. For security. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________. A portable. ANS: III three 10. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. ANS: I one 8. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: handoff 5. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. ANS: attenuation 12. ANS: land station 11. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. ANS: 600 mW 9. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code. ANS: AMPS 3. handoffs will occur too frequently. ANS: three 7. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.
ANS: dropped 17.ANS: public 13. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________. 2. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. ANS: microcell 19. ANS: MTSO 14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. What is the traffic in erlangs? . If a 28. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: splitting 18. ANS: picocells 20. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.6 3. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. ANS: 1. ANS: traffic 15.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. Compared with AMPS. ANS: erlangs 16. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. 2.
ANS: 30 4. . the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases. What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.
Bell Labs d. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. first-generation b. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. from mobile to mobile d. PCS cell sites are: a. second-generation ANS: B 2.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 1. AT&T b. same as the uplink c. 4 b. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. all of the above c. CDMA technology was invented by: a. digital-generation . many ANS: B 7.9 GHz b. GSM is used in: a. bigger b. 2 c. Compared to AMPS. third-generation d. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. Lucent ANS: D 8. all of the above c. distributed d. Europe ANS: D c. from the base to the mobile b. Asia b. North America d. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. Qualcomm c. POTS b. use built into an automobile d. 3 d. AMPS was designed for: a. voice ANS: D 6. 900 MHz d. 800 MHz c. higher-power c. smaller ANS: B 5.
Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. Other things being equal. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. talking channels c. SIM stands for: a. no PCS system c. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. voice channels ANS: A 10. TDMA only b.9. bearer channels d. In GSM. IMSI stands for: a. less than in a TDMA phone c. CDMA d. all of the above c. traffic channels b. Short Inbound Message b. Subscriber ID Module d. all of the above . Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. frequency hopping b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. GSM only d. spread-spectrum d. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14. AMPS uses: a. TDMA c. none of the above 11. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. greater than in a TDMA phone b. CDMA d. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. In GSM. CDMA d. frequency hopping b. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. CDMA b. GSM uses: a. TDMA ANS: C 17. IS-95 uses: a. voice channels are called: a. frequency hopping b. IS-136 uses: a. Subscriber ID Method c. all of the above c. TDMA ANS: D c.
orthogonal . Compared to AMPS. ANS: Personal 2. Besides TDMA and CDMA. ANS: second 3. ANS: 1900 4. faster data rates c. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. rotating d. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. ANS: smaller 5. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. ANS: GSM 6. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. In CDMA: a. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. wider roaming area b. In North America. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. common b.ANS: B 18. all frequencies are used in all cells b. Internet access d. unique ANS: D 20.
A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. Unlike AMPS. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________. ANS: closed 17.7. ANS: soft 9. ANS: frequency hopping 8. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. ANS: Packet 18. ANS: Universal . ANS: 50 16. ANS: Frequency 13. ANS: Mobile 19. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. ANS: random 12. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. ANS: less 14. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: all 11. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. ANS: variable 15. ANS: Walsh 10. Unlike other systems.
6. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. 5.20. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. 4. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. it never goes to zero. With offset QPSK. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. ANS: Wireless 21. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. 3. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. 7. and what causes it? . 8. To demodulate. 2. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. Why was PCS assigned to 1.
This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base. .ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near.
and Medical . an encryption scheme used for pagers b. Industrial. IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3. require "handoffs" b. Industrial. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. POCSAG stands for: a. IEEE Standard Message b. Scientific. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. the UHF band only c. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. 802. 802. CAPCODE is: a. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6.10 c. all of the above ANS: D 5. ISM stands for: a. and the ISM band ANS: C 2.12 c.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. require error detection d. the VHF band. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. all of the above c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. and Messaging d. A typical pager system does not: a. Pagers use: a. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. In a one-way pager system: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. the VHF band only b. Scientific. the UHF band. transmitters use relatively high power d. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7.
802. all of the above ANS: A 10. micronet b. Bluetooth uses the: a. infrared band ANS: C 9. 802.11 ANS: B d. UHF band ANS: C 13. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. scatternet c. Time-Division Duplex b. 2 to 8 nodes d. Time Delay Difference d. BSS stands for: a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. Basic Service Set b. 10 cm to 100 meters c. ISM band b. CDMA b. CSMA/CD d. VHF band b. all of the above c. ISM band d.b. 2 nodes b. UHF band d. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a.13 8. 2 to 16 nodes c. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. CSMA/CA c. CDMA b. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. Bluetooth Service System d. VHF band c. frequency hopping ANS: B 12. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. Bluetooth uses: a. QPSK d. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. none of the above . TDD stands for: a. TDD net d. infrared band c. Total Distance Delay c. multinet ANS: D 16. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14.
Infrared networks: a. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________.11 6. can use reflected infrared beams d. 1 meter b. Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. 10 meters ANS: A 19. ANS: capcode 2. cannot penetrate walls b. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. several meters d. within 10 feet c. ANS: 10 5. several thousand meters. several hundred meters b. The range of an IRDA system is: a. Infrared Data Association b. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. 1 meter c. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. ANS: D COMPLETION 1. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. ANS: 802. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. ANS: Post 4.b. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. ANS: TDMA 3. IRDA stands for: a. 10 feet c. 1 foot d. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. . all of the above 20. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18.
ANS: piconets 10. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________.ANS: 1 watt 7. ANS: piconet 9. ANS: 1 meter . An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. ANS: ISM 8.
Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. 0. all of the above c. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. waveguide dispersion d. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. both a and b d. 0. zero loss ANS: C 8. 1 dB c. 40 dB per km c. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. greater d. in an explosive environment b. carry current b. none of the above c. 4 db per km d. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. all of the above . The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. less b. generate EMI d. Scattering causes: a. dispersion ANS: A 7. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. none of the above ANS: B 5. modal dispersion b. intersymbol interference d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. Compared to the core.4 dB per km b. loss b.02 dB c.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the same c. plastic ANS: A 4. glass b. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. all of the above c.
Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. a photon d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. 0. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. Avalanche Photo Detector d. zero-point current d. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. an e-v ANS: C 12. ST c. an erg b. APD stands for: a.b. In a PIN diode. SC d. The quantum of light is called: a. E-H current ANS: C 15. 0. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. In the core. amps per watt c.2 db ANS: A d. 3 dB 9. ANS: reflection c. 1 dB b. a phonon . responsivity is measured in: a. 3 dB ANS: B 10. SMA b. µW per amp d. baseline current c. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________. mA per joule b. For a light detector.02 dB c.2 db d. 0. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13. LASER stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. Avalanche Photodiode b. Advanced Photo Detector c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. dark current b.
2. With optical fiber. . ANS: cladding 3. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index. ANS: energy 5. ANS: graded 10. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ANS: sine 6. ANS: intramodal 8. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. ANS: infrared 9. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. ANS: critical 4. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. For laser diodes. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: linewidth 11. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. ANS: Intersymbol 13. ANS: internal 7. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. ANS: time 12. In multimode fiber. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. ANS: loose-tube 14.
A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable. ANS: photon 19. ANS: PIN 20. ANS: pigtail 16. ANS: laser 18. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. ANS: look . ANS: single 17. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source.ANS: tight-buffer 15. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. The quantum of light is called the ____________________. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. For safety.
Frequency Input to The Loop d. excess gain c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. defect in the glass b. FTTC stands for: a. Fiber Input Timing Loop c. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. FDDI stands for: a. gain margin c. A Soliton is a: a. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Synchronous Optical Network d. type of optical network c. Simple Optical Network b. Fiber In The Loop b. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. Frequency-Division Data Interface . none of the above c. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. FITL stands for: a. SDH b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. SONET stands for: a. type of particle ANS: C 7. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. DWDM stands for: a. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. WDM ANS: A 8. type of pulse d. bit stuffing c. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. bit-synch d.
Optical Time-Division Relay c. Synchronous Transmission System c. 100 km b. system margin ANS: B d. Synchronous Transport Signal b.b. In SONET. FDDI c. experimental ANS: B 14. ANS: Curb 2. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. not possible c. FDDI c. c. high-speed Ethernet d. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. FITL b. 100 miles d. FTTC d. 10 km ANS: C 10. In SONET. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Optical Carrier level one b. all of the above ANS: D 13. gigabit Ethernet b. 1000 miles c. obsolete d. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. overdrive 9. STS stands for: a. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. Optical Cable type 1 . OTDR stands for: a. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. OC-1 stands for: a. common b. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. Typically. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. Optical Channel one d.
ANS: Wavelength 5. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. ANS: opposite . FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: pump 9. ANS: stuffing 12. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. ANS: 51. ANS: WDM 10. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: Synchronous 6. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network.84 11. ANS: Hierarchy 4. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps. ANS: pointer 13. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. ANS: erbium 8.ANS: Loop 3. ANS: token 14. ANS: Distributed 7.
SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. In SONET. ANS: 4 23. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . ANS: 810 20. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: node 16. ANS: 1 24. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. ANS: multi 17. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps.15. ANS: 774 21. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 100 M 18. ANS: 9 22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: transport 25.
receiver. ANS: 86.6 nanoseconds . Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds.1 MHz 2.