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MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b. Bell ANS: C 2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: A 3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz ANS: D 4. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel ANS: B 5. Radians per second is equal to: a. 2π × f b. f ÷ 2π ANS: A 6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range ANS: D 7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. multiplexing ANS: D 8. TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation c. Time Domain Measurement d. none of the above c. the phase angle d. none of the above c. Maxwell d. Hertz
ANS: A 9. FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement ANS: C 10. The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f ÷ c b. equal to c ÷ λ c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion ANS: C 11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above ANS: D 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above ANS: D 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above ANS: A 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender c. the channel b. the receiver d. all of the above ANS: D 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature ANS: A 16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: D c. copper wire d. all of the above c. static d. all of the above c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing d. none of the above
17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors ANS: A 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies ANS: C 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise ANS: B 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave ANS: B
c. copper wire d. none of the above
c. greater at low frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
c. white noise d. partition noise
c. constant power d. none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2) d. VT = V1 + V2 b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 ANS: A 22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: B 23. SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above ANS: D 24. Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB ANS: C
The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band.25. its amplitude c. ANS: base 4. and direction b. and phase angle ANS: D COMPLETION 1. In ____________________. ANS: 1901 3. . ANS: 1863 2. ANS: channel 5. ANS: FDM 9. The part. its amplitude. the ____________________ the bandwidth required. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is ____________________. or parts. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________. In ____________________. The more information per second you send. ANS: greater larger wider 8. VHF stands for the ____________________ frequency band. multiple signal streams take turns using the channel. frequency. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________. ANS: TDM 10. frequency. ANS: zero 6. its amplitude. ANS: bandwidth 7. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for ____________________. of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude and frequency d. you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple signals. The telephone was invented in the year ____________________.
ANS: 300 million 15. a spectrum is represented by a ____________________ series. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier. ANS: electrons SHORT ANSWER 1.ANS: very high 11. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of ____________________ in a conductor. . The UHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. Destination 2. ____________________ noise can be a serious problem. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________. For satellite communications. Name the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system. Channel. ANS: 300 13. Transmitter. ANS: 30 12. Receiver. In free space. ANS: solar 19. The VHF band starts at ____________________ MHz. Name five types of internal noise. Mathematically. ANS: spectrum analyzer 16. ANS: Source. ANS: Fourier 17. ANS: wavelength 14. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called ____________________. radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second. ANS: noise blanking blanking 18.
If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise. NF = 100 8.5 9. Likewise. Find the total NF for the pair. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80 dB. Likewise. and red is at the low end of the visible spectrum.ANS: Thermal. 1/f. transit-time 3. What is "pink noise"? ANS: Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors. it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source. what is the signalto-noise ratio in dB? ANS: 20 dB 7. ANS: 1. both in dB and as a ratio. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source. ANS: 5. ANS: 20 dB. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current. controlling the diode current controls the noise power. 4. Find NF. . Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. thermal noise has equal power density over a wide range of frequencies. Shot. ANS: 50 µV 6. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"? ANS: White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise. Calculate the total noise voltage. Find its noise figure. the output of which is a noise current. Partition.4 10. both across the same 100-ohm load. pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies. 5. How would you control the amount of noise generated? ANS: When current flows through a diode. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for thermal noise voltage.
used in narrowband RF amplifiers ANS: C 5. A resonant circuit is: a. reduce the Miller effect c. transit time d. base time c. Miller time ANS: B 2. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. couple RF around an amplifier ANS: A 4. capacitance and inductance only ANS: C 3. the Miller Effect is due to: a. reactance only . base-to-collector capacitance c. both a and b d. capacitance and resistance only b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit ANS: B 6. Bypass capacitors are used to: a. it cannot be avoided c. The "Miller Effect" can: a. none of the above c. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. using a common-base amplifier ANS: B 8. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit d. A real capacitor actually contains: a. cause an amplifier to lose gain ANS: D 7. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. inductance. neutralize amplifiers d. inductance of collector lead b. all of the above c. capacitance. collector-to-emitter capacitance ANS: D c. have no effect on Q c. and resistance d. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. a simple form of bandpass filter b. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. charge time b.Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier d. In a BJT. base-to-emitter capacitance d. using a common-emitter amplifier b. "multiply" the Q d.
a type of crystal-controlled oscillator d. the loop-gain criteria c. none of the above ANS: C 13. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. a nonlinear circuit b. but at just one frequency d. an RC time constant d. transformer coupling d. an RC time constant d. impedance matching is usually done with: a. a two-capacitor divider ANS: A 15.9. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. only built with FETs c. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. the Bode criteria b. a tapped inductor b. a signal containing harmonics d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency ANS: A 12. decoupling it d. For a "frequency multiplier" to work. it requires: a. a piezoelectric crystal c. a two-capacitor divider ANS: B 16. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. a linear amplifier c. RC coupling c. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria ANS: D 14. The Clapp oscillator is: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. a modified Colpitts oscillator ANS: B c. In RF amplifiers. none of the above ANS: A 11. a tapped inductor b. direct coupling b. both a and b. a piezoelectric crystal . Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. loop gain equal to unity b. lumped reactance ANS: B 10.
If two signals. elements must be considered as ____________________ instead of as being "lumped". all of the above ANS: D 19.17. same as a mixer ANS: A COMPLETION 1. are fed to a mixer. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. c. a diode ANS: D c. does not contain the input frequencies d. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator d. the output: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. A varactor is: a. the output: a. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. Generally. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. none of the above ANS: A 20. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2 d. Variable-Frequency Oscillator ANS: B 22. "VFO" stands for: a. used for a precise frequency b. Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt). Voltage-Feedback Oscillator . all of the above 18. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. conductor lengths in RF circuits should be ____________________. is a linear mixture of the input signals ANS: C 21. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb b. contains the input frequencies c. In a balanced mixer. used in tuner circuits d. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa c. ANS: short 2. At UHF frequencies and above.
The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit. ANS: 10 10. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations to be valid. In high-frequency RF circuits. the placement of wires and ____________________ can be critical. ANS: bypass 8. ANS: neutralization 12. ANS: capacitive 13. ANS: tuned circuit 11. ANS: components 6.g. ANS: decoupling 7. ANS: shielding 5. the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics contained in the device current (e. a piezoelectric crystal has both a ____________________ and a ____________________ resonant frequency. ANS: ground-plane 4. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground. A ____________________ circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.ANS: distributed 3. A ____________________ capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground. Electrically. parallel . Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________. it is called a ____________________. ANS: series. In a class C RF amplifier. A Colpitts oscillator uses a ____________________ voltage divider to provide feedback. collector current). Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using ____________________ between them. ANS: Q 9.
What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer? ANS: 15 MHz and 25 MHz . What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 100 3. Two sinusoidal signals. To produce sum and difference frequencies. What should be the value of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria? ANS: 0.1 4. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C. 0. what will be the capacitance at 4 volts? ANS: 30 pF 6. What will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that? ANS: 50 kHz. V1 is a 20-MHz signal. and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator? ANS: It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback divider.14. ANS: square SHORT ANSWER 1. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz? ANS: 5. V1 and V2. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts. are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. a mixer must be a non-____________________ circuit.4 µH 2. 5. At some bias point. a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer. V2 is a 5MHz signal. ANS: linear 15.05% 7.
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output frequency of 120 MHz? ANS: 12 .39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz and a fixed-modulus divider of 10.
m = Va / Vc d. The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. the baseband signal b. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(ωmt)) × sin(ωct) c. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa b. both a and b d. m = Emax / Emin d.Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. m = ωa / ωc c. is: a. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. v(t) = (Ec × Em) × sin(ωmt) × sin(ωct) d. none of the above ANS: A 8. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). the carrier signal ANS: A 3. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. half the carrier power b. the total sideband power is: a. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct). none of the above c. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin) ANS: C 7. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. m. AM stands for: a. twice the carrier power d. The modulation index. Antenna Modulation . m. Overmodulation causes: a.414 × carrier power c. m = Emin / Emax c. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωmt) + sin(ωct) ANS: D 5. then the modulation index. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / ωa ANS: B 4. distortion b. is: a. it will produce the frequencies: a. equal to the carrier power c. Angle Modulation d. splatter ANS: C 6. the amplitude signal d. Audio Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation ANS: B 2. none of the above c. v(t) = (Ec + Em) × sin(ωct) b. 1. At 100% modulation.
If an AM radio station increases its modulation index. 10 kHz d. Peak Efficiency Power ANS: A 16. 5 kHz c. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. 0 watts ANS: D 17. Peak Envelope Product d.005 MHz b. none of the above ANS: B 10.ANS: C 9. is more efficient b. sideband-carrier d. all of the above ANS: D 11. 250 watts b. 500 watts d. AM is susceptible to noise c. none of the above c. suppressed-carrier ANS: B 15. requires too much power d. PEP stands for: a. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. all of the above ANS: D 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. both a and b d. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. none of the above . the time-domain signal b. you would expect: a. requires less bandwidth d. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier. single-carrier b. The modulation index can be derived from: a. none of the above c. requires too much bandwidth c. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. As compared to plain AM. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. 1000 watts c. SSB AM: a. the frequency-domain signal ANS: C 12. Peak Envelope Power b. the received RF signal to increase d. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. 1. all of the above ANS: C 13.
sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2) ANS: D 20. reinsert the carrier d. the receiver must: a. commercial AM stations use low power c. none of the above ANS: C COMPLETION 1. all of the above ANS: C 18. Compared to the USB. ANS: the same 6. ANS: inefficient 3. be set to USB mode c. ANS: simple 2. The ____________________ of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal. ANS: two 5. A disadvantage of AM is its ____________________ use of power. The total modulation index is: a. all of the above ANS: D 19. An advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very ____________________. digital data b. m1 + m2 c. the information in the LSB is ____________________.b. both a and b b. Compared to the USB. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. modulating with a single audio tone produces ____________________ sidebands. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1) b. In AM. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. the power in the LSB is ____________________. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. audio c. The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. ANS: the same . One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. ANS: envelope 4. To demodulate a USB SSB signal. video d.
5. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. what is the power in the USB at 70. ANS: 150 SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: less 8. if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz.707 4. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation. total sideband power is always ____________________ than the carrier power.7. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the minimum Vpp is 25 volts. If the carrier power is 1000 watts. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. the carrier power _________________________. it will put out ____________________ watts with 100% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20% modulation? ANS: 102 watts 2. In AM. ANS: remains constant 9. ANS: one 10. ANS: 1010 kHz 12. In AM. What is the modulation index? ANS: 0.4. a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.6 .7% modulation? ANS: 125 watts 3. 0. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is ____________________. and 0. as the modulation index increases. ANS: 6000 Hz 11. then the USB will extend up to ____________________. In AM. then what is the total modulation index? ANS: 0. With a 1-MHz carrier.3.
5. what is the PEP? ANS: 4 watts . A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20 volts.
is equal to twice the deviation ANS: B 2. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. Narrowband FM c. Bessel functions d. Mathematically. One way to derive FM from PM is: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator ANS: A 3. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. National Broadcast FM b. it is called: a. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: a. the capture effect c. the limit effect ANS: B c. the noise effect b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. none of the above . it is band-limited at the receiver d. Taylor series b.Chapter 4: Angle Modulation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Bessel's Rule ANS: C 6. Non-Broadcast FM ANS: D 7. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible ANS: D 4. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. the threshold effect d. NBFM stands for: a. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Armstrong's Rule b. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. The FM modulation index: a. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. Near Band FM d. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. Carson's Rule d. fractals ANS: B 5.
increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. is implemented using an SCA signal ANS: A 12. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. the time-constant of the filter circuits used ANS: D 11. the "two-station" effect b. ANS: data c.8. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations ANS: A 10. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. ANS: angle 2. the capture effect c. FM stereo: a. A pre-emphasis of 75 µs refers to: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. An SCA signal: a. can use amplitude modulation b. FM and PM are two forms of ____________________ modulation. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. the threshold effect d. can use FM modulation ANS: D 13. all of the above c. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the time delay between the L and R channels d. none of the above ANS: A 9. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. PM is extensively used in ____________________ communication. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. has a higher S/N than mono FM d. is not compatible with mono FM . only by using Bessel functions ANS: B COMPLETION 1. is monaural d.
Mathematically. Compared to AM. In FM.3. ANS: stay constant 7. ANS: wider greater 5. the number of sidebands in an FM signal is ____________________. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal ____________________ as modulation is applied. ANS: amplitude 8. Compared to AM. . the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the modulating signal. ANS: infinite 10. as the modulating frequency decreases. ANS: decreases 11. Mathematically. the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous ____________________ of the modulating signal. the number of significant sidebands ____________________. In FM. ANS: C 6. the modulation index ____________________. In FM. as the frequency deviation decreases. the bandwidth of FM is usually ____________________. the modulation index ____________________. the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as ____________________. ANS: increases 13. ANS: decreases 14. As the FM modulation index increases. their power ____________________. ANS: any number 12. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not important. ANS: better 4. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency. ANS: frequency 9.
The ____________________ effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment.4. ANS: capture 20. such as 2. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3? ANS: 9 kHz 4. ANS: carrier SHORT ANSWER 1. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V. ANS: threshold 19.ANS: increases 15. the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely using ____________________ functions. what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator? ANS: 5 kHz / volt 2. what will be the modulation index caused by a 1-volt. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier frequency. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz. Rest frequency is another name for an FM ____________________ frequency. For certain values of mf. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each other in frequency. ANS: Carson's 17. what is the modulation index? ANS: 2 3. ANS: Bessel 18. ANS: disappears goes to zero 16. 1-kHz audio signal? . The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using ____________________ rule.
At a modulation index of 2.1.4.ANS: 2 5.2 watt) 8. how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 200 mW (0. adjust the audio frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes.4 watts 6. what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal? ANS: 30 kHz 9. 5. At a modulation index of 2. if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is 5. . etc) to measure the frequency deviation of an FM modulator? ANS: Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.5. Using Carson's rule. At a modulation index of 2. what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2 being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power? ANS: 30 kHz 10. how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 673 watts 7. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2. how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter? ANS: 48. Then do the calculation: δ = fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values.5. then δ is 11 kHz. Using a spectrum analyzer. Record the audio frequency. For example.
keep the modulation close to 100% b. agility c. spread-spectrum ANS: A 2. none of the above . a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. minimum RF power is required d. With low-level AM: a. ALC stands for: a. ALC is used to: a. a smaller number of signals d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C d. Automatic Level Control ANS: B 5. With high-level AM: a.Chapter 5: Transmitters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Baseband compression produces: a. keep the modulation below 100% ANS: D 6. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. minimum modulation power is required ANS: A 7. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. Amplitude Level Control b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B ANS: C 8. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. VFO b. the RF amplifiers must be linear d. all of the above c. With high-level AM: a. heats the transmitter d. none of the above ANS: B 4. may require water cooling b. is a measure of efficiency c. Accurate Level Control d. the RF amplifiers must be Class B c. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. expansion d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power c. all of the above c. In an AM transmitter. all of the above ANS: D 3. maximize transmitted power d.
the modulating amplifier c. 300 ohms resistive b. 75 ohms resistive d. a bridge circuit ANS: C 15. a test load ANS: B 16. T network d. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. none of the above ANS: C 13. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. has variable amplitude d. "high-level" refers to: a. the power level of the final RF amplifier d. the driver stage b. the RF amplifier d. 50 ohms resistive c. has variable frequency b. a dummy load d. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. the resistor must be: a. A Class D amplifier is: a. the power level of the modulation ANS: D 11. wire-wound c. none of the above . In high-level AM. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. is complex c. noninductive d. the carrier ANS: A 12. 1% tolerance or better b. the power level of the carrier b.ANS: C 9. In high-level AM. all of the above ANS: B 10. very efficient c. a temporary load b. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. pi network c. all of the above ANS: B 17. essentially pulse-duration modulation c. 600 ohms resistive ANS: A 14. a heavy load c. the resistor is called: a. both a and b b. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a.
Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. a mechanical filter c. integrates the modulating signal c. both a and b b. An indirect FM modulator: a.b. none of the above ANS: B 23. Audio Frequency Control . essentially Class C amplifiers ANS: B 25. all of the above c. a frequency multiplier d. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. none of the above ANS: A 22. all of the above c. A direct FM modulator: a. essentially balanced modulators b. both a and b d. Automatic Frequency Centering ANS: C 24. none of the above c. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. With mixing: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. a mixer ANS: A d. essentially pulse-width modulation ANS: D 18. The carrier is suppressed in: a. Frequency multipliers are: a. Automatic Frequency Control d. the carrier frequency can be raised b. start with DSBSC ANS: B 19. essentially mixers d. To generate a SSB signal: a. start with full-carrier AM b. none of the above ANS: C 21. start with a quadrature signal d. both a and b d. a crystal filter d. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. none of the above 20. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value c. AFC stands for: a. a balanced modulator b.
Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be ____________________. . ANS: carrier 2. To isolate the oscillator from load changes. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by ____________________.d. ANS: FCC 3. the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. the deviation is altered ANS: C COMPLETION 1. ANS: linear 11. In Canada. ANS: expansion 8. ANS: efficiently 10. In the USA. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more ____________________. ANS: PEP 6. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator. ANS: compression 9. a ____________________ stage is used. The opposite of compression is called ____________________. _________________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's frequency. ANS: agility 5. Frequency ____________________ is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of retuning. ANS: compression 7. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called ____________________. ANS: Industry Canada 4. ALC is a form of ____________________.
it is common to start with a ____________________ signal. it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as the power amplifier in transistor modulators. ANS: T 15. ANS: driver 19. ANS: higher 13. ANS: D 21. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load. To allow a high modulation percentage. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for impedance matching. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a ____________________ into one "box". ANS: mixing 22. ANS: duration 20. ANS: 50 14.ANS: buffer 12. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: harmonic 16. ANS: receiver 18. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels. To generate a SSB signal. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse-____________________ modulation. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply voltage. Severe impedance ____________________ can destroy a transmitter's output stage. ____________________ is used to operate at more than one frequency. ANS: DSBSC . ANS: mismatch 17.
Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation. To pass the USB.23. The audio modulation frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop. how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100% modulation? ANS: 50 watts 4.005 MHz 6. what is the range of possible frequencies? ANS: 50 MHz ± 500 hertz 2.001%. What is the minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier frequency of 50 MHz? ANS: 40 MHz . ANS: phase 24. what is the maximum collector voltage at 100% modulation? ANS: 400 volts 5. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery? ANS: 75. what should be the center frequency of an ideal crystal filter? ANS: 10. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. ANS: reactance 25. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a ____________________ modulator.8% 3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation. Assuming high-level modulation. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0. ANS: phase-locked SHORT ANSWER 1.
7. what will be the new carrier frequency? ANS: 4 MHz 8. ANS: First. If frequency multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz. . Explain how you could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz. put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Then mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
small adjustable capacitors . all of the above c. The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. Active Gain Control d. the tuner b. Seeley d. none of the above ANS: C 5. Audio Gain Control b. Foster c. two types of adjusting tools b. intermediate frequency b. image frequency c. Automatic Gain Control ANS: B 8. Hertz ANS: C 3. Armstrong b.Chapter 6: Receivers MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. small adjustable resistors ANS: D 4. "Skin effect" refers to: a. intermodulation frequency ANS: A 7. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. the mixer d. Active Gain Conversion c. the RF amplifier ANS: D 6. indeterminate frequency d. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. "IF" stands for: a. small adjustable inductors d. The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. is above the RF frequency c. the spurious response and the tracking d. the signal and the noise ANS: A 2. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. AGC stands for: a. Trimmers and padders are: a.
all of the above c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b.707 is ideal ANS: C 13.0 is ideal d. a value of 1. the mixer b. Basically. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer ANS: B 12. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. the IF amplifiers d. is fixed.b. When comparing values for shape factor: a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. typically at 455 kHz. none of the above c. it is cheaper ANS: D 10. is below the RF frequency c. ANS: C 9. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. the detector ANS: D 15. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. Phase distortion is important in: a. both values are basically equivalent d. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. color video receivers ANS: B c. with two signals close in frequency. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. a value of 0. it increases sensitivity c. all of the above c. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 ANS: A 14. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. sensitivity measures: a. Basically. selectivity measures: a.414 dB is ideal b. voice communications systems b. monochrome video receivers d. there is no ideal value . When comparing values for shape factor: a. it increases selectivity d. none of the above ANS: A 11. a value of 1.
An image must be rejected: a. they are faster than silicon diodes b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. images cannot be rejected . the type of detector circuit being used ANS: B 17. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. prior to mixing b. A common SSB detector is: a. A common AM detector is the: a. enter the mixer. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF ANS: C 18. ratio detector ANS: D 22. are transmitted on the same frequency b. prior to detection d. all of the above ANS: C 23. none of the above ANS: C 20. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. noise generated in the receiver d. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. PLL b. quadrature detector d. PLL b. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. a BFO d. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. the AGC c. An FM detector is the: a.16. all of the above c. the dynamic range of the receiver b. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. a diode ANS: D c. enter the mixer. a product detector c. a PLL b. enter the mixer. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. all of the above c. ratio detector d. envelope detector ANS: B 21. prior to IF amplification ANS: A 19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. Image frequencies occur when two signals: a.
maintain a constant IF frequency b. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. squelch d. all of the above ANS: C 28. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. The function of a limiter is: a. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Low-Noise Amplifier ANS: B 31. reinject the carrier c. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC.24. to remove amplitude variations b. BFO stands for: a. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator d. AFC stands for: a. you need to: a. Audio Frequency Compensator b. AGC c. envelope detection d. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. LNA stands for: a. Bistable Frequency Oscillator 25. a PLL detector b. The function of AFC is: a. to limit dynamic range d. use double conversion d. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. ratio detection . a quadrature detector d. Barrier Frequency Oscillator ANS: A c. coherent detection ANS: B 27. Autodyne Frequency Compensation ANS: C 32. Which would be best for DSBSC: a. Foster-Seeley detector c. carrier detection b. AFC b. limiting ANS: B 30. Low-Noise Audio d. Automatic Frequency Control d. to limit noise response c. to limit spurious responses ANS: A 29. Autonomous Frequency Control c. Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC ANS: B 26.
none of the above ANS: B 33. Transmitted Radio Frequency d. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. Direct Signal Phase ANS: D 37. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. Tuned Receiver Function c. Distorted Signal Packet d. The main function of the AGC is to: a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. it allows software radios to be built ANS: C 35. Digital Signal Processor c. Software-Activated Wave . Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. Tracking Radio Frequency ANS: A COMPLETION 1. all of the above ANS: C 36. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________. Tuned Radio Frequency b. TRF stands for: a. The important property of a SAW is: a. Almost all modern receivers use the _________________________ principle. ANS: superheterodyne 2.c. it is a stable bandpass filter d. SINAD stands for: a. SAW stands for: a. DSP stands for: a. Silicon-Activated Wafer d. Dynamic Signal Properties b. c. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio ANS: D 38. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. none of the above c. Surface Acoustic Wave ANS: B 34.
ANS: Selectivity 13. ANS: Sensitivity . An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other. the ____________________ refers to the input filter and RF stage. the other changes with it. the output of the ____________________ goes to the IF amplifiers. ANS: AGC 10. ANS: mixer 8. the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency. ANS: lower 12. In a superhet.ANS: 1887 3. ANS: autodyne 11. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency. it means that when the frequency of one is adjusted. ANS: intermediate IF 9. ANS: front end 7. The superhet was invented in the year ____________________. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak signal. In a receiver. ANS: track 4. In low-side injection. the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator frequency and the received signal frequency. ANS: skin 5. In a superhet. ANS: 1918 6. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in frequency.
A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of ____________________ frequencies. A DSBSC signal requires a ____________________ detection circuit. A dual-____________________ MOSFET is useful for AGC. the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________. . ANS: gate 25. ANS: image 16. While still commonly found. A BFO produces a locally generated ____________________.14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver. An ____________________ detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal. the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the input signal. ANS: conversion 15. Unlike the PLL detector. ANS: envelope 18. ANS: S 22. FM detectors have a characteristic ____________________-shaped curve. ANS: amplitude 24. ANS: carrier 20. ANS: product 19. A ____________________ detector is used for SSB signals. ANS: obsolescent 23. ANS: detector 17. ANS: noisy 26. Diode mixers are too ____________________ to be practical in most applications. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class ____________________. A demodulator is also called a ____________________. ANS: coherent 21.
A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat top and steep sides. A ____________________ refers to any kind of FM or PM detector. AGC reduces the gain of the ____________________ amplifiers. ANS: stagger 29. ANS: discriminator SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: limiting 35. ANS: adjustment 30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming signal. An ____________________-meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications receivers. Approximately what bandwidth would you expect it to have at 4 MHz? ANS: . ANS: fixed constant 32. ANS: S 34. Typically. In a block converter. ANS: over 28. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. The effectiveness of FM ____________________ is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity. ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________. Multiple IF stages can be ____________________-tuned to increase the bandwidth. ANS: IF 33.ANS: A 27. the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________. ANS: higher 31. Compared to tuned circuits.
25 4. what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver is tuned to 5 MHz? ANS: 6 MHz 3. Assuming high-side injection.20 kHz 2. What is the shape factor value? ANS: 1.06 7. What value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling? ANS: 0. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF.5 MHz. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz? ANS: 0. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary.5 MHz ± 100 hertz 6. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency.01 . Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1. what would be the image frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz? ANS: 60 MHz 5. What would be the acceptable frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz? ANS: 1.
C = 2B log2M ANS: D 8. none of the above . The Shannon Limit is given by: a. C = 2B log2M ANS: B 6. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M ANS: A 5. all of the above ANS: C 3. Ten Dual-Manchester c. Time-Division Multiplexing b. SR = 2fmax c. The first digital code was the: a. SR = 2fmax c. an amplifier c. true binary numbers ANS: A c. Hartley's Law is: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. In digital transmission. a fixed sample rate d.Chapter 7: Digital Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. I = ktB b. SR = 2fmax c. SR = 2fmax c. ASCII code b. signal degradation can be removed using: a. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. TDM stands for: a. I = ktB b. Ten-Digital Manchester d. a sample-and-hold circuit b. Time-Domain Multiplexing ANS: A 4. a filter d. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Baudot code ANS: C 2. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. Natural Sampling does not use: a. a regenerative repeater b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) d. I = ktB b. Morse code d. C = 2B log2M ANS: C 7. an analog-to-digital converter c.
the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. none of the above ANS: A 15. ANS: D 10. b. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. d. the Logarithmic Law b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. PCM d. decreases as the sample rate increases b. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. PDM c. PDM c. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission ANS: C 16. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. noise b. You can have one or the other. PAM ANS: B 12. decreases as the bits per sample decreases ANS: C 14. a sample alias b. In North America. too few samples per second d. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. PWM d. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. the µ Law (mu law) c. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. Companding is used to: a.9. all of the above . c. the A Law c. The immediate result of sampling is: a. They are two types of sampling error. the α Law (alpha law) d. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. companding uses: a. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. PPM b. PPS ANS: D 13. They are the same thing. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. too many samples per second ANS: C 11. but not both.
Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. Manchester coding: a. the signal does not change d. transmits fewer bits per sample b. requires a much higher sampling rate ANS: D 21. all of the above c. the A Law ANS: B 18. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. the sample is too large ANS: B 22. 16-bit numbers ANS: B 20. can suffer slope overload d. Compared to PCM. all of the above ANS: D 25. unipolar NRZ b. companding uses: a. AMI c. the bit rate is too high b. the α Law (alpha law) d. only if the voice is band-limited ANS: B 23. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. Compared to PCM. 12-bit numbers b. delta modulation: a. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. In delta modulation.ANS: D 17. Coded-Carrier ANS: A 19. Manchester d. 4-bit numbers c. Codec stands for: a. provides strong timing information d. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. the µ Law (mu law) . 8-bit numbers d. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. only over shorter distances b. Code-Compression d. the Logarithmic Law b. the signal changes too rapidly c. "granular noise" is produced when: a. is a biphase code b. none of the above c. bipolar RZ ANS: C 24. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: c. In Europe. Coder-Decoder b.
544 Mb/s b. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. 48 c.544 MB/s c. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 8 kb/s . The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. 1 b. all of the above c. pulse-width coding c. 64 kb/s ANS: B 31. 24 d. 56 kb/s b. 56 kb/s d. carry signaling ANS: C 27. 2 ANS: D c. bipolar RZ AMI coding ANS: B 33. detect errors b. 64 k b. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. 8 c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver d. carry signaling ANS: B 28. 8 k c. The number of frames in a superframe is: a.a. 4 d. A typical T-1 line uses: c. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 1 b. 1. 2 ANS: A 26. 6 b. 4 d. NRZ coding d. 8 kb/s ANS: A 32. 1. 56 k d. Manchester coding b. In DS-1. A T-1 cable uses: a. all of the above c. detect errors b. 64 kb/s d. 1. 12 ANS: B 34. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 8 29.544 × 106 ANS: A 30.
busy signal ANS: D c. Digitizing a signal often results in ____________________ transmission quality. ANS: modulated 3. somewhat better d. To send it over an analog channel. all of the above 36. ANS: binary . the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. ringing d. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier. ANS: decreases gets worse 5. A vocoder implements compression by: a. In analog channels. much better c. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. fiber-optic cable d. not as good ANS: D COMPLETION 1. an analog signal must first be ____________________. microwave c. ANS: improved better 2. on-hook/off-hook condition b. ANS: digitized 4. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel. using lossless techniques ANS: B 37. twisted-pair wire b. coaxial cable ANS: A 35.a. Compared to standard PCM systems. To send it over a digital channel. about the same b. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the length of the channel increases.
ANS: Shannon-Hartley 13. and bandwidth. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of ____________________ in digital transmission systems. the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time.6. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital format. ANS: regenerative 7. ANS: limited 11. ANS: Nyquist 16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate. ANS: error noise 9. ____________________ sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit. ____________________-division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission. All practical communications channels are band-____________________. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission. ANS: Natural 15. Ignoring noise. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth and a given signal-to-noise ratio. ANS: Time 10. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable. ANS: Foldover . information capacity. ANS: Hartley's 12. ANS: correct 8. ANS: Shannon 14.
The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse-____________________ modulated signal. ANS: higher . ANS: amplitude 19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme. ANS: Pulse-code 20.17. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format. ANS: 12 26. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa. ANS: 1 one 27. the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits before being compressed to 8 bits. ANS: Quantizing 21. In Europe. In North America. ANS: codec 25. ANS: Companding 22. ANS: µ mu 23. ____________________ is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth. ANS: Aliasing 18. In a PCM system. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally. compression is done using the ____________________-law equation. ANS: A 24. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of reproduction.
ANS: 8000 40. ANS: Granular 29. ANS: timing 37. ANS: slope 30. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity. . In delta modulation. ANS: step 31. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period. There are ____________________ channels in a DS-1 frame. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. ANS: framing 39. ANS: polarity 34. In AMI. ANS: half 32. ANS: DC 33. Long strings of ____________________ should be avoided in AMI. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate of PCM. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and zeros. ANS: 24 38. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change. ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast.28. binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________. The ____________________ size varies in adaptive delta modulation. ANS: transition 36. each channel is sampled ____________________ times per second. ANS: zeros 35. In DS-1. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS: 5 seconds 2.544 × 106 41. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of 15? ANS: 16 kbps 4.000 bits per second if the number of levels transmitted is 8. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. ANS: superframe 42.000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10. ANS: sixth 43. signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do it.ANS: 1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100.000 bits over a channel with a bandwidth of 2. in dB. ANS: Lossless SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz? ANS: 6600 samples/second 5. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per second? . What is the approximate dynamic range. ANS: 2000 hertz 3. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12. of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample? ANS: 74 dB 6. From a group of twelve frames.
ANS: 64 kbps 7. what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor if the input voltage is 0.833 volt . what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the frame? ANS: 56 kbps 8. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame.388 volt? ANS: 0. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt.
Local Area Transport Access c. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Private Switched Telephone Network ANS: A 3. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded c. a type of digital local network ANS: A 6. a toll station ANS: C 8. a central office d. both a and b d. Primary Office Telephone Service ANS: D 4. Plain Old Telephone Service c. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. a local calling area b. Local loops terminate at: a. Private Office Telephone System b. a way of accessing a tandem office d. Primary Operational Test System d. A LATA is a: a. Dual-Tone Multifrequency d. POTS stands for: a. trunk lines ANS: B 7. an interexchange office c. Dial Tone Master Frequency ANS: C 2. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Digital Trunk Master Frequency . Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. PSTN stands for: a. LATA stands for: a. Local Access and Transport Area b. a tandem office b. a way of accessing a central office c. none of the above c. Central offices are connected by: a. Call blocking: a.Chapter 8: The Telephone System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Local Access Telephone Area ANS: A 5. local loops b. DTMF stands for: a. Local Area Telephone Access d. Primary Service Telephone Network d.
90 volts DC b. 2 mA to 8 mA b. FITL stands for: a. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop ANS: B 13. ESS ANS: C 16. step-by-step switching control c. twisted-pair copper wire b. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: c. Fiber In the Toll Loop ANS: D 12. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. 20 mA to 80 mA ANS: D 15. crossbar control d. reduce crosstalk d. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. shielded twisted-pair copper wire ANS: A 11. 48 volts DC c. when it is on hook b. Framing In The Loop d. 20 hertz AC ANS: A 17. as long as it is attached to a local loop d. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. Framing Information for Toll Loops b.ANS: D 9. when it is off hook ANS: B 14. POP stands for: a. 20 hertz AC d. common control b. In telephony. 48 volts. The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. coaxial cable d. 200 µA to 800 µA d. Loading coils were used to: a. 90 volts. 20 µA to 80 µA c. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. Point Of Presence ANS: B 10. none of the above . only when it is ringing c. Fiber-In-The-Loop c. fiber-optic c. DC current flows through a telephone: a. Post Office Protocol b. Power-On Protocol d.
Public Access Branch Exchange ANS: B c. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. jumbogroups d. 48 volts DC b. 90 volts DC d. supergroups b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. all of the above ANS: C 19. 0 dBm ANS: C 22. DSBSC d. 60 ANS: B 23. 48 volts. reduce power consumption ANS: B 21. 20 hertz AC 18. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. via net loss d. voice is put on a carrier using: a. 1 pW d. 90 volts. 12 d. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. VNL stands for: a. 1 mW b. In telephone system FDM. all of the above c. volume net loss ANS: C 20. PCM ANS: A 25. prevent oscillation d. eliminate reflections c. SSB c. prevent "singing" d.a. mastergroups ANS: D 24. voice noise level . PABX stands for: a. 24 b. voltage net loss b. improve signal-to-noise ratio b. allow signals to be multiplexed b. 0 dBr c. 6 c. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. 20 hertz AC ANS: D c. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. PDM b. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a.
ANS: LATA 2. Standard Line Interface Card ANS: C 27. ADSL stands for: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. much faster c. Central offices are connected together by ____________________ lines. A ____________________ is a local calling area. provide synchronization b. Integrated Services Data Network d. it took to long to develop b. check for errors c. c. Standard Local Interface Circuit c. Access to Data Services Line . Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. all of the above ANS: D 31. cancel echoes d. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: a. Information Services Digital Network ANS: A c. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. rectification ANS: C 29. Allocated Digital Service Line d. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. carry signaling ANS: B 28.26. much more expensive b. about the same speed d. justification d. Compared to ISDN. Integrated Services Digital Network b. In DS-1. frame alignment c. Subscriber Line Interface Card d. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line ANS: B 32. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. ISDN stands for: a. compensation b. Information Systems Digital Network 30. SLIC stands for: a. it is too slow c.
A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone. ANS: seized 14. the green wire is called ____________________. As compared to a hierarchical network. New ____________________ switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ____________________ coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies. a ____________________ network never needs more than one intermediate switch. ANS: Loading 10. . ANS: tandem 4. ANS: green 13. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an overload of lines being used. Most local loops still use ____________________ copper wire. ANS: twisted-pair 8. ANS: ring 11. Of the red and green 'phone wires.ANS: trunk 3. The ____________________ functions are provided by a SLIC. ANS: digital 7. One central office can be connected to another through a ____________________ office. In a twisted-pair telephone cable. ANS: blocking 6. ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central office. With 7-digit phone numbers. ANS: ten 5. the red wire is called ____________________. ANS: flat 9. ANS: tip 12. the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other.
not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time. ANS: DTMF 19. ANS: large 18. ____________________ bands separate the channels in a group. amplifiers are called ____________________. a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when used to send digital data. Because of "bit robbing". In the telephone system. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is ____________________. ANS: C-message 23. ANS: conditioned 20. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage. ANS: repeaters 21. ANS: hybrid 16.ANS: BORSCHT 15. ANS: guard 25. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing fullduplex operation over a single pair of wires. In FDM telephony. A ____________________ line provides more bandwidth than a standard line. ANS: 56 . ANS: SSB SSBSC 24. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation. In a crosspoint switch. ANS: suppressor 22. ANS: lines 17. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a typical telephone receiver. In FDM telephony. the modulation is usually ____________________.
In ISDN.26. ANS: stuff 28. the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of wires as the voice signal. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment. ANS: TE1 34. ANS: common-channel 30. ANS: B 33. ANS: in-channel 29. ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates. ANS: packet 31. what is the DC resistance of the local loop? . In ADSL. SS7 is a ____________________-switched data network. ANS: superframe 27. For a certain telephone. If the loop current is 40 mA. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and twelfth frames. In ISDN. The A in ADSL stands for ____________________. the ____________________ channel is used for common-channel signaling. ANS: asymmetrical 35. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. ANS: D 32. the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the opposite direction. SS7 is the current version of _________________________ signaling. In DS-1C. ANS: greater faster SHORT ANSWER 1.
Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay. what is its level in dBrn? ANS: 90 dBrn 6.) ANS: 697 Hz and 1209 Hz 4. what is the DC resistance of the telephone? ANS: 200 ohms 3.ANS: 1000 ohms 2. If C-weighting produces a 10-dB loss. what would the signal level be in dBrnc0? ANS: 65 dBrnc TLP . For a certain telephone. ANS: 1 dB 5. the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If the loop current is 40 mA. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.
American Standard Character-set 2 b. escape characters ANS: C 8. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange ANS: B 7. In practical terms. usually over long distances d. binary data d. control characters d. none of the above c.Chapter 9: Data Transmission MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. and CR are examples of: a. BS. over any distance b. Line Feed c. they do not have any other name d. over short distances only c. nonstandard character codes b. Line Forward c. Western Union d. data link control characters ANS: D 6. Character codes include: a. all of the above ANS: B 5. American Standard Code 2 d. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. LF stands for: a. the Teletype Company ANS: D 3. ASCII stands for: a. numerical data b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange c. both a and b c. graphic control characters d. the Morkum Company b. parallel data transmission is sent: a. character codes b. alphanumeric characters b. all of the above c. character sets ANS: C 4. FF. FIGS data c. Data codes are also called: a. Emile Baudot . The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. usually over a coaxial cable ANS: A 2.
equal to the start and stop bit-times b. much longer than asynchronous frames c. the channel must be noise-free . Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. the CRC bits b. not synchronized at all. UART stands for: a. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. the clock bits c. hence the name "asynchronous" ANS: C 11. equal to zero c. the frames are: a. equal to one bit-time d. a separate clock line ANS: B 15. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. Link Forward 9. In synchronous transmission. not a set length ANS: D 12. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. the transmitter and receiver are: a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. the time between consecutive frames is: a. Link Feed ANS: A d. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a.b. the data bits d. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text ANS: A 10. In synchronous transmission. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. In asynchronous transmission. 128 bytes long d. all of the above ANS: A 14. 1024 bytes long ANS: B 13. In asynchronous transmission. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. Unaltered Received Text d.
parity c. put data into a temporary buffer d. Forward Error Control ANS: C 22. Forward Error Correction d. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. Cycle Repeat Character c. Control Receiver Code b. automatic receiver queue d. LRC d. is a bit-oriented protocol ANS: B 18. "bit-stuffing" b. BISYNC: a. is an IBM product b. FEC b. Cyclic Redundancy Check d. The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. automatic request for retransmission ANS: B 20. ARQ ANS: D 23. Huffman codes: a. HDLC: a. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. ARQ c. is a character-oriented protocol ANS: D 17. all of the above c. Fixed Error Control b. correct synchronization problems ANS: A 21. VRC is another name for: a. Correct Received Character ANS: C 24. automatic request for queue c.ANS: A 16. The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. FEC d. none of the above c. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. is identical to SDLC d. correct bit errors b. is an IBM product b. requires the use of DLE d. FEC stands for: a. CRC stands for: a. different flags at either end of a frame ANS: A 19. ARQ is used to: a. False Error Condition c. all of the above . automatic request for resynchronization b.
ANS: ASCII 5. a bit-oriented protocol b. Synchronous Data Line Control ANS: A 28. HDLC is: a. Synchronous Data Link Character d. ANS: character 4. compress data ANS: B 26. Data codes are also called ____________________ codes. Synchronous Data Line Character c. based on SDLC ANS: D COMPLETION 1. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed ANS: D 25. ANS: FF c. Synchronous Data Link Control b. The term "baud" was named after Emil ____________________. is used to convey symmetric keys ANS: D 27. all of the above c. allows the use of digital signatures b. an ISO standard d. correct data d. avoids the "password problem" d. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal computers. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next page. SDLC stands for: a. Parallel transmission can be used only for ____________________ distances. all of the above c. ANS: Baudot 3. Public-key encryption: a. ANS: short 2. Run-length encoding is used to: a. encrypt data b.d. none of the above .
When receiving digital data. ANS: start 7. In HDLC. In the ____________________ protocol. ANS: data 14. each frame starts with an 8-bit ____________________. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are ____________________. ANS: 01111110 17. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 ____________________ to maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit. the line will be at the ____________________ level. An asynchronous frame ends with the ____________________ bit. An integrated circuit called a ____________________ is used in an asynchronous communication system to convert between parallel and serial data. ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read.6. ANS: mark binary 1 9. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer "overhead" bits. At the end of an asynchronous frame. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission. . BCC stands for ____________________ check character. each frame begins with at least two SYN characters. ANS: BISYNC 15. ANS: efficient 12. ANS: buffers 11. ANS: flag 16. ANS: UART 10. ANS: transitions 13. ANS: stop 8.
ANS: burst 25. ANS: even 24. ____________________ errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad. ANS: decrypted 30. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data. ANS: long 29. ANS: forward 22. ANS: stuffing 20. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting ____________________ errors. ANS: cipher 27. . DLE stands for data link ____________________. Because it is ____________________-intensive. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks. If the key is ____________________ enough. ANS: password 28. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember. ANS: compression 26. private-key encryption can be quite secure. ANS: escape 19. public-key encryption can be slow. Messages cannot be ____________________ using a public key. FEC stands for ____________________ error correction. ANS: Burst 21. ANS: ARQ 23. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________. Parity fails when an ____________________ number of bits are in error.ANS: block 18. HDLC uses bit-____________________ to prevent accidental flags.
The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers? ANS: 30H to 39H 4.7% 6. a parity bit. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. ANS: 97.ANS: computation SHORT ANSWER 1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code? ANS: 64 2. ANS: 66. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system. and two stop bits (it could happen). what is the shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long? ANS: 10 seconds 5.0% . The frame carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits). What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex) numbers? ANS: 20 hex (32 decimal) 3.
node d. Collision Detection d. use CSMA/CD ANS: D 5. Carrier Detection b. not as widely used c. all of the above ANS: B 7. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Each computer on a network is called a: a. a very large CSMA/CD network d. Most LANs: a. Client-Server Multi-Access b. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. Collision Delay c. In a circuit-switched network: a. none of the above . in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. a very large client-server network ANS: A 4. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. token-passing rings are: a. Carrier Server Master Application d.Chapter 10: Local Area Networks MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. hub b. all of the above c. Dumb terminals are still used: a. slower c. none of the above ANS: B 6. CSMA stands for: a. not really a network at all c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access ANS: B 2. a network of networks b. are based on Ethernet b. in token-passing networks b. Carrier Delay ANS: C 3. each channel carries only one data stream c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. use UTP cable d. communication is half-duplex only b. The Internet is: a. token ANS: C 8. circuit c.
none of the above ANS: D 10. Multistation Access Unit b. packets b. the network goes down b. collisions ANS: D 15. contention d. users d. excess traffic b. In an Ethernet-based network.b. a central ring c. carriers b. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. nodes c. Multiple Auxiliary Units d. a node b. MAU stands for: a. tokens ANS: A 11. nodes d. IEEE 802. multiple access ANS: A 13. it is called: a.3 c. it is called: a. more expensive ANS: D d. all networks have collisions ANS: C 14. a collision c. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. token-passing b. contention d. multiple access ANS: B 12. Ethernet d. The effect of too many collisions is: a. On networks. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. the cable overheats d. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. packets c. Multiple Access Unit ANS: A 17. the network slows down ANS: B 16. excess traffic b. data is lost . CSMA c. none of the above c. all of the above 9. One type of network that never has a collision is: a. EIA 232 c. a collision c. a central bus d.
Network Interface Cable ANS: A 25.1 ANS: C 18. Ethernet was invented by: a. Xerox d. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. A 100BaseT cable uses: a. twisted-pair copper wires ANS: B 21. all of the above ANS: C 23. an RJ45 connector c. all of the above ANS: C 24. a BNC connector c. fiber-optic cable b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. 50-ohm coaxial cable . RG-58U coaxial cable d. none of the above ANS: A 22. Network Interface Code d. INTEL ANS: C d.b. Network Interface Card b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. NRZ encoding b. AMI encoding ANS: A 20. NIC stands for: a. Digital Equipment Corporation 19. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. to increase the data rate b. to increase the data rate b. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. Manchester encoding c. Network Internal Code c. CCITT ITU-E c. IEEE 488. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. the cable carries baseband signals b. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. IBM b. Three-Level encoding d. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a.
sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. none of the above ANS: B . are cheaper c. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. an RS11 connector c. all of the above ANS: D 32. all of the above ANS: C 31. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. UTP stands for: a. it is faster when used in large networks c. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: B 30. are more common in token-passing networks ANS: A 29. it is cheaper when used in large networks b.b. all of the above ANS: C 28. use coaxial cables c. a T connector ANS: C 26. both a and b b. modulate the data onto a carrier b. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. CAT-5 cables: a. Broadband LANs: a. peer-to-peer networks c. client-server networks d. allow faster bit rates b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet d. Unicode Text Packet 27. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire ANS: B d. A hub: a. A switch: a. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables.
A LAN is a ____________________ Area Network. basically. ANS: star 4. In a ____________________-switched network. ANS: token 7. In a ____________________ network. store records securely on a server b. ANS: topology 6. a PC with no disk drives b. all of the above . users have a dedicated channel for the duration of communications. UNIX-based c. same as a "dumb" terminal d. all nodes are connected to a central computer. Novell certified ANS: C 35. WINDOWS-based d. ANS: Local 2. a node that rarely sends data ANS: A COMPLETION 1.33. ANS: packet c. A "thin" client is: a. The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. multitasking b. ANS: circuit 5. A ____________________ is a short section of a message in digital form. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. Ring networks often use ____________________-passing. The Internet is a network of ____________________. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. Record locking is used to: a. none of the above ANS: C 34. ANS: networks 3. The ____________________ of a network describes how it is physically connected together.
Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it. ANS: NIC 17. the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its ____________________. ANS: fiber-optic 18. ANS: stacked 19. Hubs can be ____________________ to form. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time. ANS: 100 mega 14. ANS: length 16. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second. ANS: quiet free unused available 12. all collisions must be ____________________. ANS: detected 11. In CSMA/CD. A 100BaseTX cable is a ____________________ cable. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable. A switch looks at the ____________________ of each incoming packet. ANS: address . in effect. ANS: minimum 15. one big hub. In CSMA/CD. In CSMA/CD networks. ANS: backbone 13. ANS: collision 10.8. ANS: Contention 9. packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected. A "____________________" cable links clusters of computers together.
5. the entire network is inoperative. 4. ANS: contention SHORT ANSWER 1. send a packet. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________. and why is it unique? ANS: The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. 3. What is a NIC address. The collision would not be detected. 2. ANS: A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. What is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network? ANS: If the central computer in a star network fails. so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same address is extremely small. A switch sends a packet to a specific port based on the address in the packet. It still works like a token-passing ring. . If a node fails in a CSMA/CD network. So it doesn't matter how the physical connection is made. What is the key difference between a hub and a switch? ANS: A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. and get off before the packets travel far enough to collide. Explain how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring. nodes at either end of a cable could get on. Each factory uses a different sequence of numbers. it can be disconnected and the network still functions.20. Why do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit? ANS: If a packet is too short.
frame layer b.25 ANS: D c. The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. switched circuits ANS: A 3. frame c. Frame Relay: a. 7 d. all of the above c. 8 c. allows for variable length packets d. 5 ANS: C 5. transport layer ANS: A 6. error-check layer d. link layer d. link layer ANS: C 8. store-and-forward b. Standard Network Architecture d. link layer c. MAN stands for: a. Metropolitan-Area Network d.25 b. real-time delivery d. Systems Network Architecture c. user b. SNA stands for: a. Manchester Access Network b. Small Network Access ANS: D 4. is faster than X.Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Multiple Access Network . Multiple-Area Network ANS: C 2. physical layer c. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. all of the above c. Standard Network Access b. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. does less error checking than X. 3 b. physical layer ANS: D 7. cable layer b. network d. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. Packet switching is based on: a.
operate at the data-link level d. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. Transmission Control Protocol ANS: B 13. datagrams c. Asynchronous Transmission Model d. Internet Protocol ANS: B 12. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. connectionless protocol d. is essentially forever b. Interconnect Procedure . IP is a: a. User Datagram Protocol b. User Data Packet d. Transfer Connection Protocol d. virtual circuit ANS: C 15. Interconnect Protocol d. none of the above c. IP stands for: a. Universal Data Packet c.9. HTTP stands for: a. TCP/IP consists of: a. looks at the address of each packet c. Automatic Test Mode 10. Asynchronous Transmission Mode ANS: A c. UDP stands for: a. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. all of the above ANS: D 11. connection-oriented protocol b. is approximately 200 milliseconds ANS: C 16. Internet Process b. separates a network into "collision domains" b. ATM stands for: a. A bridge: a. 7 layers ANS: A 14. Transmission Control Process b. non-robust protocol c. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure c. User Data Protocol ANS: A 17. TCP stands for: a. an application and a process d. Together. 5 layers b.
none of the above ANS: A 23. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level ANS: A 20. Simple Message Transport Protocol ANS: C 24. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. Internet Service Procedure d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer d. Internet Service Provider ANS: B 25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. FTP is used to: a. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. HTTP allows the use of: a. File Transport Protocol ANS: A 22. ISP stands for: a. web page layout d. browsers d. File Test Procedure d. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. none of the above . SMTP stands for: a. HTML allows: a. Fast Transport Packet c. running out of available values d. none of the above c. Internet Service Protocol b. Hypertext Transport Protocol ANS: D 18. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol d. all of the above c. Short Message Transport Protocol b. all of the above c. Hypertext Markup Language b. four groups of base-ten numbers c. telneting b. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. HTML stands for: a. File Transfer Protocol b. dumb terminals b. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language c.b. high-speed file transfer ANS: C 21. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. file transport ANS: C 19. FTP stands for: a. a 32-bit binary number b.
A ____________________ is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications. stores all domain addresses d. ANS: forward 6. the use of "spoofing" protocols ANS: C 29. c. has become obsolete on the Internet b. none of the above c.ANS: D 26. Open Systems Internet d. a "firewall" b. A DNS: a. ANS: leased 4. describes the Internet address-naming procedure ANS: B 28. ANS: Wide 3. The use of digital circuit-____________________ lines is cheaper than dedicated lines. Domain Naming System . ANS: switched 5. a DNS c. Open Systems Interconnection b. A ____________________-Area Network could extend across a nation. Domain Name Server b. Packet switching is done on a store-and-____________________ network. DNS stands for: a. Open Standard Interconnection ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: Metropolitan 2. OSI stands for: a. a "brick wall" d. Domain Numbering System d. Domain Name System ANS: A 27. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. A ____________________-Area Network would extend typically across a city. translates words to numbers c. A dedicated telephone line can be ____________________ on a monthly basis.
ANS: protocol 7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the ____________________ layer. ANS: physical 8. Bad frames are usually detected at the ____________________ layer. ANS: data-link 9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the ____________________ layer. ANS: network 10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the ____________________. ANS: CCITT 11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: frame 12. In X.25, the network layer is called the ____________________ layer. ANS: packet 13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used. ANS: virtual 14. Frame Relay requires channels with low ____________________ rates. ANS: bit-error 15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does ____________________ error checking. ANS: less 16. All ATM frames contain just ____________________ bytes. ANS: 53 17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications. ANS: real 18. ____________________ simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network. ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it. ANS: Bridges 20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet. ANS: Routers 21. TCP/IP goes back to the ____________________ of the 1970s. ANS: ARPANET DARPANET 22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first. ANS: TCP/IP 23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent. ANS: connectionless 24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web. ANS: hyperlinks 25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed ____________________ cables. ANS: fiber-optic 26. A ____________________ translates words in an Internet address to numbers. ANS: DNS 27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security. ANS: firewall 28. Voice over ____________________ is telephony done over the Internet. ANS: IP 29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet. ANS: Streaming 30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an ____________________. ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER 1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet. ANS: Network number, Subnet number, Host number 2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit? ANS: A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit. 3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size? ANS: The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per second through the network. 4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not just have one layer that does it all? ANS: Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program. 5. What is a "hop"? ANS: Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to be one "hop". 6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops? ANS: Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network. 7. Why should packets have a lifetime? ANS: If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
the eye is half open b. modulation index ANS: C 6. PSK stands for: a. Full-Signal Keying d. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. intermodulation distortion b. the eye is maximally open c. maximum number of symbols per second c. the eye is maximally closed d. bits d. too many bits high c. bits per second c. margin of noise b. intersymbol interference ANS: D 8. none of the above c. too many bits low d. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. Quadrature Amplitude Masking ANS: A 4. number of possible states per symbol d. Full-Shift Keying b. QAM stands for: a. Pulse-Signal Keying b. QAM ANS: A c. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. amperes per second ANS: C 5. AFSK d. the eye alternately opens and closes ANS: A 7. M is the: a. Frequency-Shift Keying ANS: B 2. FSK c. Pulse-Shift Keying ANS: D 3. Phase-Signal Keying d. I is measured in: a. PSK b.Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. FSK stands for: a. none of the above . amperes b. In the equation I = ktB. Quadrature Amplitude Marking d. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. Phase-Shift Keying c.
a byte c. full-duplex. a Q-bit ANS: C 10. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel ANS: B 17. 1200 bps. To reduce the need for linearity. half-duplex. ANSI c. angles of 45. angles of π/4. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. all of the above . Instead of a single bit. 4 bits d. ITU is an abbreviation for: a. low SNR d. amplitude and phase angle d. full-duplex.9. 1200 bps. Gaussian bits b. full-duplex. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. effects of noise on symbols d. noise and interference b. 300 bps. a dibit b. 135. π/4 DQPSK uses: a. random bits c. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. ANS: B 16. FSK c. 3π/4. International Telecommunications Units c. IEEE d. 2π/4. double phase-shift angles ANS: B 11. International Telecommunications Union d. and 315 degrees d. International Telephony Unit b. and 4π/4 b. FSK d. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. I-bits and Q-bits ANS: B 13. International Telephony Union ANS: C 15. and 270 degrees c. uneven phase and frequency response c.N. amplitude and frequency c. CCITT b. frequency and phase angle b. FSK ANS: A 14. a QPSK symbol contains: a. angles of 0. For QAM. the U. separation of symbols in "symbol space" ANS: D 12. a random sequence c. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. 90. The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. 180. For QAM. 225. a training sequence d. FSK b. 600 bps. The ITU is under the auspices of: a.
signal ground is pin: a. flow control is done using: a. RTS/CTS handshake b. 3 d. a DTE c. signal ground is pin: a. In RS-232. MNP2. 3 d. the ISO . a DSR ANS: D 25. MNP4. the TIA ANS: C 19. MNP3. The official name for RS-232C is: a. MNP5 and V. error-correction protocols ANS: A 21. 7 c.ANS: C 18. In RS-232. data-compression schemes b. a DTE c. the ITU d. In RS-232. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. The V. both a and b d.90 standard is issued by: a. 7 ANS: C 26. a DSR ANS: C 24. a DTR b. and MNP10 are all: a. XON/XOFF characters ANS: C 22. none of the above c. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. EIA-232D ANS: B 23. the EIA b. a DCE d. data-compression schemes b. none of the above c. a DCE d. 1 c. 5 b. none of the above c. a DTR b. RS-232C b. ISO-232C/D d. both a and b d. a personal computer would be: a. 1 c. a modem would be: a. ANSI-232C c.42 bis are both: a. error-correction protocols ANS: B 20. both a and b d. 5 b.
A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. TD. Digital Subscriber Line d. Cable Modem Transmission System ANS: A 35. RD. TD and RD ANS: A 30. Any DSL scheme c. Hybrid Fiber Control c. TD and RD ANS: C 29. HFC stands for: a. Asymmetrical DSL ANS: B 33. none of the above c. Double-Speed Loop c. ADSL stands for: a. TD. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. Hybrid Fiber-Coax d. all of the above ANS: D 31. RTS. Hybrid Frequency Control ANS: C 34. Asynchronous DSL b. RTS and CTS d. +15 volts c. DSR and DCD c.ANS: D 27. Cable Modem Terminal System d. and signal ground d. XON and XOFF b. RD. Digital Signal Line ANS: C 32. RTS and CTS d. DSR. and signal ground ANS: B 28. In a CATV system. In a CATV system. Data Signal Line b. ADSL Lite b. CTS. DSR and DCD c. All DSL c. +9 volts b. +12 volts d. DSL stands for: a. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. ADSL d. Analog DSL d. XON and XOFF b. CMTS stands for: a. Hardware flow control uses: a. RD. and signal ground . Cable Modem Terminal Server b. TD and RD b. TD. Software flow control uses: a. Head Frequency Control b. Cable Modem Transmission Server c.
The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram. ANS: Send 2. RTS means Request To ____________________. DPSK stands for ____________________ PSK. ITU stands for International _________________________ Union. ANS: four 9. In QAM modems. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a ____________________. DSR stands for ____________________ Set Ready. QPSK uses ____________________ different phase angles. ANS: Telecommunications 12. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift ____________________. ANS: Delta 10. ANS: Quadrature 6. ANS: CTS 3. ANS: Keying 4. ANS: Data 5. The response to RTS is ____________________. QAM stands for ____________________ Amplitude Modulation. ANS: dibit 8. ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy line. ANS: constellation 11.ANS: C COMPLETION 1. . The number of symbols per second is called the ____________________ rate. ANS: baud 7.
. ANS: CMTS 23. A typical CATV system is organized as a ____________________ network. ANS: Asymmetrical 21. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports. ANS: hardware 18. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase response on a line. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is ____________________ bps. ANS: 20k 16. ADSL stands for ____________________ DSL. ANS: tree 22. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps. ANS: CD DCD RLSD 17. In a CATV system using cable modems. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS. the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is being received. ANS: null 20. ANS: 54k 15. a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data onto a fiber-optic backbone. ANS: 3 19. Between hardware flow control and software flow control. In RS-232. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver.ANS: Trellis 13. ____________________ flow control is preferred. ANS: Equalization 14.
ANS: ADSL 25. Approximately how many bins are there? ANS: 230 5.ANS: Ranging 24. A DSLAM is a DSL Access ____________________. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second. ANS: DMT 27. ANS: 4000 2. If half the modems are active at any given time. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or bins for ADSL. A DMT system uses 4. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dialup service. how many possible states must a symbol have to achieve a data rate of 1200 bps? ANS: . A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2 amplitude levels? ANS: 16 3. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible states per symbol.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. ANS: lite 26. what bit rate can a customer expect? ANS: 720 kbps 4. ANS: Multiplexer SHORT ANSWER 1.
a limiting factor in FDM is: a. all of the above ANS: C 5. every other frame c. 256 kbps d. 64 channels c.Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.536 Mbps b. every frame b. signaling bit d. they mean the same thing ANS: B 4. 64 kbps c. Time Domain Multiple Access b. CDMA stands for: a. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. none of the above c. 12 channels b. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement d. the length of the channel d. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal b. Time-Division Multiple Access ANS: B 2. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. every sixth frame d. Carrier Division Multiple Access ANS: A 3. every twelfth frame c. none of the above . all the signals come from the same source b. In DS-1. Code-Division Multiple Access b. 1. timing bit b. When calculating the maximum number of users. the signals come from different sources c. 1.544 Mbps ANS: D 7. T-bit ANS: D 8. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: a. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. A DS-1 signal contains: a. framing bit c. TDM is used in RF communications d. 24 channels ANS: B 6. TDMA stands for: a. 32 channels d. Tone Division Multiple Access d. Besides data bits.
ANS: C 9. RF gain b. all of the above c. frequency-hopping ANS: D 13. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. space switching d. all of the above c. approximately double the bandwidth ANS: B 15. TDM switch ANS: D 12. bandwidth of original baseband d. direct-sequence systems. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. crosspoint switch . frequency-hopping ANS: C 14. crosspoint switching ANS: A 11. compared to standard RF systems. much more bandwidth d. a narrowband receiver c. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. A digital space switch is a: a. line switching b. For a given data rate. direct-sequence method d. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. time switching c. a direct-conversion receiver b. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. the digital data bit rate c. computer speed ANS: C 16. about the same bandwidth c. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. space switching d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. a wideband receiver d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. computerized Strowger switch d. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. cross-point switching ANS: B 10. direct-sequence method d. multiplexer b. spreading gain d. signal switching b. improved signal-to-noise ratio c. the chip size ANS: B 17. use: a. much less bandwidth b. a CDMA receiver c. To calculate processing gain. time switching c. the S/N ratio b.
true-random PN sequences b. ANS: all 6. orthogonal PN sequences c. ANS: time 7. CDMA: a. Multiplexing allows many signals to ____________________ a channel. a direct-conversion receiver b. The AM radio band is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing. a wideband receiver d. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA. cannot be used on an RF channel d. For optimal performance. In TDM. a "chip-rate" receiver ANS: B 19. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously ANS: D 20. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. and ____________________. ANS: all 4. ANS: part 5. each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. In FDM. ANS: share 2. CDMA requires the use of: a. ANS: frequency . cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. Using CDMA on a radio channel.ANS: A 18. a narrowband receiver c. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. TDMA. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. ANS: CDMA 3. all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time. each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time. DS-1 is an example of ____________________-division multiplexing.
8. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching. T1 uses the ____________________ line code. ANS: Rayleigh 17. ANS: AMI 10. ANS: time 16. ANS: space 15.544 Meg 12. . A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a ____________________. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of ____________________ bits. ANS: superframe 14. ANS: hopping 19. ANS: 24 9. ANS: 193 11. ANS: 1. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading. ANS: difficult 20. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency ____________________. ANS: pseudo 18. A PN sequence is a ____________________-random noise sequence. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains ____________________ bits. ANS: 8 13. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate of ____________________ bits per second. It is ____________________ to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal. It is ____________________ to jam a spread-spectrum signal.
How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz? ANS: 9 3. 5. the higher the possible bit rate. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital transmission? ANS: The more bandwidth. ANS: code 24. by definition. when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________. 2. ANS: chips 22. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the information signal occupies. jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.ANS: difficult 21. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal? ANS: In a spread-spectrum transmission. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals? . it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. 4. Because a spread-spectrum signal is. the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. spread out over a very wide bandwidth. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system. the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is virtually indistinguishable from noise. ANS: orthogonal SHORT ANSWER 1. And without knowing the exact sequence being used. The 'C' in CDMA stands for ____________________. So the more bandwidth available. ANS: ten 23.
as it is in spread-spectrum. . f13. f13. and so forth. f12. 6. f23. f12. If the two sets of frequencies.) and (f21. then the two PN sequences are said to be orthogonal.. suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11. f22. .. f23. f22. have no frequencies in common.). .. (f11.. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA? ANS: During transmission. Now suppose PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21. and so forth. At some point in time. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2.ANS: Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less than one. the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spreadspectrum signal will occupy.
Shorted Wire Region d. the resistance of a wire: a. TDR stands for: a. all of the above c. As frequency increases. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. As frequency increases. distributed d. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. increases c. Shorted Wave Radiation b. an open-wire-line cable d. Time-Domain Response d. equal reactances b. Total Distance of Reflection b. ideal elements ANS: B 5. stays the same b. When analyzing a transmission line. none of the above . the skin effect b. there is no such effect ANS: C 7. Time-Domain Reflectometer ANS: B 3. Sine Wave Response ANS: D 2. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. decreases d. SWR stands for: a.Chapter 14: Transmission Lines MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. changes periodically ANS: A 6. decreases d. An example of an unbalanced line is: a. increases c. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. there is no loss in a dielectric ANS: A 8. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. the Ohmic effect d. stays the same b. I2R loss c. a coaxial cable b. lumped c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. Transmission Delay Ratio c. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable ANS: A 4.
The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. would not reflect at all ANS: A 15. equal to Z0 b. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. the inductance per foot b. would not reflect at all ANS: B 13. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. 50 ohms ANS: C 10. lower than Z0 c. as large as possible d. one ANS: B 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. there is no optimum value c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. higher than Z0 d. increases with voltage d. zero b. none of the above . all of the above ANS: B 12. increases with frequency ANS: D 11. higher voltage peaks on cable d. The optimum value for SWR is: a.ANS: D 9. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. standing waves b. would reflect as a negative pulse c. loss of power to load c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. the dielectric constant d. For best matching. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. the wire resistance c. the load on a cable should be: a. all of the above c. increases with length b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would not reflect at all ANS: D 14.
the characteristic impedance b. dividing it by 2π d. 50 ohms ANS: C 19. cannot be connected ANS: C 22. would be the same b. multiplying it by 2π b. propagation velocity ANS: A 20. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. On a Smith Chart. zero c. none of the above ANS: D 24.ANS: D 17. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. is the characteristic impedance b. cannot be compared ANS: B 21. would be more d. none of the above . assuming it to be zero c. none of the above ANS: C 25. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: a. by using a filter d. voltage SWR d. the current d. the impedance b. by using a "balun" b. would be less c. directly c. is infinite c. vacuum SWR ANS: C 18. A TDR is commonly used to: a. transmission line losses c. dividing it by Z0 ANS: D 23. is zero d. optimum length of a transmission line d. the voltage c. find the position of a defect in a cable c. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. variable SWR b. The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. Compared to a 300-ohm line. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. transmission line impedances b. VSWR stands for: a. one d.
c. replace a slotted-line d. all of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called ____________________. ANS: unbalanced 2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground. ANS: balanced 3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance. ANS: characteristic 4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively ____________________ frequencies. ANS: low 5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use ____________________ parameters instead of lumped ones. ANS: distributed 6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect. ANS: skin 7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside the wire. ANS: magnetic 8. Dielectrics become more ____________________ as the frequency increases. ANS: lossy 9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________. ANS: length 10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called ____________________ impedance. ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line. ANS: matched 12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________ polarity. ANS: opposite 13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________ wave. ANS: standing 14. SWR stands for ____________________-wave ratio. ANS: standing 15. The ideal value for SWR is ____________________. ANS: one 16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a ____________________ chart. ANS: Smith 17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors. ANS: stubs 18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy. ANS: absorb 19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load. ANS: 3 20. It is often best to measure SWR at the ____________________ end of a cable. ANS: load 21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of its dielectric. ANS: breakdown 22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by ____________________. ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance. ANS: center 24. A ____________________ wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer. ANS: one-quarter 25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the ____________________ domain. ANS: frequency SHORT ANSWER 1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its characteristic impedance. ANS: Z0 = 200 ohms 2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate, approximately, its characteristic impedance. ANS: 386 ohms 3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for the cable? ANS: 0.62 4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the cable? ANS: 12.5 ms 5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz? ANS: 0.6 meters 6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum voltage along the cable? ANS: 200 volts
A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms.7.5.2 9.2 transmits 100 watts into the line. If a cable has an SWR of 1. what would be the normalized value of an impedance equal to 200 + j50 ohms? ANS: 4 + j1 . A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0. but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load. How much power is actually absorbed by the load? ANS: 96 watts 10. what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection? ANS: 0.5 8. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable. What SWR do you expect to measure? ANS: 1.
Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. the microprocessor chip c. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. True Electromagnetic d. none of the above ANS: C 7. Armstrong c. Maxwell b. perpendicular to each other c. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Maxwell b. both a and b b. gamma waves d. 300 × 10 meters per second d. high-power microwave transmitters b. Hertz d. Transmitted Electromagnetic ANS: A 8. reuse of frequencies b. all of the above . radio waves b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. high power levels c. the miniature cell-site d. In free space. Armstrong c. Hertz d. 3 × 106 meters per second c. light ANS: D 6. 300 × 106 miles per second ANS: B c. Transverse Electromagnetic b.Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 3 × 106 miles per second 6 b. all of the above ANS: C 5. Marconi ANS: B 3. Marconi ANS: C 2. none of the above c. all of the above ANS: A 4. high antennas d. TEM stands for: a.
Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. EIRP stands for: a. all of the above ANS: D 11. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power ANS: B 14. a flat dielectric surface of the right size ANS: C 17. circular b. all of the above ANS: D 10. a flat body of water c. horizontal d. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. below about 2 MHz b. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. Ground waves are most effective: a. a vertically polarized radiator ANS: A 13. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. at microwave frequencies d. many ANS: B 12. a flat metallic surface of the right size d.9. 1 c. horizontal d. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. above about 20 MHz ANS: A 16. vertical c. 2 d. none of the above . refraction c. when using horizontally polarized waves c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront ANS: C 15. an isotropic radiator b. 3 b. a ground-wave antenna d. circular b. vertical c. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. reflection c.
reflected off the ionosphere c. far from the transmitter ANS: D 21. cancellation due to reflection c. A "repeater" is used to: a. are radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: B 20. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. diffraction d. the radio horizon d. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. the reuse of frequencies c. diffraction 18. diffraction ANS: C 23. Space waves are: a. fading b. high power b. extend the range of a radio communications system d.b. in the "skip" zone . are line-of-sight b. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. close to the transmitter b. in the "silent" zone d. cancel the effects of fading ANS: C 24. send a message multiple times over a channel b. are same as space waves d. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. frequency diversity b. diffusion ANS: D d. multipath distortion d. Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. the cell area is increased c. fading c. line-of-sight b. the power levels are increased c. same as sky waves d. Cellular phone systems rely on: a. radio waves used for satellite communications ANS: A 19. Sky waves: a. repeaters ANS: D 25. spatial diversity ANS: A 22.
used for radio telephony b. c. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by ____________________. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is ____________________ m/sec. ANS: photons 6. a "rake" receiver d. radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. a "handoff" process occurs c. lowest layer of the atmosphere d. nothing occurs ANS: A 27. ANS: 300 × 106 5. Radio waves were first demonstrated by ____________________. a "sectoring" process occurs d. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. not possible c. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere . highest layer of the atmosphere b. Unlike sound or water waves. To receive several data streams at once. ANS: Maxwell 2.b. a "funnel" receiver c. ANS: Hertz 3. used to send data by radio ANS: B COMPLETION 1. the cell area is split ANS: B d. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called ____________________. also called "ducting" d. The troposphere is the: a. the number of channels is reduced 26. middle layer of the atmosphere ANS: C 29. both cells will handle the call b. multiple receivers b. none of the above ANS: B 28. Radio waves are ____________________ electromagnetic waves. ANS: transverse 4.
ANS: decrease 17. ANS: sphere 10. ANS: plane 11. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions. ANS: circular 15. ANS: gain 16. ANS: isotropic 9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a ____________________. ANS: 3 × 106 8. a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave. With ____________________ polarization. ANS: specular . The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter.ANS: medium 7. ANS: electric 12. ANS: perpendicular 13. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through space. the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field. At a far distance from the source. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation direction. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called ____________________ reflection. ANS: perpendicular 14. Waves from an ____________________ source radiate equally in all directions.
each covering a third of the cell area. ANS: reflected 26. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology. ANS: skip 24. ANS: multipath 25. to reduce interference.18. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas. Cell phones typically operate at a ____________________ power level. ANS: Sectoring 29. ANS: diffraction 20. ANS: microprocessor . ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface. ANS: Refraction 19. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received. ANS: reuse 28. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of ____________________ distortion. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering with direct waves. ANS: Sky 23. ANS: Ground 22. ____________________ waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion. ANS: Space 21. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner". ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics. ANS: low 27.
what is the expected time between fades? ANS: 15 msec . A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6. is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same? ANS: 37 meters 6. how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work? ANS: 8. approximately.000 meters from the source? ANS: 796 pW/m2 3. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric? ANS: 45 ohms 2.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. what is the power density 10. What. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 µW/m2? ANS: 113 watts 4. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart.9 km 5.SHORT ANSWER 1. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour.
in one direction c. active antenna b. from +90° to –90° b. between the minor side-lobes c. in all directions b. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. one half-wavelength d. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. between half-power points d. none of the above . the reflected signal d. 0 dB c. infinite ANS: A 8. 3 dB d. from front to back c. resonance ANS: A 7. Measured on the ground. one wavelength c. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. directivity c. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. a Marconi antenna b. a Hertz antenna ANS: B 3. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. in two directions d. I2R loss of the antenna ANS: C 5. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. a Yagi antenna d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength ANS: D 4. all of the above ANS: A 2. radiation resistance of the antenna b. selectivity d.Chapter 16: Antenna MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 10 dB b. depends on the number of elements ANS: B 6. the radiated signal c. the SWR b. SWR along the feed cable d.
ANS: C 9. ERP stands for: a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Effective Radiation Pattern ANS: D 10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS: A 11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. mounted vertically b. mounted horizontally ANS: A 12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. dipole b. folded dipole ANS: C 13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. gamma rays c. helical rotation b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled ANS: B 14. A nonresonant antenna: a. will not transmit b. will not receive ANS: C 15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. resistive c. capacitive b. inductive d. infinite ANS: A 16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. a shorted stub c. an LC network b. a loading coil d. all of the above ANS: D 17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases c. will cause SWR on the feed cable d. all of the above c. ferrite "loop-stick" d. none of the above c. at least one half-wavelength long d. at least one wavelength long c. Equivalent Radiated Power d. Effective Radiated Power
b. the number of nodes decreases ANS: A 18. Arrays can be: a. phased b. driven ANS: D
d. none of the above
c. parasitic d. all of the above
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole b. Yagi d. stacked array ANS: B 20. LPDA stands for: a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Low-Power Directed Array ANS: C 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. collimated c. dispersed b. phased d. none of the above ANS: A 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. center c. focus b. edges d. horn ANS: C 23. Antennas are often tested in: a. an echo chamber b. an anechoic chamber ANS: B 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS: D COMPLETION 1. An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and ____________________. ANS: space 2. Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave ____________________. c. a vacuum chamber d. an RF reflective chamber c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array d. Log Power Dipole Array
ANS: dipole 3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about ____________________ % of a half-wave in free space. ANS: 95 4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted radio waves leaving the antenna. ANS: radiation 5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 70 6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω. ANS: 280 – 300 7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of ____________________. ANS: elevation 8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates. ANS: polar 9. As compared to a ____________________ source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi. ANS: point isotropic 10. Antenna gain measured in ____________________ is with reference to a half-wave dipole. ANS: dBd 11. ____________________ is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna. ANS: Directivity 12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is ____________________ dB. ANS: 0 13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points. ANS: beamwidth
The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a ____________________ element. ANS: effective 15. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power. . A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________. ANS: gain 16. ANS: vertical 20. ANS: wider greater more 19. ANS: parasitic 25. A ____________________ is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna. ANS: balun 17. The length of a typical monopole antenna is ____________________ wavelength. ANS: horizontal 18. ANS: omnidirectional 23. ANS: one-quarter 1/4 21. ANS: ground 22. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization.14. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically ____________________. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane. An LPDA is a ____________________ dipole array. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the ____________________ direction. ANS: one 24. A folded dipole has ____________________ bandwidth than a standard dipole.
A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. ANS: anechoic SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: collimated 29.ANS: log-periodic 26. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz. A microwave ____________________ antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide. ANS: horn 30. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt? ANS: 10 watts 5. ANS: focus 28. An ____________________ chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.14 dB of gain compared to a point source. ANS: five 27. the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________. If an antenna has 10. What is the RMS current in the antenna? ANS: 1 ampere . ANS: 475 millimeters 2. how much gain does it have compared to a half-wave dipole? ANS: 8 dB 4. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts? ANS: 95 watts 3. If an LPDA had five elements.
A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts.6. What is the RMS voltage at the feed-point of the antenna? ANS: 100 volts .
TM 01 d. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. same as the microwave range . the shape of the waveguide c. with a magnetic field probe c. none of the above ANS: A 4. of its circular symmetry d. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. it is more efficient ANS: B 7. TM 01 ANS: C 6. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: c.Chapter 17: Microwave Devices MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. it is dominant c. depends on the frequency it carries c. TM11 b. is fixed b. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. it is the only mode possible b. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. TM10 ANS: C 5. through a hole in the waveguide b. above the microwave range d. below the microwave range b. inside the microwave range ANS: A 3. 10 GHz b. the point of signal injection b. with an electric field probe d. both b and c ANS: D 8. TE 11 d. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. all of the above c. the power level of the signal d. 100 MHz c. TE 01 c. TE 01 b. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. TE 10 a. The UHF range is: a. 100 GHz ANS: B 2. 1 GHz d.
Transverse-Wave Tube ANS: C 14. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. none of the above c. separates signals among various ports d. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. couple components on a circuit board d. tuned circuit b.ANS: D 9. separates signals among various ports d. couple waveguides to antennas ANS: C 11. TWT stands for: a. defect in a waveguide ANS: A 12. their insertion loss c. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide ANS: B 15. An "isolator" is a device that: a. gallium assembly ANS: A c. a "magic" TEE d. A resonant cavity is a type of: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. Traveling-Wave Tube d. gallium astenite d. an E-plane TEE ANS: D 13. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide ANS: C 16. all of the above ANS: D 10. Transverse Wave Transmission b. couple sections of waveguide b. their coupling specification d. antenna d. none of the above c. an H-plane TEE b. A "circulator" is a device that: a. their directivity b. A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. GaAs stands for: a. all of the above c. gallium arsenide b. Traveling-Wave Transmission c. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. none of the above . Striplines and microstrips are used to: a.
radio detection and ranging d. RADAR stands for: a. RADAR uses: a. an "exciter" signal 20.17. mechanical pressure d. an electric field b. TWT c. TWT c. YIG stands for: a. klystron d. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet d. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. remote detection and ranging . magnetron b. all of the above ANS: A 24. magnetron b. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. TWT c. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium ANS: C 19. impact avalanche and transit time b. pulsed transmission b. the Doppler effect d. klystron d. induced mobility at transmission time ANS: A 18. all of the above c. implied power at transmission terminal d. YIG ANS: A 22. radio depth and ranging ANS: C 25. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. slots c. none of the above c. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. magnetron b. A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. YIG ANS: B 23. radio ranging b. YIG ANS: C 21. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. Fresnel lenses b. IMPATT stands for: a. Yagis d. none of the above c. continuous transmission ANS: D c. klystron d. a magnetic field ANS: B c.
group velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode. ANS: Dispersion 2. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. none of the above ANS: B 27. ANS: dominant 4. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section. ANS: zero 3. increases with increasing repetition rate c. ANS: faster 10. ANS: high 8. the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section. decreases with increasing pulse period b. impedance ____________________ as frequency increases. . increases with increasing pulse duration c. ANS: TM01 7. ____________________ mode is used because of its circular symmetry. is always a tenth of the maximum range b. In a waveguide. ____________________ is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide. phase velocity is always ____________________ than the speed of light. none of the above ANS: A COMPLETION 1. The electric field is ____________________ along the walls of a rectangular waveguide. ANS: electric 5. In TE10 mode. A waveguide acts as a ____________________-pass filter. In TE20 mode.26. In a waveguide. In a circular waveguide. In a waveguide. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. ANS: two 6. ANS: slower 9.
ANS: higher SHORT ANSWER 1. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size. ANS: smaller 20. ANS: hybrid 12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very ____________________ compared to lumped LC circuits. Both klystrons and TWTs are ____________________-beam tubes. A ____________________ TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.ANS: decreases 11. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground plane on the other side. ANS: cavity 14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative ____________________. ANS: wave 16. . A wavemeter is a resonant ____________________ with an adjustable plunger. ANS: resistance 15. ANS: patch 19. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the target is moving toward the radar antenna. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow ____________________ tubes. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross section is 5 cm. ANS: slot 18. A ____________________ antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it. ANS: linear 17. ANS: high 13.
Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.ANS: 3 GHz 2. ANS: 15 km 7. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second. ANS: 260 × 106 meters per second 3.8 6. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses. ANS: 173 millimeters 5. ANS: 300 meters . ANS: 14. ANS: 346 × 106 meters per second 4. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
QAM d. Loss Of Signal ANS: C 8. noise level d. all of the above ANS: C 7. LOS stands for: a. 99. reliability c. all of the above . 99. In analog microwave systems. 99% d. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. skip b. jitter c.Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. section c.99% ANS: D 4. Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. all of the above ANS: B 6. Microwave systems use: a. hop d. SSB ANS: D 3. noise level d. additional repeaters increase the: a. jump ANS: B 2. a very wide microwave beam ANS: A c. 20 watts d. Line-Of-Signal c. excessive noise d. Loss Of Skip b. jitter b. 200 watts b. 90% c. reliability c. none of the above ANS: A 5. Too much antenna gain causes: a. jitter b. Line-Of-Sight d. 2 watts c. a very narrow microwave beam b. FM b. additional repeaters increase the: a. In digital microwave systems. The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a.9% b.
good energy per bit per noise density ratio ANS: D 12. diversity c. low level of transmitted power b. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. attenuation due to weather ANS: D 13. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. baseband type ANS: D 16. all of the above ANS: B 17. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. all of the above ANS: A 14. when distance exceeds line-of-sight ANS: B 15. Fading is caused by: a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. it requires less power b. 60% of the highest obstacle height ANS: B 10. below 10 GHz c. power d. high-gain antennas b. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. above 10 GHz d. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. all of the above c. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. high level of ERP c. less bandwidth is required c. accumulation of noise is reduced d. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a.9. ducting d. multipath reception b. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio d. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. Microwave repeaters can be: a. none of the above ANS: A 11. IF type b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. all of the above . always b. regenerative type d. MMDS stands for: a.
LMDS is: a. ANS: jitter 5. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems ANS: C 18. Low-power Microwave Distribution System ANS: B 19. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. One microwave link is called a ____________________. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime. the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter. unidirectional ANS: A COMPLETION 1. ANS: studio 3.b. Adding more links causes ____________________ in a digital microwave system. none of the above . ANS: noise density 7. bidirectional b. it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in calculations. In digital microwave systems. ANS: hop 2. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. In microwave systems. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of ____________________. ANS: fading c. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. ANS: temperature 6. LMDS stands for: a. ANS: year 4. Local Microwave Distribution System b. multidirectional d. STL stands for ____________________-to-transmitter links.
If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. what would it be. and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of 20 dBi? .8. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of ____________________. approximately. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight distance. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity in a microwave system. How many dBm of power gets to the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt. An obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. ANS: diversity 10.4 meters 3. MMDS is unidirectional. Analog microwave systems use both IF and ____________________ repeaters. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power. ANS: noise 14. ANS: Repeaters 12. ANS: LMDS SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: space 9. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes from link to link. for a microwave beam? ANS: 16 km 2. ANS: baseband 13. ANS: ten 11. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. but ____________________ is bidirectional. By how much must the beam clear the obstacle? ANS: 16.
A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal.ANS: –42. The noise power is –100 dBm.4 dBm 4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input. What is the carrier-tonoise power ratio? ANS: 40 dB . ANS: 201 K 5.
EIA b. Red-Green Brightness ANS: D 4. 60 ANS: D 7. Nippon Television Systems Commission ANS: B 2. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. chroma d. contrast c. 625 d. 525 : 625 d. 1024 b. 25 c. RGB stands for: a. 60 ANS: B 6. 4 : 3 ANS: B 8. Luminance refers to: a. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. raster c. IEEE ANS: C 3. 25 c. 525 c. National Television Systems Committee c. National Television Systems Council d.Chapter 19: Television MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Red-Green-Blue . 30 d. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 3 : 4 b. 1250 ANS: A 5. NTSC stands for: a. brightness b. 625 : 525 c. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. FCC c. 50 b. 30 d. National Television Systems Commission b. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. Red-Green Bandwidth d. Red-Green Burst b. IRE d. 50 b.
NTSC units . in-phase video component. composite video signal. pixel d. quadrature phase color component b. lumins ANS: C 10. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines ANS: B 15. pic ANS: C 16.ANS: A 9. black d. peak white ANS: B 11. whiter than white c. composite color signal. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. quadrature video color component d. is about the same as vertical resolution c. none of the above c. white c. all white d. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. The maximum luminance level is called: a. equalize the DC level d. luminance signal. dot b. quadrature phase color component c. maintain vertical sync ANS: A 14. horizontal resolution: a. whiter than white b. When measured in lines. in-phase color component. Y I Q refers to: a. is greater than vertical resolution b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. all of the above c. IRE units d. whiter than white b. foot-candles b. In a color TV receiver. maintain horizontal sync b. Luminance is measured in: a. max white b. is less than vertical resolution d. blacker than black ANS: D 13. black d. white c. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. in-phase color component. a method of demodulating stereo sound ANS: A c. blacker than black ANS: B 12.
much higher d. vestigial sideband AM d. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. SSB c. vestigial sideband AM d. FM ANS: B 19. sync amplitude pulse d. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. much greater c. FM ANS: C 21. Compared to a monochrome CRT. separate audio pulse ANS: A 23. SAP stands for: a. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. much less b. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. the isolation transformer c. suppressed-carrier AM b. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. much lower b. Compared to the luminance signal. suppressed-carrier AM b. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration ANS: B 25. the yoke ANS: C 24. The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. the flyback transformer b. FM ANS: D 20. detect the presence of a color video signal b. vestigial sideband AM d. sync audio pulse . all of the above ANS: D 22. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. the video transformer d. SSB c. separate audio program b. SSB c. about the same c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. suppressed-carrier AM b. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. about the same d. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal c. resolution does not apply to color ANS: C 18.17.
automatic frequency and picture control d. none of the above .d. ANS: composite 6. ANS: aspect 7. automatic frequency and phase control ANS: B COMPLETION 1. During the horizontal blanking interval. ANS: Aquadag 2. The ____________________ ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height. ANS: chroma chrominance 9. Brightness information is called ____________________. ANS: porch c. allowed full picture chroma b. ANS: luma luminance 8. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________. The NTSC specifies a ____________________ video signal. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV. The ____________________ standard for TV has been in use since 1953. ANS: retraces 5. AFPC stands for: a. Color information is called ____________________. ANS: NTSC 3. ANS: scanning 4. Video systems form pictures by a ____________________ process. the electron beam ____________________ from right to left. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal ANS: A 26.
3 14. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is ____________________.58 18. ANS: phosphor 22. The horizontal output transformer is called the ____________________ transformer. . ANS: 20 to 30 21. ANS: 3. ANS: 10 13. Picture elements are called ____________________. ANS: ultor 20. ANS: pixels 15. Horizontal blanking lasts ____________________ microseconds.5 12. The second anode of a CRT is often called the ____________________.10. ANS: green 17. ANS: position 11. ANS: separate 19. The human eye is most sensitive to the color ____________________. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse. ANS: 525 16. Vertical blanking lasts about ____________________ milliseconds. SAP stands for ____________________ audio program. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds. ANS: 1. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV. not including blanking. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately ____________________ MHz. ANS: 62.
Color intensity is called ____________________. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter. ANS: killer 25. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color phosphor dots. ANS: convergence .ANS: flyback 23. ANS: phase 30. ANS: comb 24. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue. ANS: saturation 29. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a monochrome signal. ANS: head 27. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in ____________________. ANS: purity 31. ANS: dBmV 26. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of phosphor dots. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end. ANS: vectorscope 28.
800 km b. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. plate ANS: C 4. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. earth station c. all of the above . uplink and downlink b. downlink d. is constant b. 10 watts d. azimuth and declination d. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. apogee and perigee c. 101 watts c. footprint b. apogee and perigee ANS: A 6. downlink and uplink ANS: A 3. perigee and apogee d. 5 to 25 watts c. 357. batteries d. 103 watts 2 b. 50 to 250 watts d. transponders c. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. depends on its orbit ANS: B 7. 104 watts ANS: C 8.578 km c. 35. depends on satellite velocity ANS: B 2. 3. declination and elevation b. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth ANS: D 5. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d.Chapter 20: Satellite Communications MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. respectively. is zero (freefall) c.: a. azimuth and elevation c. 500 to 2500 watts b. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. solar cells b. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a.780 km d.
high power to a small antenna c.ANS: A 9. decibels of signal b. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. very small aperture terminal c. very small antenna terminal d. backdown c. LEO satellites ANS: B 17. repeater c. television distribution master antenna ANS: C 15. low-noise amplifier b. mesh c. video satellite b. direct-broadcast system d. power-down b. direct-broadcast satellite c. On the uplink from a terminal. backoff d. a VSAT system uses: a. ring d. low north angle ANS: A 12. transmit delay minimum aperture c. LNA stands for: a. low power to a large antenna b. none of the above . "Station-keeping" refers to: a. down-beam signal ANS: D 11. television receive only b. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. time-division multiple access d. video signal antenna terminal ANS: D 16. low-noise amplitude d. low-noise array c. VSAT stands for: a. power-level adjustments ANS: C 10. low power to a small antenna d. television repeater only ANS: A 14. star b. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. TDMA stands for: a. DBS stands for: a. none of the above c. antenna maintenance b. television remote origin d. TVRO stands for: a. orbital adjustments d. EIRP drop ANS: B 13.
ANS: A 18. LEO stands for: a. long elliptic orbit b. low-earth orbit ANS: B 19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require: a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above ANS: A 20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above ANS: B COMPLETION 1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes ____________________ hours to complete one orbit. ANS: 24 2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite. ANS: uplink 3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station. ANS: downlink 4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator. ANS: geostationary 5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called ____________________ satellites. ANS: orbital 6. A geosynchronous orbit is about ____________________ km above the earth. ANS: 35,780 7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to. ANS: footprint 8. All satellite orbits are ____________________ in shape. c. lateral earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: elliptical 9. The ____________________ is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth. ANS: perigee 10. The ____________________ is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth. ANS: apogee 11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west. ANS: azimuth 12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface. ANS: elevation 13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis. ANS: declination 14. Satellites using the ____________________ band operate on 12 GHz. ANS: Ku 15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds. ANS: 500 16. A ____________________ is a type of repeater used on communications satellites. ANS: transponder 17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________. ANS: diameter 18. VSAT systems commonly use a ____________________ network configuration. ANS: star 19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial ____________________. ANS: failure 20. C-band antennas are ____________________ than Ku-band antennas. ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER 1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T. ANS: 25 dB 2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature. ANS: 139 K. 3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1 MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver. ANS: 38 dB
Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. NAM stands for: a. Manual Identification Number b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output ANS: C 6. none of the above c. Radio Common Carrier b.Chapter 21: Cellular Radio MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. MIN stands for: a. ESN stands for: a. Minimum In-band Noise c. none of the above c. Number Assignment Module c. RCC stands for: a. American Mobile Phone System b. Number Access Module d. MSC stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center b. Mobile Service Cellular ANS: A 5. Analog Mobile Phone Service ANS: D 2. Personal Communications Service b. Minimum Signal Carrier c. Emitted Signal Number ANS: A c. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. Personal Communications Systems ANS: B 3. Numerical Assignment Mode ANS: D 8. Regional Cellular Carrier d. Electronic Serial Number b. Personal Cell phone Service d. PCS stands for: a. AMPS stand for: a. Mobile Identification Number ANS: B 7. Maximum Signal Carrier d. Numerical Access Mode b. Emission Strength Number d. Portable Communications Systems c. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. MTSO stands for: a. Advanced Mobile Phone Service . Radio Cellular Carrier ANS: A 4. Mobile Telephone Switching Office d. Maximum In-band Noise d.
SCM stands for: a. set the access code of the cell phone c. SID stands for: a. none of the above c. Control Mobile Access Code ANS: A 16. maximum power level of a cell phone c. Digital Communications Carrier d. code number of a cell phone b. base-station class ANS: D 11. Signal Intensity Descriptor 12. SAT stands for: a. signal classification (analog or digital) d. Digital Color Code b. Direct Channel Code . AM c. select the transmit channel for the cell phone ANS: C 17. recognize that it is "roaming" ANS: D 13. FSK c. voice is sent using: a. In an AMPS system. Standard Identification Number ANS: C c. SCM identifies the: a. System Identification Number d. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Station Antenna Tower b. CMAC stands for: a. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Supervisory Audio Tone ANS: B 15. Signal Class Mark d. Service Class Mark b. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. Serial-Code Mode c. recognize an AMPS system c. Digital Communications Code ANS: A 14.9. Station Class Mark ANS: B 10. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. Supervisory Access Tone d. DCC stands for: a. The CMAC is used to: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. set its transmitted power level d. Central Mobile Access Control d. control access to the cell site b.
Phone traffic is measured in: a. FSK b. Base Station Controller b. CDPD stands for: a. FM d. Basic Service Code . number of blocked calls c. between 1 and 2 watts b. decrease the ERP ANS: A 25. Code-Division Packet Data b. number of users d. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. d. c. calls b. Basic Service Contract d. In an AMPS system. Coded Digital Packet Data d. Base Signal Controller ANS: A 21. RF interface b. less than 600 µW. increase the ERP b. as small as possible d. erlangs ANS: B 24. CDMA 18. FM ANS: B d. 4 watts ANS: B 20. The optimum cell-site radius is: a. Cellular Digital Packet Data ANS: B COMPLETION c. 0. less than 600 mW. decrease the number of cells d. AM c. 2 km b. CDMA ANS: C 19. none of the above c. air interface ANS: D 22. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a.b.5 km ANS: D 23. MTSO d. increase the number of cells c. control-channel signals are sent using: a. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. BSC stands for: a. BSC c. Cellular Digital Pulse Data c.
ANS: I one 8. A MAC is a mobile ____________________ code.5 6. . ANS: 800 2. handheld cell phone would be ERP class ____________________. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America. A portable. Frequency ____________________ is what makes cellular phone systems complex.1. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is ____________________. ANS: reuse 4. ANS: handoff 5. ANS: AMPS 3. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class ____________________. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the ____________________. ANS: 0. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another. ANS: attenuation 12. you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________. handoffs will occur too frequently. ANS: three 7. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band. ANS: 600 mW 9. ANS: land station 11. ANS: III three 10. For security. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is ____________________.
The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted. What is the traffic in erlangs? . ANS: erlangs 16. ANS: traffic 15.ANS: public 13. Telephone call traffic is measured in ____________________. ANS: MTSO 14. ANS: 1.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone. 2. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call. ANS: less SHORT ANSWER 1. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.6 3. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________. how many words of text would be lost during a 100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word? ANS: 57. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format. A mobile switching center is also called an ____________________. Compared with AMPS. ANS: splitting 18. ANS: microcell 19. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems. ANS: picocells 20. digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth. ANS: dropped 17. 2. If a 28. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones.
the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the number of channels increases.ANS: 30 4. . What is "trunking gain"? ANS: For a given probability of being blocked.
GSM is used in: a. Compared to AMPS. 12 GHz ANS: C 3. Europe ANS: D c. North America d. Bell Labs d. same as the uplink c. 900 MHz d. smaller ANS: B 5. many ANS: B 7. from mobile to mobile d. 4 b. higher-power c. CDMA technology was invented by: a. Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. AT&T b.Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 1. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a.9 GHz b. from the mobile to the base ANS: A 4. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. Lucent ANS: D 8. Asia b. all of the above c. from the base to the mobile b. 2 c. PCS cell sites are: a. bigger b. all of the above c. use built into an automobile d. 3 d. 800 MHz c. digital-generation . first-generation b. voice ANS: D 6. Qualcomm c. The "forward" PCS channel is: a. distributed d. POTS b. second-generation ANS: B 2. third-generation d. AMPS was designed for: a.
IMSI stands for: a. frequency hopping b. TDMA ANS: C 17. spread-spectrum d. TDMA only b. all of the above c. IS-95 uses: a. SIM stands for: a. AMPS uses: a. CDMA d. Other things being equal. no better than in an AMPS phone d. Short Inbound Message b. In GSM. no better than a TDMA phone ANS: C 12. Subscriber ID Module d. IS-136 uses: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. In GSM. less than in a TDMA phone c. CDMA b. both GSM and TDMA ANS: D 13. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. CDMA d. greater than in a TDMA phone b. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. GSM only d. Subscriber ID Method c. frequency hopping b. voice channels are called: a. frequency hopping b. voice channels ANS: A 10. talking channels c.9. Subscriber-Initiated Message ANS: C 15. none of the above 11. all of the above . traffic channels b. TDMA c. CDMA d. no PCS system c. TDMA ANS: D c. all of the above c. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. Intermodulation System Interference ANS: B 16. bearer channels d. GSM uses: a. direct-sequence modulation ANS: A 14.
all frequencies are used in all cells b. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone ANS: A 19. common b. ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS. Compared to AMPS. ANS: second 3. Internet access d. Current PCS systems are called ____________________-generation systems. PCS stands for ____________________ Communications System. ANS: Personal 2. Besides TDMA and CDMA. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. ANS: smaller 5. faster data rates c. ANS: CDMA direct sequence c. ANS: 1900 4. rotating d. ANS: GSM 6. unique ANS: D 20. In CDMA: a. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is ____________________. wider roaming area b. The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. PCS is assigned the ____________________-MHz band. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. orthogonal . each cell uses half the available frequencies c. PCS cells are ____________________ in size. In North America. all of the above ANS: D COMPLETION 1.ANS: B 18.
The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a ____________________ code. CDMA uses a ____________________-rate vocoder. in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells. ANS: Universal . ANS: less 14. ANS: all 11. UPT stands for ____________________ Personal Telecommunications. GPRS stands for General ____________________ Radio Service. ____________________ diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system. PN stands for Pseudo-____________________ Noise. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________.7. ANS: frequency hopping 8. ANS: variable 15. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation. Unlike other systems. ANS: Walsh 10. Unlike AMPS. ANS: soft 9. ANS: Frequency 13. ANS: random 12. CDMA requires ____________________-loop power control to work properly. ANS: closed 17. CDMA allows for a ____________________ handoff. ANS: Mobile 19. ANS: Packet 18. IMT stands for International ____________________ Telecommunications. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems. ANS: 50 16.
W-CDMA stands for ____________________ CDMA. What is the advantage of a "soft" handoff? ANS: No calls are dropped. 6. ANS: Wireless 21. Why was PCS assigned to 1. How does GSM achieve frequency diversity? ANS: It uses limited frequency hopping. To demodulate. 3. the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. the receiver uses the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants. and what causes it? . 4.20. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications. With offset QPSK. 5. 7. What is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK? ANS: With standard QPSK. What is the "near/far" effect in CDMA. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time. What is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA? ANS: It increases the background noise level. ANS: Wideband SHORT ANSWER 1. A GSM phone is active during one out of every eight. it never goes to zero. how do they pick a specific frequency? ANS: Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS? ANS: The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded. 2. 8. but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone? ANS: A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots.
ANS: A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This happens when the power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base. .
an addressing scheme used for pagers c.10 c. require "handoffs" b. require error detection d. all of the above c. both the VHF and UHF bands d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group ANS: C 6. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. Industrial. the UHF band only c. the UHF band. and Messaging d. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. all of the above ANS: D 5.12 c. transmitters use relatively high power d.Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. the VHF band. the VHF band only b. Pagers use: a. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers ANS: B 4. CAPCODE is: a. IEEE Standard Message b. POCSAG stands for: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group b. A typical pager system does not: a. 802. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. Scientific. allow "roaming" ANS: A 7. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group c. and the ISM band ANS: C 2. ISM stands for: a. 802. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group d. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. Scientific. In a one-way pager system: a. Industrial. and Medical . IEEE Secure Message ANS: D 3.
TDD net d.11 ANS: B d. BSS stands for: a. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. Time-Division Duplex b. 10 cm to 100 meters c. VHF band c. infrared band c. VHF band b. CSMA/CA c. Time Delay Difference d. QPSK d. multinet ANS: D 16. micronet b. 2 to 4 nodes ANS: C 15. ISM band d. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. CDMA b.b. none of the above . frequency hopping ANS: B 12. Total Distance Delay c. 802. ISM band b. 2 to 16 nodes c. TDD stands for: a. scatternet c. Bluetooth uses the: a. UHF band ANS: C 13. infrared band ANS: C 9.13 8. Time-Delayed Duplex ANS: A 14. 10 cm to 1 meter c. Basic Service Set b. 2 nodes b. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. Bluetooth uses: a. 2 to 8 nodes d. all of the above c. all of the above ANS: A 10. 802. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. Bluetooth Service System d. CSMA/CD d. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. Basic Service System ANS: A 11. CDMA b. UHF band d.
all of the above 20. ANS: D COMPLETION 1.b. several meters d. can use diffused infrared beams ANS: D d. within 10 feet c. Infrared Restricted Data Area d. 1 meter b. ANS: capcode 2. Infrared networks: a. 1 meter c. IEEE ____________________ covers wireless LANs. several hundred meters b. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. Many pagers can share a frequency using ____________________. 10 meters ANS: A 19. . Each pager has a unique address called a ____________________. cannot penetrate walls b. IRDA stands for: a. ANS: TDMA 3. can use reflected infrared beams d. A POCSAG message uses a ____________________-bit error correction code. Infrared Roaming Data Area c. 10 feet c. ANS: 10 5. Infrared Digital Association ANS: A 18. Infrared Data Association b. The POCSAG was devised by the British ____________________ Office. The range of an IRDA system is: a. 10 cm to 10 meters ANS: B 17. several thousand meters. ANS: 802. ANS: Post 4. 1 foot d.11 6.
A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more ____________________. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of ____________________. Bluetooth uses the ____________________ band. ANS: ISM 8. ANS: piconet 9.ANS: 1 watt 7. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a ____________________. ANS: 1 meter . ANS: piconets 10.
Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. carry current b. 40 dB per km c. chromatic dispersion ANS: A 6. 0. none of the above ANS: B 5. plastic ANS: A 4. none of the above c.02 dB c. all of the above c. all of the above c. A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. waveguide dispersion d. doesn't have an index of refraction ANS: C 2. Scattering causes: a. Fiber-optic cables do not: a. all of the above . Compared to the core. intersymbol interference d.Chapter 24: Fiber Optics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. loss b. 1 dB c. modal dispersion b. both a and b d.4 dB per km b. Single-mode fiber is made from: a. cause crosstalk ANS: D 3. generate EMI d. 4 db per km d. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. in an explosive environment b. 0. dispersion ANS: A 7. zero loss ANS: C 8. less b. the same c. glass b. greater d.
The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. Avalanche Photo Detector d. 0. 0. zero-point current d. In the core. responsivity is measured in: a. 3 dB 9. 3 dB ANS: B 10. E-H current ANS: C 15. 1 dB b. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. SMA b. µW per amp d. Avalanche Photodiode b. SC d. APD stands for: a. Advanced Photodiode ANS: A 14. a photon d. dark current b. the angle of incidence equals the angle of ____________________.02 dB c.2 db d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. ST c. mA per joule b. amps per watt c. all of the above ANS: D 11. 0. The quantum of light is called: a. For a light detector.b. a phonon . Advanced Photo Detector c. an e-v ANS: C 12. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. ANS: reflection c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays ANS: B 13.2 db ANS: A d. µsec per µW ANS: A COMPLETION 1. an erg b. LASER stands for: a. In a PIN diode. baseline current c.
2. ANS: energy 5. In multimode fiber. The ____________________ angle is where refraction changes to reflection. ANS: loose-tube 14. The core is surrounded by the ____________________. Optical fiber relies on total ____________________ reflection. The optical fiber is free to move around in a ____________________ cable. the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth. ANS: graded 10. ANS: Intersymbol 13. ANS: sine 6. Chromatic dispersion is also called ____________________ dispersion. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable. An electron-volt is a measure of ____________________. The numerical aperture is the ____________________ of the angle of acceptance. . With optical fiber. ANS: critical 4. ANS: internal 7. ANS: linewidth 11. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse. ANS: infrared 9. For laser diodes. ____________________ light is more common than visible light. ANS: time 12. ANS: intramodal 8. Dispersion can be expressed in units of ____________________ rather than bandwidth. ANS: cladding 3. ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.
The quantum of light is called the ____________________. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source. Good connections are more critical with ____________________-mode fiber. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable. ANS: look . ANS: laser 18. ANS: PIN 20. ANS: pigtail 16. For safety. ANS: single 17. you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is not connected to a light source. ANS: photon 19. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.ANS: tight-buffer 15.
Fiber Input Timing Loop c.Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Frequency-Division Data Interface . Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. type of pulse d. type of optical network c. Fiber In The Loop b. DWDM stands for: a. bit-synch d. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Frequency Input to The Loop d. Synchronous Optical Network d. gain margin c. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Fiber Distributed Data Interface ANS: B 2. FDDI stands for: a. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing ANS: D 6. defect in the glass b. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. excess gain c. Fiber To The Curb ANS: D 4. Fiber Input Timing Loss ANS: A 3. FITL stands for: a. SONET stands for: a. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface d. FTTC stands for: a. type of particle ANS: C 7. WDM ANS: A 8. Simple Optical Network b. SDH b. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Standard Optical Network ANS: C 5. none of the above c. A Soliton is a: a. bit stuffing c.
STS stands for: a. FITL stands for Fiber In The ____________________. FTTC stands for Fiber To The ____________________. 10 km ANS: C 10. 1000 miles c. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. OC-1 stands for: a. gigabit Ethernet b. obsolete d. high-speed Ethernet d. Synchronous Transport System ANS: A 12. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. FTTC d. not possible c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer d. In SONET. FITL b. Optical Coupler unidirectional ANS: A 11. Optical Carrier level one b. Optical Cable type 1 . all of the above ANS: D 13. In SONET. FDDI c. Synchronous Transmission Signal d. overdrive 9. Synchronous Transport Signal b. 100 miles d. c. 100 km b. ANS: Curb 2. experimental ANS: B 14. system margin ANS: B d. Synchronous Transmission System c. SONET ANS: B COMPLETION 1. common b. Optical Channel one d. Optical Time-Delay Response b. FDDI c.b. Typically. Optical Time-Division Relay c. OTDR stands for: a. Optical Timing Delay Requirement ANS: C 15. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a.
ANS: Hierarchy 4. ANS: pump 9. ANS: WDM 10.ANS: Loop 3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data ____________________. ANS: opposite . FDDI systems use two ____________________ rings to carry signals. Dense ____________________ allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable. ANS: 51. ANS: stuffing 12. ANS: erbium 8. WDM stands for ____________________-division multiplexing. Optical amplifiers use a ____________________ laser. FDDI stands for Fiber ____________________ Data Interface. ANS: Distributed 7. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame. ANS: token 14. SONET stands for ____________________ Optical Network. ANS: pointer 13. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions. Optical amplifiers use ____________________-doped glass. ANS: Synchronous 6. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals. ANS: Wavelength 5.84 11. The OC-1 line rate is ____________________ Mbps.
ANS: node 16. ANS: 810 20. ANS: 100 M 18. ANS: 774 21. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead. In SONET. ANS: transport 25. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is ____________________. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds? ANS: . The data rate of an FDDI system is ____________________ bps. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater. FDDI uses ____________________ mode cables. ANS: 4 23.15. ANS: multi 17. SPE stands for synchronous payload ____________________. The number of rows in a SONET frame is ____________________. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information about signal routing and setup. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is ____________________. ANS: 9 22. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________. ANS: envelope SHORT ANSWER 1. ANS: overhead 19. ANS: 1 24.
Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter. and cable each have a rise time of 50 nanoseconds. ANS: 86.1 MHz 2. receiver.6 nanoseconds .
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