EPGY Singapore

Quantum Mechanics: 2009

Quantum Mechanics: Problems Lecture 2

Solutions
Physics problems

Problem 2.1
Consider light traveling through air (vacuum) and through water (n = 1.3). What is the delay in arrival times for a
light pulse traveling through 1000 m of water as compared to 1000 m of air.
3×108 m
The velocity through water is v = 1.3 s = 2.3 × 108 ms and the difference is,

1000m 1000m
∆t = −
2.3 × 108 m
s 3 × 108 m
s
= 4.35 × 10−6 s − 3.33 × 10−6 s = 1 × 10−6 s (1)

Problem 2.2
Describe why it is the wavelength that changes and not the frequency when a light ray passes from one medium to
another that have differing indices of refraction. Concentrate on what happens to the wave at the interference.
Frequency has only one value at any one point. Thus at the interface, a discontinuity in the frequency will yield
two different values at the interface.
If the light an infinitesimal distance on the incoming side has a different frequency than the light an infinitesimal
distance on the outgoing side of the interface, the wave will have a discontinuity.
Also, light passes through materials by absorption and reradiation. Thus a molecule will reradiate at the same
frequency at which it is absorbed.
another explanation:
First of all frequency is a local quantity (can be measured at one point) and wavelength is not (to measure it
at one time requires to be at two places at one time). Thus the wave right at the interface must have the same
frequency. (If the atoms are oscillating at the interface with f they will transmit at f as well). If the frequencies
did not match, then more “peaks” would enter than would come out - where did the extra wavelengths go? Or,
infinitesimally before the interface, the frequency is defined as the time between peaks. If, just on the other side, the
frequency is different then there is no way to keep the wave continuous.

Problem 2.3: Double Slit Experiment, General Questions

In the double slit experiment how would the pattern change (qualitatively, draw the result) if the system is changed
from the normal case (coherent, monochromatic light impinging on two equal sized slits) to the following:
a. In back of one of the slits is placed a very clear diamond (with n = 2.7).
The relative phase of the two waves will be changed. This can still permit an interference pattern from being
observed but it will be different than the usual one. For example, the center point may not be a point of
constructive interference.

b. A material is placed just behind one of the slits that has a wildly, randomly, fluctuating index of refraction.
Now you have randomized the relative phase coherence of the two sources thus destroying the interference
pattern.
c. The entire apparatus is placed under water (where n = 1.3), how does the relative spacing between fringes
change?
The pattern is still observed however now that the wavelength is λ/n the fringes will shift position. From
d sin θ = mλ → d sin θ = mλ/n The angles of the fringes will decrease, the pattern will compress towards the
center.
 ~ and B
Problem 2.4: Why do E ~ need to be ⊥ to the direction of travel
This problem attempts to show why the electric and magnetic field components of an EM wave must be perpendicular
to the direction of travel of the wave. The result stems directly from Maxwell’s first two equations,
~ ρ ~ = 0.
∇·E = ∇·B
0
If we are considering an EM wave propagating through empty space then there are no net charges nearby, i.e. ρ = 0
and the equations simplify to,
~
∇·E = 0 ~ = 0.
∇·B

Now what do these equations mean? They are called the divergence and they are shorthand notations for the
~ field),
following (again, we limit our discussion to the E

~ ∂ ~ ∂ ~ ∂ ~
∇·E ≡ î · E + ĵ · E + k̂ · E=0 (2)
∂x ∂y ∂z

To get our result, assume that the electric field component of the EM wave can be in any direction (and recall that î
is the direction of travel and the function is represented as cos(kx − ωt) or sin(kx − ωt) ) and can be represented as
~ = îE0x cos(kx − ωt) + ĵE0y cos(kx − ωt) + k̂E0z cos(kx − ωt)
E

With this set up show that the E ~ field component of the wave can not be in the x direction. (There is an identical
~
argument that shows B must also be perpendicular to the direction of travel).
Solution:
~ is only a function
Notice that the later two derivatives (with respect to y and z) vanish because the function E
of x. Thus we only need be concerned with the first term,

~ ∂ ~
∇·E ≡ î · E=0
∂x
∂
= E0x cos(kx − ωt) = −kE0x sin(kx − ωt) = 0 (3)
∂x
Now, because k need not be zero (indeed it can not be) it must be that E0x = 0. This means that the x component
of the electric component of the electromagnetic wave must vanish. Thus the electric is left to only oscillate in the
y − z plane – perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s velocity (which is in the x direction).

Probability problem
Problem 2.5
Consider the following system of two random variables, X and Y , that can each take on three values (+1, 0, −1) and
their joint probability distribution,

P (0, 1) = P (0, −1) = P (1, 0) = P (−1, 0) = 1/4 (all other possibilities have 0 prob.)

a) Is this system statistically independent? Why or why not?

[Recall that stat. indep. requires writing the jpd as P (X, Y ) = P (X)P (Y ). Assume it is true (and prove a
contradiction) and start with the first two non-zero terms above, −→ P (X = 0) ∗ P (Y = 1) = 1/4, P (X =
0)P (Y = 0) = 0, and P (X = 0)P (Y = −1) = 1/4. What does the middle term imply about P (Y = 0)? Use
that assumption to analyze the last two terms].
Middle term says P (Y = 0) = 0 thus, if stat. indep. then P (1, 0) = P X(1)P Y (0) = 0 in contradiction to the
original probabilities.
b) What is the covariance of XY ? (Just calculate it).
It is zero,
The means are zero: E(X) = (0) ∗ (P (0, 1) + P (0, −1)) + (+1) ∗ P (1, 0) + (−1) ∗ P (−1, 0) = 0

E(Y ) = (0) ∗ (P (1, 0) + P (−1, 0)) + (+1) ∗ P (0, 1) + (−1) ∗ P (0, −1) = 0

The covariance is

E(XY ) − E(X)E(Y ) = (0)(1) ∗ P (0, 1) + (0)(−1)P (0, −1) + (1)(0) ∗ P (1, 0) + (−1)(0)P (−1, 0) = 0

Thus the covariance vanishes.

 Calculus
Problem 2.6
Consider the power law for derivatives,
d n
x = nxn−1
dx
If you havent learned about this yet, just take it as a fact for this problem. In this expression x is our variable
and n is an exponent (does not need to be an integer but we will take it as one for this problem).
d x
a) The exponential function is defined as a function whose derivative is the function itself, dx e = ex . The infinite
series representation of the exponential function is,
x2 x3 xn
ex = 1+x+ + + ... f or n→∞
2! 3! n!
Show that the derivative of this function is the same function.
For the nth term we find,
d xn nxn−1 xn−1
= =
dx n! n · (n − 1)! (n − 1)!
Since there are an infinite number of terms, we get back the same series.
b) Write the series expression for the complex exponential function eiθ , (evaluate the expression above with
x = iθ). Simplify as much as possible (i.e. i2 = 1, i3 = −i etc.).

(iθ)2 (iθ)3 (iθ)4

eiθ = 1 + iθ + + + + ...
2! 3! 4!
2 3 4
θ iθ θ
= 1 + iθ − − + + ...
2! 3! 4!

c) Next find the infinite series representations of cosine and sine by a similar method. First, since cos(−x) = cos(x)
and sin(−x) = − sin(x) what terms in the polynomial can you cancel for each. Second, since cos(0) = 1 and
sin(0) = 0, what are the first terms of these two series. Then from,
d d
cos(x) = − sin(x) & sin(x) = cos(x)
dx dx
find the infinite series for both the sine and cosine function. (Again, if you have not had sufficient calculus to
explain these results just take it as a given for now). We will use these expressions in the next problem.

x2 x4 x6
cos(x) = 1− + − ...
2! 4! 6!
x3 x5 x7
sin(x) = x− + − ...
3! 5! 7!

Problem 2.7
Consider the two-dimensional plane (R2 ) in Cartesian (x, y) and polar (r, θ) coordinates. A point in the plane can be
represented in either coordinates system where x = r cos θ and y = r sin θ and r2 = x2 + y 2 = r2 (cos2 θ + sin2 θ). The
complex plane (C1 ) is isomorphic to the above case where the x coordinate corresponds to the real (Re) part and
the y coordinate to the imaginary (Im) part of a complex number. And, just as above, we can represent complex
numbers in terms of their Re and Im parts, z = x + iy (thus akin to Cartesian coordinates) or in polar form z = reiθ .
We want to show how this works.
a) First check that this relation is consistent. Do the two forms agree when θ = 0? What about taking the
derivative of each (remember i is just a constant)? What is z ∗ z in each form?
b) Now let’s show it in full. Consider the three infinite series from the previous problem. Either take the expansion
for the exponential and set x = iθ (and then should you get cos θ + i sin θ) or take the expansions for cosine
and sine and show it gives the series for eiθ .
You should find,
eθ = cos θ + i sin θ
Problem 2.8: Practice with Differential Equations
Find the one-dimensional functions fi (x) that solve the following differential equations. (k is a real, positive constant).
(Hint: your answer will involve the results above).
df1
1. dx + kf1 = 0: f1 (x) = Ae−kx
df2
2. dx − kf2 = 0: f2 (x) = Aekx
√ √
d2 f3
3. dx2 − kf3 = 0: f3 (x) = Ae kx
+ Be− kx
(credit if only 1).
√ √
d2 f4
4. dx2 + kf4 = 0: f4 (x) = Aei kx
+ Be−i kx
. or sines or cosines.
1
d27 f4
5. dx27 − kf5 = 0: f5 (x) = Aek 27 x