MBLEx Practice Exams PDF

Medical Massage Cares
FSMTB Massage &

Bodywork Licensing
Examination MBLEx
Practice Exams
Philip Martin McCaulay

Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC
Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination MBLEx Practice Exams
Copyright 2008. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or
transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy,
recording, or any information storage or retrieval system, without permission in written form from
the publisher.
Permission may be sought by contacting
Medical Massage Care Authority, LLC:
E-mail: martinmccaulay@hotmail.com
Published in Cary, North Carolina, USA
ISBN: 978-0-557-03730-8
Library of Congress Control Number: 2008912239
Table of Contents
Exam 1
Exam 2
14
Exam 3
27
Exam 4
40
Exam 5
53
Exam 6
66
Exam 7
79
Exam 8
92
Exam 9
105
Exam 10
118
Exam 11
131
Exam 12
144
Exam 13
157
Exam 14
170
Exam 15
183
Exam 16
196
Exam 17
209
Exam 18
222
Exam 19
235
Exam 20
248
Reference List
262
Preface
Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork Licensing
Examination MBLEx Practice Exams will help massage therapy students
pass the Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx)
administered by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards
(FSMTB). This book includes twenty complete 125-question practice
exams, for a total of 2,500 questions. The questions on the practice
exams have the same percentage weights as the content of the FSMTB
MBLEx exam.
Content
Anatomy & Physiology
Kinesiology
Pathology,
Contraindications, Areas of
Caution, and Special
Populations
Benefits and Physiological
Effects of Techniques that
Manipulate Soft Tissue
Client Assessment,
Reassessment & Treatment
Planning
Overview of Massage &
Bodywork History / Culture
/ Modalities
Ethics, Boundaries, Laws,
and Regulations
Guidelines for Professional
Practice
Total
Percent of
Exam
14 percent
11 percent
Number of
Questions
18
14
Question
Numbers
1-18
19-32
13 percent
16
33-48
17 percent
21
49-69
17 percent
21
70-90
5 percent
91-96
13 percent
16
97-112
10 percent
13
113-125
100 percent
125
1-125
After taking the practice exams and identifying areas of content that
require further study, students are encouraged to focus on those
sections from Medical Massage Cares FSMTB Massage & Bodywork
Licensing Examination MBLEx Study Guide. It is estimated that exam
candidates will need a score of at least 70%, or 88 correct answers out of
the 125 questions, to successfully complete the MBLEx.
Exam 1
1. Which refers to the
microscopic study of tissues?
A. Histology
B. Pathophysiology
C. Neuromuscular therapy
D. Reflexology
2. What is the order of the levels
of organization in the body,
from smallest to largest?
A. Cellular, chemical, atom,
organ, systemic, body
B. Chemical, cellular, organ,
tissue, systemic, earth
C. Chemical, cellular, tissue,
organ, systemic, body
D. Cellular, chemical, organ,
tissue, body, systemic
3. What is an increase in the size
of cells without cell division?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
4. What is the order of the layers
of skin from most superficial to
most deep?
A. Epidermis, dermis,
subcutaneous
B. Epidermis, arteries, dermis
C. Dermis, epidermis, bone
D. Dermis, epidermis,
hypodermis
5. Which type of epithelial
membrane are the pleura?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Autoimmune
D. Synovial
6. What type of cartilage is rigid

and made of dense fibrous
tissue, such as the cartilage in
intervertebral disks?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Axial
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Elastic cartilage
7. What is the order of these
major structures of the brain
stem, starting with most
superior / cranial?
A. Medulla oblongata, pons,
midbrain, diencephalons
B. Midbrain, diencephalons,
metastasis, pons
C. Diencephalons, mandible,
medulla oblongata, pons
D. Diencephalons, midbrain,
pons, medulla oblongata
8. Which is a function of the
autonomic nervous system
under parasympathetic control?
A. Increased heartbeat
B. Constricted blood vessels
C. Increased peristalsis
D. Decreased secretion of
digestive juices
9. Which is a gland the size of a
grape?
A. Thymus
B. Pituitary
C. Mastoid
D. Patella
Page 1
10. What receives oxygenated

blood from the pulmonary
veins?
A. Pulmonary arteries
B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Left atrium
11. What is a hormone secreted
by the pyloric area of the
stomach and duodenum?
A. Gastrin
B. Melatonin
C. Trigger point
D. Fissure lesion
12.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which connects two bones?

Tendons
Fascia
Ligaments
Bursa
13. What is a section of skin

supplied by a single spinal
nerve?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Reflex mechanism
C. Dermatome
D. Myotome
14. Which means closer to the
trunk or point of origin?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Distal
15. Where is the ulna relative to
the radius?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
16. Which actions occur in the

sagittal plane?
A. Flexion and extension
B. Adduction and abduction
C. Rotation and circumduction
D. Supination and pronation
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the cervical region?

Head
Temples
Neck
Shoulders
18. Which energetic

manipulation technique
involves the liver meridian
beginning at the great toe,
ending at the chest, and being
associated with the flow of ki?
A. Acupressure
B. Shiatsu
C. Acupuncture
D. All of the above
19. When the elbow extends,
what is the biceps?
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Prime mover
20. Which of these muscles
originates at the lateral
supracondylar ridge of the
humerus?
A. Flexor carpi radialis
B. Palmaris longus
C. Extensor carpi radialis longus
D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
Page 2
21. Where is the medial

longitudinal arch?
A. First metatarsal to fifth
metatarsal
B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal
C. Calcaneus to fifth metatarsal
D. Calcaneus to malleolus
27. Which muscle of the right

forearm would be used to turn
a screwdriver clockwise?
A. Brachialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Supinator
D. Gluteus minimus
22. How many phalanges does

the foot have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
28. Which muscle extends and

laterally rotates the hip, and
flexes the knee?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Palmaris longus
23. What best describes the

shape of pectoralis major?
A. Parallel
B. Convergent
C. Multi-belly
D. Bipennate
24. What movement occurs at
the radioulnar joint?
A. Rotation
B. Abduction
C. Adduction
D. Elevation
25. Which muscle flexes the
elbow, supinates the forearm,
and flexes the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps brachii
26. Which muscle originates at
the posterior iliac crest?
A. Deltoid
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Quadratus lumborum
29. What type of contraction

occurs when one lowers a
book onto a table?
A. Concentric
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
30. Which muscle would
predominantly have fast
twitch fibers?
A. Erector spinae
B. Soleus
C. Deltoid
D. Transversospinalis
31. What happens in an isotonic
muscle contraction?
A. The length of the muscle
changes
B. The length of the muscle
does not change
C. The muscle lengthens but
does not shorten
D. The muscle shortens but
does not lengthen
Page 3
32. Which is a ball and socket

joint?
A. Hip
B. Thumb
C. Knee
D. Elbow
38. Which rhythms repeat

themselves every 24 hours?
A. Circadian rhythms
B. Biological rhythms
C. Ultradian rhythms
D. Seasonal rhythms
33. What is inflammation of the

sheath surrounding a tendon?
A. Tenosynovitis
B. Mitosis
C. Fibrosis
D. Edema
39. What is the growth of a

calcium deposit in soft tissues,
which is always a local
contraindication for massage?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Myositis ossificans
D. Shin splints
34. What is a congenital disease?

A. A disease that deteriorates
B. A disease spread by mold or
yeast
C. A disease with no known
cause
D. A disease present at birth
35. What refers to a disease of
short duration?
A. Malignant
B. Chronic
C. Acute
D. Metastatic
36. What is the expected
outcome of a disease?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Pathology
D. Etiology
37. What refers to the
decreasing size of tissue?
A. Atrophy
B. Entrainment
C. Hypertrophy
D. Ambulatory
40. What are amphetamines,

adrenergic medications,
anticonvulsants, and
antiparkinson agents?
A. Hormones
B. Anti-infectives
C. Antineoplastics
D. Central nervous system
medications
41. What is the order of the five
stages of acute fracture
healing after hematoma
formation and before
remodeling?
A. Callus formation,
ossification, strain
B. Cellular proliferation, callus
formation, ossification
C. Ossification, cellular
proliferation, callus
formation
D. Callus formation, sprain,
ossification
Page 4
42. What results in the popping

sound of the
temporomandibular joint?
A. Whiplash
B. Subluxation
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
47. Which area is associated with

the cephalic vein and the
nerves of the brachial plexus?
A. Posterior triangle of the neck
B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Axillary area
D. Oblique plane
43. What kind of fracture

involves an incomplete break
in the bone causing it to split,
common in children?
A. Greenstick fracture
B. Depressed fracture
C. Impacted fracture
D. Spondylitis
48. What are the sides of the

anterior triangle of the neck
endangerment site?
A. Mandible, clavicle, and
trachea
B. SCM, mandible, and trachea
C. Frontal, sagittal, and
transverse
D. Mandible, trachea, and
trapezius
44. What is whiplash?

A. Tennis elbow
B. Spasm in SCM causing head
to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Cervical accelerationdeceleration injury
45. What is plantar fasciitis?
A. Pain and inflammation from
calcaneus to metatarsals
to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
46. What is a lateral curvature of
the spine?
A. Scoliosis
B. Gibbus
C. Kyphosis
D. Lordosis
49. What is a reflex effect of

massage?
A. Normalizing system function
B. Increased mental clarity
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
50. What is an effect of massage
on the cardiovascular system?
A. Reduces hyperthermia
B. Reduces cortisol levels
C. Dilates blood vessels
D. Reduces superficial keloid
formation
51. If a client is functioning from
parasympathetic nervous
system dominance, what
would be an appropriate
initial stroke?
A. Gentle rocking
B. Kneading
C. Brisk effleurage
D. Tapotement
Page 5
52. What is the external

application of cold for
therapeutic purposes?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Thermotherapy
D. Hunting response
53. What is the R.I.C.E.S. First
Aid principle?
A. Rest, Immersion,
Compression, Elevation and
Sponging
B. Rest, Ice, Compression,
Elevation, and Stabilization
C. Rest, Ice, Compression,
Energy and Sponging
D. Resistance, Immersion,
Contrasting, Elevation and
Sponging
54. What is the maximum
temperature that the skin can
tolerate for a hot bath?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or 0
degrees Celsius
B. 77 degrees Fahrenheit or 25
degrees Celsius
C. 115 degrees Fahrenheit or 46
degrees Celsius
D. 140 degrees Fahrenheit or 60
degrees Celsius
55. Which is the best transition
stroke?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.
57. What is a physical effect of

massage?
A. Relieves muscle cramps and
spasms
B. Improves circulation of blood
and lymph
C. Enhances removal of
metabolic waste
D. All of the above
58. What is a direct physical
effect of massage?
A. Reflexive effect
B. Mechanical effect
C. Psychological effect
D. All of the above
on the skin?
A. Reddening and warming of
skin
B. Decreased activity of sweat
and oil glands
C. Decreased circulation to the
skin
D. All of the above
60. What has beneficial effects
similar to exercise?
A. Active joint movements
B. Passive joint movements
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
61. What stimulates the
sympathetic nervous system?
A. Pre-event sports massage
B. 15-minute chair massage
C. Short, invigorating massage
D. All of the above
Which reduces scar tissue?

Kneading
Gliding
Cross fiber friction
Cupping
Page 6
62. Which stroke is generally

applied first?
A. Vibration
B. Superficial gliding
C. Percussion
D. Friction
63. Which stroke is appropriate
for treating a baseball pitcher
with a sore arm?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Cross-fiber friction
D. Percussion
64. Which stroke is not a type of
friction?
A. Transverse
B. Cross fiber
C. Cupping
D. Circular
65. Which stretching technique
has the client stretch into
resistance and apply light
contraction?
A. Ballistic stretching
B. Unassisted static stretching
C. Assisted static stretching
D. Reciprocal inhibition (RI)
66. What technique on the leg
would create mobility at the
hip joint?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Reiki
D. Gliding
67. Which stroke would be best
for a ticklish client?
A. Light effleurage
B. Nerve strokes
C. Feather strokes
D. Compression
68. Which is not advisable for

pregnancy massage in the
second and third trimesters?
A. Light effleurage
B. Lying prone
C. Side-lying position
D. Supine position
69. What is initially induced by
cryotherapy?
A. Vasodilation
B. Rest
C. Diathermy
D. Vasoconstriction
70. What is appropriate for a
client with chronic
constipation?
A. Stimulate peristaltic
contraction of the large
intestine
B. Prescribe herbal remedies
C. Reschedule the massage
D. Perform the massage but
avoid the abdomen
71. If a client has a forward head
position, what is the most
appropriate treatment?
A. Lengthen and stretch SCM
and anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch upper
trapezius and splenius
C. Lengthen and stretch
adductors and iliotibial tract
D. Shorten erector spinae
72. If a client has toeing out
when walking, what is the
most appropriate treatment?
A. Stretch the
metatarsophalangeal joints
B. Stretch the plantar flexor
muscles
C. Stretch the biceps femoris
D. Stretch the latissimus dorsi
Page 7
73. What is done if a client has

thoracic outlet syndrome?
A. Lengthen serratus anterior
and soleus
B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and
teres major
C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs,
pecs, and neck extensors
D. Lengthen biceps and triceps
brachii
74. What would trigger points
along the psoas, quadratus
lumborum, and hamstrings
contribute to?
A. Brachial plexus impingement
B. Sciatica
C. Tension headaches
D. Low back pain
75. Where on the SOAP chart are
referrals documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
76. Which is outside the scope of
practice of a massage
therapist?
A. Postural assessment
B. Prescribing treatment
C. Manipulating soft tissues
D. Homework
77. What is the joint movement
that requires the therapist to
move the relaxed client?
A. Active range of motion
B. Compensation pattern
C. Passive range of motion
D. Range of motion
78. A tight and short psoas would

decrease the function of
which muscle?
A. Rectus abdominis
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Pectineus
D. Erector spinae
79. What would most likely make
the pelvis tilt forward?
A. Tight hamstrings
B. Weak low back muscles
C. Weak abdominal muscles
D. Flexed knees
80. If a client has lordotic
posture, which muscles are
most likely short and strong?
A. Anterior abdominals
B. Hamstrings
C. Low back
D. Medial rotators of hip
81. If a client complains of
tension headaches and tight
muscles in the back of the
neck, what posture is most
likely the cause?
A. Lordotic posture
B. Flat back
C. Flexed knees
D. Forward head and round
upper back
82. Regarding faulty posture of
the feet, what happens with a
low longitudinal arch?
A. Flat foot
B. Slue-footed
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Calluses under ball of foot
Page 8
83. Which are short and strong

with the right hip adducted
and medially rotated and left
hip abducted?
A. Right lateral trunk muscles,
right hip adductors and left
hip abductors
B. Right peroneus longus and
brevis and left tibialis
posterior
C. Left flexor hallucis longus
and left flexor digitorum
longus
D. All of the above
84. What is the appropriate
incline for the back of a chair
for good alignment in sitting
posture?
A. 0 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
85. How does a therapist test
the left arm flexors?
A. Client holds left arm position
against therapist's
superior/cephalad pressure
B. Client holds right arm
position against therapist's
C. Client holds left arm position
against therapist's
inferior/caudal pressure
D. Client holds right arm
86. What should be obtained
during the client consultation?
A. Availability for next
appointment
B. Payment in cash
C. Informed consent
D. Referrals
87. What type of assessment

involves temperature,
texture, tenderness, and tone?
A. Palpation
B. Gait
C. Needs
D. Functional
88. What is an
acceleration/deceleration
injury to the head and neck?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Migraine
C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Whiplash
89.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is tennis elbow?

Trigger finger
Lateral epicondylitis
Medial epicondylitis
Golfer's elbow
90. What is an increase in the

normal thoracic kyphotic
curve?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Iliotibial band contracture
91. What light massage
technique did Dr. Emil Vodder
and Dr. Estrid Vodder
develop?
A. Neuromuscular therapy
B. Manual lymph drainage
C. Reflexology
D. Ayurveda
92. What type of sports massage
is used for severe injuries?
A. Pre-event massage
B. Recovery massage
C. Chair massage
D. Rehabilitation massage
Page 9
93. Who developed Touch for

Health?
A. Dr. Milton Trager
B. Dr. Ida Rolf
C. Dr. John Thie
D. Per Henrik Ling
94. Which massage system uses
effleurage, petrissage,
vibration, friction, and
tapotement?
A. Swedish
B. German
C. French and English
D. All of the above
95. What involves an energy flow
along a nerve tract?
A. Countertransference
B. Proprioceptor
C. Synergist
D. Meridians or channels
acupressure?
A. Chinese and Japanese
B. Swedish
C. Greek
D. Indian and Hindu
97. What are service limits and
boundaries as determined by
legal, educational,
competency, and
accountability factors?
A. Code of ethics
B. Informed consent
C. Scope of practice
D. Deductions
98. What is an example of a
violation of a code of ethics?
A. Informed consent
B. Misleading claims
C. Right of refusal
D. Contract
99. What is sexual touch from a

professional bodyworker to a
client considered?
A. Appropriate
B. Erotic
C. Hostile
D. Touch technique
100. What is not a violation of a
code of ethics?
A. Exploiting the power
differential
B. Working on a minor with
parental consent
C. Informed consent violations
D. Misleading claims
101. What is in the therapeutic
relationship?
A. Confidentiality
B. Scope of practice
C. Client-centered actions and
words
D. All of the above
102. What are lines that
separate, limits, barriers,
borders, and edges?
A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries
C. Medical advice
D. None of the above
103. What is needed before
working on a minor?
A. Psychological counseling
B. Parental consent
C. Contract
104. What is name-dropping?
A. Confidentiality violation
B. Practicing beyond scope of
practice
C. Violation of law
Page 10

therapist to do when seeing a
client in a public place?
A. Ask how the last massage
was
B. Do not bring up anything
about the massage
C. Ask when the therapist can
expect payment
106. What is appropriate when a
client says they are going to
stop taking their prescription
medication now?
A. Suggest the client discuss it
with their primary care
provider
B. Tell the client it is OK to
stop taking the medication
C. Answer A and B are correct
107. Massaging a family member
involves what type of issue?
A. Financial impropriety
C. Dual relationship
108. Who licenses?
A. The government
B. Associations
109. Guidance on which topic is
typically not found in a code
of ethics?
A. Client relationships
B. Professionalism
C. Tax
D. Scope of practice
110. What is appropriate for the

therapist to discuss with the
client?
A. Finances
B. Gossip
C. Personal issues
D. That the therapist has a cold
111. What is the most
appropriate response if a
client asks to be touched in a
sexual manner?
A. Act as if nothing happened
B. Call 911
C. Remain professional and
explain the services
D. Provide a referral
112. What is inappropriate
activity during a massage
session that would be
considered misconduct
involving sexual contact?
A. Touching breasts for nontherapeutic purposes
B. Intercourse
C. Both A and B are correct
113. A therapist having
discomfort in what area
would indicate the massage
table is probably too high?
A. Upper back
B. Arms
C. Shoulders
D. All of the above
114. What are the main reasons
for using lubricants?
A. Reduce risk of disease
B. Reduce friction and increase
comfort
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation
Page 11
115. Which is a noninfectious

disease?
A. Athlete's foot
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis B
D. Diabetes
116. Which first aid kit item
would be used to clean a
wound?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
117. What uses leverage and
structural alignment to
prevent fatigue?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
C. Laterally recumbent
D. Symmetric
118. Which stance is best for
deep effleurage?
A. Asymmetric
B. Seated
D. Symmetric
for draping?
A. Reduce risk and prevent
disease
B. Reduce friction and increase
comfort
C. Warmth and modesty
D. Safety and sanitation
120. Which vitamin is

synthesized by ultraviolet
radiation?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Saw palmetto
121. What are advantages of
self-employment?
A. Can focus on massage
B. Can set own schedule
C. Steady income
D. All of the above
122. What would be used as a
road map to achieve goals?
A. Business plan
B. Resume
C. Marketing material
D. Financial records
123. What is barter income?
A. Reportable to the IRS
B. Tax deductible
C. Both A and B
124. Which protects against an
adverse reaction to a lotion?
A. General liability insurance
B. Product liability insurance
C. Professional liability
insurance
D. Premises fire damage
insurance for renters
125. What is deductible as a
business expense?
A. Royalties
B. Barter income
C. Tips
D. Continuing education
expenses
Page 12
Exam 1 Answer Key

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. C
86. C
87. A
88. D
89. B
90. B
91. B
92. D
93. C
94. D
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. B
99. C
100. D
101. D
102. B
103. B
104. A
105. B
106. A
107. C
108. A
109. C
110. D
111. C
112. C
113. D
114. B
115. D
116. B
117. B
118. A
119. C
120. B
121. B
122. A
123. A
124. B
125. D
A
D
A
A
C
B
D
C
A
B
B
C
D
C
D
B
A
A
D
B
C
C
B
B
D
B
D
A
B
B
C
D
D
B
C
B
C
C
D
A
A
B
Page 13
Exam 2
1. Which is the study of how
body parts work?
A. Hellerwork
B. Embryology
C. Reflexology
D. Physiology
2. Which level in the
organization of the body
structure consists of related
organs with a common
function?
A. Molecular level
B. System level
C. Tissue level
D. Atomic level
3. What is the name for nuclear
division that distributes two
sets of chromosomes to two
separate nuclei?
A. Mitosis
B. Mitochondria
C. DNA
D. The S phase
4. What is the passive movement
of ions from an area of higher
concentration to an area of
lower concentration?
A. Phospholipid layer
B. Diffusion
C. Filtration
D. Golgi apparatus
5. Which classification of
epithelia has many layers?
A. Shiatsu
B. Lymph
C. Columnar
D. Stratified
6. What is a thin membrane of

connective tissue lining marrow
cavity of a bone containing
cells for growth and repair?
A. Periosteum
B. Epidermis
C. Infraspinatus
D. Endosteum
7. What is usually the more
moveable bone?
A. Origin
B. Insertion
C. Prime mover
D. Antagonist
8. Which component of the
peripheral nervous system
controls smooth and cardiac
muscle?
A. Autonomic
B. Reflex arc
C. Somatic
D. Cervical
9. What secretes human growth
hormones?
A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Thymus
C. Hypogastric nerve
D. Right atrium
10. What happens in pulmonary
circulation?
A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
and picks up oxygen
B. Blood unloads oxygen and
picks up carbon dioxide
C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
and oxygen
D. Blood picks up oxygen and
carbon dioxide
Page 14
11. Which system includes the

nasal cavity, larynx, trachea,
bronchi, lungs, diaphragm,
and pharynx?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Circulatory
C. Endocrine
D. Respiratory
12. Which cranial suture is the
articulation of the occipital
and parietal bones?
A. Umbilical
B. Sagittal
C. Squamous
D. Lambdoidal
13. Which are nutrients that the
body requires an extremely
small amount to function
normally?
A. Plant and animal proteins
B. Fat and carbohydrates
C. Lipids and fiber
D. Magnesium and zinc
14. Which means on or to the
side?
A. Dorsal
B. Lateral
C. Medial
D. Ventral
15. Where are the phalanges
relative to the carpals?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Superficial
D. Deep
16. Which body cavity is
posterior to the diaphragm?
A. Cranial
B. Abdominal
C. Cervical
D. Vertebral
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the deltoid region?

Armpit
Between elbow and shoulder
Neck
Shoulders
18. Which method involves the

kidney meridian beginning at
the foot, ending at the thorax,
and being associated with the
impetus to move?
A. Acupuncture
B. Acupressure
C. Shiatsu
D. All of the above
19. Which muscle fibers are
pale, large in diameter, with
few capillaries?
A. Fast twitch
B. Slow twitch
C. Intermediate
D. All of the above
originates at the lateral
epicondyle of the humerus?
B. Soleus
C. Multifidi
21. Where is the latitudinal arch?
A. First metatarsal to fifth
metatarsal
B. Calcaneus to first metatarsal
C. Humerus to fifth metacarpal
D. Ulna to radius
22. How many phalanges does
the hand have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
Page 15
23. What describes the shape of

extensor digitorum longus?
A. Circular
B. Convergent
C. Unipennate
D. Hinge
29. Which extends the vertebral

column?
A. Iliacus
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Quadratus lumborum
24. What is the thick, lubricating

substance secreted by a joint
cavity membrane that reduces
friction?
A. Joint capsule
B. Synovial joint
C. Synovial fluid
D. Suture
30. What is a contraction in

which the length of the
muscle does not change?
A. Concentric
B. Isotonic
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
25. Which muscle crosses two

joints?
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Frontalis
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Peroneus longus
26. Which is an action of teres
minor?
A. Flex the elbow
B. Medially rotate the shoulder
C. Horizontally abduct the
shoulder
D. Adduct the wrist
27. Which muscle flexes,
laterally rotates, and abducts
the hip; and flexes and
medially rotates the knee?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Brachialis
28. What stabilizes the ulna
during flexion and supination?
A. Metacarpophalangeal joints
B. Deltoid
C. Bicipital aponeurosis
D. Radial carpal joint
31. Which muscles have a higher

percentage of fast-twitch
white fibers?
A. Soft tissues
B. Postural muscles
C. Connective tissue
D. Phasic muscles
32. What happens in an isometric
muscle contraction?
A. The length of the muscle
changes
does not change
C. The muscle lengthens but
does not shorten
33.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the study of disease?

Anthropology
Diagnosis
Pharmacology
Pathology
34. What is a degenerative

disease?
A. Disease that deteriorates
B. Disease spread by mold or
yeast
C. Disease with no known cause
D. Disease present at birth
Page 16
35. What is nonmalignant or not

progressive?
A. Benign
B. Metastatic
C. Cancer
D. Somatic
36. What is the categorization of
a disease by a licensed
medical professional?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Pathology
D. Etiology
37. Is massage indicated or
contraindicated for chronic
fatigue syndrome?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
C. Local contraindication
D. A medical diagnosis is
required before a massage
contraindicated for an open
wound?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
D. Contraindicated in the acute
stage
39. Which is true regarding
Hepatitis B?
A. It is 100 times more
contagious than HIV
B. Vaccines are not effective
C. It accounts for 100% of all
new hepatitis cases
D. It is transmitted through
contaminated food and
water
40. What are non-narcotic pain

relievers and narcotics?
A. Analgesics
B. Anti-inflammatory
medications
C. Antineoplastics
medications
41. What are the implications for
massage for a client taking
analgesics?
A. Watch for bruising
B. Pain perception is inhibited
C. Massage can help with
constipation
D. All of the above
42. What is used for coughs and
inflammation of the pharynx?
A. Peppermint
B. Ma-huang
C. Ginseng
D. St. John's Wort
involves the bone in skull
being driven inward?
C. Comminuted fracture
D. Stress fracture
44.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is lateral epicondylitis?

Tennis elbow
Golfer's elbow
Pitcher's elbow
Frozen shoulder
45. What is the result of an

injury to the ulnar nerve?
A. List
B. Loss of function of wrist and
fingers
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 17
46. What is associated with

kyphotic-lordotic posture?
A. Flat back
B. Forward head
C. Normal anterior curve
D. All of the above
the ulnar nerve?
A. Lateral epicondyle of the
humerus
B. Medial epicondyle of the
humerus
C. Pelvic cavity
D. Sciatic notch
48. Which of the following is a
component of the axillary
area endangerment site?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Coccyx
C. Cephalic vein
D. Ulnar nerve
49. What are venous return,
lymph flow, and breaking
adhesions examples of?
A. Mechanical effects
B. Physiological effects
C. Reflex effects
D. Placebo effects
50. Which is an effect of
massage processed through
the autonomic nervous system
(ANS)?
A. The body / mind effect
B. The placebo effect
C. Entrainment
D. All of the above

on the skin?
A. Reduces heart rate
B. Stimulates sudoriferous gland
activity
C. Increases serotonin levels
D. Empty end feel
52. Which condition can benefit
from massage?
A. Temporomandibular joint
dysfunction
B. Tonsillitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. All of the above
53. Which is decreased as one of
the effects of massage?
A. Dopamine
B. Endorphins
C. Cortisol
D. Red blood cells
54. Which hydrotherapy
application uses friction?
A. Baths
B. Packs
C. Sponging
D. Compresses
55. Which involves high
frequency hand movements?
A. Deep fiber friction
B. Superficial friction
C. Tapotement
D. Vibration
to use to finish with a client
having trouble sleeping?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
Page 18
57. What is another name for

proprioceptive neuromuscular
facilitation (PNF)?
A. Muscle guarding
B. Stretching
C. Trigger point therapy
D. Muscle energy techniques
58. What is not a physical effect
of massage?
A. Decreases in muscle cramps
and spasms
B. Increases circulation of blood
and lymph
C. Increases removal of
metabolic waste
D. Reduces anxiety
59. What is a psychological
effect of massage?
A. Increases anxiety
B. Helps clients become aware
of where there is muscle
tension
C. Relieves muscle cramps
D. Increases circulation
60. What is initiated by
stimulation of the
system?
A. Reduced heart rate
B. Blood diverted to muscles
C. Elimination and digestion
inhibited
D. All of the above
61. What massage movement
causes a contraction of the
blood vessels which tend to
relax as the movement is
continued?
A. Light percussion
B. Light stroking
C. Deep stroking
D. All of the above
62. Which is a percussion

movement?
A. Hacking
B. Kneading
C. Gliding
D. Friction
63. Which stroke is a kneading
technique?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Fulling
D. Friction
percussion?
A. Beating
B. Gliding
C. Slapping
D. Tapping
65. How can position release
techniques be done?
A. Isometric contraction
B. Isotonic contraction
C. Isokinetic contraction
D. All of the above
66. Which stroke breaks down
scar tissue?
A. Effleurage
B. Friction
C. Deep tissue
D. Percussion
67. What is a guideline for
massaging persons with
cancer?
A. Take a complete medical
history
B. Consult the physician
C. Develop a treatment plan
D. All of the above
Page 19
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which method applies cold?

Hydrotherapy
Cryotherapy
Cross-fiber friction
Percussion
69. What is the "E" in the

R.I.C.E.S. first aid principle?
A. End feel
B. Elevate
C. Exacerbate
D. Excite
70. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, what is the
A. Lengthen psoas major and
upper trapezius
B. Lengthen biceps femoris and
SCM
C. Lengthen soleus and
gastrocnemius
D. Shorten iliacus and rectus
capitis posterior major
71. If a client has a prominent or
high right hip, what is the
A. Stretch knee flexors and hip
flexors
B. Stretch hip medial rotators
C. Stretch right lateral trunk
and left lateral thigh muscles
D. Stretch serratus anterior
retracted shoulders?
A. Stretch serratus anterior
B. Stretch rhomboids
C. Stretch rectus femoris
D. Stretch extensor digitorum
longus
73. Which muscles are

overactive if a client has
shoulder pain, low back pain,
and a headache when flexing
the shoulders?
A. Abdominal complex
B. Erector spinae, psoas, and
rectus abdominis
C. Upper trapezius and
ipsilateral quadratus
lumborum
D. Gluteus maximum and
gastrocnemius
74. What would be a more
comfortable position for
clients with allergies and coldrelated respiratory
congestion?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Recumbent
75. What are the SOAP headings?
A. Synopsis, objective,
assessment, plan
B. Subjective, origin, analysis,
plan
C. Subjective, objective,
assessment, prognosis
D. Subjective, objective,
assessment, plan
76. Which would generally be
included on an intake form?
A. Code of ethics
B. Range of motion assessment
C. Health history and contact
information
Page 20
77. What occurs when there is no

physical restriction to
movement other than the pain
expressed by the client?
A. Soft tissue dysfunction
B. Abnormal end feel
C. Protective muscle
contraction
D. Normal end feel
81. What happens to the feet

when standing in heels or
walking fast?
A. Less tendency towards
pigeon-toes
B. Increase in out-toeing
C. Feet tend to become parallel
D. Feet are more outward
rotating
78. Which muscles would

become dominant to
compensate for a weak
gluteus medius?
A. Tensor fasciae latae and
adductors
B. Gracilis and biceps femoris
C. Semitendinosus and
semimembranosus
D. Rectus femoris and biceps
femoris
82. Which are long and weak

with the pelvis laterally tilted
and high left, left hip
adducted and medially
rotated, and right hip
abducted?
left hip abductors and right
hip adductors
B. Left peroneus longus and
brevis and right tibialis
posterior
C. Right flexor hallucis longus
and right flexor digitorum
longus
D. All of the above
79. What happens in the forward

head position?
A. Short and strong neck
extensors
B. Long anterior vertebral neck
flexors
C. Weak anterior vertebral neck
flexors
D. All of the above
80. If a client has kyphoticlordotic posture, which
muscles are most likely short
and strong?
A. Erector spinae
B. Neck extensors
C. External obliques
D. Hamstrings

the feet, what happens when
the ankle rolls out?
A. Pronation
B. Knock-knees
C. Bowlegs
D. Supination
Page 21

the left arm extensors?
against therapist's
against therapist's
89. What is a painful significant

restriction of range of motion
at the shoulder?
A. Tendonitis
B. Whiplash
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Bursitis
85. What is the first step of the

client consultation?
A. Discuss fees
B. Greet client
C. Formulate treatment plan
D. SOAP chart
91. What did James Cyriax

develop in his work on soft
tissue manipulation?
A. Swedish massage
C. Reflexology
D. Deep transverse friction
86. Where on the SOAP chart

would the massage treatment
given be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Observation
C. Assessment
D. Plan
87. What is an overuse condition
resulting in inflammation in
the foot?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Migraine
D. Whiplash
common extensor tendon?
A. Trigger finger
B. Lateral epicondylitis
C. Medial epicondylitis
D. Golfer's elbow
90. What is an increase in the

normal lumbar lordotic curve?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
92. Which applies pressure to

points on the hands and feet?
A. Reflexology
B. Neuromuscular therapy
C. Deep transverse friction
D. Hellerwork
93. How does aromatherapy
work?
A. Thermal properties
B. Stimulates olfactory nerve
C. Distraction
D. Placebo response
94. Who is considered the father
of physical therapy?
A. Per Henrik Ling
B. Joseph Heller
C. Boris Chaitow
D. Stanley Leif
Page 22
95. Which early massage system

described an ascete as a
person who exercises the mind
and body?
A. Greek
B. German
C. Chinese
D. Indian
96. What is the path or way to
sustain energy?
A. Marketing
B. Tao
C. Acupressure
D. Trigger point
97. What occurs when a client's
expectations and behaviors
are moved to the therapist?
A. Client-centered
B. Dual relationships
C. Transference
D. Ethics
98. Which section of a standards
of practice would contain
guidance on advertising and
fees?
A. DBA
B. Confidentiality
C. Business practices
D. Prevention of sexual
misconduct
A. Contract
B. Right of refusal
C. Dating a client
D. Informed consent

code of ethics?
A. Right of refusal
B. Advertising
C. Working on a minor with
parental consent
D. All of the above
101. What is out of the
therapeutic relationship?
A. Spiritual advice
B. Social needs
C. Personal needs
D. All of the above
boundary?
A. Barrier
B. Palpation assessment
103. Who can provide consent to
working on a minor?
A. A legal guardian
B. Any relatives
C. A Friend
D. All of the above
104. Charging different fees if
the client pays in cash or
with insurance is what type
of unethical behavior?
A. Misrepresentation of
educational status
B. Financial impropriety
C. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
Page 23
105. What is the issue if a client

asks for information about
another client who they saw
in the office?
A. Dual relationship
B. Transference
C. Countertransference
D. Confidentiality
106. What is outside the scope of
practice?
A. Psychological advice
B. Soft tissue manipulation
107. What is an issue if a teacher
and massage school student
start dating and it leads to
gossip and tension?
A. Transference
B. Countertransference
D. Dual relationship
108. Which is unethical?
A. Advertising
B. Professionalism
C. Sexual misconduct
D. All of the above
action if a client constantly
complains about stress and
other people's problems?
A. Suggest the client seek
counseling for the stress
B. Prescribe medication to
reduce stress
C. Leave the room and ask the
client to stop complaining
D. Offer psychological advice
110. What is needed if a client

asks for personal information
the therapist does not want
to share such as a home
phone number?
B. Transference
D. Direct communication
client asks for a happy
ending?
A. Act as if nothing happened
B. Call 911
112. What provides a safe
experience for clients?
A. Sexual jokes
B. Maintain a professional
appearance and demeanor
113. What is the loading capacity
of a good-quality massage
table?
A. 100 to 125 pounds or more
B. 175 to 225 pounds or more
C. 300 to 450 pounds or more
D. 600 to 750 pounds or more
114. What would be done if a
therapist drops a sheet on
the floor during a massage?
A. Review proper draping
procedures
B. Proceed with massage
C. Advise client on proper
sanitation procedures
D. Put sheet in hamper and
wash hands
Page 24
115. The following are standard

precautions for preventing
transmission of pathogens
except:
A. Proper draping
B. Proper hand hygiene
C. Proper sanitation procedures
D. Proper disposal techniques
120. What draping method

requires a minimum size of
72 inches long and 36 inches
wide?
A. Top cover method
B. Full sheet method
116. What is a universal

precaution?
A. Wash hands with bleach
before and after contact
with every client
B. Use disposable paper towels
after washing hands
121. What amount of water is

needed by the body per day?
A. 2 to 3 liters
B. 3 to 4 gallons
C. 4 to 5 gallons
D. 5 to 6 gallons
117. What increases the strength

and power available in a
movement?
A. Sanitation
B. Draping
C. Body mechanics
D. Gloves
118. In the asymmetric stance,
the angle between the
humerus and the side of the
body should not exceed how
many degrees?
A. 45%
B. 90%
C. 135%
D. 180%
119. What is the process of
keeping a client covered
while performing a massage?
A. Draping
B. Body mechanics
C. Protective gear
D. Assessment

working in self-employment?
A. Benefits
B. Tax forms
C. Hours schedule
D. FICA tax
123. What would the sum of fees
collected be?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
124. What is typically requested
by an employer or landlord?
A. Additional insured
endorsement
B. Legal defense coverage
insurance
125. How is a brochure used?
A. Licensing
B. Tax
C. Marketing
D. Insurance
Page 25
Exam 2 Answer Key

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. A
37. A
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. D
42. A
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. C
90. A
91. D
92. A
93. B
94. A
95. A
96. B
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. D
101. D
102. A
103. A
104. B
105. D
106. A
107. D
108. C
109. A
110. D
111. C
112. B
113. C
114. D
115. A
116. B
117. C
118. B
119. A
120. A
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. A
125. C
B
A
B
B
B
C
A
D
B
A
C
C
D
D
D
D
B
A
A
A
C
B
D
B
D
B
B
A
C
B
C
A
D
C
B
A
D
B
C
D
D
A
Page 26
Exam 3
1. Which refers to the structures
of the body?
A. Anatomy
B. Ortho-bionomy
C. Histology
D. Pathophysiology
structure contains atoms and
molecules?
A. Sub-atomic level
B. Chemical level
C. Organism level
D. Tissue level
3. What are lysosomes,
ribosomes, and centrosomes
examples of?
A. Cells
B. Cytoplasm
C. Oils
D. Organelles
4. Which surrounds the nucleus
and contains organelles?
A. Atom
B. Cytoplasm
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Feedback loop
5. Which epithelium is found
where absorption or secretion
takes place?
A. Simple
B. Cuboidal
C. Dermis
D. Ellipsoid
6. What is a connective tissue

structure covering bones
providing for nutrition, growth,
and attachments?
A. Periosteum
B. Piezoelectric
C. Femoral region
D. Endosteum
7. What type of muscle tissue is
the heart?
A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Elastic
D. Smooth
under sympathetic control?
A. Slow heartbeat
D. Increased secretion of
digestive juices
peripheral nervous system is
working if the client starts to
breathe more slowly?
A. Somatic
B. Gastric
C. Sympathetic
D. Parasympathetic
blood from the left ventricle?
B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Kidney
Page 27
11. Which system provides

oxygen and removes carbon
dioxide?
A. Lymphatic
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Urinary
D. Respiratory
12. What is required by nerve
cells and muscle cells to
conduct electricity?
A. Vitamin C
B. Sodium and potassium
C. Aloe
D. Vitamin D
13. What is required for tissue
repair and essential for blood
clotting?
A. Vitamin C
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Aloe
14. Which means within the
body?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Superficial
15. Where is the heart relative
to the liver?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Plantar
D. Volar
16. Which plane divides the body
into sections for a lateral
view?
A. Frontal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Oblique plane
D. Coronal plane
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the axillary region?

Armpit
Neck
Shoulders

small intestine meridian
beginning at the little finger,
ending at the ear, and being
associated with assimilation?
A. Craniosacral therapy
B. Acupressure
D. All of the above
19. Which muscle is considered
an accessory muscle of
respiration rather than a
primary muscle of respiration?
A. Diaphragm
B. Temporalis
C. Pectoris major
D. Sternocleidomastoid
originates at the medial
B. Biceps femoris
C. Levator scapula
21. What are the tendons that
pass by the medial malleolus,
in order starting with the most
anterior?
A. Tibialis anterior, tibialis
posterior, teres minor
B. Popliteus, sartorius, rectus
abdominis
C. Soleus, quadratus plantae,
adductor digiti minimi
D. Tibialis posterior, flexor
digitorum, flexor hallucis
Page 28
22. How many metacarpals does

the hand have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
28. Which is an action of

palmaris longus?
A. Adducts scapula
B. Flexes wrist and elbow
C. Extends leg
D. Extends wrist and elbow

shape of biceps brachii?
A. Bipennate
B. Saddle
C. Unipennate
D. Convergent
29. Which muscle rotates the

vertebral column to the same
side?
A. Vastus medialis
B. Internal oblique
C. Peroneus longus
D. Rotatores
24. What is a freely moving joint

allowing movement in one or
more planes of action?
A. Joint capsule
B. Synovial joint
C. Synovial fluid
D. Suture
25. The squamous suture is the
articulation of which bones?
A. Two phalanges
B. Humerus and ulna
C. Parietal and temporal bones
D. Occipital and mandible
bones
infraspinatus?
A. Abduct the leg
C. Horizontally abduct the
shoulder
D. Flex the arm
27. Which muscle inserts on the
proximal, medial shaft of the
tibia at the pes anserinus
tendon?
A. Platysma
B. Biceps brachii
C. Sartorius
30. What is the type of

contraction in which muscle
lengthens?
A. Concentric
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
31. Which muscles have a higher
percentage of slow-twitch red
fibers?
A. Soft tissues
B. Postural muscles
D. Phasic muscles
32. What kind of joint is
described by diathrosis?
A. Freely moveable
B. Slightly moveable
C. Immoveable
D. Suture
33. What is the formation of scar
tissue?
A. Edema
B. Tenosynovitis
C. Mitosis
D. Fibrosis
Page 29
34. What is a fungal disease?

A. A disease that deteriorates
B. A disease spread by mold or
yeast
C. A disease with no known
cause
D. A disease present at birth
40. What are antianginals,

vasodilators, antihypertensive
agents, and beta blockers?
A. Cardiovascular medications
B. Gastrointestinal medications
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives
35.
A.
B.
C.
D.

central nervous system
medications?
A. Massage can increase or
decrease the impact of the
medication
B. Work with supervision from
the physician
C. Massage can help with
constipation
D. All of the above
What means growing worse?

Benign
Chronic
Cancer
Malignant
36. What is the study of all of

the factors involved in causing
a disease?
A. Pathology
B. Epidemiology
C. Etiology
D. Pharmacology
37. Which is a local
A. Bell's palsy
B. Acne
C. Erysipelas
D. Bronchitis
contraindicated for plantar
fasciitis?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
39. Which is true regarding HIV?
A. It is impossible to spread
through breast milk
B. Its favorite target is the T4
cell
C. It is the same as AIDS
D. Coughing expels a large
quantity of HIV
42. What is used for asthma and

hay fever?
A. Peppermint
B. Ma-huang
C. Ginseng
D. St. John's Wort
involves a crack in the bone
often caused by repeated
mechanical stress and strain?
A. Spiral fracture
B. Impacted fracture
D. Stress fracture
44. What is torticollis?
A. Tennis elbow
to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Subluxation
Page 30
45. What is a cervical

acceleration-deceleration
injury?
A. Torticollis
to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
kyphotic-lordotic posture?
A. Increased flexion of thoracic
spine
B. Forward head
C. Hyperextended lumbar spine
D. All of the above
47. Which muscle does the
femoral nerve pierce?
A. Psoas
B. Trapezius
C. Supinator
D. Teres minor
component of the anterior
triangle of the neck
endangerment site?
A. Jugular vein
B. Femoral artery
C. Cephalic vein
D. Patellar region
49. What is a mechanical effect
of massage?
A. Venous return
B. Lymph flow
C. Breaking adhesions
D. All of the above
50. Which effect of massage

processed through the
involves an altered state of
consciousness?
A. The body / mind effect
B. Counterirritation
C. Gate control theory
D. Mechanical methods
by massage?
A. High blood pressure
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Chronic fatigue syndrome
D. All of the above
52. How do inactive muscles
benefit greatly from massage?
A. The skin is warmed
B. Synovial fluid is produced
C. Oxygen and nutrients are
delivered
D. Oxytocin is decreased
53. What involves scrubbing the
body with a brush dipped in
warm, soapy water?
A. Sponging
B. Body shampoo
C. Tonic friction
D. Salt rub
54. What is the temperature of a
hot bath?
A. Below 32 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 77 to 80 degrees Fahrenheit
or 25 to 27 degrees Celsius
C. 100 to 110 degrees
Fahrenheit or 38 to 43
degrees Celsius
D. Above 100 degrees Celsius
Page 31
55. What strokes are done on the

abdomen if a client has
chronic constipation?
A. Tapotement
B. Deep clockwise strokes
C. Gliding counterclockwise
strokes
D. Gliding clockwise strokes
for local deep massage of soft
tissue?
A. Cryotherapy
B. Tapotement
C. Percussion
D. Deep effleurage
57. Which is best for breaking up
areas of fibrosis?
A. Tapotement
B. Friction or deep effleurage
C. Craniosacral therapy
D. Rolfing
effect of massage?
A. Increases muscle cramps and
spasms
B. Decreases circulation of
blood and lymph
metabolic waste
D. Calms the nervous system
on the muscular system?
A. Decreased supply of blood to
muscles
B. Storage of waste products
C. Helps nourish tissues
D. Reddening of skin
60. What moves joints with

resistance or assistance on the
part of the client?
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
affects blood and lymph
channels?
A. Stroking
B. Light percussion
C. Friction
D. All of the above
62. Which stroke is applied in a
transverse direction?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
D. Circular friction
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is gliding?
Effleurage
Petrissage
Cryotherapy
Tapotement
64. Which stroke is not

petrissage?
A. Hacking
B. Kneading
C. Skin rolling
D. Fulling
is very useful for reducing
muscle cramping?
B. Unassisted static stretching
Page 32
66. What stoke usually requires

lubricant?
A. Effleurage
B. Jostling
C. Percussion
D. Compression
from pregnancy massage?
A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Back strain
C. Both A and B
68. Is massage for the critically
ill indicated or
contraindicated?
A. Indicated for gentle work
B. Indicated for deep work
C. Contraindicated for touch
therapy
D. Always contraindicated
69. What is a secondary effect of
applying cold?
A. Increased local circulation
B. Contrast method
C. Decreased local circulation
D. Vasoconstriction
70. What refers symptoms to
other areas of the body?
A. Tender point
B. Trigger point
C. Target muscle
D. Muscle guarding
71. What is appropriate if a
client has a prominent or high
left hip?
A. Stretch left lateral trunk and
right lateral thigh muscles
B. Stretch right lateral trunk
and left lateral thigh muscles
C. Stretch temporalis
D. Stretch trapezius
72. What is done if a client has a

flexion, abduction, and lateral
rotation deformity of the hip,
with flexion of the knee?
A. Lengthen deltoid
B. Lengthen teres major
C. Lengthen sartorius
D. Lengthen quadriceps femoris
73. Which muscles are weak if a
client has shoulder pain, low
back pain, and a headache
when flexing the shoulders?
A. Abdominal complex
B. Erector spinae, psoas, and
rectus abdominis
C. Levator scapula
D. Gluteus maximum and
gastrocnemius
74. What is the best way to turn
a client?
A. Hold edge of sheet and have
client turn towards therapist
B. Client gets off table feet
first
C. Client holds sheet and
therapist turns client
D. Seated
the massage treatment
applications including
techniques, duration, and
location recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 33
76. Which is within the scope of

practice of a massage
therapist?
A. Diagnosis
B. Intentional joint
manipulation
C. Skeletal realignment
D. Soft tissue manipulation
81. Which muscles are short and

strong with sway-back
posture?
A. Upper fibers of the internal
obliques
B. One-joint hip flexors
C. Neck flexors
D. All of the above
77. What is the most appropriate

action if a client comes in
with enlarged lymph nodes?
A. Massage around the enlarged
lymph nodes
B. Manual lymphatic drainage
C. Diagnose the condition as
lymphatic edema
D. Refer the client to a primary
care provider immediately

with the right hip joint
rotated, left hip abducted and
feet pronated?
A. Left lateral trunk muscles,
right hip abductors and left
hip adductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
78. When assessing the function

of the shoulder, where is
resistance applied?
A. Distal end of the humerus
B. At the wrist
C. On the scapula
D. The end of the radius
head position?
A. Short and strong neck
extensors
B. Short anterior vertebral neck
flexors
C. Strong anterior vertebral
neck flexors
D. All of the above
muscles are strong and may or
may not develop shortness?
A. Erector spinae
B. Neck flexors
D. Low back
83. What is a characteristic of

good alignment of the feet
and knees?
A. The patella face forward
B. The feet are pronated
C. The feet are supinated
D. Knock-kneed position
84. What happens when the
armrests of a chair are too
low?
A. The hips are flexed
B. The shoulders will be pushed
upward
C. The arms will not have
proper support
D. Neck and back strain
Page 34

the right arm extensors?
against therapist's
against therapist's
90. What is swayback posture?

A. Scoliosis
B. C-curve
C. Hyperlordosis
D. Hyperkyphosis
91. With what soft tissue method
are Boris Chaitow and Stanley
Leif associated?
B. Ayurveda
C. Reflexology
D. Deep transverse friction
86. What is the next step of the

client consultation after the
initial greeting and
determining the client's
needs?
A. Explain procedures and state
policies
B. Perform massage
D. SOAP chart
92. In polarity therapy, what are

points along an energy current
that connect with other points
along that current?
A. Ether, air, fire, water, and
earth
B. Reflexes
C. Chakras
D. Doshas
87. What causes pain during

palpation of the calcaneus?
A. Plantar fasciitis
B. Whiplash
C. Torticollis
D. Migraine
93. Who developed the Trager

method?
B. Dr. Ida Rolf
C. Dr. John Thie
D. Dr. John Upledger
88. What is the frozen phase of

frozen shoulder?
A. Acute
B. Subacute
C. Third stage
D. Chronic

included Ayurveda and
Tschanpua?
A. Greek
B. Swedish
C. Chinese
D. Indian
89. What involves nerve

compression in the area of the
scalenes and pec minor?
A. Torticollis
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
95. What is a life force or

energy?
A. Chi or Qi or Ki
B. Marketing
C. Acupressure
D. Soft tissue manipulation
Page 35
96. Which uses doshas such as

vata, pitta, and kapha?
A. Tapotement
B. Ayurveda
C. Acupressure
D. Acupuncture

A. Informed consent
B. Consistency
C. Spiritual advice
D. All of the above
97. What occurs when a

therapist's expectations and
behaviors are moved to the
client?
A. Client-centered
C. Professionalism
D. Countertransference

type of boundary?
A. Health history form
B. Intellectual
98. What is considered a

protection process for the
consumer?
A. Informed consent
B. Power differential
C. DBA
D. Dual role
differential
B. Right of refusal
C. Informed consent
D. All of the above
code of ethics?
A. Informed consent
B. Dating a client
C. Working on a minor without
parental consent
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Contract
B. Rights as professionals
C. Right of refusal
D. All of the above

minor requests a massage
without parental consent?
A. Perform the massage if a
cousin says it is OK
B. Do not perform the massage
C. Answers A and B are correct
105. Treating a client when the
therapist is sick is what type
practice
C. Contraindication violation
106. When can what a client says
or does be revealed to others
without the client's consent?
A. When required by law or a
court order
B. When required to protect the
public
Page 36
107. What should the therapist

do if a client asks for herbs to
replace prescription
medication?
A. Suggest an herb to replace
the prescription medication
B. Tell the client to consult
provider before stopping to
take any prescription
medication
C. Suggest an alternative
prescription medication
D. Recommend that the client
first before trying herbs
108. Massaging an associate
involves what type of issue?
B. Consent
of ethics?
A. Insurance
B. Income and expense
measurement
C. Tax
D. All of the above
110. What are the feelings of the
client toward the therapist?
A. Dual relationships
B. Transference
C. Confidentiality
111. What is any action or

verbalization of an
inappropriate sexual nature
towards a client?
B. Transference
D. Sexual misconduct
A. Continue education in ethics
B. Treat all clients equally
113. What might a client with
hypothyroidism most likely
need to be comfortable?
A. Referral
B. Warm room temperature
C. Unrestricted access
D. Massage mat
114. What is the most common
width for massage table tops?
A. 18 to 22 inches
B. 27 to 30 inches
C. 36 to 40 inches
D. 72 to 76 inches
115. In what manner are used
linens handled, according to
the CDC?
A. Single-use linens are
recommended
B. Put in a private room
C. In a manner that prevents
skin and mucous exposure
D. Place in appropriate
puncture-proof container
Page 37
116. The following are steps for

proper handwashing,
according to the CDC,
except:
A. Wet hands and apply liquid
soap or clean bar soap
B. Rub hands vigorously for at
least one minute
C. Rinse well and dry hands
with disposable towel
D. Use cloth towel to turn off
faucet
117. What removes pathogens
from implements and
surfaces?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
118. What is a client safety
practice regarding sanitation?
A. Use clean linens with each
client
B. Wash hands before and after
each client
C. Provide sanitary bathrooms
D. All of the above
petrissage?
A. Asymmetric
B. Seated
C. Archer stance
D. Horse stance
120. What is for the client's
comfort, warmth, and
modesty?
A. Draping
B. Body mechanics
C. Protective gear
D. Assessment
121. A deficiency of which

vitamin would interfere with
growth and reduce immunity?
A. Vitamin A
B. Lavender
C. Camphor
D. Vitamin D
122. What would primarily
include numbers such as
income and expenses?
A. Business plan
B. Resume
123. What form is used for the
net profit from a business?
A. Schedule C of Form 1040
B. Form 1099
C. Form W-2
D. Form 2106
124. What involves mutually
beneficial business
relationships?
A. Corporation
B. Networking
C. DBA
D. Sole proprietorship
125. Costs for what could be
deductible as a business
expense?
A. Business cards
B. Linens
C. Both A and B
Page 38
Exam 3 Answer Key

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. A
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. A
92. B
93. A
94. D
95. A
96. B
97. D
98. A
99. A
100. A
101. D
102. C
103. B
104. B
105. C
106. C
107. B
108. A
109. D
110. B
111. D
112. C
113. B
114. B
115. C
116. D
117. C
118. D
119. D
120. A
121. A
122. D
123. A
124. B
125. C
D
B
D
D
A
A
D
A
D
C
B
C
D
D
B
D
C
A
D
C
A
A
D
A
B
A
A
B
A
C
C
A
B
D
D
A
A
D
A
C
A
C
Page 39
Exam 4
1. What does physiology refer to?
A. Soft tissue manipulation
B. Functions of the body
C. Disease
D. Tissues
structure contains the basic
structural and functional units
of an organism?
A. Cellular level
B. System level
C. Microscopic level
D. Tissue level
3. What is the name for
reproductive cell division in
which the number of
chromosomes is reduced by
half?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Apoptosis
D. Cytokinesis
4. Which are vesicles filled with
digestive enzymes that form
the Golgi complex?
A. Lysosomes
B. DNA
D. Microvilli
5. Which type of serous
membrane covers the heart?
A. Pleura
B. Pericardium
C. Cutaneous
D. Jejunum
6. What is an air cavity within a

bone?
A. Fissure
B. Foramen
C. Meatus
D. Sinus
7. What structure receives
stimulus directly from the
receptor organ in the reflex
arc?
A. Sensory neuron
B. Effector organ
C. Efferent neuron
D. Lymphocyte
8. Which is the main function of
the endocrine system?
A. Secretion of chemicals
B. Defense against infection
C. Circulation
D. Gas exchange
9. Which system includes glands
such as the parathyroid,
pineal, adrenal, pancreas, and
gonads?
A. Endocrine
B. Lymphatic
C. Gastrointestinal
D. Urinary
10. What taste goes with the
spleen?
A. Bitter
B. Acid
C. Sweet and sour
D. Salty
Page 40
11. In what order of the colons

does food pass through the
large intestine, before
reaching the sigmoid colon?
A. Descending, transverse,
jejunum
B. Ascending, protracting,
transverse
C. Ascending, transverse,
descending
D. Descending, ascending,
transverse
12. The sagittal suture is the
A. Two parietal bones
B. Frontal and parietal bones
C. Patellar and ulnar bones
D. Occipital and parietal bones
vitamin would result in
digestive disturbances,
enlargement of the liver, and
disturbance of the thyroid?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B complex
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which means exterior?

External
Internal
Proximal
Superficial
15. Where is the stomach

relative to the lungs?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
16. Which plane passes through

the body at an angle between
the transverse plane and
either the sagittal or frontal
plane?
A. Cross-sectional plane
B. Oblique plane
C. Median plane
D. Coronal plane
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the brachial region?

Armpit
Neck
Shoulders

gallbladder meridian
beginning at the head, ending
at the toe, and being
associated with the flow of ki?
A. Bindegewebmassage
B. Ayurveda
C. Shiatsu
D. All of the above
19. When the elbow extends,
what is the triceps?
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Origin
D. Insertion
20. Where does the subclavius
insert?
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. Radius
21. How many carpals does the
hand have?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
Page 41
22. Where is the peroneus

tertius?
A. Between the patella and the
head of the fibula
B. Anterior to the ribs
C. Directly medial from
olecranon process
D. Posterior to the skull
shape of rectus femoris?
A. Isometric
B. Convergent
C. Unipennate
D. Bipennate
24. What is a connective tissue
structure that indirectly
connects the bony
components of a joint?
A. Joint capsule
B. Synovial joint
C. Synovial fluid
D. Suture
25. Which are critical for proper
muscle contraction?
A. Vitamins B and E
B. Sodium and aloe
C. Calcium and magnesium
28. Which muscle abducts,

flexes, extends, medially and
laterally rotates, and
horizontally adducts and
abducts the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps femoris
29. Which muscle assists in
extending the thumb?
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Pronator teres
C. Biceps brachii
D. Flexor pollicis longus
30. What type of lever has the
fulcrum in the middle?
A. First class lever
B. Second class lever
C. Saddle
D. Hinge
31. What describes a joint with
excessive range of motion?
A. Hypermobility
B. Hypomobility
C. Close-packed position
D. Loose-packed position
26. Which muscle extends the

vertebral column and head?
A. Multifidi
B. Rotatores
C. Semispinalis
D. Hamstrings
32. What happens in an

eccentric muscle contraction?
A. The muscle relaxes
does not change
C. The muscle lengthens
D. The muscle shortens
27. Which muscle originates at

the anterior superior iliac
spine (ASIS)?
A. Extensor digitorum
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
33. What is the scientific field of

study of all factors involved in
causing a disease?
A. Etiology
B. Diagnosis
C. Prognosis
D. Homeostasis
Page 42
34. What are generally the most

acceptable methods to
strengthen the healing
process?
A. Denial
B. Recreational drugs
C. Therapeutic applications
D. Marketing
35. What refers to the spreading
or change in location of a
disease?
A. Benign
B. Chronic
C. Cancer
D. Metastatic
36. What refers to the problems
of a disease as described by a
patient?
A. Diagnosis
B. Prognosis
C. Referral
D. Symptoms
37. Which is a contraindication
for massage while in the acute
stage?
A. Bell's palsy
B. Acne
C. Erysipelas
D. Bronchitis
contraindicated for warts?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
39. What exercise is most
beneficial for osteoporosis?
A. Weight bearing
B. Stretching
C. Aerobic
D. Endurance

vasodilators?
A. The medication may increase
the effect of the massage
B. Stop the massage if the heart
rate slows to below 90 beats
per minute
C. Avoid energetic massage
methods
D. All of the above
41. What type of medication
might be used to help
someone stop smoking?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antidepressants
C. Antihistamines
D. Anti-inflammatory
42. What natural supplement
improves physical stamina?
A. NSAIDs
B. Ma-huang
C. Ginseng
D. St. John's Wort
43. What fracture involves the
broken ends of bone being
jammed into each other?
B. Impacted fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Stress fracture
44.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is adhesive capsulitis?

Tennis elbow
Golfer's elbow
Pitcher's elbow
Frozen shoulder
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is ringing in the ears?

Torticollis
Tinnitus
Tendonitis
Whiplash
Page 43
46. What is associated with flat

back posture?
A. Forward head
B. Flexed or straight lumbar
spine
C. Posterior pelvic tilt
D. All of the above
47. Which muscle does the
greater occipital nerve pierce?
A. Psoas
B. Trapezius
C. Supinator
D. Teres minor
48. Which is close to the SCM,
splenius capitis, trapezius,
and scalenes?
A. Femoral artery
B. Carotid artery
C. Kidneys
D. Inguinal region
of massage?
A. Venous return
B. Parasympathetic nervous
system activation
C. Release of endorphins
D. All of the above
50. What is a reflex effect of
massage?
A. Venous return
B. Lymph flow
C. Increased mental clarity
D. All of the above
A. Soft end feel
B. Increases heart rate and
pulse rate
C. Decreases red blood cell
count
D. Increases stroke volume

from massage?
A. Anemia
B. Appendicitis
C. Autoimmune diseases or
acute inflammatory
processes during flare-up
D. All of the above
53. When should hydrotherapy
be avoided?
A. Infectious skin condition
B. Diabetes
C. Kidney infection
D. All of the above
54. At what temperature can
water cause tissue damage?
B. Over 124 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Below 0 degrees Celsius or
above 51 degrees Celsius
D. All of the above
55. Which stroke is a variation of
light effleurage?
C. Tapotement
D. Vibration
56. What is a PNF technique in
which the muscle spindles and
Golgi tendon organs are used
to relax a hypertonic muscle?
A. Direct manipulation (DM)
B. Positional release (PR)
C. Post-isometric contraction
(PIR)
D. Tapotement
57.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 44
Which is Swedish massage?

Rolfing
Petrissage
Polarity therapy
Reflexology

massage?
A. Decreases metabolism
B. Slows healing
C. Reduces tension and anxiety
D. Improves functions of
lymphatic system
64. What is the change in the

quality of movement from the
first sense of resistance?
A. End feel
B. Active joint movement
C. Passive joint movement
D. Tapping
59. What is a massage technique

with a sedative effect?
A. Gentle stroking
B. Strong percussion for a short
period
C. Friction
D. All of the above
65. What is shaking?

A. Effleurage
B. Vibration
C. Slapping
D. Tapping
60. What is holding pressure on a

sensitive trigger point?
A. Ischemic compression
B. Slapping
C. Shaking
D. All of the above
increases the permeability of
the capillary beds?
A. Light percussion
B. Light stroking
C. Light massage
D. Friction
62. Which stroke is a rhythmic
pressing movement?
A. Vibration
B. Compression
D. Percussion
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is stoking?
Effleurage
Petrissage
Cryotherapy
Tapotement
66. Which stroke would restore

pliability to connective tissue?
A. Light effleurage
B. Skin rolling
C. Feather strokes
D. Compression
67. What is contraindicated for
cancer?
A. Deep pressure
B. Circulatory massage
C. Fever
D. All of the above
68. What is a partial immersion
bath where the water is
agitated?
A. Whirlpool bath
B. Full body steam bath
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
69. What is the "S" in the
A. Secure
B. Stabilize
C. Sensitivity
D. Sufficiency
Page 45
70. In which muscles would a

client who had recently
ruptured an Achilles tendon
most likely have spasms and
pain?
A. Gastrocnemius and soleus
B. Tibialis anterior and deltoid
C. Biceps brachii and pectineus
D. Tensor fasciae latae and
piriformis
71. If a client has hammer toes
and a low metatarsal arch,
what is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Stretch the
B. Stretch the knee flexors
C. Stretch the low back muscles
D. Stretch the fascia lata
decreased range of motion in
horizontal abduction and
lateral rotation of the
shoulder?
A. Lengthen upper fibers of
pectoralis major
B. Lengthen biceps brachii
C. Lengthen serratus anterior
D. Refer to emergency room
immediately
the hip in a flexed position
and a knock-knee position?
A. Lengthen pectoralis major
B. Lengthen extensor digitorum
longus
C. Lengthen tensor fasciae
latae
74. What is a recommendation

for activities between
sessions?
A. Ergonomics
B. Referral
C. Self help
D. Treatment plan
75. What would you massage on
an athlete who complains of
pain in the patella after an
event?
A. Quadriceps
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Psoas major
76. Where on the SOAP chart is a
list of prioritized health
concerns or goals for the
session recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77. When the range of motion of
a joint allows 0 to 90 degrees
of flexion, what is anything
less?
A. Relaxed
B. Hypomobile
C. Hypermobile
D. Tensed
action if a client's pulse is
strong on one side of the body
and weak on the other?
A. Massage the side with the
weak pulse
B. Perform the regular massage
C. Massage the side with the
strong pulse
D. Refer the client to a primary
care provider
Page 46
79. When assessing extension of

the hip, where is resistance
applied?
A. Distal end of the tibia
B. At the ankle
C. On the sacrum
D. The end of the femur
head position?
A. Long neck extensors
B. Weak neck extensors
C. Long and weak anterior
vertebral neck flexors
D. All of the above
muscles are most likely
elongated and weak?
A. Low back
B. Upper back erector spinae
C. Lateral rotators of hip
D. Hip flexors
strong with sway-back
posture?
A. External obliques
C. Hamstrings
D. All of the above
good alignment of the feet
and knees?
A. Medial rotation of the femurs
B. The feet are not pronated

and high right, right hip
rotated, and left hip
abducted?
right hip adductors and left
hip abductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
the right arm flexors?
against therapist's
position against. therapist's
against therapist's
would the therapist's
suggestion for a return visit in
two weeks be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
common extensor tendon?
A. Medial epicondylitis
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Trigger finger
D. Tennis elbow
Page 47
88. Which is a treatment for

frozen shoulder?
A. Ice in the acute stage
B. Deep moist heat in the
subacute stage
C. Deep moist heat in the
chronic stage
D. All of the above
89. What includes anterior
scalene syndrome, pectoralis
minor syndrome, and
costoclavicular syndrome?
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
90. What involves a C-curve or Scurve of the spine?
A. Scoliosis
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Hyperlordosis
D. Hyperkyphosis
91. What method did Eunice
Ingram develop based on Asian
roots?
C. Reflexology
D. Shiatsu
92. What does polarity therapy
attempts to locate and
release?
A. Tissues
B. Lymph
C. Energy
D. Joints
93. Which is effective for

flexibility during sports
massage?
A. Vibration
B. Compression
C. Active joint movements
D. Gliding
94. What is based on about 360
points of energy?
A. Chi or Qi or Ki
B. Tao
C. Acupressure
D. Meridians or channels
95. Which traditional Japanese
massage technique comes
from a Chinese word for
calming by rubbing?
A. Ayurveda
B. Amma
C. Acupressure
D. Tapotement
Shiatsu?
A. Greek
B. Indian
C. Chinese
D. Japanese
97. What are rules and
procedures for professional
conduct and quality of care to
be followed by members of a
profession?
A. Insurance
B. Informed consent
D. Standards of practice
Page 48
98. If a male client requests a

female bodyworker, what type
of issue is most likely present?
A. Professional
B. Cultural
C. Gender
D. Age
A. Client-centered actions and
words
B. Dating a client
parental consent
D. All of the above
A. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
B. Sexual misconduct
C. Misrepresentation of
educational status
D. All of the above
A. Right of refusal
words
therapist for the first time
suddenly gives a regular
client a big hug after the
session?
A. Projection
B. Boundary crossing
D. Networking
103. Doing medical treatments

without the proper training is
what type of unethical
behavior?
A. Informed consent violation
B. Confidentiality
of practice
104. Guaranteeing that pain will
be gone is what type of
unethical behavior?
A. Misleading claims of curative
abilities
C. Exploiting the power
differential
105. What if a therapist cannot
assess a condition?
A. Try to diagnose the condition
B. Suggest the client discuss it
provider
C. Prescribe medication
106. What is an issue if a
therapist agrees to trade
massages for artwork to be
created in the future?
A. Transference
107. What are guidelines for
morally acceptable and
professional behavior?
B. Advertising
C. Networking
D. Code of ethics
Page 49

typically found in a code of
ethics?
A. Image/advertising claims
B. Client relationships
C. Appropriate techniques
D. All of the above
113. What is the most common

length for massage table
tops?
A. About 4 feet
B. About 5 feet
C. About 6 feet
D. About 8 feet
109. What is making personal

and professional contacts for
sharing information?
B. Advertising
C. Networking
114. Which is the proper storage

procedure for laundry?
A. Soiled sheets on the floor,
clean sheets in a hamper
B. Soiled sheets in a hamper,
clean sheets on the floor
C. Soiled sheets on the floor,
clean sheets off the floor
D. Soiled sheets in a hamper,
clean sheets off the floor
110. What helps the therapist

have a dialogue with the
client regarding goals,
treatments, and outcomes?
B. Communication skills
C. Networking
D. Code of ethics
111. What if a client says that a
prior therapist who is a
respected associate made
sexual advances during the
massage?
A. Ignore the information
B. Report the therapist to the
massage board
C. Contact the therapist to
discuss the issue
D. Tell the client that they are
imagining things
112. What is sexual harassment?
A. Demand for sexual favors in
exchange for job benefits
B. Hostile work environment
including unwelcome acts or
visual displays
115. What is recommended for

handwashing, according to
the CDC?
A. Wash hands before gloves
are removed
B. Use plain non-antimicrobial
soap
C. Wash hands with bleach
D. Dry with used linens
116. What is the most complete
process of decontamination?
A. Disinfection
B. Sterilization
117. What is a safety practice
regarding housekeeping and
sanitation?
A. Dry hands with cloth towels
B. Disinfect tubs, steam
cabinets, shower stalls and
wet tables between each use
C. Sterilize all entryways, floors
and surfaces
D. Commercially launder linens
Page 50
118. What is the order of the

first aid emergency action
steps?
A. Call, check, care
B. Care, check, call
C. Check, call, care
D. Alarm, resistance,
exhaustion
119. Which stance has both feet
in line with the massage
table?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
C. Archer stance
D. Horse stance
120. Which is true regarding
draping?
A. It is required under federal
law
B. It is required under the code
of ethics
C. You must not use draping if
the client does not want it
D. It is for the client's comfort
and warmth
123. What must be included in

income reported to the IRS?
A. Wages
B. Barter income
C. Tips
D. All of the above
124. Where are wages recorded?
A. Form 1099-MISC
B. Form 5498
C. Form W-2
D. Schedule K-1
125. What is a business with a
single owner who is also the
only employee?
A. S-Corporation
B. LLC
C. Partnership
121. How many grams of protein

are recommended for adults
per day?
A. About 3 to 4 grams
B. About 4 to 6 grams
C. About 16 to 28 grams
D. About 45 to 63 grams
being an employee?
A. Keep more of fee collected
B. Flexible hours
C. Stable income
D. Variable compensation
Page 51
Exam 4 Answer Key

1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. D
37. D
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. B
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. D
89. B
90. A
91. C
92. C
93. C
94. C
95. B
96. D
97. D
98. C
99. B
100. D
101. D
102. B
103. C
104. A
105. B
106. D
107. D
108. D
109. C
110. B
111. C
112. C
113. C
114. D
115. B
116. B
117. B
118. C
119. D
120. D
121. D
122. C
123. D
124. C
125. D
B
D
B
D
B
B
A
C
D
A
D
D
B
A
B
D
A
A
D
B
A
A
B
B
D
A
B
A
A
A
C
C
A
A
B
D
D
C
B
C
B
D
Page 52
Exam 5
1. Which literally means to cut
up and was first studied by
dissection?
A. Reflexology
B. Pathophysiology
C. Anatomy
D. Ortho-bionomy
structure has groups of cells
working together to perform a
particular function?
A. Environmental level
B. System level
C. Organ level
D. Tissue level
3. What is a decrease in the size
of cells?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
4. What is the forcing of fluid
across a semipermeable
membrane?
A. Mitochondria
B. Diffusion
C. Filtration
D. Conductivity
5. What type of membrane lines
joints and contains connective
tissue but no epithelium?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
6. What type of cartilage is

semitransparent, flexible and
insensitive, such as the
cartilage in the nose?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. White fibrocartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Isotonic
attached to bones by tendons?
A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Reticular
D. Smooth
peripheral nervous system
controls skeletal muscle
contractions?
A. Autonomic
B. Cervical
C. Somatic
D. Parasympathetic
9. Which system alters the
activity of muscle and alters
the activity of the immune
system?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Urinary
C. Endocrine
D. Respiratory
10. What does the right side of
the heart do?
A. Pumps oxygenated blood to
all tissues except the lungs
B. Pumps oxygenated blood to
the lungs
C. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to all tissues except lungs
D. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to the lungs
Page 53
11. Which system initiates gas

exchange?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Respiratory
C. Circulatory
D. Urinary
12. The coronal suture is the
A. Two parietal bones
B. Frontal and parietal bones
C. Patellar and ulnar bones
13. What adds bulk to food and
helps with bowel movements?
A. Plant proteins
B. Fat
C. Insoluble carbohydrates
D. Animal proteins
14. Which means on or toward
the surface?
A. Deep
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Superficial
15. Where is the esophagus
relative to the trachea?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
16. What are structures close to
the sagittal plane?
A. Medial
B. Distal
C. Lateral
D. Deep
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the lumbar region?

Top of head
Shoulder blade
Lower back
Buttocks
18. Which method describes the

liver as a yin meridian?
A. Ayurveda
B. Acupressure
C. Polarity theory
D. All of the above
19. Which actions occur in the
frontal plane?
A. Flexion and extension
B. Adduction and abduction
C. Rotation and circumduction
D. Supination and pronation
inserts on the proximal medial
shaft of the tibia at the pes
anserinus tendon?
A. Pronator teres
B. Psoas major
C. Supraspinatus
D. Gracilis
21. Where does tibialis posterior
insert?
A. Ulna
B. Phalanges
C. Metacarpal
D. Tarsals and metatarsals
22. What is the attachment site
for gluteus medius, gluteus
minimus, and the deep rotator
muscles?
A. Iliac tubercle
B. Greater trochanter of femur
C. Lamina groove of cervicals
D. Greater tubercle of the
humerus
Page 54
23. What muscle originates at

the external occipital
protuberance, the nuchal line,
and C-7 through T-12?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Trapezius
C. Serratus anterior
D. Plantaris
24. Which connects bones
together, has uneven collagen
fibers, and will remain taut?
A. Tendons
B. Joints
C. Ligaments
D. Bursae
25. What type of joint is
between the axis and atlas?
A. Pivot
B. Saddle
C. Ball and socket
D. Gliding
26. Which extends, rotates and
laterally flexes the head and
neck and elevates, depresses,
adducts and upwardly rotates
the scapula?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Soleus
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps brachii
27. Which muscle originates on
the ischial tuberosity and the
lateral lip of the linea aspera?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Trapezius
28. Which muscles are synergists

for adduction of the wrist?
A. Pronator teres, brachialis
B. Flexor carpi radialis,
extensor digitorum
C. Biceps femoris,
semitendinosus
D. Extensor carpi ulnaris, flexor
carpi ulnaris
29. Which muscle rotates the
vertebral column?
A. Multifidi
B. Soleus
C. Spinalis
D. Trapezius
30. What type of contraction
occurs when one tries to lift a
weight that does not move?
A. Concentric
B. Isotonic
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
31. Postural muscles have a
higher percentage of what
kind of fibers?
A. Slow-twitch red fibers
B. Retinaculum
C. Fusiform
D. Fast-twitch red fibers
described by amphiarthrosis?
A. Freely moveable
C. Immoveable
D. Suture
Page 55
33. What is chronic pain?

A. Referred pain
B. A short lived and localized
unpleasant feeling
C. An unpleasant sensation from
an internal organ
D. An unpleasant feeling that
lasts over 6 months
34. What is the reproduction of
abnormal cells that fail to
mature into specialized cell
types?
A. Homeostasis
B. Syndrome
C. Anaplasia
D. Malignant
35. What refers to a disease of
long duration?
A. Benign
B. Chronic
C. Acute
D. Metastatic
36. What refers to the evidence
of a disease as observed by a
health professional?
A. Informed consent
B. Contraindication
C. Signs
D. Dysfunction
37. Which is generally indicated
for massage at all stages?
A. Bell's palsy
B. Lice
C. Erysipelas
D. Bronchitis

themselves every few hours,
which are on a 24-hour clock,
and which are annual, in that
order?
A. Alarm, resistance,
exhaustion
B. Proliferation, ossification,
remodeling
C. Ultradian, seasonal, and
biological rhythms
D. Ultradian, circadian, and
seasonal rhythms
39. What is the last stage of
osteoarthritis?
A. Bony adaptation
B. Cartilage damage
C. Bony adaptation
D. Atrophy
antianginals?
A. The medication may increase
the effect of the massage
B. Prescribe alternative
medications
C. Stop the massage if the heart
rate increases above 50
beats per minute
D. Avoid Swedish massage
methods
41. What type of prescription
medication might be used to
reduce swelling and pain?
A. Saw palmetto
B. Antidepressants
C. Antihistamines
Page 56
42. What natural supplement is

used for mild depression?
A. Peppermint
B. Antihistamine
C. Ginseng
D. St. John's Wort
43. What is tennis elbow, caused
by repetitive extension of the
wrist or pronation and
supination of the forearm?
A. Bursitis
D. Adhesive capsulitis
44.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is athlete's foot?

Whiplash
Tinnitus
A fungus
Pandemic
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a tear to a ligament?

Sprain
Strain
Tinnitus
Tinea cruris
46. What is associated with flat

back posture?
A. Hips and knees in neutral
position
B. Flexed or straight lumbar
spine
C. Anterior pelvic tilt
D. All of the above
the femoral nerve?
humerus
humerus
C. Inguinal triangle
D. Occipital region
48. What is in danger of being

compressed in the lateral
epicondyle of the humerus
endangerment site?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hara
of massage?
A. Lymph flow
B. Activation of
system
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
massage that can be
autonomic nervous system?
A. Body/mind effect
B. Toughening/hardening
C. Placebo effect
D. All of the above
from massage?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Headaches
C. High blood pressure
D. All of the above
52. What is a broad category of
hydrotherapy application that
involves partial or complete
immersion in water?
A. Bath
B. Pack
C. Compress
D. Fomentations
Page 57
53. What is considered neutral

water temperature?
degrees Celsius
C. 92 to 93 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 212 degrees Fahrenheit or
100 degrees Celsius
54. Why are cold applications
not used for prolonged
periods?
A. Inflammation
B. Slight analgesia
C. Depressing effects
D. Deterioration of lung disease
55. How long must pressure on a
trigger point typically be
maintained until the tissue
releases?
A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 30 to 45 seconds
C. 1 to 2 minutes
D. 3 to 4 minutes
56. Which stroke involves
temporarily stopping blood
flow to an area, then
releasing to allow greater
blood flow?
A. Compression
B. Friction
C. Effleurage
D. Petrissage
57. Which addresses adhesions in
tendinous tissue?
A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Friction
D. Cupping

of massage?
A. Reduces muscle cramps and
spasms
and lymph
metabolic waste
D. Reduces stress
A. Easier, pain-free movement
B. Improved posture
C. More flexibility
D. All of the above
60. What maintains homeostasis?
A. Sympathetic nervous system
system
C. Both A and B
D. Spinal nervous system
from massage?
A. Stress
B. Pain
C. Joint immobility
D. All of the above
movement?
A. Deep effleurage
B. Kneading
C. Tapping
D. Cross fiber friction
63. Which stroke uses a back and
forth movement of both
hands?
A. Gliding
B. Compression
C. Wringing
D. Percussion
Page 58
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is lifting and grasping?

Tapping
Light stroking
Kneading
Pressing

friction?
A. Transverse
B. Cross fiber
C. Pummeling
D. Circular
66. What is contraction without
joint movement?
D. Reciprocal inhibition
67. How is the pressure during
effleurage?
A. Variable
B. Even
C. From light to deep
D. From deep to light
68. Which is appropriate for
pregnancy massage?
A. Light effleurage
B. Supine position
D. All of the above
69. What is a method of applying
ice massage?
A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam
cup
B. Ice pack
C. Ice in a plastic bag
D. All of the above

the knee flexed along with
posterior tilting of the pelvis
and a flattening of the lumbar
spine?
A. Lengthen soleus
B. Lengthen hamstrings
C. Lengthen pronator teres
D. Refer to a primary care
provider immediately
71. If a client has a medially
rotated femur, what is the
A. Stretch the
sternocleidomastoid
B. Stretch the knee flexors
C. Stretch the hip medial
rotators
D. Stop the massage, a medially
rotated femur is
contraindicated
flexion deformity of the distal
phalanges of the lateral four
toes?
A. Lengthen deltoid
B. Lengthen extensor hallucis
longus
C. Lengthen flexor digitorum
longus
D. Lengthen temporalis
73. Which muscle is weak if a
client has pain in the low
back, buttocks, sacroiliac
joint, lateral knee, and
anterior knee?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Platysma
D. Upper trapezius
Page 59
74. What would be a good

position for massaging the
biceps femoris?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Seated
79. What would most likely allow

the pelvis to tilt forward?
A. Tight hamstrings
B. Weak low back muscles
C. Weak abdominal muscles
D. Flexed knees

the therapist's visual
observations documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan

muscles are slightly elongated
but may or may not be weak?
A. Hip flexors
B. Medial rotators of hip
C. Neck extensors
D. Hamstrings
76. What is the end-to-end

distance of a specific joint
movement that is structurally
possible?
D. Range of motion
81. Which muscles are elongated

and weak with sway-back
posture?
A. External obliques and upper
back extensors
C. Neck flexors
D. All of the above
77. Massaging what type of

muscles could add to muscle
imbalance?
A. Tight but long functioning
muscle areas
B. Shortened tight muscles
C. Shortened weak muscles
D. Trigger points

and high right, right hip
rotated, and left hip
abducted?
hip adductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
78. When assessing flexion of the

knee, where is resistance
applied?
A. Distal end of the tibia
B. At the ankle
C. On the sacrum
D. The end of the femur
Page 60
83. Which is an area where the

body is balanced in gravity?
A. Axis
B. Atlas
C. Feet
D. Hands
84. Which muscle tends to show
acquired postural weakness in
right handed individuals?
A. Splenius capitis
B. Left soleus
C. Right hip lateral rotators
D. Frontalis
85. What is good alignment of
the feet and knees?
A. Medial rotation of the femurs
C. The feet are not supinated
86. What is generally the first
step when a client arrives for
an initial massage session?
A. Perform massage
B. Update SOAP chart and
client records
C. Get referrals
D. Intake and medical history
forms
87. What may be caused by
occupations such as plumbing
and meat cutting?
A. Rotator cuff tendinitis
D. Golfer's elbow
88. What is the thawing phase of
frozen shoulder?
A. Second stage
B. Chronic
C. Acute
D. Subacute
89. What is treated by

decreasing the compression on
the median nerve?
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Whiplash
90. What involves a posterior
pelvic tilt and hip extension?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Flat-back posture
91. What approach did Paul St.
John use when developing his
nervous or reflexive method?
A. Trigger points
B. Myofascial approach
C. Neuromuscular approach
D. Shiatsu
92. Which has a primary goal of
releasing energy?
A. Post isometric relaxation
B. Trigger point therapy
C. Myofascial release
D. Polarity therapy
93. Who called a system of
movements medical
gymnastics?
A. Per Henrik Ling
B. Dr. John Georg Mezger
C. Dr. George H. Taylor
D. Elizabeth Dicke
94. Who developed craniosacral
therapy?
B. Dr. Ida Rolf
C. Dr. John Thie
D. Dr. John Upledger
Page 61
95. What code of ethics for

physicians is from the Greeks?
A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
C. Tschanpua
D. Hippocratic Oath

relationship?
A. Medical advice
B. Social needs
C. Personal needs
96. What describes reactive

points?
A. Conception Vessel
B. Ayurveda
C. Tsubos
D. Antagonist
102. What are types of

boundaries?
A. Interpersonal
B. Physical and emotional
C. Sexual and intellectual
D. All of the above
97. What are commonly

accepted guidelines or
principles of conduct that
govern professional conduct?
A. Code of ethics
B. Informed consent
D. Power differential
103. Watching a client undress is

behavior?
A. Accessibility violation
of practice

guidance on peer review and
the scope of practice?
A. Professionalism
B. Accounting
C. Dual roles
misconduct
104. Refusing to work on a client

due to race, religion, size, or
sexual orientation is what
type of unethical behavior?
abilities
B. Accessibility violation
C. Bigotry

A. Informed consent
B. Confidentiality
C. Ignoring contraindications
D. All of the above

client in the grocery store?
was
about the massage
expect payment

code of ethics?
A. Informed consent
C. Bigotry
D. Inappropriate advertising
Page 62
106. What is respect for the

client's privacy?
B. Communication skills
C. Confidentiality
D. Code of ethics
107. What is an issue if a client
has a condition that the
therapist cannot access?
A. Transference
108. What describes the
situation when a therapist is
also the client's friend,
relative, or associate?
B. Transference
D. Discrimination
109. Who would put restrictions
on business operated from a
home?
A. Local governments
B. Professional massage
associations
action if a new client asks the
therapist if the therapist is
married?
A. Do not give out personal
information
B. Provide as much information
as the client requests
C. Answer and ask the client if
they are married
111. What is unethical behavior

from therapists in a
professional relationship?
A. Sexual talk
B. Sexual relations
C. Sexual acts and activities
D. All of the above
A. Watch the client get
undressed
B. Ask the client for a date
during the massage
113. What is appropriate for the
massage environment?
A. Strong scents and flowering
plants
B. Indirect or natural light
C. Loud fast music
D. Two therapists in an 8' x 8'
room
114. What is recommended for
handwashing, according to
the CDC?
A. Wash hands after gloves are
removed
B. Use scented antimicrobial
soap
C. Wash in a manner that
prevents skin and mucous
exposure
D. Use the one-handed scoop
technique
115. What destroys bacterial
spores?
A. Disinfection
B. Sterilization
Page 63
116. What is designed to protect

from exposure to blood or
bodily fluids?
A. Universal precautions
B. Strategic planning
C. Contraindication
117. Which are not appropriate
for draping?
A. Sheets
B. Towels
C. Pillowcases
D. Light, see-through colors
118. What fat-soluble vitamin is
a strong anti-oxidant and
immune supporter?
A. St. John's Wort
B. Ma-huang
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
working as an employee?
A. Control
B. Flexibility
C. Can focus on massage
D. Maximize income
120. What is like working as an
employee while being selfemployed?
A. Independent contractor
B. DBA
C. LLC
D. S-Corporation
122. What is a barter exchange?

A. An arrangement that
provides an informal
exchange of similar services
on a noncommercial basis
B. An independent contractor
C. An organization with
members who trade services
D. A corporation
123. What is a statement of
purpose?
A. Mission statement
B. Business card
C. Brochure
D. Media
124. Which protects against a
lawsuit?
A. Liability insurance
B. Life insurance
C. Health insurance
D. Flood insurance
125. What is maintaining the
office and keeping a budget
an example of?
A. Licensing
B. Tax
C. Marketing
D. Management
121. What is generally the best

form of advertising for a
massage therapist?
A. Phone books
B. Magazines
C. Radio
D. Word of mouth
Page 64
Exam 5 Answer Key

1. C
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. D
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. C
86. D
87. B
88. B
89. A
90. D
91. C
92. D
93. A
94. D
95. D
96. C
97. A
98. A
99. C
100. A
101. D
102. D
103. B
104. C
105. B
106. C
107. C
108. A
109. A
110. A
111. D
112. D
113. B
114. A
115. B
116. A
117. D
118. D
119. C
120. A
121. D
122. C
123. A
124. A
125. D
B
C
A
B
C
B
A
D
D
A
C
C
B
A
C
D
D
C
D
C
C
C
C
A
B
D
D
B
C
C
A
B
B
D
A
A
C
D
D
D
B
C
Page 65
Exam 6
1. What does anatomy refer to?
A. Structures of the body
B. Soft tissue manipulation
C. Disease
D. Tissues
structure has different types of
tissues joined together?
A. Atomic level
B. System level
C. Organ level
D. Cellular level
3. What is adenosine
triphosphate or ATP?
A. A substance used to identify
crime victims
B. Oxygen, carbon, and
hydrogen
C. A double helix
D. Energy currency
4. What type of tissue protects
and supports the body and
holds organs together?
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Cardiac
D. Patellar
5. What is a general term for
sweat glands?
A. Sudoriferous glands
B. Dermis
C. Apocrine glands
D. Ulcers
6. What classification of bones

includes the larger bones with
a shaft and medullary cavity
such as the arm bones?
A. Sesamoid
B. Sutural
C. Long
D. Short
7. Which is part of the nervous
system?
A. Skull
B. Spinal cord
C. Joints
D. Sacrum
C. Decreased peristalsis
digestive juices
the cardiovascular system?
C. Circulation
D. Gas exchange
10. Which system is most closely
associated with the immune
system?
A. Lymphatic
B. Endocrine
C. Respiratory
D. Circulatory
Page 66
11. Which system helps with the

sense of smell?
A. Lymphatic
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Urinary
D. Respiratory
12. Which is a simple sugar that
is the end-product of
carbohydrate digestion?
A. Amino acid
B. Glucose
C. Triglyceride
D. Enzyme
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the gluteal region?

Top of head
Shoulder blade
Lower back
Buttocks

small intestine as a yang
meridian?
A. Swedish gymnastics
B. Movement cure
C. Acupressure
D. All of the above
13. The Lambdoidal suture is the

A. Three parietal bones
B. Sacral and lumbar bones
C. Parietal and temporal bones

inserts on the head of the
fibula?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Psoas major
C. Frontalis
D. Biceps femoris
14. Which means situated away

from the trunk or midline?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Distal
20. Where does extensor hallucis

longus insert?
A. Phalanx
B. Femur
C. Clavicle
D. Tarsals and metatarsals
15. Where is the sternum

relative to the head?
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
21. What is the boundary of the

origins of the tensor fasciae
latae and gluteus medius?
A. Iliac tubercle
C. Olecranon process
humerus
16. Which region of the trunk

has five vertebrae fused into
one?
A. Sacral
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic
22. What originates at the

vertebrae, the ribs, and iliac
crest and inserts on the lesser
tubercle of the humerus?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Soleus
D. Pectoralis major
Page 67
23. Which attaches muscle to

bone, has parallel collagen
fibers, and can be taut or
slack?
A. Tendons
B. Joints
C. Ligaments
D. Aponeurosis
between the carpals?
A. Pivot
B. Saddle
C. Ball and socket
D. Gliding
25. Which inserts on the greater
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. All of the above
elbow and assists to pronate
and supinate the forearm?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Brachioradialis
D. Biceps femoris
the distal radius?
A. Depression
B. Extension
C. Radial deviation
D. Ulnar deviation
transverse process of the
atlas?
A. Rectus capitis posterior
minor
B. Pectoralis major
C. External oblique
D. Oblique capitis inferior
29. What is the general type of

contraction in which the
length of the muscle changes?
A. Reciprocal inhibition
B. Isotonic
C. Elasticity
D. Isometric
predominantly have slow
twitch fibers?
A. Erector spinae
B. Pronator teres
C. Deltoid
D. Biceps brachii
31. What describes the
positioning in which a joint is
free to move without causing
motion at another joint?
A. Closed kinematic chains
B. Open kinematic chains
32. Which muscle horizontally
abducts the shoulder?
A. Supinator
B. Vastus intermedius
C. Infraspinatus
D. Levator scapula
33. What is somatic pain?
A. Persistent chronic pain
B. A short lived and localized
unpleasant feeling
C. Homeostasis
D. Atrophy
34. What is uncontrolled cell
division?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Inflammation
C. Anaplasia
D. Malignant
Page 68
35.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is malignant neoplasia?

Trauma
Inflammation
Carbuncle
Cancer
36. Which is more likely to be a

mode of HIV transmission?
A. Handshake
B. Toilet seat
C. Breast milk
D. Cough
37. Which is a systematic
A. Bell's palsy
B. Acne
C. Erysipelas
D. Bronchitis
themselves every few hours?
A. Acute
D. Inflammation
39. What is a progressive skin
condition that destroys motor
neurons in the spinal cord?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lou Gehrig's disease
D. HIV
beta blockers?
A. The client may be
susceptible to cold
B. The medication may result in
dizziness after the massage
C. Massage may help with
constipation
D. All of the above

might be used to treat a
bacterial infection?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antidepressants
C. Lavender
42. What is used for skin
inflammation?
A. Scabicide
B. Brewer's yeast
C. Antihistamine
D. Chamomile
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is frozen shoulder?

Bursitis
Lateral epicondylitis
Medial epicondylitis
Adhesive capsulitis
44. What is a disease that affects

the entire world?
A. Isolated
B. Sudden onset
C. Acute
D. Pandemic
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a sprain?
Injury to muscle
Tear to ligament
Fungus
Tinea cruris
46. What position of the pelvis is

associated with lordosis?
A. Anterior tilt
B. Neutral position
C. Posterior tilt
D. Lateral tilt
Page 69
47. Which muscles is the radial

nerve associated with?
A. Psoas and quadratus
lumborum
B. Trapezius and scalene
C. Supinator and triceps
D. Teres major, temporalis, and
triceps
48. What is an endangerment
site?
A. An exaggerated lumbar curve
B. A keloid
C. An area where nerves and
blood vessels could be
compressed
D. Pressure points
of massage?
A. Therapeutic touch
B. Breaking adhesions
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
massage that can be
processed through the somatic
nervous system?
A. Sympathetic activation and
stress
B. Parasympathetic patterns
and conservation withdrawal
C. Reduction of impingement
D. All of the above
A. Reduces ischemia
B. Decreases white blood cell
count
C. Ballistic stretching
D. Decreases stroke volume
52. Which group can benefit

from massage?
A. Individuals with HIV
B. Hospitalized and hospice
patients
C. Infants
D. All of the above
53. What is the hydrotherapy
application that combines
heat and cold?
A. Contrast method
B. Cryotherapy
C. Thermotherapy
D. Ice massage
54. Which is not Swedish
massage?
A. Tapotement
B. Friction
C. Vibration
D. All of the above are Swedish
massage
effleurage?
A. Stimulate sympathetic
nervous system
B. Decrease adhesions
C. Repair scar tissue
D. Improve health of ischemic
tissues
56. Which is effective for
reducing adhesions during
sports massage?
A. Vibration
B. Effleurage
C. Active joint movements
57.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 70
Which is a form of vibration?

Wringing
Skin rolling
Jostling
Percussion

effect of massage?
A. Relieves fatigue
B. Reduces tension and anxiety
C. Calms the nervous system
D. All of the above
that tends to anesthetize the
local nerves?
A. Rolling
period
C. Prolonged percussion
D. All of the above
stimulation of the
system?
A. Adrenal secretions increased
B. Sweat glands activated
C. Body is more alert and
attentive
D. Relaxation/restoration
response
61. What elevates the mood
when increased?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Endorphins and enkephalins
D. All of the above
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is a type of vibration?

Jostling
Compression
Kneading
Percussion

effleurage?
A. Superficial gliding
B. Deep gliding
C. Percussion
D. Aura stroking
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What breaks up adhesions?

Effleurage
Friction
Slapping
Tapotement
65. Which is appropriate for

massage for the critically ill?
A. Abbreviated length of session
B. Extended length of session
C. Methods that stimulate
circulation
D. Methods that stir up wastes
cancer?
A. Deep pressure
B. Site of incision first 4 weeks
after surgery
C. Massage on lower limbs postsurgery
D. All of the above
67. What is the initial feeling
from applying ice?
A. Uncomfortable cold
B. Total numbness
C. Increased local circulation
D. Vasodilation
68. Which is a proprioceptive
neuromuscular facilitation
(PNF) technique?
A. Reciprocal Inhibition
B. Petrissage
C. Reiki
D. Effleurage
percussion?
A. Beating
B. Cross fiber
C. Pummeling
D. Tapping
Page 71

posture, what is the most
A. Lengthen sartorius and
adductors
B. Lengthen psoas major and
multifidi
C. Lengthen external obliques
and semitendinosus
71. If a client has left torticollis,
treatment?
A. Lengthen erector spinae and
transversospinalis
B. Lengthen left biceps brachii
and triceps
C. Lengthen left splenius capitis
and right upper trapezius
D. Lengthen right splenius
capitis and left upper
trapezius
an abduction deformity that
may be seen as a lateral
pelvic tilt?
A. Lengthen gluteus medius
C. Lengthen rectus abdominis
73. Where would a trigger point
on orbicularis oculi refer pain?
A. Above eyelid, sinuses
B. Down the lateral side of the
arm
C. Hip and down lateral side of
leg
D. Posterior axillary area,
scapula, and ulnar side of
arm
74. What is a recommendation to

see a specific professional?
A. Ergonomics
B. Referral
C. Self help
D. Treatment plan
75. Where on the SOAP chart is
written information that
clients share regarding health
history documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
that requires the client to use
their own energy?
D. Range of motion
77. What is the muscle being
treated in a therapeutic
technique?
A. Tender point
B. Trigger point
C. Target muscle
D. Muscle guarding
78. If a client says an area is
stiff, what type of issue is it
usually?
A. Muscle tone issue
B. Connective tissue or fluid
retention issue
C. Joint issue
D. Chakra issue
Page 72
79. What is happening when the

pelvis maintains its ideal
alignment?
A. The abdominal muscles pull
upward
B. The back muscles pull
downward
C. The SCM pulls upward
D. The arm flexors pull upward
most likely elongated and
weak?
A. Anterior abdominals
B. Lateral rotators of hip
C. Low back
D. Frontalis and SCM
81. If a client complains of
difficulty with stair climbing
and walking up an incline,
what muscle is most likely
weak?
A. Quadriceps femoris
B. Soleus
C. Trapezius
D. Semitendinosus
and medially rotated, left hip
abducted and feet pronated?
hip adductors
B. Left deltoid and right
pronator teres
longus
D. All of the above
83. What is the effect on the

feet from walking with lateral
rotation of the legs?
A. Medial rotation of the ulna
D. Strain on longitudinal arches
84. Which muscles usually work
against gravity?
A. Internal rotators
B. External rotators
C. Extensors and abductors
D. Flexors and adductors
the left leg extensors?
A. Client holds left leg position
against therapist's
B. Client holds right leg position
against therapist's
against therapist's
D. Client holds right leg position
against therapist's
86. What is generally the next
step in a massage session after
the consultation?
A. Perform massage
client records
C. Get referrals
D. Medical history forms
87. What is a synovial cyst that
usually appears on the lateral
side of the popliteal space?
A. Bunion
B. Baker's cyst
C. Tendonitis
D. Trigger finger
Page 73

frozen shoulder?
A. Ice in the acute stage
B. Treat compensating
structures
C. Mobilize hypomobile joints
D. All of the above
94. Who developed manual

lymph drainage?
A. Dr. Emil Vodder and Dr.
Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Joseph Heller
89. What is treated by applying

techniques to pronator teres?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Whiplash
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
95. What is the art of rubbing a

body part upward?
A. Anatripsis
B. Ayurveda
C. Tschanpua
D. Hippocratic Oath

flat-back posture?
A. Tight abdominals
B. Tight hamstrings
D. All of the above
96. What are earth, metal,

water, wood, and fire?
A. Chakras
B. The Five Elements
C. Doshas
D. Trigger points
91. With what approach is Janet

Travel associated?
A. Trigger points
C. Neuromuscular approach
D. Structural integration
97. What occurs when personal

and professional roles overlap?
A. Client-centered
C. Balance
92. Which method associates the

stomach with a point on the
medial side of the foot in
between the waist line and
diaphragm line?
A. Swedish
C. Bindegewebmassage
D. Reflexology
98. If a client reenacts abuse

while on the massage table by
crying and shaking, what is an
appropriate action by the
therapist?
A. Encourage the response
B. Stop the response
C. Terminate the massage
D. Be calm and accepting
93.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Informed consent
B. Violations of confidentiality
parental consent
D. All of the above
Who developed Rolfing?

Dr. Milton Trager
Dr. Ida Rolf
Dr. John Thie
Dr. John Upledger
Page 74

code of ethics?
A. Informed consent violations
B. Dating a client
parental consent
D. All of the above
A. Other business deals
B. Contract
C. Right of refusal
D. All of the above
102. What might be appropriate
for a client who does not
want to fill out a health
intake form?
A. Take the information
verbally
B. Suggest filling out a shorter
version of the form
103. Doing spinal adjustments
what type of behavior?
A. Unethical
B. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
104. Presenting misleading
qualifications in a brochure is
behavior?
A. Sexual misconduct
C. Inappropriate advertising

stop their medical treatment
now?
provider
stop the medical treatment
therapist hires a client to do
renovations then is
disappointed in the work?
A. Transference
B. Dual relationship
107. What can state and local
governments do?
A. Require licensing
B. Restrict what businesses may
be operated from a home
108. What supports a higher
level of professionalism?
B. Continuing education
therapist gets angry because
a client talks too much?
A. Transference
C. Boundaries
Page 75
110. What could make it difficult

for a therapist to
communicate with a client if
the therapist feels the client
is more powerful?
A. Power differential
B. Transference
C. Safety practices
D. Clinical reasoning
111. What is a sexual misconduct
boundary violation?
A. Sexual demeaning comments
B. Sexual demeaning gestures
C. Sexual demeaning
expressions
D. All of the above
A. Diffuse any hints or signs of
sexual arousal
B. Keep accurate records of
questionable events
113. What is the proper height
for a table for general
relaxation massage?
A. 17 inches
B. Middle of the therapist's
thighs
C. At or above the therapist's
waist
D. 34 inches
from implements and
surfaces?
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
115. What must be made

available within 10 days for
employees with occupational
exposure?
A. Hepatitis B vaccination
B. Employer-provided
protective clothing and
equipment
C. Engineering and work
practice controls
D. SHARPS injury control
program
116. What is the primary
infection precaution?
A. Hand washing with 10%
bleach
B. Hand washing with soap
C. Use of latex gloves with oil
D. Washing linens in cold water
precaution?
A. Wash hands with soap and
water before and after
contact with every client
B. Gloves must be worn if the
therapist's skin is not intact
118. When must clean linens be
used?
A. Daily
B. For each client
C. Each time the client turns
over
Page 76
119. What is a fire safety

practice?
A. Maintain functioning smoke
and carbon dioxide detectors
B. Be familiar with location of
fire extinguishers
C. Clearly indicate fire exits
and have an evacuation
procedure
D. All of the above
120. What is appropriate first aid
care when a person is not
breathing or unconscious?
A. Cool the body
B. Move the person to an area
of fresh air
C. Tilt the head back and lift
the chin
D. Move the person to a warm
place
124. What shows assets and

liabilities?
A. Balance sheet
statement
C. Budget
D. Marketing
125. What protects against
monetary loss for damage to
a building or equipment?
A. Unemployment insurance
B. Disability insurance
C. Liability insurance
D. Property insurance
121. What protects the

practitioner's hands?
A. Stay on top of the massage
movement rather than in
front
B. Avoid excessive wrist angles
C. Hyperextend the wrist
D. Do not use the forearms and
elbows for deep pressure
for draping?
A. Legal requirements
B. Gender issues
C. Establish trust and modesty
D. Cultural issues
123. Which vitamin is necessary
for the absorption of calcium
and phosphorus?
A. NSAIDs
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Page 77
Exam 6 Answer Key

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. A
21. A
22. A
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. A
86. A
87. B
88. D
89. C
90. D
91. A
92. D
93. B
94. A
95. A
96. B
97. B
98. D
99. B
100. C
101. A
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. A
106. B
107. C
108. B
109. D
110. A
111. D
112. C
113. B
114. C
115. A
116. B
117. C
118. B
119. D
120. C
121. B
122. C
123. D
124. A
125. D
D
D
B
A
C
C
B
C
A
D
A
C
D
D
C
D
C
D
D
A
C
B
A
D
A
A
B
B
C
A
A
B
A
A
C
B
A
A
A
A
D
D
Page 78
Exam 7
1. Which refers to the functions
of the body?
B. Physiology
C. Histology
D. Anthropology
2. What does myelin act as?
A. A spinal cord analgesic
B. A dermatome
C. An electrical insulator
D. A catalyst for actin and
myosin
3. What involves a cell
replicating its DNA?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Reflex arc
D. Interphase
4. What type of tissue generates
the physical force necessary
for movement?
A. Epithelial
B. Cranial
C. Skeletal
D. Muscular
5. What are glands along the
shaft of the hair?
A. Rosacrea
B. Sudoriferous glands
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Sebaceous glands
includes bones such as the ribs
that are less round?
A. Flat
B. Irregular
C. Long
D. Short
7. Which system is responsible

for the processes of
intelligence, memory, and
emotion?
A. Nervous
B. Reproductive
C. Endocrine
D. Cardiovascular
B. Slow heartbeat
digestive juices
heart, arteries, veins, and
capillaries?
A. Respiratory
B. Cardiovascular
C. Nervous
D. Gastrointestinal
10. Fluid flowing into lymph
capillaries is derived from
what?
A. Fibrin
B. Pericardium
C. Blast cells
D. Blood plasma
11. Which system is the gateway
for nutrients?
A. Respiratory
B. Reproductive
C. Urinary
D. Gastrointestinal
Page 79
12. What is a small fluid-filled

sac that reduces friction
between two structures?
A. Bursa
B. Superficial fascia
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum
articulation of two parietal
bones?
A. Coronal
B. Sagittal
C. Synovial
D. Lambdoidal
14. Which means higher than or
above?
A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Posterior
D. Superior
15. Which means the ends are
bent outward, or bent toward
the wall: <>, bowlegged?
A. Valgus deformity
B. Varus deformity
C. Plantar
D. Volar
16. What is the order of the body
cavities from the most
superior to the most inferior,
after the cranial cavity?
A. Vertebral, thoracic,
abdominal, pelvic
B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic,
vertebral
C. Thoracic, pelvic, umbilical,
vertebral
D. Vertebral, posterior,
thoracic, abdominal
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the sacral region?

Top of head
Shoulder blade
Below lower back
Buttocks

stomach as a yang meridian?
A. Shiatsu
B. Acupressure
C. Acupuncture
D. All of the above
19. What action occurs in the
transverse plane?
A. Flexion
B. Adduction
C. Rotation
D. Supination
20. Which of these muscles has
the occiput as one of its
origins?
A. Rhomboid major
B. Trapezius
C. Soleus
D. Deltoid
21. Where does flexor digitorum
longus insert?
A. Pelvis
B. Phalanges
C. Metacarpal
D. Calcaneus
22. Where is the greater
A. Anterior to the lateral
malleolus
B. Inferior and lateral to
acromion
C. Distal to iliac crest on side of
hip
D. Directly medial from coccyx
Page 80

the clavicle, sternum, and the
ribs, and inserts on the
greater tubercle of the
humerus?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Trapezius
D. Pectoralis major
24. Which connects muscle to
bone?
A. Bursae
B. Fascia
C. Ligaments
D. Tendons
25. What type of joint is the
elbow?
A. Planar
B. Hinge
C. Ball and socket
D. Ellipsoidal
26. What group includes biceps
femoris, semitendinosus, and
semimembrinosis?
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
C. Adductors
D. Abductors
27. Which muscle medially
rotates the shoulder?
A. Subscapularis
B. Infraspinatus
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Biceps femoris
elbow, adducts the shoulder,
and extends the shoulder?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Vastus lateralis
C. Splenius capitis
D. Biceps brachii
29. Which muscle laterally tilts

the pelvis and laterally flexes
the vertebral column?
A. Occipitofrontalis
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
the distal ulna?
A. Depression
B. Extension
C. Radial deviation
D. Ulnar deviation
31. Which muscle plantar flexes
the ankle and everts the foot?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Peroneus longus
32. What type of joint allows
flexion / extension and
abduction / adduction?
A. Gliding
B. Ellipsoid
C. Hinge
D. Amphiarthrosis
33. What is persistent chronic
pain?
A. Intractable pain
B. Atrophy
C. Referred pain
D. Acute pain
34. Which is increased in the
elderly?
A. Immune response to vaccines
B. Incidence of autoimmune
diseases
C. Natural killer cell activity
D. Number of T lymphocytes
Page 81
35. What means founded on

actual observations and
treatment?
A. Clinical
B. Ambulatory
C. Anomaly
D. Stages of lifecycle
36. Which is least likely to be a
mode of HIV transmission?
A. Blood
B. Semen
C. Vaginal secretions
D. Saliva
for massage while in the acute
stage?
A. Herpes zoster
B. HIV
C. Stress
D. Renal failure
contraindicated for
meningitis?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
39. What type of disease shows
either little change or slow
progression?
A. Acute
B. Sub-acute
C. Chronic
D. Depression
40. What is a hole or rip in the

abdominal wall or inguinal
ring through which the small
intestine may protrude?
A. Hernia
B. Ganglion cyst
C. Spondylosis
D. Diverticulitis
antihyperlipidemics?
A. Occasional muscle and joint
pain can occur
constipation
D. All of the above
42. What is an example of an
herbal supplement?
A. Antihistamine
B. Saw palmetto
C. Bee pollen
D. Muscle relaxant
involves a break in the skin
and torn soft tissues, where
the bone protrudes through
skin?
A. Incomplete fracture
B. Compound or open fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Chronic
44. What is the result of
compression of the median
nerve of the brachial plexus?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 82
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a strain?
Injury to muscle
Tear to ligament
Fungus
Carpal tunnel syndrome
46. What is an overdeveloped

lumbar curve?
A. Lordosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Kyphosis
D. All of the above
the SCM, clavicle, and
trapezius?
C. Axillary area
D. Sacral region
component of the posterior
endangerment site?
A. Carotid artery
B. Femoral region
C. Subclavian artery
D. Vagus nerve
49. What are the activation of
the parasympathetic nervous
system and the release of
endorphins examples of?
A. Homeostasis
C. Placebo effects
D. Mind-body effects
50. Which massage effect can be
processed through the somatic
nervous system?
A. Neuromuscular mechanisms
B. Hyperstimulation analgesia
C. Counterirritation
D. All of the above

A. Decreases oxygen saturation
in blood
B. Increases white blood cell
count
count
D. Sweat glands activated
52. If a client is functioning from
sympathetic nervous system
dominance, what would be an
appropriate initial stroke?
A. Gentle rocking
B. Slow effleurage
C. Feather strokes
D. Tapotement
53. What is a sitting bath with
the water coming up to the
navel?
A. Steam bath
B. Sauna
C. Sitz bath
D. Paraffin bath
54. What are reduced
inflammation, reduced
swelling, and reduced muscle
spasm effects of?
A. Tonic friction
B. Heat
C. Cold
D. Shampoos
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 83
Which stroke is kneading?

Friction
Tapotement
Petrissage
Effleurage
56. What is a PNF technique that

involves holding and waiting
for the nervous system to
trigger relaxation?
A. Compression
(PIR)
massage?
spasms
blood and lymph
C. Reduces removal of
metabolic waste

movement?
A. Deep effleurage
B. Kneading
C. Beating
for treating tendonitis?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
D. Percussion
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is kneading?
Tapping
Light stroking
Lifting and grasping
Pressing

effect of massage?
A. Relieves fatigue
B. Increases tension and anxiety
64. What is a bone against bone

feeling?
A. Hard end feel
B. Soft end feel
C. Empty end feel
D. Active joint movement

A. Release fascial restrictions
B. Reduce thickening of
connective tissue
(hyperplasia)
C. More flexibility
D. All of the above
65. What is most appropriate for

breaking up adhesions in the
muscle belly?
A. Effleurage
B. Kneading
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement
60. What is increased by

massage?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Endorphins
D. All of the above
66. What is a virus that can

potentially destroy the
immune system?
A. AIDS
B. HIV
C. T-cell
D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Page 84
67.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a Russian bath?

Whirlpool bath
Full body steam bath
Diathermy
All of the above
68. What is the "C" in the

A. Cold
B. Circulation
C. Compression
D. Cryotherapy
(PNF) technique?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
D. Positional Release
position to start a massage for
first-time clients to make
them feel more comfortable
and safer?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Lateral
A. Lengthen and stretch rectus
B. Shorten upper trapezius and
splenius
C. Lengthen and stretch oblique
capitis inferior
D. Lengthen and stretch spinalis

A. Shorten tensor fasciae latae
and longissimus thoracis
B. Lengthen rectus abdominis
and biceps femoris
C. Lengthen iliacus and
iliocostalis lumborum
D. Lengthen internal obliques
and semimembranosus
73. If a client has right
torticollis, what is the most
A. Lengthen erector spinae and
transversospinalis
B. Lengthen left biceps brachii
and triceps
C. Lengthen left splenius capitis
and right upper trapezius
D. Lengthen right splenius
capitis and left upper
trapezius
supinated position of the heel
with forefoot varus?
A. Lengthen flexor digitorum
longus
longus
C. Lengthen tibialis posterior
D. Lengthen tibialis anterior
75. What would be used to find
tender areas within muscles
resulting from a postural
deviation?
A. Rapport
B. Care plan
C. Assessment
D. Palpation
Page 85

palpation findings
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan

and weak with flat back
posture?
A. Hamstrings
C. Muscles of the face
D. All of the above
77. Which areas must be

identified in an assessment so
that correction can be applied
to those areas?
A. Concentrically contracted
shortened areas
B. Concentrically contracted
lengthened areas
C. Isometrically contracted
lengthened areas
D. Assessments are outside the
scope of practice
81. Where does the standard

side-view line of reference
through the ankle pass?
A. Anterior to the axis of the
elbow joint
B. Posterior to the knee joint
C. Posterior to the outer
malleolus and through the
apex of the arch
D. Anterior to the outer
apex of the arch
78. What happens to postural

muscles if posture is not
balanced?
A. They jump into action and
tire more quickly
B. They must function more like
ligaments and bones
C. They have more fast-twitch
white fibers
D. Atrophy of the temporalis
82. Which muscles need to be

exercised when the shoulders
are depressed and the
scapulae abducted?
A. Platysma
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Upper trapezius
D. Lower trapezius

elongated and weak?
A. Hip flexors
B. Low back
D. Frontalis and soleus
83. Which is a correct set up for

proper ergonomics at a
computer workstation?
A. Phone on shoulder
B. Feet propped on chair legs
C. Monitor at or below eye level
D. Computer in a corner on a
platform
A. Gluteus maximum
B. Right tibialis anterior
D. Occipitofrontalis
Page 86
85. When would a therapist need

to postpone a massage for an
athlete?
A. Immediately prior to an
athletic event
B. During a break in the
competition
C. After an athletic event
D. If the athlete has heat
exhaustion
86. What is not part of the
treatment for plantar fasciitis?
A. Apply cold in the acute and
chronic stages
B. Cross fiber friction on
adhesions
C. Treat the shortened
gastrocnemius and soleus
D. Thumb kneading on foot
87. What is excessive bone
growth at the first
metatarsophalangeal joint
capsule?
A. Trigger finger
B. Bunion
C. Baker's cyst
D. Tendonitis
88. What type of range of motion
is painful with frozen
shoulder?
A. Active only
B. Passive only
C. Active and passive
89. What is a condition that
results from compression of
the median nerve at the wrist?
A. Trigger finger
B. Piriformis syndrome
90. What is treated by stretching

the erector spinae and
quadratus lumborum when
prone?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
91. Who developed Swedish
massage and is considered the
Father of Swedish Massage?
A. Per Henrik Ling
D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg
92. Which is a non-invasive
neuromuscular approach with
roots in osteopathy?
A. Ortho-bionomy
B. Craniosacral therapy
C. Reflexology
D. Polarity therapy
93. Which modality developed by
Dr. John Upledger uses the
principles of unwinding?
B. Shiatsu
C. Hydrotherapy
D. Craniosacral therapy
94. Who developed deep
transverse friction?
Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Joseph Heller
95. What was developed in India?
A. Anatripsis
B. Ayurveda
C. Anma
D. Lomi lomi
Page 87
96. Which is an energy

technique?
A. Esalen massage
B. Reiki
D. All of the above
102. What is a duty of health

professionals?
A. Do no harm
B. Do positive good
97. What are professional

classifications of touch?
A. Mechanical or expressive
touch
B. German or French method
C. Hostile or aggressive touch
D. Sexual or erotic touch

therapist who is angry
assumes that a client is
angry?
A. Projection
D. Networking

A. Bigotry
B. Right of refusal
parental consent
D. All of the above
code of ethics?
words
B. Dating a client
C. Ignoring contraindications
D. Informed consent violations
relationship?
A. Personal needs
C. Social needs
D. All of the above
boundary?
A. Written data collection
B. Edge

do if a minor asks for an
exception to getting parental
consent for a massage?
A. Do the massage if a friend
says it is OK
B. Do not do the massage
C. Do the massage if the minor
promises to get permission
later
D. Do the massage but decrease
the duration
105. What is gathering
information about a
condition?
B. Assessment
D. Diagnosis
prompts dual relationships?
A. Safe use of equipment and
supplies
B. Dating
Page 88
107. What is more common at

the local government level
rather than the state
government level?
A. Licensing requirements
B. Restrictions on businesses
operated from a home
ethics?
A. Scope of practice
B. Tax
C. Insurance
D. All of the above
109. What are the feelings of the
therapist towards the client?
B. Transference
C. Confidentiality
110. What should a therapist do
after making a mistake?
A. Admit the mistake
B. Act like nothing happened
C. Blame the client
D. Deny making a mistake
111. What could be considered a
sexual misconduct boundary
violation by failing to ensure
a client's privacy?
A. Improper draping
B. Not providing a gown
C. Watching a client undress
D. All of the above

A. Be mindful of body contact
during session
B. Use appropriate draping
113. What is a guideline for the
massage table?
A. 78 to 84 inches long
B. 24 to 25 inches wide
C. 1 to 2 inches of high density
foam padding
D. All of the above
114. All of the following are
advantages of massage oils
over lotions except:
A. Oils do not degrade with
heat
B. Oils spread easily
C. A little oil goes a long way
D. Oils helps slide over hair
115. What is mandatory for
sheets with blood stains?
A. Biohazard label
B. Red container
C. Commercial laundry
D. No label needed if universal
precautions are used
116. What decontaminates?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
117. Why would diaper draping
be used?
A. Trust, warmth and modesty
B. Legal requirements, safety
and sanitation
C. Massaging a newborn
D. Massaging a toddler
Page 89
118. What uses one full-size

double flat sheet to cover the
table and wrap the client?
A. Top cover method
119. How many calories are
needed by the body per day?
A. About 600 to 700
B. About 800 to 1000
C. About 1000 to 1200
D. About 1600 to 2800
124. What is the doing business

as name?
A. SSN
B. TIN
C. DBA
D. LLC
125. What is a business
arrangement with one or
more owners and limited
liability?
A. Corporation
B. Networking
C. Partnership
120. What is the recommended

number of servings per day of
the meat, poultry, fish, dried
beans, and nuts group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 2 to 3 servings
C. 6 to 7 servings
D. 9 to 11 servings
being an employee?
A. Set own schedule
B. Employer provides facilities
and supplies
C. Flexible hours
D. All of the above
expense?
A. Advertising
B. Professional clothes
C. Insurance
D. All of the above
123. What promotes the
business?
A. Credentials
B. DBA
C. Marketing
D. Ledger
Page 90
Exam 7 Answer Key

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. D
37. A
38. D
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. D
86. A
87. B
88. C
89. C
90. A
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. B
95. B
96. B
97. A
98. A
99. A
100. B
101. B
102. C
103. A
104. B
105. B
106. B
107. B
108. A
109. D
110. A
111. D
112. C
113. C
114. A
115. D
116. D
117. A
118. B
119. D
120. B
121. B
122. D
123. C
124. C
125. A
B
C
A
A
A
C
B
D
B
D
C
C
C
B
A
A
D
D
C
C
C
A
B
B
B
C
D
B
A
C
D
C
D
B
A
B
C
B
D
C
C
C
Page 91
Exam 8
1. Which refers to the study of
anatomical landmarks through
visualization and palpation?
A. Endocrinology
B. Anthropology
C. Surface anatomy
D. Ortho-bionomy

includes the small bones found
in the hands and feet?
A. Sesamoid
B. Irregular
C. Long
D. Short

structure is the largest level
including all the body systems
and parts?
A. Chemical level
B. Organismal level
C. Tissue level
D. Atomic level

brain, spinal cord, and special
sense organs?
A. Nervous
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Lymphatic
D. Integumentary
3. What is the large central

fluid-filled cavity of a
mitochondrion, enclosed by the
inner mitochondrial
membrane?
A. Polyribosome
B. Cytoplasm
C. Synovial joint
D. The matrix
4. What type of tissue detects
changes in condition and
responds by generating action
potentials?
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Nervous
D. Muscular
5. What are large glands in the
axillary region?
A. Arrector pili
B. Phasic muscles
C. Apocrine glands
D. Seborrhea

B. Decreased peristalsis
C. Decreased secretion of
digestive juices
D. All of the above
pancreas and the thymus?
A. Lymphatic
B. Endocrine
C. Respiratory
D. Circulatory
major lymph nodes, starting
with most superior / cranial?
A. Parotid, spleen, thymus,
cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal
B. Parotid, thymus, spleen,
cisterna chyli, iliac, inguinal
C. Parotid, spleen, thymus,
adrenal, inguinal, iliac
D. Parotid, thyroid, cisterna
chyli, spleen, inguinal, iliac
Page 92

mouth, tongue, teeth, salivary
glands, and esophagus?
A. Respiratory
B. Digestive
C. Nervous
D. Endocrine
articulation of the frontal and
parietal bones?
A. Coronal
B. Sagittal
C. Axial
D. Lambdoidal
13. What has a great variety of
amino acids?
A. Plant proteins
B. Fat
C. Insoluble carbohydrates
D. Animal proteins
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the scapular region?

Top of head
Shoulder blade
Lower back
Buttocks

pericardium as a yin meridian?
A. Acupuncture
B. Trager method
C. Manual lymph drainage
D. All of the above
19. What type of muscle found in
the heart has branched muscle
fibers, striations, intercalated
disks, and autonomic nerves?
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. Fusiform
14. Which means behind or in

the back?
A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Posterior
D. Superior

inserts on the calcaneus via
the calcaneal tendon?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Brachialis
D. Trapezius
15. Where are the lungs relative

to the heart?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
21. Where does the

sternocleidomastoid insert?
A. Femur
B. Radius
C. Occiput
D. Mandible
16. Which body cavities are in

the dorsal region?
A. Cranial and vertebral
B. Thoracic, abdominal, and
pelvic
C. Thoracic, pelvic, and
vertebral
D. Cranial, vertebral, and pelvic
22. Where is the brachial plexus?

A. Left lumbar region
B. Junction between
manubrium and sternum
C. C5 to T1, scalenes, clavicle
D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral
column
Page 93
23. What originates at the

surface of 8 or 9 ribs and
inserts on the anterior surface
of the medial border of the
scapula?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Trapezius
D. Peroneus longus
29. Which is an action of the

deltoid?
A. Lateral rotation
B. Adduction
C. Elevation
D. Depression
24. What surrounds muscle

bellies?
A. Bursa
B. Aponeurosis
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum
30. Where would a therapist put

a pillow to work on a client's
pectoralis minor?
A. Under patella
B. Under head and neck
C. Under abducted bent elbow,
laying supine
D. Under adducted bent elbow,
laying prone
25. What type of joint is the

wrist?
A. Planar
B. Hinge
C. Ball and socket
D. Ellipsoidal

knee?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Sartorius
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Peroneus longus
26. What is the general

adaptation syndrome in
response to?
A. Stress
B. Resistance
C. Alarm
D. Exhaustion
32. Which proprioceptors

respond to tension and send a
signal to the antagonist?
A. Joint kinesthetic receptors
B. Golgi tendon organs
C. Somatic reflex arcs
D. Muscle spindles

supraspinatus?
A. Abduct the shoulder
C. Adduct the leg
D. Extend the wrist
33. What is a disease present at

birth?
A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
28. What is the action of the

platysma?
A. Flex arms
B. Assist in depression of the
mandible
C. Laterally flex head and neck
D. Flex the shoulder
34. What could cause

inflammation?
A. A tissue injury
B. Heat and redness
C. Abnormal tissue growth
D. Cells that fail to mature
Page 94
35. What means able to walk or

not confined to bed?
A. Clinical
B. Ambulatory
C. Anomaly
D. Atrophy
36. What psychological disorder
has to do with exaggerated
irrational fears?
A. Anorexia
B. Anxiety
C. Rickets and scurvy
D. Chemical dependency
37. Which is indicated for
massage for people who have
survived the condition for five
years?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Scabies
C. Leukemia
D. Renal failure
themselves annually?
A. Idiopathic
D. Seasonal rhythms
39. What is a chronic
autoimmune disease in which
antibodies attack various
types of tissue throughout the
body?
A. Bronchitis
B. Tinnitus
C. Fever
D. Lupus

antihypertensives and
diuretics?
susceptible to cold
constipation
D. All of the above
41. What is an example of a nonherbal natural supplement?
A. Antihistamine
B. Saw palmetto
C. Bee pollen
D. Muscle relaxant
used for the common cold?
A. Diuretic
B. Brewer's yeast
C. Aloe
D. Antiulcer medication
43. What is inflammation of a
tendon?
A. Tendonitis
B. Tenosynovitis
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Ischemic necrosis
44.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is acute?
Widespread
Gradual onset
Short duration
Long duration
45. What is an injury to a

muscle?
A. Sprain
B. Strain
C. Tinnitus
D. Tinea cruris
Page 95
46. What is overdeveloped

thoracic curve?
A. Gibbus
B. Scoliosis
C. Kyphosis
D. All of the above
the subclavian artery and the
brachiocephalic artery?
C. Axillary area
D. Pelvic cavity
component of the anterior
endangerment site?
A. Carotid artery
B. Brachiocephalic artery
C. Frontal chakra
D. Soleus
49. What is a reflexive effect of
massage?
A. Muscle relaxation
B. Increased mental clarity
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
on the nervous and endocrine
systems?
A. Creates hyperthermia
C. Decreases serotonin levels
formation

A. Increases oxygen saturation
in blood
count
count
D. Decreases stress
from massage?
A. Skin conditions such as mild
dryness
B. Stress and anxiety
C. Temporomandibular joint
dysfunction
D. All of the above
53.
A.
B.
C.
D.
When should ice be avoided?

Inflammation
Spasms
Pain
Circulatory problems
54. What reduces inflammation,

swelling, and muscle spasms?
A. Tonic friction
B. Heat
C. Ice
D. Shampoos
55. What is a benefit of a
contrast bath?
A. Increase in pulse rate
B. Reduce swelling
C. Alternating vasoconstriction
and vasodilation
D. Reduced inflammation
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Page 96
Which is effleurage?
Kneading
Gliding
Cupping
57. Which is best for tight bands

of muscle fibers?
A. Trigger point therapy
B. Touch therapy
C. Gliding
D. Effleurage

effleurage?
B. Deep gliding
C. Skin rolling
D. Aura stroking

of massage?
A. Increases metabolism
B. Hastens healing
C. Relaxes and refreshes the
muscles
D. Rebuilds a positive selfimage
64. What is a cushioned

limitation?
A. Hard end feel
B. Soft end feel
C. Empty end feel
D. Active joint movement
59. What is light rubbing, rolling

or wringing?
A. Vibration
B. Percussion
C. Friction
D. Ischemic compression
60. The effects of massage on
the autonomic nervous system
are mostly what type?
A. Reflexive
B. Mechanical
C. Placebo
D. Direct
61. Which is a rapid striking
movement?
A. Vibration
B. Kneading
C. Percussion
D. Friction
62. When is oil usually first
applied?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement
65. What promotes vasodilation?

A. Massage of the vascular
system
B. Cryotherapy
C. Ice
D. Reiki
pregnancy massage?
A. Light effleurage
B. Percussion
D. Supine position
67. Which is not appropriate for
B. Slow, gentle strokes
C. Methods that move toxins
D. Energy work
68. What is a method of applying
ice massage?
A. Ice in a paper or Styrofoam
cup
B. Ice in a towel
C. Ice in a plastic bag
D. All of the above
Page 97

(PNF) technique?
A. Post-isometric contraction
B. Petrissage
C. Reiki
D. Effleurage
a pregnant client?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Face down
A. Lengthen and stretch
anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch
quadratus lumborum
C. Lengthen and stretch rectus
capitis posterior minor
D. Shorten rectus capitis
posterior major
72. If a client has flat back
A. Shorten semitendinosus
B. Lengthen upper trapezius
C. Lengthen biceps femoris
D. Lengthen iliacus
an adducted and elevated
scapula?
B. Lengthen trapezius
C. Lengthen latissimus dorsi
D. Lengthen teres major

overactive if a client has low
back pain, buttock pain, and
hamstring shortening when
flexing the trunk?
A. Gluteus maximum and
gastrocnemius
B. Abdominal complex
C. Erector spinae, psoas, and
rectus abdominis
D. Upper trapezius and
lumborum
75. What would involve client
goals and a time frame?
A. Business plan
B. Care plan
C. Assessment
D. Palpation
self care recommendations
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77. What exists when a tight
muscle decreases nervous
stimulation to its antagonist,
causing it to reduce activity?
B. Muscle testing
C. Reciprocal inhibition
D. Inflammation
stuck, what type of issue is it
usually?
A. Endangerment site issue
retention issue
C. Joint issue
D. Ligament issue
Page 98

alignment?
A. The brachialis pulls upward
B. The abdominal muscles pull
downward
C. The back muscles pull
upward
D. The posterior hip flexors pull
upward
and weak with lordotic
posture?
A. Hip flexors
B. Frontalis and temporalis
C. Anterior abdominals
D. All of the above
81. As feet are influenced by
shoes with heels, what tends
to increase with heel height?
A. Abduction
B. Slight out-toeing
C. Tendency toward parallel
position from out-toeing
D. Outward rotating
hip adductors
B. Platysma and trapezius
longus
D. All of the above

knees in hyperextension?
A. The plumb line passes
slightly anterior to the axis
of the knee joint
B. Genu valgum
C. The ankle joint is in plantar
flexion
D. Genu varum
84. What is like anatomical
position with the hands facing
the body and the forearms in
between pronation and
supination?
A. Sagittal plane
B. Center of gravity
C. Longitudinal axis
D. Zero position
the right leg flexors?
against therapist's
against therapist's
C. Client holds posterior gluteal
line against therapist's
D. Client holds right leg position
against therapist's
occupations such as drywall
hanging?
B. Plantar fasciitis
C. Whiplash
D. Torticollis
Page 99
87. What are symptoms of

bursitis?
A. Heat
B. Swelling
C. Redness
D. All of the above
93. Which is the most noninvasive?

A. Therapeutic touch
D. Hellerwork
88. When is frozen shoulder most

frequently painful?
A. Gliding
B. Circumduction
C. Abduction and external
rotation
D. Flexion and extension
94. What would an aromatherapy

bath or massage oil of orange
blossom, neroli, patchouli and
lavender be used for?
A. Postural assessment
B. Moisturizing
C. Stimulating
D. Injury prevention
89. What results from sciatic

nerve compression?
A. Whiplash
iliopsoas, rectus femoris,
tensor fascia lata, and
adductors when supine?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
91. Who standardized massage
terminology and brought
massage to the scientific
community?
A. Dr. John Upledger
C. Dr. Milton Trager
D. Dr. John Harvey Kellogg
is used for minor injuries?
B. Chair massage
C. Remedial massage
95. What is a Hindu technique of

massage in the bath?
A. Acupressure
B. Tschanpua
C. Anma
D. Tapotement
96. What is an area of
excessively strong ki in
Shiatsu?
A. Proprioceptor
B. Dosha
C. Jitsu
D. Chakra
97. What refers to guiding
principles for distinguishing
between right and wrong?
A. Marketing
B. Confidentiality
C. Ethics
D. Overhead
A. Rights as professionals
B. Right of refusal
C. Misleading claims of curative
abilities
D. Informed consent
Page 100

code of ethics?
A. Dating a client
C. Advertising
D. All of the above
105. What is the scope of

practice?
A. Advertising
C. Boundaries
D. Practice parameters

relationship?
A. Spiritual advice
B. Informed consent
C. Psychological counseling
D. All of the above

A. Soft tissue techniques
B. Interactions between
students and school
personnel

A. Consistency
C. Confidentiality
do if a client reveals that
they abuse their children?
A. Contact the child welfare
authorities where required
by law
B. Do nothing
C. Tell the client not to reveal
that information
D. Recommend prescription
medication
working on a minor?
A. Parental consent
B. Contract
C. Medical advice
107. What is the difference

between a license and a
credential?
A. Governments issue licenses
B. Associations issue credentials
ethics?
A. Professionalism
D. All of the above
therapist gives psychological
advice to the client to solve
personal problems?
A. Transference
B. Scope of practice violation
C. Boundaries
104. What protects a client's

information?
A. HIPPA
B. Confidentiality
Page 101
110. What happens if a client

grimaces in pain while saying
that the pressure is fine?
D. Nonverbal communication
111. What is misconduct
A. Encouraging the client to
masturbate
B. Masturbation by the
practitioner
C. Intercourse
D. All of the above
112. What is appropriate for
addressing erections in
clients if the client shows
signs of discomfort?
A. Establish and maintain
appropriate boundaries
B. The therapist should
consider talking to the client
113. What is the safest
equipment for massaging a 6month old baby?
A. Table
B. Chair
C. Mat
D. Supports
114. What is mandatory for
contaminated sheets sent to
a facility that does not use
universal precautions?
A. Medical record
B. Use washer and dryer of
employer
C. Biohazard label or red
container

precaution?
A. Gloves shall be worn if there
is potential for direct
contact with body fluids
B. Hands must be washed after
removing gloves
sanitation?
A. Keep all halls and walkways
clear
B. Keep all carpets vacuumed
and sanitized
C. Keep all solid floors cleaned
and sanitized
D. All of the above
sanitation?
A. Commercially wash linens or
wash in hot water with
bleach
B. Dry linens in a hot dryer
C. Store clean linens in a closed
cabinet
D. All of the above
118. What is a therapist personal
safety practice?
A. Know contraindications
B. Perform outside the scope of
practice
C. Do not give out contact
information to an associate
when leaving to perform inhouse massage
D. All of the above
Page 102

A. Use the fingertips for deep
pressure
B. Stay in front of the massage
movement rather than on
top
D. Avoid using the forearms and
120. What draping method uses a
table covering along with a
top covering large enough to
cover the body?
A. Top cover method
124. Which is property

insurance?
A. General liability insurance
insurance
125. What is a way to explain
services in detail to
prospective clients?
A. Mission statements
B. Brochures
C. Resumes
D. Advertising
121. What vitamin is found in

citrus fruits?
A. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
122. Which is included in the
vitamin B complex?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. All of the above
123. What would monthly rent
be considered?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
Page 103
Exam 8 Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. D
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. D
40. D
41. C
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. D
86. A
87. D
88. C
89. B
90. A
91. B
92. C
93. A
94. B
95. B
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. B
101. D
102. A
103. A
104. C
105. D
106. B
107. C
108. D
109. B
110. D
111. D
112. C
113. C
114. C
115. C
116. D
117. D
118. A
119. B
120. A
121. C
122. D
123. B
124. D
125. B
A
C
B
C
A
A
D
B
A
D
D
C
C
B
A
D
C
A
C
A
C
B
A
B
C
D
A
C
C
C
B
C
B
D
C
C
C
C
C
C
C
D
Page 104
Exam 9
1. Which refers to the anatomy
of specific areas such as the
head or chest?
A. Cardiovascular physiology
B. Regional anatomy
C. Biology
D. Systemic anatomy
2. Which organization is
primarily focused on supporting
research?
A. National Institute of Health
Office of Alternative and
Complementary Medicine
B. American Massage Therapy
Association
C. National Certification Board
D. Associated Bodywork and
Massage Professionals
3. What are specialized
substances within a cell that
have characteristic shapes and
perform specific functions?
A. Organelles
B. Plasma
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Tissues

major structures of the central
nervous system, starting with
most superior / cranial?
A. Cerebrum, medulla, cervical
plexus, spinal cord
B. Cerebrum, cerebellum,
spinal cord, medulla
C. Cerebrum, cerebellum,
medulla, spinal cord
D. Cerebellum, cerebrum,
medulla, sinus
7. What are the components of
the autonomic nervous system?
A. Somatic and sympathetic
B. Somatic and
parasympathetic
C. Sympathetic and
parasympathetic
D. Cholinergic and adrenergic
8. What receives deoxygenated
blood from the right atrium?
B. Spleen
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium

membrane is the peritoneum?
A. Cardiac
B. Serous
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
9. What is the largest lymphoid

organ?
A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Parotid

includes complex shaped bones
such as the vertebrae?
A. Flat
B. Irregular
C. Long
D. Short

stomach, small and large
intestines, liver, gallbladder,
and pancreas?
A. Digestive
B. Urinary
C. Lymphatic
D. Endocrine
Page 105
11. Which fibers consist of

collagen in fine bundles and
provide support in walls of
blood vessels?
A. Reticular
B. Mast cells
C. Dense irregular
D. Adipocytes
12. Which are organic catalysts
that change the rate of a
chemical reaction?
A. Amino acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Triglycerides
D. Enzymes
articulation of the parietal
and temporal bones?
A. Coronal
B. Sagittal
C. Squamous
D. Thoracic
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the patellar region?

Knee
Thigh
Groin
Abdomen

stomach meridian beginning at
the orbital cavity, ending at
the second toe, and being
associated with food intake?
A. Swedish massage
B. Hellerwork
C. Shiatsu
D. All of the above
19. What type of muscle in the
bladder has fusiform muscle
fibers and autonomic nerves?
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. All of the above
14. Which means lower than or

below?
A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Posterior
D. Superior
20. Which of these muscles has

the anterior part of the iliac
crest as one of its insertions?
A. External obliques
B. Trapezius
C. Temporalis
D. Erector spinae
15. Where are the ribs relative

to the chest and back?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Superficial
D. Deep
21. Where does the platysma

insert?
A. Pelvis
B. Sacrum
C. Skin on edge of occiput
D. Skin on edge of mandible
16. What is the relationship of

the frontal, transverse, and
sagittal planes to each other?
A. They are at right angles
B. They are the same
C. They are parallel
D. They are unrelated
22. Which are tarsals?

A. Malleolus, talus, phalanges
B. Cuboid, cuneiforms,
navicular
C. Acromion process, spine of
scapula, clavicle
D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate
Page 106
23. What is the origin of the

short head of the biceps
brachii?
A. Scapula
B. Coracoid process
C. Pubic crest
D. Ischial tuberosity
24. What is immediately deep to
the skin and covers the entire
body?
A. Bursa
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum
25. What are the rotator cuff
muscles?
A. Deltoid, infraspinatus, teres
major, and subscapularis
B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus,
teres minor, and
subscapularis
C. Sternocleidomastoid,
infraspinatus, teres minor,
and subscapularis
D. Trapezius, infraspinatus,
teres minor, and serratus
anterior
tuberosity of the radius?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Plantaris
C. Deltoid
D. Trapezius
27. Which muscle of the right
forearm would be used to turn
a screwdriver clockwise?
A. Brachialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Supinator
D. Gastrocnemius
28. Which muscles are used

when riding a bike?
A. Multifidi
B. Rotatores
C. Quadriceps
D. Longissimus thoracis
29. What type of joint only
allows small shifting
movements?
A. Gliding
B. Ellipsoid
C. Hinge
D. Ball and socket
predominantly have fast
twitch fibers?
A. Erector spinae
B. Soleus
C. Transversospinalis
D. Biceps brachii
31. What happens in a
concentric muscle
contraction?
A. The muscle relaxes
does not change
C. The muscle lengthens
D. The muscle shortens
the lumbar vertebrae and
inserts on the lesser
trochanter?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Deltoid
Page 107
33. What are organisms that

cause disease only when
immunity is low?
A. Virulent
B. Fungal
C. Opportunistic pathogens
D. Transmission by inhalation
34. What is hyperplasia?
A. Abnormal tissue growth from
uncontrolled cell division
B. Cells that fail to mature into
specialized cells
C. Displacement of bones
D. A group of signs and
symptoms
35. What means a deviation from
normal?
A. Clinical
B. Ambulatory
C. Anomaly
D. Idiopathic
36. What is a psychological mood
disorder that can result in
feelings of hopelessness?
A. Anorexia
B. Inflammation
C. Depression
D. Chemical dependency
37. What refers to the increase
in the size of cells without cell
division?
A. Atrophy
B. Entrainment
C. Hypertrophy
D. Ambulatory
38. What refers to the internal

periodic timing components of
an organism and can be
circadian, ultradian, or
seasonal?
A. Entrainment
C. Etiology
D. Homeostasis
39. What is a highly contagious
airborne disease from a
bacterial infection that
usually begins in the lungs?
A. Edema
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
disorder
40. What are amphetamines,
adrenergic medications,
anticonvulsants, and
antiparkinson agents?
A. Hormones
B. Anti-infectives
C. Antineoplastics
medications
41. What is the formation of
bony spurs?
A. Subluxation
B. Tenosynovitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Spondylosis
used to heal burns?
A. NSAID
B. Brewer's yeast
C. Aloe
D. Steroid
Page 108
43. What is the complete

displacement of bones of a
joint?
A. Whiplash
B. Dislocation
C. Hernia
D. Subluxation
response to stress under the
general adaptation syndrome?
A. Exhaustion, resistance,
alarm
B. Ultradian, circadian,
seasonal
C. Alarm, exhaustion,
resistance
D. Alarm, resistance,
exhaustion
45.
A.
B.
C.
What is athlete's foot?

Sprain
Strain
A fungus on the feet and
toes
D. Plantar fasciitis
46. What is there in the back

with an anterior tilt of the
pelvis?
A. Flat back
B. Lordosis
D. All of the above
the SCM, mandible, and
trachea?
C. Axillary area
D. Sacral region

component of the posterior
endangerment site?
A. Brachial artery
B. Brachiocephalic artery
C. Oblique plane
D. Vagus nerve
49. What is a physiological effect
of massage?
A. Cures terminal illnesses
B. Activation of
system
C. Increases keloid formation
50. Which category of the
physiological effects of
massage refers to applying
force such as bending and
compression?
A. Biofield methods
B. Reflexive methods
C. Mechanical methods
D. Energetic methods
A. Stops release of
acetylchlorine and histamine
count
count
D. Increases platelet count
52. How much time does it
usually take before massage
activates the parasympathetic
nervous response?
A. Less than 2 minutes
B. 10 to 15 minutes
C. 60 to 75 minutes
D. More than 90 minutes
Page 109
53. What is friction with a saline

solution?
A. Tonic friction
B. Salt rub
C. Sponging
D. Shampoo
54. For which condition could
cold be applied?
A. Stretch weak muscles
B. Impaired circulation
C. Swelling
D. Arthritis
55. Which stroke kneads soft
tissue?
A. Compression
B. Grounding
C. Effleurage
D. Petrissage
56. How would a therapist finish
a massage for a client with
insomnia?
A. Kneading
B. Gliding
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Cupping
57. Which is a form of
tapotement?
A. Wringing
B. Skin rolling
C. Jostling
D. Percussion
58. What is an indirect physical
effect of massage?
A. Reflexive effect
B. Mechanical effect
C. Decreased circulation
D. All of the above

on the skin?
A. Improved posture
and oil glands
C. Increased circulation to the
skin
D. Reduction in dopamine
produces a hyperemia?
A. Petrissage or kneading
B. Light massage
C. Compression
D. All of the above
61. Which is an effleurage
movement?
A. Compression
B. Skin rolling
C. Aura stroking
D. Petrissage
62. Which is done with long,
smooth strokes?
A. Vibration
B. Aura stroking
C. Percussion
D. Friction
63. When is effleurage typically
used during a session?
A. Only at the beginning
B. Only at the end
C. To apply lubricant
D. In the middle
64. What is an abrupt limitation
to a joint movement?
A. Hard end feel
B. Soft end feel
C. Empty end feel
D. Passive joint movement
Page 110
65. What gives the best

information about connective
tissue?
A. Percussion
B. Vibration
C. Friction
D. Tapotement

A. Lengthen semitendinosus
B. Shorten semimembranosus
C. Lengthen psoas
D. Lengthen splenius
66.
A.
B.
C.
D.

the knee flexed along with
posterior tilting of the pelvis
and a flattening of the lumbar
spine?
A. Lengthen soleus
C. Lengthen tibialis anterior
What contributes to AIDS?

Opportunistic infection
HIV
Low T-cell count
All of the above
67. What is the application of

oscillating electromagnetic
fields to tissue?
A. Whirlpool bath
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
68. What is the "I" in the
A. Injury
B. Infection
C. Ice
D. Inflammation
(PNF) technique?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Direct Manipulation
D. Petrissage
A. Lengthen anterior scalene
B. Lengthen and stretch upper
trapezius and splenius
C. Lengthen oblique capitis
inferior
D. Shorten SCM

thoracic outlet syndrome?
and trapezius
B. Lengthen latissimus dorsi and
teres major
C. Lengthen scalenes, SCMs,
pecs, and neck extensors
D. Lengthen biceps and triceps
brachii
74. What is an appropriate
consideration for self-care?
A. Maximize the assignments
B. Introduce a vigorous exercise
program
C. Support the client in
achieving their goals
D. Recommend a radical change
in diet
75. Which is more of a part of
developing a plan than an
objective observation?
A. Gait assessment
B. Needs assessment
C. Posture assessment
D. Palpation
Page 111

the initial gait analysis
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77. What is the dysfunction in
which muscles compensate for
a weak prime mover to
produce the movement?
A. Muscle guarding
B. Muscle testing
C. Inflammation
D. Synergistic dominance
78. What could cause a cold
area?
A. Inflammation
B. Diminished blood flow
C. Muscle spasm
D. Hyperactivity
alignment?
A. The abdominal muscles pull
downward
B. The anterior hip flexors pull
downward
C. The posterior hip flexors pull
upward
D. The hyoid bone pulls
downward
strong with flat back posture?
A. Hamstrings
C. Neck flexors
D. All of the above
81. What is associated with ideal

alignment in the posterior
view?
A. Level shoulders
B. Medial borders of scapulae
parallel
C. Feet parallel or slight outtoeing
D. All of the above
82. Which muscles are weak
when the scapula is rotated so
the axillary border is more
horizontal than normal?
A. Serratus anterior and
trapezius
B. Digastric and psoas
C. Platysma and scalenes
D. Rectus abdominis and SCM
83. What is a characteristic good
alignment for sitting posture?
A. A position that requires
effort to maintain
B. A slightly horizontal position
C. The position requires the
least expenditure of muscle
energy
D. The low back is in lordosis
left handed individuals?
A. Right hip abductors
B. Right flexor hallucis longus
C. Digastric
D. Hyoid
would observations about the
way a client walks be
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 112
86. Where would the client give

a rating to measure the level
of discomfort?
A. Pain questionnaire
B. Insurance form
C. SOAP chart
D. Client record
87. What inflammation of a small
fluid-filled friction-reducing
sac caused by overuse of
surrounding structures?
A. Trigger finger
B. Whiplash
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Bursitis
88. What is an abnormal
positioning of the head and
neck relative to the body?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Bursitis
C. Torticollis
D. Scoliosis
decreasing compression on the
sciatic nerve?
A. Piriformis syndrome
C. Thoracic outlet syndrome
D. Torticollis
90. What is characterized by
weak supra-hyoids, infrahyoids, longus capitis, and
longus cervicis?
A. Flat-back posture
B. Hyperlordosis
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. Scoliosis
91. Who popularized the

Movement Cure in America,
introducing the Swedish
movements in the mid 19th
century?
A. Dr. Ida Rolf
D. Elizabeth Dicke
diaphragm with a line across
the ball of the foot?
A. Reflexology
B. Shiatsu
C. Ayurveda
D. Acupressure
bath or massage oil of
rosemary, thyme, pine and
cypress be used for?
B. Moisturizing
C. Stimulating
D. Marketing
94. Who developed a connective
tissue massage technique
called Bindegewebmassage?
Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Joseph Heller
95. What is a Greek word for a
person who exercises the mind
and body?
A. Tsubo
B. Tschanpua
C. Anma
D. Ascete
Page 113
96. What is an area of deficient

and weak ki in Shiatsu?
A. Dosha
B. Kyo
C. Trigger point
D. Governing vessel
97. What refers to the quality of
accepting the consequences of
one's actions?
A. Accountability
B. Confidentiality
C. Barter
D. Networking
B. Right of refusal
C. Informed consent
D. All of the above
A. Lack of accessibility
B. Bigotry
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Contract
B. Other business deals
C. Medical advice
D. All of the above
type of boundary?
A. Sexual
B. Skeletal system
102. What are examples of how

boundaries are created,
managed, and changed?
A. Location and language
B. Proprioceptors and joint
structure
103. Working on a minor without
parental consent is what type
of behavior?
B. Unethical
104. Telling a spouse details
about their partner's session
is what type of unethical
behavior?
practice
differential
105. What relates to client
information?
A. Financial statement
B. Confidentiality
106. What is within the scope of
practice for massage
therapists?
A. Spinal manipulations
B. Assessment
C. Prescribing medication
D. Diagnosis
Page 114
107. What is typically done by a

primary care provider and not
a massage therapist?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
112. What occurs if a therapist

begins a sexual relationship
with a client?
A. Projection
C. Transference
D. Networking

A. Sexual activity
B. Family
113. What is a way to determine

the proper height of the
massage table?
A. Standing straight with hands
flat on table
B. Standing straight with
fingertips touching table
C. No more than knee high
D. At least chest high
109. How may laws restrict

massage therapists?
A. Restrictions on the use of
titles
B. Restrictions on scope of
practice
of ethics?
A. Fee structure
C. Professionalism
D. All of the above
111. A therapist being
uncomfortable massaging a
client with an infectious
disease involves what type of
issue?
B. Therapist's right of refusal
114. All of the following would

be appropriate for lubricant
storage except:
A. Pump dispenser
B. Flip-top bottle
C. Open container
D. Squeezable tube
115. What should be done with
rancid linens?
A. Wash in ethyl alcohol
B. Hang out to dry
C. Wash in cold water
D. Discard
116. When are hands washed?
A. Immediately before gloves
are removed
B. Between client contacts
C. After handling clean linens
D. To transfer microorganisms
Page 115

precaution?
A. Linens soiled with blood
must be placed in a
leakproof bag for
transportation to the laundry
B. Bleach can be added to the
laundry for contaminated
linens
118. Which stance is also known
as the archer stance?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
D. Symmetric
119. What is the purpose of
draping?
A. Warmth and modesty
B. Assessment
C. To comply with federal law
120. What vitamin is found in
brewer's yeast?
A. Vitamin A
C. Camphor
D. Eucalyptus
122. What would be found in a

brochure?
A. Business plan
B. Types of massages
C. Tax information
D. Start up costs
123. What would determine
profit?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
124. Where are barter exchange
transactions recorded?
A. Schedule K-1
B. Form W-2
C. Form 1099-B
D. Form 1098
125. What is the purpose of an S
corporation?
A. Avoid income tax
B. Avoid estimated tax
C. Avoid double taxation
D. All of the above
121. What are disadvantages of

being an employee?
A. Less steady income
B. Responsible for own taxes
C. Must pay for own facilities
and supplies
Page 116
Exam 9 Answer Key

1. B
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. D
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. C
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. A
87. D
88. C
89. A
90. C
91. C
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. D
96. B
97. A
98. A
99. D
100. A
101. A
102. A
103. C
104. A
105. B
106. B
107. B
108. C
109. C
110. A
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. C
115. D
116. B
117. C
118. A
119. A
120. B
121. D
122. B
123. C
124. C
125. C
B
D
C
B
B
B
B
C
D
B
B
C
D
B
D
A
C
C
C
B
C
C
C
D
C
C
C
B
A
B
C
C
B
B
D
B
B
A
D
A
C
B
Page 117
Exam 10
structures that can be
examined without a
microscope?
A. Gross anatomy
B. Reflexology
C. Immunology
D. Systemic anatomy
6. Which system is responsible

for skeletal movement, moves
blood, and generates heat?
A. Nervous
B. Muscular
C. Endocrine
D. Skeletal
2. Which is the smallest unit of

matter that participates in
chemical reactions?
A. Cell
B. Ion pump
C. Atom
D. Tissue

peripheral nervous system is
working if the client is
sweating?
A. Somatic
B. Pneumonic
C. Sympathetic
D. Parasympathetic
3. What is a thin flexible sheet

of tissue?
A. Organelle
B. Cytoplasm
C. The matrix
D. Membrane

blood from the right ventricle?
B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Liver
4. What are the four basic types

of tissue in the body?
A. Stratified, squamous,
epithelial, and connective
B. Epithelial, cardiac, smooth,
and muscle
C. Epithelial, connective,
muscle, and nervous
D. Stratified, squamous,
epithelial, and glandular
9. What are the components of

the lymphatic system?
A. Lymphatic capillaries,
lymphatics, arterioles,
venules
B. Lymph vessels, lymph,
arterioles, venules
C. Lymph vessels, lymph,
lymphoid organs, lymphoid
tissue
D. Lymph vessels, blood,
intestine, liver

includes the bones found in the
skull?
A. Long
B. Flat
C. Cubed-shaped
D. Short
10. Which system uses the teeth

to break food down into small
particles?
A. Respiratory
B. Reproductive
C. Urinary
D. Gastrointestinal
Page 118
11. What vitamin helps the eyes

adjust to darkness?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
membrane is the pericardium?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Cervical
D. Synovial
13. Which is necessary for
hemoglobin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Calcium
14. Which means in front of or
toward the front?
A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Posterior
D. Superior
15. Where are the ribs relative
to the lungs?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Superficial
D. Deep
16. Which body cavities are
generally more superior to the
diaphragm?
A. Cranial and pelvic
B. Thoracic and abdominal
C. Thoracic and pelvic
D. Cranial and thoracic
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the femoral region?

Knee
Thigh
Groin
Abdomen

spleen meridian beginning at
the great toe, ending in the
intercostal space, and being
associated with digestion?
A. Acupuncture
B. Acupressure
C. Shiatsu
D. All of the above
19. What type of muscle
attached to bone has
cylindrical muscle fibers,
striations, and motor neurons?
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. All of the above
inserts on the cartilage of the
fifth, sixth, and seventh ribs
and the xiphoid process?
A. Pectoris major
B. Deltoid
C. Rectus abdominis
D. Erector spinae
21. Where does splenius cervicis
insert?
A. Hyoid
B. Vertebrae
C. Occiput
D. Mandible
Page 119
22. Which are carpals?

A. Olecranon process, trochlear
notch, styloid
B. Cuboid, cuneiforms,
navicular
C. Acromion process, spine of
scapula, clavicle
D. Lunate, pisiform, hamate

the bodies and transverse
processes of the lumbar
vertebrae?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Brachialis

organization of the muscle
fibers of the deltoid?
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. Circular
D. Triangular
28. What does the tibialis

anterior do?
A. Plantar flexes and everts
foot
B. Dorsiflexes and inverts foot
C. Flexion of the toes
D. Extension of the wrist
24. What is a transverse

thickening of connective
tissue that straps tendons
down?
A. Bursa
C. Deep fascia
D. Retinaculum
29. Which muscle flexes the hip

and extends the knee?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps brachii
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Psoas major
25. Which muscle can bring the

shoulder to 90 degrees?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Teres minor
D. Vastus medialis
the lateral one-third of the
clavicle, acromion, and spine
of the scapula?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Rectus femoris
C. Deltoid
D. Trapezius
30. What type of joint allows

movement in every plane?
A. Gliding
B. Ellipsoid
C. Hinge
D. Ball and socket
31. What are accessory
movements of the articulating
surfaces of bones at joint
surfaces?
A. Hypermobility
B. Joint play
C. Arthrokinematics
D. Osteokinematics
described by synarthrosis?
A. Freely moveable
C. Immoveable
D. Ellipsoidal
Page 120
33. What is an idiopathic

disease?
A. A disease with no known
cause
B. A disease present at birth
C. A disease that deteriorates
D. A disease spread by mold or
yeast
34. What is anaplasia?
A. Abnormal tissue growth from
uncontrolled cell division
B. Cells that fail to mature into
specialized cells
C. A tissue injury
D. Redness, swelling, and heat
35. What occurs as the result a
violent or disruptive action or
a severe emotional shock?
A. Subluxation
B. Dysfunction
C. Rickets and scurvy
D. Trauma
36. Which is generally
contraindicated for massage?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Sprains
C. Joint stiffness
D. Headaches
contraindicated for lice?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. Which adds to the risk of skin
cancer?
A. Naturally dark skin
B. Excessive sun exposure
C. Little time outdoors
D. Strong immunity
39. What are antianxiety

medications, sedatives,
antipsychotics, tranquilizers
and antidepressants?
A. Hormones
B. Natural supplements
C. Antineoplastics
medications
respiratory medications?
A. Avoid heat hydrotherapy
B. The client may be dizzy after
the massage
C. The massage could produce a
skin reddening
D. All of the above
used for memory problems?
A. Antihistamine
B. Bee pollen
C. Ginkgo
D. Lavender
involves more than one
fracture line, with several
fragments resulting and much
soft tissue damage?
D. Torticollis
43. What is a developmental
problem in which the bones
are deformed and fragile as a
result of demineralization?
A. Gibbus
B. Cleft palate
C. Clubfoot or talipes
D. Osteogenesis imperfect
Page 121
44. What is the first stage of the

A. The fight-or-flight response
B. The body's initial reaction
C. Alarm
D. All of the above
45. What is dislocation?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's or pitcher's elbow
C. Displacement of bones of a
joint
D. Frozen shoulder
46. What is there in the back in
a neutral position of the
pelvis?
A. Flat back
B. Lordosis
D. All of the above
the piriformis?
A. Cranial cavity
C. Axillary area
D. Sciatic notch
48. What are the sides of the
posterior triangle of the neck
endangerment site?
A. Mandible, clavicle, and
trachea
B. Teres major, mandible, and
trachea
C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius
D. Mandible, plantaris, and
trapezius
49. What is a physiological effect
of massage?
A. Increased blood clots
B. Increasing adhesions
C. Release of endorphins
50. Which category of the

physiological effects of
massage refers to the
stimulation of the nervous and
endocrine systems?
A. Biofield methods
B. Reflexive methods
C. Mechanical methods
D. Energetic methods
A. Stimulates release of
acetylchlorine and histamine
for vasodilatation
count
count
D. Decreases platelet count
52. When should heat be
avoided?
A. Edema
B. Spasms
C. Pain
D. Circulatory problems
53. What is the temperature of a
warm bath?
degrees Celsius
D. Above 100 degrees Celsius
54. Which would be most
effective in increasing
extensibility of collagen
tissue?
A. Heat
B. Cryotherapy
C. Ice massage
D. Vapocoolant spray
Page 122
55. Which uses slow, gliding

strokes?
A. Compression
B. Grounding
C. Effleurage
D. Petrissage
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Petrissage
Superficial friction
Tapotement

massage?
A. Increases in muscle cramps
and spasms
and lymph
C. Decreases removal of
metabolic waste
D. Reduces anxiety
61. Which is done with light

pressure and long, flowing
strokes?
A. Vibration
B. Feather stroking
C. Percussion
D. Friction
for treating a tennis player
with a sore arm?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
D. Percussion
63. Which are strokes that
knead?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement

of massage?
A. Reflexive effect
B. Indirect physical effect
D. Direct physical effect
64. How many types of Swedish

massage strokes are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
59. What moves joints with no

resistance on the part of the
client?
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
65. Which stroke is used for

tapping a large area of the
body?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Deep tissue
D. Percussion
60. What is a stimulating

massage technique?
A. Vibration
period
C. Friction
D. All of the above
66. Which stroke is most

appropriate for the elderly?
A. Effleurage
B. Friction
C. Deep tissue
D. Percussion
Page 123

for pregnancy massage?
A. Toxemia
B. Back strain
C. Second or third trimester
D. Pregnancy is always
contraindicated
68. What is a benefit of massage
for the critically ill?
A. Bring comfort, pleasure and
relaxation
B. Control pain
C. Reduce isolation
D. All of the above
69. What does the contrast
method use?
A. Ice packs
B. Cold only
C. Heat and cold
D. Heat only
A. Shorten adductor longus and
oblique capitis superior
B. Lengthen gluteus maximus
and longus capitis
C. Lengthen biceps femoris and
SCM
D. Lengthen iliacus and rectus
71. If a client has tight muscles
from holding a telephone on
the right shoulder, what is the
A. Shorten right splenius
B. Lengthen right upper
trapezius
C. Lengthen left upper
trapezius
D. Lengthen spinalis

overactive if a client has low
back pain, buttock pain, and
hamstring strains when
extending the trunk?
gastrocnemius
B. Abdominal complex
C. Erector spinae and
hamstrings
lumborum
the foot pulled into forefoot
varus with the big toe
abducted?
A. Lengthen abductor hallucis
B. Lengthen adductor hallucis
longus
74. If a client only has 30
minutes for a massage instead
of the usual hour, what would
be adjusted?
A. Depth of pressure
B. Duration
C. Speed
D. Rhythm
the toes are in while walking?
A. Pronation
B. Slue-footed
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Supination
76.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is more objective?

Interviewing
Listening
Client history
Physical assessment
Page 124
77. What could be the result of

inefficient joint movement
during walking that could lead
to tissue shortening?
A. Homeostasis
B. Balance
contraction
D. Normal end feel
78. Which muscles are about 25%
to 30% stronger than their
antagonists?
A. Flexors, internal rotators,
and adductors
B. Adductors and abductors
C. Extensors, external rotators,
and abductors
D. Mylohyoid and stylohyoid
position, what is most likely to
be true?
A. The neck extensors are short
B. The neck extensors are weak
C. The anterior vertebral neck
flexors are short
D. The tibial shaft is strong
A. Supinators
B. Hamstrings and
Occipitofrontalis
D. Hip flexors
view?
A. Level pelvis
B. Straight spine
C. Feet parallel or slight outtoeing
D. All of the above
82. What is the assessment when

the shoulders are elevated
and the scapulae adducted?
A. Weak serratus anterior
B. Tight upper trapezius
C. Weak peroneus longus
D. Tight quadratus lumborum
angle for the hip and knees for
good alignment in sitting
posture?
A. 0 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 135 degrees
left handed individuals?
A. Sacrum
B. Coccyx
C. Right flexor digitorum longus
D. Left lateral trunk muscles
would the therapist's visual
observations of muscle
guarding be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
86. What would not require
treatment for whiplash?
A. Shoulder
B. Neck
C. SCM
D. Hamstrings
Page 125
87. What is the swelling of the

tendons in a finger due to
overuse?
A. Trigger finger
D. Tennis elbow

waist with a line across the
metatarsals?
A. Reflexology
B. Swedish
C. Ayurveda
D. Trigger point therapy

frozen shoulder?
A. Reduce fascial restrictions
B. Increase range of motion
C. Reduce hypertonicity and
trigger points
D. All of the above
93. Which is best for removing

waste?
A. Manual lymphatic drainage
D. Hellerwork
89. What involves painful

degenerative changes to the
articular cartilage on the
kneecap?
D. Patellofemoral syndrome
the pecs, subclavius, serratus
anterior, and the anterior
intercostals?
B. Hyperlordosis
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. Scoliosis
91. What did Elizabeth Dicke
develop because she was
suffering from impaired
circulation in the leg?
A. Acupuncture
C. Reflexology
D. Connective tissue massage
94. Who developed a structural

integration technique called
Hellerwork?
Estrid Vodder
B. James Cyriax
C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Joseph Heller
95. What is the primary
technique of neuromuscular
therapy?
A. Acupressure
B. Gliding
C. Tapotement
D. All of the above
96. What are energy forces used
in Indian and Hindu methods?
A. Doshas
B. Synergists
C. Acupuncture points
D. Acupressure points
97. What is the standard of
conduct, goals, and qualities
of workers in the same field?
A. Budget
B. Confidentiality
C. Ledger
D. Professionalism
Page 126
98. What would describe the

relationship when an
experienced therapist with a
PhD performs a massage on a
new therapist?
A. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
D. Dual role
A. Working on a minor without
parental knowledge
B. Informed consent
words
D. Right of refusal
code of ethics?
A. Bigotry
B. Inappropriate advertising
C. Confidentiality
D. Lack of accessibility
relationship?
A. Confidentiality
B. Medical advice
C. Social needs
D. All of the above
words
B. Social needs
D. All of the above
103. What are boundaries?

A. Limits, barriers, borders,
edges
B. Time, location, language
C. Clothing, space, touch,
money
working on a minor?
A. Psychological counseling
B. Parental consent
C. Contract
D. All of the above
105. Dating a client is what type
B. Bigotry
C. Dual relationship violation
client in a restaurant?
was
about the massage
C. Ask for a referral
107. What is outside the scope of
practice for a massage
therapist?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
A. Client/practitioner reversal
B. Body mechanics
Page 127
109. What is done by

governments rather than
associations?
A. Licensing
B. Credentialing
114. Handwashing with soap and

water is an example of what
level of decontamination?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above

A. Advertising
B. Business cards
C. Discrimination based on race
or religion
115. All of the following are

organisms that can cause
disease in other organisms
except:
A. Pathogen
B. Pathogenic microorganism
C. Cornstarch
D. Germs
111. What is a client's right to

stop any part of treatment?
B. Transference
D. Right of refusal
clients if the client shows no
signs of discomfort?
B. It is not necessary to
mention it if the therapist is
comfortable
113. What is the proper room
temperature for a general
relaxation massage?
A. 55 to 60 degrees
B. 66 to 68 degrees
C. 72 to 74 degrees
D. 78 to 80 degrees
116. What are standard infection

precautions designed to do?
A. Improve mobility
B. Control pain
C. Prevent blood and other
body secretions from
entering practitioner's body
D. All of the above
117. What reduces the risk of
injury to the practitioner
from positioning?
A. Body mechanics
B. Gloves
C. Sanitation
D. Draping
118. Which stance is known as
the horse stance?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
D. Symmetric
Page 128
119. What is in butter, egg yolks

and yellow vegetables?
A. Vitamin A
C. Aloe
D. Vitamin D
120. Who gets W-2 forms?
A. Independent contractors
B. Employer
C. Employees
D. The massage board
125. What is a relationship

between two or more persons
to carry on a trade or
business?
A. S Corporation
B. Partnership
C. Sole proprietorship
D. LLC
121. How is a business card used?

A. Licensing
B. Tax
C. Marketing
D. Insurance
122. What would the cost of
obtaining credentials and a
business license be?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Gross income
123. Where are fees for
subcontractors recorded?
A. Schedule K-1
B. Form 1099-MISC
C. Form 1098
D. Form W-2
124. What could be limited by
keeping accurate records?
A. Liability
B. Marketing
C. Insurance
D. Barter income
Page 129
Exam 10 Answer Key

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. D
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. D
40. D
41. C
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. D
87. A
88. D
89. D
90. C
91. D
92. A
93. A
94. D
95. B
96. A
97. D
98. B
99. A
100. C
101. A
102. B
103. A
104. B
105. C
106. B
107. B
108. A
109. A
110. C
111. D
112. C
113. C
114. A
115. C
116. C
117. A
118. D
119. A
120. C
121. C
122. A
123. B
124. A
125. B
D
D
C
C
D
C
C
B
A
A
B
A
C
C
B
D
B
D
B
C
B
C
D
A
A
D
C
D
B
C
A
B
C
D
C
A
A
D
D
B
C
C
Page 130
Exam 11
functional or physiologic
changes in the body that result
from various disease processes?
B. Anatomic pathology
C. Clinical reasoning
D. Pathophysiology
2. Which is the process of
breaking down substances and
releasing energy?
A. Catabolism
B. Assessment
C. Exchange
D. Reversible reaction
3. What is one of the most
abundant tissues in the body
that binds together other
tissues?
A. Ground tissue
B. Epithelial tissue
D. Muscular tissue
4. What are the most common
sweat glands?
A. Eccrine glands
B. Bursitis
C. Apocrine glands
D. Hair follicles
5. Which bones are included in
the axial skeleton?
A. Pelvic girdle, bones of lower
and upper limbs
B. Skull, hands, ribs, sacrum,
and shoulder
C. Skull, vertebrae, feet,
shoulder, and hyoid bone
D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs,
sternum, and hyoid bone
6. What is usually the stationary

bone?
A. Origin
B. Insertion
C. Prime mover
D. Synergist
7. Which lobe of the cerebral
cortex is responsible for
detecting impulses from touch?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Femoral
D. Mastoid
major endocrine glands,
starting with most superior /
cranial?
A. Pineal, pituitary, thyroid,
thymus, pancreas
B. Pituitary, pineal, thymus,
thyroid, patella
C. Pineal, pituitary, cervical,
thyroid, thymus
D. Pituitary, pineal, pancreas,
thymus, thyroid
9. Which system includes
vessels, nodes, the spleen,
tonsils, thymus gland, and
bone marrow?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Lymphatic
C. Respiratory
D. Gastrointestinal
10. Which system helps regulates
blood volume and blood
pressure?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Gastrointestinal
D. Urinary
Page 131
11. What are the parts of the

small intestine, in order
starting with the part leading
off from the stomach?
A. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
B. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
C. Jejunum, ileum, dura matter
D. Jasmine, duodenum, ileum
12. What regulates blood
coagulation?
A. Zinc
B. Vitamin K
C. Mugwort
D. Lavender
vitamin prolongs bloodclotting time and causes
bleeding?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
14. Which means the palm side
of the hand?
A. Varus
B. Valgus
C. Plantar
D. Volar
into anterior and posterior
portions?
A. Frontal or coronal plane
B. Parasagittal plane
C. Oblique plane
D. All of the above
16. Which means inside or away
from the surface?
A. Deep
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Superficial
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is the inguinal region?

Knee
Thigh
Groin
Abdomen
18. Under what theory does

water correspond to the
kidney and bladder?
A. Yin and yang
B. Five elements
C. Ayurveda
D. Yoga
inserts on the lesser
trochanter of the femur?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gracilis
D. Rectus femoris
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where does sartorius insert?

Femur
Tibia
Fibula
Calcaneus

for the hamstrings, adductor
magnus, and the
sacrotuberous ligament?
A. Sternum
B. Occiput
C. Ischial tuberosity
humerus
22.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What type of joint is the hip?

Pivot
Saddle
Ball and socket
Gliding
Page 132
23. Which muscles attach to the

coracoid process?
A. Pectoralis minor,
coracobrachialis, biceps
B. Latissimus dorsi, teres
major, supraspinatus
C. Biceps brachii, triceps,
deltoid
D. Genohyoid, stylohyoid,
thyrohyoid
24. Which is superficial with a
medial portion deep to the
trapezius and a lateral portion
deep to the deltoid?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Biceps femoris
D. Piriformis
lateral one-third of the
clavicle, acromion, and spine
of the scapula?
A. Deltoid
B. Trapezius
C. Biceps brachii
D. Psoas major
26. Which muscle inverts the
foot and dorsiflexes the ankle?
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Trapezius
27. Which muscle should be
stretched for kyphosis?
A. Platysma
B. Pectoralis major
C. Scalenes
D. Adductors
28. Which muscle is associated

with spasmodic torticollis?
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Erector spinae
D. Iliopsoas
29. Flexing the arm is an
example of what type of
lever?
C. Third class lever
D. Fulcrum
30. What is a joint in which a
thin layer of hyaline growth
cartilage connects two bones
such as the first sternocostal
joint?
A. Fusiform
B. Synovial
C. Ball and socket
D. Synchondrosis
31. What occurs moving sideways
from the sagittal plane in a
coronal direction?
A. Circumduction
B. Plantar flexion
C. Abduction and adduction
32. Which would predominantly
have slow twitch fibers?
A. Supinator
B. Soleus
C. Deltoid
D. Biceps brachii
33. What kind of disease involves
the breakdown of tissues?
A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
Page 133

heat, redness, swelling, and
pain?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Inflammation
C. Anaplasia
D. Malignant
35. When is homeostasis most
optimal?
A. Infancy
B. Senopia
C. Adolescence
D. Senescence
36. What involves the reexperiencing of flashback
memory?
A. Panic
B. Dysfunction
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Trauma
contraindicated for irritable
bowel syndrome?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. What is maintained by the
sympathetic and
parasympathetic systems
working together?
A. Entrainment
B. Toughening / hardening
C. Conservation withdrawal
D. Homeostasis
39. What are antitussives,

expectorants, decongestants,
bronchodilators, and
antihistamines?
A. Central nervous system
medications
B. Analgesics
C. Anti-inflammatory
medications
D. Respiratory medications
thyroid medications?
A. Changes in stress level may
affect the dose
B. Avoid draping the client
C. Avoid Swedish massage
methods
D. Massage may help with
constipation
41. What is a rheumatoid
inflammatory disorder in
which spinal ligaments ossify?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Tinnitus
D. Torticollis
42.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What has a calming scent?

Saw palmetto
Bee pollen
Ginkgo
Lavender
43. What is the general

adaptation syndrome?
exhaustion
B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain
C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle
D. Increase in pain as a result of
muscle exertion
Page 134
44. What is one's opinion of one's

self?
A. Self-concept
B. Emotions
C. Behavior
D. Denial
45.
A.
B.
C.
What is subluxation?
Tennis elbow
Golfer's or pitcher's elbow
Partial displacement of
bones of a joint
D. Frozen shoulder
46. What is a lateral tilt of the

spine?
A. Kyphosis
B. List
C. Sprain
D. Lordosis
47. Which nerve is associated
with the heart, lungs, kidneys,
and the gastrointestinal tract?
A. Ulnar
B. Vagus
C. Transverse
D. Radial
compressed in the inguinal
triangle endangerment site?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Cranial cavity
D. Tibial nerve
49. What is the result of physical
forces such as compression,
stretching, shearing,
broadening, and vibration of
tissues?
C. Entrainment

massage that can be
autonomic nervous system?
A. Sympathetic activation and
stress
B. Parasympathetic patterns
and conservation withdrawal
C. Entrainment
D. All of the above
51. What includes reflexive
methods and mechanical
methods?
A. Neuroendocrine interaction
B. Homeostasis
C. Ischemia
D. Physiological effects of
massage
from massage?
B. Anemia
C. Asthma
D. All of the above
53. What uses hot vapors in a
confined area for
temperatures from 105 to 120
degrees Fahrenheit with 100%
humidity?
A. Steam bath
B. Sauna
C. Whirlpool
D. Shower or spray
for bronchitis?
A. Friction
B. Tapotement
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage
Page 135
55. Which focuses on pain and

explores the soft tissue
components of pain?
A. Cross fiber friction
B. Energetic methods
C. Reflexology
D. Neuromuscular therapy
56. Which stroke involves a slight
trembling of the hand?
A. Vibration
B. Cupping
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
57. What is a PNF technique in
which the client contracts the
antagonist to the target
muscle?
A. Direct manipulation (DM)
B. Petrissage
(PIR)
of massage?
B. Speeds healing
C. Reduces tension and anxiety
D. Improves functions of
lymphatic system
59.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is shaking or trembling?

Vibration
Percussion
Friction
Ischemic compression

sympathetic stimulation?
A. Accelerated heart rate
B. Blood diverted to muscles
C. Elimination and digestion
inhibited
D. All of the above

B. Long massage
C. Relaxation massage
D. All of the above
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which stroke is effleurage?

Vibration
Deep gliding
Percussion
Friction

friction?
A. Transverse
B. Cross fiber
C. Skin rolling
D. Circular
64. What stretching technique
involves bobbing or bouncing
during the stretch?
(PIR)
65. Yoga is an example of which
stretching technique?
A. Unassisted static stretching
B. Ballistic stretching
66. What stoke is usually
performed to end a massage?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement
Page 136
67. Which stroke would not

require lubricant?
A. Light effleurage
B. Nerve strokes
C. Feather strokes
D. Compression
pregnancy massage?
A. Light effleurage
B. Abdominal massage
D. Supine position
69. What would benefit from the
A. Sprains and strains
B. Circulatory problems
C. Infectious diseases
D. Cancer
A. Stretch right lateral trunk
muscles
B. Stretch low back muscles
C. Stretch shoulder adductors
D. Stretch hamstrings
the left shoulder, what is the
A. Shorten left gluteus maximus
trapezius
C. Lengthen semitendinosus
D. Lengthen left splenius
hallux valgus?
A. Lengthen teres major
C. Lengthen temporalis

client has low back pain,
buttock pain, and hamstring
strains when extending the
trunk?
A. Gluteus maximum
B. Gastrocnemius
D. Upper trapezius
clients with back pain and
tension?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Horizontal
75. What are the last three
SOAPIER headings?
A. Inflammation, evaluation,
referral
B. Intervention, e-mail, record
C. Integrity, exceptions,
revisions
D. Intervention, evaluation,
revisions
76. Which involves observing
basic body movements of
walking to recognize
dysfunctional and inefficient
patterns?
A. Gait assessment
B. Needs assessment
D. Palpation
77. Which tend to shorten and
increase in tension when
under strain?
A. Postural muscles
B. Mover muscles
C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
Page 137

be true?
A. The neck extensors are long
B. The neck extensors are weak
C. The anterior vertebral neck
flexors are short
D. The anterior vertebral neck
flexors are weak
and weak with kyphoticlordotic posture?
A. Neck extensors
C. Hip flexors
D. All of the above
lordotic posture?
A. Hyperextended lumbar spine
B. Flexed knees
D. All of the above
81. Where are the feet in
standard posture?
A. Heels 3 inches apart and
angle of out-toeing 8 to 10
degrees from the midline
B. Heels 3 inches apart and
angle of in-toeing 8 to 10
degrees from the midline
C. Posterior to the outer
apex of the arch
D. Anterior to the outer
apex of the arch
82. Which muscles are tight

when the shoulders are
elevated and the scapulae
adducted?
A. Platysma
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Upper trapezius
D. Lower trapezius
83.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is genu valgum?

Knee hyperextension
Knock-knees
Bowlegs
Genu varum
84. Where is the gravity line in

the back view of standing
posture?
A. Coronal plane
B. Midsagittal plane
C. Transverse plane
D. Zero position
85. What is the obtained before
performing a massage?
A. Availability for next
appointment
B. Payment in cash
C. Intake form
D. Referrals
86. What assessment involves
observing the client walk?
A. Palpation
B. Gait
C. Needs
D. Functional
forward head posture and an
increase in the cervical
lordotic curve?
B. Whiplash
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Migraine
Page 138

frozen shoulder?
A. Heat in the acute stage
B. Heat in the freezing phase
C. Increase range of motion
D. All of the above
94. What is responsible for all

yang meridians?
A. Contraindication
B. Governing vessel
C. Ayurveda
D. Marketing
89. What involves a thickening of

the muscle that provides
lateral support at the knee?
B. Iliotibial band contracture
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
95. What are the seven centers

of the Prana used in Indian or
Hindu practices?
A. The Five Elements
B. Transference
C. Range of motion
D. Chakras
90. What involves protracted

scapulae and head-forward
posture?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Scoliosis
C. Hyperkyphosis

the stimulation of
acupuncture points to
regulate chi, the life force
energy?
A. Greek
B. Indian
C. Chinese
D. Swedish
91. In polarity therapy, what are

the five major body currents?
A. Doshas
B. Chakras
C. Air, wind, earth, sun, and
moon
D. Ether, air, fire, water, and
earth
92. Which method uses a heel
line across the calcaneus?
A. Swedish
B. Shiatsu
D. Reflexology
duration of pressure on a
trigger point?
A. 1 to 2 seconds
B. 8 to 12 seconds
C. 30 to 40 seconds
D. 3 to 4 minutes

guidance on client files and
sharing information?
A. Insurance
B. Tax
C. Confidentiality
D. Business practices
A. Informed consent
B. Exploiting the power
differential
C. Right of refusal
D. Working on a minor with
parental knowledge
Page 139

code of ethics?
A. Right of refusal
B. Practicing beyond the scope
of practice
C. Sexual misconduct
D. Misrepresentation of
educational status
104. What is the issue if a

therapist mentions the name
of a famous client without
permission?
B. Transference
D. Confidentiality violation

relationship?
A. Consistency
B. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
D. All of the above

client in a public place?
was
about the massage
expect payment
D. All of the above
101. What can be interpersonal,

physical, emotional, sexual or
intellectual?
A. Informed consent
B. Boundaries
C. Consumer rights
working on a minor?
A. Parental consent
B. Contract
C. Medical advice
D. All of the above
103. Hugging a client in a sexual
manner is what type of
unethical behavior?
A. Accessibility violation
of practice

stop taking their prescription
medication now?
provider
C. Prescribe a different
medication
D. All of the above
107. Massaging a friend involves
what type of issue?
108. Who issues credentials?
A. The government
B. Associations
Page 140

A. Advertising
B. Professionalism
C. Bigotry
D. All of the above
110. What is an appropriate
interview technique?
A. Discussing finances
B. Gossiping
C. Discussing personal issues
D. Listening
caller asks if the massage
includes a happy ending?
A. Schedule an appointment
B. Call 911
A. Clarify intentions towards
clients
B. Sexual innuendo
113. How should massage oil,
cream, or lotion be removed
from a container?
A. With the fingers
B. Without touching the
product
114. What can disinfect floors,
surfaces and restrooms?
A. Warm water
B. Cresol or Lysol
C. Cold water
D. All of the above

precaution?
A. Gloves shall be worn if there
B. Hands must not be washed
after removing gloves
116. How often should
hydrotherapy tubs, steam
cabinets, shower stalls and
wet tables be disinfected?
A. Every hour
B. Between each use
C. Daily
D. Weekly
regarding equipment?
A. Check all stools and tables
for stability
B. Maintain electrical cords
C. Store equipment and linens
properly
D. All of the above
would be used to treat an
external rash?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
119. What prevents muscle
strain and overuse injuries
when used properly?
A. Gloves
B. Draping
C. Body mechanics
D. All of the above
Page 141

effleurage?
A. Symmetric
B. Seated
C. Archer stance
D. Horse stance
121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is
formed within the body from
alpha, beta, and gamma
carotene?
A. Vitamin A
B. Niacin
C. Vitamin C
D. Aloe
self-employment?
B. Flexibility
C. Keep greater portion of fees
D. All of the above
123. How much of barter income
must be reported to the IRS?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 0%
124. What form is used for
depreciation?
A. Schedule K-1
B. Form 1099
C. Form W-2
D. Form 4562
125. What is deductible as a
business expense?
A. Royalties
B. Cost of equipment
C. Tips
D. Barter income
Page 142
Exam 11 Answer Key

1. D
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. B
35. C
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. D
40. A
41. A
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. C
86. B
87. B
88. C
89. B
90. C
91. D
92. D
93. B
94. B
95. D
96. C
97. C
98. B
99. A
100. D
101. B
102. A
103. B
104. D
105. B
106. A
107. C
108. B
109. C
110. D
111. C
112. A
113. B
114. B
115. A
116. B
117. D
118. D
119. C
120. C
121. A
122. A
123. C
124. D
125. B
A
A
C
B
B
A
A
D
D
D
A
B
D
A
D
C
A
D
A
B
C
A
A
A
D
B
A
A
D
B
A
B
D
A
A
D
B
A
A
C
B
B
Page 143
Exam 12
the nature and causes of
disease as related to structure
and function of the body?
A. Pathology
B. Anatomy
C. Swedish massage
D. Metabolism
2. Which is the process of
building up potential energy?
A. Lordosis
B. Anabolism
C. Joint movement
D. Reversible reaction
3. Which is the first line of
defense for the body?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Lymph nodes
C. The skin
D. The heart
membrane covers the lungs?
A. Pleura
B. Pericardium
C. Craniosacral
D. Lavender
skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Lymphatic
D. Integumentary
6. What are the three types of

muscle tissue?
A. Striated, cardiac, and
smooth
B. Skeletal, axial, and
appendicular
C. Skeletal, cardiac, and
digestive
D. Skeletal, cardiac, and
smooth
7. Which is the "fight or flight"
nervous system?
A. Reflex arc
B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic
D. Parasympathetic
blood from the body?
B. Right atrium
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Left atrium
9. What moves lymph?
A. Ion pumps
B. Muscles
C. Gravity
D. Osmosis
parts of the urinary system,
starting with the part
connected to the renal artery
and vein?
A. Bladder, ureter, urethra,
spleen
B. Kidney, liver, bladder, ureter
C. Kidney, ureter, bladder,
urethra
D. Kidney, ulnar nerve, ureter,
urethra
Page 144

large intestine?
A. Descending, transverse,
ascending, serous
B. Ascending, sigmoid,
descending, transverse
C. Ascending, transverse,
descending, sigmoid
D. Ascending, descending,
neurological, sigmoid
12. Which vitamin is necessary
for the formation of red blood
cells?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B-12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
13. What is the relationship of
the skin to the muscles?
A. Deep
B. Internal
C. Proximal
D. Superficial
into equal left and right sides?
A. Midsagittal or median plane
B. Sagittal or parasagittal plane
C. Oblique plane
D. All of the above
15. Which body cavity contains
the psoas major?
A. Distal
B. Pelvic
C. Thoracic
D. Abdominal
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.

wood correspond to the liver
and gallbladder?
A. Lomi lomi
B. Yin and yang
C. Five elements
D. Acupressure
metal correspond to the lung
and large intestine?
A. Positional release
B. Yin and yang
C. Myofascial approach
D. Five elements
inserts on the anterior surface
of the medial border of the
scapula?
A. Pectoralis major
B. Rotatores
D. Deltoid
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where does the soleus insert?

Femur
Tibia
Mandible
Calcaneus
21. What is the spherically

shaped attachment site for
the tendons of the wrist and
hand flexors?
A. Coccyx
C. Medial epicondyle of the
humerus
D. Nuchal line of the occiput
Which group is more medial?

Abductors
Adductors
Hamstrings
Quadriceps
Page 145
22. What bony landmark locates

the proximal end of the ulna?
A. Lamina groove
B. Coracoid process
C. Pubic crest
D. Olecranon process
23.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is found near C-6?

Deltoid ligament
Carotid tubercle
Metatarsals
Medial malleolus
24. What is the functional class

of the joints between the tibia
and fibula?
A. Synarthrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Diathrosis
D. Amphiarthrosis
25. Which is a small muscle high
on the axilla?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Teres minor
D. Adductor pollicis
responsible for depression or
protraction of the scapula?
A. Deltoid and pronator teres
B. Serratus anterior and
pectoralis minor
C. Biceps brachii and triceps
brachii
D. Rectus femoris and vastus
lateralis
the proximal lateral surface of
the tibia?
B. Biceps femoris
C. Extensor digitorum
D. Tibialis posterior
28. Which group is primarily

responsible for flexing the
knee?
A. Abductors
B. Adductors
C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
extends, medially and
the hip?
A. Digastric
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Psoas major
30. What type of lever has effort
applied at a point between
the load and the fulcrum?
A. Ball and socket
C. Third class lever
D. Isotonic
31. What is the movement of
bones by action of the
muscles?
A. Hypermobility
B. Hypomobility
C. Anatomy
D. Osteokinematics
32. What is the structural limit
on the range of motion?
A. Anatomic range of motion
B. Physiologic range of motion
C. Hypermobility
D. Pathologic range of motion
33. What is temporary pain after
an operation?
A. Intractable pain
B. Phantom pain
C. Referred pain
D. Acute pain
Page 146
34.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is a neoplasm?
Cells that fail to mature
Ringing in the ears
An infectious disease
A tumor resulting from
hyperplasia
35. What is a condition in which

all functions are normally
active and a state of complete
well-being?
A. Pathogenicity
B. Entrainment
C. Health
36. What describes the vague
uneasiness when a client does
not remember the details of
abuse?
A. Degenerative
B. Detachment
C. Reenactment
D. Congenital
37. Which can be indicated for
massage at all stages, except
for circulatory massage?
A. Herpes zoster
B. HIV
C. Leukemia
D. Renal failure
38. What is an injury or disease
that is a short-term condition
that resolves through normal
healing processes and care?
A. Acute
B. Sub-acute
C. Chronic
D. Debilitating
39. What are calcium channel

blockers, antiarrhythmics,
diuretics, cardiac glycerides,
anticoagulants, and
antihyperlipidemics?
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives
40. What are the implications of
anticholinergics and narcotics?
A. The relaxation effects of
massage may be altered
B. Recommend alternative
medications
C. Stop massage if heart rate
drops below 120 beats per
minute
D. Avoid energetic massage
methods
41. What is the moving forward
of one vertebra onto another?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Whiplash
42. What is the inflammatory
response?
exhaustion
B. Heat, redness, swelling, pain
C. Pain-spasm-pain cycle
D. Increase in pain as a result of
muscle exertion
tendon sheath?
A. Tendonitis
B. Tenosynovitis
C. Calcific tendonitis
D. Fracture
Page 147
44. What is a way of coping with

stress by ignoring stressors?
A. Relaxation
B. Denial
C. Breathing
D. Anxiety
45.
A.
B.
C.
What is tendonitis?
Inflammation of a tendon
Hernia
Partial displacement of
bones of a joint
D. Full displacement of bones
of a joint

lordotic posture?
A. Normal cervical spine
B. Normal thoracic spine
D. All of the above
with the hand and wrist
flexors?
A. Ulnar
B. Vagus
C. Axillary
D. Sagittal
compressed in the popliteal
fossa endangerment site?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Sacral region
D. Tibial nerve
49. What are the relaxation
response and anxiety
reduction examples of?
B. Hard end feel
C. Reflex effects
50. What is the result of

improving the flow of energy
within or around the body?
B. Energetic effects
C. Reflex effects
D. Stretching
from massage?
A. Attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder
B. Autism
C. Burn victims
D. All of the above
52. When should hydrotherapy
be avoided?
A. Extremely high or low blood
pressure
B. Lung disease
C. Cardiac impairment
D. All of the above
53. What involves streams of
water under pressure?
A. Immersion bath
B. Shower or spray
C. Whirlpool
D. Sauna
54. What is the maximum
temperature that the skin can
tolerate for steam vapor?
degrees Celsius
C. 100 to 115 degrees
Fahrenheit or 38 to 46
degrees Celsius
degrees Celsius
Page 148
55. What is produced when

muscles are kneaded?
A. Slip
B. Grounding
C. Centering
D. Heat
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Effleurage
Gliding
Stretching or pulling
Percussion
57. Which is a Muscle Energy

Technique?
A. Touch therapy
B. Rolfing
C. Reciprocal inhibition
D. Trigger point therapy
massage?
A. Mechanical effect
B. Indirect physical effect
D. Direct physical effect
59.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is kneading?
Vibration
Percussion
Petrissage
Ischemic compression

stimulation of the
system?
A. Reduced heart rate
B. Blood diverted to internal
organs
C. Increased elimination and
digestion
D. All of the above

hastens the flow of blood
through the superficial veins?
A. Light percussion
B. Light stroking
C. Light massage
D. Friction
movement?
A. Slapping
B. Kneading
C. Gliding
D. Friction
63. Which stroke presses one
layer against another?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Fulling
D. Friction
percussion?
A. Hacking
B. Kneading
C. Slapping
D. Tapping
for constipation?
A. Counterclockwise effleurage
B. Clockwise effleurage
C. Slapping
D. Tapping
66. Which stroke tones weak
muscles?
A. Effleurage
B. Nerve strokes
C. Gliding
D. Tapotement
Page 149
67. What is a guideline for

cancer?
A. Deep pressure, shorter
sessions
B. Light to moderate pressure,
shorter sessions
C. Light to moderate pressure,
longer sessions
D. Deep pressure, longer
sessions
68. What is the eventual feeling
from applying ice?
A. Uncomfortable cold
B. Total numbness
C. Inflammation
D. Spasm
application would benefit
chronic muscle spasms most?
A. Ice bath
B. Contrast method
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
70. If a client has a flexed knee,
treatment?
A. Stretch the knee flexors
B. Stretch the low back muscles
C. Stretch the fascia lata
D. Stretch the
71. If a client has the wrist
flexed to the radial side, what
is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis
B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris
C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis
D. Lengthen vastus lateralis

restricted flexion of the knee?
A. Lengthen latissimus dorsi
B. Lengthen deltoid
on the deltoid refer pain?
A. Head and face, occipital
regions, ear, forehead
arm
C. Sacroiliac region, buttock
and down posterior thigh
D. Popliteal region and ulnar
side of arm
74. What are self care
recommendations?
A. Diagnosis
B. Suggestions
C. Prescriptions
D. Referrals
functional outcomes recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
76. Which involves observing the
client's gravitation line,
balance and symmetry?
A. Gait assessment
B. Needs assessment
D. Palpation
77. Which jump into action
quickly and tire quickly?
A. Postural muscles
B. Stabilizer muscles
C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
Page 150
78. In which muscles can tension

be felt?
A. Weak muscles
B. Atrophied muscles
C. Concentrically short or
eccentrically long muscles
D. Eccentrically short or
concentrically long muscles

the scapula is rotated so the
axillary border is more
horizontal than normal?
A. Weak serratus anterior
B. Tight upper trapezius
C. Tight SCM
D. Weak quadratus lumborum

with a posterior tilt of the
pelvis?
A. Lateral pelvic tilt
B. Lordosis
C. Sway back or flat back
D. All of the above
83. What happens when the

armrests of a chair are too
high?
A. The hips are flexed
B. The shoulders will be pushed
upward
C. The arms will not have
proper support
D. Neck and back strain

and weak with sway-back
posture?
A. Upper fibers of the internal
obliques
C. Hamstrings
D. All of the above
with the right hip joint
rotated, left hip abducted and
feet pronated?
hip adductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above

A. Left hip abductors
C. Left flexor digitorum longus
D. Right lateral trunk muscles
client consultation after the
initial greeting?
A. Determine client's needs and
expectations
B. Perform massage
D. SOAP chart
would the changes due to the
massage be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Observation
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 151
87. What causes pain in the toeoff stage of gait?

B. Whiplash
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Migraine
88. What would require treating
and stretching the affected
sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A. Torticollis
B. Tennis elbow
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Bursitis
the tensor fascia lata and
gluteus maximus?
A. Whiplash
90. What involves an increased
anterior pelvic tilt and hip
flexion?
A. Hyperlordosis
C. Scoliosis
91. In polarity therapy, what
does the left side represent?
A. Negative receptive energy
B. Meridian
C. Chakra
D. Heel line
brain with the great toe?
A. Swedish
B. Reflexology
C. Shiatsu
D. Ayurveda
93. Who was an English surgeon

who practiced chirurgy, or
healing with the hands?
A. Per Henrik Ling
D. John Grosvenor
94. What technique of
neuromuscular therapy uses
the thumb to move across
tissues?
A. Acupressure
B. Gliding
C. Tapotement
D. All of the above
95. What is responsible for all
yin meridians?
A. Conception Vessel
B. Antagonist
C. Protective gear
D. Strategic planning
A. Swedish massage
C. Shiatsu
D. Ayurveda
97. What is most likely involved
when a client makes a
decision based on whether the
therapist is male or female?
A. Hostile touch
B. Influence of age on touch
C. Cultural influences
D. Gender issues
98. What means a client can stop
treatment?
A. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
D. Dual role
Page 152

A. Misrepresenting educational
status
B. Right of refusal
C. Informed consent
D. All of the above
code of ethics?
A. Right of refusal
B. Dating a client
parental consent
D. All of the above
A. Medical advice
B. Psychological counseling
C. Other business deals
D. All of the above
boundary?
A. Border
B. Tissue injury and repair
103. What might make a client
reluctant to make special
requests while on the
massage table?
B. Business records
C. Principles
D. Body mechanics
105. Asking a professional for

advice during the session is
behavior?
A. Professionalism
differential
106. Treating an injury without
permission is what type of
unethical behavior?
B. Misleading claims of curative
abilities
107. When can what a client says
or does be revealed to others
without the client's consent?
A. When required by law
B. When required under a court
order
C. When necessary to protect
the public
D. All of the above
client needs treatment
outside the scope of practice?
A. Schedule more appointments
B. Charge more
C. Offer to provide the
treatment at no charge
D. Provide a referral to another
professional
104. Working on a minor without

parental consent is what type
B. Outside scope of practice
Page 153
109. What is an issue if a teacher

hires a massage school
student as a babysitter and
they end up getting upset
with each other?
A. Transference
of ethics?
A. Client relationships
B. Image/advertising claims
C. Insurance
D. Appropriate techniques
111. What is an appropriate way
to improve the quality of
massages, retain clients, and
get referrals?
A. Effective communication
B. Dating a client
A. Provide informed consent
B. Choose appropriate music
massage table?
foam padding
D. All of the above
114. When should sheets be

changed?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. After each massage
D. After being soiled
115. How can a table be cared
for if contaminated with
blood?
A. Clean and sanitize with soap
and water
B. Clean and sanitize with 10%
bleach solution
C. Clean with latex gloves and
oil
D. The table must be discarded
precaution?
A. Wash hands with bleach
before and after contact
with every client
B. Use cloth towels after
washing hands
sanitation?
A. Sanitize all restrooms and
bathing facilities
B. Make sure all floors in wet
areas are slip proof
C. Sanitize all equipment that
comes in contact with clients
D. All of the above
Page 154

practice?
A. Check to see if clients are
allergic to products
B. Use clean linens weekly
C. Never assist clients on and
off massage table
D. All of the above
would be used against
infection?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
124. What form is used for

employee business expenses?
A. Form 1099-MISC
B. Form 5498
C. Form W-2
D. Form 2106
brochure?
A. Business plan
B. Qualifications
C. Tax information
D. Start up costs
120. What is the observation of

body postures in relation to
safe and efficient movement?
A. Sanitation
B. Draping
C. Body mechanics
D. All of the above
121. What draping method
requires a minimum sheet
width of 80 inches?
A. Top cover method
122. What vitamin is in milk?
A. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
self-employment?
A. Control
B. Flexibility
C. Keep greater portion of fees
D. All of the above
Page 155
Exam 12 Answer Key

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. C
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. C
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. D
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. A
40. A
41. B
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. A
86. C
87. A
88. A
89. B
90. A
91. A
92. B
93. D
94. B
95. A
96. D
97. D
98. C
99. A
100. A
101. D
102. A
103. A
104. A
105. C
106. A
107. D
108. D
109. D
110. C
111. A
112. C
113. D
114. C
115. B
116. D
117. D
118. A
119. A
120. C
121. B
122. D
123. D
124. D
125. B
B
B
A
D
A
D
D
B
D
D
B
D
D
C
C
B
C
D
D
A
D
B
B
D
B
B
B
A
A
D
B
B
C
C
C
C
C
B
B
A
B
C
Page 156
Exam 13
1. Which refers to the
examination of tissues removed
from cadavers or living people
for the purpose of studying
disease?
A. Reflexology
C. Ortho-bionomy
D. Pathophysiology
2. Which is a high-energy
compound stored in the body?
A. DNA
B. ATP
C. AB
D. RNA
3. Which is connective tissue?
A. Nerve tissue
B. Glandular secretions
C. Saliva
D. Blood
membrane is the skin?
A. Molecular
B. Serous
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
5. Which bones are included in
the appendicular skeleton?
A. Shoulder and pelvic girdle,
lower and upper limbs
B. Pelvic girdle, ribs, lower and
upper limbs
C. Pelvic girdle, vertebrae, feet
D. Skull, vertebrae, ribs, and
hyoid bone
6. What bony landmarks are

processes to which tendons and
ligaments attach?
A. Fissure, foramen, meatus,
sinus
B. Canal, fossa, groove, notch
C. Condyle, head, facet,
process, trochlea
D. Crest, epicondyle, line,
spine, trochanter, tuberosity
7. What carries out the response
in the reflex arc?
A. Effector organ
B. Eccrine gland
C. Afferent neuron
D. Epidermis
8. Which is part of the endocrine
system?
A. Nails
B. Hair
C. Adrenal glands
D. Sweat glands
9. Which system returns excess
fluid and produces cells for
defense?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Gastrointestinal
D. Urinary
10. What specific type of
immunity can result from
antibodies transferred from
the mother to the fetus?
A. Innate
B. Diarthrotic
C. Active
D. Passive
Page 157

large intestine, after the
ascending colon?
A. Descending, transference,
sigmoid
B. Sigmoid, descending,
transverse
C. Transverse, descending,
sigmoid
D. Descending, fibrin,
transverse
12. What prevents night
blindness?
A. Zinc
B. Vitamin K
C. Mugwort
D. Vitamin A
13.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which means to the front?

Dorsal
Ventral
Medial
Peripheral
14. Which means standing erect

and facing forward?
A. Anatomical position
B. Supine position
C. Prone position
D. Laterally recumbent position
regions of the trunk from the
most superior to the most
inferior, after the cervical
region?
A. Thoracic, lumbar, sacral,
coccyx
B. Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic,
vertebral
C. Lumbar, cervical, sacral,
coccyx
D. Vertebral, pelvic, thoracic,
abdominal
16. Where is the distal ulna in

anatomical position?
A. Medial wrist
B. Lateral wrist
C. Medial knee
D. Lateral elbow
heart meridian from the axilla
to the little finger, and being
associated with emotions?
A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
C. Five elements
D. All of the above
18. Under what theory does the
earth correspond to the
spleen and the stomach?
A. Esalen massage
B. Reflexology
C. Five elements
D. All of the above
inserts on the tuberosity of
the radius?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Triceps brachii
D. Piriformis
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the zygomatic bone?

Cheek bone
Wrist
Ankle
Heel bone

for trapezius and splenius
capitis?
A. Lateral malleolus
C. Medial epicondyle of the
humerus
Page 158
22. Does extension increase or

decrease the angle between
bones?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Either increases or decreases
23. What is a broad flat tendon
that attaches muscle to bone?
A. Ligament
B. Bursae
C. Joint
D. Aponeurosis
attached to the thumb?
A. Pivot
B. Saddle
C. Ball and socket
D. Gliding
25. Which is deep to the upper
trapezius?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Scalenes
C. Teres minor
D. Deltoid
responsible for abduction of
the scapula?
A. Deltoid and trapezius
B. Serratus anterior and
pectoralis minor
C. Biceps brachii and triceps
brachii
D. Trapezius and hamstrings
medial cuneiform and the
base of the first metatarsal?
B. Biceps brachii
C. Sartorius
D. Teres major
28. Which is responsible for

extending the knee?
A. Abductors
B. Adductors
C. Hamstrings
D. Quadriceps
laterally rotates, and adducts
the hip?
B. Biceps femoris
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Psoas major
30. What type of lever has the
effort applied at one end and
the fulcrum at the other end,
like a wheelbarrow?
C. Isotonic
D. Concentric
31. What describes a joint with a
range of motion of less than
what it normally would be?
A. Hypermobility
B. Hypomobility
32. What is the limit on the
range of motion that prevents
movement to the point where
injury could occur?
A. Sagittal plane
B. Physiologic range of motion
C. Hypomobility
33.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is acute pain?

Pain with no known cause
Pain with a long duration
Chest pain
Temporary pain
Page 159
34. What describes a group of

signs and symptoms that
identify a condition?
A. An epidemic
B. A syndrome
C. Exacerbation
D. Systemic
35. What refers to the wasting
effect of advancing age?
A. Atrophy
B. Entrainment
C. Stress
D. Ambulatory
36. What describes the manner
in which abuse is recalled?
A. State-dependent memory
B. Confidentiality
C. Right of refusal
D. Integration
contraindicated for an
aneurysm?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. Which is a feature of
melanoma but not a mole?
A. Symmetrical
B. Borders are irregular
C. One color
D. Less than 6 cm in diameter
39. What are NSAIDS and
adrenocorticosteroids?
A. Analgesics
B. Anti-inflammatory
medications
C. Antineoplastics
medications

antiulcer medications?
A. The stress reduction capacity
of massage may enhance the
effectiveness
B. Prescribe alternative
medication
C. Advise the client to contact
their primary care provider
immediately
D. All of the above
41. How do recreational drugs
impact the hypothalamus?
A. They have no impact
B. They reduce inflammation
C. They become a constructive
subconscious habit
D. They interact with feel-good
neurotransmitters
rapid shallow breaths that
require the use of the
accessory muscles of
inspiration?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Anxiety
C. Emphysema
D. Peritonitis
43. What is the partial
displacement of the bones of
a joint?
A. Whiplash
B. Subluxation
C. Dislocation
D. Fracture
44. What are feelings driven by
thoughts?
A. Self-concept
B. Emotions
C. Behavior
D. Coping
Page 160
45. What is tenosynovitis?

A. Inflammation of a tendon
sheath
B. Hernia
C. Fracture
D. Full displacement of bones
46. What is an angular deformity
of a collapsed vertebra?
A. List
B. Gibbus
C. Kyphosis
D. Tinnitus
the radial nerve?
humerus
humerus
C. Temporal region
D. Sciatic notch
compressed in the axillary
area endangerment site?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Radial nerve
C. Nerves of the brachial plexus
D. Ulnar nerve
49. What is the result of the
interplay of body, mind, and
emotions in health and disease
processes?
B. Post-isometric contraction
C. Reflex effects
50. What are muscle relaxation
and pain reduction?
B. Assisted static stretching
C. Swedish massage
D. Reflexive effects

A. Increases ischemia
B. Increases heart rate and
pulse rate
C. Increases red blood cell
count
D. Decreases stroke volume
from massage?
B. Appendicitis
C. Autoimmune diseases
D. All of the above
53. What applies heat for
therapeutic purposes?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Thermotherapy
D. Hunting response
54. What involves the client
sitting in a tub?
A. Immersion bath
B. Shower
C. Spray
D. Sauna
55. Which stroke uses localized
pressure to break up
adhesions?
C. Tapotement
D. Vibration
56. Which stroke is effective for
applying pressure during
sports massage?
A. Vibration
B. Compression
C. Jostling
D. Gliding
Page 161
57. What is another name for

positional release?
A. Strain / counterstrain
B. Stretching
D. Swedish massage
effect of massage?
A. Promotes sense of relaxation
and renewed energy
A. Heals injured muscle tissue
more quickly
B. Relieves stiffness and
soreness of muscles
C. More quickly restore muscles
fatigued by exercise
D. All of the above
60. What is an effect of passive
joint movements?
A. Increases movement of blood
and lymph
B. Nourishes the skin
C. Relaxes and lengthens
muscles
D. All of the above
affects blood and lymph
channels?
B. Light massage
C. Compression
D. All of the above
62. Which stroke is preferred for

rehabilitation of tissue
injuries?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
D. Percussion
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is knuckling?
Effleurage
Vibration
Slapping
Tapping

petrissage?
A. Active joint movement
B. Kneading
C. Skin rolling
D. Fulling
is a slow gentle movement to
lengthen muscles when
resistance is minimal?
B. Passive stretching
66. Which is a tapotement stroke
appropriate for the face?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Tapping
D. Pummeling
from pregnancy massage?
A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Strained leg muscles
C. Pre-eclampsia
contraindicated
Page 162
68. What should massage for the

critically ill do?
A. Stimulate circulation
B. Rehabilitate
C. Sooth and add comfort
D. Remove toxins
69. What is an effect of
R.I.C.E.S. treatment?
A. Vasodilation
B. Increased inflammation
C. Increased swelling
D. Vasoconstriction
A. Lengthen semimembranosus
and platysma
B. Lengthen rectus femoris and
splenius
C. Shorten palmar aponeurosis
D. Lengthen semitendinosus and
anterior scalene
71. If a client has knock-knees,
treatment?
A. Stretch the levator scapula
B. Stretch the low back muscles
C. Stretch the fascia lata
D. Stretch the
72. If a client has the wrist
flexed to the ulnar side, what
is the most appropriate
treatment?
A. Lengthen flexor carpi radialis
B. Lengthen flexor carpi ulnaris

on the sternocleidomastoid
refer pain?
A. Head and face, occipital
regions, ear, forehead
arm
arm
74. In general, about how many
stretches should be
recommended for homework?
A. None
B. One or two
C. Five or six
D. Ten or more
test recommendations
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
76. What measures the
efficiency of coordinated
movement?
A. Exercise
B. Functional assessment
C. Gait
D. Compensation pattern
77. Which usually weaken in
response to postural muscle
shortening?
A. Slow-twitch fibers
B. Stabilizer muscles
C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
Page 163
78. What is the general muscle

firing pattern?
A. Prime movers, then
synergists, then stabilizers
B. Prime movers, then
stabilizers, then synergists
C. Stabilizers, then prime
movers, then synergists
D. Stabilizers, then synergists,
then prime movers
with a posterior tilt of the
pelvis?
A. Flat back or sway back
B. Lordosis
D. All of the above
strong with lordotic posture?
A. Low back and hip flexors
B. Hamstrings
D. All of the above
81. What happens to the feet
when the foot speed increases
from walking to sprinting?
A. The heels do not contact the
ground
B. The weight is borne on the
anterior side of the foot
C. There is a tendency for intoeing
D. All of the above

and high left, left hip
rotated, and right hip
abducted?
hip adductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
the toes are out while
walking?
A. Pronation
B. Slue-footed
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Supination
A. Right hip abductors
C. Right flexor digitorum longus
client consultation after
determining the client's needs
and explaining procedures and
policies?
A. Schedule next appointment
B. Perform preliminary
assessment
D. SOAP chart
Page 164
86. What is part of the

A. Apply heat in the acute stage
B. Apply cold in the chronic
stage
C. Treat the shortened
D. Treat the shortened SCM

heart with a point proximal to
the great toe and medial to
A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
C. Polarity therapy
D. Reflexology
87. What could cause frozen

shoulder?
A. Unrestricted range of motion
B. Painful abduction and
external rotation
C. Hypermobility
D. All of the above
92. Which is a muscle energy

technique that uses active
movement?
B. Touch for Health
C. Therapeutic touch
D. Polarity therapy
88. What is the contracture of

one sternocleidomastoid
muscle resulting in an
abnormal head position?
A. Bursitis
B. Congenital torticollis
C. Trigger finger
D. Frozen shoulder
93. What uses thermal properties

to temporarily overwhelm
sensors and decrease
sensation to a skin area?
A. Aromatherapy
B. Topical anesthetics
C. Muscle relaxants
D. NSAIDs

the hamstrings and
abdominals?
A. Whiplash
94. Who developed reflexology

based on Asian roots?
Estrid Vodder
B. Dr. William Fitzgerald and
Eunice Ingram
C. Elizabeth Dicke
D. Paul St. John
90. What is a lateral rotary

deviation of the spine?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Whiplash
95. What is the light, energetic

aspect of the universe?
A. Amma
B. The Five Elements
C. Yin
D. Yang
Page 165
96. Which Japanese massage

technique comes from a word
for finger pressure?
A. Hara
B. Kata
C. Shiatsu
D. Ayurveda
A. Lack of accessibility
B. Right of refusal
C. Rights as professionals
D. All of the above
A. Dating a client
B. Ignoring contraindications
C. Informed consent violations
D. All of the above
code of ethics?
B. Dating a client
parental consent
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Spiritual advice
B. Medical advice
C. Consistency
D. All of the above
A. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
D. All of the above

A. Power differences, space,
and clothing
B. Time and money
minor requests a massage
without parental consent?
A. Perform the massage if
another relative says it is OK
B. Do not perform the massage
104. Ignoring signs or conditions
that preclude physical
contact is what type of
unethical behavior?
practice
105. When can information
about a client be revealed to
others without the client's
consent?
A. When required by law
B. When required under a court
order
C. When necessary to protect
the public
D. All of the above
106. What is assuming more than
one role in relation to the
same person?
B. Transference
D. Discrimination
Page 166

do if a client says that
because of the massage they
are going to stop taking
prescription medication?
A. Tell the client to consult
provider before stopping to
take any prescription
medication
B. Suggest an herb to replace
the prescription medication
C. Suggest an alternative
prescription medication
D. Nod and agree with the
client
of ethics?
A. Professionalism
measurement
D. All of the above
109. What is often based on
fantasy or feelings towards
another person in the past?
B. Transference
C. Confidentiality
caller asks if the massage
includes sex?
A. Schedule an appointment
B. Call 911

action if a new client who
was asked to get under the
covers is naked and on top of
the covers?
A. Refer the client to another
practitioner
B. Proceed with the massage
C. Leave the room and ask the
client to get under the
covers
A. Sexual comments about the
client's body
B. Treat all clients equally
massage room?
A. Minimum 24 feet by 30 feet
B. 80 to 85 degrees
C. Proper ventilation
D. All of the above
114. What is the best way to
launder linens?
A. Warm water and soap
B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution
C. Cold water and bleach
D. Hot water and bleach
115. How are hands washed and
sanitized?
A. Soap and warm water
B. Bleach
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. All of the above
Page 167

from implements and
surfaces?
A. Sanitation
B. Sterilization
121. What is the minimum size

sheet for the top cover
method of draping?
A. 36 inches by 36 inches
B. 72 inches by 36 inches
C. 72 inches by 72 inches
D. 144 inches by 72 inches

precaution?
B. Cleaning of walls, floors, and
surfaces should be done
using products effective for
sanitation
122. What is a recommended

calorie distribution for a diet
with less than 30% of calories
from fats?
A. 50%-60% carbohydrates, 12%15% proteins
B. 60%-70% carbohydrates, 2%5% proteins
C. 30% minerals, 40% proteins
D. 35% vitamins, 35% proteins
118. What equipment should be

sanitized?
A. Electrical cords
B. Electrical outlets
C. All equipment that comes in
contact with clients
D. Table locks and hinges
practice regarding sanitation?
A. Use clean linens daily
B. Wash hands once a day
C. Do not practice massage
when sick or contagious
D. All of the above
would be used for symptoms
of a heart attack?
A. Antibiotic
B. Antiseptic
C. Aspirin
D. Hydrocortisone
123. What must be included in

income reported to the IRS?
A. Overhead
B. Barter income
C. Marketing expenses
D. The value of referrals
124. What pays attorney's fees?
A. Additional insured
endorsement
B. Legal defense coverage
insurance
125. Costs for what could be a
deductible business expense?
A. Barter income
B. Licensing
C. Both A and B
Page 168
Exam 13 Answer Key

1. B
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. D
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. B
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. C
87. D
88. B
89. D
90. C
91. D
92. A
93. B
94. B
95. D
96. C
97. A
98. D
99. C
100. C
101. B
102. C
103. B
104. C
105. D
106. A
107. A
108. B
109. B
110. C
111. C
112. B
113. C
114. D
115. A
116. C
117. C
118. C
119. C
120. C
121. B
122. A
123. B
124. B
125. B
B
B
A
B
A
C
D
D
C
A
C
A
A
B
A
A
D
D
D
C
A
A
B
C
B
C
D
B
C
B
A
B
D
B
C
B
A
A
D
D
B
A
Page 169
Exam 14
1. Which refers to laboratory
medicine?
A. Polarity therapy
C. Clinical pathology
D. Transverse friction

the bladder?
A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Elastic
D. Smooth
2. The bones of the skull

protecting the brain are an
example of what?
A. Histology
B. The structure of a part
related to function
C. The level of structural
organization
D. Mitosis

A. Slow heartbeat
C. Decreased peristalsis
D. Decreased secretion of
digestive juices
3. What is a flat sheet of pliable

tissue that covers or lines a
part of the body?
A. Spongy bone
B. Blood vessel
C. Lymph node
D. Membrane
4. Which system is a supporting
framework and protects
organs?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Endocrine
D. Skeletal
5. What is the quality in which
bones deform slightly and
vibrate when current passes
through them?
A. Periosteum
B. Piezoelectric
C. Cancellous
D. Spongy
8. What does the left side of the

heart do?
A. Pumps oxygenated blood to
all tissues except the lungs
B. Pumps oxygenated blood to
the lungs
C. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to all tissues except the
lungs
D. Pumps deoxygenated blood
to the lungs
9. What is the general term for
immunity not present at birth?
A. Innate
B. Acquired
C. Active
D. Terminal
Page 170

parts of the respiratory
system, starting with the
upper respiratory tract?
A. Trachea, larynx, pharynx,
bronchi
B. Pharynx, larynx, trachea,
bronchi
C. Larynx, leukocyte, trachea,
bronchi
D. Larynx, trachea, pharynx,
jejunum
15.
A.
B.
C.
D.
11. Which are types of

connective tissue fibers?
A. Loose, ground, and dense
B. Cellular, protein, and
adipose
C. Collagen, reticular, and
elastic
D. Mucous, respiratory, and
smooth

bladder meridian, from the
head to the little toe, being
associated with purification?
A. Ayurveda
B. Feldenkrais
C. Acupressure
D. All of the above
12. Which are the building blocks

of protein?
A. Amino acids
B. Glucose
C. Vitamins and minerals
D. Enzymes
13. Which means relating to the
middle?
A. Dorsal
B. Ventral
C. Medial
D. Peripheral
14. Which means lying on the
side?
A. Erect position
B. Supine position
C. Prone position
D. Laterally recumbent position
What is the thoracic region?

Sacrum
Hips
Chest
Neck
16. Where is the distal radius in

anatomical position?
A. Medial wrist
B. Medial knee
C. Lateral elbow
D. Lateral wrist
18. Under what theory does fire

correspond to the heart and
small intestine?
A. Five elements
B. Reflexology
C. Aromatherapy
D. All of the above
inserts on the olecranon
process of the ulna?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Triceps brachii
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Deltoid
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where does piriformis insert?

Femur
Tibia
Ribs
Calcaneus
Page 171

for supraspinatus,
infraspinatus, and teres
minor?
A. Greater tubercle of the
humerus
C. Cervical lamina groove
22. Does flexion increase or
decrease the angle between
bones?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Either increases or decreases
D. Does not increase or
decrease
23. What protects against medial
stress to the talocrural joint?
A. Deltoid ligament
B. Carotid tubercle
C. Subscapularis
D. Clavicle
24. Which muscle is on the
scapula's anterior surface?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Palmaris longus
C. Triceps brachii
D. Subscapularis
responsible for adduction of
the scapula?
A. Biceps brachii and triceps
brachii
B. Trapezius and rhomboids
C. Deltoid and flexor carpi
ulnaris
D. Serratus anterior and
pectoralis minor
26. Which muscle inverts the

foot and plantar flexes the
ankle?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Biceps brachii
C. Sartorius
D. Tibialis posterior
27. Phasic muscles have a higher
percentage of what kind of
fibers?
A. Slow-twitch red fibers
B. Bipennate
C. Fast-twitch white fibers
D. Fusiform
28. What is the range of motion
that could be greater than or
less than the normal range of
motion?
A. Joint play
B. Anatomic range of motion
C. Concentric
29. What is the positioning in
which the movement of one
joint moves another joint?
B. Open kinematic chains
C. Isometric contraction
D. Cartilaginous joint
30. What occurs about a sagittal
axis in a coronal direction?
A. Circumduction
B. Lateral flexion
C. Gliding
31. What functional class are the
joints between the vertebrae?
A. Saddle
B. Multi-belly
C. Diathrosis
D. Amphiarthrosis
Page 172
32. What is the type of

contraction in which muscle
shortens?
A. Concentric
B. Hypertonia
C. Eccentric
D. Isometric
33. What is example of phantom
pain?
A. Pain from an amputated limb
B. Chest pain
C. Temporary pain
D. Degenerative
34. What describes an infectious
disease that attacks many
people at the same time?
A. An epidemic
B. A syndrome
C. Exacerbation
D. Systemic
35. What refers to the
physiological mechanics of
aging?
A. Ambulatory
B. Entrainment
C. Stress
A. Arthritis
B. Strains
C. Fibrositis
D. Thrombophlebitis
contraindicated for bulimia?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is like hibernation?

Entrainment
Biological rhythms
Conservation withdrawal
Homeostasis
39. What are anticholinergics

and antiulcer medications?
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives
antidiabetic medications?
impact the dose
B. The client's physician should
monitor the dose
C. Avoid vigorous massage
D. All of the above
41. What depletes or inhibits the
natural production of feelgood transmitters in the
hypothalamus?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Recreational drugs
C. Aspirin
D. Melatonin
42. What is an inflamed mucous
membrane that lines the
abdominal cavity?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Anxiety
C. Emphysema
D. Peritonitis
43. What is caused by deficiency
of a Vitamin C?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Fracture
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
Page 173
44. What is what we do in

response to feelings?
A. Self-concept
B. Emotions
C. Behavior
D. Denial
49. What is a mind-body effect

of massage?
A. Venous return
B. Lymph flow
C. Anxiety reduction
D. All of the above
45. What causes the popping

sound of the
temporomandibular joint?
A. Tennis elbow
C. Partial displacement of
bones of a joint
D. Frozen shoulder
50. Which effect of massage

involves the influence of the
treatment itself?
A. Toughening / hardening
B. The placebo effect
C. Neuroendocrine interactions
D. Hydrotherapy

sway-back posture?
A. Forward head
B. Increased flexion in thoracic
spine
D. All of the above
the tibial nerve?
humerus
humerus
C. Pectoral region
D. Popliteal fossa
compressed in the medial
epicondyle of the humerus
endangerment site?
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Mastoid

from massage?
A. Constipation
B. Diabetes
C. Eating disorders
D. All of the above
52. What involves the client
sitting in a tub and receiving
jets of water against the skin?
A. Whirlpool
B. Shower
C. Spray
D. Sauna
53. Water at what temperature
would raise the body
temperature to a dangerous
level after a prolonged period?
degrees Celsius
B. 98 degrees Fahrenheit or 37
degrees Celsius
degrees Celsius
degrees Celsius
Page 174
54.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is Swedish massage?

Post isometric relaxation
Trigger point therapy
Rolfing
Effleurage
55. Which is best for breaking up

areas of hard tissue build up?
A. Polarity therapy
B. Hellerwork
C. Tapotement
D. Friction or deep effleurage
56. What is immune response
process of destroying foreign
cells?
A. Homeostasis
B. Inflammation
C. Vasodilatation
D. Phagocytosis
massage?
A. Increases in muscle cramps
and spasms
blood and lymph
metabolic waste
D. Reduces stress
on the skin?
A. Cooling of skin
and oil glands
C. Decreased circulation
D. Nutrition to the skin is
improved
A. Holding pressure
B. Gentle stroking
C. Light friction and petrissage
D. All of the above

stimulates the flow of blood
through the deeper arteries
and veins?
B. Light massage
C. Light stroking
D. All of the above
produces an increased flow of
interstitial fluid?
A. Light percussion
B. Light stroking
C. Polarity theory
D. Friction
62. Which is a petrissage
movement?
A. Compression
B. Skin rolling
C. Gliding
D. Effleurage
63. Which stroke is a rapid back
and forth movement?
A. Gliding
B. Compression
C. Rolling
D. Percussion
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which are strokes that glide?

Effleurage
Petrissage
Percussion
Tapotement
65. What promotes joint

flexibility?
A. Effleurage
B. Friction
C. Slapping
D. Tapotement
Page 175
66. Which is uncomfortable and

dangerous for pregnancy
massage in the second and
third trimesters?
A. Light effleurage
B. Lying prone
D. Supine position
cancer?
A. Deep pressure
B. Area of tumor
C. Area of lymph nodes
D. All of the above
cold to reduce swelling?
A. Sitz bath
B. Contrast method
C. Antiedemic
D. Vasoconstriction
69. What most likely results in
increased range of motion?
A. Ice bath
B. R.I.C.E.S
C. Thermotherapy
D. Cryotherapy
A. Shorten extensor digitorum
longus
B. Lengthen brachialis
C. Lengthen external obliques
and semitendinosus
D. Lengthen tensor fasciae
latae and longissimus
thoracis
71. If a client has over flexed

knees, what is the most
A. Stretch knee flexors and hip
flexors
B. Stretch hip medial rotators
C. Stretch left lateral trunk and
right lateral thigh muscles
D. Stretch platysma
an extended great toe, with
the head of the first
metatarsal driven downward?
A. Lengthen supinator
B. Lengthen extensor hallucis
longus
longus
D. Lengthen external oblique
on the piriformis refer pain?
arm
arm
74. What is the best way to turn
a client?
A. Feet first
B. Head first
C. Shoulders first
D. Hold edge of sheet and have
client turn towards therapist
Page 176
75. How would a client stretch

the pectoralis major?
A. Abduct and laterally rotate
the arm
B. Pronate and supinate the
forearm
C. Flex and extend the neck
D. Elevate the scapulae
activities that aggravate or
relieve the symptoms
recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77.
A.
B.
C.
Which is more subjective?

Assessing range of motion
Muscle testing
Client says they did not sleep
well
D. Pain in left lumbar when
palpated
78. What is generally the

appropriate massage
technique for shortened
muscles?
A. Strengthen
B. Exercise
C. Lengthen and stretch
D. Reduce activity
79. When a jointed area moves
into flexion and the joint
angle is decreased, what do
the fixators do?
A. Concentrically contract
B. Eccentrically contract while
lengthening
C. Isometrically contract and
stabilize
D. Eccentrically contract while
shortening

associated with a flat back?
A. Anterior tilt
B. Neutral position
C. Posterior tilt
D. Lateral tilt
strong with kyphotic-lordotic
posture?
A. Neck extensors
B. External obliques
C. Upper back erector spinae
D. All of the above
82. Where are the scapulae in
good alignment?
A. Winged
B. Adducted and elevated
C. Flat against the upper back
about 4 inches apart
D. Abducted
with the left hip adducted and
medially rotated, right hip
hip adductors
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
84. In how many dimensions
must the body be balanced to
withstand the forces of
gravity?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Page 177

A. Right flexor digitorum longus
B. Left lateral trunk muscles
C. Left hip abductors
D. Right tibialis anterior
86. What is generally the first
step in the massage process?
A. Make initial appointment
B. Perform massage
C. Update SOAP chart
D. Get referrals

shoulder with a point proximal
to the great toe and lateral to
A. Shiatsu
B. Acupressure
C. Reflexology
D. Acupuncture
92. Which increases flexibility?
A. Proprioceptive
B. Relaxation massage
C. Craniosacral therapy
D. Polarity therapy

observations during the
massage of deep muscle
thickening be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
93. Who developed a

neuromuscular approach, a
nervous or reflexive method?
A. Dr. Emil Vodder
Eunice Ingram
C. Paul St. John
D. Joseph Heller

common flexor tendon?
A. Medial epicondylitis
C. Trigger finger
D. Tennis elbow
94. What is the dark, dense,

deep aspect of the universe?
A. Yin
B. Yang
C. Marketing
D. The Five Elements
89. What postural condition may

accompany flat-back posture?
A. Torticollis
D. Hyperkyphosis
95. What is a sequence of

movements in Shiatsu?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Chakra
D. Kata

lengthening a short latissimus
dorsi?
A. Scoliosis
C. Hyperlordosis
D. Hyperkyphosis
96. Which massage system is

based on Western concepts of
anatomy and physiology?
A. Greek
B. Indian
C. Chinese
D. Swedish
Page 178
97. Where are guidelines for

sexual conduct found?
A. Tax forms
B. Insurance forms
C. Code of ethics and standards
of practice
D. Ledger
98.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is inappropriate touch?

Mechanical touch
Expressive touch
Therapeutic touch
Sexual touch

A. Informed consent
B. Violations of laws
parental consent
D. All of the above
B. Exploiting the power
differential
C. Misrepresentation of
educational status
D. All of the above
A. Contract
B. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
103. Massage or counseling

behavior?
A. Accessibility
B. Confidentiality
of practice
104. Refusing to adapt an office
for clients with physical
challenges is what type of
unethical behavior?
abilities
differential
105. What if a therapist cannot
assess a condition?
A. Try to diagnose the condition
provider
C. Both A and B
therapist treats a friend and
the friend is disappointed in
the results?
A. Transference
102. What might be occurring in

the mind of a client who does
not want to fill out a health
intake form?
A. Projection
D. Networking
Page 179
107. What if a therapist is aware

of someone practicing
massage therapy without a
license?
A. Ignore the issue
B. File a complaint with the
massage board
C. Contact the unlicensed
therapist to discuss the issue
D. Tell the unlicensed
therapist's clients
108. What are guiding principles
by which professionals should
conduct themselves?
A. HIPPA
B. Transference
ethics?
A. Professionalism
B. Tax
C. Insurance
D. All of the above
110. What if a client wants to
discuss personal matters?
A. Just listen and be
compassionate
B. Refer the client to another
therapist
C. Discuss the personal issues
D. Tell the client to be quiet
111. What is inappropriate
behavior from clients?
A. Sexual innuendos
B. Provocative jokes
C. Aggression
D. All of the above
112. What is a possible

explanation for an
inadvertent sexual response
during a massage?
A. Stimulation of nerves in
lumbar and sacral plexuses
system response
C. Influence of limbic system
D. All of the above
massage table?
foam padding
D. All of the above
114. How can linens be
disinfected?
A. Wash in hot water and
bleach and dry in hot dryer
B. Wash in hot water and
bleach and hang out to dry
C. Wash in cold water and
bleach and hang out to dry
D. Wash in cold water and
bleach and dry in hot dryer
115. What is done with soap and
water?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
from implements and
surfaces?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
Page 180

sanitation?
A. Dry hands with paper towels
B. Hang linens out to dry
C. Sterilize all entryways, floors
and surfaces
D. Commercially launder all
linens
practice?
A. Check to see if clients are
allergic to products
B. Provide safe and clear
entryways and passages
C. Do no harm
D. All of the above
redness, swelling, heat, and
pain?
A. Hemostasis
B. Inflammation
C. Vasodilatation
D. Phagocytosis
120. What is the minimum width
sheet for the full sheet
method of draping?
A. 36 inches wide
B. 48 inches wide
C. 80 inches wide
D. 160 inches wide
122. What one-page document

would include the career
objective?
A. Business plan
B. Resume
123. What is a business with one
owner and employee?
A. Corporation
B. Networking
C. Partnership
124. What would be the most
appropriate method for giving
a referral?
A. Refer the client to the
Internet
B. Provide contact information
for a friend or relative
C. Provide a list of practitioners
D. Request a fee for the
referral
125. What would be protected
under general premises
liability insurance?
A. Slips and falls
B. Malpractice
C. Marketing
D. Start up costs
121. Which fat-soluble vitamin is

found in fats, grains, and
fishmeal?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Melatonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Page 181
Exam 14 Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. A
34. A
35. D
36. D
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. A
87. C
88. A
89. D
90. A
91. C
92. A
93. C
94. A
95. D
96. D
97. C
98. D
99. B
100. D
101. D
102. B
103. C
104. B
105. B
106. D
107. B
108. D
109. A
110. A
111. D
112. D
113. B
114. A
115. A
116. D
117. A
118. D
119. B
120. C
121. D
122. B
123. D
124. C
125. A
C
C
C
D
D
B
C
B
D
A
C
D
D
D
C
D
D
A
D
B
C
A
B
B
D
C
C
D
A
B
C
D
A
A
C
C
C
C
A
C
A
D
Page 182
Exam 15
1. Which refers to the study
specific body structures such as
the nervous or respiratory
systems?
A. Endocrinology
B. Neurophysiology
D. Systemic anatomy
2. The bones of the finger being
loose to allow more movement
are an example of what?
A. Smooth muscle fibers
B. Catabolism
C. The structure of a part
related to function
D. The level of structural
organization
3. Which are fat cells?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Adipocytes
C. Mesenchymal
D. Lymphocytes
membrane covers the
abdominal organs?
A. Pleura
B. Lymph
C. Cutaneous
D. Peritoneum
5. Which system is a reservoir for
minerals and is where blood
cells are manufactured?
A. Lymphatic
B. Muscular
C. Endocrine
D. Skeletal
6. What is an opening in a bone

through which nerves pass?
A. Fissure
B. Foramen
C. Meatus
D. Synovial
cortex contains the auditory
and olfactory areas?
A. Femoral
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Frontal
8. Which system helps maintain
the body temperature?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Respiratory
C. Circulatory
D. Urinary
the lymphatic system?
C. Circulation
D. Gas exchange
10. What are crystallized mineral
chunks that develop in the
urinary tract?
A. Body lice
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Cystitis
D. Renal calculi
Page 183

large intestine, before
reaching the sigmoid colon?
A. Ascending, descending,
transverse
B. Ascending, transverse,
descending
C. Descending, ascending,
jejunum
D. Descending, transference,
ascending
12. Which chemical substances
includes sugars and starches
that only contain carbon,
hydrogen, and oxygen?
A. Proteins
B. Fats or triglycerides
C. Vitamins and minerals
D. Carbohydrates
13. Which means away from the
center?
A. Dorsal
B. Ventral
C. Medial
D. Peripheral
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which means standing up?

Erect position
Supine position
Prone position
Laterally recumbent position
15.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the lumbar region?

Loin
Chest
Head
Neck
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the popliteal region?

Back of knee
Thigh
Navel
Abdomen

large intestine meridian
beginning at the first finger,
ending in the nostril, and
being associated with the
process of elimination?
A. Chakra
B. Acupuncture
C. Dosha
D. All of the above
18. Under what theory does fire
correspond to the pericardium
and the triple heater?
A. Aromatherapy
B. Trager method
C. Touch for Health
D. Five elements
19. What kind of muscle fibers
are red, small in diameter,
with abundant capillaries?
A. Fast twitch
B. Slow twitch
C. Intermediate
D. Isotonic
20. Where does the pectoralis
minor insert?
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Calcaneus
D. Radius
21. Where is the tibial tubercle?
A. Between the patella and the
head of the fibula
B. Anterior to the lateral
malleolus
C. Posterior to the thoracic
vertebra
D. Directly medial from
olecranon process
Page 184
22. What is between the medial

epicondyle and the olecranon
process?
A. Carotid artery
B. Patella
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
23. What is the shape of
orbicularis oris muscle?
A. Parallel
B. Fusiform
C. Multipennate
D. Circular
24. What is a synarthrotic joint
in which two bony components
are held together by dense
fibrous tissue?
A. Joint capsule
B. Synovial joint
C. Synovial fluid
D. Suture
25. Which inserts on the lesser
A. Subscapularis
B. Supraspinatus
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Erector spinae
responsible for retraction of
the scapula?
A. Biceps and triceps brachii
B. Trapezius and rhomboids
C. Deltoid and piriformis
D. Serratus anterior and
pectoralis minor
27. Which muscle medially
rotates the shoulder?
A. Iliotibial tract
B. Subscapularis
C. Supinator
D. Teres major
28.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which group is more lateral?

Abductors
Adductors
Hamstrings
Quadriceps
29. Which muscle flexes and

medially rotates the knee?
B. Sartorius
C. Coracobrachialis
D. Gluteus minimus
30. Standing on one's toes is an
lever?
C. Bipennate
D. Fulcrum
31. What describes the unlocked
position of a joint?
B. Synovial
32. What occurs moving forward
and backward from the
coronal plane in a sagittal
direction?
A. Circumduction
B. Lateral flexion
C. Abduction and adduction
33. What is a disease with no
known cause?
A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
Page 185
34. What describes the increase

in the severity of a disease?
A. An epidemic
B. A syndrome
C. Exacerbation
D. Systemic
35. What refers to the process of
growing old or the period of
old age?
A. Sensate
B. Senopia
C. Sensitivity
D. Senescence
contraindicated for deep vein
thrombosis?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
contraindicated for a bunion?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. What is the tendency for
oscillating bodies to move in a
harmonic motion, or
coordination or
synchronization to a rhythm?
A. Entrainment
B. Exhaustion
C. Conservation withdrawal
D. Toughening/hardening
39. What are antidiabetic

medications, estrogens,
progesterones, androgens,
steroids, and thyroid
medications?
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives
massage for a client taking sex
hormones?
A. Blood clotting abilities may
be changed
B. Fluid retention may increase
C. Emotional states may
fluctuate
D. All of the above
41. What natural supplement is a
peptide hormone produced by
the pineal gland that
influences sleep-wake cycles?
A. Neurotransmitter
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Melatonin
42. What results in a decreased
ability to exhale, with the
diaphragm and intercostals
not able to work efficiently?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Anxiety
C. Emphysema
D. Peritonitis
43. What is a form of necrosis in
which the cartilage and
adjacent bone separate from
the bone itself?
A. Legg-Calve'-Perthes disease
B. Torticollis
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Osteochondritis dissecans
Page 186
44. What is the way the body

responds to stressors?
A. Emotions
B. Defense measures
C. Demands
D. Relaxation
45. What can be caused by
repetitive extension of the
wrist?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Pitcher's elbow
D. Frozen shoulder
46. What is pain and
inflammation from the
calcaneus to the metatarsals?
A. Torticollis
B. Tinnitus
D. Whiplash
47. Which would become
entrapped from pressure on
the back of the knee?
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Peroneal nerve
D. Coronal chakra
compressed in the inguinal
triangle endangerment site?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Transverse plane
D. Tibial nerve
49. What is a mind-body effect
of massage?
A. Venous return
B. Relaxation response
C. Breaking adhesions
D. All of the above

massage processed through
the somatic nervous system
(ANS)?
A. Neuromuscular mechanisms
B. Hyperstimulation analgesia
C. Reduction of impingement
D. All of the above
A. Increases ischemia
B. Decreases heart rate and
pulse rate
count
D. Pain reduction
from massage?
A. Appendicitis
B. Anemia
C. Cardiac arrest
D. All of the above
53. What uses hot air from 170
to 210 degrees Fahrenheit
with 10% to 20% humidity?
A. Steam bath
B. Sauna
C. Whirlpool
D. Shower or spray
54. What is the concept that the
suppression of emotions
causes muscular tension?
A. The invisible body and mind
B. Character armor
C. Body-centered therapy
D. Denial
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Kneading
Gliding
Cupping
Page 187
56. What is the name for the

widening of the blood vessels?
A. Hemostasis
B. Inflammation
C. Vasodilatation
D. Phagocytosis
61. Which is an effleurage

movement?
A. Compression
B. Skin rolling
C. Gliding
D. Petrissage
57. What is a proprioceptive

(PNF) technique that uses
active movement to lengthen
the muscle?
A. Transverse friction
B. Petrissage
(PIR)
62. Which is a push and release

movement?
A. Rocking
B. Compression
C. Wringing
D. Percussion
58. What creates a pumping

action that moves blood and
lymph?
A. Petrissage
B. Kneading
C. Compression
D. All of the above
stimulation of the
system?
attentive
D. Reduced heart rate
stimulates the flow of blood
through the deeper arteries
and veins?
B. Light stroking
C. Deep stroking
D. All of the above

for treating a golfer with a
sore arm?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
D. Percussion
64. Variations of which stroke
includes one handed, the "C"
hand position, and the "V"
hand position?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Percussion
D. Tapotement
65. What is contraction with
joint movement?
D. Palpation
a pregnant client?
A. Effleurage
B. Feather stroking
C. Gliding
D. Tapotement
Page 188

cancer?
A. Deep pressure
B. Polarity therapy
C. Reiki
D. All of the above
68. What initially induces
vasoconstriction?
A. Whirlpool bath
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
69. What does
strain/counterstrain use?
A. Trigger points
B. Vibration
C. Slapping
D. Tapping
overactive if a client has pain
in the low back, buttocks,
sacroiliac joint, lateral knee,
and anterior knee?
splenius capitis
B. Adductors, tensor fasciae
latae, and quadratus
lumborum
C. Erector spinae, psoas, and
rectus abdominis
lumborum

A. Lengthen rectus femoris and
quadratus lumborum
B. Lengthen internal obliques
and semimembranosus
C. Shorten peroneus longus and
soleus
decreased overhead range of
motion in flexion and
abduction of the shoulder?
A. Lengthen tibialis anterior
B. Lengthen lower fibers of
pectoralis major
C. Lengthen serratus anterior
D. Lengthen biceps brachii
the thigh in a position of
abduction and medial
rotation, with a lateral pelvic
tilt?
A. Lengthen gluteus minimus
C. Lengthen occipitofrontalis
D. Lengthen biceps femoris
on tensor fasciae latae refer
pain?
A. Posterior axillary area,
arm
arm
leg
arm
Page 189

the patient's response to the
massage documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan

strong with kyphotic-lordotic
posture?
A. Neck flexors
B. Hip flexors
C. Sartorius and vastus medialis
D. All of the above
76. Where is the place for a

massage therapist to report
functional outcomes?
A. Diagnosis
B. Gross income
C. Assessment
D. Prescription
81. Where does the standard

side-view line of reference
through the lower extremities
pass?
A. Posterior to the cervical
region
B. Anterior to the outer
apex of the arch
C. Posterior to the center of
the hip joint and anterior to
the axis of the knee joint
D. Anterior to the center of
brachial region

that requires the therapist to
move the relaxed client?
D. Range of motion
the antagonists do?
lengthening
stabilize
D. Eccentrically contract while
shortening
associated with a normal
anterior curve of the low
back?
A. Anterior tilt
B. Neutral position
C. Posterior tilt
D. Lateral tilt

hip adductors
posterior
C. Right brachialis and right
pectoralis minor
D. All of the above
the ankle rolls in?
A. Pronation
B. Knock-knees
C. Bowlegs
D. Supination
Page 190

the left leg flexors?
against therapist's
against therapist's
C. Client holds left leg position
against therapist's
throwing sports such as
baseball?
B. Whiplash
C. Torticollis
D. Rotator cuff tendinitis
common flexor tendon?
A. Tennis elbow
B. Golfer's elbow
C. Lateral epicondylitis
D. Trigger finger
87. What is a symptom of frozen
shoulder?
A. Restricted range of motion
external rotation
C. Hypomobility
D. All of the above
89. What postural condition may

accompany sway-back
posture?
A. Torticollis
D. Hyperkyphosis
90. What involves a posterior
pelvic tilt and tight
abdominals and hamstrings?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
91. What method is for the
purpose of locating blocked
energy and releasing it?
A. Ortho-bionomy
D. Polarity therapy
sinuses with the four lateral
toes?
A. Shiatsu
B. Reflexology
C. Swedish
D. Ayurveda
93. Which uses scented oils and
lotions?
A. Aromatherapy
C. Therapeutic touch
D. Polarity therapy
88. What is a painful unilateral

shortening or spasm of neck
muscles resulting in an
abnormal head position?
A. Tendonitis
B. Acute acquired torticollis
C. Lordosis
D. Frozen shoulder
Page 191
94. Who developed

neuromuscular therapy, a soft
tissue approach?
A. Dr. Emil Vodder
Eunice Ingram
C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley
Leif
D. Joseph Heller
95. What NMT technique can be
active or passive?
B. Skin rolling
C. Stretching
D. All of the above
96. Which was developed in
India?
A. Ayurveda
B. Shiatsu
C. Amma
D. Acupressure
97. What refers to keeping
information private?
A. Dual role
C. Confidentiality
D. Transference

code of ethics?
differential
B. Misrepresentation of
educational status
C. Consistency
D. Financial impropriety
relationship?
A. Spiritual advice
C. Other business deals
boundary?
A. Lines that separate
B. Limits
103. What occurs when a person
has uncomfortable feelings
and projects them onto
another person?
B. Projection
D. Body mechanics
98. What are classifications of

touch technique?
A. Mechanical or expressive
touch
B. Self-employed or employee
C. Symmetric or asymmetric
D. Sexual or erotic touch
104. Watching a client undress is

what type of behavior?
A. Unethical

B. Confidentiality
C. Not working on
contraindicated areas
D. All of the above
105. What is treating a person

unfairly due to race, gender
or ethnicity?
B. Transference
D. Discrimination
Page 192

client in the grocery store?
was
B. Ask when the therapist can
expect payment
C. Do not bring up anything
about the massage
D. All of the above
107. What is legislation that
involves the security and
privacy of health
information?
A. HIPPA
B. Code of Ethics
C. Standards of Practice
D. All of the above
108. What is an issue if a client
asks for a recommendation
on prescription medication?
A. Transference
A. Socializing
B. Group affiliation
110. Who might require a permit
for a business operated from
a home?
A. Local governments
B. Professional massage
associations
111. What is a barrier if a

comment about a client's
tense muscles resulted in the
client feeling put down and
humiliated?
A. Fee structure
B. Communication
C. Safety practices
D. Clinical reasoning
112. What is unethical behavior
from therapists in a
professional relationship?
A. Sexual pleasures
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Being involved in a sexual
manner
D. All of the above
massage room?
B. 72 to 74 degrees
C. Soothing music
D. All of the above
114. How can be used as a rinse
to sanitize the hands?
A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution
B. Bleach
115. What is nearly as effective
as sterilization but does not
destroy bacterial spores?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
Page 193
116. What must be freshly

laundered and sanitary?
A. Top cover only
B. Table cover only
C. Any material coming in
contact with the client's skin
sanitation?
A. Maintain handwashing
facilities with bleach
B. Wash linens in cold water
C. Maintain handwashing
facilities with germicidal
soap
D. All of the above
the bread, cereal, rice, and
pasta group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 1 to 2 servings
C. 3 to 4 servings
D. 6 to 11 servings
self-employment?
B. Responsible for own taxes
C. Must pay for own facilities
and supplies
D. All of the above
120. Who files tax forms for an
independent contractor?
A. The independent contractor
B. The employer
C. The IRS
121. When is revenue from a gift

certificate reportable as
income?
A. When it is redeemed
B. When the buyer uses it for a
gift
C. When it is purchased
D. When it is barter income
122. What is a company with two
or more persons with
ownership and personal
liability?
A. Corporation
B. Networking
C. Partnership
123. What describes the goals
and purpose of a business?
A. Mission statement
B. Resume
124. Which protects against
malpractice?
A. Liability insurance
B. Life insurance
C. Health insurance
D. Flood insurance
125. What is keeping track of
income and expenses and
verifying credentials an
example of?
A. Licensing
B. Tax
C. Marketing
D. Management
Page 194
Exam 15 Answer Key

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. A
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. B
31. D
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. D
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. D
86. B
87. D
88. B
89. D
90. D
91. D
92. B
93. A
94. C
95. C
96. A
97. C
98. A
99. A
100. C
101. D
102. C
103. B
104. C
105. D
106. C
107. A
108. D
109. C
110. A
111. B
112. D
113. D
114. A
115. B
116. C
117. C
118. D
119. D
120. A
121. C
122. C
123. A
124. A
125. D
D
B
A
C
C
A
B
D
B
B
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
A
C
A
C
B
B
D
A
D
A
B
A
B
A
C
B
C
C
B
B
B
C
B
A
C
Page 195
Exam 16
1. What is knowing something
without going through a
conscious process of thinking?
A. Centering
B. Art
C. Hypothesis
D. Intuition
2. What is an example of how
the structure of a part is
related to its function?
A. Thin air sacs in lung move
oxygen rapidly
B. Catabolism
C. Exercise physiology
D. Dissection
3. Which is the packaging center
of the cell?
A. Nervous tissue
B. Infra-hyoid
C. Reticular fibers
D. Golgi apparatus or complex
membrane lines a body cavity
that opens directly to the
exterior?
A. Mucous
B. Striated
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
5. Which system includes bones,
ligaments, tendons, and joints?
A. Nervous
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Lymphatic
D. Integumentary
6. What is a tunnel or canal

within a bone?
A. Connective tissue
B. Foramen
C. Meatus
D. Sinus
cortex is responsible for visual
reception?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Frontal
8. Which system controls growth?
A. Endocrine
B. Cardiovascular
C. Lymphatic
D. Reproductive
9. What happens in systemic
circulation?
A. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
and picks up oxygen
B. Blood unloads oxygen and
picks up carbon dioxide
C. Blood unloads carbon dioxide
and oxygen
D. Blood picks up oxygen and
carbon dioxide
10. What specific type of
immunity is produced when an
individual is exposed to a
foreign organism?
A. Innate
B. Pandemic
C. Active
D. Passive
Page 196
11. If the ovum lives for about 72

hours and the sperm live for
about 48 hours, how long is
the fertile period?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 120 hours
12. Which are essential nutrients
that can serve as coenzymes
or cofactors in an essential
metabolic process?
A. Vitamins and minerals
B. Proteins
C. Fats or triglycerides
D. Carbohydrates

heart constrictor meridian
beginning at the thorax,
ending at the middle finger,
and being associated with
circulation?
A. Shiatsu
B. Reflexology
C. Aromatherapy
D. All of the above
18. Which chakra is located
between the eyebrows?
A. Patellar
B. Frontal
C. Deltoid
D. Cervical
13. Which means toward the tail

or posterior?
A. Cephalad
B. Caudad
C. Plantar
D. Volar
19. Where does the pectoralis

major insert?
A. Scapula
B. Calcaneus
C. Humerus
D. Radius
14. Which means lying face

down?
A. Erect
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Laterally recumbent
20. Where is the pes anserinus?

A. Distal to the mandible
B. Anterior to the lateral
malleolus
C. Medial to the tibial
tuberosity
D. Posterior to the skull
15.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the cervical region?

Sacrum
Loin
Chest
Neck
16. In which cavity does the

spinal cord lie?
A. Vertebral
B. Caudal
C. Thoracic
D. Pelvic

the external surface of the
ilium and inserts at the
greater trochanter?
A. Rhomboids
B. Deltoid
C. Gluteus medius
D. Piriformis
Page 197
22. What classification of joint

has a cavity with fluid?
A. Fibrous
B. Connective
C. Synovial
D. Cartilaginous
23. Which muscle abducts the
shoulder?
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Semimembranosus
24. Which is an action of teres
minor?
A. Abduct the leg
C. Adduct the shoulder
D. Flex the knee
25. Which muscle inserts at the
last rib and the transverse
processes of the first through
fourth lumbar vertebrae?
A. Trapezius
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
26. Which muscle contracts for
abdominal inhalation?
A. Platysma
B. Diaphragm
C. Internal costals
D. External costals
27. Which muscle dorsiflexes the
ankle and inverts the foot?
B. Brachialis
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Deltoid
28. Lifting the head is an

lever?
C. Isometric
D. Fulcrum
29. What describes the locked
position of a joint?
B. Fusiform
30. What is a fibrous joint that
joins bones with a ligament,
cord, or membrane, such as
the joint of the tibula and
fibula?
A. Syndesmosis
B. Synovial
C. Isotonic
D. Unipennate
31. What is the movement of the
scapula an example of?
A. Circumduction
B. Lateral flexion
C. Gliding
shape of the stylohyoid
muscle?
A. Parallel
B. Multi-belly
C. Diathrosis
D. Circular
33. What kind of disease is a
caused by molds or yeast?
A. Degenerative
B. Fungal
C. Idiopathic
D. Congenital
Page 198
34. What refers to the body as a

whole?
A. Infectious
B. Bacterial
C. Viral
D. Systemic
35. What is a stimulus that
causes a psychological
imbalance?
A. Homeostasis
B. Entrainment
C. Stress
36. What arrangements would be
needed for a client with
cystitis?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Aromatherapy
C. Barrier free access
D. Frequent bathroom breaks
contraindicated for a cyst?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. What are antibodies,
antivirals, antifungals,
anthelmintics, scabicides, and
pediculicides?
A. Natural supplements
C. Hormones
D. Anti-infectives

steroids?
impact the dose
B. The client's physician should
monitor the dose
C. Avoid massage methods that
may produce inflammation
D. All of the above
40. What do depressants such as
alcohol block?
A. Neurotransmitters and beta
blockers
B. Dopamine and
norepinephrine
C. Norepinephrine and
melatonin
D. Melatonin and lavender
41. What kind of fracture is a
break that does not go across
the entire bone?
A. Incomplete fracture
B. Compound fracture
C. Topical
D. Open fracture
42. What is also known as
ischemic necrosis in which the
blood supply to a bone is
diminished or cut off?
A. Malignant neoplasia
B. Scheuermann's disease
C. Osteonecrosis
D. Hepatitis B
43. What is the reaction to
repeated exposure to stimuli
that explains the autonomic
reaction to massage?
A. Inflammation
B. Toughening / hardening
C. Biological rhythm
D. Homeostasis
Page 199
44. What involves the reexperiencing of flashback

memory or state-dependent
memory?
A. Posttraumatic stress disorder
B. Trauma
C. Integration
D. Denial
49. What are muscle relaxation,

increased mental clarity, pain
reduction, and normalizing
system function examples of?
B. Active joint movements
C. Reflexive effects
D. Muscle energy techniques
45. What is the third stage of the

B. Visceral pain
C. Alarm reaction
D. Exhaustion reaction
50. Which refers to healing

energy and the subtle energy
fields around the body?
A. Biofields or energetic
methods
B. Valid research
C. Science
D. General adaptation
syndrome
46. What is jock itch?

A. Tennis elbow
to tilt
C. Frozen shoulder
D. Tinea cruris
sartorius, adductor longus,
and the inguinal ligament?
humerus
B. Cranial cavity
C. Inguinal triangle
D. Popliteal fossa
48. Which endangerment site
includes the aorta?
A. Area of the sternal notch and
anterior throat
B. Umbilicus area
C. Twelfth rib, dorsal body
D. Oblique plane

from massage?
A. Injuries
B. Insomnia
C. Low back pain
D. All of the above
52. What is a name for hot
packs?
A. Empty end feel
B. Fomentations
C. Baths
D. Wraps
53. What are increased blood
flow, increased metabolism,
reduced pain, and increased
range of motion effects of?
A. Tonic friction
B. Heat
C. Cold
D. Ice
Page 200
54. What is an example of

cryotherapy?
A. Contrasting hot and cold
applications
B. Application of heat
C. Ice massage
D. Immersion

system?
B. 15-minute chair massage
C. Longer, relaxing massage
D. Percussion
55. Which establishes a boundary

between the therapist and the
client?
A. Compression
B. Grounding
C. Effleurage
D. Petrissage

A. Reduces hyperthermia
C. Increases systolic stroke
volume
formation
56.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is petrissage?
Cupping
Kneading
Gliding

for the mandibular region?
A. Circular friction
B. Cupping
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
effect of massage?
A. Reduces aversion to touch
for sexual abuse victims
B. Slapping
C. Shaking
D. All of the above
62. Which is a shaking or

trembling movement?
A. Vibration
B. Compression
C. Kneading
D. Percussion
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is not effleurage?

Superficial gliding
Deep gliding
Kneading
Aura stroking
64. What stretching technique is

not recommended due to the
possibility of muscle strain or
tear?
A. Unassisted static stretching
B. Ballistic stretching
(PIR)
65. What is most appropriate for
reducing blood pressure?
A. Effleurage
B. Friction
C. Slapping
D. Tapotement
Page 201

B. Slow, gentle strokes
C. Methods that stimulate
circulation
D. Energy work
cancer?
A. Deep pressure
B. Scar massage 4 to 6 weeks
after surgery with doctor
approval
C. Reiki
D. All of the above
application would improve
circulation most?
A. Ice bath
B. Contrast method
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What treats trigger points?

Strain/counterstrain
Percussion
Slapping
Tapping

A. Stretch SCMs
B. Stretch low back muscles
C. Stretch left lateral thigh
muscles

arm pain and a depressed
coracoid process of the
scapula?
A. Lengthen pectoralis major
B. Lengthen pectoralis minor
C. Lengthen pronator teres
D. Lengthen triceps brachii
dorsiflexion of the ankle joint,
with inversion of the foot?
A. Lengthen flexor digitorum
longus
longus
73. Which muscles is weak if a
client has achilles tendinitis
and pain behind the knee
when flexing the knee?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Quadratus lumborum
C. Psoas
D. Hamstrings
on latissimus dorsi refer pain?
arm
leg
arm
75. What is the development of
relationship based on mutual
trust and harmony?
A. Rapport
B. Care plan
C. Assessment
D. Palpation
Page 202

the short-term goals based on
the activities of daily living
recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77. What is a desired result
following a massage after
identifying short tissues?
A. Functional assessment
B. Muscle testing
C. Lengthen and stretch tight
areas
D. Compression
the prime mover and
synergists do?
lengthening
stabilize
D. Repair injured cells
elongated and weak?
A. Neck flexors
B. Neck extensors
C. Lateral rotators of flexed
knee
D. Temporalis and soleus
80. What is natural when
standing barefoot?
A. Slight in-toeing
C. Parallel
D. Outward rotating

likely elongated and weak?
A. Arm flexors
B. Hamstrings
C. Abdominals
D. Hip flexors
the feet, what happens with a
low metatarsal arch?
A. Flat foot
B. Slue-footed
C. Pigeon-toed
D. Calluses under ball of foot
A. Right peroneus longus and
brevis
B. Temporalis
C. Transverse abdominis
D. Left peroneus longus and
brevis
left and right hip abductors
B. Deltoid and trapezius
longus
D. All of the above
85. What is generally the next
step in a massage session after
performing the massage?
A. Obtain informed consent
client records
C. Get referrals
D. Medical history forms
Page 203
86. What inflammation of a

bursa caused by overuse of
surrounding structures?
A. Trigger finger
C. Tennis elbow
D. Bursitis
92. Which is based on a balance

flow of energy as an important
element for a healthy body?
A. Polarity therapy
D. Myofascial release
87. What could cause frozen

shoulder?
A. Intrinsic muscle trauma
B. Trigger points in
subscapularis
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. All of the above
93. Who developed a method

that uses trigger points?
A. Dr. Emil and Dr. Estrid
Vodder
Eunice Ingram
C. Boris Chaitow and Stanley
Leif
D. Janet Travel

involves compression of the
brachial plexus and its artery?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Bursitis
C. Torticollis
89. What is treated by focusing
on the muscle that provides
lateral support at the knee?
flat-back posture?
A. Weak abdominals
B. Tight hamstrings
D. All of the above
91. Which is a structural and
postural integration approach?
A. Reflexology
D. Ayurveda

many of the Swedish
movements?
A. Chinese
B. English
C. Greek
D. Indian
included anatripsis, the art of
rubbing a body part upward?
A. Chinese
B. French
C. Greek
D. German
96. What NMT technique involves
digital pressure directly into a
trigger point?
B. Skin rolling
C. Stretching
D. All of the above
Page 204

guidance on insurance and
accounting?
A. Communication
B. Legal and Ethical
Requirements
C. Confidentiality
D. Business practices
102. Doing spinal adjustments

behavior?
B. Confidentiality
of practice
98. What is an agreement to

participate in an activity after
the purpose has been
explained?
A. Code of ethics
B. Informed consent
C. Marketing
103. Hugging a client in a sexual

manner is what type of
behavior?
A. Unethical

A. Informed consent
B. Confidentiality
parental consent
D. All of the above
A. Rights as professionals
B. Contract
C. Right of refusal
101. What might explain a
therapist taking on symptoms
and conditions experienced
by clients?
A. Excessive permeable
boundary
B. Passive range of motion
D. Networking
104. Using a provocative picture

in a brochure is what type of
unethical behavior?
abilities
stop their medical treatment
now?
A. Tell the client it is OK to
stop the medical treatment
provider
C. Prescribe a different medical
treatment
Page 205

therapist agrees to trade
massages for taking care of a
pet, then the pet is injured?
A. Scope of practice
C. Transference

boundary violation?
A. Sexual comments about the
client's body
B. Sexual jokes
C. Failure to ensure a client's
privacy
D. All of the above

the state government level
rather than the local
government level?
A. Licensing requirements

A. Sexual arousal
B. Inform clients of their rights
108. What supports professional

ethics?
B. Continuing education
therapist gets angry because
a client complains about
personal problems?
A. Transference
C. Boundaries
110. What is more important
during the pre-massage
interview if a client felt
treated as an object while
filling out forms in the
waiting room?
C. Laws and regulations
D. Sincere and clear
communication
113. What is the main factor in

determining the proper
height of the massage table?
A. Therapist's height
B. Client's height
C. Therapist's experience
D. All of the above
114. How can electrodes and
implements be sanitized?
A. Warm water
B. 70% ethyl alcohol solution
C. Cold water
D. All of the above
115. What is the secondary
infection precaution?
A. Hand washing with 10%
bleach
B. Hanging linens out to dry
C. Use of latex gloves
D. Washing linens in cold water
Page 206

safety practice?
A. Use proper body mechanics
B. Maintain first aid and CPR
certification
C. Give contact information to
an associate when leaving to
perform in-house massage
D. All of the above
117. What is the first step when
responding to a first aid
emergency?
A. Call 911
B. Check the scene and the
victim
C. Provide care for the victim
D. Stop the bleeding
A. Hyperextend the wrist
B. Use the forearms and elbows
for deep pressure
C. Use the heel of the hand for
deep pressure
D. Stay on top of the massage
movement rather than in
front
119. In which stance is the
therapist facing the massage
table with the toes in a line,
pointed forward?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
C. Symmetric
D. Laterally recumbent

draping?
A. Warmth
B. Modesty
C. Comfort
D. All of the above
122. Which vitamin can be
synthesized by the body?
A. Ginseng
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
Schedule K-1 of Form 1065-B?
A. Sole proprietor's income or
loss
B. Partner's share of income or
loss
C. Corporation's income or loss
D. Deductible expenses
124. What is similar to a
corporation but with the
partners having limited
personal liability?
A. S Corporation
B. Partnership
C. Sole proprietorship
D. LLC
125. What are systems of mass
communication?
B. Business cards
C. Resumes
D. Media

deep effleurage?
A. Asymmetric
B. Seated
D. Symmetric
Page 207
Exam 16 Answer Key

1. D
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. D
39. D
40. B
41. A
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. D
89. B
90. B
91. C
92. A
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. A
97. D
98. B
99. C
100. D
101. A
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. B
106. B
107. A
108. B
109. D
110. D
111. D
112. B
113. A
114. B
115. C
116. D
117. B
118. B
119. C
120. A
121. D
122. C
123. B
124. D
125. D
B
A
D
D
C
B
C
A
D
B
B
C
B
C
A
A
A
C
C
A
C
B
A
C
A
B
A
C
B
D
D
D
A
C
C
A
A
B
D
D
A
C
Page 208
Exam 17
1. What is the intellectual
process of using all resources
available to better understand
and predict natural
phenomena?
A. Science
B. Centering
C. Art
D. Marketing
2. What is an example of how
the structure of a part is
related to its function?
A. Thick air sacs in lung move
oxygen slowly
B. Loose skull bones
C. Thick bladder lining prevents
urine from escaping into
pelvic cavity
D. Cardiovascular physiology
3. Which fibers are very strong
and resist pulling forces but
are not stiff?
A. Collagen
B. Loose
C. Chakra
D. Fibrillin
membrane lines the digestive,
respiratory, and reproductive
tracts?
A. Mucous
B. Cerebral
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
5. What bone structure has little
space between tissues?
A. Compact bone
B. Spongy bone
C. Endoskeleton
D. Cancellous bone
6. What part of a muscle

attaches to bone?
A. Aponeurosis
B. Perimysium
C. Tendon
D. Belly
7. Why are behaviors such as
substance abuse, gambling,
eating, and thrill seeking
potentially addictive?
A. Reticular activation system
B. The pleasure center in the
midbrain and pons release
feel-good neurotransmitters
C. Homeostasis
D. The pleasure center in the
hypothalamus releases feelgood neurotransmitters
8. Which system produces
hormones?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Endocrine
D. Urinary
blood from the left atrium?
A. Jejunum
B. Aorta
C. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle
kidneys, ureter, bladder, and
urethra?
A. Digestive
B. Lymphatic
C. Reproductive
D. Urinary
Page 209
11. Which system controls

testosterone secretion?
A. Circulatory
B. Lymphatic
C. Reproductive
D. Urinary
12. What nutrient is a
component of enzymes
required for synthesis of ATP?
A. Lavender
B. Saw palmetto
C. Magnesium
D. Vitamin A
13. Which means toward the
head?
A. Cephalad
B. Caudad
C. Plantar
D. Volar
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which means lying face up?

Erect
Supine
Prone
Laterally recumbent

has four vertebrae fused into
one?
A. Coccyx
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic
16. What refers to movement
around a longitudinal axis in a
transverse plane?
A. Circumduction
B. Lateral flexion
C. Gliding
D. Rotation

chest meridian beginning in
the chest, ending in the
thumb, and being associated
with the intake of ki?
A. Acupressure
B. Pin and stretch
C. Soft tissue release
D. All of the above
18. Which chakra is located at
the base of the spine?
A. Root
B. Cranium
C. Umbilical
D. Popliteal
19. What is the action of a
muscle to shorten and
thicken?
A. Expansion
B. Striation
C. Contractility
D. Spasm
20. Where does the flexor carpi
ulnaris insert?
A. Humerus
B. Radius
C. Tibia
D. Carpal
21. Where is the tibial
tuberosity?
malleolus
B. Posterior to the clavicle
C. Directly medial from
olecranon process
D. Distal to the patella on the
shaft of the tibia
Page 210

the coccyx, sacrum and iliac
crest and inserts at the gluteal
tuberosity and IT tract?
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Piriformis
D. Serratus anterior
28. What are the actions of the

sternocleidomastoid?
A. Flex knee and hip
B. Assist in depression of the
mandible
C. Laterally flex and rotate
head and neck, flex neck
D. Flex the shoulder
23. What is the shape of the

digastric muscle?
A. Convergent
B. Fusiform
C. Multi-belly
D. Circular
29. Which muscles adduct,

elevate, and downwardly
rotate the scapula?
A. Levator scapula, brachialis
B. Levator scapula, rectus
femoris
C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major
D. Rhomboid major and minor

of a slightly moveable joint?
B. Isotonic
C. Diathrosis
D. Amphiarthrosis
25. What is the zebra striped
pattern called?
A. Dorsal root ganglion
B. Reflex mechanism
C. Dermatome
D. Myotome
26. What group includes rectus
femoris, vastus medialis,
vastus lateralis, and vastus
intermedius?
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
C. Adductors
D. Abductors
27. Which originates on the
superior half of the lateral
border of the scapula?
A. External oblique
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. All of the above
30. What does the tibialis

posterior do?
A. Plantar flexes and inverts
the foot
B. Dorsiflexes and everts the
foot
C. Flexion of the arm
D. Extension of the wrist
neck?
B. Rectus capitis posterior
major
C. Trapezius
D. Levator scapula
32. Which proprioceptors are
stretch receptors that respond
to sudden and excessive
lengthening?
A. First class levers
C. Synovial joints
D. Muscle spindles
Page 211
33. What is pain?

A. An unpleasant subjective
sensation
B. Hyperplasia
an internal organ
D. Endangerment site
38. What is a condition in which

the arteries become inelastic
and brittle?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Anemia
C. Hepatitis B
D. HIV
34. What means capable of being

transmitted with or without
contact?
A. Infectious
B. Bacterial
C. Viral
D. Syndrome

calcium channel blockers?
susceptible to cold
constipation
D. All of the above
35. What is a prognosis?

A. The categorization of a
disease
B. The expected outcome of a
disease
C. The observed evidence of a
disease
D. A pandemic disease

might be used for allergies?
A. Melatonin
B. Antidepressants
C. Antihistamines

contraindicated for a
hematoma?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
D. Indicated in the acute stage
41. What is a natural supplement

used for warts and cold sores?
A. Camphor
B. Brewer's yeast
C. Anticoagulant
D. NSAID

contraindicated for
gastroenteritis?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
42. What is golfer's or pitcher's

elbow, caused by repetitive
flexion of the wrist as in
throwing?
A. Bursitis
D. Adhesive capsulitis
Page 212
43. What involves degeneration

and necrosis at the head of
the femur?
B. Scoliosis
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Osteochondritis dissecans
44. What occurs as a result of
physical injury by violent or
disruptive action?
A. Conservation withdrawal
B. Trauma
C. Integration
D. Denial
vitamin would cause beriberi?
A. Vitamin A
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin C
D. Aloe
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is acute?
Widespread
Sudden onset
Mild
Long duration
47. Which nerve pierces the

psoas major muscle?
A. Greater occipital
B. Femoral
C. Axillary
D. Chakra
includes the location of the
kidney?
anterior throat
B. Umbilicus area
D. Occipital region
49. What is the result of pressure

or movement on one part of
the body having an effect in
another part?
C. Reflexive effects
A. Creates hyperthermia
C. Constricts blood vessels
formation
from massage?
A. Lung disease
B. Lymphedema
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. All of the above
52. What is a bag or sack used to
apply heat or cold?
A. Bath
B. Pack
C. Hydrocollator
D. Cryotherapy
53. What is the neurological
state in which painful stimuli
are moderated?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Inflammation
C. Slight analgesia
D. Cryotherapy
54. Which is a type of superficial
effleurage?
A. Resting stroke
B. Grounding
C. Nerve stroke
D. Centering
Page 213
55. Which is more effective

without oil?
B. Petrissage
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
56. Which uses a grasping and
lifting action to pull tissue
from bone?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Cross fiber friction
D. Tapotement
57. What is the body's automatic
response to stop blood loss?
A. Hemostasis
B. Inflammation
C. Vasodilatation
D. Phagocytosis
effect of massage?
A. Increases aversion to touch
for sexual abuse victims
B. Reduces depression and
anxiety
A. Fresh supply of blood to
muscles
B. Removal of waste products
C. Helps nourish tissues
D. All of the above
60. What is light tapping or
slapping?
A. Vibration
B. Percussion
C. Friction
D. Ischemic compression

sympathetic stimulation?
attentive
D. All of the above
62. What is reduced by massage?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Endorphins
D. Pain
A. Decreases serotonin
B. Reduces dopamine levels
C. Decreases systolic stroke
volume
D. Dilates capillary beds
64. Which is not Swedish
massage?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
C. Cryotherapy
D. Tapotement
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is not kneading?

Skin rolling
Light stroking
Lifting
Grasping
66. What is a vigorous rhythmic

movement?
A. Effleurage
B. Gliding
C. Friction
D. Nerve strokes
Page 214
67. What is the causative agent

for AIDS?
A. Herpes
B. HIV
C. T-cell
D. Kaposi's sarcoma
68. What induces
vasoconstriction?
A. Effleurage
B. Cryotherapy
C. Friction
D. Nerve strokes
69. What would benefit from the
contrast method?
A. Infectious diseases
B. High blood pressure
C. Acute muscle spasms
D. Chronic muscle spasms
muscles
B. Stretch left lateral thigh
muscles
C. Stretch low back muscles
limited range of motion in
lateral rotation and abduction
of the shoulder?
A. Lengthen rhomboid major
B. Lengthen trapezius
C. Lengthen teres minor
D. Lengthen teres major
72. What is the treatment if a
client walks with the toes out?
A. Stretch gluteus medius
B. Stretch plantar flexors
C. Stretch gluteus maximus
D. Stretch psoas
73. Which muscles is overactive

if a client has Achilles
tendinitis and pain behind the
knee when flexing the knee?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Psoas
D. Hamstrings
74. What includes all
recommendations for future
treatment?
A. Ergonomics
B. Referral
C. Self help
D. Treatment plan
range-of-motion testing
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
76. What is the limit on the
range of motion of a joint?
A. Soft tissue dysfunction
B. Inflammation
contraction
D. Normal end feel
77. What involves a hypertonic
muscle stabilizing or splinting
an area?
A. Antagonist
B. Trigger point
C. Target muscle
D. Muscle guarding
Page 215

tight, what type of issue is it
usually?
A. Muscle tone issue
retention issue
C. Joint issue
D. An issue that requires an
immediate referral to a
primary care provider
alignment?
A. The arm flexors pull upward
B. The back muscles pull
downward
C. The abdominal muscles pull
downward
D. The posterior hip flexors pull
downward
most likely somewhat
elongated and may or may not
be weak?
A. Lateral flexors of neck
B. Hamstrings
C. Muscles of feet
D. Hip flexors
81. What is the normal position
of the foot in relation to the
lower leg?
A. Slight in-toeing
C. Parallel
D. Outward rotating

left and right hip abductors
posterior
C. Right deltoid and right
triceps brachii
D. All of the above
good alignment of the knees?
A. The plumb line passes
slightly anterior to the axis
of the knee joint
B. The plumb line passes
slightly posterior to the axis
of the knee joint
C. The ankle joint is in plantar
flexion
D. Genu varum
84. Where is the center of
gravity with ideally aligned
posture?
A. Slightly anterior to the first
or second sacral segment
B. Atlas
C. Axis
D. Knees
the right leg extensors?
A. Client holds left foot position
against therapist's
against therapist's
C. Client holds left leg position
against therapist's
Page 216
86. What is not part of the

A. Apply cold in the acute stage
B. Apply heat in the chronic
stage
C. Treat the lengthened
D. Cross fiber friction on
adhesions
87. What is a treatment for
bursitis?
A. Compression on the bursa
B. Joint play for hypomobile
joints
C. Heat in the acute stage
D. Cold in the chronic stage
88. What is most frequently
painful in abduction and
external rotation?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Bursitis
C. Trigger finger
D. Whiplash
89. What results in numbness
and tingling in the lateral
three and one-half digits?
A. Trigger finger
weak abdominals, gluteus
maximus, and hamstrings?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Hyperkyphosis
C. Scoliosis
91. What type of approach is

Hellerwork which was
developed by Joseph Heller?
C. Energetic method
is given after an event when
there are no injuries present?
B. Recovery massage
C. Chair massage
93. Who formalized a myofascial
approach focusing on
connective tissue?
Estrid Vodder
Eunice Ingram
C. John F. Barnes
D. Janet Travel
94. What was developed in
Hawaii?
A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
C. Anma
D. Lomi lomi
A. Sushumna
B. Effleurage
C. Ayurveda
D. Petrissage
technique?
A. Polarity therapy
B. Reiki
C. Touch for Health
D. All of the above
Page 217

guidance on hygiene and
draping?
A. Professionalism
B. Legal Requirements
C. Informed consent
D. Accounting
102. Which duty of health

professionals is more
compelling if they are in
conflict?
A. Do no harm
B. Do positive good

words
B. Inappropriate advertising
parental consent
D. All of the above

therapist who is sad assumes
that a client is sad?
A. Projection
D. Networking

code of ethics?
A. Informed consent
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Personal needs
B. Medical advice
words
D. All of the above
type of boundary?
A. Interpersonal
B. Physical

do if a child under 18 asks for
an exception to getting
parental consent for a
massage?
A. Do the massage if a friend
says it is OK
B. Do not do the massage
C. Do the massage if the minor
promises to get permission
later
D. Do the massage but decrease
the duration
105. What is beyond the scope of
therapists?
A. Soft tissue techniques
B. Assessment
C. Bodywork
D. Diagnosis
A. Self-care
B. Friendship
Page 218

the local government level
rather than the state
government level?
A. Zoning
ethics?
A. Fee structure
B. Tax
C. Insurance
109. What is the response of the
therapist's unconscious
towards the client?
B. Transference
C. Confidentiality
110. What happens if a therapist
asks a client about their sex
life?
D. Sincere and clear
communication
boundary violation?
A. Strong interest in or
disapproval of client's sexual
orientation
B. Comments about sexual
performance
C. Conversations about sexual
preferences or fantasies
D. All of the above

A. Use appropriate language
B. Use appropriate draping
113. What keeps massage oil,
cream, or lotion from being
contaminated?
A. Remove from containers with
the fingers
B. Remove from containers
without touching the product
114. Where is the best place to
store clean linens?
A. Floor
B. Hamper
C. Dryer
D. Closed cabinet
115. What is used on surgical
instruments in hospitals?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
116. What is a system of
infection control?
A. Universal precautions
B. Strategic planning
C. Contraindication
Page 219

practice?
A. Understand paths of
infection
B. Provide safe and clear
entryways and passages
C. Assist clients on and off
massage table
D. All of the above
118. In which stance does the
therapist have one foot in
front of the other with the
back foot laterally rotated?
A. Symmetric
B. Body mechanics
D. Asymmetric
119. What draping method can
be used with a large bath
sheet towel or one half of a
full or double sheet?
A. Top cover method
120. Which helps in the
formation of teeth and
bones?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Calcium

expense?
A. Linens
B. Licensing
C. Memberships
D. All of the above
123. What is promoting a
business?
A. Insurance
B. Marketing
C. Mission statement
D. Start up costs
124. What protects against
lawsuits for claims of
professional misconduct?
A. Unemployment insurance
B. Disability insurance
C. Liability insurance
D. Property insurance
125. What is a simple way to
provide contact information?
B. Business cards
C. Resumes
D. Advertising

being an employee?
A. Keep more of fee collected
B. Flexible hours
C. Steady income
D. All of the above
Page 220
Exam 17 Answer Key

1. A
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. A
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. D
40. C
41. A
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. B
86. C
87. B
88. A
89. C
90. A
91. D
92. B
93. C
94. D
95. C
96. D
97. A
98. B
99. A
100. C
101. C
102. A
103. A
104. B
105. D
106. B
107. A
108. D
109. D
110. B
111. D
112. C
113. B
114. D
115. A
116. A
117. D
118. D
119. A
120. D
121. C
122. D
123. B
124. C
125. B
A
B
B
B
B
C
C
A
D
B
C
C
A
B
A
B
D
B
D
D
D
C
B
C
B
B
D
C
D
B
B
D
B
D
D
A
D
B
B
B
A
A
Page 221
Exam 18
1. What is not a science but a
craft, skill, technique, or
talent?
A. Anatomy
B. Art
C. Hypothesis
D. Diagnosis
2. Which are two or more atoms
joined together?
A. Cells
B. Organs
C. Systems
D. Molecules
3. Which fibers are smaller in
diameter than collagen and
join together to form a
network within a tissue?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Lymph
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Elastic
membrane lines a body cavity
that does not open directly to
the exterior?
A. Mitosis
B. Serous
C. Cutaneous
D. Synovial
5. What bone structure has
larger spaces between cells,
producing lighter bones?
A. Compact bone
B. Spongy bone
C. Dense bone
D. Irregular bone

includes the round bones
embedded in joints and
tendons such as the patella?
A. Sesamoid
B. Sutural
C. Flat
D. Irregular
cortex is responsible for speech
and thought?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Femoral
D. Frontal
8. Which system initiates gradual
changes in the body that last a
long time?
A. Nervous
B. Muscular
C. Endocrine
D. Cardiovascular
blood from the lungs?
B. Right atrium
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Liver
10. Which is part of the urinary
system?
A. Pancreas
B. Esophagus
C. Small Intestine
D. Kidney
Page 222

ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus,
and vagina?
A. Lymphatic
B. Reproductive
C. Urinary
D. Circulatory
12. What is the range of the
length of the phase of healing
in which the remodeling of the
tissue is completed?
A. Less than 24 hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 2-3 days to 1 week
D. 6 weeks to one year or
longer
13.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which means to the back?

Dorsal
Lateral
Medial
Peripheral

into left and right sides?
A. Midsagittal
B. Sagittal
C. Median
D. All of the above
has seven vertebrae?
A. Sacral
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Gastric
16. What are structures farthest
away from the transverse
plane?
A. Anterior or posterior
B. Cranial or caudal
C. Medial or lateral
D. Frontal or sagittal

triple heater meridian
beginning at the middle
finger, ending at the eyebrow,
and being associated with
protection?
B. Shiatsu
C. Swedish massage
D. All of the above
18. Which chakra is located on
the top of the head?
A. Gluteal
B. Lumbar
C. Coronal
D. Kidney
19. What is usually the proximal
attachment of a muscle?
A. Insertion
B. Origin
C. Belly
D. Spindle
20. Where does the anconeus
insert?
A. Clavicle
B. Scapula
C. Ulna
D. Metacarpal
21. Where is the iliac tubercle?
malleolus
B. Posterior to the iliac crest
C. Distal to the ulna
shaft of the tibia
Page 223
22. Which muscles are shortened

by wearing high heeled shoes?
A. Tibialis anterior and tibialis
posterior
B. Latissimus dorsi and teres
major
C. Gastrocnemius and soleus
D. Geniohyoid and stylohyoid
shape of the rectus abdominis
muscle?
A. Convergent
B. Fusiform
C. Multi-belly
D. Circular
of a freely moveable joint?
A. Synarthrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Diathrosis
D. Third class lever
25. What is a sensory segment of
the skin supplied by a specific
nerve root?
A. Myelin
B. Rhodopsin
C. Dermatome
D. Myotome
26. Which muscles laterally
rotate, adduct, extend, and
horizontally abduct the
shoulder?
A. Splenius capitis and
infraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus and teres minor
C. Teres minor and vastus
lateralis
D. Supraspinatus and
subscapularis

olecranon process of the ulna?
A. Triceps brachii
B. Deltoid
C. Trapezius
D. Biceps femoris
the hip?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Sartorius
D. Deltoid
the radioulnar joint?
A. Depression
B. Rotation
C. Radial deviation
D. Ulnar deviation
30.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is a hip flexor?

Splenius capitis
Rectus abdominis
Erector spinae
Iliopsoas
31. What type of joint only

allows flexion and extension?
A. Gliding
B. Ellipsoid
C. Hinge
D. Ball and socket
32. Which proprioceptors are
found in joints and respond to
pressure and joint movement?
D. Muscle spindles
Page 224
33. What is visceral pain?

A. Persistent chronic pain
B. Trauma
an internal organ
D. Neoplasm
34. What means caused by a
pathogen that can grow after
infecting a host cell?
A. Trauma
B. Bacterial
C. Viral
D. Systemic
35. What is a diagnosis?
A. The categorization of a
disease
disease
C. Exacerbation of a disease
D. A syndrome
for massage?
A. Lymphangitis
B. Sprains
C. Acutely inflamed joints
D. Acute burns
contraindicated for influenza?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. Which is true regarding the
goal of massaging clients with
a terminal illness?
A. Focus on the cure
B. Recommend alternative
medicine
C. Provide comfort
D. Do not grieve upon death
39. What are cancer treatment

agents?
A. Hormones
B. Bee pollen
C. Antineoplastics
medications
anti-infectives?
A. Recommend changes in the
dose
B. Avoid exposing the client to
a cold
methods
D. Do not perform the massage
41. What is the inflammation of
more than one vertebra?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Lupus
C. Spondylitis
D. Torticollis
involves a break in a bone that
does not break the skin or
injure soft tissue?
A. Ossification
B. Compound fracture
C. Open fracture
D. Simple or closed fracture
43. What is caused most
commonly by necrosis or
inflammation of a bone or disk
in the thoracic vertebrae?
B. Scheuermann's disease
C. Lateral epicondylitis
D. Hernia
Page 225
44. In general, for which client

would massage be
appropriate?
A. Terminally ill client
B. Unaccompanied minor child
C. Athlete with an acute
fracture
D. Client under the influence of
non-prescribed drugs
45. In which phase of stress do
vital systems collapse?
A. Exhaustion
B. Resistance
C. Alarm
D. All of the above
repetitive flexion of the wrist?
A. Tennis elbow
C. Peritonitis
D. Frozen shoulder
47. Which nerve emerges
through the space bounded by
the teres major, teres minor,
long head of the triceps and
humerus?
B. Femoral
C. Axillary
D. Transverse
includes a nerve under the
piriformis muscle?
A. Lumbar region
B. Umbilicus area
D. Sciatic notch
49. What are organic processes

of the body on cellular, tissue,
or organ system levels?
A. Hard end feel
C. Placebo effects
50. What are the two categories
of physiological effects of
massage?
A. Art and intuition
B. Reflexive methods and
mechanical methods
C. The mind/body effect and
the placebo effect
D. Stress and the general
adaptation syndrome
from massage?
A. Nerve entrapment
B. Poor circulation
C. Pregnancy and postpartum
D. All of the above
52. What is a wet cloth with
water wrung from it that is
applied to the skin's surface?
A. Compress
B. Pack
C. Bath
D. Cryotherapy
53. What is a bath with salt?
A. Steam bath
B. Sauna
C. Saline bath
D. Paraffin bath
54.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which stroke is skin rolling?

Vibration
Cupping
Kneading
Gliding
Page 226
55. Which stroke applies

pressure to soft tissues to
squeeze them together
without any slip?
A. Compression
B. Grounding
C. Effleurage
D. Petrissage

produces an instantaneous
temporary dilation of the
capillaries?
B. Light stroking
C. Deep stroking
D. All of the above
56. Which is true regarding the

application of petrissage?
A. Stay in the same spot
B. Start with maximum pressure
and gradually decrease the
pressure
C. Keep the fingers apart
D. Use a rhythm of about one
stroke per second

movement?
A. Percussion
B. Fulling
C. Gliding
D. Friction

massage?
B. Hastens healing
C. Relaxes and refreshes the
muscles
D. All of the above
on the skin?
A. Improved posture
B. Increased activity of sweat
and oil glands
C. Decreased circulation to the
skin
D. Reduction in serotonin
59. What is an effect of passive
joint movements?
A. Increases movement of blood
and lymph
B. Sooths the nerves
C. Lubricates the joints
D. All of the above
62. Which lifts, squeezes and

presses the tissues?
A. Deep effleurage
B. Kneading
C. Tapping
63. When is effleurage typically
B. Only at the end
C. At the beginning and the end
D. In the middle
petrissage?
B. Kneading
C. Skin rolling
D. Fulling
65. What reduces the intensity
of deep tissue techniques?
A. Percussion
B. Vibration
C. Friction
D. Tapotement
Page 227

pregnancy massage?
A. Light effleurage
B. Deep tissue massage
D. Supine position
67. What is the purpose massage
A. Bring comfort and relaxation
B. Remove toxins
C. Stimulate circulation
D. It is contraindicated
68.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where is HIV rarely found?

Blood
Semen and vaginal secretions
Saliva
Mother's milk
69. What most likely results in

decreased joint stiffness?
A. Ice bath
B. R.I.C.E.S
C. Thermotherapy
D. Cryotherapy
sway-back posture?
muscles
muscles
C. Stretch low back muscles
71. If a client has a C-curve of
the back, what is the most
A. Lengthen erector spinae
B. Lengthen short lateral
internal and external
obliques
C. Lengthen left internal and
right external obliques
D. Lengthen hamstrings

an everted or valgus position
of the foot?
A. Lengthen soleus
B. Lengthen peroneus brevis
D. Lengthen gastrocnemius
73. Which muscles is overactive
if a client has plantar
tendinitis and knee pain under
the patella when extending
the knee?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Vastus medius
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Hamstrings
74. What coordinates activities
with work equipment?
A. Ergonomics
B. Referral
C. Self help
D. Treatment plan
the long-term goals based on
the activities of daily living
recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
76. When the range of motion of
a joint normally allows 0 to 90
degrees of flexion, what is
anything more?
A. Relaxed
B. Hypomobile
C. Hypermobile
D. Tensed
Page 228
77. What is a likely

characteristic of a tense
muscle?
A. Too strong
B. Inhibited
C. Too weak
D. Atrophy
78. What change in muscle size
do massage methods usually
produce?
A. Smaller muscles
B. Larger muscles
C. Shorter muscles
D. Longer muscles
A. Neck flexors
D. All of the above
A. Neck flexors
B. Hamstrings
C. Splenius capitis and deltoid
D. Hip flexors
view?
A. Elevated shoulders
B. Medial borders of scapulae
parallel
C. In-toeing
D. All of the above

A. Occipitofrontalis and
temporalis
posterior
longus
D. All of the above
83. Which is an incorrect set up
considering ergonomics at a
computer workstation?
A. Phone headset
B. Chair has armrests
C. Monitor at or below eye level
D. Computer in a corner on a
platform
A. Posterior superior iliac spine
B. Left tibialis anterior
C. Ischial tuberosity
85. What paperwork is
completed before the massage
to help the therapist develop
a treatment plan?
A. Assessment
B. SOAP chart
C. Informed consent
D. Intake and medical history
forms
Page 229

occupations requiring
hammering or using a
screwdriver?
D. Tennis elbow
87. Which is not a treatment for
bursitis?
A. Cold in the acute stage
chronic stage
C. Compression on the bursa
D. Joint play for hypomobile
joints
88. What is a symptom of frozen
shoulder?
A. Unrestricted range of motion
external rotation
C. Hypermobility
D. All of the above
89. What refers pain down the
posterior thigh?
A. Torticollis
the SCM, upper trapezius,
suboccipitals, levator
scapulae, and scalenes?
B. Hyperlordosis
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. Scoliosis
91. What approach focusing on

connective tissue was
formalized by John F. Barnes?
A. Trigger points
C. Acupressure
92. What method developed by
Dr. John Upledger is for the
purpose of manipulating the
rhythmic flow of the
cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Ortho-bionomy
D. Polarity therapy
lavender, clary sage, melissa,
ylang ylang, bergamot and
chamomile be used for?
A. Relaxing
B. Assessment
C. Stimulating
D. Draping
94. Which early system of
massage uses anmo techniques
including rubbing, pressing,
and manipulation?
A. Chinese
B. Swedish
C. German
D. French
many of the Swedish
movements?
A. Chinese
B. French
C. Greek
D. Indian
Page 230
96. What was developed in

California?
A. Shiatsu
B. Ayurveda
C. Esalen massage
D. Lomi lomi

A. Spiritual advice
B. Confidentiality
D. All of the above

guidance on violations and
complaints?
B. Legal and Ethical
Requirements
C. Confidentiality
D. Overhead

do if a client reveals that
they abuse their children on a
regular basis?
A. Do nothing
B. Contact the child welfare
authorities where required
by law
C. Tell the client not to reveal
that information
D. Recommend prescription
medication

differential
D. All of the above
code of ethics?
A. Dating a client
B. Misleading claims of curative
abilities
parental consent
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Right of refusal
B. Other business deals
C. Psychological counseling
D. All of the above
103. Implying that attending a

workshop is the same as
having an advanced degree is
behavior?
A. Misrepresentation of
educational status
of practice
104. What relates to privacy?
B. Transference
D. HIPPA
105. What is the knowledge base
and practice parameters of a
profession?
A. Advertising
C. Boundaries
Page 231
106. What is an issue if a health

care professional loses a
client after a referral to a
massage therapist friend?
B. Transference
D. Therapist hygiene
107. What is a way for
governments to keep track of
practitioners?
A. Registration
B. Credentialing
ethics?
A. Image/advertising claims
D. All of the above
109. What occurs when client
gives the therapist gifts that
show affection?
A. Transference
C. Boundaries
110. What is advising clients of a
policy of charging for missed
appointments?
D. Proactive communication
111. What is misconduct

A. Rape
B. Masturbation
C. Inappropriate work
D. All of the above
clients if the client displays
sexual intent?
B. The therapist is obligated to
talk to the client and
intervene
massage room?
B. 55 to 65 degrees
C. Indirect lighting
D. All of the above
114. How are surfaces and
implements disinfected?
A. Warm water
B. 10% bleach solution
C. Cold water
D. All of the above
precaution?
B. Gloves shall be worn if there
Page 232
116. When must clean linens be

used?
A. For each client
B. When the linens are soiled
C. If the client requests clean
linen
D. Daily
120. Which stance has the

practitioner's shoulders at an
angle to the table?
A. Symmetric
B. Body mechanics
C. Archer stance
D. Horse stance

regarding auxiliary heating
devices?
A. Use only UL-approved
devices
B. Regularly inspect devices
C. Turn off when not in use
D. All of the above
121. What uses the top cover

method or the full sheet
method?
A. Protective gear
B. Assessment
C. Draping
D. Body mechanics

safety practice?
A. Wash hands before and after
every treatment
B. Perform within the scope of
practice
C. Give contact information to
an associate when leaving to
perform in-house massage
D. All of the above
A. Use the palmar sides of the
fingers and thumbs when
applying pressure
B. Use the heel of the hand for
deep pressure massage
movement rather than on
top
D. Avoid using the forearms and

the vegetable group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 1 to 2 servings
C. 3 to 5 servings
D. 10 to 11 servings
123. What is a limited liability
corporation?
A. SSN
B. EIN
C. DBA
D. LLC
124. What taxes is an S
corporation liable for?
A. Income tax
B. Estimated tax
C. Employment tax
D. All of the above
125. What is a component of
wellness?
A. Sleep
B. Denial
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
D. Trauma
Page 233
Exam 18 Answer Key

1. B
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. C
35. A
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. D
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. B
92. B
93. A
94. A
95. B
96. C
97. B
98. D
99. C
100. A
101. A
102. B
103. A
104. D
105. D
106. A
107. A
108. D
109. A
110. D
111. D
112. C
113. C
114. B
115. C
116. A
117. D
118. D
119. A
120. C
121. C
122. C
123. D
124. D
125. A
B
A
A
B
C
D
B
B
D
A
C
C
A
D
D
B
D
B
B
B
C
A
B
B
A
C
C
D
B
B
C
A
C
C
A
D
D
B
B
C
D
B
Page 234
Exam 19
1. What is tested through
experiments?
A. Objective
B. Art
C. Hypothesis
D. Intuition
2. Which is the sum of all
chemical processes in the body
including catabolism and
anabolism?
A. Responsiveness
B. Metabolism
C. Movement
D. Homeostasis
3. What type of tissue covers
body surfaces and forms
glands?
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Axial
D. Muscular
epithelia?
A. Heat
B. Gas exchange
C. Memory
D. Protection
5. What describes an inside bone
support structure?
A. Periosteum
B. Piezoelectric
C. Endoskeleton
D. Endosteum
6. What bony landmarks are

processes that form joints?
A. Condyle, head, facet,
process, trochlea
B. Crest, epicondyle, line,
spine, trochanter, tuberosity
C. Fissure, foramen, meatus,
sinus
D. Canal, fossa, groove, notch
7. How can massage replace
potentially addictive behaviors
such as substance abuse and
gambling?
A. Reticular activation system
B. The pleasure center in the
midbrain and pons release
C. Homeostasis
D. The pleasure center in the
hypothalamus releases feelgood neurotransmitters
8. Which system helps with the
regulation of body fluids,
metabolism, energy
production, and the
reproductive system?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Endocrine
D. Cardiovascular
9. What is the universal donor
blood type?
A. AB positive
B. RH negative
C. O positive
D. O negative
Page 235
10. Which system eliminates

waste products and conserves
nutrients?
A. Lymphatic
B. Respiratory
C. Urinary
D. Nervous
testes, penis, prostate gland,
seminal vesicles, and
spermatic ducts?
A. Reproductive
B. Urinary
C. Endocrine
D. Lymphatic
in which tissue regeneration
occurs?
B. 1-2 days
C. 2-3 days to 6 weeks
D. 2 months to one year or
longer
13. Which body cavities are in
the ventral region?
B. Thoracic, abdominal, and
pelvic
C. Thoracic, pelvic, and
vertebral
D. Cranial, abdominal, and
pelvic
14. Which means the sole of the
foot?
A. Varus
B. Valgus
C. Plantar
D. Volar

into upper and lower portions?
A. Transverse
B. Horizontal
C. Cross-sectional
D. All of the above
16. Which body cavities are
generally more inferior to the
diaphragm?
B. Abdominal and pelvic
C. Thoracic and vertebral
D. Vertebral and thoracic
17. Which chakra is located at
the front of the throat?
A. Gluteal
B. Frontal
C. Lumbar
D. Laryngeal
18. Which dermatome is located
at the skull cap, the most
superior?
A. C2
B. T1
C. S1
D. L5
inserts on the humerus?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Trapezius
D. Deltoid
20. Where does the pronator
teres insert?
A. Mandible
B. Radius
C. Ulna
D. Metacarpal
Page 236
21. Where is the greater

trochanter of the femur?
malleolus
B. Posterior to the ribs
hip
shaft of the tibia
22. Where does the sciatic nerve
pass through the hip?
A. Lamina groove
B. Coracoid process
C. Synovial joint
D. Ischial tuberosity and greater
trochanter of the femur
23. Where is the deltoid
ligament?
A. Medial malleolus, talus,
navicular
B. Cuboid, talus, cuneiforms
D. Junction between
manubrium and sternum
of an immoveable joint?
A. Synarthrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Diathrosis
D. Multi-belly
subscapularis?
A. Abduct the shoulder
C. Adduct the hip
D. Extend the leg
26. Which muscle flexes and

laterally rotates the knee,
extends and laterally rotates
the hip, and tilts the pelvis?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Serratus posterior inferior
27. Which muscles are complete
synergists?
A. Biceps brachii, pronator
teres
B. Supinator, pronator
C. Latissimus dorsi, teres major
D. Brachioradialis, vastus
lateralis
28. Which is an action of the
external oblique?
A. Depression
B. Extension
C. Lateral flexion
D. Elevation
29. Which muscles flex the first
toe?
A. Extensor hallucis longus and
abductor hallucis
B. Flexor hallucis longus and
abductor hallucis
C. Tibialis anterior and
abductor digiti minimi
D. Erector spinae
30. Which proprioceptors protect
a muscle from contracting
with excess force and speed?
D. Muscle spindles
Page 237
31. What is a joint with thin

layers of hyaline cartilage
over bone separated by
fibrocartilage such as the two
pubic bones?
A. Convergent
B. Synovial
C. Symphysis
D. Bipennate
32. What is only possible with
ball-and-socket joints?
A. Circumduction
B. Lateral flexion
C. Gliding
33. What is chest pain from a
heart attack an example of?
A. Hypermobility
B. Phantom pain
C. Referred pain
D. Denial
34. What means caused by tiny
cells that secrete toxins, eat
body cells, or form colonies?
A. Infectious
B. Bacterial
C. Malignant
D. Epidemic
35. What are signs of a disease?
A. Congenital disease
disease
C. The observed evidence of a
disease
D. Pathology
A. Contusions
B. Back pain
C. Muscle spasm
D. Acute dermatitis

contraindicated for irritable
bowel syndrome?
A. Indicated
B. Contraindicated
stage
38. Which is an aggressive form
of cancer that spreads through
the lymph nodes?
A. Actinic keratosis
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma
39. What are tranquilizers,
antidepressants,
amphetamines, and
adrenergic medications?
A. Hormones
B. Natural supplements
C. Antineoplastics
medications
antineoplastics?
A. Recommend changes to the
dose
B. Avoid chair massage
methods
D. Work under the direct
supervision of the client's
physician
used for urination problems?
A. Saw palmetto
B. Bee pollen
C. Anticonvulsant
D. Lavender
Page 238
42. What is a break in which the

bone is twisted apart?
A. Impacted fracture
B. Comminuted fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Scoliosis
43. What is a developmental
problem in which the
vertebral arches do not fuse
into the spinous processes?
A. Spina bifida
B. Cleft palate
C. Clubfoot or talipes
D. Osteogenesis imperfect
44. What is required for
physically challenged
individuals?
A. Barrier free access
B. Referral
C. Boundaries
D. Interpretation of touch
45. In which phase of stress is
the response triggered by the
A. Exhaustion
B. Acute
C. Alarm
D. All of the above
repetitive pronation and
supination of the forearm?
A. Tennis elbow
D. Frozen shoulder
47. Which nerve pierces the
trapezius?
B. Femoral
C. Axillary
D. Cranial

includes the nerves and
vessels to the thyroid gland
and the vagus nerve?
anterior throat
B. Umbilicus area
C. Abdominal cavity
D. Sciatic notch
49. How does massage support
the treatment of addictive
behaviors?
A. Stimulates the release of
B. Replaces destructive manner
of mood alteration with
constructive method
C. Stimulates the release of
feel-good hormones
D. All of the above
on the nervous and endocrine
systems?
B. Increases cortisol levels
formation
from massage?
A. Premenstrual syndrome
B. Psychiatric patients
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. All of the above
52. When should heat be
avoided?
A. Inflammation
B. Spasms
C. Pain
D. Circulatory problems
Page 239
53. Which are hydrotherapy

applications?
A. Baths
B. Packs
C. Frictions
D. All of the above
54. Which would be most
effective in reducing
spasticity?
A. Deep heat
B. Whirlpool-type heat
C. Heat pack
D. Cold
55. Which is a fast rhythmic
stroke?
C. Tapotement
D. Vibration
for removing waste?
A. Knuckling
B. Nerve strokes
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
of massage?
spasms
and lymph
metabolic waste
58. What is hyperplasia?
A. Scarring
B. Thickening of connective
tissue
C. Flexibility
D. Improved posture
59. What is the most effective

massage for reducing
adhesions and excessive
scarring?
A. Kneading
B. Percussion
C. Friction
D. Effleurage
A. Decreases serotonin
B. Reduces work load on heart
C. Decreases systolic stroke
volume
D. Decreases number of red and
white blood cells
movement?
A. Cupping
B. Kneading
C. Gliding
D. Friction
62. Which moves one layer of
tissue over another?
A. Deep effleurage
B. Kneading
C. Tapping
D. Friction
63. When is petrissage typically
B. Only at the end
C. To apply lubricant
D. In the middle
64. Which is a variation of
petrissage?
A. One handed
B. The "C" hand position
C. The "V" hand position
D. All of the above
Page 240

stroke for massaging the
intercostals?
A. Percussion
B. Compression
C. Friction
D. Tapotement
66.
A.
B.
C.
D.
How is HIV transmitted?

Blood
Semen and vaginal secretions
Mother's milk
All of the above

ice?
A. Whirlpool bath
C. Diathermy
D. Cryotherapy
68. What is the "R" in the
A. Rest
B. Recover
C. Rehabilitate
D. Run
(PNF) technique?
A. Hydrotherapy
B. Positional Release
C. Reiki
D. Effleurage
70. If a client has flat-back
muscles
muscles
C. Stretch shoulder adductors

the left shoulder, what is the
A. Shorten left upper trapezius
trapezius
C. Lengthen quadratus
lumborum
D. Lengthen left splenius
hallux valgus?
A. Lengthen abductor hallucis
longus
client has low back pain,
buttock pain, and hamstring
strains when extending the
trunk?
A. Gluteus maximum
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Erector spinae
D. Upper trapezius
74. What is also called sidelying?
A. Asymmetric
B. Body mechanics
D. Symmetric
symptoms related to the
current health concerns
recorded?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
Page 241
76. How many degrees of motion

is anatomic position
considered?
A. 0 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees
77. When a muscle contracts
with too much force, what
does it usually overpower?
A. Flexors
B. Abductors
C. Antagonist group
D. Synergists
be true?
A. The hamstrings are long
B. The neck extensors are
strong
C. The neck rotators are long
D. The neck rotators are strong
muscles are most likely short
and strong?
A. Hip flexors
B. Neck flexors
D. Stylohyoid
A. Abduction
C. Tendency away from parallel
position
D. In-toeing

hip adductors
posterior
C. Left mylohyoid and left
flexor digitorum longus
D. All of the above
82.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is genu varum?

Knee hyperextension
Knock-knees
Bowlegs
Genu valgum
83. What is used as a reference

when viewing a standing
posture?
A. Plumb line
B. Tilt
C. Rotation
D. Zero position
84. How does a therapist test leg
adductors?
against therapist's
C. Client holds position against
therapist's lateral pressure
on legs
D. Client holds right foot
Page 242

would the client's descriptions
of pain be documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
91. What therapy changes a

movement pattern and
improves posture?
A. Feldenkrais
B. Reflexology
C. Polarity therapy
D. Swedish gymnastics

tendon due to overuse?
B. Whiplash
C. Tendonitis
D. Migraine
92. Which identifies tender spots

on muscle tissues that can
refer pain to other parts of
the body?
A. Hellerwork
D. Rolfing
87. What is the freezing phase of

frozen shoulder?
A. Acute
B. Subacute
C. Second stage
D. Chronic
involves nerve compression?
A. Frozen shoulder
B. Bursitis
C. Torticollis
89. What is treated by applying
techniques to the IT band,
hamstrings, adductors, and
quadriceps?
weak rhomboids, middle
trapezius, and thoracic
erector spinae?
A. Scoliosis
B. Flat-back posture
C. Hyperlordosis
D. Hyperkyphosis

effleurage, petrissage,
vibration, friction, and
tapotement?
A. Greek
B. Indian
C. Chinese
D. Swedish
used a gymnasium as a center
for exercise and massage?
A. Chinese
B. French
C. Greek
D. German
95. What NMT technique is a
variation of kneading?
B. Skin rolling
C. Stretching
D. All of the above
Page 243
96. What uses long flowing

strokes to connect the body as
a whole?
B. Aromatherapy
C. Esalen massage
D. Reiki
of practice would most likely
contain guidance on breast
massage?
A. Tax
B. Business practices
C. Insurance
misconduct
98. What is most likely to be a
consideration regarding
geriatric massage?
A. Hostile touch
D. Gender issues
B. Right of refusal
C. Informed consent
D. All of the above
A. Dating a client
B. Violations of laws
C. Violations of confidentiality
D. All of the above
relationship?
A. Social needs
C. Medical advice
D. All of the above

type of boundary?
A. Emotional
B. Passive range of motion
B. Self-disclosure
C. Touch
D. All of the above
104. Massaging a minor involves
what type of issue?
C. Parental consent
105. What is the issue if a client
asks for information about
another client who is their
former partner?
B. Transference
D. Confidentiality
106. When can information
about a client be revealed to
others without the client's
consent?
A. When required by law or a
court order
B. When required to protect the
public
Page 244
107. What is within the scope of

therapists?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis

A. Allow privacy for client while
changing
B. Sexual harassment
108. What is assigning a name or

label to a certain group of
signs or symptoms?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
113. A therapist having

discomfort in what area
would indicate the massage
table is probably too low?
A. Upper back
B. Lower back
C. Shoulders
D. Arms

A. Bartering
B. Protective gear
110. A therapist being
uncomfortable massaging a
client with hepatitis involves
what type of issue?
B. Therapist's right of refusal
111. What is appropriate if
sexual arousal occurs during a
massage?
B. Do not mention it under any
circumstances
114. What should be done with

rancid linens?
A. Wash in ethyl alcohol
B. Hang out to dry
C. Discard
D. Save for undesirable clients
115. What should be used to
rinse the hands if there is
suspicion of bacterial
contamination?
A. Mild ethyl alcohol solution
B. Bleach
116. What is the first step when
administering first aid after a
person has had a heart
attack?
A. Call 911
B. Loosen restrictive clothing
C. Assist with prescribed
medication
D. Have the person stop activity
and rest
Page 245
117. What are components of

wellness?
A. Nutrition and breathing
B. Relaxation and sleep
C. Exercise and stretching
D. All of the above
123. What is gross income minus

expenses?
A. Start-up costs
B. Overhead
C. Net income
D. Marketing
118. Which archer stance is best

for which stroke?
A. Petrissage
B. Effleurage
124. Which protects against slips

and falls?
A. General premise liability
insurance
insurance

draping?
A. The client feels safe and
comfortable
B. To make assessment easier
C. To comply with federal law
the fruit group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 1 to 2 servings
C. 3 to 5 servings
D. 11 to 12 servings
125. Where is the code for

massage therapy for
insurance billing?
A. Business plan
B. Form 1099
C. 97000 series
D. Schedule K-1

being an employee?
A. Steady income
B. Employer calculates and
withholds taxes
C. Employer provides facilities
and supplies
D. All of the above
brochure?
A. Qualifications
B. Types of massages
C. Fees
D. All of the above
Page 246
Exam 19 Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. A
24. A
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. A
38. D
39. D
40. D
41. A
42. C
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. A
86. C
87. A
88. D
89. D
90. D
91. A
92. C
93. D
94. C
95. B
96. C
97. D
98. B
99. A
100. D
101. B
102. A
103. D
104. C
105. D
106. C
107. C
108. B
109. A
110. B
111. A
112. A
113. B
114. C
115. A
116. D
117. D
118. B
119. A
120. C
121. D
122. D
123. C
124. A
125. C
A
A
C
A
A
A
D
C
D
A
D
D
C
C
D
B
C
B
A
D
D
B
B
D
D
A
B
D
D
B
A
C
A
A
C
B
A
D
A
C
A
C
Page 247
Exam 20
1. How is research validated?
A. Further research to replicate
findings
B. Publication
C. Revised hypothesis
D. Internet search
2. What are the heart, liver, and
lungs?
A. Tissues
B. Organs
C. Systems
D. Organelles
3. What consists of elongated
cells that can use ATP to
generate force?
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Elastic fibers
D. Blood
4. Which system includes
sebaceous glands, sweat
glands, and breasts?
A. Reproductive
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Lymphatic
D. Integumentary
5. What is the fleshy part in the
middle of the muscle?
A. Perimysium
B. Belly
C. Tendon
D. Aponeurosis
6. Which is the "rest and digest"
nervous system?
A. Gastric
B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic
D. Parasympathetic
7. What are irregular small bony

plates found at the end of long
bones and in the center of
other bones?
A. Periosteum
B. Piezoelectric
C. Trabeculae
D. Endoskeleton
8. Which system includes glands
such as the hypothalamus,
hypophysis, thyroid, and
thymus?
A. Gastrointestinal
B. Urinary
C. Endocrine
D. Respiratory
9. What is the universal recipient
blood type?
A. AB positive
B. AB negative
C. RH positive
D. O negative
10. What type of immunity is
genetically determined?
A. Innate
B. Acquired
C. Active
D. Pandemic
11. Which system controls sex
hormones and includes the
female mammary glands?
A. Circulatory
B. Lymphatic
C. Reproductive
D. Urinary
Page 248

in which the bleeding stops
and inflammation occurs?
B. 2-3 days to 2-3 weeks
C. 5 to 6 weeks
D. 6 weeks to one year or
longer
has twelve vertebrae?
A. Dorsal
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic
14. Which means the ends are
bent inward, or bent toward
the midline: ><, knock-kneed?
A. Varus deformity
B. Valgus deformity
C. Plantar
D. Volar
18. Which dermatome is located

by the toes, the most inferior?
A. C2
B. T12
C. S5
D. L5
inserts on the clavicle?
A. Subclavius
B. Rhomboid major
C. Soleus
D. Pec minor
20. Shin splints are pain in what
bone?
A. Humerus
B. Tibia
C. Ulna
D. Metacarpal
15. Where is the humerus

relative to the radius?
A. Proximal
B. Distal
C. Superficial
D. Deep
21. Where is the medial

malleolus
B. Inferior and lateral to
acromion
hip
D. Directly medial from
olecranon process

has five vertebrae?
A. Synovial
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic
22. What progresses down the

spine?
A. Lamina groove
B. Coracoid process
C. Pubic crest
D. Ischial tuberosity
17. What is the belly referred to

in the Shiatsu method?
A. Hara
B. Cervical region
C. Occipital region
D. Intercostal area
Page 249
23. Where are the jugular notch,

sternal angle, and xiphoid
process?
A. Medial malleolus, talus,
navicular
B. Left lumbar region
D. T2, T4 and T10 of vertebral
column
of the joints where the bones
of skull meet?
A. Synarthrosis
B. Gomphosis
C. Ball and socket
D. Biceps
infraspinatus?
A. Abduct the arm
C. Adduct the shoulder
D. Flex the knee
head of the fibula?
A. Psoas major
B. Biceps femoris
C. Pectoralis major
27. Which muscle pronates and
supinates?
A. Deltoid
B. Supinator
C. Pronator teres
D. Brachioradialis
28. Which muscle decreases the
space of the thoracic cavity?
A. Trapezius
B. Internal oblique
C. Internal intercostals
D. External intercostals
29. What is an eccentric

contraction of the biceps
femoris?
A. Sit ups
B. Deep knee bends
C. Squats
D. All of the above
30. Which proprioceptors send
impulses to the central
nervous system that lead to
muscle relaxation?
D. Muscle spindles
31. What are small movements
essential for proper joint
function?
A. Hypomobility
B. Joint play
C. Arthrokinematics
D. Osteokinematics
32.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which is a hinge joint?

Hip
Thumb
Wrist
Elbow
33. What is pain from an

amputated limb?
A. Intractable pain
B. Phantom pain
C. Referred pain
D. Acute pain
34. What is a physical injury or
wound caused by external
force or violence?
A. Trauma
B. Inflammation
D. Neoplasm
Page 250
35. What is the relative constant

state maintained by the
physiology of the body?
A. Homeostasis
B. Feedback loop
C. Stress
for massage?
A. Infectious diseases
B. Hematoma
C. Joint stiffness
D. Vertigo
37. What refers to the tendency
for oscillating bodies to move
in a synchronized, harmonic
manner?
A. Entrainment
C. Acute
D. Homeostasis
38. What is a progressive
inflammatory condition that
may affect any part of the GI
tract?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Hepatitis B
D. Pneumonia
anticoagulants?
A. Prescribe alternative
medications
B. Stop the massage if the heart
rate slows to below 100
beats per minute
C. Avoid massage methods that
can lead to bruising,
including compression
D. All of the above

anti-inflammatory
medications?
A. Avoid techniques that could
cause inflammation
B. Feedback mechanisms are
not accurate
C. The massage could reduce
muscle spasms
D. All of the above
used for coughs?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Bee pollen
C. NSAID
D. Lavender
42. What is mainly caused by a
Vitamin D deficiency?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
43. What are symptoms of a
disease?
A. The study of a disease
disease
C. An idiopathic disease
D. The described problems of a
disease
44. What are internal
perceptions or external stimuli
that demand a change in the
body?
A. Circadian rhythms
B. Denial
C. Demands
D. Stressors
Page 251
45. What is the second stage of

the general adaptation
syndrome?
B. Resistance reaction
C. Alarm reaction
D. Pain
46. What is medial epicondylitis?
A. Tennis elbow
C. Dislocation
D. Frozen shoulder
with both the supinator and
the lateral head of the
triceps?
B. Femoral
C. Axillary
D. Radial
48. Where is the inguinal triangle
endangerment site?
A. Between the biceps and
triceps
B. SCM, mandible, and trachea
C. SCM, clavicle, and trapezius
D. Sartorius, adductor longus,
inguinal ligament
massage?
A. Venous return
B. Lymph flow
C. Pain reduction
D. All of the above
on the skin?
B. Reduces gland activity
formation

from massage?
A. Skin conditions such as mild
dryness
B. Stress and anxiety
C. Temporomandibular joint
dysfunction
D. All of the above
52. Which is increased as one of
the effects of massage?
A. Lactic acid
B. Number of red and white
blood cells
C. Cortisol
D. Substance P
53. What are body polishes, cold
mittens, dry brush massages,
ice massages, salt glows, and
shampoos examples of?
A. Baths
B. Packs
C. Frictions
D. All of the above
54. For which condition could
cold be applied?
A. Frostbite
B. Cold allergy
C. Swelling
D. Arthritis
55. Which is best for moving
from one stroke to another?
A. Effleurage
B. Connective tissue massage
C. Jostling
D. Petrissage
for bronchitis?
B. Cupping
C. Kneading
D. Gliding
Page 252

of massage?
spasms
B. Improves circulation of blood
and lymph
C. Enhances removal of
metabolic waste
D. Reduced stress
effect of massage?
A. Increases anxiety
B. Reduces stress
59. What is a stimulating
massage technique?
A. Gentle stroking
period
C. Prolonged percussion
D. All of the above
brings about a dilation and
flushing of the massaged area?
A. Reiki
B. Light stroking
C. Deep stroking
D. All of the above
movement?
A. Percussion
B. Kneading
C. Gliding
D. Friction
62. Which is a trembling or
shaking movement?
A. Vibration
B. Kneading
C. Tapping
D. Friction

for tendonitis?
A. Vibration
B. Deep gliding
C. Deep-transverse friction
D. Percussion
64.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which lifts muscles off bone?

Effleurage
Petrissage
Percussion
Tapotement
65. Which stroke is best for

insomnia?
A. Effleurage
B. Rocking
C. Deep tissue
D. Percussion
for pregnancy massage?
A. Pre-eclampsia
B. Back strain
C. Second or third trimester
contraindicated
67. What is a benefit of massage
A. Improve mobility
B. Control pain
C. Allow for a more positive
attitude
D. All of the above
68. When should heat therapy be
avoided?
A. Pain
B. Stiffness in joints
C. Acute stage of injury
D. Chronic muscle spasms
Page 253
69. What is not an effect of

R.I.C.E.S. treatment?
A. Vasodilation
B. Reduced inflammation
C. Reduced swelling
D. Vasoconstriction
A. Lengthen gluteus maximus
and longus capitis
B. Shorten rectus femoris and
splenius
C. Lengthen adductor longus
and oblique capitis superior
D. Lengthen semimembranosus
and internal intercostals
71. If a client has a tendency
towards kyphosis and a
depressed chest, what is the
A. Lengthen erector spinae
B. Lengthen left internal and
right external obliques
C. Lengthen anterior internal
and external obliques
D. Lengthen hamstrings
the knee in a flexed position
with medial rotation of the leg
on the thigh?
A. Lengthen soleus
B. Lengthen peroneus brevis
D. Lengthen popliteus
73. What would trigger points

along the lateral neck flexors,
horizontal arm abductors,
internal arm rotators
contribute to?
A. Brachial plexus impingement
B. Sciatica
C. Tension headaches
D. Low back pain
position for performing on-site
corporate massage?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Side-lying
D. Seated
75. What is the use of touch to
examine?
A. Gait assessment
B. Needs assessment
D. Palpation
verbal information that clients
share documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
77. Which are relatively slow to
respond?
A. Postural muscles
B. Mover muscles
C. Phasic muscles
D. Soft tissues
78. What could cause a hot area?
A. Increased connective tissue
formation
B. Diminished blood flow
C. Muscle spasm
D. Inactivity
Page 254

A. Neck extensors
B. External obliques
C. Arm flexors
D. All of the above
A. In-toeing
B. Pigeon-toes
C. Tendency toward parallel
position from out-toeing
D. All of the above
hip adductors
posterior
C. Tibia and fibula
D. All of the above
the shoulders are depressed
and the scapulae abducted?
A. Tight serratus anterior
B. Tight soleus
C. Weak upper trapezius
D. Weak quadratus lumborum
83. Where is the gravity line in
the side view of standing
posture?
A. Coronal plane
B. Sagittal plane
C. Popliteal region
D. Zero position

arm adductors?
against therapist's
B. Client holds right hand
C. Client holds position against
therapist's lateral pressure
on arms
client consultation after
performing a preliminary
assessment?
A. Schedule next appointment
B. Perform massage
D. SOAP chart
suggestions for stretches be
documented?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
87. What would not require
treatment for whiplash?
A. Infra-hyoid
B. Supra-hyoid
C. SCM
D. Quadriceps
88. What is golfer's elbow?
A. Trigger finger
D. Tennis elbow
Page 255

bursitis?
A. Cold in the acute stage
chronic stage
C. Joint play for hypomobile
joints
D. All of the above
90. What involves a thickening of
the IT band?
91. In polarity therapy, what
does the right side represent?
A. Tschanpua
B. Positive expanding energy
C. The five elements
D. Yin and yang
92. What was developed by Boris
Chaitow and Stanley Leif to
relieve tender muscle tissue
and compressed nerves that
refer pain?
A. Reflexology
B. Neuromuscular therapy
D. Hellerwork
chamomile, jasmine,
geranium, and rose be used
for?
A. Injury prevention
B. First aid
C. Stimulating
D. Soothing

many of the Swedish
movements?
A. Chinese
B. German
C. Greek
D. Indian
neuromuscular therapy?
B. Skin rolling
C. Stretching
D. All of the above
technique?
A. Trager method
B. Therapeutic touch
D. All of the above
97. What would exist when a
therapist sold products to a
client?
A. Informed consent
C. Right of refusal
D. Dual role
98.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is appropriate touch?

Hostile touch
Erotic touch
Therapeutic touch
Sexual touch

guidance on personal
limitations and relationships?
B. Accounting
C. Roles and boundaries
D. Prevention of insurance
fraud
Page 256
100. What is a consideration

regarding touch when giving
chair massages at an
international airport for
foreign tourists?
A. Hostile touch
D. Gender issues
A. Consistency
B. Right of refusal
parental knowledge
D. Informed consent
code of ethics?
A. Violations of confidentiality
C. Dating a client
D. Violations of laws
words
B. Consistency
C. Personal needs
D. All of the above
104. How are boundaries
created, managed, and
changed?
A. Power differences, dual
relationships, self-disclosure
B. Time, location, language
C. Clothing, space, touch,
money
D. All of the above
105. Who can provide consent to

working on a minor?
A. Parents
B. Any relatives
C. A Friend
D. All of the above
106. Practicing from home
without the required permits
is what type of unethical
behavior?
practice
C. Violation of law
client in a restaurant?
was
about the massage
C. Ask for a referral
D. All of the above
108. What is the therapist doing
when observing tight
muscles?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
A. Employment
B. Pathologies
Page 257
110. What is done by

associations rather than
governments?
A. Licensing
B. Credentialing
A. Marketing
B. Business cards
C. Discrimination based on
gender or sexual orientation
112. A recently licensed
therapist working under the
supervision of an experienced
professional involves what
type of issue?
massage table?
foam padding
D. All of the above
114. What uses phenols, bleach,
or alcohol?
A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above

sanitation?
A. Store clean linens in a closed
cabinet
B. Store soiled linens in a
closed container
C. Maintain handwashing
facilities with germicidal
soap
D. All of the above
116. What is a first aid safety
practice?
A. Keep a first aid kit on the
premises
B. Learn first aid and CPR
C. Keep emergency information
in plain view
D. All of the above
117. What reduces strain on the
practitioner's neck?
A. Use the palmar sides of the
fingers and thumbs when
applying pressure
B. Keep the head up and the
shoulders down and relaxed
D. Use the forearms and elbows
for deep pressure
118. Which horse stance is best
for which stroke?
A. Effleurage
B. Petrissage
119. What ensures that the
client stays warm and feels
safe and comfortable?
A. Protective gear
B. Assessment
C. Draping
D. Body mechanics
Page 258

the milk, yogurt and cheese
group?
A. Use sparingly
B. 2 to 3 servings
C. 5 to 6 servings
D. 6 to 11 servings
121. Who prepares W-2 forms?
A. Independent contractors
B. Employer
C. Employees
122. How are donated services
used?
A. Marketing
B. Insurance
C. Licensing
D. Tax
123. What is the initial cost of
beginning a business?
A. Business plan
B. Form 1099
C. Mission statement
D. Start up costs
124. Which protects against
malpractice?
A. Life insurance
insurance
125. What should be most
important for therapeutic
massage and bodywork
professionals?
A. Deductions
B. Overhead
C. Caring
D. Balance sheet
Page 259
Exam 20 Answer Key

1. A
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. B
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. D
41. A
42. D
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85. C
86. D
87. D
88. C
89. D
90. B
91. B
92. B
93. D
94. B
95. D
96. B
97. D
98. C
99. C
100. C
101. C
102. B
103. C
104. D
105. A
106. C
107. B
108. A
109. A
110. B
111. C
112. B
113. A
114. B
115. D
116. D
117. B
118. B
119. C
120. B
121. B
122. A
123. D
124. C
125. C
D
D
B
B
D
D
C
D
D
B
C
C
A
B
D
B
B
C
B
A
C
B
A
A
D
C
A
C
C
D
A
D
D
A
A
C
B
D
B
C
A
C
Page 260
About the Author

Philip Martin McCaulay is the
President of Medical Massage Care
Authority LLC and a graduate of
Bodymechanics
School
of
Myotherapy
and
Massage
in
Olympia, Washington.
His other
massage
publications
include
Medical Massage Cares Therapeutic
Massage National FSMTB Massage &
Bodywork Licensing Examination
MBLEx Study Guide, Medical Massage Cares Therapeutic Massage
National Certification Practice Exams 2008 Edition and Medical Massage
Cares Therapeutic Massage National Certification Exam Study Guide.
Martin has also written and published practice exam books and study
guides for licensing and certification exams in the pension, investment,
and real estate fields. With a B.A. in Mathematics from Indiana
University, Martin is a Fellow of the Society of Actuaries (FSA), a Fellow
of the Conference of Consulting Actuaries (FCA), a Member of the
American Academy of Actuaries (MAAA), and an Enrolled Actuary (EA).
Martin serves on the Education and Examination Committee of the
Society of Actuaries.
Page 261
Reference List
Ashley, Martin. Massage: A Career at Your
Fingertips. 3rd Edition. Barrytown, New York:
Station Hill Press, 1998
Benjamin, Ben and Cherie Sohnen-Moe. The
Ethics of Touch. Tucson: Sohnen-Moe
Associates, Inc., 2004.
Beck, Mary F. Theory and Practice of
Therapeutic Massage. 4th Edition. Clifton Park,
New York: Thompson Delmar Learning, 2006.
Biel, Andrew. Trail Guide to the Body. 3rd
Edition. Boulder, Colorado: Books of Discovery,
2005.
Braun, Mary Beth and Stephanie Simonson.
Introduction to Massage Therapy. Baltimore:
Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2005.
Clemente, Carmine. Anatomy: A Regional
Atlas of the Human Body. 4th Edition.
Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1997.
Fritz, Sandy. Fundamentals of Therapeutic
Massage. 3rd Edition. St. Louis: Mosby, 2004.
Fritz, Sandy and M. James Grosenbach.
Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage:
Anatomy, Physiology, Biomechanics and
Pathology. 2nd Edition. St. Louis: Mosby, 2004.
Kendall, Florence Peterson, Elizabeth Kendall
McCreary, Patricia Geise Provance, Mary
McIntyre Rodgers, and William Anthony Romani.
Muscles: Testing and Function with Posture
and Pain. 5th Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott
Williams and Wilkins, 2005.
McIntosh, Nina. The Educated Heart:
Professional Boundaries for Massage
Therapists, Bodyworkers, and Movement
Teachers. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott
Rattay, Fiona and Linda Ludwig. Clinical

Massage Therapy: Understanding, Assessing
and Treating Over 70 Conditions. Ontario:
Talus, Inc., 2000..
Salvo, Susan. Massage Therapy: Principles
and Practices. Philadelphia: W.B. Saunders
Company, 1999.
Sohnen-Moe, Cherie. Business Mastery. 3rd
Edition. Tucson: Sohnen-Moe Associates, Inc.,
2005.
Tappan, Frances M. and Patricia J. Benjamin.
Handbook of Healing Massage Techniques.
4th Edition. Connecticut: Appleton and Lange,
2005.
Sohnen-Moe, Cherie M. Business Mastery. 3rd
Edition. Rochester, VT: Healing Arts Press,
1997.
Thomas, C.L., ed. Tabers Cyclopedic Medical
Dictionary. 19th Edition. Philadelphia: Davis
Co., 2001.
Thompson, Diana L. Hands Heal,
Communication, Documentation, and
Insurance Billing for Manual Therapists. 3rd
Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and
Wilkins, 2006.
Tortora, Gerald, and Sandra Reynolds
Grabowski. Principles of Anatomy and
Physiology. 10th Edition. New York: Harper
and Collins Publishers, Inc., 2004.
Werner, Ruth. A Massage Therapists Guide
to Pathology. 2nd Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott
Wible, Jean. Pharmacology for Massage
Therapy. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and
Wilkins, 2005.
Premkumar, Kalyani. The Massage

Connection: Anatomy and Physiology. 2nd
Edition. Baltimore: Lippincott Williams and
Wilkins, 2004.
Page 262
Page 263
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Medical Massage Cares

FSMTB Massage &

Philip Martin McCaulay

6. What type of cartilage is rigid

10. What receives oxygenated

Which connects two bones?

13. What is a section of skin

16. Which actions occur in the

Where is the cervical region?

18. Which energetic

21. Where is the medial

27. Which muscle of the right

22. How many phalanges does

28. Which muscle extends and

23. What best describes the

29. What type of contraction

32. Which is a ball and socket

38. Which rhythms repeat

33. What is inflammation of the

39. What is the growth of a

34. What is a congenital disease?

40. What are amphetamines,

42. What results in the popping

47. Which area is associated with

43. What kind of fracture

48. What are the sides of the

44. What is whiplash?

49. What is a reflex effect of

52. What is the external

57. What is a physical effect of

Which reduces scar tissue?

62. Which stroke is generally

68. Which is not advisable for

73. What is done if a client has

78. A tight and short psoas would

83. Which are short and strong

87. What type of assessment

What is tennis elbow?

90. What is an increase in the

93. Who developed Touch for

99. What is sexual touch from a

105. What is appropriate for a

110. What is appropriate for the

115. Which is a noninfectious

120. Which vitamin is

Exam 1 Answer Key

6. What is a thin membrane of

11. Which system includes the

Where is the deltoid region?

18. Which method involves the

23. What describes the shape of

29. Which extends the vertebral

24. What is the thick, lubricating

30. What is a contraction in

25. Which muscle crosses two

31. Which muscles have a higher

What is the study of disease?

34. What is a degenerative

35. What is nonmalignant or not

40. What are non-narcotic pain

What is lateral epicondylitis?

45. What is the result of an

46. What is associated with