COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by making the
box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
1.

Which of the following factors should be considered by the nurse in controlling communicable diseases?
A. Skill of the nurse in handling cases
B. Chain of infection of the disease
C. Knowledge of the patient
D. Available resources of the nurse

2.

The best method to protect the body against infectious diseases

A. Intact skin
B. Good personal hygiene
C. Healthy diet
D. Physical fitness

3.

The nurse must teach family to limit their contact to infected family members during this stage of infection because patient is
highly contagious on this stage of disease.
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Illness
D. Convalescent

4.

Which of the following factors in the infection cycle serves as a basis in developing infection control methods?
A. Agent causing infection
B. Mode of transmission
C. Portal of entry
D. Susceptibility of the host

5.

The nurse knows that health education is relevant in the prevention of communicable disease because it:
A. improves individuals, families, and community health
B. protects individuals, families, & communities to disease
C. prolongs life of individuals, families and communities
D. prevents disease of individuals, families and communities

6.

Which of the following primary activities should be done by the nurse when handling a contagious patient?
A. Concurrent Disinfection
B. Epidemiological Investigation
C. Handwashing
D. Sterilization

7.

Separation of infected individuals or carriers from other individuals by placing them on conditions that will prevent direct or
indirect transmission of disease is known as?
A. Quarantine
B. Isolation
C. Terminal Disinfection
D. Sterilization

8.

If an individual acquired resistance to disease due the presence of antibodies or cells having specific action on microorganisms or
toxins, the individual is known to have?
A. Immunity
B. Pathogenicity
C. Infective dose
D. Virulence

9.

Medical asepsis is done by all health care personnel to:

A. prevent progress of disease
B. eradicate harmful microorganism
C. prevent transfer of microorganism
D. treat disease condition

10. What is the best guide of the nurse in determining isolation of infected individuals?
A. Source of infection
B. Immune status of client
C. Mode of transmission
D. Ability of the client to do precautions
11. Infection acquired by the patient in the hospital is known as?
A. Transmission
B. Quarantine
C. Isolation
D. Nosocomial

12. In the control of communicable disease, the nurse used epidemiology to:
A. Determining factors that have brought the disease
B. Evaluate effectiveness of Under Five
C. Determine efficacy of garlic in preventing hypertension
D. All of the above
13. Which branch of epidemiology is concerned with determining the factors that affect the occurrence and distribution of disease in
the population?
A. Descriptive
B. Therapeutic
C. Analytic
D. Evaluation
14. In 2001, new strain of Polio was reported after it has been eradicated in 2000. This is a best example of a time related
occurrence?
A. Cyclical Variation
B. Short-time fluctuation
C. Secular variation
D. Long-time fluctuation
15. Epidemiology is directly concern with which of the following?
A. Factors influencing occurrence and distribution of disease, defects, disability or death of groups of individuals
B. Vital health statistics
C. Environment sanitation
D. Treatment of communicable disease
16. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is
A. Active natural
B. Active artificial
C. Passive natural
D. Passive artificial
17. Which of the following communicable diseases have to be monitored by the nurse within 24 hours?
A. Measles
B. Severe Acute Diarrhea
C. AIDS
D. Neonatal Tetanus
Situation: Rene, a month old infant is brought to the pediatrician.
18. Which of the following immunizations should Rene have at his age?
A. BCG, Hepa B 1 vaccine
B. BCG, DPT1, OPV1 vaccine
C. BCG, DPT1, OPV1, Hepa B1 vaccine
D. BCG, Hepa B 1, Measles vaccine
19. After giving BCG, which of the following statements indicates that the mother understood the instructions given by the nurse?
A. It is normal that she will have a wound at the site of injection
B. It is normal that she will have rashes lasting for 2-3 days
C. I will bring her immediately to the clinic if she developed fever
D. I will not bathe my baby for 2 days so as not to remove the vaccine
20. Measles vaccine is administered by the nurse by what route?
A. Intravenous
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intradermal
21. Which of the following response of the nurse is correct if the mother asked the nurse when will she give Paracetamol to her infant
after a dose of DPT vaccine?
A. Give when temperature is 40 degrees Celsius
B. Give at once & every 4 hours round the clock for 24 hours
C. Give at once & when there is pain over injection site
D. Give the baby at least 3 times a day to prevent fever
22. Administration of BCG vaccine provides what type of immunity?
A. Natural Active
B. Natural Passive
C. Artificial Active
D. Artificial Passive

23. Immunity that is inherited by the body through the placenta or and not brought through a previous attack of the disease is known
as?
A. Natural Active
B. Natural Passive
C. Artificial Active
D. Artificial Passive
24. Immunity acquired as a result from previous attack of the disease will develop what type of immunity?
A. Natural Active
B. Natural Passive
C. Artificial Active
D. Artificial Passive
25. If the patient acquired immunity through the administration of immune substances produced by another person will develop what
type of immunity?
A. Natural Active
B. Natural Passive
C. Artificial Active
D. Artificial Passive
26. Maintenance of the cold chain is an important practice to keep the biologicals for immunization potent. Which biologicals
should be stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Measles vaccine
C. None of these
D. Both A & B
27. Which biologicals are destroyed by freezing and therefore should be stored in the refrigerator compartment only?
A. Tetanus Toxoid
B. Hepa B
C. None of these
D. Both A & B
28. To complete Hepa B immunization, how many doses of the biological will you need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
29. Children with which condition cannot be given immunization?
A. Cough and colds
B. Diarrhea with dehydration
C. Fever of 38 degrees Celcius
D. Malnutrition
30. During an epidemic of measles, the vaccine will be given to infants at what age?
A. 3 month
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 11 months
31. After giving Polio vaccine, which of the following statements indicate that the mother understood the instructions given by the
nurse?
A. He must be thirsty & I will give him glucose water.
B. I will give my baby paracetamol right away.
C. The vaccine taste awful, he should have some fruit juices.
D. I will withhold feeding for 30 minutes.
32. After the administration of Measles vaccine. The nurse must instruct the mother to:
A. Bring the baby back to the clinic if the baby develop fever and rashes
B. Bring the baby back to the clinic the baby develop abcess at the site
C. Administer antipyretic if the baby develop rashes
D. Administer antibiotic if the baby develop abcess at the site.

33. Vit. A was given after the administration of Measles vaccine. What dosage of Vitamin A is given?
A. 1 cap of 100,000 IU
B. 1 cap of 200,000 IU
C. cap 100,000 IU
D. 1 tablet of 10,000 IU

Situation: A 9 month old baby was brought to the health clinic because of high grade fever, cough and colds, and difficulty of
breathing. The nurse suspects that the child has pneumonia.
34. The nurse should assess for which of the following signs and symptoms?
A. Chest retractions
B. Fast respiratory rate
C. Noisy inspiration
D. All of the above
35. The nurse can say that the child has tachypnea if her respiratory rate is:
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
36. If noisy inspiration is observed, the nurse will classify the child to have:
A. Pneumonia
B. No Pneumonia
C. Very Severe or severe Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
37. After assessment, the nurse decided that the child has pneumonia. Management of pneumonia will include:
A. Administration of antibiotic for 5 days
B. Advise to come back after 2 days
C. Teaching the mother to soothe throat
D. All of these actions
38. Which of the following antibiotic will be given by the nurse to the child?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Sulfadoxine
39. If the child is placed on antibiotic treatment, which of the following are important to teach the mother?
A. All these instructions
B. Finish the 5 day treatment even if Anna seems better
C. How much antibiotic will be given, when to give it, and how many times it will be given
D. Bring Anna back to the health center if she is not better after two days of treatment
40. The amount of antibiotic that will be given to the child is:
A. 2.5 ml
B. 5 ml
C. 7.5 ml
D. 10 ml
41. To check whether the mother has understood your instructions, which of the following will you do?
A. None of the above
B. Ask the mother to demonstrate what she has heard
C. Ask the mother to repeat the instructions that you have given
D. Ask the mother if she understood the instructions that you have given.
42. Additional instructions that the nurse will give to the mother will include the following EXCEPT:
A. Soothe the throat and relieve the cough with safe home remedies
B. Limit her food intake to prevent problems such as vomiting
C. Watch for signs of difficulty breathing
D. Bring her back to the health center if her condition worsens.

Situation: Robert, a 30 year old jeepney driver came to health center with complaints of fever, cough lasting for 4 weeks, and loss of
weight. He was suspected to have PTB.
43. Which of the following sets of signs and symptoms would best distinguish tuberculosis from a simple upper respiratory tract
infection:
A. Weight loss, hemoptysis, diarrhea

B. Cough, weight loss, low grade afternoon fever

C. Dyspnea, wheezing, cyanosis
D. Non-productive cough, weight loss, abdominal mass
44. During consultation, Robert was instructed to submit sputum for microscopy. The nurse must instruct Robert to:
A. Breathe in air deeply.
B. At the height of inspiration, cough strongly and spit the sputum in the container.
C. Observe contamination precautions.
D. All of the above
45. After 7 days, results revealed positive sputum microscopy. Robert will undergo what treatment regimen?
A. Regimen 1
B. Regimen 2
C. Regimen 3
D. Regimen 4
46. Anti-TB drugs that will be taken by Robert will be the following:
1. Intensive- Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
2. Intensive- Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol, Streptomycin
3. Maintenance Rifampicin, Isoniazid
4. Maintenance Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol
A.
B.
C.
D.

1&3
2&4
1&4
2&3

47. Robert will undergo treatment for how long?

A. 8 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 4 months
48. Before Robert undergoes the maintenance phase, he will be subjected to sputum microscopy. If it reveals (+) sputum microscopy,
he will:
A. extend intensive phase for 15 days then proceed the maintenance phase
B. extend intensive phase for 30 days then proceed to maintenance phase
C. extend intensive phase for 1 month, then a week before the end of the extension phase, sputum microscopy will be done.
D. extend intensive phase for 1 month, then a week before the end of the extension phase, x-ray will be done.
49. Among the drugs prescribed to Robert was INH. The nurse is preparing to teach Robert about the effects of INH. To be included
in her teaching plan will be:
A. occurrence of orange output
B. presence of peripheral neuritis
C. presence of tinnitus
D. presence of optic neuritis
50. DOTS is a strategy to make sure the patient comply with his treatment regimen. During the intensive phase of treatment, how
often is the patient required to go to the health center to collect his supply of meds?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. monthly
D. of 2 weeks
Situation: Justin, a 12-year old boy went to their backyard to get leaves of the Bayabas tree. After 4 days, he developed rashes. He
was brought to a Rural Health Unit for consultation.
51. Which of the following questions would the nurse ask to obtain history of his illness?
A. Is the patches itchy?
B. Did you have a wound?
C. Are the rashes painful?
D. Were you bitten by the mosquitoes?

52. The vector involved for the infection of Justin is:

A. A. Aegypti
B. C. quiquefasciatus
C. A. flavirostris
D. A. poicillus

53. Which of the following test will conclude the nurse the presence of Justins infection?
A. Rapid Diagnostic Test
B. Rumpel leads
C. Circulating Filarial antigen
D. Platelet count
54. The nurse primary concern during his care is to:
A. report to authority
B. monitor signs of bleeding
C. conduct epidemiological investigation
D. conduct case finding
55. What advised will you give to his mother in order to prevent his infection?
A. Avoid hanging clothes
B. Keep water container covered
C. Spray insecticide weekly
D. Eliminate breeding places of mosquito
Situation: Mica, a pre-schooler suddenly developed fever with abdominal pain, vomiting, & rashes on her trunks. She was brought to
a nearby clinic.
56. Which of the following is the probable source of her infection?
A. Water of the school
B. Garden at the school
C. Mini zoo at the school
D. Playground at the school
57. The pediatrician ordered a diagnostic test. Which of the test is done?
A. Tourniquet test
B. Fecalysis
C. Urinalysis
D. Typhidot test
58. What is the causative agent of Micas infection?
A. Dengue Virus
B. Ascaris Lumbricoides
C. Salmonella Typhosa
D. Clostridium Tetani
59. In your health teaching, what means of primary prevention should be done?
A. Do not play in the soil
B. Handwashing
C. Avoid playing with the animals
D. Use of mosquito net
60. Which of the following is a public health nursing responsibility if you encounter any
notifiable diseases?
A. Accompany patient to hospital
B. Report immediately of any case
C. Surveillance of the disease
D. Immunization right away
Situation: Janelle was brought to the clinic because of cough, fever, & rashes.
61. Which one of the following best describes the characteristics of measles?
A. Maculopapular rash with high fever
B. Maculopapular rash with low fever
C. Vesiculopustular rash with low fever
D. Vesiculopustular rash with high fever
62. This whitish, grayish pecks in the cheeks refer to the pathognomonic sign of measles?
A. Pseudomembrane
B. Kopliks spots
C. Swimmers itch
D. Mucopurulent exudates
63. Which of the following procedures should you teach his mother to manage fever?
A. Proper positioning
B. Hot sitz bath
C. Isolation technique
D. Tepid sponge bath

64. Which of the following complications is common among children with measles?
A. Meningitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Otitis media
D. Laryngitis
65. Based on IMCI protocol, which interventions should be done to manage children with measles suffering from mouth ulcers?
A. Apply gentian violet twice a day
B. Apply tetracycline ointment
C. Administer Tamarind drinks
D. Apply cold packs at the mouth area
Situation: Martha, a manager of the CSR hospital was admitted to the hospital because of Infectious Hepatitis.
66. Nursing assessment of Martha should reveal which of the following early symptoms of Infectious Hepatitis?
A. Right upper quadrant pain
B. Tea colored urine
C. Jaundice
D. Pruritus
67. Which of the following factors is most likely to be related to her diagnosis?
A. Bitten by a mosquito
B. History of measles
C. Eating contaminated food
D. Sexual contact with infected person
68. What diet would most likely be ordered for Martha during the acute phase of her illness?
A. Low CHO, high CHON, high fat
B. High CHO, low CHON, low fat
C. Low CHO, low CHON, low fat
D. High CHO, high CHON, high fat
69. She was advised for bedrest. The nurse should explain that its chief purpose is to:
A. Control spread of disease
B. Reduce fat breakdown for metabolism
C. Minimize liver damage
D. Decrease circulatory overload
70. Which of these following is used to protect individuals who have been exposed to infectious hepatitis?
A. Hepatitis B Vaccine
B. Anti-Tetanus Serum
C. Human Immune serum globulin
D. Rabies Vaccine
71. It is important for the nurse to know the mode of transmission of the organisms responsible for infectious hepatitis because this
knowledge provides the basis for:
A. Determining the isolation precautions
B. Planning a rehabilitative program
C. Preventing autoinfection
D. Estimating the length of isolation
Situation: Malaria is endemic in the Philippines. Knowledge of the nature of this disease will help the nurse in limiting the cases in
the Philippines.
72. Which of the ff laboratory procedures will confirm diagnosis of Malaria?
A. Stool examination
B. Urine examination
C. CSF examination
D. Blood smear
73. Which of the following control measures aimed to prevent man-mosquito contacts?
A. Mosquito net treated w/ insecticide
B. Use of repellant lotion
C. All of these
D. Use of mosquito coils
74. For plasmodium falciparum infection, which of the following is used as first line of treatment?
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloroquine & primaquine tablet
D. Rifampicin

75. Clinical symptoms that you will take note of to confirm Malaria is:
A. High fever, pleural pain, & dyspnea
B. Profuse perspiration w/c lasts for 4-6 hours after chills & fever
C. Slight fever & headache
D. Tingling sensation along the spine
76. Which of the ff control measure is used for the prevention & control of malaria?
A. Use of mosquito coils
B. Releasing of larvivorous fishes in the breeding areas of the mosquitoes
C. Residual spraying
D. Alteration of the breeding places of mosquito vectors
Situation: Mr. Kevin is positive with syphilis.
77. This disease is characterized by:
A. Greenish yellow odorous discharge in females
B. Feeling of dryness & discomfort about genitals & conjunctivitis
C. Chancre at site of entry of germ w/ serrous exudates
D. Painful frequent urination & purulent discharge
78. Which of the following is the best health teaching to prevent syphilis in the community?:
A. Isolation of patient
B. Concurrent disinfection
C. Immunization
D. Avoid the mode of transmission
79. Syphilis can be transmitted to another through:
A. Sexual contact
B. Blood transfusion
C. Any of those mode of transmission
D. Indirect contact
80. Syphilis is communicable at the start of what stage?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Convalescence
81. Which of the following method is not relevant in the control of syphilis?
A. Immunization of contacts
B. Need to immediately report cases found & their contacts to health authority
C. Need for early diagnosis & treatment
D. Symptoms of syphilis & its mode of transmission
Situation: Nancy came to the clinic because of headache with chilly sensation, cough, muscle pain at the backs and legs.
82. You will conclude that Nancy is most likely to have what type of infection?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Measles
C. Dengue
D. Influenza
83. The mode of transmission of this disease is through?
A. Sexual contact
B. Skin to skin contact
C. Droplet spread
D. Kissing infected person
84. During an outbreak of this infection, which of the following is done?
A. Recording of mortality rate
B. Administer vaccine
C. Reporting of cases
D. Epidemiological investigation
85. This type of infection usually affects the high risks group during cold season of the year?
A. Infants
B. Pre-schoolers
C. Adolescents
D. Elderly

86. What specimen should be taken in order to confirm infection during the febrile stage?
A. Urine
B. Cervical secretions
C. Blood
D. Wound secretions
87. Prolong intake of aspirin during the course of the disease can cause?
A. Lyphodystrophy
B. Immunosuppresion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hyperglycemia
88. Which one of the following diseases is NOT transmitted thru the respiratory system?
A. Chicken pox
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Malaria
89. Which one of the following infectious agents do not enter through the gastrointestinal system?
A. Hansens bacillus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Salmonella Typhoid
D. Shigella
90. Chicken pox is best distinguished to measles with the characteristics of the lesions?
A. Maculopapular lesions from head to the lower extremities
B. Vesiculopustular lesions from the head to the lower extremities
C. Maculopapular lesions from the center to the periphery of the body
D. Vesiculopustular lesions from the center to the periphery of the body
Situation: Monette is a pre-schooler. One evening, she developed irritating cough which gradually became paroxysmal. This type of
cough is characterized by:
1. violent cough w/o intervening inhalation
2. crowing or high pitched inspirational whoop
3. tenacious cough at night
4. vomiting
91. Which group characteristics best describes Pertussis?
A. 2 & 3
B. 2 & 4
C. 1 & 2
D. 1 & 3
92. Which laboratory procedure is done to diagnose Pertussis?
A. Saliva examination
B. Culture of secretion
C. Swab examination
D. Culture and sensitivity test
93. When blood was examined, which blood component is high in Pertussis?
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. WBC
D. CBC
94. Treatment of Pertussis during outbreak is ordered for 14 days. Which among these are the drug of choice?
A. Erythromycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Penicillin
D. Crystalline
95. Preventive measure is immunization before 5th birthday. This vaccine is given simultaneously w/ 2 others. What are they?
A. Tetanus toxoid & polio
B. Tetanus toxoid & diphtheria
C. Diptheria & polio
D. Diptheria & tetanus
Situation: Your health center is a field training area for Nursing students. In a conference w/ the students, you discuss HIV/AIDS.
96. Which of the following is not a route of transmission of AIDS?
A. Through contaminated skin needles & syringe
B. Sexual transmission
C. Through transfusion of blood & blood products

D. Sharing of clothing with infected persons

97. AIDS can be seen in infants with the following symptoms:
A. Chronic diarrhea of more than 1 month
B. Prolonged fever of more than 1 month
C. Weight loss or abnormally slow growth
D. Any 2 of these signs
98. Which of the following sexual practices has a low risk of transmission of HIV?
A. Fellatio w/o a condom
B. Anal intercourse w/o a condom
C. Sharing sex toy or objects that come into contact w/ body fluids
D. Sharing of needles used for injections
99. Which of the ff statements is NOT correct?
A. Breastmilk is important in preventing infection in HIV infected infants
B. Children who are HIV positive is a threat to other children.
C. The care of HIV patients is similar to the routine care given to other diseases
D. Everybody is in danger of becoming infected w/ HIV through sex
100. One student asks a question: If you accidentally discovered one of your friends in the community is HIV positive, what will you
do? Your response will be:
A. Give him the usual friendly treatment as before
B. Tell your other friends about him so to protect themselves
C. Advise other members of the family to separate his entire utensils
D. Secretly avid his company