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SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
Find
dy
if y = x 2 e x cos x
dx
2.
Find
du
if u = sin( xy 2 ) where x = log t , y = e t
dt
3.
(10 x 2 = 20)
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
sin at
t
(5 x 12 = 60)
(1 )
dy
if x x + x x .
dx
(or)
x+ y
u
u tan u
prove that x
+
y
=
y
2
x
y
+
12. If u = sin 1
(tan 1 x) 2 e tan
13. Evaluate
1 + x2
14. Evaluate
( x)
dx
(or)
4
log(1 + tan )d
0
2 cos x cosh y
and find its conjugate.
cos 2 x + cosh 2 y
(or)
16. Find the bilinear transformation which maps the points i, -1, 1 of
the z-plane into the points 0,1, of the w-plane respectively.
17. Evaluate
z+4
z 2 + 2 z + 5 dz where C:|z+1+i|=2 by using Cauchy
c
integral formula.
(or)
18. Evaluate
integration.
x2
( x 2 + a 2 )( x 2 + b 2 ) dx, a>b>0
by
using
contour
19. (a) Find the Laplace transforms of the function f(t) = te-1 cos2t
(b) Find the Laplace transform of
:0 t a
t
f (t ) =
and f(t+2a) = f(t) for all t>0
2
a
t
:
a
2
a
(or)
s +1
s2
(b) Find L 2 2 2 2 by using convolution theorem.
( s + a )( s + b )
1
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
dy
Find dx , if y = ax.
2.
dy
Find dx , if x2 + y2 = a2.
3.
2u
2u
.
and
2
If u = exy, Find x 2
y
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Evaluate
z
1
dz ,
|
z
+
1
|
<
.
where C is the circle,
z2
2
9.
1
1
L
s ( s + a ) .
Find
2x
1
sin
.
2
11. (a) Differentiate
1+ x
x2 + y2
u
u
u = sin
x
y
+
= 0.
Prove that
(b) If
+
x
y
x
y
(or)
dy
12. (a) Find dx , if x3 + y3 = 3axy.
2
2
2
u
u
u
2 2
2
2
+ 2 + 2 = 0.
(b)If ( x + y + z ) , Prove that x 2
y
z
x 2 e m sin
1 x
dx.
x sin x
dx.
(b) Evaluate 1 + cos 2 x
0
(or)
13 7 x
dx.
14. (a) Evaluate ( x + 2)( x 1)
(b) Evaluate
log 2.
2
2
2
2 + 2
y
x
2
/
f ( z ) = 4 f ( z ) .
y
v
=
16. (a) Prove that the functions u = x y and
x 2 + y 2 are
2
harmonic. Is u + iv analytic?
(b) Find the bilinear transformation that maps i, -1, 1 of the zplane in to the points 0, 1, of the w-plane.
17. (a)
Evaluate
circle | z 2 |=
dz
( z 1)( z + 2) 2 where
is
the
1
, using Cauchys integral formula.
2
1
f
(
z
)
=
(b) Find the Laurents series of
z ( z 1) in the region
(i) |z + 1| < 1
cos z 2 + sin z 2
dz
18. (a) Evaluate ( z + 1)( z + 2)
where c is |z| = 3, using
C
Cauchys residue theorem.
(b) Find the residues of
z2
f ( z) =
( z 1)( z + 2) 2 at the
isolated singularities.
e at cos bt
.
19. (a) Find the Laplace transform of f (t ) =
t
log1 .
(b) Find the inverse Laplace transform of
s
(or)
t
4t
te
sin 3tdt.
1
,
(b) Find the inverse Laplace transform of ( s + 1)( s + 2)
using convolution theorem.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Course & Branch: B.E/B.Tech - CHEM/CIVIL/CSE/ECE/EEE/
MECH(Part Time)
Title of the paper: Engineering Mathematics - I
Semester: I
Max.Marks: 80
Sub.Code: 6CPT0006(2006-2007-2008)
Time: 3 Hours
Date: 18-05-2009
Session: FN
1.
2.
3.
4.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
3
Differentiate sin x sin3x with respect to x.
dx
x
Find
when t = tan ( )
dt
2
Evaluate the integral (3x + 4)dx
Prove that
5.
6.
z 1
Find the invariant points of the bilinear transformation z + 1 .
7.
1
Evaluate c 2 z + 3 dz Where c is z = 2
12.
x2 + y2
2z
2z
=
If z = log
verify the relation
xy
xy yx
( x 4) ( x 1) dx
(5)
(5)
(or)
14. (a) Evaluate
(3x + 2)
x 2 + 4 x + 1 dx
(5)
4
5
sin
cos
x
x dx
(b) Evaluate
(5)
cos x + sin x e y
uv=
y given that f ( ) = 0
y
2
2 cos x e e
(or)
16. (a) If f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function of z in a doman D then
that 2[f(z)2] = 4f (z)2
(b) Find the bilinear transformation that maps the points , i, 0
0,i, respectively.
17. Expand f(z) =
2
as Laurents series valid in the
( z 1) ( z 3)
18. Evaluate
prove
(5)
onto
(5)
following
(ii) 0<z-1<2
(or)
cos 2
d
5 4 cos
cos at cos bt
L
t
(5)
s3
s + 4 s + 13
(5)
(or)
s2
-1
20. Find L ( s 2 + a 2 )( s 2 +b 2 ) using convolution theorem.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART A
Answer All the Questions
2
Differentiate: x sin 3x.
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
Evaluate:
4.
5.
6.
7.
log x dx.
f ( z) =
(z + 1) (z 2)
8.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
x 2 x +1
.
11. (a) Differentiate: x 2 + x + 1
(5 x 12 = 60)
(7)
1 + sin x
log
.
(b) Differentiate :
1 sin x
(5)
(or)
d2y
.
12. (a) If x = a cos ; y = b sin; find dx 2
(5)
(b) If u = cos-1
x+ y
; Pr ove that
x+ y
(b) Evaluate
u
u 1
+y
+ cot u = 0.
(7)
x
y 2
x3
dx
4
x 9
(7)
dx
.
2
x + 3x + 2
(5)
(or)
2 x
x
14. (a) Evaluate e dx.
(5)
(sin x )
(b) Evaluate 0 (sin x ) + (cos x )
3
2
3
2
3
2
dx.
(7)
15. (a) Prove that the real and imaginary parts of an analytic function
satisfy the Laplace equation in two dimensions.
(5)
(b) Prove that the function u = x3 3xy2 + 3x2 3y2 + 1 is
Harmonic. Also find the conjugate Harmonic function and the
corresponding analytic function.
(7)
(or)
16. (a) Find the image of the circle |z| = 2 under the transformation
w = z + 3 + 2i.
(5)
(b) Find the bilinear transformation that maps the points 1 + i; -i;
2 i of the z-plane into the points 0, 1, I of the w-plane. (7)
z+4
dz
2
z + 2 z + 5 where C is the circle |z + 1 + i| =
(7)
1
(b) Find the Laurrents series of f(z) = z (1 z ) in the region
|z + 1| < 1.
(5)
(or)
18. Evaluate
(x
x2
+a
) (x
+b
dx
e 2t e 4t
dt
.
(7)
e s
(s + 3) .
(5)
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
dy
if y = (2 x 5) 6
dx
1.
Find
2.
3.
Evaluate x 2 e x dx
2
4.
(10 x 2 = 20)
Evaluate
x
1
1
x 1
2
dx
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
2z
( z 1) 2 ( z + 2)( z 4)
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
dy
dx
(or)
x+ y
u
u 1
, prove that x + y = tan u
y 2
x
x+ y
dx =
log( 2 + 1)
sin x + cos x
2 2
(or)
2
log(sin x)dx =
log 2
15. (a) Find the bilinear transformation that maps the points
Z 1 = -i, z 2 = 0, z 3 = i into the points w 1 = -1, w 2 = i, w 3 = i
respectively
(b) Find the image of the circle |z-1| = 1 in the complex plane
under the mapping w=
1
z
(or)
16. (a) Find the analytic function f(z) = u + i if u + =
f(1) = 1.
x
and
x2 + y2
z+4
z 2 + 2 z + 5 dz
e
residue theorem.
19. Solve by Laplace transform
dx
dy
+ y = sin t ;
+ x = cos t with x=2
dt
dt
2
( s + 1)( s 3s + 2
1
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
3
3
Find y' if x +y = 3axy.
2.
3.
1
Find sin x cos x dx
4.
Find
5.
6.
7.
Evaluate
8.
sin
x dx
z
dz , where C is the circle |z| = 1.
z2
9.
ax
Prove That L (e ) =
1
if
sa
s a > 0.
t sin t
10. Find L t dt
0
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
u u u
+
+
=0
(a) x y
z
12. (a) If
=
+
+
(
u
)
(b) x y z
( x + y + z) 2
(or)
x5 + y 5
,
u = log 3
3 Prove that
x +y
u
u
+y
=2
y
x
u u u
+
+
=0
(b) If u = f ( y z , z x, x y ) , Prove that x y z
13. Find integral values of
1
(i) e x + e 1 dx (ii)
(or)
1
sin 1 x
dx
14. (a) Evaluate
x
0
sin x
dx
=
(b) Show that sin x + cos x
4
0
2
log x
dx
2
(1 + log x )
sin 6 z
the
(b) Find
f ( z) =
dz
6
Laurents
, if C is |z| = 1.
series
expansion
of
1
z 2 + 3 z + 2 in the region 1 < |z| <2.
(or)
z
( z + 1) 2
residue.
(b) Evaluate
dz
1 cos 2t
L
,
t
(b)
L1
s ( s + 1)( s + 2)
(or)
20.
sin at
L
,
Find (a) t
s
L1 2
2 2
(b)
(
s
+
a
)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
1.
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
P.T.L [sin at].
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
Evaluate
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Solve
9.
z
e
c dz where c is |z| = 1.
sin x
1 + cos x dx .
s
(b) L-1 2
2
( s + 1)( s + 4)
(5 x 12 = 60)
(or)
12. (a)
S2
Use convolution theorem to find L 2 2
(s + a )
-1
z 1
13. Evaluate c
dz where c is the circle lz-il = 2.
2
( z + 1) ( z 2)
(or)
14. (a) Expand cos z about z = -/2 as a Taylors series.
z2 + 4
(b) Evaluate c
dz where c is the circle (i) |z| = 4.
z 3
(or)
18. Solve I =
1
( x 1) 2 ( x 2 + 1) dx
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
dy
1.
2.
2u
Find x 2 , if u = e2x.
3.
2
5
Evaluate (2 x + 7) 4 xdx
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
u u u
12. (a) If u = f(x-y, y-z, z-x) show that x + y + z = 0
(b) If
u=e
x2 + y2
u
u
x
+
y
= 4u
prove that x
y
2
e dx
(b)
x 2 5x
dx
( x 2 9)( x + 1)
(or)
2
x 2 + 3x + 4
dx
(b)
1
dx
( 2 x + 1)( x + 2)
Tailors
series
to
represent
the
function
z 2 1
in the region |z|<2.
( z + 2)( z + 3)
1
(b) Evaluate, using Cauchy integral formula 2i
z2 +5
dz on
z 3
(or)
z2 2z
18. Evaluate ( z + 1) 2 ( z 2 + 4) dz where C is the circle |z| = 3
C
using residue theorem.
s
1
L
19. (a) Find
( s 2 + a 2 ) 2 using Convolution theorem.
s ( s + 1)
1
(b) Find L log ( s 2 + 1)
(or)
20. Find the Laplace transform of the Half wave rectifiers function
sin t
f (t ) =
0
<t <
0<t <
withf t +
= f (t )
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max.Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
1.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
What is deformation by slip?
2.
3.
4.
5.
What is martensite?
6.
7.
Define sintering.
8.
9.
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer ALL the Questions
11. Explain briefly the various crystal structures with their
coordination number and atomic packing factor.
(or)
12. State and explain the Braggs law of x-ray diffraction. What are
its uses?
13. Explain in details the composition and uses of important
aluminium and copper alloys.
(or)
14. Draw the iron-iron carbide diagram, explain various phases of the
diagram.
15. Explain the theory of tempering. What are the effects of
tempering on the mechanical properties of steel?
(or)
16. Write short notes on the following:
(a) Annealing
(b) Age hardening
17. What is powder metallurgy? Explain Various methods of
manufacturing metal powder.
(or)
18. Write short notes on the following:
(a) Blending
(b) Hot pressing
(c) Infiltration
19. Describe tensile testing of mild steel. What are the data one can
get from such a test?
(or)
20. What is brittle fracture? Explain Griffiths crack theory.
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
1.
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
What is atomic packing factor?
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :AN
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
What is FCC crystal system?
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
4.
What is the composition of gun metal and what are its uses?
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
Define allotrophy.
3.
What is brazing?
4.
5.
What is hardenability?
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART A
Answer All the Questions
What are Miller Indices?
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
4.
What is soldering?
5.
6.
What is sintering?
7.
8.
9.
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
What do you mean by Allotropy of metals?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
What is creep?
PART B
Answer All the Questions
11. Describe briefly with neat diagram
(a) Substitutional solid solution.
(b) Interstitial solid solution.
(or)
12. What is an equilibrium diagram?
objectives.
(5 x 12 = 60)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Define soldering.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
11. Explain the Iron-Carbon phase diagram and its different region.
(or)
12. Draw the unit cells of BCC, FCC and HCP crystals and compare
the packing efficiency in them.
13. Explain in detail about the Fe- Fe3C diagram.
(or)
14. Explain in detail the effects of Carbon, Silicon, Manganese,
Nickel, Chromium and Copper elements in cast iron.
15. Write short notes on the following:
(a) Annealing
(b) TTT diagram
(or)
16. Describe in detail the heat treatment of non-ferrous alloys.
17. Write short notes on the Precipitation hardening
(or)
18. Explain the following:
(a) Sizing
(b) Infiltration
19. (a) Explain with a neat diagram the different stages in creep
curve.
(b) State the different causes of fatigue failure.
(or)
20. Discuss Griffths theory on brittle fracture.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(10 x 2 = 20)
(5 x 12 = 60)
11. Derive and explain the packing of atoms to form the SC, BCC
and FCC.
(or)
12. Explain in detail about the point, line and planar defects.
13. Writes short notes on
(a) Ductile and brittle material
(b) Viscous deformation
(or)
14. Discuss in detail about dispersion hardening.
15. Write in detail about the tensile testing and explain the related
technical terms about tensile test.
(or)
16. Discuss in detail about the fatigue testing method and the
importance of fatigue strength to engineering materials.
17. Draw the Fe Fe 3 C diagram labeling all regions, lines and phase
reactions.
(or)
18. Write a detail account on cast iron.
19. Draw legibly and explain about the TTT diagram.
(or)
20. Explain the following with suitable diagram.
(a) Precipitation hardening
(b) Nitriding.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max. Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
PART A
Answer All the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
3.
Define availability.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max.Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
1. Define Zeroth law of thermodynamics.
2. What do you understand about path and point functions?
3. Define the tem entropy.
4. State Clausius statement for second law of thermodynamics.
5. What is triple point?
6. Define compressibility factor.
7. Draw PV and TS diagram for diesel cycle.
8. List the advantages of reheating cycle.
9. Define calorific value.
10. What is stoichiometric ratio?
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer All the Questions
11. (a) Define and explain first law of thermodynamics.
(b) Show that energy is a property of system.
(or)
12. In a steam power station, steam flows steadily through a 0.2m
diameter pipe line from the boiler to the turbine. At the boiler end,
the steam conditions are found to be p = 4MPa, t = 400C, h = 3213.6
kJ/kg, and v = 0.073m3/kg. At the turbine end the conditions are
found to be: p = 3.5 MPa, t = 392C, h = 3202.6 kJ/kg, and v =
0.084m3/kg. There is a heat loss of 8.5 kJ/kg from the pipe line.
Calculate the steam flow rate.
13. (a) Give the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law explain.
(b) State and prove Clausius theorem.
(or)
14. A reversible heat engine operates between two reservoirs at
temperatures of 600C and 40C. The engine drives a reversible
refrigerator which operates between reservoirs at temperatures of
40C and -20C. The heat transfer to the heat engine is 2000 kJ and
the net work output of the combined engine refrigerator plant is 360
kJ.
(a) Evaluate the heat transfer to the refrigerant and the net heat
transfer to the reservoir at 40C.
(b) Reconsider (a) given that the efficiency of the heat engine and the
COP of the refrigerator are each 40% of their maximum possible
values.
15. Explain
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :AN
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
What is meant by thermodynamic system? How do you classify
it?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10. What are secondary fuels? List some important secondary fuels.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
volumes (5) the volume and the density of the mixture 6) cp and
cv of the mixture.
(or)
16. Steam at 7 bar and 0.9 dryness fraction expands isothermally to
1.5 bar. Calculate change in internal energy and change in
enthalpy?
17. Derive the efficiency for Otto cycle
(or)
18. In steam generator compressed liquid water at 10 Mpa, 30 C
enters a 30mm dia tube at the rate of 3 lit/sec. Steam at 9
Mpa.400 C exits the tube. Find the rate of heat transfer to the
water.
19. Derive the Vander walls gas equation
(or)
20. The volumetric analysis of a dry coal burnt in a boiler gauge C84%, H 2 -9%, and incombustibles 7% by weight. Determine the
weight of dry flue gas per kg of coal burnt, if volumetric
combustion of the flue gas is CO 2 -8.75%, CO-2.25%, O 2 -80%,
N 2 -81%
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :AN
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
Explain the First law of thermodynamics
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Define
7.
8.
9.
10. What is the difference between higher heating value (HHV) and
Lower heating value (LHV) of fuel?
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer All the Questions
11. 0.5 kg of air initially at 25 C is heated reversibly at constant
pressure until the volume is doubled and is then heated reversibly
at constant volume until the pressure is doubled. For the total
path, find the work transfer, the heat transfer and change in
entropy. Sketch the process of air in P-V and T-S diagram.
(or)
12. A room for four persons has two fans, each consuming 0.18KW
power and three 100W lamps. Ventilation air at the rate of 80
kg/hr enters with an enthalpy of 84 kj/kg and leaves with an
enthalpy of 59 kj/kg. If each person puts out heat at the rate of
630 kj/hr, determine the rate at which heat is to be removed by a
room cooler, so that a steady state is maintained in the room.
13. A reversible heat engine operating between reservoirs 900K and
300K drives a reversible refrigerator operating between the
reservoirs at 300K and 250K. The engine receives 1800kj heat.
The net output from the combined engine refrigerator is 360 Kj.
Find the heat transfer to the refrigerant and the net heat rejected
to the reservoir at 300K.
(or)
14. Derive the expression for entropy changes for a closed system in
the following cases
(a) Heating of a gas at constant pressure
(b) Polytrophic process
15. A mixture of ideal gas consists of 2 kg of nitrogen and 6 kg of
carbon dioxide at a pressure of 300Kpa and a temperature of 20
C. Find (i) the mole fraction of each constituent (ii) the
equivalent molecular weight of the mixture (iii) the equivalent
gas constant of the mixture (iv) the partial pressures and partial
volumes (v) the volume and the density of the mixture (vi) cp and
cv of the mixture.
(or)
16. Steam at 7 bar and 0.9 dryness fraction expands isothermally to
1.5 bar. Calculate change in internal energy and change in
enthalpy?
17. Derive the efficiency for diesel cycle.
(or)
18. In a rankine cycle, the steam flows to turbine as saturated steam
at a pressure of 35 bar and the exhaust pressure is 0.2 bar.
Determine (i) pump work (ii) turbine work (iii) efficiency of
cycle (iv) condenser heat flow (v) the dryness fraction at the end
of expansion. The mass flow rate of steam is 9.5 kg/sec
19. The volumetric analysis of a dry coal burnt in a boiler gauge C84%,H 2 -9%,and incombustibles 7% by weight. Determine the
weight of dry flue gas per kg of coal burnt, if volumetric
combustion of the flue gas is CO 2 -8.75%, CO-2.25%,O 2 80%,N 2 -81%
(or)
20. Derive Maxwell thermodynamic relation and explain their
importance in thermodynamics
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer All the Questions
State the different types of Thermodynamic systems.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Sketch Otto cycle on p-v diagram and name all the processes.
8.
Draw the T-S diagram of a simple Rankine cycle and show that
processes.
9.
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer All the Questions
11. Air at 1.02 bar, 22C, initially occupying a cylinder volume of
0.015 m3, is compressed reversibly and adaiabatically by a piston
to a pressure of 6.8 bar. Calculate:
(a) The final temperature
(b) The final volume
(c) The work done on the mass of air in the cylinder.
(or)
12. In a certain steady flow process, 12kg of fluid per minute enters
at a pressure of 1.4 bar, density 25kg/m3, velocity 120m/sec and
internal energy 920kJ/kg. The fluid properties at exit are pressure
5.6 bar, density 5kg/m3, velocity 180m/sec and internal energy
720 kJ/kg. During the process, the fluid rejects 60 kJ/sec of heat
and rises through 60m. Determine work done during the process
in kW.
13. Draw p-v and T-S diagram of Carnot cycle and derive the
expression for thermal efficiency of the cycle.
(or)
14. A heat pump provides 3 x 104kJ/h to maintain a dwelling at 23C
on day when the outside temperature is 0C. The power input to
the heat pump is 4kW. Determine the COP of the heat pump and
compare it with the COP of a reversible heat pump operating
between the reservoirs at the same two temperatures.
15. Estimate the quantity of heat required to produce 5kg of steam at
6 bar from water at 0C, when the steam is 80% dry and when it
is at 300C. Take Cp of superheated steam as 2.3 kJ/kgK.
(or)
16. A mixture of ideal gases consists of 3 kg of Nitrogen and 5kg of
carbon dioxide at a pressure of 300 kPa and a temperature of
20C. Find
(a) the mole fraction of each constituent
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
State zeroth law of thermodynamics.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Define compressibility.
6.
7.
Sketch diesel cycle on p-v diagram and name all the processes.
8.
Draw the T-S diagram of a brayton cycle and show the processes.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
11. 2 kg of air at 1.1 bar, 27C is compressed to 6.6bar as per the law
pv1.3 = constant. Calculate the work done, heat transfer and
change in entropy. Assume C p = 1.03kJ/kgK and = 1.4 for air.
(or)
12. A steady flow thermodynamic system receives fluid at the rate of
7kg/min with an initial pressure of 1.5bar, initial velocity of
200m/sec, internal energy of 800kJ/kg and density 24kg/m3. The
fluid leaves the system at a pressure of 7.5bar, velocity of
150m/sec internal energy 730kJ/kg and density 4kg/m3. If the
fluid receives 100kJ/kg of heat during its flow through the system
and rises through 70metres, determine the work done during the
process.
13. A domestic food freezer maintains a temperature of - 15C. The
ambient air temperature is 30C. If the heat leaks into the freezer
at the continuous rate of 1.75kJ/s what is the least power
necessary to pump this heat out continuously?
(or)
14. Explain the operation of a cyclic refrigerator plant with a block
diagram.
15. Steam at 10bar and 0.95dry is available. Find the final dryness
fraction of steam, using steam tables if 160kJ of heat is removed
per kg of steam at constant pressure.
(or)
16. A mixture of ideal gases consists of 3kg of Nitrogen and 5kg of
carbon dioxide at a pressure of 300kPa and a temperature of
20C. Find (a)
the mole fraction of each constituent (b) The
equivalent molecular weight of the mixture (c) The equivalent
gas constant of the mixture.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
1. What is meant by equilibrium?
2. Define enthalpy.
3. Describe clausins statement of the second law.
4. Define Entropy.
5. State Vander Waals equation.
6. Define compressibility.
7. Draw carnot cycle.
8. List out the actual vapour cycle losses.
9. What is meant by air-fuel ratio?
10. What is meant by heat value of fuels?
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer all Questions
11. In a steam power station,m steam flows steadily through a 0.2 m
diameter pipeline from the boiler to the turbine. At the boiler
end, the steam conditions are found to be p = 4 mpa, t = 400C, h
= 3213.61kJ/kg and v = 0.073 m3/kg. At the turbine end, the
conditions are found to be p = 3.5 MPA, t = 392C, h = 3202.6
kJ/kg and v= 0.083 m3/kg. There is a heat loss of 805 kJ/kg from
the pipeline. Calculate the steam flow rate.
(or)
12. The air speed of a turbojet engine in flight is 270 m/s. Ambient
air temperature-15C. Gas temperature at outlet of nozzle is
600C. Corresponding enthalpy values for air and gas are
respectively 260 and 912 kJ/kg. Fuel air ratio is 0.0190.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
3.
4.
What is availability?
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max.Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Define NPSH.
8.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
Hydraulic efficiency
= 95%
Overall efficiency
= 88%
Outer diameter runner
= 4.5m
Diameter of hub
= 2m
Assuming that the turbine discharges without whirl at exit,
determine the runner vane angles at the hub and the outer
periphery.
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :FN
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
State Newtons law of Viscosity.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(10 x 2 = 20)
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
1. State Newtons law of Viscosity.
2. What is the principle of manometer?
3. Differentiate between Uniform flow and Non uniform flow.
4. How do you classify Notches?
5. State Hagen poiseuilles equation for loss in flow through
circular pipes?
6. Write down the Chezys formula for fluid friction.
7. Define Static, manometric and gross head of a centrifugal pump.
8. What are the uses of air vessels in reciprocating pump?
9. Give examples for impulse turbine and reaction turbine.
10. What is Hydraulic similarity?
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer All the Questions
11. An U- tube manometer connects two pipes A and B. The pipe
contains oil of specific gravity 1.6 and pressure 120kN/m2. The pipe
B contains oil of specific gravity 0.8 and pressure 220 kN/m2. The
centre of the pipe A is 3m above the centre of the pipe B. The centre
of the pipe B is at the level of mercury in the left limb connecting the
pipe A. Find the difference of mercury levels.
(or)
12. A solid cylinder of diameter 4 m has a height of 3 m. Find the meta
centric height of the cylinder when it is floating in water with its axis
vertical. The sp. gr. of cylinder is 0.6.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART A
Answer All the Questions
State the Newtons law of viscosity.
2.
Define Buoyancy.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Define cavitations.
9.
(10 x 2 = 20)
PART B
(5 x 12 = 60)
Answer All the Questions
11. (a) A capillary tube of 2mm diameter is dipped in
(i) water
(ii) mercury. Find capillary rise for each case. Surface tension of
water and mercury may be taken as 0.075 N/m, and 0.52 N/m
respectively. The contact angle may be taken as 0 and 130 for
water and mercury respectively.
(b) State and prove hydrostatic law.
(or)
12. (a) A shaft 80mm in diameter is being pushed through a bearing
sleeve 80.20mm in diameter and 30mm long. The clearance is
filled with oil having a kinematics viscosity of 0.005 m2/s and
specific gravity of 0.9. If the shaft moves axially at 0.5m/s, find
the resistance offered by the oil on the shaft.
(b) A circular plate 1.5 meter diameter is immersed in water and
held in a vertical plane so that upper end of the vertical diameter
is 1 meter below the water surface. Calculate the total pressure on
the plate and the depth of centre of pressure.
13. (a) Derive Bernoullis equation for the flow of an incompressible
frctionless fluid form consideration of momentum.
(b) A pipe 300 meters long has a slope of 1 in 100 and tapers
from 1m diameter at the higher end to 0.5 m at the lower end.
Quantity of water flowing is 90 litres/s. if the pressure at the
higher end is 70 kN/m2, find the pressure at the lower end.
(or)
14. (a) Obtain an expression for the discharge through an
Venturimeter.
(b) The following data relate to an orifice meter: Diameter of the
pipe = 300mm; Diameter of the orifice = 150mm; Reading of the
18. (a) What is an air vessel? Describe the function of the air vessel
for reciprocating pumps.
(b) A single acting reciprocating pump has a plunger of diameter
25cm and a stroke of 18 cm. If the pump runs at 40 r.p.m.
Calculate the average discharge of the pump.
19. (a) Describe briefly the function of various main components of
Pelton turbine with neat sketches?
(b) An inward flow reaction turbine running at 450 rpm has an
external diameter of 50 cms and a width of 15cms. If the guide
vanes are at 15 to the wheel tangent and absolute velocity of
water at inlet is 20 m/sec find
(i) the discharge of the turbine and
(ii) the vane angle at outlet of the runner at inlet.
(or)
20. (a) With a neat sketch explain the construction and working of a
Kaplan Turbine.
(b) A pelton wheel utilizes 0.9 m3/ sec of water and works under
a head of 55 metres with a bucket speed of 18m/sec. If the vane
angle at outlet is 15 and C v = 0.98, find the horse power
developed and the hydraulic efficiency.
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
Define the term: Compressibility
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Classify Turbines.
PART B
Answer ALL the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
11. (a) Calculate the specific weight, specific mass and specific
gravity of a liquid weighing 44 KN and having a volume of 6m3.
(5)
2
(b) A plate having an area of 0.6 m is sliding down an inclined
plane at 30 to the horizontal with a velocity of 0.36 m/sec. There
is a cushion of fluid 1.8 mm thick between the plane and the
plate. Find the viscosity of the fluid if the weight of the plate is
280 N.
(7)
(or)
12. (a) Express 40 kPa in S.I units, both gauge and absolute.
Barometer reads 740 mm of mercury.
(5)
(b) An isosceles triangular plate of 3m base and 3m altitude is
immersed vertically in an oil of specific gravity 0.8. The base of
the plate coincides with free surface of oil.
Determine
(i) Total pressure and
(ii) Centre of pressure.
(7)
13. (a) Derive Bernoullis theorem from the first principles. Also
state the assumptions made and its limitations.
(9)
(b) Determine whether the following velocity components satisfy
the continuity equation. u = 2x2 + 3y; v = -2xy + 3y3 + 3xy (3)
(or)
14. Derive the equation for discharge through a rectangular notch.
15. A rectangular orifice 0.6 m wide and 0.8m deep is discharging
water from a vessel. The top edge of an orifice is 0.4 m below the
water surface of the vessel.
Find:
(a) Discharge through the orifice if C d = 0.62
(b) The percentage error if the orifice is treated as a
small orifice.
(or)
16. (a) A crude oil of viscosity 0.9 poise and relative density 0.9 is
flowing through a horizontal circular pipe of diameter 120mm
and length 12 m. Calculate the difference in pressure at the two
ends of the pipe, if 785 N of the oil is collected in a tank in 25
seconds.
(9)
(b) Write a short note on equivalent pipe.
(3)
17. Explain the component parts, their functions and working of a
double acting reciprocating pump, with a neat sketch.
(or)
18. A centrifugal pump running at 800 rpm is working against a total
head of 20.2 m. The external diameter of the impeller is 480 mm
and outlet width is 60mm. If the vane angle at outlet is 40 and
the manometric efficiency is 70%, determine
(a) Flow velocity at outlet
(b) Absolute velocity of water leaving the vane in magnitude and
direction
(c) Rate of flow through the pump.
19. Explain the construction and working of a Pelton wheel turbine.
Also derive its working proportions.
(or)
20. The pressure difference p in a pipe of diameter D and length 1
due to turbulent flow depends on the velocity V, viscosity ,
density and roughness k. Using Buckinghams -theorem
obtain an expression for p.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
(10 x 2 = 20)
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
2g H
the diameter of the suction pipe for the condition that separation
is avoided. Assume separation to occur at an absolute pressure
head of 2.5 m of water. Find the horse power required to drive
the pump neglecting all losses other than friction in the pipes
assuming friction factor f as 0.02.
(8)
19. (a) Define specific speed of a turbine. Derive an expression for
the specific speed.
(b) Design a Francis turbine runner with the following data:
Net head = 70 m; Speed N = 800 rpm; Output power = 400 kW;
Hydraulic efficiency = 95%; Overall efficiency = 85%; Flow
ratio = 0.2; Breadth ratio = 0.1; Inner diameter is 1/3 of outer
diameter. Assume 6% of circumferential area of the runner to be
occupied by the thickness of the vanes. The flow is radial at exit
and remains constant through out.
(or)
20. (a) Draw the sketch of a pelton wheel and explain the
characteristic features.
(4)
3
(b) For a pelton wheel turbine a discharge of 5.25m /sec of water
is available at a head of 315m at the nozzle. There are two
runners and each runner has two jets. The pipeline is 2000m long.
The efficiency of transmission for the pipe is 92%. The over all
efficiency of the turbine is 86%. Take for each nozzle C v = 0.98.
For the pipe line take f = 0.003. Find (i) the jet diameter (ii) pipe
diameter (iii) output of the turbine.
(8)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
Define buoyancy.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max. Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
PART A
Answer All the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
PART B
Answer All the Questions
(5 x 12 = 60)
11. Sketch and explain the inversion of a 4 bar mechanism, all the
four pairs are turning pairs.
(or)
12. The dimensions and configuration of the four bar mechanism,
shown in Fig are as follows:
P 1 A = 300mm; P 1 B = 360mm, AB = 360mm and P 1 P 2 = 600mm.
The angle AP 1 P 2 = 60 DEGREES. The crank P 1 A has an angular
velocity of 10 radians/ sec and an angular acceleration of 30
rad/s2, both clockwise. Determine the angular velocity and
angular accelerations of P 2 B and AB and the velocity and
acceleration of the joint B.
15. A disc cam used for moving a knife edge follower with simple
harmonic motion during lift and uniform acceleration and
retardation motion during return rotates in clockwise direction at
300 rpm. The line of motion of the follower has an offset 10mm
to the right of camshaft axis. The minimum radius of the cam is
40mm. The lift of the follower is 50mm. The cam rotation angles
are: Lift 60, dwell 120, return 90 and remaining angle for
dwell. Draw the cam profile and determine the maximum
velocity and acceleration during the lift and return.
(or)
16. Draw the profile of the cam when the roller follower moves with
cycloidal motion during outstroke and return stroke, as given
below:
(a) Outstroke with maximum displacement of 60mm during 120
if cam rotation
(b) Return stroke for the next 120 of cam rotation.
(c) Dwell for the remaining 120 of cam rotation.
The minimum radius of the cam is 30mm and the roller
diameter of the follower is 20mm. The axis of the roller is offset
by 15mm towards right from the axis fo cam shaft.
17. Two gear wheels mesh externally to give a velocity ration of 3 to
1. The involute teeth has 6mm module and 20 degrees pressure
angle. Addendum is equal to one module. The pinion rotates at
90 rpm. Determine: (i) Number of teeth on pinion to avoid
interference and the corresponding number on the wheel (ii) the
length of path and arc of contact (iii) contact ratio and (iv) the
maximum velocity of sliding.
(or)
18. An epicyclic gear train consisting of fixed sun gear, S with 50
teeth meshing with a planet gear, P with 40 teeth. The planet gear
meshes with a ring gear, R with 60 teeth. Determine the speed of
the ring gear when the Arm, A which carries the planet gear,
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max.Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
PART - A
(10 X 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
(5 x 12 = 60)
(or)
12. In the mechanism shown in figure, the crank OA rotates at 20
r.p.m. anticlockwise and gives motion to sliding blocks B and D.
The dimensions of various links are OA = 300 mm, AB = 1200
mm, and CD = 450 mm. For the given configuration determine
(a) velocities of sliding at B and D
(b) angular velocity of CD
(c) linear acceleration of D and
(d) angular acceleration. of CD
17. Two gear wheels mesh externally to give a velocity ratio of 3:1.
The involute teeth has 6mm module and 20 pressure angle.
Addendum is equal to one module. The pinion rotates at 90 rpm.
Determine (a) Number of teeth on pinion to avoid interference
and the corresponding number on the wheel. (b) The length of
path and arc of contact (c) contact ratio and (d) the maximum
velocity of sliding.
(or)
18. In a reverted epicyclic gear train, the arm A carries two gears S 1
and S 2 and a compound gear P 1 P 2 . The gear S 1 meshes with
gear P 1 and the gear S 2 meshes with gear P 2 . The numbers of the
teeth on S 1 , S 2 and P 1 are 80, 48 and 72 respectively. Find the
speed and direction of gear S 2 when gear S 1 is fixed and arm A
makes 400 rpm counter clockwise.
19. A porter governor has all four arms 250mm long. The upper arms
are attached on the axis of rotation and the lower arms are
attached to the sleeve at a distance of 30 mm form the axis. The
mass of each ball is 5 kg and the sleeve has a mass of 50 kg. The
extreme radii of rotation are 150mm and 200mm. Determine the
range of speed of the governor.
(or)
20. In a spring loaded governor of the Hartnell type, the mass of each
ball is 1 kg, length of vertical arm of the bell crank lever is
100mm and that of the horizontal arm is 50mm. The distance of
fulcrum of each bell crank lever is 80mm from the axis of
rotation of the governor. The extreme radii of rotation of the balls
are 75mm and 112.5mm. The maximum equilibrium speed is 5
percent greater that the minimum equilibrium speed which is 360
rpm. Find, neglecting obliquity of arms, initial compression of
the spring and equilibrium speed corresponding to the radius of
rotation of 100mm.
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :AN
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
Name the kinematic pairs according to the type of relative motion
between the elements.
2.
3.
4.
List out the inversions possible from a four bar kinematic chain.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
O
A
75
B
C
D
DIAGRAM 1
P1
P2
Diagram 2
18. In a reverted epicyclic gear train, the arm A carries two gears B,
C and a compound gear D-E. The gear B meshes with gear E and
gear C meshes with gear D. the number of teeth on gears B, C
and D are 75, 30, and 90 respectively. Find the speed and
direction of gear C when the gear B is fixed and the arm A makes
100 rpm Clockwise.
19. A Proell governor has equal arms of length 300 mm. the upper
and lower ends of the arms are pivoted on the axis of the
governor. The extension arms of the lower links each 80 mm long
and parallel to the axis when the radii of rotation of the balls are
150 mm and 200 mm. the mass of each ball is 10 kg and the mass
of the central load is 100 kg. Determine the range of speed of the
Governor.
(or)
20. A porter governor has all four arms 300 mm long. The upper
arms are attached on the axis of rotation and the lower arms are
attached to the sleeve at a distance of 25 mm from the axis. The
mass of each ball is 8 kg and the sleeve has a mass of 60 kg. The
extreme radii of rotation are 200 mm and 250 mm. determine the
range of the speed of the governor.
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
Max. Marks:80
Time : 3 Hours
Session :AN
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1.
PART - A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer ALL the Questions
What is meant by ternary joint and quaternary joint?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
component
and
tangential
D
DIAGRAM 1
The center distance between the centers of rotation O and C is 65
mm. The path of travel of the slider is 11 mm below the fixed
point C. The slider moves along a horizontal path and OC is
vertical.
(or)
12. Explain with neat sketches of the four bar mechanism and its
inversions.
13. Determine the proportions of four bar mechanism,by using three
precision points to generate y = x1.5 , where x varies between 1
and 4. Assume s = 30; = 90; s = 90; = 90. Take the
fixed link AD as 30 mm.
(or)
14. The crank of a slider crank mechanism rotates clockwise at a
constant Speed of 400 rpm. The crank is 160 mm and the
connecting rod is 650 mm long. Determine (a) the linear velocity
and acceleration of the slider and (b) the angular velocity and
angular acceleration of the connecting rod, at a crank angle of 45
from the inner dead center position.
direction of gear C when the gear B is fixed and the arm A makes
100 rpm Clockwise.
19. A Proell governor has equal arms of length 300 mm. the upper
and lower ends of the arms are pivoted on the axis of the
governor. The extension arms of the lower links each 80 mm long
and parallel to the axis when the radii of rotation of the balls are
150 mm and 200 mm. the mass of each ball is 10 kg and the mass
of the central load is 100 kg. Determine the range of speed of the
Governor.
(or)
20. The following particulars refer to a Proell governor with open
arms: Length of all arms= 200 m; Distance of pivot of arms from
the axis of rotation = 40 mm; Length of extension of lower arms
to which each ball is attached = 100 mm; Mass of each ball = 6
kg; Mass of the central load =150 kg. If the radius of rotation of
the balls is 180 mm when the arms are inclined at an angle of 40
to the axis of rotation, find the equilibrium speed for the above
configuration.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
Max. Marks: 80
Time: 3 Hours
Session: FN
1.
PART A
(10 x 2 = 20)
Answer All the Questions
How many inversions are possible from a four-bar chain?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
viewed form the stern. Find the gyroscopic effect in the following
conditions:
(a) The ship sails at a speed of 30 km/hr and steers to the left in
curve having 60m radius;
(b) the ship pitches 6 above and 6 below the horizontal
position. The bow is descending with its maximum velocity. The
motion due to pitching simple harmonic and the periodic times is
20 seconds.
(c) The ship rolls and at a certain instant it has an angular
velocity of 0.03 rad/sec clockwise when viewed form stern.
17. Two spur gear wheels mesh externally and are to give a velocity
ratio of 3. The teeth are involutes form with diameteral pitch 2.
Use standard addendum values and pressure angle is 18.
Determine
(a) The number of teeth in each wheel to avoid interference.
(b) The lengths of path and arc of contact.
(c) The number of pair of teeth in contact.
(d) The angle of rotation of teeth pinion whilst any one pair of
teeth is in contact.
(or)
18. A epicyclic gear train consisting of fixed sun gear, S with 50
teeth meshing with a planet gear, P with 40 teeth. The planet gear
meshes with a ring gear, R with 60 teeth. Determine the speed of
the ring gear when the arm, A which carries the planet gear
rotates at a speed of 100 rpm clockwise about the sun gear center
axis.
19. The mass of each ball of a Proell governor is 7.5 kg and the load
on the sleeve is 80 kg. Each of the arms is 300mm long. The
upper arms are pivoted on the axis of rotation whereas the lower
arms are pivoted to links of 40mm from the axis of rotation. The
extensions of the Lower arms to which the balls are attached at
100mm long and are parallel to the governor axis at the minimum
Register Number
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act, 1956)
1.
PART - A
(6 X 5 = 30)
Answer ALL the Questions
Differentiate completely constrained motion and incompletely
constrained motion.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)
16. A car is of total mass 3000 kg. It has wheel base equal to 2.5 m
and track width equal to 1.5m. The effective diameter of each
wheel is 800 mm and moment of inertia of each wheel is 1 kg-m2.
The rear axial ratio is 4. The mass moment of inertia of engine
parts is 3 kg-m2 and spin axis of engine parts is perpendicular to
the spin axis of wheels. Determine the reaction at each wheel if
car takes right turn 100 m radius at 108 km/hr speed. Also
determine critical speed. The height of C.G is 0.5m from ground
and it is passed on the vertical line through geometric center of
wheels.
17. A gear wheel having 20 teeth of involute form of module pitch
6mm and an angle of obliquity of 20 degrees drives another
wheel of the same dimensions. Calculate the length of arc of
contract. The addendum is one module. If the addendum was
altered so that the arc of contact was the maximum possible what
would be the length of the arc, and the addendum required for
this?
(or)
18. An epicyclic gear train consisting of fixed sun gear, S with 50
teeth meshing with a planet gear, P with 40 teeth. The planet gear
meshes with a ring gear, R with 60 teeth. Determine the speed of
the ring gear when the arm A which carries the planet gear rotates
at a speed of 100 rpm clockwise about the sun gear center axis.
19. Lengths of four arms are all 350mm. the upper arms are pivoted
on the axis of rotation and the lower arms at an offset of 40mm
form spindle axis. Each fly ball has a mass of 10 kg and sleeve of
60 kg. With these data for Porter governor and extreme radii of
250mm and 300mm for the rotation of governor balls, calculate
the equilibrium speeds at maximum and minimum radii and the
range of speed. The above data is used for Proell governor with
the condition that it will have the same equilibrium speed as
Porter governor at minimum radius with the ball centre vertically
above the joint. Determine the mass of the fly balls required and
compare the maximum equilibrium speed if the sleeve lift is
equal to that of above Porter governor. The extensions of lower
arm are 50 mm and vertical when the radius of rotation of the ball
is 250 mm.
(or)
20. A Hartnell governor having a central sleeve spring and twoangled bell crank levers operates between 290 rpm and 310 rpm
for a sleeve lift of 15mm. The sleeve arms and ball arms are 80
mm and 120 mm respectively. The levers are pivoted at 120 mm
from the governor axis and mass of each ball is 2.5 kg. The ball
arms are parallel to the governor axis at lowest equilibrium
speed. Determine (a) Loads on each spring at the lowest and the
highest equilibrium speeds and (b) Stiffness of the spring.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART - B
Answer ALL the Questions
11.
12.
(10 x 2 = 20)
(5 x 12 = 60)
(or)
The dimensions of the various links of a mechanism as shown in fig. are as
follows: OA = 80mm; AC = CB = CD = 120 mm. If the crank OA rotates at
150 r.p.m in the anticlockwise direction find for the given configuration: 1.
velocity and acceleration of B and D: 2. rubbing velocity on the pin at C, if its
diameter is 20 mm; and 3. angular acceleration of the links AB and CD.
13.
14.
(or)
In a quick return mechanism, as shown in fig. the drive crank OA is 60mm
long and rotates at a uniform speed of 200 r.p.m in a clockwise direction. For
the position shown, find
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
to one module, find, (a) the angle turned through by pinion when one pair of
teeth is in mesh; and
(b) the maximum velocity of sliding.
(or)
In an epicyclic gear of the sun and planet type as shown in fig. the pitch circle
diameter of the internally toothed ring is to be 224 mm and the module 4mm.
When the ring D is stationary, the spider A, Which carries three planet wheels
C of equal size, is to make one revolution in the same sense as the sunwheel B
for every five revolutions of the driving spindle carrying the sunwheel B.
Determine suitable numbers of teeth for all the wheels.
The mass of each ball of proell governor is 7.5 kg and the load on the sleeve is
80 kg. Each of the arms is 300mm long. The upper arms are pivoted on the
axis of rotation whereas the lower arms are pivoted to links of 40mm from the
axis of rotation. The extensions of the lower arms to which the balls are
attached are 100mm long and are parallel to the governor axis at the minimum
radius. Determine the equilibrium speeds corresponding to extreme radii of
180mm and 240mm.
(or)
Calculate the range of speed of porter governor which has equal arms of each
200mm long and pivoted on the axis of rotation. The mass of each ball is 4 kg
and the central mass of the sleeve is 20 kg. The radius of rotation of the ball is
100mm when the governor begins to lift and 130mm when the governor is at
maximum speed.
SATHYABAMA UNIVERSITY
(Established under section 3 of UGC Act,1956)
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
PART - A
Answer ALL the Questions
(10 x 2 = 20)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
What are the different types of motion with which a follower can
move?
6.
7.
8.
9.
(5 x 12 = 60)