1457156375-Inorganic Chemistry Revision Book JEE Main-2016.Pmd

Inorganic Chemistry
Revision Book
Lucknow Centres :
CHEMISTRY REVISION BOOK 1
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Periodic Table and Periodicity

1.
The places that were left empty by Mendeleev in his periodic table were for :
(A) aluminium and silicon
(B) gallium and germanium
(C) arsenic and antimony
(D) molybdenum and tungsten
2.
The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal similarities are :
(A) inert gas elements
(B) representative elements
(C) transition elements
(D) none of these
3.
Of the following pairs, the one containing examples of metalloid elements is :

(A) B and Al
(B) Ga and Ge
(C) Al and Si
(D) As and Sb
4.
Which of the following is the wrong statement ?

(A) All the actinide elements are radioactive.
(B) Alkali and alkaline earth metals are s-block elements.
(C) Pnicogens and halogens are p-block elements. (D) The first member of the lanthanide series is lanthanum.
5.
Atomic number of 15, 33, 51 represents the following family :

(A) carbon family
(B) nitrogen family
(C) oxygen family
6.
(D) None of these
According to Modern periodic table, Chalcogens are elements of :

(A) group 16
(B) p-block
(C) ns2np4 configuration
(D) all of these
7.
Which set does not shows correct matching according to Modern periodic table :
(A) Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1; element belongs to 6th group.
(B) Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6; element belongs to 8th group.
(C) Sc3+ = [Ne] 3s2 3p6; element belongs to zero/eighteen group.
(D) All of the above.
8.
Which of the following statement is wrong for the d-block elements :

(A) General electronic configuration for them is (n 1)d110ns02.
(B) They generally exhibit variable valency.
(C) Last electron enters in (n 1)d subshell in them.
(D) They are placed from 3rd to 6th period in modern periodic table.
9.
In which element shielding effect is not possible ?

(A) H
(B) Be
(C) B
(D) N
10.
In a given energy level, the order of penetration effect of different orbitals is :

(A) f < p < d < s
(B) s < p < d < f
(C) f < d < p < s
(D) s = p = d = f
11.
Statement-1 : Generally in a period in Modern periodic table, noble gas has the largest atomic radius.
Statement-2 : In case of noble gases, Vander waal's radius is defined and there are large inter-electronic
repulsions.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(E) Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are False.
3
Statement-1 : Br and As are isoelectronic but the ionic radius of As3 is greater than that of Br.
Statement-2 :The magnitude of effective nuclear charge on the outermost shell electrons in As3 is lesser than
that in Br.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True. (E) Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are False.
12.
13.
14.
The lanthanide contraction refers to :

(A) radius of the series.
(C) the density of the series.
(B) valence electrons of the series.

(D) electronegativity of the series.
Select correct statement(s) :

(A) Across a transition series (from Cr to Cu), there is only a small change in atomic radius from one element
to another due to very small change in effective nuclear charge.
(B) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across the first transition
series.
(C) Both are correct statements.
(D) None of the statement is correct.

15.
Which of the following gaseous atoms has highest value of ionisation enthalpy ?
(A) P
(B) Si
(C) Mg
(D) Al
16.
The second ionization enthalpies of elements are always higher than their first ionization enthalpies because:
(A) cation formed always have stable half filled or completely filled valence shell electron configuration.
(B) it is easier to remove electron from cation.
(C) ionization is an endothermic process.
(D) the cation is smaller than its parent atom.
17.
A large difference between the third and fourth ionization energies indicates the presence of :
(A) 4 valence electrons in an atom
(B) 5 valence electrons in an atom
(C) 3 valence electrons in an atom
(D) 2 valence electrons in an atom
18.
Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation enthalpy ?

(A) Te2 < I < Cs+ < Ba2+
(B) I < Te2 < Cs+ < Ba2+
2
+
2+
(C) Te < Cs < I < Ba
(D) Ba2+ < Cs+ < I < Te2
19.
The correct order of electron gain enthalpy (most endothermic first and most exothermic last) is :
(A) Be < B < C < N
(B) Be < N < B < C
(C) N < Be < C < B
(D) N < C < B < Be
20.
For magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of chalcogens and halogens, which of the following options is correct ?
(A) Br > F
(B) S > F
(C) O < Cl
(D) S < Se
21.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) The elements having large negative values of electron gain enthalpy generally act as strong oxidising
agents.
(B) The elements having low values of ionisation enthalpies act as strong reducing agents.
(C) The formation of S2(g) from S(g) is an endothermic process.
(D) All of these.
22.
Amphoteric behaviour is shown by the oxides of :

(A) Al and Ca
(B) Pb and N
(C) Be and B
23.
Increasing order of acidic character is :

(A) SO3 > N2O5 > CO2 > SiO2
(C) SO3 < N2O5 > CO2 < SiO2
(D) Sn and Zn
(B) SO3 < N2O5 < CO2 < SiO2

(D) SO3 > N2O5 > CO2 < SiO2
24.
Which of following ions do not exist together in aqueous solution :

(A) Pb2+, F
(B) Tl3+, I
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
25.
Which is/are true statement(s) ?

(A) Larger is the value of ionisation enthalpy, easier is the formation of cation.
(B) Larger is the value of electron gain enthalpy, easier is the formation of anion.
(C) Larger is the value of ionisation energy as well as electron affinity, smaller is the Mulliken electronegativity of
atom.
(D) Larger is the Zeff, larger is the size of atom.
26.
Select the endothermic step(s) :

(A) S(g) + e S2(g)
(C) N(g) e N(g)
(B) Ne(g) + e Ne(g)

(D) All
27.
Select the correct statement.

(A) E1 of nitrogen atom is less than E1 of oxygen atom.
(B) Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is more negative than selenium.
(C) Electronegativity on Pauling scale is 2.8 times the electronegativity on Mulliken scale.
(D) Cr6+ is smaller than Cr3+.
28.
Which is incorrect order for the properties specified ?

(A) I > Br > Cl > F
(oxidising character)
(B) K > Mg > Al > B
(metallic character)
(C) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (first ionisation enthalpy)
(D) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
(first ionisation enthalpy)
Chemical Bonding
29.
30.
31.
Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ?

(A) CH4
(B) H2O2
(C) NH4Cl
(D) none
In the following which substance will have highest boiling point

(A) He
(B) CsF
(C) NH3
(D) CHCl3
Arrange the following in order of decreasing N O bond length : NO2+ , NO2 , NO3
(A) NO3 NO2 NO2
(B) NO3 NO2 NO2
(C) NO2 NO3 NO2
(D) NO2 NO3 NO2
In the thiocyanate ion, SCN three resonating structure are possible with the electron-dot method as shown in
figure : 1
:
S=C=N
(x)
The decreasing order of % contribution in resonance hybrid is :
(A) y > x > z
(B) y > z > x
(C) z > x > y
(D) cannot predicted.
33.
The correct order of CN bond length in the given compounds is :

P : CH3CN
Q : HNCO
R : CH3CONH2
(A) P > Q > R
(B) P = Q = R
(C) R > Q > P
32.
(D) R > P > Q
34.
Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi bond formed between two carbon atoms?
(A) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma - bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(B) Sigma -bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this
regard
(C) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(D) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol. respectively.
35.
Number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are :
(A) one sigma () and one pi () bond
(B) one and two bonds
(C) one and one and a half bond
(D) one bond
36.
The number of and bonds in dicyanogen (CN)2 are :

(A) 2 + 3
(B) 3 + 2
(C) 3 + 4
(D) 4 + 3
Indicate the incorrect statement :
(A) An sp hybrid orbital is not lower in energy than both s- and p-orbitals
(B) 2px and 2py - orbitals of carbon can be hybridized to yield two new more stable orbitals
(C) Effective hybridisation is not possible with orbitals of widely different energies
(D) The concept of hybridisation has a greater significance in the VB theory of localised orbitals than in the MO
theory.
37.
38.
The correct order of increasing s character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals in below molecules / ions is
(assume all hybrid orbitals are exactly equivalent) :
CO32
XeF4
3
NCl3
BeCl2 (g)
V
V
(A) < < V < < V
(B) V < < V <
(C) < < < V < V
(D) V < < < V
39.
The hybridisation of P in phosphate ion (PO43) is the same as :

(A) in C4
(B) S in SO3
(C) N in NO3
(D) S in SO32
40.
Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?

(a) BCl3
(b) NH3
(c) PCl3
(d) BeF2
The correct answer is :
(A) a, b, d
(B) a, b, c
(C) b, c
(D) c, d
41.
Phosphorous penta-chloride in gaseous phase exists as a monomer. In solid state, it exists as PCl4+ and PCl6
ions. The hybrid state of P-atom in PCl5 is sp3d. The hybrid states of Patoms in PCl4+ and PCl6 will be :
(A) sp3d, sp3d2
(B) sp3,sp3d2
(C) sp3d2, sp3d
(D) sp3,sp3d
42.
In which of the following cyclic compound the nitrogen atom is sp3 hybridised
()
()
()
(V)
NH2
(A) &
(B) , ,
NO2
(C) & V
(D) , & V
43.
The bent or Vshape of the molecule can be resulted from which of the following hybridization.
(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(D) None of these
44.
A bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The number of non-bonding pairs of electrons can be
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) none of these
45.
Which of the following pairs does not contain isomorphous species :

(A) BaSO4, KMnO4
(B) KClO4, KBF4
(C) FeSO4.7H2O, MgSO4.7H2O
(D) NaClO3, NaNO3
46.
sp3d hybridization is considered to be a combination of two hybridization. They are

(A) p3 + sd
(B) sp2 + pd
(C) spd + p2
(D) none of these
47.
Which of the following should have pyramidal shape :

(A) [ClOF2]+
(B) ICl3
(C) [BrCl]
(D) All of these
Which of the following species have a non linear shape ?

(A) N2O
(B) I3+
(C) SCN
(D) NO2+
48.
49.
The correct order of increasing X O X bond angle is ( X H, F or Cl) :

(A) H2O Cl2 O F2 O
(B) Cl 2O H2 O F2 O
(C) F2 O Cl 2O H2 O
(D) F2 O H2O Cl2 O
50.
When NH3 is treated with HCl, in the product species HNH bond angle (in comparison to ammonia)
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains same
(D) Depends upon temperature
51.
The correct order of bond angle is :

(A) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < CH4
(C) H2S < NH3 < CH4 < BF3
52.
(B) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3

(D) H2S < CH4 < NH3 < BF3
Arrange the following in the increasing order of deviation from normal tetrahedral angle :
(A) P4 < PH3 < H2O
(B) PH3 < H2O < P4
(C) P4 <H2O < PH3
(D) H2O < PH3 < P4
53.
In XeF2 molecule the angle between two lone pair orbitals is , the angle between lone pair orbital and bond pair
orbital is and the angle between bond pair orbitals is :
(A) = =
(B) > >
(C) > >
(D) > >
54.
In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?
(A) NF3
(B) ClF3
(C) BF3
(D) AlF3
Which of the following is correct order of bond length ?

(A) BF4 < BF3
(B) NO2+ < NO2
(C) CCl4 < CF4
(D) +CH3 > CH4
55.
56.
In which of the following cases the stated bond is longer in first species than in second species?
(A) C H bond in cyclopropane and propane
(B) Equatorial P Cl bond in PCl5 and PCl bond in PCl6
(C) N N bond in N2O4 and N N bond in N2H4
(D) C C bond in benzene and C2H6
57.
Identify the correct statement :

(A) single NN bond is stronger than single P P bond
(B) single NN bond is weaker than single P P bond
(C) N N is weaker than P P
(D) None of these
58.
In O2F2, which of the following statement is incorrect.

(A) OF bond length in O2F2 is longer than OFbond length in OF2.
(B) The O.N. of oxygen in O2F2 is +1.
(C) The OO bond length in O2F2 is shorter than OO bond length in H2O2.
(D) None of these
59.
Which of the following are not characteristics of metallic solids ?

(A) high electrical conductivity
(B) malleable and ductile
(C) the free electrons give them lustrous appearance
(D) electrical conductivity increases on increasing temperature
60.
Two element have electronegativity of 1.2 and 3.0. Bond formed between them would be :
(A) more ionic
(B) polar Covalent
(C) co-ordinate
(D) metallic
61.
Boron forms covalent compound due to

(A) Small size
(B) Higher ionization energy
(C) Lower ionization energy
(D) Both (A) and (B)
62.
To which of the following species is the octet rule applicable ?

(A) BrF5
(B) SF6
(C) IF7
(D) CO2
63.
The maximum covalency for representative elements is equal to (excluding 1st and 2nd period) :
(A) the number of unpaired p-electrons
(B) the number of paired d-electrons
(C) the number of unpaired s and p-electrons
(D) the actual number of s and p-electrons in the outermost shell.
64.
Correct order of bond energy of CO bond is :

(A) CO 32 > CO 2 > CO
(B) CO 2 > CO > CO32
(C) CO > CO 2 > CO 32
(D) None of these.
65.
For hydrazoic acid , which of the following resonating structure will be least stable ?
(A) I
66.
(B) I I
(C) I I F
(D) Both (I) and (III)
Which of the following overlaps gives a bond with x as internuclear axis?

(A) pz and pz
(B) s and pz
(C) s and px
(D) d
x2 y2
and dx 2 y 2
67.
68.
Which of the statements is correct about SO2 ?

(A) two , two and no lone pair of electrons
(B) two and one
(C) two , two and one lone pair
(D) none of these
Which of the following is true statement ?

(A) All the carbon in H2C C C C C CH2 are in sp2 hybridisation.
|
H
|
H
(B) In C2H2(CN)2 there are six bonds.

(C) In C2H6, all C are sp2 hybridized
(D) In C3O2 all the carbons are in sp hybridisation.
69.
The correct order of increasing s character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals in below
molecules / ions is (assume all hybrid orbitals are exactly equivalent) :
SnCl2
XeF4
3
NCl3
HgCl2 (g)
I
II
III
IV
V
(A) < < V < < V
(B) V < < V <
(C) < < < V < V
(D) V < < < V
70.
The hybrid state of positively charged carbon in vinyl cation (CH2 = C H ) is :

(A) Unpredicatable
(B) sp2
(C) sp
(D) sp3
71.
If the equatorial plane is x y plane in sp3d hybridisation then the orbital used in pd hybridisation are (A) pz and dz2
(B) px and dxy
(C) py and dyz
(D) none of these
72.
In the cation [HCNXeF]+ which is linear, the hybridisations of C, N & Xe atoms respectively are (A) sp, sp, sp
(B) sp , sp2, sp3d
(C) sp, sp, sp3d
(D) sp2 , sp, sp3d
73.
The structure of O2F2 is analogous to :

(A) SF4
(B) XeO2F2
(C) F2SeO2
(D) (A) and (B) both
74.
Which of the following about SF4, SOF4 and OCF2 molecules is correct.
(A) Equitorial FSF bond angle in SOF4 will be greater than in SF4 molecule
(B) Hybridisation states of sulphur in SF4 and SOF4 molecules will be different.
(C) The bond angle FCO will be < 120 in molecule OCF2
(D) The axial FSF bond angle in SF4 is exactly 180
75.
Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs and bond angle (need not be all bond angles) < 109.5?
(A) SF2
(B) KrF4
(C) Cl4
(D) All of these
76.
Incorrect order about bond angle is :

(A) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(C) SF6 < NH3 < H2O < OF2
(B) C2H2 > C2H4 > CH4 > NH3

(D) ClO2 > H2O > H2S > SF6
77.
In the structure of H2CSF4, to decide the plane in which C = S is present the following bond angle values are
given :
Axial FSF angle (idealised = 180)
170
Equatorial FSF angle (idealised = 120)
97
After deciding the plane of double bond, which of the following statement is/are correct ?
(A) two C H bonds are in the same plane of axial S F bonds
(B) two C H bonds are in the same plane of equatorial S F bonds
(C) total five atoms are in the same plane
(D) equatorial S F bonds are perpendicular to plane of -bond
78.
The bond length in LiF will be

(A) less than that of NaF
(B) equal to that of KF
(C) more than that of KF
(D) equal to that of NaF
S1 : Oxidation number of N in N2O 5 is 5
S2 : The anhydride of Hypochlorous acid is Cl 2O
S3 : As the electronegativity of central atom in a molecule having same hybridisation state and same
79.
terminal atoms increases, bond angle increases.

S4 : For heteronuclear diatomic species A B, the bond length decreases as the difference in
electronegativity values increases.
(A) T T T F
(B) F T T T
(C) F F T F
(D) T T F T
80.
S1 : In CrO5 , the oxidation number of Cr is +6.

S2 : Out of CH3Cl and CHCl3, CH3Cl has higher dipole moment
S3 : Hybridisation of sulphur in SO3 and in its trimer is the same, sp2 .
(A) T F T
81.
(B) T T F
(C) T F F
(D) T T T
Among the XeF2, SF2Cl2, XeOF2 , ICl2 , IOCl4 and F2ClO+1

S1 : XeF2, ICl2 , XeOF2 have zero dipole moment
S2 : IOCl4 and F2ClO+1 have different electronic arrangement (geometry) at central atom
S3 : SF2Cl2 , IOCl4 and F2ClO+ have equal number of lone pairs of electrons at the central atom.
S4 : All bond angle in each of species , XeOF4 , IOCl4 , SF2Cl2 and F2ClO+ are identical
The correct order for the above statements is :
(A) F T T F
(B) F F F F
(C) T T F F
(D) T F T F
82.
Which of the following would be expected to have a dipole moment of zero on the basis of symmetry?
(A) SOCl2
(B) OF2
(C) SeF6
(D) ClF5
83.
If molecule MX3 has Zero dipole moment, the hybrid orbitals used by M (Atomic No. < 21) are
(A) Pure p
(B) sp hybrid
(C) sp2 hybrid
(D) sp3 hybrid
84.
Given the species N2, CO, CN and NO+ . Which of the following statement is incorrect .
(A) All the species are diamagnetic
(B) All the species are isoelectronic
(C) All the species have dipole moment
(D) All the species are linear
85.
Which of the following are incorrect for dipole moment ?

(A) Lone pair of elements present on central atom can give rise to dipole moment
(B) Dipole moment is vector quantity
(C) PF 5 (g) molecule has non zero dipole moment
(D) Difference in electronegativities of combining atom can lead to dipole moment
86.
Which of the following orders are correct regarding mentioned properties

(A) SO3 < CCl4 < XeF2 (Bond angle).
(B) SOF2 > SOCl2 > SOBr2 (Bond angle)
(C) CH3COO > CO32 > CH3COCH3 (C O bond length)
(D) CH3Cl > CH3F < CD3F (dipole moment).
87.
CH3Cl has more dipole moment than CH3F because :

(A) electron affinity of chlorine is greater than that of fluorine.
(B) the charge separation is larger in CH3Cl compared to CH3F.
(C) the repulsion between the bond pairs and non-bonded pairs of electrons is greater in CH3Cl than CH3F.
(D) chlorine has higher electronegativity than fluorine.
88.
S1 : In ozone molecule, O O bond lengths are equal, this can be explained on the basis of resonance.
S2 : Ion-dipole attraction is responsible for hydration of ions.
S3 : Intermolecular H-bonding decreases the boiling point.
S4 : A symmetrical molecule with identical bonds have non zero dipole moment.
(A) T F T F
(B) T T F T
(C) T T F F
(D) T T T F
89.
H - bonding is maximum in
(A) C 6H5OH
(B) C 6H5COOH
(C) CH3CH2OH
(D) CH3COCH3
90.

(A) The order of XeF bond length in various fluorides of Xenon is XeF2 < XeF4 < XeF6
(B) PH5 can undergo sp3d hybridisation to have octahedral geometry.
(C) Dipole moment of CH3F is greater than that of CH3Cl
(D) Increasing strength of hydrogen bonding is ClH----Cl < NH----N < OH----O < FH----F
91.
Which of the following compounds would have significant intermolecular hydrogen bonding ?
HF, CH3OH, N2O4 , CH4 , NH3
(A) HF, N2O4, NH3
92.
(B) HF, CH4 , CH3 OH
(C) HF, CH3OH, NH3
Which one of the following does not have intermolecular H-bonding ?

(A) H2O
(B) o-nitro phenol
(C) HF
(D) CH3OH, CH4, NH3
(D) CH3COOH
93.
The increasing order of the strength of hydrogen bond in the following mentioned linkages is :
(i) OH---S
(ii) SH---O
(iii) FH---F
(iv) FH---O
(A) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) (B) (ii) < (i) < (iv) < (iii) (C) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (D) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)
94.
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
S1 : HF boils at a higher temperature than HCl
S2 : HBr boils at lower temperature than HI
S3 : Bond length of N2 is less than N2+
S4 : F2 has higher boiling point than Cl2
(A) T F T T
(B) T T F F
(C) T T T F
(D) T T T T
95.
S1 : The polarising power of a cation and polarisability of an anion, both are directly proportional to their sizes.
S2 : H2+ and He2+ have same bond order but H2+ is more stable than He2+ .
S3 : The strength of hydrogen bond does not depend at all on the availability of the lone pair of electrons on the
atom forming H-bond.
S4 : OF2 and Cl2O both are sp3 hybridised and bond angle in C2O is greater than 10928.
(A) T F F T
(B) F F F T
(B) F T F T
(D) T T T T
96.
Which of the following has minimum melting point

(A) CsF
(B) HCl
(C) HF
(D) LiF
97.
Consider the following statements.

S1 : The percentage of s-character in the orbital forming S S bonds and P P bonds in S8 and P4 molecules
respectively are same.
S2 : In SF4 the bond angles, instead of being 90 and 180 are 89 and 177 respectively due to the repulsions
between lone pair and bond pairs of electrons.
S3 : Aqueous H3PO4 is syrupy (i.e more viscous than water)
S4 : SiO2 crystal may be considered as giant molecule in which eight-membered rings are formed with alternate
silicon and oxygen atoms.
Of these :
(A) S1 & S4 are correct only.
(B) S2, S3 & S4 are correct only.
(C) S1, S2, S3 & S4 are correct.
(D) S1,S2 & S3 are correct only.
98.
Select the correct statement for the sulphuric acid.

(I) It has high boiling point and viscosity.
(II) There are two types of bond lengths in its bivalent anion.
(III) p-d bonding between sulphur and oxygen is observed.
(IV) Sulphur has the same hybridisation that is of boron in diborane.
(A) II and III only
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) III and IV only
99.
Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases the enthalpy of vaporization of a liquid due to the :
(A) decrease in the attraction between molecules.
(B) increase in the attraction between molecules.
(C) decrease in the molar mass of unassociated liquid molecules.
(D) increase in the effective molar mass of hydrogen - bonded molecules.
100.
The correct order of the increasing ionic character is :
101.
(A) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
(B) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
(C) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
(D) BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BeCl2
Which of the following compounds of elements in group IV is expected to be most ionic ?

(A) PbCl2
102.
(B) PbCl4
104.
(D) SiCl4
(C) NaCl
(D) AlCl3
Least melting point is shown by the compound :

(A) PbCl2
103.
(C) CCl4
(B) SnCl4
Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Fajans Rules ?

(A) Ag2S is much less soluble than Ag2O
(B) Fe(OH)3 is much less soluble than Fe(OH)2
(C) BaCO3 is much less soluble than MgCO3
(D) Melting point of AlCl3 is much less than that of NaCl
S1 : AgI is less soluble in water than AgF due to more polarisation of I- in comparison to F ion.
S2 : Melting point of BaCl2 is higher than the melting point of BeCl2 due to greater ionic nature of BaCl2.
S3 : Order of hydrated radii is : Al3+ (aq) > Mg2+ (aq) > Na+ (aq)
(A) T T T
(B) T T F
(C) T F T
105.
Which of the following is observed in metallic bonds ?

(A) Mobile valence electrons
(B) Localised electrons
(C) Highly directed bond
(D) None of these
106.
In the coordinate valency

(A) Electrons are equally shared by the atoms
(C) Hydrogen bond is formed
107.
(B) Electrons of one atom are shared with two atoms

(D) None of the above
What is the nature of the bond between B and O in (C2H5 )2 OBH3

(A) Covalent
108.
(D) F T T
(B) Co-ordinate covalent
Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) N2F3+ is planar at each nitrogen atom.
(C) The shape of N(SiMe3)3, is trigonal planar.
(C) Ionic bond
(D) Banana shaped bond
(B) In N3H, the H N N bond angle is exactly of 120.

(D) (A) and (C) both.
109.
Which of the following statement is correct for the 1 : 1 complex of trimethyl amine and boron tri fluoride ?
(A) The B - F bond length in the complex is longer than that of in BF3.
(B) The N is pyramidal with sp3 hybridisation and B is planar with sp2 hybridisation.
(C) The coordination geometry of N and B both are tetrahedral with sp3 hybridisation each.
110.
The molecular orbital configuration of a diatomic molecule is

2p2y
1s2 * 1s2 2s2 * 2s2 2p 2x
2
2pz
Its bond order is
111.
112.
113.
(A) 3
(B) 2.5
The bond order of He2 molecule ion is :
(C) 2
(A) 1
(C)
(B) 2
Pick out the incorrect statement.

(A) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+
(C) Bond length in N2+ is less than N2
The species which are diamagnetic :
(A) O2
(B) NO2
1
2
(D) 1
(D)
1
4
(B) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+

(D) Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO.
(C) ClO2
(D) N2O4
114.
When N2 goes to N2+, the N N bond distance ... and when O2 goes to O2+ , the O O bond distance....
(A) Decrease, Increases
(B) Increases ,Decrease
(C) Increases ,Increases
(D) None of these
115.
Which of the following is incorrect ?

(A) The O O bond length in H2O2 is larger than that in O2F2.
(B) The O O bond length in H2O2 is very slightly smaller than in O22 ion.
(C) O2 and O2+ species are paramagnetic and have same number of unpaired electrons.
(D) None
116.
A simplified application of MO theory to the hypothetical molecule OF would give its bond order as :
(A) 2
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.5
117.
Which one of the following oxides is expected exhibit paramagnetic behaviour

(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) ClO2
(D) SiO2
118.
In which of the following compounds B atoms are in sp2 and sp3 hybridisation states ?
(A) Borax
(B) Diborane
(C) Borazole
(D) All
119.
(a) There are only 12 bonding electrons available in one molecule of diborane.
(b) B3N3H6 is an electron deficient compound.
(c) Al2Cl6 sublimes on heating and give AlCl3 vapours at high temperature.
(d) In Si2O76 anion, one oxygen of a SiO44 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO44 tetrahedron.
(A) T F T T
(B) F T F F
(C) T F T F
(D) F T F T
120.
The point of dissimilarity between (SO3)3 and (HPO3) (cyclic trimers) is.
(A) Both have six membered ring.
(B) Both contain central atom in same hybridization
(C) Both contain planar ring.
(D) Both are isoelectronic.
121.
Which of the following statements is / are correct ?

(A) Hybridisation of carbon in C3O2 is sp2.
(B) In Cr2O72 , six Cr O bonds are identical.
(C) Three centre two electron bonds exist in B2H6 and Al2Cl6 .
122.
123.
(D) In AgI, the colour is attributed to charge transfer spectrum.

Which of the following is correct :
(A) NO bond length in NO gaseous molecule will be greater than in NOCl gaseous molecule.
(B) Carbon-carbon bond length in CaC2 will be more than in C2H4
(C) OO bond length in KO2 will be more than in Na2 O2 .
(D) All the four hydrogen atoms in CH4 are not coplanar
In a P4O6 molecule, the total number of POP bonds is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 3
Coordination Compound
124.
125.
Which of the following are bidentate monoanion ligands ?

(1) Acetylacetonato
(2) Oxalato ion
(3) Dimethylglyoximato
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
Diethylenetriamine is:
(A) chelating agent
(C) tridentatemonoanion
(D) 2 and 3 only
(B) tridentate neutral molecule

126.
Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] ; oxidation number of Fe in reactant (complex) and product

(complex) are :
(A) 2, 1
(B) 2, 2
(C) 2, 3
(D) 3, 3
127.
A complex anion is formed by Osmium (in some oxidation state) with ligands (in proper number so that coordination
number of osmium becomes six). Which of the following can be its correct IUPAC name?
(A) pentachloridonitridoosmium(VI)
(B) pentachloridonitridoosmate(VI)
(C) azidopentachloridoosmate(VI)
(D) None of these
128.
Complex ion [ FeN3(O2)(SCN)4]4 is named as : (coordination number of central metal ion in complex is six)
(A) azidosuperoxidotetrathiocyanato-S-ferrate(II) (B) azidodioxygentetrathiocyanatoferrate(III)
(C) azidoperoxidotetrathiocyanato-S-ferrate(II)
(D) azidodioxidotetrathiocyanato-S-ferrate(III)
129.
Trioxalatoaluminate(III) and tetrafluoro-borate(III) ions are:

(A) [Al(C2O4)3] , [BF4]3
(B) [Al(C2O4)3]3+ , [BF4]3+
(C) [Al(C2O4)3]3 , [BF4]
(D) [Al(C2O4)3]2 , [BF4]2
130.
Consider the following statements:

According the Werner's theory.
(1) Ligands are connected to the metal ions by ionic bonds.
(2) Secondary valencies have directional properties
(3) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable
Of these statements:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 and 2 are correct
131.
Which of the following is correct for both the following coordination compounds ?
(I) CoCl3.6NH3 and (II) PtCl4.5NH3
(A) They give white precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
(B) They have different primary valencies for the central metal ions.
(D) None of these
132.
In which of the following complexes the nickel metal is in highest oxidation state ?
(A) Ni(CO)4
(B) K2NiF6
(C) [Ni(NH3)6](BF4)2
(D) K4[Ni(CN)6]
133.
Aqueous solution of nickel sulphate on treating with pyridine and then adding a solution of sodium nitrite gives
dark blue crystals of :
(A) [Ni(py)4]SO4
(B) [Ni(py)2(NO2)2]
(C) [Ni(py)4](NO2)2
(D) [Ni(py)3(NO2)]2SO4
134.
Given that the energy of the photons of different colours decreases in the order of V I B G Y O R
(Violet > Indigo > Blue > Green > Yellow > Orange > Red) and that if complex absorbs a photon of low energy
then it shows colour of high energy photon. If an ion, M2+ , forms the complexes [M(H2O)6]2+, [MBr6]4 , and
[M(en)3]2+ . The colours of the complexes, though not necessarily in order, are green, red, and blue. Match the
complexes with the appropriate colour. (do not use the table of complementary colours for this question)
(A) [MBr6]4 blue , [M(H2O)6]2+ green , [M(en)3]2+ red

(B) [MBr6]4 green , [M(H2O)6]2+ blue , [M(en)3]2+ red
(C) [MBr6]4 green , [M(H2O)6]2+ red , [M(en)3]2+ blue
(D) [MBr6]4 red , [M(H2O)6]2+ green , [M(en)3]2+ blue
135.
Which of the following pairs of structures shows geometrical isomerism ?
(A) I with III
(B) II with IV
(C) I with II
(D) none of these
136.
In both the complexes Co have t2g6eg0 configuration.

The bond energy of (O O) in X and Y is :
(A) bond energy of (O O) in Y < bond energy of (O O) in X.
(B) bond energy of (O O) in X < bond energy of (O O) in Y.
(C) bond energy of (O O) in X = bond energy of (O O) in Y.
(D) bond energy of (O O) in X and bond energy of (O O) in Y cant be comparable.
137.
Consider the following statements and select the correct option using the codes given.
(i)
[Cr(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2] [Cr(NH3)2(CN)4] are coordination isomers.
(ii)
[Cr(py)2(H2O)2Cl2]Cl and [Cr(py)2(H2O)Cl3]H2O are ligand isomers.
(iii)
[Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 and [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 are linkage isomers.
(iv)
[NiCl2(PPh3)2] (tetrahedral) exhibits geometrical isomerism.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (iii) and (iv) only
138.
How many moles of AgCl would be obtained, when 100 ml of 0.1 M Co(NH3)5Cl3 is treated with excess of
AgNO3?
(A) 0.01
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.03
(D) none of these
139.
Complexes [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 can be distinguished by :

(A) conductance measurement
(B) using BaCl2
(C) using AgNO3
(D) all of these
140.
50 ml of 0.2 M solution of a compound with empirical formula CoCl3.4NH3 on treatment with excess of AgNO3(aq)
yields 1.435 g of AgCl. Ammonia is not removed by treatment with concentrated H2SO4. The formula of the
compound is:
(A) Co(NH3)4Cl3
(B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(C) [Co(NH3)4Cl3
(D) [CoCl3(NH3)]NH3
141.
Which of the following is nonconducting ?

(A) CoCl3.6NH3
(B) CoCl3.5NH3
142.
The oxidation number of Co in the complex ion

(A) +2
143.
144.
(C) CoCl3.4NH3
(B) +3
(D) CoCl3.3NH3
is :
(C) +4
(D) +6
The EAN of metal atoms in [Fe(CO)2(NO+)2] and Co2(CO)8 respectively are :

(A) 34, 35
(B) 34, 36
(C) 36, 36
(D) 36, 35
Following Sidwick's rule of EAN, Co(CO)x will be :
(A) Co2(CO)4
(B) Co2(CO)3
(C) Co2(CO)8
(D) Co2(CO)10
145.
Which of the following complexes is not a chelate ?

(A) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
(B) potassium ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(C) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(D) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)
146.
Select the correct statement from the following .

(A) [ Sc (H2O)6 ]3+ and [ Ti (H2O)6]3+ both are colourless.
(B) Co (NH3)4 Br2Cl show ionization isomers and geometrical isomers.
(C) [Pd(NO2)2(NH3)2 ] is square planar and shows geometrical as well as linkage isomers.
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct.
147.
Which of the following statements is correct for complex [Cr(NH3)(CN)4(NO)]2 (given that n = 1)?
(A) It is d2sp3 hybridised .
(B) The chromium is in + I oxidation state
(C) It is heteroleptic complex and its aqueous solution is coloured
(D) All of these.
148.
What will be the theoretical value of spin only magnetic moment when Fe(SCN)3 reacts with a solution
containing F ions to yield a colourless complex ?
(A) 2.83 B.M.
(B) 3.87 B.M.
(C) 5.92 B.M.
(D) 1.73 B.M.
149.
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer with respect to hybridisation using the codes given
below :
Column - I
Column - II
(Complex)
(Hybridisation)
(I)
[Au F4]
(p)
dsp2 hybridisation
(II)
[Cu(CN)4]3
(q)
sp3 hybridisation
3
(III)
[Co(C2O4)3]
(r)
sp3d2 hybridisation
(IV)
[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
(s)
d2sp3 hybridisation
Codes :
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(A)
q
p
r
s
(B)
p
q
s
r
(C)
p
q
r
s
(D)
q
p
s
r
150.
The magnetic moment of green complex is 1.7 BM & for brown complexes magnetic moment is zero.
(O O) is same in all respect in both the complexes.
The oxidation state of Co in brown complex & green complex respectively are
(A)
III III
&
IV III
(B)
III II
&
III III
brown
green
brown
green
(C)
III III
&
III II
(D)
III IV
&
III III
brown
green
brown
green
151.
Which of the following is correct for the complex [NiBr2(PPh3)2] ?

(A) It is square planar with one unpaired electron
(B) It is tetrahedral with two unpaired electrons
(C) It is square planar and diamagnetic
(D) It is tetrahedral with one unpaired electron.
152.
Which of the following pairs will show the same magnetic moment (spin only)?
(A) [ Cr (H2O)6]3+ and [ Fe (H2O)5 NO]2+
(B) [ Mn (CN)6 ]4 and [ Fe (CN)6 ]3
2+
(C) [ Ni (CO)4 ] and [ Zn (NH3)4 ]
(D) All of these.
153.
Consider the following statements

S1 : [ Cr (NH3)6 ]3+ is a inner orbital complex with crystal field stabilization energy equal to 1.2 o
S2 : The complex formed by joining the CN ligands to Fe3+ ion has theoretical value of spin only magnetic
moment equal to 1.73 B.M.
S3 : Na2S + Na2 [Fe (CN)5 NO] Na 4 [Fe (CN)5 NOS], In reactant and product the oxidation states of iron
are same
and arrange in the order of true/false.
(A) F T F
(B) T T F
(C) T T T
(D) F F F
154.
The complex [ Fe (H2O)5 NO ]2+ is formed in the brown ring test for nitrates. Choose the incorrect statement for
the complex.
(A) Its magnetic moment is approximately 3.9 B.M.
(B) The oxidation state of iron is + 1
(C) The hybridisation of central metal ion is sp3 d2
(D) The brown colour of the ring is due to d d transition.
155.
Which of the following complexes is correctly matched with their geometries ?

(A) [Co(py)4]2+ - square planar
(B) [Cu(CN)4]3 - tetrahedral
2
(C) [Fe(CO)4] - tetrahedral
(D) All of these
156.
What will be the correct order for the wave length of light observed for the following ?
(I) [ Ni(NO2)6 ]4 , (II) [ Ni (NH3)6 ]2+ ; (III) [ Ni (H2O)6 ]2+
(A) I > II > III
(B) II > I > III
(C) III > II > I
(D) II > III > I
157.
[Fe(en)2(H2O)2]2+ + en complex(X). The correct statement about the complex (X) is :

(A) it is a low spin complex.
(B) it is diamagnetic.
(C) it shows geometrical isomerism.
(D) (A) and (B) both.
158.
For Co(II), (choose incorrect statement) :

(A) tetrahedral complexes are generally formed with monodentate anionic ligands like N3, OH etc.
(B) planar complexes are formed with bidentate monoanions like dmg, o-aminophenoxide etc.
(C) planar complexes are also formed with a neutral bidentate ligands like ethylenediamine
(D) none of these
159.
Which of the following are square planar complexes ?

(1) [AuCl4]
(2) [Pt(Cl)4]2
(3) [Mn(Br)4]2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
160.
Which one of the following statement is false for nickel-dimethylglyoximate complex ?

(A) The stability of complex is only due to the presence of intra-molecular hydrogen bonding.
(B) The complex is stable because tridentate dimethyl glyoxime ligand forms a five memberd chelate rings.
(C) The complex is stable as it has five membered chelate rings as well as intra molecular hydrogen bonding.
(D) A and B both.
161.
Which of the following statements are correct for the complex [Co(NH3)4(Cl) (NO2)]Cl ?
1. Cobalt is in +III oxidation state involving d2sp3 hybridisation.
2. Cobalt is in +III oxidation state involving sp3d2 hybridisation.
3. It shows ionisation as well as linkage isomerism.
4. It also shows geometrical isomerism.
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 4 only.
162.
Which of the following complexes are low spin and diamagnetic ?

(1) K4[Os(CN)6]
(2) [Mo(CO)6]
(3) [Mn(CN)6]4
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
163.
(D) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(A) Potassium amminetetracyanidonitrosoniumchromate(I) having = 1.73 B.M has d2sp3 hybridisation.
(B) K3[AlF6] + BF3 AlF3 + 3K[BF4]
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 and [Cu(NCCH3)4] [BF4] both are coloured .
(D) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br can show ionisation isomerism with [Cr(NH3)4ClBr]Cl
164.
Which of the following complex involves d2sp3 hybridisation ?

(A) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(B) [CoF6]3
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
165.
Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) Complex of Pt (+II) and Au (+III) are square planar - including those with weak field ligands such as halide
ions.
(B) In tetrahedral complex , the t2g orbitals are nearer to the direction of the ligands.
(C) For do, d5 and d10 arrangements the CFSE is zero in both octahedral and tetrahedral complexes with weak
field ligands.
(D) None.
166.
Consider the following statements ;

(I) [Mn(H2O)4]SO4 is paramagnetic and square planar.
(II) Crystal field splitting energy (i.e. O), in [Cr(H2O)6 ]3+ is higher than in [Cr(H2O)6]2+
(III) Wilkinson catalyst, a redviolet complex [RhCl(Ph3P)3] is diamagnetic and square planar.
(IV) Hg[Co(SCN)4], a deep blue complex is paramagnetic and tetrahedral.
and of these select the correct one from the given codes.
(A) I and IV only
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
167.
Which of the following complex will show optical activity ?

(A) trans -[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(B) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(C) cis -[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(D) trans -[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
168.
The structure of iron pentacarbonyl is : ( = 0)

(A) square planar
(B) trigonal bipyramid
(C) triangular
(D) none of these
169.
Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Ti(NO3)4 is a colourless compound.
(B) [Cr(NH3)6)]Cl3 is a coloured compound.
(C) K3[VF6] is a colourless compound.
(D) [Cu(NCCH3)4][BF4] is a colourless compound.
170.
The [Fe(CN)6]3 complex ion :

(A) exhibits planar geometry
(C) should be very stable
(B) is diamagnetic
(D) has 2 unpaired electrons
171.
The disodium salt of ethylenediaminetetracetic acid can be used to estimate the following ion(s) in the aqueous
solution.
(A) Mg2+ ion
(B) Ca2+ ion
(C) Na+ ion
(D) both Mg2+ and Ca2+
172.
Which of the following statements about Fe(CO)5 is correct?

(A) It is paramagnetic and high spin complex
(B) It is diamagnetic and high spin complex
(C) It is diamagnetic and low spin complex
(D) It is paramagnetic and low spin complex
173.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) MnCl 4 ion has tetrahedral geometry and is paramagnetic.

(B) [Mn(CN)6]2 ion has octahedral geometry and is paramagnetic.
(C) [Cu(CN)4]3 has square planar geometry and is diamagnetic.
(D) [Ni(Ph3P)2Br3] has trigonal bipyramidal geometry and is paramagnetic.
174.
For the correct assignment of electronic configuration of a complex, the valence bond theory often requires the
measurement of :
(A) molar conductance (B) optical activity
(C) magnetic moment (D) dipole moment
175.
A complex of certain metal has the magnetic moment of 4.91 BM whereas another complex of the same metal
with same oxidation state has zero magnetic moment. The metal ion could be :
(A) Co2+
(B) Mn2+
(C) Fe2+
(D) Fe3+
176.
The complex ion has two optical isomers. Their correct configurations are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
177.
What is the ratio of uncomplexed to complexed Zn2+ ion in a solution that is 10 M in NH3, if the stability constant
of [Zn(NH3)4]2+ is 3 109 ?
(A) 3.3 109
(B) 3.3 1011
(C) 3.3 1014
(D) 3 1013
178.
If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100 mL of a 0.024 M solution of dichlorobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt (III)

chloride. How many moles of AgCl be precipitated ?
(A) 0.0012
(B) 0.0016
(C) 0.0024
(D) 0.0048
179.
Which is true for [Ni(en)2 ]2+ ? (Atomic number of nickel is 28)

(A) Paramagnetism, dsp2, square planar, coordination number of Ni = 2
(B) Diamagnetism, dsp2, square planar, coordination number of Ni = 4
(C) Diamagnetism, sp3, tetrahedral, coordination number of Ni = 4
(D) Paramagnetism, sp3, tetrahedral, coordination number of Ni = 4
180.
Of the following complex ions, the one that probably has the largest overall formation constant, Kf, is :
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(B) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(C) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)4]3+ (D) [Co(en)3]3+
181.
The crystal field-splitting for Cr3+ ion in octahedral field changes for ligands , H2O, NH3, CN and the increasing
order is :
(A) < H2O < NH3 < CN
(B) CN < < H2O < NH3
(C) CN < NH3 < H2O <
(D) NH3 < H2O < < CN
182.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing number of unpaired electrons ?

: [Fe(H2O)6]2+
: [Fe(CN)6]3
: [Fe(CN)6]4
V : [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(A) V, ,,
(B) ,, , V
(C) ,, , V
(D) ,, , V
183.
Which of the following complex does not show geometrical isomerism ?

(A) [Co (NH3)4 Cl2]+
(B) [Co (NH3)3 (NO2)3]
(C) [ Cr (en)3 ]3+
(D) [ Pt (gly)2]
184.
Which kind of isomerism is shown by the complex [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]SO4 ?

1. Ionisation isomerism
2. Linkage isomerism
3. Geometrical isomerism
4. Optical isomerism
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct only
(C) 1 and 2 are correct only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct only
185.
Which of the following complexes show geometrical as well as optical isomerism ?

(1) [Cr(OX)3]3
(2) [Rh(en)2Cl2]+
(3) [Co(NH3)2(Cl)2(en)]+
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All 1, 2, 3
186.
The complexes given below show :
and
(A) optical isomerism
(C) geometrical isomerism
(B) co-ordination isomerism

(D) bridged isomerism
187.
The total number of possible isomers of the compound [CuII(NH3)4] [PtIICl4] are:
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
188.
Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Geometrical isomerism is not observed in complexes of coordination number 4 having tetrahedral geometry
(B) Square planar complexes generally do not show geometrical isomerism
(C) The square planar complex of general formulae Ma3b or Mab3 exhibits cistrans isomerism
(D) The platinum glycinato complex, [Pt(gly)2] does not show geometrical isomerism
189.
[Co(en)3]3+ ion is expected to show ;

(A) two optically active isomers: d and l forms
(B) d, and meso forms
(C) four optically active isomers: cis, d and l isomers and trans d and l isomers
(D) none of these
190.
Of the following configurations, the optical isomers are :
(A) I and II
191.
(B) I and III
(C) II and IV
(D) II and III
(C) II and III
(D) IV only
Which of the following ions are optically active?
(A) I only
(B) II only
192.
Which of the following polymerisation isomers of the compound having empirical formula [Cr(NH3)3(NO2)3] has
the lowest molecular mass?
(A) [Cr(NH3)4(NO2)2]+ [Cr(NH3)2(NO2)4]
(B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+[Cr(NO2)6]3
(C) [Cr(NH3)5(NO2)]2+[Cr(NH3)(NO2)5]2
(D) All
193.
How many isomers are possible for the complex ion [Cr(NH3)Cl3(OH)2]2 ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
194.
On treatment of [Pt(NH3)4]2+ with concentrated HCl, two compounds (I) and (II) having the same formula,
[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] are obtained, (I) can be converted into (II) by boiling with dilute HCl. A solution of (I) reacts with
oxalic acid to form [Pt(NH3)2(C2O4)] whereas (II) does not react. Point out the correct statement of the following.
(A) (I) cis, (II) trans; both tetrahedral
(B) (I) cis, (II) trans; both square planar
(C) (I) trans, (II) cis; both tetrahedral
(D) (I) trans, (II) cis; both square planar
195.
Which of the following complexes shows ionization isomerism ?

(A) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(B) [Cr(en)2 ]Cl2
(C) [Cr(en)3]Cl3
(D) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
196.
In which case racemic mixture is obtained on mixing its mirror images in 1 : 1 molar ratio ?
(A) [Cr(en)3]3+
(B) [Ni(DMG)2]
(C) cis-[Cu(Gly)2]
(D) In all
197.
Isomerism exhibited by [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]+ are :

(A) ionisation, optical
(B) hydrate, optical
(C) geometrical, optical
(D) coordination, geometrical
198.
Which one of the following complexes exhibit chirality ?

(A) [Cr(ox)3]3
(B) cis-[PtCl2(en)
(C) cis-[RhCl2(NH3)4]+
(D) mer-[Co(NO2)3 (dien)]
199.
Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) A Werner postulated the use of two types of linkage (primary and secondary) by a metal atom / ion in a
coordination compound.
(B) Wilkinson catalyst is used for the hydrogenation of alkenes .
(C) Metal carbonyls possess both and bonds.
(D) All of these.
200.
Which of the following is correct for the Zeises salt ?

(A) The complex ion is square planar.
(B) The central metal ion, platinum is in + II oxidation state.
(C) H2C = CH2 molecules is perpendicular to the PtCl3 plane
(D) All of these.
201.
Which amongst the following are organometallic compounds ?

1. Al2(CH3)6
2. K[PtCl3C2H2]
3. N(CH3)3
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
The number of sigma bonds in Zeise's salt is:

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) none of these
Which has aromatic ring in complex ?

(A) DMG in dimethylglyoximate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(B) cyclopentadienyl anion in ferrocene

(D) none of the above
202.
203.
204.
Match List-I (Complexes) with List-II (Hybridization) of central atom and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List-I
List-II
A
Ni(CO)4
1.
sp3
2
B
[Ni(CN)4]
2.
dsp2
C
[Fe(CN)6]4
3.
sp3d2
D
[MnF6]4
4.
d2sp3
Code :
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
(A)
1
3
2
4
(B)
5
2
4
3
(C)
5
3
2
4
(D)
1
2
4
3
205.
Match List-I (complex ions) with List-II (number of unpaired electrons) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below lists :
List-I
List-II
(Complex ions)
(Number of Unpaired Electrons)
A. [CrF6]4
1. One
B. [MnF6]4
2. Two
C. [Cr(CN)6]4
3. Three
D. Mn(CN)6]4
4. Four
5. Five
Code :
(A)
(C)
A
4
4
B
1
5
C
2
2
D
5
1
(B)
(D)
A
2
2
B
5
1
C
3
3
D
1
5
206.
Match List-I (complex ions) with List-II (CFSE) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List-I
List-II
(P) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
1. 0.6 0
(Q) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
2. 0.4 0
(R) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
3. 0
(S) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
4. 1.2 0
Code :
P
Q
R
S
P
Q
R
S
(A)
3
1
2
4
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
None of these
207.
Other than the Xray diffractions, how could be the following pairs of isomers be distinguished from one another
by ;
[Cr(NH3)6] [Cr(NO2)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(NO2)2] [Cr(NH3)2(NO2)4]
(A) cryoscopic method
(B) measurement of molar conductance
(C) measuring magnetic moments
(D) observing their colours
208.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the metal carbonyls of Ist transition series?
(A) As M C bonding increases, the C O bond length increases.
(B) As positive charge on the central metal atom increases, the C O bond length increases.
(C) As electron density on the central metal atom increases, the C O bond length increases.
S- block and Hydrogen & Its compounds

209.
Select the correct statement with respect to alkali metals.

(A) Melting points decrease with increasing atomic number.
(B) Potassium is lighter than sodium.
(C) Salts of Li to Cs impart characteristic colour to an oxidising flame. (of Bunsen burner).
(D) All of these.
210.
The ionization enthalpies of the alkali metals decrease down the group from Li to Cs because :
(A) The effect of increasing size out weighs the increasing nuclear charge.
(B) The outermost electron is very well screened from the nuclear charge.
(C) Both (A) and f (B).
(D) None of these.
211.
On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the folloiwng
does not occur?
(A) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(B) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
(C) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity
(D) Liquid NH3 remains diamagnetic.
212.
Low solubility of Cs in water is due to :

(A) smaller hydration enthalpy of Cs+.
(C) lower lattice enthalpy of its two ions.
213.
(B) smaller hydration enthalpy of .

(D) (A) and (B) both.
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) The superoxide ion (i.e., O2) is stable only in presence of larger cations such as K, Rb, Cs.
(B) Alkali metals are normally kept in kerosene oil.
(C) All the alkali metal hydrides are ionic solids with high melting points.
(D) The concentrated solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia are strong paramagnetic in nature.
214.

(A) Among the alkali metals, only lithium reacts with nitrogen directly to form nitride.
(B) Among the alkali metal carbonates, Li2CO3 has the lowest thermal stability.
(C) Among the alkali metal hydroxide, CsOH has the highest solubility in water.
(D) All of these.
215.
Which of the following has the highest reactivity towards water ?

(A) Na
(B) Rb
(C) Li
(D) K
216.
When ionic hydrides react with water, the products are :

(A) acidic solutions and hydrogen gas.
(B) acidic solutions and oxygen gas.
(C) basic solutions and hydrogen gas.
(D) basic solutions and oxygen gas.
217.
The stability of K2O , K2O2 and KO2 is in order K2O < K2O2 < KO2. This increasing stability as the size of anion
ion increases is due to stabilisation of :
(A) larger cations by smaller anions through lattice energy effects.
(B) larger cations by larger anions through lattice energy effects.
(C) smaller cations by smaller anions through melting pointing.
(D) smaller cations by larger anions through hydration energy effect.
218.
At higher temperature sodium metal reacts with alumina to give a sodium compound 'X'. 'X' is dissolved in water
and then carbon dioxide gas is passed through it, a compound 'Y' is formed. The compound 'X' and 'Y' are
respectively :
(A) Na2O2 and Na2CO3
(B) Na2O and Na2CO3
(C) Na2O2 and NaAlO2 (D) NaAlO2 and Na2CO3 .
219.
Sodium is heated in excess of air, free from CO2 at 3500C to form X. X absorbs CO2 and form Na2CO3 and Y. 'X'
and 'Y' are respectively :
(A) Na2O and O2
(B) Na2O2 and O2
(C) NaO2 and O2
(D) Na2O2 and O3
220.
What happens when sodium metal is heated to a temperature 350C in excess of dry air containing carbon
dioxide gas ?
(A) Na2O2 is formed.
(B) Na2O is formed.
(C) First Na2O2 is formed which then converts in to Na2CO3.
(D) First NaO2 is formed which then converts into Na2CO3.
221.
Which of the following oxides is formed when potassium metal is burnt in excess air ?
(A) KO3
(B) K2O
(C) K2O2
(D) KO2
222.
Reduction of sodium nitrite by sodium metal yields :

(A) NaO2
(B) Na2O2
(C) Na2O
(D) NaN3
223.
Solution of K2O in water is basic, because it contains a significant concentration of :

(A) O22
(B) O2
(C) OH
(D) K+
224.
On commercial scale, sodium hydroxide is prepared by :

(A) Dow's process
(B) Solvay process
(C) Castner-Kellner cell
(D) Hall-Heroult process
225.
Sodium dichromate on heating with coke yields ;

(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium chromite.
(C) sodium chromate
226.
(D) chromic anhydride
What products are formed during the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride ?
. Cl2 (g) , . NaOH (aq). , . H2(g).
(A) only
(B) and only
(C) and only
(D) All of these
227.
Which of the following gives sodium hydroxide along with hydrogen gas on reaction with water ?
(A) Sodium ferrite
(B) Sodium amalgam
(C) Sodium peroxide
(D) Sodium carbonate.
228.
In which of the following process, Black ash (Na2CO3 + CaS) is obtained ?

(A) Le-Blanc process
(B) Prechts process
(C) Hargreaves process
(D) Gossage process
229.
The following flow diagram represents the manufacturing of sodium carbonate ?

(a )
(b )
NH4HCO3
2 NH3 + H2O + CO2 (NH4)2CO3
Which of the following option describes the underlined reagents, products and reaction conditions ?
230.
Option
(A)
(a)
Carbon dioxide
(b)
NaCl
(.c)
NH4Cl
(d)
Heat
(B)
Carbon dioxide
NaCl
NH4Cl
catalyst
(.C)
Higher tempt.
NaCl
NH4Cl
Heat
(D)
Higher pressure
NaCl
NH4Cl
Catalyst
Washing soda on heating :

(A) releases carbon monoxide gas
(B) releases carbon dioxide gas

(D) releases water vapours.
231.
Sodium carbonate reacts with sulphur dioxide in aqueous medium to give :

(A) NaHSO3
(B) Na2HCO3
(C) Na2S2O3
(D) NaHSO4
232.
Which of the following product is obtained as insoluble, when ammonical solution of brine is saturated with
carbon dioxide gas ?
(A) (NH4)2CO3
(B) NaHCO3
(C) NH4HCO3
(D) NH4Cl
233.
In Solvay process of manufacture of Na2CO3 , the by products obtained from recovery tower are :
(A) NH4Cl, CaO, CO2
(B) CaO, Na2CO3, CaCl2
(C) CaCl2 , CO2 , NH3
(D) Na2CO3 , CaCl2 , CO2
234.
Acidified solutions of sodium thiosulphate are unstable because :

(A) they have the tendency to oxidise.
(B) they have the tendency to disproportionate.
(C) they have the tendency to reduce.
(D) they have weaker S S bonds.
235.
Which of the following compounds on reaction with Na2O2 gives yellow colour compound ?
(A) Zn(OH)2
(B) Cr(OH)3
(C) Al(OH)3
(D) None
236.
Brine solution on electrolysis will not give :

(A) NaOH
(B) Cl2
(C) H2
(D) O2
237.
A colourless solid (X) on heating evolved CO2 and also gave a white residue, soluble in water. Residue also gave
CO2 when treated with dilute acid. (X) is :
(A) K2CO3
(B) CaCO3
(C) KHCO3
(D) Na2CO3
238.
Chemical (A) is used for water softening to remove temporary hardness. A reacts with Na2 CO3 to generate
caustic soda. When CO2 is bubled through (A), it turns cloudy (i.e. milky). What is the chemical formula of (A)
?
(A) CaCO3
(B) CaO
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Ca(HCO3)2
239.
Beryllium has less negative value of reduction potentials compared to other alkaline earth metals due to :
(A) the smaller hydration energy of the Be2+ .
(B) the large value of the atomization enthalpy of the Be metal.
(C) the large value of ionisation energy of the Be metal.
(D) (B) and (C) both.
240.
The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is :

(A) Be(OH)2, Al(OH)3
(C) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2
(B) Al(OH)3, LiOH

(D) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
Na2[Be(OH)4] is formed when ;

(A) BeO reacts with NaOH solution.
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct.
(B) Be(OH)2 reacts with NaOH solution.

(D) none of the above is correct.
241.
242.
Gypsum on heating at a temperature of 393 K yields :

(A) calcium oxide
(B) hemihydrate of calcium sulphate
(C) anhydrous calcium sulphate
(D) none of these.
243.
In the manufacturing of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), using Solvay process, which of the following compound is
used ?
(A) Lime stone
(B) Sodium hydroxide
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) (A) and (C) both
244.
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) The effective component of bleaching powder is OCl.
(B) CaCO3 is obtained when quick lime is heated with coke in an electric furnace.
(C) Anhydrous CaSO4 is dead burnt plaster.
(D) BaCO3 is obtained on fusion of BaSO4 and Na2CO3.
245.
Drying agent which react with CO2 and removes water vapours from ammonia is :
(A) CaO
(B) CaCl2
(C) CaCO3
(D) Ca(NO3)2
246.
Blanc fixe used in paints is :

(A) finely divided BaSO4 .
(C) paste of slaked lime.
247.
248.
(B) mixture of BaS and ZnSO4 .

(D) paste of Mg(OH)2 .
What is the formula of basic anhydride of Ba(OH)2 ?

(A) Ba2O
(B) BaO
(C) BaO2
(D) Ba
(p )
(q)
393 K
(r)
CaCl2 + H2SO4
CaSO4.2H2O
(s)
HCl
Which of the following option describes, the products, reactants and the reaction conditions.
249.
Option
(A)
(p)
Crystallisation
(.r)
2 CaSO4.H2O
(s)
CaSO4
2 CaSO4.H2O
CaSO4
Higher temperature
(q)
Heat at 393 K
Heat at 393 K
at high pressure
Cool
(B)
Crystallisation
(C)
(D)
CaSO4.H2O
CaSO4
Higher pressure
Heat at 393 K
CaSO4
CaSO3
A metal (M) burns with dazzling brilliance in air to give a white powder. The white powder reacts with water to
form a white precipitate and a colourless gas with a characteristic smell. The metal (M) decomposes hot water
but not cold water, liberating the inflammable hydrogen gas. The metal(M) is :
(A) K
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) Rb
250.
Crude common salt becomes damp on keeping in air because :

(A) It is hygroscopic in nature.
(B) It contains MgCl2 and CaCl2 as impurities which are deliquescent in nature.
(C) (A) and (B) both.
(D) none.
251
Setting of plaster of paris involves :

(A) the oxidation with atmoshperic oxygen.
(B) the removal of water to form anhydrous calcium sulphate.
(C) the hydration to form the orthorhombic form of gypsum.
(D) the reaction with atmospheric carbondioxide gas.
252.
Calcium cyanamide on reaction with steam under pressure gives ammonia and ------------- .
(A) calcium carbonate (B) calcium hydroxide (C) calcium oxide
(D) calcium bicarbonate
253.
What is [X] in the following reaction ?
MgCl2 + H2O [X] + HCl + H2O

(A) MgO
(B) Mg
(C) Mg(OH)2
(D) Mg(OH)Cl.
254.
Chemical (X) is used for :

(i) the production of sodium hydroxide
(ii) the manufacturing of bleaching powder
(iii) for the extraction of magnesium from sea water. What is the chemical formula of (X)?
(A) Ca(OH)2
(B) CaO
(C) Ca(HCO3)2
(D) CaCO3
255.
Limestone is used in the following manufacturing processes except :

(A) Solvay process of sodium carbonates.
(B) Le-Blanc process of potassium carbonate.
(C) Portland cement.
(D) Triple superphosphate of lime from fluoroapatite rock.
256.
(P)
H O
Lime stone
Quick lime 2
Which of the following option describes the correct reactants, products and reaction conditions.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
257.
258.
(p)
Strongly heating
(q)
S laked lime
(r)
Ca(O 2 )2
(s)
Cold water
Strongly heating
Strongly heating in
presence of catalyst
S trongly heating under
high pressure
S laked lime
CaO 2
Cold water
S laked lime
CaO
Cold water
S laked lime
CaO 2
Cold water
Which of the following two ions are closer to one another in size ?
(A) Li+ and Na+
(B) Be2+ and Mg2+
(C) Be2+ and Li+
(D) Li+ and Mg2+
The deep brown colour produced when iodine is dissolved in a solution of potassium iodide is caused by the
presence of:
(A) 2
(B)
(C) 3
(D) 2
259.

S1 : Among alkali metal, halides lithium iodide is the most covalent in nature.
S2 : Potassium is heavier than sodium.
S3 : The blue solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia is stable at room temperature, where ammonia is still a
liquid, in the presence of Fe.
S4 :The melting and boiling points of alkali metal halides always follow the trend : chloride > fluoride > bromide
> iodide.
(A) T F F F
(B) T T F F
260.
(C) T F T T
(D) T T T F

S1 : Alkali metals are never found in free state in nature.
S2 : The melting and boiling points of alkali metals are high.
S3 : The ceasium and potassium both are used as electrodes in photoelectric cells.
S4 : Alkali metals are normally kept in kerosene oil.
(A) T T F F
(B) T F T T
261.
(C) F F F T
(D) T T F T

S1 : Alkali metals are strongly basic, they (except lithium) form solid bicarbonates.
S2 : Dissolution of alkali metal hydroxide in water is exothermic.
S3 : Aqueous solution of alkali metal hydroxides are strongly basic.
S4 : Thermal stability of alkali metal hydroxide decreases down the group.
(A) T T T F
(B) T T T T
262.
(C) T F T F
(D) F F T F

S1 : Beryllium and Magnesium are inert to oxygen and water.
S2 : Concentrated solutions of alkaline earth metals in ammonia are bronze coloured.
S3 : Calcium, strontium and barium reacts with cold water forming hydroxides and liberating hydrogen gas.
S4 : Oxides and hydroxides of alkaline earth metals are more ionic and more basic than that of the alkali metals.
(A) T T T T
(B) T T T F
(C) F T T F
(D) F T F F
263.

S1 : Mg2+ ion is bigger than Li+ .
S2 : LiNO3 and NaNO3 both on heating give NO2 and dioxygen.
S3 : All alkali metal hydrogencarbonates exist in solid state.
S4 : All alkali metal halides form hydrates.
(A) T T F F
(B) T T T F
264.
(C) F F F F
(D) T F F F
Consider the following statements

S1 : Sea shells, dolomite, a marble statue and calcined gypsum, all contain CaCO3 .
S2 : BeCl2 is not easily hydrolysed in water.
S3 : Sodium dichromate on heating with coke yields sodium carbonate and carbon monoxide.
S4 : Solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia yields hexaammoniates on heating.
(A) T T T T
(B) F F F F
(C) F F T F
(D) F T T F.
265.

S1 : Ozone reacts with dry KOH forming a deep red/orange coloured compound and liberating oxygen gas at low
temperature.
S2 : KO2 is better oxidant than K2O2 both in aqueous and acidic mediums.
S3 : KOH is better absorber of CO2 than NaOH.
S4 : Quick lime on heating with carbon in an electric furnace forms CaCO3 .
(A) T T T F
(B) T T T T
(C) F F T F
(D) T F T F
266.
Consider the following statements,

S1 : KO2 is CO and CO2 abrosber, and O2 emitter.
S2 : CaCl2. 6 H2O is widely used for melting ice on roads, particulary in very cold countries.
S3 : The process of setting of plaster of paris is exothermic.
S4 : MgCl2.6 H2O on strong heating yields anhydrous MgCl2 .
(A) T T T T
(B) F T T T F
(C) T T T F
(D) T F F T
267.
Consider the following statements,

S1 : Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than plaster of pairs.
S2 : Plaster of paris can be re-obtained by hydration of 'dead plaster'.
S3 : Gypsum loses
3
of its water of crystallisation forming plaster of paris at 120C.
2
S4 : Plaster of paris can be obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum.

(A) T F T F
(B) F F T F
(C) T T F F
(D) T T T T
DIRECTIONS :
Each question has 5 choices (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

268.
Statement-1 : Solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia are good reducing agents.
Statement-2 : They contain free or solvated electrons.
269.
Statement-1 : Solubilities of alkali metal fluorides and carbonates increase down the group.
Statement-2 : Hydration energies of alkali metal halides decrease down the group with increase in size of
cations.
270.
Statement-1 : All alkali metals do not form superoxides as one of the main products in excess of air on heating.
Statement-1 : Superoxide reacts with carbon monoxide producing a white powder and liberating dioxygen.
271
Statement-1 : Na2SO4 can be used as the starting material for the preparation of sodium carbonate and sodium
hydroxide.
Statement-2 : Sodium hydroxide is prepared by the treatment of milk of lime with sodium carbonate.
272.
Statement-1 : Potassium carbonate can be prepared by Solvay process like sodium carbonate using potassium
chloride as starting material.
Statement-2 : Potassium carbonate is obtained as one of the products when potassium superoxide reacts with
carbon dioxide.
273.
Statement-1 : Barium carbonate is more soluble in HNO3 than in plain water.

Statement-2 : Carbonate is a weak base and reacts with the H+ from the strong acid causing the barium salt to
dissociate.
274.
Statement-1 : The crystalline salts of alkaline earth metals contain more water of crystallisation than the
corresponding alkali metal salts.
Statement-2 : Alkaline earth metals have smaller size and more nuclear charge.
275.
Statement-1 : Sodium bicarbonate generally precipitates normal carbonate from magnesium chloride solution.
Statement-2 : Sodium carbonate generally precipitates basic carbonate from magnesium chloride solution.
276.
Statement-1 : The decahydrated form of sodium carbonate on standing in air effloresces.

Statement-2 : It converts into monohydrate having formula, Na2CO3.H2O.
277.
Statement-1 : Solution of sodium hydroxide can be stored in a vessel made of Zn or Al.

Statement-2 : Sodium ferrite on treatment with hot water produces sodium hydroxide.
278.
Statement-1 : White precipitate of BaSO4 is insoluble in water but readily dissolve in the solution of sodium salt
of ethylenediaminetetra acetic acid (EDTA).
Statement-2 : Ba2+ forms a stable water soluble complex with the anion of the sodium salt of EDTA.
279.
Statement-1 : The dissolution of alkali metal hydroxides in water is an exothermic reaction.

Statement-2 : Intense hydration of alkali metal hydroxides causes the evolution of much heat.
280.
Statement-1 : Potassium is not obtained by the electrolysis of fused KCl.

Statement-2 : Potassium vapourises at the melting point of KCl.
281.
Statement-1 : Setting of cement is an endothermic process.

Statement-2 : Setting to cement involves hydration and rearragement of the molecules of calcium aluminates
and calcium silicates.
P-Block Elements
282.
The building units of various crystalline forms of boron are :

(A) B12 icosahedral units
(B) B4 tetrahedral units
(C) B6 octahedral units
(D) B8 cubical units
283.
Boron of highest purity (~ 99.9%) is obtained by :

(A) reduction of B2O3 by Mg.
(B) electrolysis of fused tetrafluoroborates (KBF4) in molten KF.
(C) reduction of BCl3 with H2 at 1270 K.
(D) thermal decomposition of boranes at 1173 K.
284.
Amorphous boron on burning in air forms :

(A) B(OH)3
(C) Only B2O3
(B) Mixture of B2O3 and BN

(D) Only BN
285.
When boron is fused with potassium hydroxide which pair of species are formed ?
(A) K2O + B2O3
(B) KO2 + B2H6
(C) K3BO3 + H2
(D) K3BO3 + H2O
286.
Which of the following statements regarding boric acid is false ?

(A) It acts as a tribasic acid.
(B) It has a planar structure.
(C) It acts as a monobasic acid.
(D) It is soluble in hot water.
287.
H3BO3 ionises in water as :

(A) H3BO3 (aq)
H+ (aq) + H2BO3 (aq)
(C) H3BO3 (aq)
3H+ (aq) + BO33 (aq)
288.
(B) H3BO3 (aq)

(D) None of these
2H+ (aq) + HBO32 (aq)
Which of the following boron compound is optically active ?

(A) Boron trifluoride
(B) Boron anhydride
(C) Borosalicyclic acid
(D) Sodium tetraborate
289.
Pick up the wrong statement ?

(A) Borax is used in the manufacture of optical glasses.
(B) Borax is used as a flux.
(C) Borax is used as a water softener.
(D) Borax is used as a fuel in rockets.
290.
Ca2B6O11 + 2Na2CO3 X + 2CaCO3 + 2NaBO2.

The compound X in the above reaction is :
(A) Na2B4O7
(B) HBO2
(C) H3BO3
(D) H2B4O7
291.
The number of OH units directly linked to boron atoms in Na2B4O7 . 10H2O is :

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 10
292.
In diborane the two HBH angles are nearly :

(A) 60, 120
(B) 97, 120
(C) 95, 150
(D) 120, 180
293.
Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) Small amines such as NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH give unsymmetrical cleavage of diborane.
(B) Boron hydrides can't be used as high energy fuels.
(C) Boron hydrides are readily hydrolysed.
(D) Borazine hydrolyses to NH3 and boric acid at elevated temperature. If heated with water.
294.
Diborane upon hydrolysis gives :

(A) boric anhydride and polymetaborate
(C) orthoboric acid and hydrogen
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
In reaction, BF3 + 3LiBH4 3LiF + X;

(A) B4H10
(B) B2H6
(B) metaboric acid and hydrogen

(D) boron oxide and metaboric acid
X is :
Borazole is obtained by reacting B2H6 with :

(A) NH3 in the ratio 1 : 2
(C) NH3 in the ratio 1 : 4
(C) BH3
(D) B3H8
(B) NH3 in the ratio 2 : 1

(D) can not be formed
A compound of boron X reacts at 200C temperature with NH3 to give another compound Y which is called as
inorganic benzene. The compound Y is a colourless liquid and is highly light sensitive. Its melting point is
57C. The compound X with excess of NH3 and at a still higher temperature gives boron nitride (BN)n. The
compounds X and Y are respectively :
(A) BH3 and B2H6
(B) NaBH4 and C6H6
(C) B2H6 and B3N3H6
(D) B4C3 and C6H6
450 K
Y + Z (g)
B2H6 + NH3 Addition compound (X)
In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively :
(A) borazine, H2
(B) boron, H2
(C) boron nitride, H2
(D) borazine and hydrogen
+ LiBF4
Which of the statement is true for the above sequence of reactions ?
(A) Z is hydrogen
(B) Y is LiBH4
(C) Z and Y are F2 and B2H6 respectively
(D) Z is potassium hydroxide
300.
301.

(A) Heating an aqueous solution of AlCl3 to dryness will give Al2O3
(B) Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in gaseous state as well as in solution of non-polar solvents such
as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives [Al(OH)6]3 + 3HCl.
(C) Anhydrous aluminium chloride sublimes at 100C under vaccum.
(D) All of these
Which one of the following is not correct for the allotropic forms of carbon ?
(A) C60 molecule has a shape like soccer ball and called Buckminsterfullerene.
(B) Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon.
(C) Graphite fibres embedded in plastic material form high strength, lightweight composites.
(D) In diamond each carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation and is paramagnetic.
302.
Fullerenes are the pure form of carbon because

(A) fullerenes are man made or synthetic
(B) fullerenes can be dissolved or suitable organic solvents for crystallisation
(C) fullerenes do not have dangling edge or surface bonds
(D) None of these
303.
Which is not the property of diamond ?

(A) It is insoluble in all solvents
(B) It is oxidised with a mixture of K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 at 200C
(C) Being hardest, it is used as an abrasive for sharpening hard tools.
(D) H value of diamond is 1.90 kJ mol1.
304.
Carbon monoxide is absorbed by :

(A) ammonical cuprous chloride
(C) chloroform
(B) pyrogallol
(D) CCl4
305.
Identify the correct statement with respect to carbon monoxide.

(A) It combines with water to form carbonic acid.
(B) It forms a complex with haemoglobin in red blood cells.
(C) It is a powerful oxidising agent.
(D) It is used to prepare aerated drinks.
306.
An oxide of carbon (X) reacts with ammonia to produce urea an important fertilizer. Which of the following
combinations will not yield (X).
(A) CO32 + HCl
(B) CaO + C
(C) C + Excess O2
(D) HCO3 + HCl
307.
When a mixture of air and steam is passed over red hot coke, the outgoing gas is :
(A) producer gas.
(B) water gas.
(C) coal gas.
(D) none of these
308.
Which gas is formed when Ag2C2 is allowed to react with dilute HCl ?
(A) Ethane
(B) Ethene
(C) Ethyne
309.
Which statement is not true about CO ?

(A) It is a colourless gas
(C) It is highly soluble in water
(D) Methane
(B) It is a odourless gas

(D) It is a poisonous gas.
310.
Which oxide of carbon is obtained when potassium hexacyanidoferrate(II) is warmed with concentrated sulphuric
acid ?
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) Both
(D) None
311
Ag
Prussic acid + O2
The products of the above reaction are :

(A) C2N2, H2O
(B) CO2, H2O
(C) CO, CO2, H2O
(D) CO2, N2, H2O
312.
Name the structure of silicate in which two oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4 are shared.
(A) Pyrosilicate
(B) Sheet silicate
(C) Linear chain silicate (single)
(D) Three dimensional silicate
313.
Pyrosilicate ion is :
(A) SiO22
314.
(B) SiO42
(C) Si2O67
(D) Si2O76
Which of the following is true for red lead ?

(A) It gives a red brown precipitate of PbO2 when reacted with concentrated HNO3.
(B) It is an active form of lead.
(C) It decomposes above 550C into PbO and O2.
DIRECTIONS : Each question has 5 choices (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
315.
Statement-1 : The borax Na2[B4O5 (OH)4]. 8H2O is a useful primary standard for titrating against acids.
Statement-2 : Aqueous solution of borax contains equal amounts of weak acid and its salt.
316.
Statement-1 : Borazine is more reactive than benzene.

Statement-2 : Borazine is polar while benzene is non-polar in nature.
317.
Statement-1 : AlCl3 ionises in solution.

Statement-2 : The hydration energy of AlCl3 exceeds the ionization energy.
318
Statement-1 : Buckminister fullerene is the purest isomeric form of carbon.

Statement-2 : Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon.
319.
Statement-1 : In the extraction of silicone, by reduction with high purity coke, the SiO2 is taken in excess.
Statement-2 : Excess of SiO2 prevents the formation of the carbide SiC.
320.
Statement-1 : Silicones are resistant to heat, oxidation and most chemicals.

Statement-2 : The silicones(a) have stable silica-like six electron owing to high bond energy of Si O bond and
(b) have high strength of Si C
321.
Statement-1 : T3+ acts as an oxidising agent.

Statement-2 : T+ is more stable than T3+ due to inert pair effect.
322.
Statement-1 : PbI4 is a stable compound.

Statement-2 : Pb2+ ions with concentrated solution of KI forms a soluble complex.
323.
Nitrogen shows different oxidation states in the range :

(A) 0 to 5
(B) 3 to + 5
(C) 5 to + 3
(D) 5 to + 3
324.
Dinitrogen gas is evolved when sodium nitrite is heated :

(A) alone
(B) with ammonium chloride
(C) with ammonium hydroxide
(D) with potassium nitrate
325.
Dinitrogen cannot be liberated by :

(A) decomposition of ammonium dichromate.
(C) reaction of ammonia with bleaching powder.
326.
327.
(B) reaction of ammonia with heated cupric oxide.

(D) heating ammonium carbonate.
Dinitrogen can be purified from the impurities of NO and NH3 by passing through :
(A) concentrated HCl.
(B) alkaline solution of pyrogallol.
(C) an acidified solution of potassium dichromate. (D) an aqueous solution of KOH.
Ammonia and red hot CuO react to produce :
(A) Cu2O, N2, H2
(B) Cu, H2O, N2
(C) Cu(OH)2, N2
(D) [Cu(NH3)4](OH)2
328.
Which compounds are produced when ammonia reacts with excess of bromine ?
(A) N2 , NH4Br
(B) N2 and HBr
(C) NBr3, HBr
(D) NH4Br only
329.
A metal X on heating in nitrogen gas gives Y, Y on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas which when passed
through chloroplatinic acid produces yellow precipitate. 'Y' is :
(A) Mg(NO3)2
(B) Mg3N2
(C) NH3
(D) MgO
330.
Which of the following is not correct ?

(A) Ammonia is used as refrigerant.
(B) A mixture of Ca(CN)2 and C is known as nitrolim.
(C) A mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and CaSO4.2H2O is known as superphosphate of lime.
(D) Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl.
331.
332.
What is not produced when NI3NH3 is rubbed against the hard surface ?
(A) I2
(B) N2
(C) NH3
Which will not give precipitate with NH4OH solution ?
(A) FeCl3 (aq)
(B) Al2(SO4)3 (aq)
(C) CuSO4 (aq)
(D) NH4I
(D) CrCl3 (aq)
333.
Which of the following cannot result in the formation of NO ?

(A) N2 + O2 (Electric arc)
(B) NH3 + O2 ; (Pt / Rh catalyst / 1200 K)
(C) NaNO3 / HCl
(D) None of these
334.
A lightning flash through air may result in the formation of :

(A) nitrogen pentaoxide (B) ammonia
(C) nitric acid
(D) nitric oxide
Which of the following does not give NO2 by heating at 500C ?

(A) NaNO3
(B) Pb(NO3)2
(C) Cu(NO3)2
(D) AgNO3
335.
336.
When a vapour, at atmospheric pressure was gradually heated from 25C its colour was found to deepen at first
and then to fade as the temperature was raised above 160C. At 600C, the vapour was almost colourless, but
its colour deepened when the pressure was raised at this temperature. The vapour was :
(A) the bromine.
(B) a mixture of nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen tetraoxide.
(C) pure nitrogen dioxide.
(D) pure dinitorgen tetraoxide.
337.
Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by :

(A) thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
(C) thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
(B) disproportionation of N2O4

(D) interaction of hydroxyl amine with nitrous acid.
338.
Which of the following statements about N2O is false ?

(A) A neutral oxide which does not form hyponitrous acid with water
(B) An oily liquid
(C) Used as propellant for whipped ice-cream
(D) Used as an anaesthetic
339.
The aqueous solution / liquid that absorbs nitric oxide to a considerable extent is :
(A) lead nitrate
(B) nitric acid
(C) ferrous sulphate
(D) sodium hydroxide
(E) carbon disulphide
340.
One of the oxidants used with liquid propellants is :

(A) ammonia perchlorate
(B) nitrocellulose
(C) sulphuric acid
(D) nitrogen tetraoxide (N2O4)
(E) phosphorus pentaoxide.
341.
Which of the following statements is true for HNO2 ?

(A) It can be prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of nitrite.
(B) It is unstable weak acid which is known only in aqueous solution.
(C) N2O3 is an anhydride of HNO2.
(D) All of these
342.
What is true about N2O4 ?

(A) It is a mixture N2O3 and N2O5.
(B) It is absorved by water to form nitric acid.
(C) It is reddish brown gas.
(D) It reacts with water to give mixture of two oxoacids of nitrogen.
343.
Nitrogen dioxide :
(A) dissolves in water forming HNO3.
(B) does not dissolve in water.
(C) dissolves in water to form HNO2 and gives off O2.
(D) dissolves in water to form a mixture of nitrous and nitric acids.
344.
Which oxide does not act as a reducing agent ?

(A) NO
(B) N2O4
(C) N2O
(D) N2O5
345.
Action of concentrated nitric acid on metallic tin produces :

(A) stannous nitrite
(B) stannous nitrate
(C) stannic nitrate
(D) hydrated stannic oxide
346.
In modern process, white phosphorus is manufactured by :

(A) heating a mixture of phosphorite mineral with sand and coke in an electric furnace
(B) heating calcium phosphate with lime
(C) heating bone ash with coke
(D) heating phosphate mineral with sand.
347.
With respect to protonic acids, which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) PH3 is more basic than NH3
(B) PH3 is less basic than NH3
(C) PH3 is equally basic as NH3
(D) PH3 is amphoteric while NH3 is basic.
348.
The true statement of the acids of phosphorus H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is :
(A) the order of their reducing strength is H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4.
(B) the hybridisation of phosphorus is sp3 in all these.
(C) all have one P=O.
(D) all of these.
349.
White phosphorus when boiled with strong solution of caustic soda produces :
(A) sodium phosphide
(B) sodium phosphate
(C) sodium hypophosphite
(D) red phosphourus
350.
Oxygen can be obtained from bleaching powder by :

(A) adding dilute acid
(B) adding alkalies
(C) heating with lime
(D) heating with a cobalt salt.
Which compound does not give oxygen on heating ?

(A) HgO
(B) KMnO4
(C) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(D) KClO3
351.
352.
Acidified potassium permanganate is dropped over sodium peroxide taken in a round bottom flask at room
temperature, vigorous reaction takes place to produce :
(A) hydrogen peroxide
(B) mixture of hydrogen and oxygen
(C) a colourless gas hydrogen
(D) a colourless gas dioxygen.
353.
Which pair of species are referred to as suboxides respectively ?

(A) CO, NO
(B) SO2, CaO
(C) N2O, CO
(D) N2O, C3O2
354.
Which of the following statements is not true about ozone ?

(A) It is a pale blue gas at room temperature.
(B) It oxidises sulphur and phosphorus evolving oxygen gas.
(C) It oxidises SnCl2 and SO2 evolving oxygen gas.
(D) It reduces BaO2 and H2O2 evolving oxygen gas.
355.
Ozone is prepared by passing silent electric discharge through oxygen. In this reaction :
(A) energy is given out
(B) energy is absorbed
(C) oxygen is dissociated into atom
(D) oxygen is loaded with energy.
356.
Which of the following is responsible for turning starch-iodide paper blue when it is brought in contact with O3?
(A) Liberation of iodine
(B) Liberation of oxygen
(C) Formation of alkali
(D) Reaction of ozone with litmus paper.
357.
Which one of the following property is not correct for ozone ?

(A) It oxidises lead sulphide
(B) It oxidises potassium iodide
(C) It oxidises mercury
(D) It cannot act as bleaching agent in dry state.
358.
Ozone give carbonyl compounds with :

(A) alkyl chlorides
(B) alkanes
(C) alkenes followed by decomposition with Zn/H2O
(D) alkynes followed by decomposition with Zn/H2O
359.
Moist iodine reacts with ozone to give :

(A) HI
(B) HIO3
(C) I2O4
(D) I2O5
360.
Which ion cannot be oxidized by ozone :

(A) I
(B) AsO 33
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3
(D) MnO42
361.
Which of the following solutions does not change its colour on passing ozone through it is :
(A) starch iodide solution
(B) alcoholic solution of benzidine
(C) acidic solution of potassium dichromate
(D) acidified solution of FeSO4
362.
A green coloured solution of some salt changes its colour to light pink on passing ozone through it. Which of the
following species represent pink and green colour respectively ?
363.
(A) Mn2+ and MnO2

(B) MnO 24 and MnO 4 (C) MnO 4 and MnO 24 (D) Cu+ and Cu2+
Mercury loses its meniscus on passing ozone through it. The meniscus can be regained :
(A) by passing ozone for a longer time.
(B) by shaking it with water.
(C) by passing O2 gas.
(D) by shaking it with liquor ammonia.
364.
All the following decompose easily on heating to give oxygen except :

(A) barium peroxide
(B) potassium dichromate
(C) sodium nitrate
(D) none of these
365.
What is the product formed when ozone reacts with mercury ?

(A) HgO
(B) Hg2O2
(C) Hg2O
(D) HgO2
366.
Which one of the following properties is correct for ozone ?

(A) It is used for killing water-born germs
(B) It react with dry iodine to form I4O9
(C) It oxidises mercury to mercury suboxide
(D) All of these
367.
By which of the following SO2 is formed ?

(A) Reaction of dilute H2SO4 with O2.
(C) Reaction of concentrated H2SO4 with Cu.
(B) Heating Fe2(SO4)3.

(D) None.
SO2 reacts with chlorine in sunlight to form :

(A) sulphuryl chloride.
(B) sulphonyl chloride.
(C) sulphur trioxide.
368.
(D) sulphuric acid.
369.
The products of the chemical reaction between Na2S2O3, Cl2 and H2O are :
(A) HCl + Na2S
(B) HCl + NaHSO4
(C) HCl + Na2SO3
(D) NaHClO3 + H2O
370.
When sulphur is boiled with Na2SO3 solution, the compound formed is :

(A) sodium sulphide
(B) sodium sulphate
(C) sodium persulphate (D) sodium thiosulphate
371.
Na2S2O3 is prepared by :
(A) reacting H2S2O3 with NaOH.
(C) heating NaOH and S.
372.
(B) reacting Na2SO4 with S is alkaline medium.

(D) reducing Na2SO4 with S in acidic medium.
The oxidation state of sulphur in the anions SO32, S2O42 and S2O62 follows the order :
(A) S2O62 < SO42 < SO32
(B) S2O42 < SO32 < S2O62
2
2
2
(C) SO3 < S2O4 < S2O6
(D) S2O42 < S2O62 < SO32
373.
Statement-1 : Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH4OH and HOCl, while PCl3 on hydrolysis gives H3PO3 and HCl.
Statement-2 : The difference is due to the change in polarity of PCl bond in PCl3 in contrast to
NCl+bond in NCl3.
374.
Statement-1 : Na2HPO3 is not an acid salt.

Statement-2 : Na2HPO3 on heating decomposes to give phosphine gas and a mixture of phosphates.
375.
Statement-1 : NO2 and ClO2 both being odd electron molecules dimerise.
Statement-2 : On dimerisation, NO2 is converted to stable N2O4 molecule with even number of electrons.
376.
Statement-1 : H3PO2 is a weak monobasic acid and is also strong reducing in nature.
O
Statement-2 :
P
H
OH
H
377.
Statement-1 : Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent in comparison to O2.

Statement-2 : O3 molecule is diamagnetic but O3 is paramagnetic.
378.
Statement-1 : Sodium thiosulphate is not prepared by boiling Na2SO3 with S in acidic medium.
Statement-2 : Na2S2O3 + H+ 2Na+ + H2SO3 + S(colloidal).
379.
The manufacture of fluorine is done by :

(A) heating anhydrous HF and MnO2.
(B) electrolysis of aqueous HF.
(C) electrolysis of anhydrous HF mixed with KHF2.
(D) heating a mixture of KF, MnO2 and conc. H2SO4.
380.
Which halogen oxidises water to liberate oxygen exothermally ?

(A) Fluorine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine
(D) Iodine
381.
Fluorine is obtained by the interaction of K2MnF6 with Lewis acid SbF5 because of the :
(A) Acidolysis of MnF4
(B) Decomposition of MnF4
(C) Ionization of MnF4
(D) Decomposition of SbF6
382.
Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Cl2 can not be dried over H2SO4.
(B) Available chlorine is obtained from caustic soda by treating with HCl.
(C) Conc. HCl + conc. HNO3 is Marshall's acid.
(D) All neutral interhalogen molecules are diamagnetic in nature.
383.
An easy way of obtaining Cl2 gas in the laboratory is :

(A) by heating NaCl and concentrated H2SO4.
(B) by heating NaCl and concentrated MnO2.
(C) by mixing HCl and KMnO4.
(D) by passing F2 through NaCl solution.
384.
The catalyst used in Decons process is :

(A) CuCl2
(B) Cu
385.
(C) CuSO4
(D) CuS
When chlorine reacts with turpentine oil, the product formed is :

(A) carbon
(B) carbon and HCl
(C) turpentine chloride
(D) none of these
386.
Which electrolyte is used in Dennis method for the preparation of fluorine ?

(A) KHF2 in anhydrous HF
(B) molten cryolite
(C) pure dry molten KHF2
(D) none of these
387.
A dark violet solid X reacts with NH3 to form a mild explosive which decomposes to give a violet coloured gas. X
also reacts with H2 to give an acid Y. Y can also be prepared by heating its salt with H3PO4. X and Y are :
(A) Cl2 , HCl
(B) SO2 , H2SO4
(C) Br2 , HBr
(D) I2 , HI
388.
Chlorine is liberated when we heat :

(A) KMnO4 + NaCl
(B) K2Cr2O7 + MnO2
389
390.
(C) Pb(NO3)2 + MnO2
Which of the following does not decolourise iodine ?

(A) Na2SO3
(B) Na2S2O3
(C) NaCl
(D) K2Cr2O7 + HCl

(D) NaOH
In the reaction,
3Br2 + 6CO 23 + 3H2O 5Br + BrO 3 + 6HCO 3 :
(A) bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced (B) bromine is both oxidised and reduced
(C) bromine is reduced and water is oxidised
(D) bromine is neither oxidised nor reduced
391.
A greenish yellow gas reacts with an alkali metal hydroxide to form a halate which can be used in fire works and
safety matches. The gas and halate respectively are :
(A) Br2 , KBrO3
(B) Cl2 , KClO3
(C) I2 , NaIO3
(D) none
392.
The reaction of KMnO4 and HCl results in :

(A) Oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2.
(B) Reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2.
(C) Oxidation of Mn in KMnO4 and production of H2.
(D) Reduction of Mn in KMnO4 and production of Cl2.
393.
Which one of the following halogen liberates oxygen, when passed through hot concentrated KOH solution?
(A) I2
(B) Cl2
(C) Br2
(D) F2
394.
H2SO4 cannot be used for obtaining HBr from KBr because :

(A) HBr oxidises H2SO4.
(B) HBr reduces H2SO4.
(C) HBr undergoes disproportionation.
(D) KBr reacts very slowly.
395.
Which of the following gases can be dried by concentrated H2SO4 ?

(A) HCl
(B) HBr
(C) HI
396.
ClO2 reacts with water and alkali to give :

(A) sodium chlorate
(C) sodium chlorate and sodium chlorite
(D) H2S
(B) sodium chlorite

(D) none of the above
397.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of interhalogen compounds ?

(A) They are more reactive than halogens.
(B) They are quite unstable but none of them is explosive.
(C) They are covalent in nature.
(D) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile.
398.
When chlorine is bubbled through aqueous solution of potassium iodide, iodine gas is liberated because :
(A) chlorine is more electropositive.
(B) chlorine has higher electron affinity.
(C) chlorine is more powerful oxidising agent than iodine.
(D) none of the above.
399.
In the clathrates of xenon with water, the nature of bonding between xenon and water molecule is :
(A) covalent
(B) hydrogen bonding
(C) co-ordinate
(D) dipole-induced dipole interaction
400.
Which compound is prepared by the following reaction ?

Xe
F2
Ni
673 K
(2 : 1 volume ratio)
(A) XeF4
401.
(B) XeF2
XeF2 reacts with PF5 to give :

(A) XeF6
(B) [XeF]+ [PF6]
(C) XeF6
(D) None of these
(C) XeF4
(D) [PF4]+ [XeF3]
402.
Among noble gases (from He to Xe) only xenon reacts with fluorine to form stable fluorides because xenon :
(A) has the largest size.
(B) has the lowest ionization enthalpy.
(C) has the highest heat of vaporization.
(D) is the most readily available noble gas.
403.
What are the products formed in the reaction of xenon hexafluoride with silicon dioxide ?
(A) XeSiO4 + HF
(B) XeF2 + SiF4
(C) XeOF4 + SiF4
(D) XeO3 + SiF2
DIRECTIONS :
Each question has 5 choices (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
404.
Statement-1 : Hypochlorous acid (HClO) acts as a powerful oxidising and bleaching agent.
Statement-2 : Sodium hypochlorite in solution undergoes disproportionation reaction.
405.
Statement-1 : All interhalogens are paramagnetic.

Statement-2 : AB type of interhalogen undergoes hydrolysis giving a halide ion derived from the smaller halogen
and a hypohalite ion derived from the larger halogen.
406.
Statement-1 : HClO4 is a more stronger acid than HClO3.

Statement-2 : Oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is +7 and in HClO3 is +5.
407.
Statement-1 : Fluorine is obtained by the interaction of K2MnF6 with lewis acid SbF5.
Statement-2 : Stronger lewis acid SbF5 displaces weaker acid MnF4 from K2MnF6 and MnF4 being unstable
decomposes to give MnF3 and F2.
408.
Statement-1 : Fluorine with sodium hydroxide solution does not undergo disproportionation reaction.
Statement-2 : Fluorine has the highest SRP value, therefore, it is completely reduced only.
409.
Statement-1 : Xenon hexafluoride is kept in silica-lined vessel.

Statement-2 : Xenon hexafluoride is not kept in silica-lined vessel.
410.
Statement-1 : Argon is used in the laboratory for handling substances that are air-sensitive.
Statement-2 : Argon is inert towards chemical reactivity due to the completely filled valence shell electronic
configuration, high ionization enthalpy and more positive electron gain enthalpy.
d & F Block Elements

411.
Which of the following does not belong to 3d series of transition elements ?

(A) Titanium
(B) Iron
(C) Palladium
(D) Vanadium.
412.
For the process Cu(g) Cu+(g) + e , the electron is to be removed from

(A) 3d sub-shell
(B) 4s sub-shell
(C) 3p sub-shell
(D) any of the above.
413.
In general, the melting and boiling points of transition metals :

(A) increase gradually across the period from left to right.
(B) decrease gradually across the period from left to right.
(C) first increase till the middle of the period and then decrease towards the end.
(D) first decrease regularly till the middle of the period and then increase towards the end.
414.
Which of the following is the most suitable description of transition elements ?

(A) Low melting points
(B) No catalytic activity.
(C) Show variable oxidation states.
(D) Exhibit inert pair effect.
415.
The tendency of the transition elements to form coloured compound is attributed to :

(A) transition of electrons from one atoms to the other.
(B) transition of electrons from s-orbitals of the outer shells to p-orbitals.
(C) d-d-transition of electron in last but one shell.
(D) none of the reason is correct.
416.
The ions from among the following which are colourless are :
(i) Ti4+ ,
(ii) Cu+1 ,
(iii) Co3+ ,
(iv) Fe2+ .
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii).
417.
418.
The transition elements are more metallic than the representative elements because they have :
(A) the electrons in d-orbitals
(B) electron pairs in d-orbitals
(C) greater availability of d-orbitals for bonding
(D) empty metallic orbitals
Which oxide of manganese is most acidic in nature ?
(A) MnO
(B) Mn2O7
(C) Mn2O3
(D) MnO2 .
419.
Which of the following transition metal ions has least magnetic moment ?
(A) Co3+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Cr2+
(D) V3+
420.
Which of the following shall have the highest value of magnetic moment ?
(A) Zn(II) ion
(B) Mn(IV) ion
(C) Fe(II) ion
(D) Ti(III) ion.
421.
The highest oxidation state is exhibited by the transition metals with configuration :
(A) (n 1) d3ns2
(B) (n 1) d5ns1
(C) (n 1) d5ns2
(D) (n 1) d8ns2.
422.
In general, the transition elements exhibit their highest oxidation states in their compounds with elements like
:
(A) C
(B) S
(C) S and P
(D) F and O.
423.
Within each transition series, the oxidation states :

(A) regularly decrease from left to right.
(B) first increase upto middle of the series then decrease.
(C) first decrease upto middle and then increase. (D) none of these.
424.
The maximum oxidation state shown by V(Z = 23), Cr(Z = 24), Co(Z = 27), Sc(Z = 21) are respectively :
(A) + 5 , + 6 , + 3 , + 3 (B) + 3 , + 4 , + 5, + 2 (C) + 5, + 3 , + 2 , + 1 (D) + 4 in each case.
425.
The stability of particular oxidation state of a metal in aqueous solution is determined by :

(A) enthalpy of sublimation of the metal
(B) ionisation energy
(C) enthalpy of hydration of the metal ion
(D) all of these.
426.
Transition elements are frequently used as catalyst because :

(A) of variable oxidation state
(B) of high ionic charge
(C) large surface area of reactants
(D) of their specific nature.
427.
The first ionisation energies of the elements of the first transition series :
(A) increase as the atomic number increase.
(B) decrease as the atomic number increase.
(C) do not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n 1) dorbitals.
(D) increase from Ti to Mn and then decrease from Mn to Cu.
428.
If a non metal is added to the interstitial sites of a metal, then the metal becomes :
(A) softer
(B) less tensile
(C) less malleable
(D) more ductile.
429.
Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration
is :
(A) Ti3+ , V2+ , Cr3+ , Mn4+
(B) Ti+ , V4+ , Cr6+ , Mn7+
2+
3+
2+
3+
(C) Ti , V , Cr , Mn
(D) Ti2+ , V3+ , Cr4+ , Mn5+ .
430.
The pair of the compounds in which both the metals are in the highest possible oxidation state is,
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3 , [Co(CN)6]3
(B) CrO2Cl2 , MnO4 .
(C) TiO2 , MnO2
(D) [Co(CN)6]3, Mn2O7 .
431.
Which of the following can be used for the conversion of potassium manganate to potassium permanganate?
(A) O3
(B) Cl2
(C) CO2
(D) All.
432.
The reaction MnO4 + e

(A) a basic medium (strong)
(C) neutral medium
433.
Reaction of KMnO4 in neutral or very weakly alkaline solution can be represented as :

(A) MnO4 + 2H2O + 3e MnO2 + 4OH .
(B) 2MnO4 + 2OH 2MnO42 + 1/2O2 + H2O.
2+
(C) MnO4 + 8H + 5e Mn + 4H2O.
(D) MnO4 + e MnO42 .
434.
On heating KMnO4, one among the following is not formed :

(A) K2MnO4
(B) O2
(C) MnO2
MnO42 takes place in :

(B) acidic medium
(D) both acidic and basic medium.
(D) MnO.
435.
One of the products formed due to the reaction between KMnO4 and HCl is :
(A) red liquid, CrO2Cl2
(B) black powder, MnO2
(C) greenish yellow gas , Cl2
(D) colourless liquid, HClO4 .
436.
Which one of the following compounds does not decolourise an acidified aqueous solution of KMnO4 ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Ferric chloride
(C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Ferrous sulphate.
437.
Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine ?

(A) Only MnO2 .
(B) Only KMnO4 .
(C) Both MnO2 and KMnO4 .
(D) None.
438.
KMnO4 in excess on treatment with concentrated H2SO4 forms a compound (X) which decomposes explosively
on heating forming (Y) . The (X) and (Y) are respectively :
(A) Mn2O7 , MnO2
(B) Mn2O7 , Mn2O3
(C) MnSO4 , Mn2O3
(D) Mn2O3 , MnO2
439.
Potassium dichromate in alkaline solution, with 30% H2O2 produces :

(A) K3CrO8
(B) CrO(O2)2
(C) CrO3
(D) K2CrO4 .
440.
Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(A) An acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from iodides.
(B) In acidic solution dichromate ions are converted to chromate ions.
(C) Ammonium dichromate on heating undergo exothermic decomposition to give Cr2O3 .
(D) Potassium dichromate is used as a titrant for Fe2+.
441.
The yellow colour solution of Na2CrO4 changes to orange red on passing CO2 gas due to the formation of :
(A) CrO5
(B) CrO3
(C) Na2Cr2O7
(D) Na3CrO8.
442.
Reaction of potassium chromate and CuSO4 in aqueous solution produces :

(A) CuCrO4 only
(B) Cu5[CrO4]2 only
(C) CuCr2O7 only
(D) both CuCrO4 and Cu2Cr2O7.
443.
H
H
Fusion
[Y]
[Z]
FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2
[X]
H2O
H2O 2
Which of the following statement is true for the compounds [X], [Y] and [Z] ?
(A) In all three compounds, the chromium is in + 6 oxidation state.
(B) [Z] is a deep blueviolet coloured compound which decomposes rapidly in aqueous solution into Cr3+ and
dioxygen.
(C) Saturated solution of [Y] gives bright orange compound, chromic anhydride, with cold and concentrated
H2SO4.
(D) All of these.
444.
Oxygen is absorbed by molten Ag, which is evolved on cooling and the silver particles are scattered ; the
phenomenon is known as :
(A) silvering of mirror.
(B) spitting of silver.
(C) frosting of silver.
(D) hairing of silver.
445.
The image on an exposed and developed photographic film is due to :

(A) AgBr
(B) [Ag(C2O3)2]3+
(C) Ag
(D) Ag2O.
Which of the following does not react with AgCl ?

(A) Na2S2O3
(B) NH4OH
(C) NaNO3
(D) Na3AsO3 .
446.
447.
Which of the following reactions represents "developing" in photography ?

(A) AgNO3 + NaBr AgBr + NaNO3 .
(B) AgBr + 2Na2S2O3 Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaBr.
(C) AgBr + hv AgBr* .
(D) C6H4(OH)2 + 2AgBr* C6H4O2 + 2HBr + 2Ag.
(E) AgBr + 2NH3 [Ag(NH3)2]Br.
448.
Transition metal with low oxidation state will act as :

(A) a base
(B) an acid
449.
450.
(D) none of these.
Boiling CuCl2 with Cu in concentrated HCl gives :

(A) CuCl
(B) CuCl2
(C) CuCl3
(D) Cu2Cl.
Addition of iron fillings to CuSO4 solution caused precipitation of Cu owing to the :
(A) reduction of Cu2+
(B) oxidation of Cu2+
(C) reduction of Fe
(D) None of these
451.
Identify the incorrect statement.

(A) CuSO4 reacts with KCl in aqueous solution to give Cu2Cl2 .
(B) CuSO4 reacts with KI in aqueous solution to give Cu2I2 .
(C) CuSO4 reacts with NaOH and glucose in aqueous medium to give Cu2O.
(D) CuSO4 on strong heating gives CuO.
452.
Solution of CuCl in NH4OH absorbs :

(A) CO2
(B) SO2
(C) H2SO4
(D) CO.
453.
CuFeS2 + O2 (excess)
X(s) + Y(s)
Note : Correspondings sulphates of copper and iron are formed respectively.
Which is correct choice for (X) and (Y) ?
(A) (X) liberates iodine from soluble iodides like KI
(B) (Y) on heating liberates SO3 only
(C) (X) forms bluish white precipitate with sodium hydroxide which redissolves in excess of sodium hydroxide.
(D) (Y) on reaction with potassium ferricyanide gives brown precipitate.
454.
An extremely hot copper wire reacts with steam to produce :

(A) Cu2O
(B) CuO2
(C) Cu2O2
(D) CuO.
455.
A compound of iron exists as a dimer in vapour state. It is hygroscopic in nature and dissolves in water giving
brown acidic solution. The compound is :
(A) Fe3O4
(B) FeSO4
(C) FeCl3
(D) FeCl2.
456.
The names transition and inner transition metals are used to indicate the elements of :
(A) d-block elements only
(B) f-block elements only
(C) p- and d-blocks elements respectively
(D) d- and f-blocks elements respectively
457.
The correct statement(s) from among the following is/are :

(i) all the d and f-block elements are metals
(ii) all the d and f-block elements form coloured ions
(iii) all the d- and f-block elements form paramagnetic ions
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) All
The actinides showing +7 oxidation state are :

(A) U, Np
(B) Pu, Am
(D) Am, Cm
458.
(C) Np, Pu
459.
Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(B) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(C) La is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanide series
(D) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
460.
Transuranic elements begin with

(A) Np
(B) Cm
(C) Pu
(D) U
Lanthanide contraction is observed in :

(A) Gd
(B) At
(C) Xe
(D) Ac
Lanthanide contraction is due to increase in :

(A) shielding by 4f electrons
(C) effective nuclear charge
(B) atomic number

(D) size of 4f orbitals
Which of the following is not an actinoide ?

(A) Curium
(B) Californium
(C) uranium
461.
462.
463.
(D) terbium
464.
S1 : Interstitial compounds have high melting points, higher than those of pure metals.
S2 : Permanganate titrations in presence of hydrochloric acid are unsatisfactory.
S3 : KMnO4 does not act as an oxidising agent in strong alkaline medium.
S4 : KMnO4 on heating in a current of H2 gives MnO.
(A) T T F T
(B) T F F T
(C) T F T T
(D) F F T F
465.
S1 : Mn2+ compounds are more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state.
S2 : Titanium and copper both in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently.
S3 : Cu+ ion is stable in aqueous solutions.
S4 : The E value for the Mn3+ / Mn2+ couple is much more positive than that for Cr3+ /Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+.
(A) T T F T
(B) T F F T
(C) T F T T
(D) F F T F
466.
S1 : Covalent and ionic radii of Nb and Ta are almost the same.

S2 : Ionisation energies of transition elements decrease with increase in atomic number in a given group.
S3 : Iodide of Millon's base is believed to have the structure.
S4 : Yellow colour of CrO42 is due to d-d transition.

(A) T T F T
(B) T F F T
(C) T F T F
(D) F F T F
467.
S1 : Acidic dichromate solutions on treatment with H2O2 gives deep blue CrO(O2)2 .
S2 : A deep red liquid, CrO2Cl2 is formed by the reaction of chromium(III) oxide with HCl in presence of conc.H2SO4.
S3 : (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating yields green chromium(III) oxide and nitrogen gas.
S4 : K2Cr2O7 on heating with charcoal produces K2CO3 .
(A) T T T T
(B) T F T T
(C) T F T F
(D) F F T T
468.
S1 : MnII ions in solution is oxidised to MnO4 by PbO2 or NaBiO3 .

S2 : MnO42 ions in neutral, acid or slightly basic solutions readily disproportionates.
S3 : KMnO4 gives MnO on heating in current of hydrogen.
and arrange in the order of true/ false.
(A) T T T
(B) T F T
(C) T F F
(D) F T F.
469.
Statement-1 : The number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions ;

Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+ and Ti3+ are 4, 3, 2 and 1 respectively.
Statement-2 : Cr3+ is most stable in aqueous solution amongst these ions .
470.
Statement-1 : The value of enthalpy of atomisation is maximum at about the middle of each series.
Statement-2 : There is one unpaired electron per d-orbital and this results in stronger interatomic interaction.
471.
Statement-1 : The spin only magnetic moment of Sc3+ is 1.73 B.M.

Statement-2 : The spin only magnetic moment of an ion is equal to
n(n 2) ; where n is the number of
unpaired electrons in the ion.

472.
Statement-1 : The highest manganese fluoride is MnF4 and the highest oxide is Mn2O7 .
Statement-2 : In Mn2O7, each Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by Os including MnOMn bridge.
473.
Statement-1 : The lowest oxide of a transition metal (say, chromium, atomic number 24) is basic where as the
highest oxide is usually acidic.
Statement-2 : Cr2O3 is amphoteric in nature.
474.
Statement-1 : In acid solution permanganate is reduced to Mn2+ by an excess of reducing agent.

Statement-2 : MnO4 redused in Mn2+ in acidic medium and the product in the presence of an excess of
permanganate is MnO2 .
475.
Statement-1 : Hydrochloric acid is not used to acidify a KMnO4 solution in volumetric analysis of Fe2+ and
C2O42 because.
Statement-2 : Part of the oxygen produced from KMnO4 and HCl is used up in oxidising HCl to Cl2 .
Statement-1 : Potassium dichromates gives deep red vapours with concentrated H2SO4 and sodium chloride.
Statement-2 : The reaction of sodium chloride with solid K2Cr2O7 and concentrated H2SO4 produces chromyl
chloride.
476.
477.
Statement-1 : Solution of Na2CrO4 in water is intensely coloured.

Statement-2 : Oxidation state of Cr in Na2CrO4 is (+VI).
478.
Statement-1 : Reaction of thionyl chloride with hydrated ferric chloride yields anhydrous ferric chloride.
Statement-2 : Water of crystallisation present with ferric chloride reacts with thionyl chloride to liberate HCl and
SO2 gases.
479.
Statement-1 : Hydroquinone is used as a developer for developing black and white photographic film.
Statement-2 : Hydroquinone reduces silver bromide to black silver particles and an inverted image of the object
is produced on a celluloid film.
480.
Statement-1 : Silver nitrate is reduced to silver by the hydrides of 15th group elements (except NH3) because
Statement-2 : They act as strong reducing agents.
481.
Statement-1 : Ag2 S + 4 KCN

2K [Ag(CN)2] + K2S
Statement-2 : The reaction is carried out in presence of air or O2 so that K2S is oxidised to K2SO4 thereby
shifting the equilibrium in forward direction.
Qualitative Analysis
482.
When a salt is heated with dilute H2SO4 and KMnO4 solution, the pink colour of KMnO4 is discharged, the salt
is :
(A) a sulphite
(B) a carbonate
(C) a nitrate
(D) a bicarbonate
483.
Solution of a salt in dilute H2SO4 or acetic acid produces deep blue colour with starch iodide solution. The salt
contains :
(A) Br
(B) I
(C) NO3
(D) NO2
484.
A test tube containing a nitrate and another containing a bromide and MnO2 are treated with concentrated
H2SO4. The reddish brown fumes evolved are passed through water. The water will be coloured by :
(A) the nitrate
(B) the bromide
(C) both
(D) none of the two
485.
An inorganic salt when heated with concentrated H2SO4 evolves a colourless pungent smelling gas but with
concentrated H2SO4 and MnO2 evolves a coloured pungent smelling gas which bleaches moist litmus paper. The
coloured gas is :
(A) NO2
(B) Cl2
(C) Br2
(D) I2
486.
Chromyl chloride vapours are dissolved in water and acetic acid and barium acetate solution is added, then:
(A) the solution will remain colourless.
(B) the solution will become dark green.
(C) a yellow solution will be obtained.
(D) a yellow precipitate will be obtained.
487.
When CS2 layer containing both Br2 and I2 (2 : 1) is shaken with excess of chlorine (Cl2) water, the violet colour
due to I2 disappears and a pale yellow colour appears in the solution. The disappearance of violet colour and
appearance of pale yellow colour is due to the formation of :
(A) I3 and Br2 respectively.
(B) HIO3 and BrCl respectively.
(C) ICl and BrCl respectively.
(D) I and Br respectively.
488.
A metal salt solution gives a yellow precipitate with silver nitrate. The precipitate dissolves in dilute nitric acid as
well as in dilute ammonia solution. The solution contains :
(A) bromide ions
(B) iodide ions
(C) phosphate ions
(D) chromate ions
489.
Which of the following will not give positive chromyl chloride test ?
(A) Copper chloride, CuCl2.
(B) Mercuric chloride, HgCl2.
(C) Zinc chloride, ZnCl2.
(D) Anilinium chloride C6H5NH3Cl.
490.
A white sodium salt dissolves in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When silver nitrate solution
is added to the solution, a white precipitate is obtained which does not dissolve in dilute HNO3. The anion is
(A) CO32
(B) Cl
(C) SO32
(D) S2
491.
A one litre flask is full of reddish brown bromine fumes. The intensity of brown colour of vapour will not decrease
appreciably on adding to the flask some :
(A) pieces of marble
(B) animal charcoal powder
(C) carbon tetrachloride
(D) carbondisulphide
492.
Identify the compound which turns black with ammonia solution.

(A) Lead chloride
(B) Mercurous chloride (C) Mercuric chloride
(D) Silver chloride
493.
A white crystalline substance dissolves in water. On passing H2S in this solution, a black precipitate is obtained.
The black precipitate dissolves completely in hot HNO3. On adding a few drops of concentrated H2SO4, a white
precipitate is obtained which is soluble in ammonium acetate. The white precipitate is that of:
(A) BaSO4
(B) SrSO4
(C) PbSO4
(D) Ag2SO4
494.
The composition of golden spangles is :

(A) PbCrO4
(B) PbI2
495.
(C) As2S3
In which of the following solvents, AgBr will have the highest solubility ?
(A) 103 M NaBr
(B) 103 M NH4OH
(C) Pure water
(D) BaCrO4
(D) 103 M HBr
496.
A metal nitrate solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give a white precipitate which is soluble in
concentrated potassium chloride. White precipitate on passing of hydrogen sulphide gas is converted into black
precipitate. The black precipitate on boiling with hydrogen peroxide (3%) is converted again to a white precipitate
which is soluble in ammonium acetate. The cation of the metal nitrate is :
(A) Pb2+
(B) Ag+
(C) Hg2+
(D) Bi3+
497.
A metal nitrate solution does not give white precipitate with concentrated hydrochloric acid but on dilution with
water produces a white precipitate. The metal nitrate solution with K2CrO4 and Na2HPO4 reagents gives red and
yellow precipitates respectively which are soluble in ammonia solution. The cation of the metal nitrate is :
(A) Pb2+
(B) Ag+
(C) Cu2+
(D) Bi3+
498.
Which of the following pairs comprises the red precipitates ?

(A) Ag2CrO4 and Hg2CrO4
(B) HgI2 and Pb2SCl2
(C) BiOI and Cu2[Fe(CN)6]
499.
Which one among the following pairs of ions can not be separated by H2S in presence of dilute hydrochloric
acid?
(A) Cd2+, Sn2+
(B) Al3+, Hg2+
(C) Zn2+, Cu2+
(D) Ni2+, Bi3+
500.
Which of the following is not precipitated as sulphide by passing H2S in the presence of concentrated HCl ?
(A) Copper
(B) Arsenic
(C) Cadmium
(D) Lead
501.
Which of the following metal cation is reduced from its higher oxidation state (+2) to (+1) by both KI solution and
excess of KCN solution ?
(A) Zn2+
(B) Hg2+
(C) Cu2+
(D) None
502.
A coloured solution of an inorganic salt reacts with potassium thiocyanate to give first a black precipitate, which
slowly turns white. The salt solution also gives black precipitate with H2S gas in slightly acidic medium. The
black precipitate dissolves in potassium cyanide forming a colourless solution. The basic radical present in the
inorganic salt is :
(A) Bi3+
(B) Cu2+
(C) Hg2+
(D) None
503.
Which of the following reagents gives a yellow precipitate with a hot faintly acidic solution of Bi3+ ions ?
(A) Ammonia solution (excess).
(B) Freshly prepared 10% solution of pyrogallol.
(C) Potassium iodide solution.
(D) Freshly prepared 0.125 M alkaline sodium tetrahydroxidostannate (II) solution.
504.
Select the incorrect statement.

(A) Marsh's test involves the reduction of soluble arsenic compound to arsine by nascent hydrogen in acidic
solution and its subsequent decomposition into hydrogen and metallic arsenic as a brownish-black mirror
on heating in a glass tube mixed with hydrogen.
(B) Ammonical silver nitrate gives metallic silver mirror with saturated solution of hydrazine sulphate.
(C) Red precipitate of silver (I) chromate is soluble in dilute nitric acid and ammonia solution.
(D) None of these
505.
Which one of the following cations will give a green coloured ash when a piece of filter paper dipped in a solution
containing its salt and Co(NO3)2 is burned ?
(A) Cu2+
(B) Mg2+
(C) Al3+
(D) Zn2+
506.
To avoid the precipitation of hydroxides of Ni2+, Co2+, Mn2+ along with those of the third group cations, the
solutions should be :
(A) heated with few drops of concentrated HNO3. (B) boiled with excess of ammonium chloride.
(C) concentrated to small volume.
(D) none of these.
507.
A solution containing SCN ions can be used to test one or more out of : Fe3+, Co2+ , Cu2+, Ag+ and Hg2+.
(A) Fe3+ and Co2+ only
(B) Co2+, Cu2+, Ag+ and Hg2+
(C) Fe3+ , Cu2+, Co2+ and Hg2+
(D) all
508.
A blue colouration (in solution or precipitate) is not obtained when :

(A) ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper sulphate.
(B) cobalt chloride reacts with NH4SCN in presence of amyl alcohol.
(C) ferric chloride reacts with sodium ferrocyanide.
(D) aqueous ammonia reacts with white precipitate of silver (I) chloride.
509.
A mixture of chlorides of copper, cadmium, chromium, iron and aluminium was dissolved in water. It was acidified
with dilute HCl and then hydrogen sulphide gas was passed for sufficient time. It was filtered, boiled and a few
drops of nitric acid were added, while boiling. To this solution ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide
were added. To this excess of sodium hydroxide was added and then filtered. The filtrate shall give test for :
(A) sodium and iron
(B) sodium, chromium and aluminium
(C) aluminium and iron
(D) sodium, iron, cadmium and aluminium
510.
Which of the following compounds on reaction with NaOH and Na2O2 gives yellow colour solution?
(A) Cr(OH)3
(B) Zn(OH)2
(C) Al(OH)3
(D) Fe(OH)3
511.
FeCl3 + K3[Fe(CN)6] + H2O2 Precipitate. The colour of the precipitate is :

(A) sky blue
(B) brown
(C) prussian blue
(D) white
512.
ether
CrO42 + H+ + H2O2
X + H2O
Identify the correct statement with respect to X.
(A) It is an acid anhydride of chromic acid.
(B) It is a red colour compound which can be extracted easily into the etherial phase.
(C) It is chromium peroxide which produces blue colouration in etherial layer on gentle shaking.
(D) It is Cr2O3 which is used as a green pigment.
513.
In the fourth group, white precipitate of Mn(OH)2 on heating with PbO2 and concentrated HNO3 gives red-violet
(purple) colour due to the formation of :
(A) HMnO4
(B) Mn2O7
(C) MnO(OH)2
(D) PbMnO4
514.
A coloured solution of a salt gives following reactions.

(i) It gives white precipitate with sodium hydroxide which becomes brown on exposure to air.
(ii) It gives white precipitate with ammonia solution which is soluble in ammonium salts.
(iii) Its acidified solution containing a few drops of dilute AgNO3 on boiling with ammonium peroxodisulphate
gives a reddish violet solution. The cation of the salt is :
(A) Mn2+
(B) Zn2+
(C) Al3+
(D) Ni2+
515.
Zn(OH)2 is soluble in :
(A) excess of sodium hydroxide
(C) solutions of ammonium salts
516.
(B) excess of ammonia solution

(D) all of these
Select the correct statement with respect to Ca2+ ions.

(A) K2CrO4 gives white precipitate in the presence of acetic acid.
(B) Potassium hexacyanidoferrate (II) solution gives white precipitate.
(C) It gives lilac colour in Bunsen flame.
(D) Prolonged passage of carbon dioxide gas through its aqueous solution produces white precipitate.
517.
Potassium chromate solution is added to an aqueous solution of a metal chloride. The yellow precipitate thus
obtained is insoluble in acetic acid. The precipitate is subjected to flame test, the colour of the flame is:
(A) lilac
(B) apple green
(C) crimson red
(D) brick red
518.
A mixture of two salts is not water soluble but dissolves completely in dilute HCl to form a colourless solution.
The mixture could be :
(A) AgNO3 and KBr
(B) BaCO3 and ZnS
(C) FeSO4 and Na2CO3 (D) Mn(NO3)2 and MgSO4
Metallurgy
519.
The rocky and silicious matter associated with an ore is called :

(A) slag
(B) mineral
(C) matrix or gangue
(D) flux
520.
The process of removing lighter gangue particles by washing in a current of water is called :
(A) levigation
(B) liquation
(C) leaching
(D) cupellation.
521.
Gravity separation method is based upon :

(A) preferential washing of ores and gangue particles.
(B) difference in densities of ore particles and impurities.
(C) difference in chemical properties of ore particles and impurities.
(D) none of these.
522.
In the froth floatation process for the purification of minerals the particles float because :
(A) they are light.
(B) they are insoluble.
(C) their surface is preferentially wetted by oil.
(D) they bear an electrostatic charge.
523.
An ore of tin containing FeCr2O4 is concentrated by

:
(A) magnetic separation
(B) froth floatation
(C) leaching method
(D) gravity separation.
524.
Process of heating ore in air to remove sulphur is :

(A) calcination
(B) roasting
(C) smelting
525.
526.
527.
(D) none of these.
In roasting :
(A) moisture is removed.
(C) ore becomes porous.
(B) nonmetals as their volatile oxide are removed.

(D) all the above.
Roasting is carried out in case of :

(A) galena
(B) iron pyrites
(C) copper glance
Slag is a product of :
(A) flux and coke.
(C) flux and impurities.
(B) coke and metal oxide.

(D) metal and flux.
(D) all.
528.
An ore after levigation is found to have basic impurities. Which of the following can be used as flux during
smelting ?
(A) H2SO4
(B) CaCO3
(C) SiO2
(D) Both CaO and SiO2 .
529.
Among the following statements, the incorrect one is :

(A) calamine and siderite are carbonates
(B) argentite and cuprite are oxides
(C) zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulphides
(D) malachite and azurite are ores of copper
530.
Electrolytic reduction method is used in the extraction of :

(A) highly electronegative elements.
(B) highly electropositive elements.
(C) transition metals.
(D) noble metals.
531.
Which one of the following metals cannot be extracted by carbon reduction ?

(A) Pb
(B) Fe
(C) Zn
(D) Al.
532.
Among the following groups of oxides, the group that cannot be reduced by carbon to give the respective
metals.
(A) Cu2O, SnO2
(B) Fe2O3 , ZnO
(C) CuO, K2O
(D) PbO, FeO.
533.
The process of bringing the metal or its ore into solution by the action of a suitable chemical reagent followed by
extraction of the metal either by electrolysis or by a suitable precipitating agent i.e. more electropositive metal
is called :
(A) electrometallurgy
(B) hydrometallurgy
(C) electro-refining
(D) zone refining.
534.
Cryolite is :
(A) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for decreasing electrical conductivity.
(B) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for lowering the melting point of alumina.
(C) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolytic purification of alumina.
(D) Na3AlF6 and is used in the electrolysis of alumina for increasing the melting point and electrical conductivity.
535.
In the extraction of Cu the reaction takes place in Bessemer converter is :

(A) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2 .
(B) 2CuFeS2 + O2 Cu2S + FeS + SO2 .
(C) 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2 .
(D) 2FeS + 3O2 2FeO + 2SO2 .
536.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the extractive metallurgy of copper ?
(A) Matte chiefly consists of iron sulphide and some ferrous oxide.
(B) The impurity of iron sulphide is removed as fusible slag, FeSiO3 during roasting.
(C) The copper pyrite is concentrated by froth floatation process.
(D) Copper is obtained by self reduction in bessemer converter.
537.
Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to :

(A) volatile stable compound.
(B) volatile unstable compound.
(C) non-volatile stable compound.
(D) none of these.
538.
Copper and tin are refined by :

(A) liquation
(B) cupellation
(C) bessemerisation
(D) poling.
The process of zone refining is used for :

(A) silicon
(B) germanium
(C) gallium
(D) all the above.
Tin and zinc can be refined by :

(A) cupellation
(B) liquation
(C) poling
(D) bessemerisation.
539.
540.
541.
Which one of the following reactions is an example of calcination process ?

(A) 2 Ag + 2HCl + [O] 2 AgCl + H2O
(B) 2 Zn + O2 2 ZnO.
(C) 2 ZnS + 3O2 2 ZnO + 2 SO2
(D) MgCO3 MgO + CO2 .
542.
Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
Column I
Column II
I. Cyanide process.
(a) Ultra pure Ge
II. Froth floatation process.
(b) Pine oil.
III. Electrolytic reduction.
(c) Extraction of Al.
IV. Zone refining.
(d) Extraction of Au.
(A) I(c), II(a), III(d), IV-(b)
(B) I(d), II(b), III(c), IV(a)
(C) I(c), II(b), III(d), IV-(a)
(D) I(d), II(a), III(c), IV-(b)
Match the ores listed in column I with the type of ores listed in column II and select the correct. alternate.
Column I
Column II
(a)
Limonite.
(p)
Carbonate ore.
(b)
Argentite.
(q)
Halide ore.
(c)
Carnallite
(r)
Sulphide ore.
(d)
Calamine.
(s)
Oxide ore.
543.
(A)
(C)
544.
(a)
(s)
(p)
(b)
(r)
(q)
(c)
(q)
(r)
(d)
(p)
(s)
(B)
(D)
(a)
(p)
(s)
(b)
(s)
(r)
Match the method of concentration of the ore in column I with the ore
alternate.
Column I
Column II
(a)
Leaching.
(p)
Copper pyrite.
(b)
Calcination.
(q)
Siderite.
(c)
Froth floatation.
(r)
Bauxite.
(d)
Magnetic separation.
(s)
Chromite.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(A)
(s)
(q)
(p)
(r)
(B)
(r)
(q)
(C)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(D)
(q)
(r)
(c)
(q)
(p)
(d)
(r)
(q)
in column II and select the correct
(c)
(p)
(p)
(d)
(s)
(s).
545.
Match the extraction process listed in column I with metals listed in column II and choose the correct option.
Column I
Column II
(a)
Self reduction.
(p)
Copper from copper glance
(b)
Carbon and carbon monoxide reduction.
(q)
Silver from argentite.
(c)
Electrolytic reduction in fused state.
(r)
Aluminium from bauxite.
(d)
Complex formation and displacement by metal. (s)
Iron from haematite.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(D)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(D)
(A)
(p)
(s)
(r)
(q)
(B)
(p)
(r)
(s)
(q)
(C)
(s)
(p)
(r)
(q)
(D)
(p)
(r)
(s)
(q)
546.
The iron obtained from the blast furnace is called :

(A) pig iron
(B) cast iron
(C) wrought iron
(D) steel
547.
The extraction of zinc from zinc blende involves :

(A) the electrolytic reduction.
(B) the roasting followed by reduction with carbon.
(C) the calcination followed by reduction with another metal.
(D) the roasting at molten temperature.
548.
Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of Al2O3 because :

(A) it is non-metal
(B) the heat of formation of CO2 is more than that of Al2O3
(C) pure carbon is not easily available
(D) the heat of formation of Al2O3 is too high
549.
Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is false.
(i) In Gold Schmidt thermite process aluminium acts as a reducing agent.
(ii) Mg is extracted by electrolysis of aqueous solution of MgCI2
(iii) Extraction of Pb is possible by carbon reduction of PbO in smelting.
(iv) Red bauxite is purified by Serpeck`s process
(A) T T T F
(B) T F F T
(C) F T T T
(D) T F T F
Leaching of Ag2S is carried out by heating it with a dilute solution of :
(A) NaCN only
(B) HCI
(C) NaOH
(D) NaCN in presence of O2
In which of the following pair of metals, both are commercially extracted from their respective ores by self
reduction method ?
(A) Zn, Cu
(B) Pb, Cu
(C) Sn, Zn
(D) Al, Ag
Consider the following isolation / purification processes.
(I) Heating impure metal with I2 at 150 200C and passing the resulting volatile iodide on hot tungsten filament
at 1400C to get the pure metal.
(II) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part is converted to oxide and then further heating in the absence of air
to let the oxide react with unchanged metal sulphide to get the metal.
(III) Electrolysis of the molten electrolyte containing metal oxide and cryolite or florspar to obtain the metal.
The processes used for obtaining aluminium, titanium and lead are respectively :
550.
551.
552.
(A) (I), (II) and (III)
(B) (II), (III) and (I)
(C) (III), (I) and (II)
(D) (II), (I) and (III)
553.
Consider the following statements :

S1 : In extraction of iron from haematite ore, the reduction reactions take place only in the lower temperature
range in the blast furnace.
S2 : Calamine is an carbonate ore of zinc.
S3 : The principal ore of aluminium, bauxite, usually contains silica, iron oxides and titanium oxide as impurities.
S4 : Solidified copper obtained from silica lined convertor (Bessemer converter) has blistered appearance due to
the evolution of SO2.
(A) F T T T
(B) F T F F
(C) F F T T
(D) T F F T
554.

S1 : In electrolytic refining, the impurities from the blister copper deposits anode mud which contains antimony,
selenium, tellurium, silver , gold and platinum. (From copper pyrites)
S2 : In Serpecks process silica is removed by heating the bauxite to 1800C with coke in a current of N2 .
S3 : Chalcocite and azurite are ores of copper.
S4 : The tin is obtained by the carbon reduction of black tin.
(A) T F T T
(B) F T F F
(C) F F T T
(D) T T T T
555.

S1 : Poling process is used for the refining of copper and lead.
S2 : The scavenger which is used in the manufacture of steel is manganese.
S3 : The chemical composition of matte is Cu2O + Cu2S.
S4 : In the extraction of aluminium from alumina Al2O3 undergoes dissociation.
(A) F T F F
(B) T T F F
(C) F F T T
(D) T T F T
556.

S1 : Extraction of zinc from sphalerite involves roasting followed by carbon reduction.
S2 : In bessemer convertor, along with copper FeSiO3 is also obtained.
S3 : In extraction of lead, CaO prevents the formation of PbSiO3 .
S4 : Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy from low grade ores and scraps.
(A) T T T F
(B) F T T F
(C) T T T T
(D) F F F T
1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.
41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.
71.
76.
81.
86.
(B)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
ANSWERS KEY
2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.
42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.
72.
77.
82.
87.
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.
43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.
73.
78.
83.
88.
(D)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.
44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.
74.
79.
84.
89.
(D)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.
45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.
75.
80.
85.
90.
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
91.
96.
101.
106.
111
116
121.
126.
131.
136.
141.
146.
151.
156.
161.
166.
171.
176.
181.
186.
191.
196.
201.
206.
211.
216.
221.
226.
231.
236.
241.
246.
251.
256.
261.
(C)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)
D
C
D
D
A
D
C
A
C
B
A
92.
97.
102.
107.
112.
117.
122.
127.
132.
137.
142.
147.
152.
157.
162.
167.
172.
177.
182.
187.
192.
197.
202.
207.
212.
217.
222.
227.
232.
237.
242.
247.
252.
257.
262.
(B)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(B)
D
B
C
B
B
C
B
B
A
D
B
93.
98.
103.
108.
113.
118.
123.
128.
133.
138.
143.
148.
153.
158.
163.
168.
173.
178.
183.
188.
193.
198.
203.
208.
213.
218.
223.
228.
233.
238.
243.
248.
253.
258.
(A)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(D)
D
B
C
A
C
C
D
A
A
C
94.
99.
104.
109.
114.
119.
124.
129.
134.
139.
144.
149.
154.
159.
164.
169.
174.
179.
184.
189.
194.
199.
204.
209.
214.
219.
224.
229.
234.
239.
244.
249.
254.
259.
(B)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(D)
D
D
B
C
A
B
D
B
C
A
A
95.
100.
105.
110.
115.
120.
125.
130.
135.
140.
145.
150.
155.
160.
165.
170.
175.
180.
185.
190.
195.
200.
205.
210.
215.
220.
225.
230.
235.
240.
245.
250.
255.
260.
(B)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
C
B
C
A
D
B
A
A
B
D
B
263.
268.
273.
278.
283.
288.
293.
298.
303.
308.
313.
C
A
A
A
C
C
B
D
B
C
D
264.
269.
274.
279.
284.
289.
294.
299.
304.
309.
314.
C
B
A
A
B
D
C
C
A
C
D
265.
270.
275.
280.
285.
290.
295.
300.
305.
310.
315.
A
C
B
A
C
A
B
D
B
A
A
266.
271.
276.
281.
286.
291.
296.
301.
306.
311.
316.
C
B
B
D
A
C
A
D
B
A
A
267.
272.
277.
282.
287.
292.
297.
302.
307.
312.
317.
B
D
D
A
D
B
C
C
A
C
A
318.
323.
328.
B
B
C
319.
324.
329.
A
B
B
320.
325.
330.
A
D
B
321.
326.
331.
A
C
C
322.
327.
332.
D
B
C
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
347.
348.
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
358.
363.
D
C
B
354.
359.
364.
C
B
D
355.
360.
365.
B
C
C
356.
361.
366.
A
C
D
357.
362.
367.
D
C
C
368.
369.
370.
371.
372.
373.
378.
A
A
374.
379.
B
C
375.
380.
D
A
376.
381.
A
B
377.
382.
B
D
383.
388.
C
D
384.
389.
A
C
385.
390.
B
B
386.
391.
A
B
387.
392.
D
D
393.
398.
D
C
394.
399.
B
D
395.
400.
A
B
396.
401.
C
B
397.
402.
D
B
403.
408.
C
A
404.
409.
B
D
405.
410.
D
A
406.
411.
B
C
407.
412.
A
B
413.
418.
C
B
414.
419.
C
D
415.
420.
C
C
416.
421.
A
C
417.
422.
C
D
423.
428.
B
C
424.
429.
A
D
425.
430.
D
B
426.
431.
A
D
427.
432.
A
A
433.
438.
A
A
434.
439.
D
A
435.
440.
C
B
436.
441.
B
C
437.
442.
C
D
443.
448.
D
B
444.
449.
B
A
445.
450.
C
A
446.
451.
C
A
447.
452.
D
D
453.
458.
463.
468.
473.
477.
482.
487.
492.
497.
502.
507.
512.
517.
522.
527.
532.
537.
542.
547.
552.
A
C
D
A
B
A
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
454.
459.
464.
469.
474.
478.
483.
488.
493.
498.
503.
508.
513.
518.
523.
528.
533.
538.
543.
548.
553.
D
A
A
B
B
A
(D)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
455.
460.
465.
470.
475.
479.
484.
489.
494.
499.
504.
509.
514.
519.
524.
529.
534.
539.
544.
549.
554.
C
A
B
A
A
A
(B)
(B)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(D)
(D)
456.
461.
466.
471.
476.
480.
485.
490.
495.
500.
505.
510.
515.
520.
525.
530.
535.
340.
545.
550.
555.
D
A
C
D
A
A
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(A)
(D)
(A)
457.
462.
467.
472.
476.
481.
486.
491.
496.
501.
506.
511.
516.
521.
526.
531.
536.
341.
546.
551.
556.
A
C
B
B
B
A
(D)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(A)
All the Best

for Your Exams.............

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1457156375-Inorganic Chemistry Revision Book JEE Main-2016.Pmd

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Inorganic Chemistry

Periodic Table and Periodicity

(D) none of these

Of the following pairs, the one containing examples of metalloid elements is :

Which of the following is the wrong statement ?

Atomic number of 15, 33, 51 represents the following family :

(D) None of these

According to Modern periodic table, Chalcogens are elements of :

(C) ns2np4 configuration

(D) all of these

Which of the following statement is wrong for the d-block elements :

In which element shielding effect is not possible ?

In a given energy level, the order of penetration effect of different orbitals is :

CHEMISTRY REVISION BOOK 2

The lanthanide contraction refers to :

(B) valence electrons of the series.

Select correct statement(s) :

(D) None of the statement is correct.

Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation enthalpy ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Amphoteric behaviour is shown by the oxides of :

Increasing order of acidic character is :

(B) SO3 < N2O5 < CO2 < SiO2

Which of following ions do not exist together in aqueous solution :

Which is/are true statement(s) ?

CHEMISTRY REVISION BOOK 3

Select the endothermic step(s) :

(B) Ne(g) + e Ne(g)

Select the correct statement.

Which is incorrect order for the properties specified ?

Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ?

In the following which substance will have highest boiling point

(D) NO2 NO3 NO2

The correct order of CN bond length in the given compounds is :

(D) R > P > Q

The number of and bonds in dicyanogen (CN)2 are :

The hybridisation of P in phosphate ion (PO43) is the same as :

Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?

Which of the following pairs does not contain isomorphous species :

sp3d hybridization is considered to be a combination of two hybridization. They are

Which of the following should have pyramidal shape :

(D) All of these

Which of the following species have a non linear shape ?

The correct order of increasing X O X bond angle is ( X H, F or Cl) :

(D) F2 O H2O Cl2 O

The correct order of bond angle is :

(B) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3

Which of the following is correct order of bond length ?

(D) +CH3 > CH4

Identify the correct statement :

In O2F2, which of the following statement is incorrect.

Which of the following are not characteristics of metallic solids ?

Boron forms covalent compound due to

(B) Higher ionization energy

(C) Lower ionization energy

(D) Both (A) and (B)

To which of the following species is the octet rule applicable ?

Correct order of bond energy of CO bond is :

(D) Both (I) and (III)

Which of the following overlaps gives a bond with x as internuclear axis?

CHEMISTRY REVISION BOOK 6

Which of the statements is correct about SO2 ?

(B) two and one

(C) two , two and one lone pair