Documentos de Académico
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Documentos de Cultura
Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of India and select the
incorrect statement/s from the codes given below:
1. Constitution authorises the Parliament to alter the areas or boundaries of the existing
states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union territory.
2. Constitution does not guarantee any state of its territorial integrity or continued
existence
3. Constitution declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states can
be passed by a simple majority
Choose the appropriate code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Q.1) Solution (d)
Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union
territory. In other words, Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its
will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by
the Constitution.
Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new
states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the
Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple
majority and by the ordinary legislative process.
Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.2) Which among the following are the features of Government of India Act of 1935?
Page 1
1 and 2
1 and 3
1, 2 and 4
1, 3 and 4
GoI Act, 1935 introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor
was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
It was GoI Act, 1858 which created a new office, Secretary of State for India, who was
vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration.
GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the
currency and credit of the country.
GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of Federal Court (not Supreme Court),
which was set up in 1937. It was Regulating Act of 1773 which provided for the
establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774)
Q.3) According to Dr B R Ambedkar, which among the following is a novel feature of the Indian
Constitution?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.4) In which of the following points is the Indian Constitution similar to that of Canadian
Constitution?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4
All of the above
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Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.5) Which one of the following Acts of British India established a system of double
government?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Pitts India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of
the Company.
It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body
called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of
double government.
It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and
military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with regard to States and Union Territories. Which of
the following statement is/are incorrect?
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1 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
None
Territory of India is a wider expression than the Union of India because the latter includes
only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with
the Centre.
The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly
administered by the Central government.
Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.7) In which case, the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the
bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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It was in the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the Indian
Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and
the Directive Principles.
Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.8) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with Acts and Regulations of the state
legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Schedule Eight
Schedule Nine
Schedule Eleventh
Schedule Twelfth
Ninth Schedule deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land
reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other
matters.
This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it
from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after
April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.9) Which one of the following Acts of British India introduced for the first time
bicameralism and direct elections in the country?
a) Indian Council Act of 1892
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Meaning
A. we command
B. to be certified
C. you may have the body
D. what is your authority
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This writ is popularly known as Stay Order. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court
to stop proceeding in a case on the ground of over-stepping of jurisdiction or absence of
jurisdiction. It is issued before the judgement or order is made in such cases.
Source: Refer Chapter 3 and Chapter 7: Salient Features of the Constitution and Fundamental
Rights, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.11) Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroys authority over
his executive council by substituting Portfolio or departmental system for corporate
functioning?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Indian Council Act, 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more
convenient transaction of business in the council.
It also gave a recognition to the portfolio system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.
Under this, a member of the Viceroys council was made in-charge of one or more
departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the
council on matters of his department(s).
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2. The Constitution of India has introduced the system of single citizenship and provided
uniform rights for the people of India to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity
among them and to build an integrated Indian nation.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2only
Both 1 and 2
Nether 1 nor 2
The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means
that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that
do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian
citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents.
The Constitution of India, like that of Canada, has introduced the system of single
citizenship and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) for the people of India to
promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian
nation.
Despite this, India has been witnessing the communal riots, class conflicts, caste wars,
linguistic clashes and ethnic disputes. Thus, the cherished goal of the founding fathers and
the Constitution-makers to build an united and integrated Indian nation has not been fully
realized.
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The Constitution empowered the Parliament to enact a law to provide for acquisition and
loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been
amended in 1986, 1992, 2003 and 2005.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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1 only
2 and 3
3 only
None of the above
Q.16) Which of the statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India cardholder are correct?
1. They get a multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa for visiting India.
2. They get parity with NRIs in respect of economic, financial and education fields except
acquisition of agricultural lands.
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3. They are required to register with local police authorities once their stay in India
exceeds 180 days for the first time.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.18) India successfully test-fires advanced interceptor missile from Abdul kalam Island.
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Abdul Kalam Island, formerly known as Wheeler Island, is an island off the coast of
Odisha, India,
approximately 150
kilometres (93 mi) from the
state
capital Bhubaneswar. The Integrated Test Range maintaining a missile testing facility is
located in the island.
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1,2,3 and 4 only
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Q.20) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary accounted for a large number of fatalities over the past six
months. Chinnar Wild life sanctuary is located in which of the following state/UT of India
a)
b)
c)
d)
Karnataka
Tamil Nadu
Puducherry
Kerala
Click here
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
Fiscal policy is said to be tight or contractionary when revenue is higher than spending
(i.e., the government budget is in surplus).
Click here
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Q.22) The High Court of Rajasthan has declared the practice of Santhara as illegal. Which of
the statements correctly explains Santhara?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2
3 only
All of the above
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Q.24) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the US Agency for
International Development (USAID) have launched a new joint project named SERVIR-Mekong.
Which of the following statements regarding this project are correct?
1. The SERVIR program helps governments and development stakeholders in incorporating
Earth observations and geospatial technologies into natural disaster response to
improve food security, safeguard human health and manage water and natural
resources.
2. It is recently launched for five South Asian countries namely Burma, Cambodia, Laos,
Thailand and Vietnam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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It was launched in the Asian Disaster Preparedness Center in Bangkok, Thailand. Under this
project, researchers will draw from a continuous stream of space-based climate, weather and
other Earth observation data from Nasa and its partners. The main focus of this project is to
host vital issues in the Mekong river basin region in those five countries which is also called as
Rice Bowl of Asia.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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2. The campaign focuses on making public buildings accessible to Persons with Disabilities
(PWDs).
3. The campaign also focuses on enhancing the accessibility and usability of Public
Transport, and information & communication.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Q.1) Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void. Which among the following laws can be challenged in
courts as violating FR?
1. Ordinances issued by the president or the state governors.
2. Delegated legislations.
3. Constitutional amendments.
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
All the above
Q.2) The term State has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental
rights. According to Article 12, the State includes which among the following entities
1.
2.
3.
4.
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1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Q. 2) Solution (b)
According to Article 12, the State includes the following:
(a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the
Union government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
(c) All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement
trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL,
etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the
actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental
Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an
instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the State under Article 12.
Q.3) Which among the following FR does a foreign citizen can avail
1. Freedom to manage religious affairs.
2. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
3. Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational
institutions.
4. Right to elementary education.
5. Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
6. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
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1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Q.4) The concept "Equality before law" connotes which among the following
1. The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person.
2. The equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
3. The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land.
Choose the correct codes
a) 1 and 2 only
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Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties enshrined in the
constitution of India
1. These are applicable to all the residents of India irrespective of their caste, creed, sex
and religion.
2. The parliament cannot impose legal sanction against the violation of Fundamental
duties.
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.7) Which among the following legal provisions are meant for the implementation of some
of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the constitution of India?
1. Unlawful activities (Prevention) Act.
2. Representation of People Act (1951).
3. The Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets (Imposition of Tax) Bill, 2015.
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All the above
Q.8) Which among the following is called as "Conscience of the constitution" by Granville
Austin?
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct codes
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1 and 2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
Q.9) DPSP are like the instrument of instructions. These instructions or recommendations to
the State in which among the following matters
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All the above
Q. 9) Solution (b)
Directive Principles of State Policy are the constitutional instructions or recommendations
to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. According to Article 36, the
term State in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights.
Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state
governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country.
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Q.10) In Minerva mills case (1980), according to Supreme Court which among the following
constitutes the core of commitment to social revolution
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.13) Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to
foreigners?
1.
2.
3.
4.
4 only
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
All of the above
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Q.15) Which of the following statements are a correct comparison between Fundamental
Rights(FR) and Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSPs):
1. FRs are justiciable while DPSPs are not.
2. FRs are negative as they prohibit state from doing certain things while DPSPs are
positive as they require state to do certain things.
3. In a conflict between DPSPs and FRs, FRs always prevails.
Select the correct code from the following:
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
2 and 3
1 only
1 and 2
None of the above
AmritMahal
Khillari
Sahiwal
Hallikar
Gir
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1 only
2 only
Both
None
Click here
It is advised to the candidates that there is a similar scheme UDAAN by MHRD,
UDAAN by MHRD is an initiative of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
to enable disadvantaged girl students and other students from SC/ST & minorities to
transit from school to post-school professional education specially in Science and
Math.
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1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All the above
None of the above
Fund generated from bonds are used only to fund green projects
Click here to know more about Green Bonds
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1 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 ,3 and 4 only
Q.22) An issue of updating the National Citizen Register (NCR) in Assam was in news.
Consider the following statements w.r.t NCR
1. The provisions governing NCR updation in Assam are Citizenship Act, 1951 and The
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity cards) Rules, 2003
2. Policy decisions, guidelines, funds for NRC updation and implementation are
provided by and are done through the State Government machinery.
3. Persons whose names appear in NCR, 1955 are eligible for inclusion in NCR
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
None
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Q.23) The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval to the
National Offshore Wind Energy Policy (OWEP). Consider the following w.r.t Indias Wind
Energy Potential and policies
1. Indias onshore wind energy potential is more than offshore
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Only 1
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3
The Union cabinet approved the National Offshore Wind Energy Policy, aiming to harness
wind power along Indias 7,600 km coastline. With this approval, the Ministry of New &
Renewable Energy (MNRE) has been authorized as the Nodal Ministry for use of offshore
areas within the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of the country and the National Institute of
Wind Energy (NIWE) has been authorized as the Nodal Agency for development of offshore
wind energy in the country and to carry out allocation of offshore wind energy blocks,
coordination and allied functions with related ministries and agencies.
The decision paves the way for offshore wind energy development, including projects and
research and development activities up to a seaward distance of 200 nautical miles, which
constitutes the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the country.
Of Indias 36,642 MW of installed renewable power capacity, around 23,864 MW is onshore
wind energy alone.
http://www.livemint.com/Politics/hjYjnG8v4SWLIPKr5yo2FJ/Cabinet-approves-nationalwind-energy-policy.html
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Reindeer
Goral
Himalayan Tahr
Sangai
2 and 3
Only 1
Only 3
None
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1 and 3
2 and 4
1,2 and 3
All of the above
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Q.5) India and its neighboring countries are generally referred to as the Indian Subcontinent.
The reason behind this is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.6) Mt K2 is the highest peak of India. In which of the following mountain ranges does it lie:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Karakoram Range
Greater Himalayas
Central Himalayas
Siwaliks
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Q.7) Which of the following statements are the major causes of drought in India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Q.9) In which of the following regions there is a possibility of finding laterite soil?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 only
1 and 3
None of the above
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1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2
All of the above
Q.12) The eastern and western coast of Indian peninsula has got contrasting features. Which
of the following contrasts are correct about the coastal plains?
1. Eastern coast is an example of submerging coast while western coast is an example of
emerging coast.
2. A number of rivers form deltas on the western coast, while it is not true for the eastern
coast.
3. As compared to eastern coastal plains, the western coastal plains are much broader.
Select the correct code from the following
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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Q.13) Consider the following statements about the Indian Thar desert
1. The underlying rock structure of desert is the extension of Peninsular plateau.
2. Fluvial erosion is common making mushroom rocks and shifting dunes.
3. Rivers flow in short streams and disappears showing inland drainage.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Udham Singh
Lala Lajpat Rai
Bhagat Singh
Chandra Shekhar Azad
Q.15) ISRO has successfully launched ASTROSAT. Consider the following statements w.r.t it
1. It is a kind of telescope
2. It is Indias first Space Observatory
3. It is the first of its kind in the world
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
Only 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
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Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Nuakhai
Gudhi Parwa
Chavang Kut
Gawai Dayak
Only 2
1, 2 and 4
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
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Nuakhai- Oddisa
Chavang Kut- celebrated by the Kuki-chin group in North-east India on 1 November
Gudhi Parwa- elebrated by the Marathi people in Maharashtra, Karnataka
Gawai Dayak- Sarawak, Malaysia and West Kalimantan, Indonesia
Eastern Asia
Eastern Africa
Western Africa
Central Asia
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Q.20) Bhama Kalapam, Parvathi Parinayam and Bhakta Prahlada are related to which of
the dance forms
a)
b)
c)
d)
Kathakali
Kuchipudi
Bharatnatyam
Odissi
Atropa Belladona
Datura
Morphine
Opioids
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1 and 3 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
None of these
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Q.22) Rio Olympics is round the corner. Consider the following statements
1. The official mascot of Rio 2016 Olympics is Vinicius
2. The Olympics will be held in Capital city of Brazil known as Rio De Generio
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to Rehabilitation of Bonded labour
scheme 2016
1. The quantum of financial assistance under this scheme is increased from Rs 20 thousand
to one lakh rupees.
2. The scheme aims to address new forms of bondage such as organised begging rings,
forced prostitution and child labour for which females are mercilessly used by the
powerful elements.
3. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of women and child development.
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All the above
Employment.
Q.25) Emphasis to restore Jagannath temple at puri was in news recently. Consider the
following statements with respect to Puri Jagannath Temple
1. The idol of Jagannath temple at Puri is made of wood and is replaced once in twelve
years.
2. The temple was rebuilt in 12th century by Eastern Ganga dynasty King Anantavarman
Chodaganga Deva
3. The puri Jagannath temple constitutes one of the four Char Dham pilgrimages that a
Hindu is expected to visit in his lifetime.
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1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All the above
Click here
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1 and 2
Only 1
1, 2 and 3
Only 3
Q.2) Consider the following regarding Trident Juncture and select the correct code?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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Measles
AIDS
Cancer
Polio
TB
Whooping Cough
1, 3, 4 and 5
3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 4, 5 and 6
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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1 and 2
Only 2
Only 1
1, 2 and 3
Page 3
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
Only 3
None
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1, 2 and 3
2 and 3
Only 3
1 and 2
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President of India
Prime Minister of India
Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Prime Minister Office (PMO)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.10) Which of the following statements are correct about crop rotation?
1. Growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession is called
crop rotation.
2. The availability of moisture and irrigation facilities decide the choice of crops to be
grown.
3. Ideally staple grain crops are rotated with leguminous crops.
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Q.11) Which of the following statements correctly explains the process of Ratooning?
a) It is a method of harvesting a crop which leaves the roots and the lower parts of the
plant uncut to give stubble crop.
b) It is a method of preparing field by burning the stubs of harvested crops in the field,
to provide nutrition to the soil.
c) It is method of using burrowing animals to make the field porous before harvesting
of crop.
d) None of the above.
Q.12) Arrange the following rock systems of our country as classified by the Geological
Survey of India from oldest to recent:
1. The Purana Rock System
2. The Dravidian Rock System
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Q.13) Which amongst the following rivers has the largest drainage basin in India?
a) Indus
b) Brahmaputra
c) Krishna
d) Godavari
Q.13) Solution (a)
Amongst the given rivers Indus has the largest basin in India. It has the second largest basin
after river Ganga.
Ganga> Indua> Godavari> Krishna> Brahmaputra
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1 only
1 and 3
2 and 3
All of the above
Q.16) Which of the following statements are correct about black soils of India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
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1 and 4
1,2 and 3
1,3 and 4
All of the above
1,2 and 3
1 and 4
4 only
None of the above
Q.18) Soil salinity has emerged a major problem affecting the fertility of soil in India.
Almost 2.5% of countrys reporting area is adversely affected by alkali formations. Which
of the following statements are correct about saline soils?
1. Salinity is naturally found in arid and semi-arid areas where rate of evaporation is
higher than rate of precipitation.
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1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Kabani
Bhavani
Pambar
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1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
Q.22) The recent advent of yellow fever in some parts of Africa was in news recently.
Consider the following statements with respect to Yellow fever
1. The disease is transmitted by the bite of a Mosquito.
2. It is curable.
3. The disease is characterised by high fever and Jaundice.
Select the correct answer
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
Click here
Dibrugarh
Thimpu
Dispur
Guwahathi
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Q.25) ARYA and Farmers first to revamp agricultural produce in India are proposed
initiatives by
a)
b)
c)
d)
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1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
1, 2 and 3
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Egg
Milk
Meat
Fish
1-4-3-2
2-1-4-3
1-3-4-2
4-1-3-2
Page 2
1 and 2 only
Only 2
Only 3
2 and 3 only
Again picked from class 9th NCERT- chapter 15 IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES FISH
PRODUCTION
Refer this link of Government Website
http://nfdb.gov.in/html/aboutus.htm
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
Page 3
1, 2 and 3
Only 2
2 and 3
None
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
1, 2 and 3
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Q.7) Recently scientists made a historic detection of Gravitational Waves. The discovery
would represent a scientific landmark, opening the door to an entirely new way to
observe the cosmos and unlock secrets about the early universe and mysterious objects
like black holes and neutron stars. Consider the following w.r.t Gravitational Waves
1. Gravitational waves can be produced by Humans, Cars and Aeroplanes.
2. The strongest gravitational waves are produced by catastrophic events such as
colliding black holes, the collapse of supernovae and the remnants of gravitational
radiation created by the birth of the Universe itself.
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3
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1, 2 and 3
2 and 4
1, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
contain the same active ingredients as the innovator drug(inactive ingredients may
vary)
be identical in strength, dosage form, and route of administration
have the same use indications
be bioequivalent
meet the same batch requirements for identity, strength, purity, and quality
be manufactured under the same strict standards of FDA's good manufacturing
practice regulations required for innovator products
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/even-doctors-feel-generic-drugs-aresubstandard/article8398116.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/editorial-on-ban-on-generic-medicines-moremedicine-for-less/article8528990.ece
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Q.10) The process of nitrogen-fixation by bacteria does not take place in the presence of
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 and 4
1 and 4
Ice
Wood
Soil
Air
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1 and 3
2 and 4
1 and 4
3 and 4
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.14) Rotavirus is the most common cause of severe vomiting and diarrhoea among
infants and young children. Which of the following statements are correct about rotavirus:
1. It is the biggest cause of death of children under 5 years of age in India.
2. India has recently launched an indigenous vaccine for rotavirus called Rotavac.
3. Rotavac has been added in Indias Universal Immunisation Program.
Select the correct code from the following:
a) 1 and 2
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ultrasonic waves
infrasonic waves
radio waves
audible sound waves
1 and 2
Only 1
1 and 3
1 and 4
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Rusting of Iron
Cooking of food
Fermentation of grapes
Formation of ozone
Q.17) Which of the following processes are exothermic i.e. they release energy?
1. Burning of coal
2. Respiration
3. Decomposition of vegetables to form compost
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.18) If someone is suffering from the problem of acidity. What is the ideal thing he
should take to have relief?
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Lemon juice
Vinegar
Baking soda solution
Aerated soft drink
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20) Copper was the first metal to be used by mankind on a large scale. What was the
correct reason behind that?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Copper is less reactive and can be easily extracted from its ore.
Copper was the most abundant metal of the world.
Copper had higher conductivity than iron or aluminum.
Copper had religious significance.
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.22) Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because:
a)
b)
c)
d)
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1 only
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Myopia is near sightedness i.e. a person is unable to clearly see nearby objects.
Myopia is corrected using concave lens of suitable power.
Hypermetropia is far sightedness i.e. a person is unable to clearly see distant object.
Hypermetropia is corrected using a convex lens.
1 and 3
2 and 4
None of the above
All of the above
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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Click here
Q.26) The cyclonic storm ROANU has affected which of the following three states of India
a)
b)
c)
d)
Click here
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Click here
News
1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All
Click here
Q.29) The indigenous people Pygmies are found in which of the following deserts
a)
b)
c)
d)
Kalahari Desert
Arabian Desert
Gobi Desert
Atacama Desert
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2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
2, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
Source- Picked from India Year Book, Chapter on Environment (Global Environment Facility)
Page 1
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Only 1
Only 2
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
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1 and 2
Only 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
Page 3
Source- Picked from India Year Book, Chapter on Environment (Mangroves) and Indian State of
Forest Report, 2015
http://fsi.nic.in/isfr-2015/isfr-2015-mangrove-cover.pdf
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
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Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
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2 and 3
1 and 2
Only 3
1, 2 and 3
Beryllium
Cadmium
Gold
Lithium
Uranium
Silver
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1 and 3
2 and 4
All of the above
None of the above
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Q.12) In Equatorial rainforest, the undergrowth on the floor is very less. The correct reason
behind this is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Very less sunlight reaches the ground for survival of plants due to thick canopies.
The hardwood trees excrete toxic resins which do not allow the plants to grow.
Due to high population of herbivorous species.
The soil of rainforest is less fertile due to heavy leaching of minerals.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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1 only
1,2 and 3
1, 3 and 4
All of the above
Q.15) Which of the following statements are correct about Keoladeo National Park.
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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1 only
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.21) The ordinance making power of president lies with which of the following articles of
Indian constitution
a)
b)
c)
d)
Article 122
Article 123
Article 124
Article 125
Self explanatory
Q.22) Anuradhapura is an ancient Buddhist town found in which of the following country
a)
b)
c)
d)
Thailand
Sri Lanka
Cambodia
Nepal
Anuradhapura is a ancient Buddhist site in Sri Lanka which was famous during the time
of Ashoka. Ashoka sent his emissarys to propagate Buddhism in Sri Lanka. Buddhas
relics can also be found in this place. PM modi visited Anuradhapura when he made a
trip to Sri Lanka last time.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
Not all plants are autotrophs. Plants like nephanthesis, picture plants are dependent on
other organisms for food and their survival.
1. Copper Anaemia
2. Vitamin B1 Beri Beri
3. Vitamin C Scurvy
Which of the above mineral deficiency and its disorder is rightly matched
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
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Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to Reusable launch vehicle(RLV)
1. It is co developed by ISRO and DRDO
2. The RLV will be a dummy flight, i.e. The RLV will not be a powered flight
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Click here
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
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Gwadar port is in Pakistan and it is developed by Chinese and Chabahar port is in Iran
and it is developed in India.
Q.3) Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Jhan Dhan Yojana
1. The scheme is run by Dept of Financial services Ministry of Finance
2. Anybody above the age of 10 can open the bank account with zero balance
3. The account holder can take loan benefit of Rs 50000 from the bank after six months
from opening the account.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
Click here
The account holder can take loan benefit(over draft) of Rs 5000 from the bank after six
months from opening the account.
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Gujarat
Chattisgarh
Jharkhand
Goa
Jagor, the traditional folk dance-drama, is performed by the Hindu Kunbi and Christian
Gauda community of Goa, to seek the Devine Grace for protection and prosperity of the
crop. Literal meaning of Jagor is jagran or wakeful nights. The strong belief is that the
night long performance awakens the deities once a year and they continue to remain
awake throughout the year guarding the village.
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c) Both
d) None
The total number of plants and animal species in eutrophic lakes is less than oligotropic
lakes cos of lack of oxygen.
Oxygen is required by all respiring plants and animals and it is replenished by
photosynthesis of green plants, as the oxygen levels are already low because of
population explosion and further oxygen taken up by micro organism which feed off the
dead algae during decomposition process.
Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to National youth policy 2014
1. The National youth policy 2014 replaces National youth policy 2003 to reap the benefits
of Demographic dividend.
2. The National youth policy defines the age of youth from 18 to 29 years.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
The national youth policy defines the age of youth from 15 to 29 years.
President of India mentioned this in a speech Youth and Nation-Building on Jan 19th
2016.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
Q.9) Consider the following statements with respect to Sukanya samridhi yojana
1. It was launched as a part of Beti Bachao Beti padhao campaign.
2. The scheme is related to Girls health.
3. The account will remain operative for 21 years from the date of opening or marriage of
the girl child attaining 18 years of age, whichever is earlier.
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
The Scheme is a small savings instrument that focuses on making girls financially secure.
It was launched on Jan 2015 by PM as part of Beti Bhacho,Beti Padhao
Sukanya samridhi account can be opened in the name of the girl child any time from her
birth till she attains the age of 10 with minimum deposited of RS 1000.
A maximum deposit of 1,50,000 can be deposited in a financial year and the account
holder girl child will be able to operate the account herself on attaining the age of 10
years.
The account will remain operative for 21 years from the date of opening or marriage of
the girl child after attaining the age 18 years of age, whichever is earlier.
The provision of not allowing withdrawal from the account till the girl child attains the
age of 18 years has been kept to prevent early marriage.
Q.10) Satyameva Jayate is a slogan given by which of the following freedom fighter
a)
b)
c)
d)
It was stated by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, the founder of Benares Hindu
University, who went door-to-door to collect donations for this university.
He was a simple living, high thinking politician, notable for his role in the freedom
struggle and his espousal of Hindu nationalism.
Malaviya popularised the famous slogan Satyameva Jayate (Truth alone will win).
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Mughal Emperor Jahangir was the first to grant the English the exclusive rights to reside and
establish factories in Surat and other areas
The Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam, granted Diwani to the Company after its victory in the
Battle of Buxar (1764).
Q.12) The message, the name Ezhava does not denote a caste or a religion and he made
temple rights to everyone. Therefore people can be admitted to this organization without
paying heed to differences of caste said in relation to Temple Entry Movement, was by
a)
b)
c)
d)
Chattambi Swamikal
T. K. Madhavan
Rajaram Mohan Roy
Narayana Guru
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In various parts of South India, particularly Kerala, the disabilities imposed on the avarnas or
people of depressed classes were most inhuman and degrading, against which the struggle
was being waged since the end of the 19th century under the leadership of several
reformers and intellectuals such as Sri Narayana Guru, N. Kumaran Assan and T.K.Madhavan
The temple entry movement used all the techniques developed in the course of the
nationalist struggle. In November 1936, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a proclamation
throwing open all Government controlled temples to all Hindus irrespective of caste.
Sri Narayana Guru gave the message - the name Ezhava does not denote a caste or a
religion and he made temple rights to everyone. Therefore people can be admitted to this
organization without paying heed to differences of caste
Q.13) Which of the following are the establishments by Pandita Ramabai Saraswati?
1. Arya Mahila Samaj in Pune
2. Sharda Sadan in Bombay
3. Brahmo Samaj in Belgaum
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
Only 1
Only 2
All of the above
Pandita Ramabai was an Indian social reformer, a champion for the emancipation of
women, and a pioneer in education. She acquired a reputation as a Sanskrit scholar.
Ramabai founded Arya Mahila Samaj in Pune, which is Sanskrit for "Noble Women's
Society."
The purpose of the society was to promote the cause of women's education and
deliverance from the oppression of child marriage.
She estabished Sharada Sadan in Bombay during a severe famine in 1896. Ramabai toured
the villages of Maharashtra with a caravan of bullock carts and rescued thousands of
outcast children, child widows, orphans, and other destitute women and brought them to
the shelter of Mukti and Sharada Sadan
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Q.14) Consider the following statements with regard to Young Bengal group of students:
1. They were influenced by Henry Vivian Derozio and were responsible for the
establishment of the Society for Translating European Sciences
2. They posed an intellectual challenge to the religious and social orthodoxy of Hinduism
3. They had complete faith in everything British and Western learning which alienated
them from the masses
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
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a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both 1 and 2 are correct
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Raja Rammohan Roy believed in the modern scientific approach and principles of human
dignity and social equity. (Rest is self explanatory both statements are true)
Q.16) Which among the following were the characteristics of early nineteenth century socioreligious reformers?
1. These reformers gained from western education but were not West-sponsored
2. The reforms promoted by these reformers were not meant to structurally reorganize
the whole society
3. Issues dealt by these reformers were applicable and common to the higher classes of
the Hindu society and had no meaning for the lower classes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
The early nineteenth century was marked by the transformation of the Indian society and
the initiative for such reforms came from individuals who revolted against the prescribed
rules of the society.
These reformers though gained from western education were not West-sponsored but they
themselves created the reforms and promoted them.
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It is also undeniable that the reform movements had a strong intellectual base which kept
them aloof from the masses and were confined to the educated sections of the society.
The reforms were not meant to structurally reorganize the whole society for the benefit of
the underprivileged or the depressed sections of the society. The aim of the reforms was to
infuse a new life into the existing social structure.
It has been noted by most historians that the issues dealt with by the social reformers in the
early part of the nineteenth century were applicable and common to the higher classes of
the Hindu society and had no meaning for the lower classes.
The movements of the later part of the nineteenth century along with those of the
twentieth century were the ones that reached across to the wider society including the
lower and depressed sections of the society.
Q.17) What was the purpose with which Lord Ripon was sent to India as Viceroy by British
Prime Minister William Gladstone?
a) To reform the structure of the Indian Government and take steps to promote local selfgovernment
b) To facilitate a discussion on Indias Independence in the British Parliament
c) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
d) To abolish the office of the secretary of state and transfer his functions to the secretary
of state for Commonwealth Affairs
Q.17) Solution (a)
In 1880, there was a change of Government in England and the Liberal Party under William
Gladstone came into power. He was known for his liberal ideas and was a believer in moral
principles.
He sent Lord Ripon, a close friend and follower, to reform the structure of the Indian
Government. He repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, commenced industrial
legislation by passing the first Factories Act and took steps to promote local selfgovernment in big cities and towns.
Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the
Local Self Government in 1882.
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Q.18) Which of the following are the ones associated with Dadabhai Naoroji?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 and 2
1, 2 and 4
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3
Bombay Herald was the first English newspaper in Bombay. It was started in 1789. Bombay
Courier was started in the following year 1790. In 1791, the name of Bombay Herald was
changed to Bombay Gazette. Bombay Courier was published on Saturdays and Gazette on
Wednesdays.
Bombay Courier continued to exist for fifty-six years, after which it was merged with
Bombay Telegraph. Bombay Gazette stopped its operation in 1842.
Both these papers contained almost entirely parts from English papers and occasional law
reports. The first native newspaper in Bombay was Bombay Samachar in 1822. This paper
was started as a weekly. It became a bi-weekly in 1833 and daily in 1860. Mumbai Karkman
was started in 1830.
The Bombay Samachar is the oldest continuously published newspaper in India. Established
in 1822, it is published in Gujarati and English
Q.19) The Deoband School, a revivalist school of 19th century, has been started with the
objective
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1. To extend contacts with Muslims and organize them in accordance with original
principles of Islam.
2. To keep alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign rulers.
Select the correct answer from the following options:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both 1 and 2 are correct
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
The objectives of the Deoband School To propagate among the Muslims the pure teachings of the Koran and the Hadis (original
principles of Islam)
To exalt the word God, unaffected by any temptation, patronage, pressure or favour
To follow traditional educational curriculum prescribed by Dar-esi- Nizami.
Hindus and Muslims belong to one nation. They were convinced that the Muslims could,
jointly with the Hindus, create a state in which both could live honourably and happily.
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b) 1, 2 and 3
c) Only 1
d) All are correct
The Wahabi Movement was a part of the Indian freedom struggle as it offered a serious
threat to British supremacy in India in the 19th century.
The movement was led by Syed Ahmed Barelvi (not Vilayet Ali), who was greatly influenced
by the teaching of Abdul Wahab of Arabia and the preaching of Delhi saint Shah Walliullah.
The Wahabi Movement essentially condemned all changes and innovations to Islam. It was
a revivalist movement which held that the return to the true spirit of Islam was the only way
to get rid of the socio- political oppression.
In 1847, the Wahabis started full preparation for an absolute war against the British rule in
India from their base camp in Sitana. Vilayet Ali became the undisputed leader.
The British took up brutal measures and the period between 1863-65, witnessed a series of
trials by which all the principal leaders of the Wahabi movement were arrested.
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d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The zamindars of Bengal were recognised as the owners of land as long as they paid the
revenue to the East India Company regularly.
The amount of revenue that the zamindars had to pay to the Company was firmly fixed
and would not be raised under any circumstances.
The ryots became tenants since they were considered the tillers of the soil.
This settlement took away the administrative and judicial functions of the zamindars.
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The Ryotwari settlement was introduced mainly in Madras, Berar, Bombay and Assam. Sir
Thomas Munro introduced this system in the Madras Presidency. Under this settlement, the
peasant was recognised as the proprietor of land. There was no intermediary like a Zamindar
between the peasant and the government.
In 1833, the Mahalwari settlement was introduced in the Punjab, the Central Provinces and
parts of North Western Provinces. Under this system the basic unit of revenue settlement was
the village or the Mahal. As the village lands belonged jointly to the village community, the
responsibility of paying the revenue rested with the entire Mahal or the village community. So
the entire land of the village was measured at the time of fixing the revenue. Though the
Mahalwari system eliminated middlemen between the government and the village community
and brought about improvement in irrigation facility, yet its benefit was largely enjoyed by the
government.
Q.23) Which among the following was one of the causes for the Vellore Mutiny?
a) Doctrine of lapse
b) Collection of Tributes
c) Introduction of new army regulations
d) Economic exploitation of the British rule.
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Several causes are attributed to the Vellore Mutiny. Indian sepoys had to experience numerous
difficulties when they went to serve in the Companys army. The sepoys were forced to serve
under the Company since their earlier patrons (the native chieftains) were all disappearing from
the scene. The strict discipline, practice, new weapons, new methods and uniforms were all
new to the sepoys. Anything new appears to be difficult and wrong for a man who is wellsettled in the old way of life for a long-time.
Sir John Cradock, the commander-in-chief, with the approval of Lord-William Bentinck, the
Governor of Madras, introduced a new form of turban, resembling a European hat. Wearing ear
rings and caste marks were also prohibited. The sepoys were asked to shave the chin and to
trim the moustache. The sepoys felt that these were designed to insult them and their religious
and social traditions. There was also a popular belief that this was the beginning of a process by
which all of them would be converted to Christianity.
Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding The Regulating Act of 1773
1. The Governor General became very powerful
2. The act put an end to the arbitrary rule of the Company
3. This Act promoted the servants of the Company including the Governor-General,
members of his council and the judges of the Supreme Court from receiving directly or
indirectly any gifts in kind or cash
Select the incorrect code
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
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a. 1784
2. Treaty of Salbai
b. 1782
3. Treaty of Srirangapattinam
c. 1786
4. Treaty of Mangalore
d. 1783
a. 1783
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Treaty of Salbai
b. 1782
Treaty of Srirangapattinam
c. 1786
Treaty of Mangalore
d. 1784
In 1789, the British concluded a tripartite alliance with the Nizam and the Marathas against
Tipu.
1782, the Treaty of Salbai was signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Scindia.
The Treaty of Seringapatam (also called Srirangapatinam), signed 18 March 1792, ended
the Third Anglo-Mysore War. Its signatories included Lord Cornwallis on behalf of the British
East India Company, representatives of the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Mahratta Empire,
and Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore.
The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India
Company on 11 March 1784. It was signed in Mangalore and brought an end to the Second
Anglo-Mysore War.
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Mahabharata
Ramayana
Panchtantra
Bhagavatgeeta
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.3) The conservation of Galapagos Islands was in news recently. Consider the following
statements with respect to Galapagos Islands
1. Galapagos Islands are located off coast of Peru
2. It is a UNESCO world heritage site
3. Galapagos Islands passes through Equator
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
It is located off coast of Ecuador and it passes through equator. It was recognised as
the world heritage site in 1979.
Q.4) Recently a Cancer-causing chemical found was in bread samples from Delhi has
alarmed the authorities. Consider the following statements
1. Potassium bromate / Iodate are carcinogenic chemicals that are used while making
confectionary items.
2. Potassium Iodate/Bromate was found to cause tumour of the kidney and thyroid,
and cancer of the abdominal lining in laboratory animals.
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Click here
Which of the following are the proposed inter basin water transfer links
a)
b)
c)
d)
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3, and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All
Click here
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Indias Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20
1. It aims at increasing Indias exports in goods and services to 900 billion by 2019-20.
2. Previous reward schemes of goods and services for export have been merged into
two schemes- Merchandise Export from India Scheme (MEIS) and Service Export
from India Scheme (SEIS).
3. It seeks to raise Indias share in World exports from 2% to 3.5%
Select the correct option
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All
Q.6) Solution (d)
Click here
Refer Atlas
Designated as a historic site by the Government of India, Amaravati has been chosen
as one of the sites for Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) scheme of Government of India.
Q.9) As per Ease of Doing Business Rank 2015, India ranked 130 out of 189 countries.
Which of the following parameters are used in calculating ease of doing business rank?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Starting a business
Getting electricity
Trading across borders
Getting credit
Protecting minority investors
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 4 and 5 only
All the above
Starting a business
Dealing with construction permits
Getting electricity
Registering property
Getting credit
Protecting minority investors
Paying taxes
Trading across borders
Enforcing contracts
10) Match list 1 with list 2 and choose the correct answer using the codes given below
1.
2.
3.
4.
BrahMosAkashPrithviNAG-
Code
a)
b)
c)
d)
B
A
B
D
A
B
C
B
C
D
D
C
D
C
A
A
Self explanatory
Only 1
1 and 2
2 and 3
None
Lord Canning
Lord Rippon
Lord Mayo
Lord Lytton
Q.13) Identify the personality associated with the institution of the following
act/regulations.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Warren Hasting
Lord Wellesley
LordDalhousie
Lord Curzon
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 3, 4 and 5
Q.15) The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour. Its
significant provisions were:
1. Increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9 years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14
years) for children,
2. Reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day,
3. Fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day with an one-and-ahalf hour interval (working hours for men were left unregulated),
4. Provided weekly holiday for all
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
2 and 3 Only
1, 2 and 3
None
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All the above
The Aligarh Movement of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was the foremost movement for social
reforms among the Indian Muslims.
It was Titu Mirs Movement (not Aligarh Movement) who organized the Muslim
peasants against Hindu landlords and British indigo planters
The objective of the Aligarh movement was to ensure continued British support for its
programmes. It assiduously supported all government legislation with a view to
stamping out the stigma of disloyalty with which the entire Muslim community had been
branded since the Rebellion of 1857 (therefore, the movement did not offer any serious
threat to the British supremacy in India)
All-India Muslim League was the outcome of the Aligarh movement, so were many leaders
of the League and the community
Q.17) Bankim Chandra Chatterjees work Anandmath, one of the most important novels in
the history of Bengali and Indian literature, was set in the background of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ramosi Uprising
Santhal Rebellion
Sannyasi-Faqir Rebellion
Sawantwadi Revolt
It is considered one of the most important novels in the history of Bengali and Indian
literature whose work was set in background of the cause of Faqir-Sannyasis Rebellion
Its importance is heightened by the fact that it became synonymous with the struggle
for Indian independence from the British Empire. The novel was banned by the British.
The ban was lifted later by the Government of India after independence.
The national song of India, Vande Mataram, was first published in this novel.
Q.18) Which one of the following observations is true about the Polygar Rebellions?
1) Polygars were the offshoots of the Nayankara system prevalent in the Vijayanagar
administration
2) Polygars were traditional classes, quite similar to Rajputs of North India, often acted
as sovereigns and extracted taxes from the people
3) First Polygar war was lead by a confederacy consisting of Marudu Pandian, Gopal
Nayak, Kerala Verma and Dhoondaji
4) Kattabomma Nayak was considered as the main leader of the rebellion during
Secong Polygar war, also known as South Indian Rebellion
Choose the appropriate answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Polygars were the offshoots of the Nayankara system prevalent in the Vijayanagar
administration. The Polygars were quite similar to the Rajputs of North India and
were given land in exchange for military service when called upon.
However, their influence and power increased beyond the traditional lines and they
often acted as sovereigns, even to extent of extracting taxes from the people.
But as the Companys Government wanted to augment its own sources of revenues,
it sought to control the Polygars.
Kattabomma Nayak was considered as the main leader of the rebellion during the
First Polygar war (not Second Polygar War). He was publicly hanged by the British in
front of other polygars as a warning.
The Secong Polygar war, also known as South Indian Rebellion, was lead by a
The British succeeded in suppressing the rebellion and was followed by signing of the
Carnatic Treaty, whereby the British assumed direct control over Tamil Nadu.
The Polygar system, which had flourished for two and a half centuries, came to
violent end and the Company introduced the Zamindari settlement in its place.
1, 2 and 5 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Work of Christian missionaries brought about further changes in the socio-economic and
cultural equation of the tribals and the mainstream society. Plus, in turbulent times, the
tendency of the missionaries to refuse to take up arms or in discouraging people from
rising against the Government made the missionaries to be viewed as extensions of
colonialism and were often attacked by the rebels.
The word dikus means outsiders or who come from outside like moneylenders,
traders, zamindars, contractors, British etc. There are a number of reasons for anger of
the tribals against the dikus:
The tribals practiced shifting cultivation but the British forced them to follow settled
agriculture and also introduced land settlements.
Traders and moneylenders were coming into the forest, wanting to buy forest
produce at a very cheap rate, luring them to take cash loans at high interests etc. The
innocent and poor people initially fell in the trap of these moneylenders and traders and
Part II
(Leader associated with it)
1. Karam Shah
B. Kuka Revolt
C. Sawantwadi
3. Anna Sahib
D. Ramosi
4. Chittur Singh
A-B-C-D
a) 3-2-1-4
b) 2-4-1-3
c) 2-1-3-4
d) 1-2-3-4
Self-explanatory
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All the above
The first director general of telegraphs in India was William Brooke O'Shaughnessy. Lord
Dalhousie had authorised him to construct an experimental line and in 1852 he was
appointed director general of telegraphs and authorised to construct an extensive
system.
The 800-mile line from Calcutta to Agra was opened in March, 1854, and two years later
4000 miles were in operation, including lines to Bombay and Madras.
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All the above
The Revolt of 1857 was an unsuccessful but heroic effort to eliminate foreign rule. The
main causes of failure were:
The important element in the Revolt lay in Hindu-Muslim unity. People exhibited
patriotic sentiment without any touch of communal feelings. (therefore, statement 3 is
Q.23) Who among the following was the founder of the organisation - Indian Home Rule
Society (India House), London established in 1904?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Veer Savarkar
Tarak Nath Das
Shyamji Krishna Verma
Lala Hardayal
In 1905 he founded the India House and The Indian Sociologist, which rapidly developed
as an organised meeting point for radical nationalists among Indian students in Britain at
the time and one of the most prominent centres for revolutionary Indian nationalism
outside India. Most famous among the members
of this organisation was Veer Savarkar.
Savarkar's revolutionary activities began while studying in India and England, where he
was associated with the India House and founded student societies including Abhinav
Bharat Society and the Free India Society.
Taraknath Das
With Panduranga Khankoje (B.G. Tilak's emissary), Tarak founded the Indian
Independence League.
Lala Har Dayal was an Indian nationalist revolutionary who founded the Ghadar Party in
America.
He was a polymath who turned down a career in the Indian Civil Service. His simple
living and intellectual acumen inspired many expatriate Indians living in Canada and the
USA to fight against British Imperialism during the First World War.
Q.24) Which among the following characterizes the important events/works during
Viceroy Lord Curzon period?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Swadeshi movement
Foundation of Muslim League
Idea to build Victoria Memorial
Indian Coinage and Paper Currency Act
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Set up the Universities Commission and accordingly the Indian Universities Act of 1904
was passed;
Passed the Indian Coinage and Paper Currency Act (in 1899) and put India on a global
standard;
Q.25) Who among the following Viceroys introduced financial decentralization in India?
He was also known for introduction of State Railways.
a) Lord Lytton
b) Lord Minto
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
GDP growth over time enables central banks and policymakers to evaluate whether the
economy is in recession or inflation.
GDP has also held significance as a universal metric over the years, to measure the
economic performance of a nation.
GDP excludes (not includes) voluntary market transactions: GDP fails to account for
productive non-market activities, like a mother taking care of her child, a homemaker doing
household chores, a homeowner doing maintenance of his house, leisure (paid vacation,
holidays, leave time), improvement in product quality, etc.
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Q.3) Consider the following statements about Nominal and Real GDP:
1. Nominal GDP refers to the current year production of financial goods and services
valued at base year prices
2. Real GDP refers to the current year production of financial goods and services valued at
current year prices
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP), measures the output of goods and services produced
within the geographical boundary of a nation regardless of the residence of that labour
or owner of capital.
2. Gross National Product (GNP) measures the total output of goods and services produced
by residents of a nation regardless of where they live and work or where they own
capital.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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In economics, the GDP deflator (implicit price deflator) is a measure of the level of prices of
all new, domestically produced, final goods and services in an economy. GDP stands for
gross domestic product, the total value of all final goods and services produced within that
economy during a specified period.
Formula
Where, Nominal GDP is GDP at current prices and Real GDP is GDP at constant prices
(Link: https://upload.wikimedia.org/math/8/1/8/818ffd5a7c33b377f1c98c4f2220c53d.png)
Q.6) Which among the following is correct in regard to Social Progress Index (SPI)?
1. SPI goes beyond the traditional measure of GDP and has most parameters that are
required to fulfill SDGs
2. SPI is based on three fundamental pillars: basic needs for survival; access to the building
blocks to improve living conditions, and access to opportunity to pursue goals and
ambitions
3. SPI focuses on outcomes rather than inputs that are used in GDP
4. SPI can best be described as a complementary index to GDP and can be used along with
GDP to achieve social progress
Choose the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All the above
Page 4
The Social Progress Index measures the extent to which countries provide for the social and
environmental needs of their citizens.
Fifty-four indicators in the areas of basic human needs, foundations of wellbeing, and
opportunity to progress show the relative performance of nations.
SPI is based on three fundamental pillars: basic needs for survival; access to the building
blocks to improve living conditions, and access to opportunity to pursue goals and
ambitions.
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Page 5
With the revised definition of GDP with new base rate 2011-12, countrys economic growth
got pushed up as compared to older series data
In new definition of the economic growth with new base rate 2011-12, GDP is estimated at
market process, which includes indirect taxes and exclude subsidies
Earlier, GDP growth was estimated at factor cost, which excludes indirect taxes but includes
subsidies
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above
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Fertilizers
Refinery Products
Natural Gas
Iron
Cement
Electricity
1,2,4,5 and 6
1,2,3,4 and 6
1,2,3,5 and 6
1,2,3,4,5 and 6
Q.11) International Solar Alliance (ISA) will have membership from countries
a)
b)
c)
d)
Page 7
The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris on 30 November by
Indian Prime Minister Narendera Modi and French President Francois Hollande.
The alliance includes around 121 countries that support the Declaration on the occasion to
launch the international solar alliance of countries dedicated to the promotion of solar energy.
Sourced from- Economic Survey, State of Economy- An Overview
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/modi-launches-internationalsolar-alliance/article7934560.ece
Q.12) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)
commonly mentions about
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Infrastructure
Poverty and Hunger
Inequality
Peace and Justice
Water and Sanitation
1, 2, 3 and 5
2, 3, 4 and 5
2, 3 and 5
1, 2 and 3
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Peace and Justice, 16th Goal of SDG- Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable
development, provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive
institutions at all levels.
MDGs
Goal 1: Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Goal 2: Achieve universal primary education
Goal 3: Promote gender equality and empower women
Goal 4: Reduce child mortality rates
Goal 5: Improve maternal health
Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
Goal 7: Ensure environmental sustainability
Goal 8:Develop a global partnership for development
Page 9
As per the fourth Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey conducted by the Labour Bureau
during the period January 2014 to July 2014, the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) (usual
principal status) is 52.5 for all persons. The LFPR of women is significantly lower than that of
males in both rural and urban areas. The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) reflects similar
patterns.
Sourced from- Economic Survey, State of Economy- An Overview
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Refer Altas
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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BRICS nations signed Moscow Declaration for supporting Multilateral Science Projects
Purpose-For co-investment of resources for supporting multilateral Research and
Development (R&D) Projects in mutually agreed areas.
It calls for collaboration in:
Co-operation for large research infrastructures, including mega-science projects along
with coordination of the existing large-scale national programme of member countries.
Implementation and development of a BRICS Framework Programme for funding joint
multilateral research projects, innovation and technology commercialization.
Establishment of BRICS Research and Innovation Networking Platform
Q.16) Puga valley in J&k is famous for availability of which of the following energy reserve
a)
b)
c)
d)
Coal
Geo Thermal
Hydro
Wind
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Page 12
Q.18) Recently Ministry of Water resources and Ganga rejuvenation appointed Ganga task
force for which of the following purposes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ganga Task force is a bunch of Jawans who will be deployed on the banks of river Ganga
to ensure that industry and civilians do not pollute the river.
Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian rhino vision 2020
1. The Indian Rhino vision aims to increase the number one horned rhinoceros to 3000 by
2020.
2. Kaziranga national park houses nearly 75% of world rhinoceros
3. WWF (WWF-India and WWF AREAS) and the International Rhino Foundation (IRF) are
the two major partnering of Indian Rhino vision 2020
Select the incorrect statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
Click here
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Page 13
Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to Ancient Nalanda University
1. The university taught/helped propagates Hinayana school of Buddhism.
2. It was started by a ruler known as Kumaragupta.
Select the correct answer with respect to Nalanda university
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
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Page 14
Q.22) Recently it is found that sea ice cover surrounding Antarctica has been slightly
increasing in sharp contrast to drastic loss of ice occurring in the Arctic region. What can be
the possible reason for the same?
1. The topography of Antarctica and the depth of the ocean surrounding it
2. Topography of Antarctica and depth of ocean influence the winds and ocean currents to
drive the formation and evolution of Antarcticas sea ice cover and help sustain it.
Select the correct code
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both
d) None
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http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/why-sea-ice-cover-aroundantarctica-isrising/article8634112.ece?utm_source=RSS_Feed&utm_medium=RSS&utm_campaign=RSS_Syn
dication
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X-rays and UV radiation emitted by solar flares can affect Earth's ionosphere and disrupt longrange radio communications. Direct radio emission at decimetric wavelengths may disturb the
operation of radars and other devices that use those frequencies
Solar flares affect all layers of the solar atmosphere (photosphere, chromosphere, and corona)
The radiation risks posed by solar flares are a major concern in discussions of a manned mission
to Mars, the Moon, or other planets. Energetic protons can pass through the human body,
causing biochemical damage, presenting a hazard to astronauts during interplanetary travel.
Some kind of physical or magnetic shielding would be required to protect the astronauts. Most
proton storms take at least two hours from the time of visual detection to reach Earth's orbit. A
solar flare on January 20, 2005 released the highest concentration of protons ever directly
measured, giving astronauts as little as 15 minutes to reach shelter.
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As per recently report of World Bank, India remained the worlds largest remittance recipient in
2015. It was revealed by the World Banks annual report Migration and Development Brief. In
2015, India attracted about 69 billion US dollars in remittances, down from 70 billion in 2014
Key Highlights of Report Other large remittance recipients in 2015 were China (64 billion
dollars), Philippines (28 billion), Mexico (25 billion) and Nigeria (21 billion dollar). Global
scenario:
In 2015, global remittances which include those to high-income countries contracted by 1.7% to
581 billion US dollar compared to 592 billion in 2014.
Indian scenario: Remittances to India in 2015 decreased by 2.1 per cent to USD 68.9 billion. This
marks the first decline in remittances since 2009.
Developing countries: Officially recorded remittances to developing countries amounted to
431.6 billion dollars in 2015, an increase of 0.4 per cent over 430 billion dollars in 2014.
Page 18
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/new-method-can-generate-power-fromseawater/article8632993.ece?utm_source=RSS_Feed&utm_medium=RSS&utm_campaign=RSS
_Syndication
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All the above
Page 3
a) 1 2 3 4 5
b) 2 1 4 5 3
c) 1 3 4 5 2
d) 2 5 4 3 1
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1. Dr. N.C. Saxena Committee was set up by the Ministry of Rural Development to advise it
on the suitable methodology for BPL Census and not for estimation of poverty.
2. The Planning Commission constituted an Expert Group under the Chairmanship of
Professor S.R. Hashim, with the objective of putting in place a uniform criterion to
identify the BPL households in urban areas so that objectivity and transparency is
ensured in delivery of benefits to the target groups.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Page 5
proportionate
increase
in
the
state
level
poverty
estimates
also.
The recommendations of the Expert Group and other alternative methodologies are being
tested through a pilot socio-economic survey and a Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA) exercise
in order to finalize the methodology for the final BPL Census.
Further reading: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=68126
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Page 6
Q.7) The Gini coefficient (also known as the Gini index or Giniratio) is a measure of statistical
dispersion intended to represent the income distribution of a nation's residents, and is the
most commonly used measure of inequality. Consider the following about Gini Coefficent.
1. A Gini coefficient of zero expresses perfect equality, where all values are the same (for
example, where everyone has the same income).
2. A Gini coefficient of 1 (or 100%) expresses maximal inequality among values (e.g., for a
large number of people, where only one person has all the income or consumption, and
all others have none, the Gini coefficient will be very nearly one).
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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Q.8) Which of the following is incorrect about the Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls
Education in India?
a) In order to plan and execute educational interventions, the purpose of the Gender Atlas
is to help identify and ensure equitable education with a focus on vulnerable girls,
including girls with disabilities.
b) The Ministry of Women and Child Development presented the Digital Gender Atlas for
Advancing Girls Education in India
c) The Atlas provides comparative analysis of individual gender related indicators over
three years and that enables a visual assessment of the change and an understanding of
whether some intervention introduced in a geography at a particular point in time has
worked or not.
d) The main components of the Gender Atlas are : (i) Composite Gender Ranking (ii) Trend
Analysis of Gender Indicators (iii) Vulnerabilities based on educational indicators in
districts with substantial tribal, schedule caste, minority population
The Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education and Literacy,
presented the Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls Education in India. The tool, which has
been developed with the support of UNICEF, will help identify low performing geographic
pockets for girls, particularly from marginalised groups such as scheduled castes, schedule
tribes and Muslim minorities, on specific gender related education indicators.
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1. Labour Bureau has been entrusted the task of conducting Annual EmploymentUnemployment Survey in the country.
2. The labor force participation rate (LFPR) is the proportion of people eligible to
participate in the labor force who are actually participating in it by working or looking
for work. It is usually expressed as a percent of the total labor force-eligible population
in an economy.
3. Unemployment rate is defined most basically as the percentage of the total labor force
that is unemployed but actively seeking employment and willing to work.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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Q.10) Consider the following about Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).
1. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) isthe flagship outcome-based skill
training scheme of the new Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. The objective of this skill certification and reward scheme is to enable and mobilize a
large number of Indian youth to take up outcome based skill training and become
employable and earn their livelihood
3. Under PMKVY, trainees with prior experience or skills and competencies will not be
recognized and they will be given certification only post undergoing assessments.
4. The scheme will be implemented by the Labour Bureau of India.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
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Select the correct option with respect to development of Green field smart city
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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Italy
China
Russia
France
Japan
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
All are members of G7 forum
Q.13) Union cabinet approved National capital goods policy recently. Consider the following
statements with respect to National Capital goods policy
1. The policy aims to create 21 million new jobs by 2025
2. The policy aims to increase exports from the current 27 percent to 40 percent of
production.
3. Ministry of commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for the formulation of NCGP
2016-05-26
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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
The PAHAL (DBTL) scheme was earlier launched on 1st June 2013 and finally covered
291 districts. It required the consumer to mandatorily have an Aadhaar number for
availing LPG Subsidy. The government has comprehensively reviewed the scheme and
after examining the difficulties faced by the consumer substantively modified the
scheme prior to launch. The modified scheme has been re-launched in 54 districts on
15.11.2014 in the 1st Phase and to be launched in rest of the country on 1.1.2015
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Q.15) Recently Global statics about production of e-waste was released. Consider the
following statements with respect to e-waste
1. PCB (polychlorinated biphenyls), Beryllium, Barium are some of the commonly found Ewaste in India
2. India is the largest producer of E waste in the world
1 only
2 only
Both
None
U.S., China, Japan and Germany, and India are top e-waste producing countries in the
world
Page 14
Which of the following statements is/are false with respect to Trans fat?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
None
Transfat
They are naturally found but in trace amount. So in general the statement They are naturally
found in nature may be taken as incorrect.
Q.18) Consider the following conventions and select the wrongly matched convention with its
intent
a) Stockholm convention deals with persistent organic pollutants
b) Basel convention deals with the control of hazardous wastes and their disposal
c) Montreal conventions deals with preventing the use of substances that deplete ozone
layer
d) Rotterdam convention are dedicated to the protection of ozone layer
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Which of the following statements does not explain the possible reason for presence of earth
quake in India?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither of them
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Q.22) Consider the following regarding Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls Education in
India. It is a tool
1. To help identify low-performing geographic pockets for girls, particularly from
marginalized groups to provides comparative analysis of individual gender-related
indicators over the years.
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Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Q.23) Schemes that are aimed both at creating a conducive environment for industrial
development and doing business with ease and also expanding government support to
impart skill training for workers?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
1, 3, 4, 5
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Malaria
Dengue
Chagas disease
Yellow fever
Japanese encephalitis
Zika
1, 2 and 4
1, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q.25) The Universal Health Coverage (UHC) index has been developed by
a)
b)
c)
d)
WHO
World Bank
United Nation
UNICEF
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Congo
Gabon
Mali
Eritrea
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
Q.2) Recently a group of researchers at Harvard University who are working on Alzheimer
disease came up with certain findings. Consider the following statements with respect to
Alzheimers disease
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
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1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above
It is a subsidiary of SIDBI
It is a Non banking financial company
Loans under MUDRA are issued in three categories - Shishu, Kishore and Tarun
Only PSB(public sector banks) are entitled to disburse MUDRA loans
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Q.6) Consider the following statements with respect to Food Safety & Standards Authority
of India (FSSAI)
1. It is a non statutory body
2. It works under ministry of food processing
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
It is statutory body and works under ministry of health and family welfare
Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to National Air Quality Index
1. It is an initiative under Swacch Bharat
2. The proposed air quality index includes 8 pollutants
3. CO2, CO, NH3 are some of the air pollutants included in the list
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All
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Click here
Q.8) Sahayog Kaijin is a joint coast guard exercise between India and
a)
b)
c)
d)
Oman
Japan
Bangladesh
Sri Lanka
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
Page 4
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
2 and 3 only
1 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
BCG, or bacille Calmette-Guerin, is a vaccine for tuberculosis (TB) disease. Many foreignborn persons have been BCG-vaccinated. BCG is used in many countries with a high
prevalence of TB to prevent childhood tuberculous meningitis and miliary disease.
DPT (also DTP and DTwP) refers to a class of combination vaccines against three
infectious diseases in humans: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. The
vaccine components include diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and killed whole cells of the
organism that causes pertussis (wP).
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There are two types of vaccine that protect against polio: inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
and oral polio vaccine (OPV). IPV is given as an injection in the leg or arm, depending on
the patient's age. Polio vaccine may be given at the same time as other vaccines. Oral
Polio vaccine (OPV) is given to the child from 2 month to 6 year.
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All the above
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
All of the above
Sun-Synchronous - circular polar orbits (The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth
from Pole-to- Pole)
GEO - zero deg inclination on equatorial plane (satellites in these orbits appear to
remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular
location on Earth, thus avoiding the need of a tracking ground antenna and hence are
useful for the communication applications)
Remaining are self-explanatory (as all the given options are correct)
Q.14) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
LIST I
LIST II
A. Dawn
1) Pluto
B. New Horizon
2) Ceres
C. Philae Lander
3) Binary Star
D. Cassini
4) Saturn
E. Nustar
5) comet 67P
A-B-C-D-E
a) 1-2-5-4-3
b) 2-1-5-3-4
c) 2-1-5-4-3
d) 1-4-5-2-3
Q.14) Solution (c)
Dawn is a space probe launched by NASA in September 2007 with the mission of
studying two of the three known protoplanets of the asteroid belt, Vesta and Ceres. It is
currently in orbit about its second target, the dwarf planet Ceres.
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NASAs New Horizons mission is helping us understand worlds at the edge of our solar
system by making the first reconnaissance of the dwarf planet Pluto and by venturing
deeper into the distant, mysterious Kuiper Belt a relic of solar system formation.
Philae is a robotic European Space Agency lander that accompanied the Rosetta
spacecraft until it landed on comet 67P/ChuryumovGerasimenko, more than ten years
after departing Earth.
Philae's mission was to land successfully on the surface of a comet, attach itself, and
transmit data about the comet's composition.
Cassini is an unmanned spacecraft sent to the planet Saturn. It is a flagship-class NASA
ESAASI robotic spacecraft
NASAs Nuclear Spectroscopic Telescope Array, or NuSTAR, has successfully deployed its
lengthy mast, giving it the ability to see the highest energy X-rays in our universe, a step
closer in the hunt for black holes.
Dr. Bhaleraos team observed the binary star (binary star a pair of stars revolving
around each other) using a space x-ray telescope known as NuStar, a NASA space
mission. It is the first x-ray space telescope that can focus on very high energy x-rays.
1 and 2
2 and 3
None of the above
All of the above
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a)
b)
c)
d)
When an incandescent electric bulb glows the electric energy is partly converted into
light energy and partly into heat energy
Q.17) Which one among the following statements correctly defines the term Biofortification?
a) Enrichment of the nutrient quality of the soil using biological agents
b) Breeding crops to increase their nutritional values
c) Increase of organo-metallic compounds in the organism through energy flow in an
ecosystem
d) Adoption of genetic variable plants for breeding of high yielding varieties
Q.17) Solution (b)
Biofortification is the idea of breeding crops to increase their nutritional value. This can
be done either through conventional selective breeding, or through genetic engineering.
Biofortification differs from ordinary fortification because it focuses on making plant
foods more nutritious as the plants are growing, rather than having nutrients added to
the foods when they are being processed.
Q.18) 3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which are supposedly faster, more secure and
reliable. Present day 3G technology is capable of handling data around 2 Megabits per
second (1.8 - 2.5 GHz frequency band). What speed is expected from new 4G technology?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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Malaria
Diarrhea
Kala-azar
Sleeping sickness
4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
Q.20) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List I
List II
A. Vitamin A
1.Non-clotting of blood
B. Vitamin B
2.Rickets
C. Vitamin C
3.Beriberi
D. Vitamin D
4.Colour Blindness
E. Vitamin K
5.Scurvy
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A-B-C-D-E
4-3-5-2-1
4-1-5-2-3
4-1-5-3-2
2-1-5-4-3
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Only 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
None of the above
Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the planets sixth mass biological
extinction event:
1. The number of rodents doubles and the abundance of the disease-causing
ectoparasites that they harbour decreases.
2. Megafauna face the highest rate of decline.
3. The number of invertebrate animals such as beetles, butterflies, spiders and worms
has increased by 20 per cent.
Select the incorrect option:
a) Only 3
b) Only 2
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.5) Which of the following has been set up under MAB program of UNESCO?
a)
b)
c)
d)
National Park
Sanctuary
Buffer Zone
Biosphere Reserves
Bihar
Himachal Pradesh
Uttarakhand
Uttar Pradesh
Backwaters of Kerala
Patch of biodiversity-rich small groves
Coral reef off the coast of Tamil Nadu
A small island near Lakshwadeep
Lion-tailed Macquae
Slow Loris
Blue-eyed Black Lemur
Tibatian Antelope
Q.10) BIOFIN is
a) A portable remote imaging spectrometer
b) Hybrid of debt & equity financing model for addressing the lack of finance in
leveraging Indias efforts to safeguard its environment
c) A pilot project to measure the hearing sensitivity of whales
d) A global partnership to help government plan and pay for its actions on biodiversity
conservation and sustainable use
Only 1
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3
Q.12) The definition of the word wetland, under the Convention, is any land area that is
saturated or flooded with water, either seasonally or permanently. Which of the given
options form part of an Inland wetland?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Flood Plains
Swamps
Seagrass Meadows
Aquifers
Estuaries
Marshes
Coral Reefs
1, 2, 3, 6 and 7
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 2, 4 and 6
1, 2 and 5
The definition of the word wetland, under the Convention, is any land area that is
saturated or flooded with water, either seasonally or permanently. Inland wetlands include
aquifers, lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, peatlands, ponds, flood plains and swamps.
Coastal wetlands include all coastlines, mangroves, saltmarshes, estuaries, lagoons,
seagrass meadows and coral reefs.
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
1, 2 and 3
Historical references to sacred groves can be obtained from ancient classics as far back
as Kalidasa's Vikramuurvashiiya. There has been a growing interest in creating green patches
such as Nakshatravana.
Sacred groves did not enjoy protection via federal legislation in India. Some NGOs work with
local villagers to protect such groves. Traditionally, and in some cases even today, members
of the community take turns to protect the grove. However, the introduction of the
protected area category community reserves under the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment
Act, 2002 has introduced legislation for providing government protection to community
held lands, which could include sacred groves.
Q.16) Consider the following statements with respect to Swadesh Darshan scheme
1. The scheme aims for Integrated Development of Tourist Circuits around Specific
Themes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Amritsar
Amravati
Dwarka
Gaya
Kedarnath
Kamakhaya
Which of the following pilgrimage sites are included under HRIDAY SCHEME?
a)
b)
c)
d)
All the places are included in the HRIDAY scheme except Kamakhaya and Kedarnath
Q.18) Indian Air force successfully test fired BrahMos missile from Pokran test range.
Consider the following statements with respect to BrahMos missile
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Click here
It is a short range supersonic cruise missile
Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Click here
Q.20) Mawphlang sacred forest is found in which of the following north-eastern state of
India
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sikkim
Manipur
Meghalaya
Nagaland
Click here
1. Australia Group
2. Wassaner Arrangement
3. Missile Control Technology Regime
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
None
The Australia Group is an informal group of countries (now joined by the European
Commission) established in 1985 (after the use of chemical weapons by Iraq in 1984)
to help member countries to identify those exports which need to be controlled so
as not to contribute to the spread of chemical and biological weapons.
The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is an informal and voluntary
partnership
among
34
countries
to
prevent
the
proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying a
500 kg payload for at least 300 km.
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian nuclear test and its spill
over effects.
a)
b)
c)
d)
All
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and only
Smiling Buddha was the assigned code name of India's first successful nuclear bomb
test on 1974.
The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in May 1974 and first
met in November 1975. The test demonstrated that certain non-weapons specific
nuclear technology could be readily turned to weapons development. Nations
already signatories of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) saw the need to
further limit the export of nuclear equipment, materials or technology.
Q.23) Recently conservation of Indigenous cow breeds were in news. Consider the
following statements with respect to cows.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
All
Q.24) Global Burden on Food borne diseases is a report released by which of the following
international agencies
a)
b)
c)
d)
FAO
WHO
UNDP
WTO
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Mauritius
Singapore
USA
Netherlands
Switzerland
a)
b)
c)
d)
12354
21435
21345
12435
Click
Click
The Atlas Mountains extend some 2,500km across northwestern Africa, spanning
Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia, separating the Atlantic and Mediterranean coastline from
the Sahara Desert.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Indus
Ravi
Jhelum
Chenab
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5. Sutlej
6. Beas
123456
124356
214365
134265
231
213
321
123
Q.5) Which of the following statement/s is/are true with respect to CURIE
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1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
Q.6) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
(IONS)
1. IONS is a voluntary and co-operative initiative between 30 countries of the Indian Ocean
Region for maritime security and cooperation.
2. The first inaugural IONS Seminar was held by the Indian Navy in 2008
3. Pakistan, France reunion, Mauritius are some of the members of the IONS
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
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1 and 2 only
2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
Nepal
Bhutan
Maldives
Malaysia
Bangladesh
Which of the above are BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal initiative for multi sectoral technical and
economic cooperation) countries?
a) 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 1 and 2 only
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c) 1, 2 and 5 only
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Self explanatory
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Q.10) Which of the following statements with respect to initiative of AMRIT is correct?
1. It is headed by Ministry of Health and family welfare.
2. AMRIT aims to provide drugs for cardiovascular and cancer diseases at highly affordable
prices.
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has opened countrys first Affordable
Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) outlet at AIIMS in New Delhi to
sell drugs at highly discounted rates.
Key facts
The pilot AMRIT outlet will provide drugs for cancer and cardiovascular diseases at
highly discounted rates. At this outlet the prices of 202 cancer and 186 cardio-vascular
drugs will reduced on an average by 60 to 90 per cent.
The pilot AMRIT outlet will be managed by the government-owned HLL Life care Ltd
(HLL),
Provide drugs at affordable prices only on the prescription of a doctor for AIIMS patients
and also other hospitals
Q.11) Which of the following statements is/are Constitutional Provision for Amendment of
the Indian Constitution?
1) Parliament has been bestowed with the constituent power, using which changes in the
Indian Constitution can be made
2) It is mentioned in Constitution that there will be no limitation on the constituent power
of the Parliament for amending it by adding, removing or improving the provisions made
in it
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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c) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above
Q.11) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and its procedure.
It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of
addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the
procedure laid down for the purpose.
Source: Chapter 10 - Amendment of the Constitution, Laxmikanth
Q. 12) Which among the following takes place during election and impeachment of President
of India?
1) The elected members of the legislative assemblies and councils of the states and UTs of
Delhi and Puducherry participate in election but do not participate in impeachment
2) The nominated members of either House of Parliament do not participate in election
but participate in impeachment
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above
He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in
session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can
also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the
Houses and not by one House alone. An ordinance made when both the Houses are in
session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel
power of legislation.
However, his power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power, and he can
promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed
by the prime minister. (not Cabinet Ministers)
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Q.14) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Council of Ministers does not meet, as a body, to transact government business. It has no
collective functions.
Cabinet meets, as a body, frequently and usually once in a week to deliberate and take
decisions regarding the transaction of government business. Thus, it has collective
functions.
Cabinet enforces the collective responsibility of the council of ministers to the Lower House
of Parliament.
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament.
Chapter 20 Central Council of Ministers, Laxmikanth
Q. 15) Consider the following statements:
1) If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done
by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and
continue to remain in force
2) Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure
3) During impeachment, the President cannot defend himself by taking service of the
Attorney General or the Solicitor General or the Additional Solicitors General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
Q.15) Solution (d)
Explanation:
If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by
him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and
continue to remain in force
Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure
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During impeachment, the President can defend himself by taking service of the Attorney
General of India or any other lawyer he wishes for
The President exercises this veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without
amendments and again presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give
his assent to the bill. This means that the presidential veto is overridden by a re-passage of
the bill by the same ordinary majority.
When a bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the President
may direct the governor to return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for the reconsideration of
the state legislature. If the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without
amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is not
bound to give his assent to the bill. This means that the state legislature cannot override the
veto power of the President.
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1) The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures
should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them
2) The Constitution is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval
after according the same
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above
Tamil Nadu government decided to remit the life sentences of all the seven convicts in the
Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and release them as they had already served over 24 years
in prison.
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Under Section 435 of the Cr.PC, the State has to consult the Centre before releasing
prisoners prosecuted by the CBI or under a Central law.
In December last year, the Supreme Court had ruled that the State government had no
power to release the Rajiv Gandhi case convicts without the Centres concurrence.
Article 161: Governor of a State has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person
convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power
of the State extends. Please note that President can grant pardon to a person awarded
death sentence. But Governor of State does not enjoy this power.
Source: Chapter 17 - President, Laxmikanth
TN seeks Centre's views on freeing Rajiv case convicts - The Hindu
Q.19) With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
1) The Ministries Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime
Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary
2) Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of
the Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) None of the above
Q.19) Solution (b)
Explanation:
The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the President on the
advice of the Prime Minister under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules,
1961
The business of the Government of India are transacted in the ministries/departments,
secretariats and offices (referred to as "Department") as per the distribution of subjects
specified in these Rules.
Each of the Ministry (ies) will be assigned to a Minister by the President on the advice of the
Prime Minister. Each department will be generally under the charge of a Secretary to assist
the Minister on policy matters and general administration.
The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that
is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a
majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
st
There is no provision of joint sitting, for the purpose of deliberation and passage of
constitutional amendment bill (so statement 2 is also wrong)
Q.21) For which of the following cases, constitutional amendment has been done?
1.
2.
3.
4.
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.21) Solution (d)
st
Q.22) Oath or affirmation which says Preserve, Protect and Defend Constitution of India is
taken by?
1. Governor
2. Prime Minister
3. President
4. Vice- President
5. Chief Minister
Select the correct code
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Every President and every person acting as President or discharging the functions of the
President shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief
Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court available, an
oath or affirmation in the following form, that is to say - "I, A.B., do swear in the name of God /
solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the function
of the President) of India and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the
people of India."
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.24) The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is
governed by the provisions of:
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 48th Amendment Act
c) 54th Amendment Act
d) 44th Amendment Act
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1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 only
None of the above
1 only
2 only
Both
None
National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (NGT) is an Act of the Parliament of India which
enables creation of a special tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases
pertaining to environmental issues. It was enacted under India's constitutional
provision of Article 21, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy
environment.
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Q.3) Pradhan Mantri Krushi Sinchai Yojana, PMKSY aims to bring rationality and
investment in irrigation and bring water in every field. Consider the following
1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP)
2. Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP)
3. On Farm Water Management (OFWM)
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchana yojana is formulated by amalgamating which of the above
schemes
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
Click here
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) has been formulated amalgamating
ongoing schemes viz. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) of Ministry of
Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation; Integrated Watershed
Management Programme (IWMP) of Department of Land Resources; and On Farm
Water Management (OFWM) component of National Mission on Sustainable
Agriculture (NMSA) of Department of Agriculture and Cooperation.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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Tamil Nadu
Assam
Kerala
Karnataka
1, 2 and 4 only
4 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
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South Asia: Eastern Himalaya, Nepal; Indo-Burma, India and Myanmar; Western
Ghats, India; Sri Lanka
South East Asia and Asia-Pacific: East Melanesian Islands; New Caledonia; New
Zealand; Philippines; Polynesia-Micronesia; Southwest Australia; Sundaland;
Wallacea;
East Asia: Japan; Mountains of Southwest China
West Asia: Caucasus; Irano-Anatolian
Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to defects of eye and there correction
1. Myopia is a condition of long sightedness
2. People with myopia use convex lens
Select the correct option from code given below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
People affected by Myopia does not able to see far off objects
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In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not
at the retina itself. This defect may arise due to
(i) Excessive curvature of the eye lens, or (ii) elongation of the eyeball. This defect
can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power.
th
Series connection
Parallel connection
Combination of series and parallel
Series connection with each room and parallel connection elsewhere.
Parallel connection because electricity can be supplied equally to all the instruments
in a house and also when one circuit is broken electric current still flows in other
circuits.
Q.9) Global energy architecture performance index report (GEAPI) is released by which of
the following international institutions.
a)
b)
c)
d)
It explored the energy architecture of 126 countries based on their ability to provide
energy access across three dimensions of the "energy triangle" affordability,
environmental sustainability, security and access.
India has been ranked at 90 out of 126 countries.
Click here to know more about the report.
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1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.11) The final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India within the House
is
a) Attorney General
b) President
c) Speaker
d) Supreme Court
Q.11) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Speaker is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the
Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary
precedents, within the House.
Q.12) Consider the following statements in regard to representation of UTs in the second
chamber:
1) The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of
choosing the representatives of the UTs to the second chamber
2) The Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Indirect Election to the Second
Chamber) Act, 1965, by which the representatives of the UTs are chosen
3) The representatives of each UT in the second chamber are indirectly elected by
members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose
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2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing
the representatives of the UTs in the Lok Sabha (not second chamber i.e., Rajya Sabha).
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the
House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the representatives of the UTs are chosen.
The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by
members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This election is
also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote.
Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have representation
in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any
representative in the Rajya Sabha.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a
panel of vice-chairpersons.
Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the
Deputy Chairman.
It must be emphasized here that a member of the panel of vice-chairpersons cannot
preside over the House, when the office of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman is
vacant.
During such time, the Chairmans duties are to be performed by such member of the
House as the president may appoint for the purpose. The elections are held, as soon as
possible, to fill the vacant posts.
Q.14) Which among the given statements is/are true in regard to the Speaker of Lok
Sabha?
1) He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole
and its committees
2) President enables the House to elect the new Speaker
3) Parliamentary Affairs Committee, which looks after the progress of government
business in the Parliament, is chaired by the Speaker
Select the appropriate code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
All of the above
Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole
and its committees.
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The main duty of Speaker Pro Tem is to administer oath to the new members. He also
enables the House to elect the new Speaker.
Parliamentary Affairs Committee, which looks after the progress of government business
in the Parliament, is chaired by the Home Minister (not Speaker).
Q.15) From the following devices of Parliamentary Proceedings, select only the Indian
innovated Parliamentary procedures:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Zero hour
Short notice question
Calling attention motion
No-day- yet-named motion
1 and 3
2 and 3
1, 2 and 4
2, 3 and 4
Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During
this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The
questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice.
A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is
answered orally.
Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Thus it is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters
without any prior notice.
The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for
the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap
between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian
innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since
1962.
Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the
attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an
authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian
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Money Bill and Financial Bill (I) can be introduced only on the recommendation of the
President, but recommendation of the President is not necessary for the introduction of
Financial bill (II)
Financial Bills (both I and II) are governed by the same legislative procedure which is
applicable to an ordinary bill
The only special feature of Financial Bill (II) is that it cannot be passed by either House of
Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of
the bill (Financial Bill (I) has no such special feature)
Q.17) Which among the following statements is/are not true in regard to Speaker and
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha?
1) The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India under the
provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935
2) President administers the oath of the Speaker and Speaker administers the oath of
Deputy Speaker and remaining members of the LS
3) Speaker acts as strictly a non-party man in India, he resigns from the membership of
his party on his election to the exalted office
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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the
provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (MontagueChelmsford Reforms). At
that time, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were called the President and Deputy
President respectively and the same nomenclature continued till 1947.
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and
subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.
In Britain, the Speaker is strictly a non-party man. There is a convention that the Speaker
has to resign from his party and remain politically neutral. This healthy convention is not
fully established in India where the Speaker does not resign from the membership of his
party on his election to the exalted office.
Q.18) Which among the following is/are correct in regard to Motions associated with
Parliamentary functions?
1) No-Confidence Motion and Censure motion can be moved against the entire council
of ministers
2) Calling Attention Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the
House to a definite matter of urgent public importance
3) All resolutions come in the category of substantive motion
Select the appropriate code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above
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Q.19) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List I
List II
(Parliamentary Committees)
(Consists of)
A. Public Accounts Committee
1) 22 members (15 from LS and 7 from RS)
B. Estimates Committee
2) 30 members (All from LS only)
C. Standing committee
3) 31 members (21 from LS and 10 from RS)
D. Committee on Empowerment
4) 30 members (20 from LS and 10 from RS)
of Women
a)
b)
c)
d)
A-B-C-D
1-2-4-3
2-1-4-3
2-1-3-4
1-2-3-4
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the
two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. They are necessary in
order to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions.
Without these privileges, the Houses (not the Parliament as it includes President of India
and both the houses) can neither maintain their authority, dignity and honor nor can
protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary
responsibilities.
The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who
are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of
its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
It must be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president
who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
Note: As Parliament consists of President, both the statements are incorrect.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
All of the above
Only 3rd statement is wrong, because atmosphere acts as Green house by allowing shortwave radiation (from Sun) and trapping long-wave terrestrial radiation (from Earths
surface)
Q.2) Arrange the following rays according to their wavelengths (from short-wavelength to
long)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
X-rays
-rays
UV-rays
Visible rays
Infrared rays
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
d) 2-1-3-4-5
Q.2) Solution (d)
The types of electromagnetic radiation are listed below in fig.
(See: http://www.darvill.clara.net/emag/images/scale.jpg)
Q.3) Consider the following statements in regard to Westerlies:
1) Westerlies blow from the Sub-tropical high Pressure Belt to the Sub-polar low Pressure
Belt in the temperature latitudes between 30 N and 60 S latitudes
2) They are more constant and stronger in the Southern Hemisphere because there are no
large landmasses to interrupt them
3) It got the name Westerlies because they blow out of the west
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 only
None
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Westerlies blow from the Sub-tropical high Pressure Belt to the Sub-polar low Pressure Belt
in the temperature latitudes between 30 and 60, on either side of the equator
They are more constant and stronger in the Southern Hemisphere because there are no
large landmasses to interrupt them
In places they become so strong, these winds are known as Roaring Forties or the Brave
West winds and the Furious Fifties
The belts of the Westerlies move north and south following the Suns movement. These are
known as Westerlies because they blow out of the west.
Gypsum
Quartz
Lead
Mica
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Q.5) Which among the following statements is/are true in regard to El-Nino?
1) El Nino is a narrow warm current which occasionally appears off the coast of Peru in
December
2) El Nino has the potential of increasing the surface water temperatures of the sea by
10C
3) El Nino refers to a cyclical warming of the Central and Eastern Equatorial Pacific that
frequently corresponds to a drought in India
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Q.6) Arrange the following Iron ores based upon their quality or pure iron content:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Limonite
Siderite
Magnetite
Haematite
1-2-3-4
3-4-1-2
3-4-2-1
4-3-2-1
Magnetite: This is the best quality of iron ore and contains 72 per cent pure iron. It
possesses magnetic property and hence is called magnetite. It is found in Andhra Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Goa, Karnataka etc
Haematite: It contains 60 per cent to 70 per cent pure iron and is found in Andhra Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Goa etc
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
Limonite: It contains 40 per cent to 60 per cent pure iron. It is of yellow or light brown
colour
Siderite: It contains many impurities and has just 40-50 per cent pure iron. However, due to
presence of lime, it is self fluxing
2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
Depressions are low pressure systems that form in the mid-latitude region (30-60 N/S)
when warm air meets cold air. When this occurs the warm air is forced above the colder air.
It then cools and clouds form which produce rain.
Winds in depressions move in an anti-clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and
clockwise in the southern hemisphere (hence 3rd statement is wrong)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
1, 2 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
Q.10) Which among the following statements is/are not true with regard to monsoons?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
1) Southwest monsoon brings rain during summer whereas Northeast monsoon brings rain
during winter
2) Direction of Northeast monsoon is land to sea so it doesnt contains moisture and brings
dryness and coldness after blowing through Bay of Bengal and brings rainfall only in
Tamil Nadu
3) During Southwest monsoon, Indian Subcontinent has high pressure and the direction of
air movement is from Australia to Indian subcontinent
Choose the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
During Southwest monsoon, Indian Subcontinent has low pressure and the direction of air
movement is from Australia(high) to Indian subcontinent(low)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
Limestone
Natural Gas
Gypsum
Uranium
Iron ore
Thorium
1, 2, 3 and 5
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 3 and 5
1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q.12) The number of mines which reported mineral production in India has decreased over
the period of time. Consider the following
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Madhya Pradesh
Gujrat
Jharkhand
Tamil Nadu
Andra Pradesh
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1-2-3-4-5
2-1-3-5-4
4-3-1-2-5
1-3-2-4-5
Q.13) The cases of HIV infected blood transfusion have seen a rise. Consider the following
1. It is mandatory to screen the blood donated for traces of HIV, Hepatitis C, malaria and
syphilis before transfusion
2. NACO is an autonomous body under Department of Health and Family Welfare,
Government of India which is primarily responsible for controlling spread of HIV
infection
3. India has the highest number of population living with HIV in the world as per UN report
Choose the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 2
2 and 3
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
India has the third largest number of people living with HIV in world (2.1 million). Top two are
South Africa and Nigeria. [UNAIDS Gap report]. Around 36% of Indian adults with the virus have
access to antiretroviral treatment, the report said. An annual report by Indias National AIDS
Control Organization noted that the transgender population was emerging as a risk group with
high vulnerability and high levels of HIV.
Q.14) Operation Hill Vijay is being undertaken to declare Parasnath jungles Naxal-free.
Consider the following regarding famous Parasnath Hill
1. Parasnath hill (Shikharji) is located towards the eastern end of the Chota Nagpur Plataea
2. It is a famous Jain pilgrimage site
3. Bhagwan Parshwanath was the last Tirthankara
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
Q.16) Salma Dam is in news. Salma Dam is in which of the following countries
a)
b)
c)
d)
Afghanistan
Iran
Sri Lanka
Bhutan
Rhizobium
Clostridium
Azotobacter
Pseduomonas
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
Which of the above is/are free living nitrogen bacteria present in the soil?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Which of the above statements does not belong to the category of Archipelago?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1,2 and 4 only
All
Bhangar
Terai
Bhabar
Khadar
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
As one travels from the Gangetic plain towards Shiwaliks in the north, the correct sequence of
regions he/she will cross is?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1234
1243
4321
4123
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1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1,2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
the side of Earth closest to the Moon pull material (mostly water) toward the Moon. Tidal
forces on the other side of Earth actually pull material away from the Moon. The resulting
deformation of Earth looks the same when the moon is at opposite sides of its orbit, like full
moon and new moon or first quarter and third quarter. That's why tides around the equator are
higher during both a new moon and a full moon.
The Sun also affects the Earth's tides. However, tidal forces due to the Sun are about half as
strong as those due to the Moon. This seems strange, because the Sun's gravity at Earth is
much stronger than the Moon's. But remember that tides concern the difference between
gravity's pull at opposite sides of the Earth. The radius of the Earth is a very small fraction of the
distance between the Sun and the Earth, about 0.005%. As a result, the difference between the
Sun's gravitational pull on either end of the Earth is small. In contrast, the radius of the Earth is
about 1.7% of the distance between the Earth and the Moon. So even though the Moon's
gravity isn't as strong as the Sun's, lunar tidal forces are stronger than solar tidal forces, so lunar
tides are stronger than solar tides.
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to National Pension Scheme
1. National pension scheme was launched in the year 2015
2. NRIs may subscribe to the NPS as an investment option under FEMA 1999
3. NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country including the unorganized sector
workers on voluntary basis.
Select the correct option with respect to NPS
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
The National Pension System (NPS) was launched on 1 January, 2004 with the objective
of providing retirement income to all the citizens.
RBI took the decision in consultation with the Union Government to enable National
Pension System (NPS) as an investment option for NRIs under Foreign Exchange
Management Act (FEMA), 1999.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 15]
NRIs may subscribe to the NPS governed and administered by the Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
NPS aims to institute pension reforms and to inculcate the habit of saving for retirement
amongst the citizens.
Initially, NPS was introduced for the new government recruits (except armed forces).
With effect from 1 May, 2009, NPS has been provided for all citizens of the country
including the unorganized sector workers on voluntary basis.
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to Olive Ridely turtles
1. They are also known as Pacific Ridely sea turtles.
2. Olive Ridley sea turtle is placed under Schedule - I of Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972 (amended 1991).
3. It is endangered as per IUCN red list
Select the correct option
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
Also known as the Pacific Ridley Sea Turtle, it is a medium-sized species of sea turtle
found in warm and tropical waters, primarily in the Pacific and Indian Oceans.
Gahirmatha Beach in Kendrapara district of Odisha, a part of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife
Sanctuary
Bhitarkanika Mangroves were designated a Ramsar Wetland of International
Importance in 2002
Olive Ridley sea turtle has found place in Schedule - I of Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972 (amended 1991).
All the species of sea turtles in the coastal water of Orissa are listed as "vulnerable" as
per IUCN Red Data Book.
The Sea Turtles are protected under the 'Migratory Species Convention' and CITES
(Convention of International Trade on Wildlife Flora and Fauna). India is a signatory
nation to all these conventions
1 ,2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All the above
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Q.1) A great variety of soils is found over the globe. Which among the following are causes for
this variation?
1) Nature of rocks
2) Physical characteristics of land
3) Climate
4) Vegetation cover
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Q.1) Solution (d)
Explanation:
Self-explanatory, all the given factors are responsible for the variations of soils
Source: Chapter 7 Soils, Principles of Geography (Old NCERT)
Q.2) Which among the following statements is/are true in regard to soils?
1) Soil is not only a mixture of solid and liquid substances but also gaseous substances
2) Soil is a non-renewable resource
3) The rate of removal of fine particles from the surface (due to running water and wind) is
the same as the rate of addition of particles to the soil layer.
4) Soils with high lime content are called acid and those with low lime content are called
alkaline
Choose the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
Explanation:
Only 4th Statement is wrong - Soils with low lime content are called acid and those with high
lime content are called alkaline
Source: Chapter 7 Soils, Principles of Geography (Old NCERT)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
In cold climate (temperate region), bacterial activity is limited and the soils are rich in
humus.
Source: Chapter 6 Soils, India Physical Environment and Chapter 7 Soils, Principles of
Geography (Old NCERT)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
2) They are rich in humus, rich in calcium, unleached and have a crumby or nut-like
structure
3) These are fertile soils requiring little fertilizing even when used year after year.
4) The Steppes of Ukraine, the central part of USA, central Africa, South America and
Australia have these type of soils
Select the appropriate soil which the statements are referring to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Chernozems
Prairie soils
Grey brown Podsolic soil
Red and Yellow Pedalfers
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Q.7) Consider the following statements with regard to Usar and Reh:
1) Usar is a term collectively applied to all kinds of saline and alkaline soils in the plains of
north India, particularly in Uttar Pradesh
2) Reh is a white, grayish or ash-coloured salt that are found in low-lying plain areas in dry
periods
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
2 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Q.9) Which among the following statements is/are correct with regard to Zonal, Intrazonal
and Azonal Soils?
1) Soil occurring over wide areas on well-drained land which have been there long enough
for the climate and organisms to have expressed their full influence is called Zonal Soils
2) Soils affected by some local conditions not involving climate or vegetation, such as poor
drainage or those where parent material exerts a strong influence is Intrazonal soils
3) Immature soils without well developed soil characteristics are called Azonal Soils
Choose the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
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3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Q.11) There is a lot of fuss created about UK exiting the EU (European Union). Consider the
following statements with respect to European Union
1. EU is economic political union comprising of 28 countries.
2. The headquarters of EU is in Brussels, Belgium
3. Among the EU cities Paris is the largest city
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All
Q.12) Consider the following statement with respect to TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority
of India)
1. TRAI is an apex body to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs
for telecom services which were earlier vested in the State government
2. Recently TRAI was accorded the status of Non banking financial company
1 only
2 only
Both
None
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was, thus, established with effect from
20th February 1997 by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of
India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for
telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.
It is not a non banking financial company
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Q.13) Virtual reality is making headlines nowadays. Consider the following statement with
respect to the term Virtual reality
1. Virtual reality is the creation of a virtual environment presented to our senses in such a
way that we experience it as if we were really there.
2. Medicine is one of the biggest beneficiaries with the development of virtual reality.
3. It is also called floating multimedia
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
Only 1
All
Q.14) The kind of unemployment when the economy experiences many ups and downs is
known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
Frictional unemployment
Structural unemployment
Cyclical unemployment
Seasonal unemployment
Click here
Cyclical Unemployment
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Over time, the economy experiences many ups and downs. That's what we call cyclical
unemployment because it goes in cycles. Cyclical unemployment occurs because of
these cycles. When the economy enters a recession, many of the jobs lost are
considered cyclical unemployment.
For example, during the Great Depression, the unemployment rate surged as high as
25%. That means one out of four people were willing and able to work, but could not
find work! Most of this unemployment was considered cyclical unemployment.
Eventually, unemployment came down again. As you can see, at least part of
unemployment can be explained by looking at the cycles, or the ups and downs of the
economy.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.16) Consider the following statements with respect to Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions
1. Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a term used under the United
Nation Environment Programme (UNEP) for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions
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2. As part of INDC India aims to reduce the Emissions Intensity of its GDP by 33 to 35 Per
Cent by 2030 from 2005 Level
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a term used under the United
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) for reductions
in greenhouse gas emissions
Click here
Q.17) Consider the following statements with respect to Renewable energy and India
1. India has the target to produce 1,00,000 MW of solar power by 2022.
2. India allows 49 % FDI in renewable energy sector to promote domestic industries as part
of Make in India campaign
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
Prithvi
Agni
BrahMos
Akash
1234
2134
2143
1243
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
Insider trading is the buying or selling of a security by someone who has access to material, non
public information about the security.
Wheat
Rice
Cotton
Sun flower
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
2. Subjected to intense leaching and thus not fit for agriculture unless manures and
fertilizers are used.
3. It is the end product of weathering process and thus it is indefinitely durable.
Which is the soil that is spoken about in the above statements?
a) Forest soil
b) Mountain Soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Red soil
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 16]
Q.24) Black soils are known for its fertility with little or no evidence of exhaustion. This is
because
1. Black soils with equal proportion of clay, gravel and coarse sand has high moisture
retention capacity
2. Cracks developed during dry season allow oxygenation of the soils.
3. Black soil has low level of kankar thus supports wide variety of crops.
Choose the incorrect reason from the codes below
a) 1 Only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All the above
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http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-judge-orders-20-billion-settlement-for-bpoil-spill/article8436793.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/news/oil-spill-throws-traffic-off-gear-oneway/article8263754.ece
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
1 Dimension
2 Dimension
1 and 2 Dimensions
2 and 3 Dimensions
Change in state
Change in temperature
Change in colour
Evolution of a gas
1, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
1, 2 and 5
2, 3, 5 and 6
1, 2, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
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For example the burning of wood released a large amount of energy with carbon dioxide
and water vapour.
That energy uses for heating home, drive automobile, operate industrial processes and
much other purpose.
Corrosion: You must have seen the rusting of your car and the burning of magnesium metal
in oxygen to form magnesium oxide in your daily life are also an oxidation reaction.
Similarly rusted iron sheets or green surface of copper utensils and tableware or tarnish
surface of aluminium surfaces are also due to oxidation of metal surface.
Most of metal surfaces oxidised due to atmospheric oxygen and forms metal oxides on the
surface of metal.
For example; corrosion of iron forms iron oxide which is also called as rust.
4Fe +3O2 ==> 2Fe2O3
Rancidity: Oxidation reactions are also responsible for the spoiling of food.
Oxidation-reduction reactions also fuel the most advanced form of transportation known
today, the space shuttle. The actual orbiter vehicle is relatively small compared to its
external power apparatus, which consists of two solid rocket boosters on either side, along
with an external fuel tank.
Inside the solid rocket boosters are ammonium perchlorate (NH4ClO4) and powdered
aluminium, which undergo an oxidation-reduction reaction that gives the shuttle enormous
amounts of extra thrust. As for the larger single external fuel tank, this contains the gases
that power the rocket: hydrogen and oxygen.
Because these two are extremely explosive, they must be kept in separate compartments.
When they react, they form water, of course, but in doing so, they also release vast
quantities of energy. The chemical equation for this is: 2H 2 + O 2 2H 2 O + energy.
On January 28, 1986, something went terribly wrong with this arrangement on the space
shuttle Challenger. Cold weather had fatigued the O-rings that sealed the hydrogen and
oxygen compartments, and the gases fed straight into the flames behind the shuttle itself.
This produced a powerful and uncontrolled oxidation-reduction reaction, an explosion that
took the lives of all seven astronauts aboard the shuttle.
Enzymes in the human body regulate oxidation-reduction reactions. These complex
proteins, of which several hundred are known, act as catalysts, speeding up chemical
processes in the body. Oxidation-reduction reactions also take place in the metabolism of
food for energy, with substances in the food broken down into components the body can
use.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Photosynthesis involves the reduction of carbon dioxide into sugars and the oxidation of
water into molecular oxygen.
1, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
2 and 4 Only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Sodium
Gold
Magnesium
Copper
Calcium
Platinum
1, 2 and 6
2, 3 and 5
2, 4 and 6
1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Q.7). Recently NASAs new horizon had sent close-up images of Pluto. Consider following
statements about New Horizons
1. New Horizons is an interplanetary space probe that was launched as a part of NASA's
New Frontiers program
2. A space probe is a robotic spacecraft that leaves Earth orbit and explores space.
3. Space environment around Pluto and its moons has a lot of dust.
Select the correct statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.9) Mentha also known as mint is a very beneficial crop for farmers in India. Consider the
statements regarding crop Mentha
1. India is a net importer of mentha
2. It is included in Minimum Support Price (MSP)
3. Menthol is obtained from plant mentha
Select the correct statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
Only 3
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 2 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Q.12) Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement/s from the
codes given below:
1. The addition of detergent or soap decreases the viscosity of water and thus
increases the cleaning ability
2. If a clean and dry needle is kept slowly on the surface of water, it floats due to
surface tension of water
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Both the given statements are examples of surface tension property of water
If a clean and dry needle is kept slowly on the surface of water, it floats due to surface
tension of water
The addition of detergent or soap decreases the surface tension of water and thus
increases the cleaning ability
Surface Tension is the property of a liquid by virtue of which it has the tendency to have
the area of its free surface minimum as if it were under tension like a stretched elastic
membrane
A liquid drop attains spherical shape due to surface tension as for given volume, sphere
has minimum surface area
3 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Q.14) Which among the following waves are examples of Electromagnetic waves?
1) X-rays
2) -rays
3) -rays
4) -rays
5) Ultrasonic wave
Choose the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 5 only
1, 2 and 5 only
Electromagnetic waves or non-mechanical waves are those waves which do not require
medium for their propagation i.e. which can propagate even through the vacuum are
called non-mechanical wave.
In other words, electromagnetic waves are waves which can travel through the vacuum
of outer space. Mechanical waves, unlike electromagnetic waves, require the presence
of a material medium in order to transport their energy from one location to another.
Following waves are not electro-magnetic 1) Cathode rays 2) -rays 3) -rays 4) Sound
wave 5) Ultrasonic wave 6) Canal rays
Some important Electromagnetic waves 1) -rays 2) X-rays 3) UV rays 4) Visible
radiation 5) Infrared rays 6) Radio waves
Q.15) Consider the following statements in regard to Indias 3-stage Nuclear Power
Programme:
1) The first stage Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) use natural uranium as
fuel and heavy water as moderator and coolant
2) The second stage Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) use plutonium (which is produced by
irradiation of uranium-238) and liquid sodium as coolant
3) The third stage is based on the thorium-uranium-233 cycle. Uranium-233 is obtained
by irradiation of thorium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.15) Solution (d)
Q.16) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
LIST I
LIST II
A. Anupam-Ameya
1. BARC
B. PARAM Yuva
2. ISRO
C. SAGA
3. C-DAC
D. Vikram-100
4. Physical Research Laboratory
a)
b)
c)
d)
A-B-C-D
1-2-3-4
1-3-2-4
4-2-3-1
4-3-2-1
VIKRAM-100 is the 13th fastest supercomputer in India and is more powerful than 200
desktop computers
VIKRAM -100 was inaugurated on 26 June 2015, by Prof. U. R. Rao at the Physical
Research Laboratory
Vikram-100 is a High Performance Computing (HPC) Cluster (named after eminent
scientist Dr Vikram Sarabhai)
Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), is an organisation that was founded by him at
Ahmedabad in 1947
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
DNA is found mainly in nucleus, whereas RNA is found in both nucleus and cytoplasm
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
Apart from blood groups O, A, B and AB, there is a special type of blood group (hh)
(hh)- a rare special blood group first discovered in Bombay in 1952, and hence
christened as Bombay Blood.
People who carry this rare blood type, about 1 in 10, 000 Indians, can accept blood only
from another Bombay Blood type individual, and not from anyone who is O, A, B or AB
type.
Q.20) Consider the following statements with regard to Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
(AERB)
1) AERB is engaged in the development of nuclear power technology, applications of
radiation technologies in the fields of agriculture, medicine, industry, and basic
research.
2) The safety standards formulated by AERB are at par with those recommended by the
international organisations such as the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
and the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP).
Choose the appropriate code from below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both 1 and 2 are correct
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Ramayana
Mahabharata
Bhagavathgeetha
Atarvanaveda
Mathematics
Medicine
Surgery
Poetry
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
Q.25) Pradhan Mantri Fasal bhima yojana aims to unburden the farmers who are exposed
to the vulnerabilities of natural calamities. Consider the following statements
1. The scheme aims to provide 2% annual insurance premium for Rabi crops
2. For horticulture crops the rate of premium is 10 %
Select the correct answer
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
1 and 2 only
Q.27) Operation Red lotus is a group of Maratha Mughal alliance led by which of the
following freedom fighter
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
Operation Red Lotus, 1857 A Maratha-Mughal alliance against the British led by Tatya
Tope
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
Q.29) Amir Khusro, a scholar poet and musicologist of rare talents was present in the
court of which medieval Indian ruler
a)
b)
c)
d)
Allauddin khilji
Akbar
Iltimush
Balban
Amir Khusro, a scholar poet and musicologist of rare talent in the court of Allauddin Khilji
(13th Century, A.D.) is credited with the introduction of entirely new forms and styles in
Hindustani music which are still in practice today.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 17]
1 only
2 only
Both
None
CERN is the worlds largest body of experts in nuclear and particle physics, where
scientists and engineers are probing the fundamental structure of universe by using
the most sophisticated scientific instruments and advanced systems. CERN was
established in 1954 and is based in Geneva.
Significantly, CERN is the birthplace of www (World Wide Web) which is regularly
used to browse the internet. Similarly, the touch screen widely used in smart phones
was also first developed by CERN.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Only 2
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3
Q.2) Which among the following can effectively be examples of Secondary Succession?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4
All
The renewal of a forest after a fire: The fire itself destroys a majority of different
types of trees and plant life. Because seeds and roots and other plant and tree parts
remain in and on the soil, gradually the plants and trees begin to grow again and
eventually return to the state of the original ecosystem.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
1 and 2
Only 2
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the
same.
The Tribunal has Original Jurisdiction on matters of substantial question relating to
environment (i.e. a community at large is affected, damage to public health at broader
level) & damage to environment due to specific activity (such as pollution).
Also Tribunal is competent to hear cases for several acts such as Forest (Conservation) Act,
Biological Diversity Act, Environment (Protection) Act, Water & Air (Prevention & control of
Pollution) Acts etc. and also have appellate jurisdiction related to above acts after
establishment of Tribunal within a period of 30 days of award or order received by
aggrieved party.
Q.4) Consider the following statements about the Green India Mission (GIM). Its mission
is/are
1. To increase forest/tree cover to the extent of 5 million hectares
2. To enhance ecosystem services like timber and non-timber produce
3. To enhance provisioning services like carbon sequestration, hydrological services and
biodiversity
Identify the incorrect statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 1
1 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
1 and 2
Only 3
Only 1
Only 2
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Q.7) Consider the following about South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network
1. India is a formal member of SAWEN
2. SAWEN, South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network is an initiative to control the
transboundary Wildlife Crime
Select the correct statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
Q.8) Consider the following regarding Bharat Stage (BS) Emission Norms in India
1. Currently, India is following BS IV Norms
2. India has planned to implement BS V norms from 2019
3. BS VI, particulate matter emission for diesel cars and nitrogen oxide levels are
expected to be substantially higher than in BS IV.
Select the incorrect code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
Only 2
2 and 3
Only 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Myanmar
Vietnam
China
Philippines
Malaysia
1,2,3 &4
1,2,3 and 5 only
1,2 and 3 only
2&4 only
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
1, 2 & 3
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
1 & 3 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 2
1, 2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Q.13) Consider the following statements with respect to Spaceward bound programme
1. Spaceward bound programme is a project by NASA
2. The objective is to train the next generation of space explorers.
3. India has joined hands with NASA in this experiment to conduct microbiological
expeditions in places like Ladakh that has extreme climatic conditions
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
1 & 3 only
All
World bank
Transparency international
United Nations development programme
Amnesty international
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Q.15) Nai Manzil is a government of India scheme related to development of which of the
following
a)
b)
c)
d)
Skill development
Recapitalisation of banks
Health
Tourism
Under the scheme girls from minority communities will be imparted three month
skill development training in seven identified sectors relevant to the region
Q.17) The Red Data List published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Information on plants, fungi and animals
2. Information on plants and animals only
3. It divides species into Six categories
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
Only 3
Only 1
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Q.18) Sacred groves are, tracts of forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife
within were venerated and given total protection. Sacred groves are found in following
places
1.
2.
3.
4.
Melghat Maharashtra
Aravalli Rajasthan
Western ghats - Karnataka and Maharashtra
Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar Madhya Pradesh
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
None of the above
All of the above
Algae
Fungi
Bacteria
Lichens
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes
Gymnosperms
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
8. Angiosperms
Select the correct answers
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 only
6, 7 and 8 only
5, 6, and 8
All of the above are found in India
Q.20) What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilisation, (ii) Cryo preservation and
(iii) tissue culture?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
Only 1 and 2
Only 1, 2 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
None of the above
Q.24) The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth's ecosystems.
It measures1. How much of the biological capacity of the planet is demanded by a given human
activity or population
2. Ecological Footprints is calculated for overall activity of a nation or population and
activities such as industrialization etc.
3. The disadvantage of Ecological Footprint is that it cannot be calculated for individual
people or area.
Select the incorrect statement/s
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
Only 2
1 and 3
Only 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
products from the human economy. The Ecological Footprint measures the sum of these
areas, wherever they physically occur on the planet. The Ecological Footprint is used widely
as a management and communication tool by governments, businesses, educational
institutions, and non-governmental organizations.
Ecological Footprint accounts answer a specific research question: how much of the biological
capacity of the planet is demanded by a given human activity or population? To answer this
question, the Ecological Footprint measures the amount of biologically productive land and water
area an individual, a city, a country, a region, or all of humanity uses to produce the resources it
consumes and to absorb the waste it generates with todays technology and resource management
practices. This demand on the biosphere can be compared to biocapacity, a measure of the
amount of biologically productive land and water available for human use. Biologically
productive land includes areas such as cropland, forest, and fishing grounds, and excludes
deserts, glaciers, and the open ocean
Ecological Footprints can be calculated for individual people, groups of people (such as a
nation), and activities (such as manufacturing a product).
The Ecological Footprint of a person is calculated by considering all of the biological
materials consumed, and all of the biological wastes generated, by that person in a given
year. These materials and wastes each demand ecologically productive areas, such as
cropland to grow potatoes, or forest to sequester fossil carbon dioxide emissions. All of
these materials and wastes are then individually translated into an equivalent number of
global hectares.
1 and 3
Only 2
Only 1
2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 18]
First statement is true. Coral bleaching not only happens because of warm temperature but
can also happen due to Cold temperature. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water.
In January 2010, cold water temperatures in the Florida Keys caused a coral bleaching event
that resulted in some coral death. Water temperatures dropped 12.06 degrees
Fahrenheit lower than the typical temperatures observed at this time of year. Researchers
will evaluate if this cold-stress event will make corals more susceptible to disease in the
same way that warmer waters impact corals.
When a coral bleaches, it is not dead. Corals can survive a bleaching event, but they are
under more stress and are subject to mortality.
http://www.theaustralian.com.au/news/nation/great-barrier-reef-scientists-exaggeratedcoral-bleaching/news-story/99810c83f5a420727b12ab255256774b
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Q.1) Congress Session of Calcutta in the year 1906 after Bengal Partition was significant in
many ways. Which of the following statements are correct about this Congress Session?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1,2 and 3
2 and 3
1,3 and 4
All of the above
Q.2) Home Rule league movement of 1916 played an important role in creating political
awareness in masses and putting up a united front against the British rule. Consider the
following statements regarding the Indian Home Rule League:
1. It was designed on the lines of Irish Home Rule league.
2. It was started first by Annie Besant and later by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
3. The aim of the league was to attain independence from the British rule and have self
government.
4. The two leagues cooperated with each other as well as with Congress and Muslim
League.
5. Tilaks movement was concentrated in Maharashtra while Besants movement in rest of
the country.
6. Montagues August declaration to gradually develop self governing institutions in India
led to the end of Home rule Movement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1,2,3,4 and 5
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
b) 1,4,5 and 6
c) 1,3,4,5 and 6
d) 1,2,3,5 and 6
Q.3) On what charges were Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru sentenced to death?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 and 2
2 only
2 and 3
1,2 and 4
Q.4) In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death
for the first time to get his demands fulfilled?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Champaran Satyagraha
Kheda Satyagraha
Ahmadabad mill strike
Non-cooperation movement
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Q.6) Who amongst the following personalities have won Bharat Ratna award despite being a
non-Indian citizen?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mother Teresa
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Nelson Mandela
Granville Austin
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 3 only
Q.6) Solution (b)
Khan Abdul Ghaffar khan was the first non Indian to get a Bharat Ratna in 1987. Nelson
Mandela won the award in 1990.
Q.7) After the August offer of 1940, the radicals and leftists wanted to start a mass civil
disobedience movement. But Mahatma Gandhi insisted on individual Satyagraha. Which of
the following statements are correct about individual satyagraha of 1940?
1. It was not to seek independence but to affirm the right of speech.
2. It was started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave first and then by Jawaharlal Nehru.
3. Since it was not a mass movement, it attracted little enthusiasm and later in December,
Gandhiji suspended it.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
suspended the movement. The campaign started again in January 1941, this time, thousands of
people joined and around 20 thousand people were arrested.
Q.9) The British government adopted the strategy of talking to different political parties by
convening the Round Table Conferences. Which of the following statements are incorrect
about these conferences?
1. Congress boycotted the first round table conference and civil disobedience movement
was going on in India.
2. After Gandhi-Irwin pact the civil disobedience movement was called off and Ghandhiji
attended the second round table conference.
3. Civil disobedience movement was relaunched after second round table conference.
4. Communal award was given in third round table conference.
Select the code from the following:
a) 4 only
b) 3 and 4
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
Q.9) Solution (a)
The Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority representation.
Thus, this award accorded separate electorates for Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian
Christians, Anglo Indians, Depressed Classes, and even Marathas. (Some seats in Bombay were
given to Marathas).
The depressed classes were given seats which had to be filled by election from the special
constituencies in which only they could vote. However, they were eligible to vote in the general
constituencies as well. The labor, Commerce and Industry, Mining and Planting, Landholders
were also given special electorates. Sikhs were 13.2% of the population in Punjab. Here they
were given 32 seats out of the total 175 seats.
Q.10) Which of the following slogans are correctly matched with the leaders who gave them?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Slogan
Do or Die
You give me blood, Ill give you freedom
Dilli Chalo
Swaraj is my birth right
Leader
Mahatma Gandhi
Subhash Chandra Bose
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Q.11) The civil disobedience movement was started by Salt Satyagraha- by breaking the salt
tax law. No one imagined that such a small thing would stir the emotions of the masses in
India. Which of the following statements are correct about the salt satyagraha?
1. The salt march was started by Gandhi ji from his Sabarmati ashram to a coastal village of
Dandi.
2. The march was started with disciplined and trained volunteers of Sabarmati Ashram.
3. The path of the march was kept secret from the authorities so that they do not cause a
hindrance.
4. The Salt Satyagraha in Madras was led by Sarojini Naidu.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 and 4
1,2 and 4
All of the above
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Only 1
1 and 3
2 and 3
All
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
However, the leader of the Muslim League, Mohammad Ali Jinnah regarded it as detrimental to
the interests of the Muslims. Jinnah convened an All India Conference of the Muslims where he
drew up a list of Fourteen Points as Muslim League demand.
Q.15) Consider the following statements and identify the personality associated with it
1. He started the Indian National Union (1926) and the All India Nationalist Muslim Party
(1929)
2. Autobiographies like Tazhiran, Ghubir-i-khatir, Kahani and India wins Freedom
belongs to him
3. He started Al-Hilal, the Urdu Newspaper
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Correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hunza
Shyok
Otteri
Zaskar
Chandratal
Only 2 and 4
1, 2 and 4
Only 1 and 2
1, 2, 3 and 4
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
1, 3 and 4
3 and 4
1 and 4
None
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Palmyra
Cultural Landscape of Maymand
Ephesus
Susa
Rohtang Pass
Sela Pass
Pangsau Pass
Bum La Pass
http://theculturetrip.com/asia/india/articles/pangsau-pass-winter-festival-transcendingboundaries/
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, and 4
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
The two main types of cells in the Islet of Langerhans are called -cells and -cells.
The -cells secretes a hormone called glucagon, while the -cells secretes insulin.
Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a complex disorder called diabetes mellitus which is
associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compounds
known as ketone bodies. Diabetic patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 19]
Interest payment
Grants to States
Defence
Loans to public enterprises
Loans to States
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1,3,4 and 5 only
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.1) Which of the following statements are the correct reasons of Vellore Mutiny?
1.
2.
3.
4.
There was a racial prejudice and Indian sepoys were considered inferior.
Wearing ear rings and caste marks were prohibited.
The sepoys were asked to shave the chin and trim the moustache.
It was a popular belief that all the soldiers would be slowly converted to Christianity.
1 and 4
1,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.2) During 17th and 18th Century, the East India company had a monopoly in the eastern
trade. Bribes were often given to monarchs to have their political backing. Which of the
following statements are correct about the relations between east India company and the
crown of England?
1. In 17th century company gave huge loans to the crown.
2. Charles II granted series of charters, empowering company to build forts, raise army and
make peace and war with the eastern powers.
3. Company was allowed to administer justice to all Englishmen and others living in English
settlements.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.3) Battle of Plassey between The Nawab of Bengal Siraj ud Daulah and English East India
company made company a major contender of political power in India. Consider the
following statements:
1. Siraj ud Daulah was defeated treacherously and there was hardly any fight in Battle of
Plassey.
2. British put Mir Qasim as a puppet nawab in place of Siraj ud Daulah.
3. Mir Qasim was an able administrator who tried to maintain public discipline and tried to
free himself from the influence of the British.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.4) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war was a decisive war between British and Mysore. Tipu sultan
was killed defending the city. Which of the following statements are correct about fourth
Anglo-Mysore war?
1. Mysore was attacked from all four sides by British, Marathas and the Nizam of
Hyderabad.
2. Tipus troops were outnumbered 4:1.
3. British annexed almost all of Mysore. The core area was restored to the eldest son of
Tipu whose ancestors ruled till 1947.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.5) Bahramji Malabari was one of the most prominent Parsi social reformers of India. Which
of the following statements are correct about him?
1. He criticized the prohibition of widow remarriage by Hindus and placed the blame
squarely with that religion's "priestly class" and the "social monopolists" (i.e. the
Brahmin caste) for their "vulgar prejudices.
2. Malabari published a set of Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood, that he
sent to 4,000 leading Englishmen and Hindus.
3. He was instrumental in passing the Age of Consent Act in 1894.
4. Malabari published a book in England An Appeal from the daughters of India.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
He became famous for raising the issue of freedom of Hindu widows to remarry, which was
debated throughout India. His successful campaign from 1884-1891 resulted in passing the Age
of Consent Act in 1894. His stand was based on the principles of justice and humanity. His
invaluable Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood published in 1894 was the
vade mecum of social reformers.
Q.6) The doctrine of lapse was an annexation policy purportedly devised by Lord Dalhousie,
who was the Governor General for the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.
Which of the following statements are correct about the policy of Doctrine of Lapse?
1. This doctrine was based on the idea that in case a ruler of dependent state died
childless, the right of ruling over the State reverted or lapsed to the sovereign.
2. The state was not to pass to an adopted heir unless the adoption was approved by the
British authorities.
3. Satara was the first state to be annexed under this policy.
4. Awadh was the last state to be annexed under Doctrine of lapse which triggered the
great revolt of 1857.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.7) Which of the following Acts ended the monopoly of trade of East India company in
India?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Permanent Settlement method of land
revenue:
1. It was introduced in Bengal and Bihar by Warren Hastings.
2. The zamindars were made owners of the land and ownership was made hereditary and
transferrable.
3. Cultivators were reduced to low status of mere tenants.
4. Zamindars were to give 50% of the rental they derived to the state, keeping 50% to
themselves.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Q.9) The revolt of 1857 came as a bitter shock to the British empire. Since it started as an
army revolt, key changes were made in the Army to avoid such a situation again. Which of
the following statements are correct regarding the changes made in the Indian Army?
1. The proportion of Europeans to Indians in the army was increased.
2. European troops were kept in key geographical and military positions.
3. Policy of divide and rule was implemented by making battalions on the basis of caste
and religion.
4. The older policy of excluding Indians from officer corps was abandoned and loyal Indians
were given higher posts.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
1,2 and 3
1,3 and 4
2,3 and 4
1 and 2
Q.11) Which of the following political entities supported the Quit India Movement?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Muslim League
Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh
Hindu Mahasabha
Communist Party of India
Princely States
1 and 4
2,3 and 5
2 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Hindu nationalist parties like the Hindu Mahasabha openly opposed the call for the Quit India
Movement and boycotted it officially. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, the president of the Hindu
Mahasabha at that time, even went to the extent of writing a letter titled "Stick to your Posts",
in which he instructed Hindu Sabhaites who happened to be "members of municipalities, local
bodies, legislatures or those serving in the army...to stick to their posts" across the country, and
not to join the Quit India Movement at any cost.
the RSS, under M.S. Golwalkar refused to join in the Quit India Movement as well. However,
such a non-committal attitude during the Indian freedom movement also led to the Sangh
being viewed with distrust and anger, both by the general Indian public, as well as certain
members of the organization itself.
The Communist Party of India was banned at that time by the British government. In order to
get the ban lifted, as well as to assist the Soviet Union in its war against Nazi Germany, it
supported the British war effort, despite support for Quit India by many industrial workers. In
response the British lifted the ban on the party.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
1.
2.
3.
4.
Author
Literature
Premchand
New lamps for Old
Bhagat Singh
Shyama Prasad Mukherji
Bharat Durdasha
Aurobindo Ghosh
Why I am an Atheist
Young India
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
Baba Ramchandra was a sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer His
battlefield was Awadh where he led the peasants against the exploitation of zamindars and
British.
He moved around the region with a copy of the Ramayana under his arm, blending readings
from this popular Hindu epic with denunciations of both the British Raj and the landlords, and
appealed to the peasants to act together against their exploiters. Although he began by seeking
to harmonise tenant-landlord relations, Ram Chandra soon considered this to be a wasted
effort and began to mobilise the peasants. He encouraged peasants to pay only the required
rent and refrain from customary donations. In 1919 he led the first peasant protest against the
landlords and by 1920 had organised all the farmers associations in Oudh, forming the Oudh
Kisan Sabha (Oudh Farmers Association). He was arrested on a number of occasions for
organising public protests.
Q.15) The second half of the 19th century saw a remarkable growth in the vernacular press.
They played a critical role in creating socio-political awareness in the masses. They also
became a vehicle in exposing the exploitative policies of the British government. Alarmed, by
its growth, the government passed a Vernacular Press Act. Which of the following statements
are correct about this act?
1. It was passed by Lord Ripon in 1878.
2. The magistrates of the districts were empowered, to call upon a printer and publisher of
any kind to enter into a Bond, undertaking not to publish anything which might rouse
feelings of disaffection against the government.
3. The magistrate was authorized to deposit a security, which could be confiscated if the
printer violated the Bond.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
1 &2 only
2&3 only
1&3 only
All
Use:
lanthanum: oil refineries
dyprosium :used in hybrid vehicles, wind turbines and stealth helicopters
yttrium : Used in military jet engines
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
a) It is debt fund by SIDBI that will be used to provide soft term loans for MSME sectors
to meet debt to equity norms
b) It is fund that will be used to provide rehabilitation care for women affected by
violence
c) It is fund used to develop scientific temper among students in school
d) None of these
Q.17) Solution (a)
Budget 2016-17 announced two fund namely Indian aspiration fund and SMILE fund
India Aspiration Fund (IAF) to be set up as a fund of funds under the Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI) in order to boost the startup ecosystem in the country. The
fund will have an initial corpus of Rs.2,000 crore. Life Insurance Corp. of India (LIC) will be a
partner and co-investor in the fund.
Another Fund
The second fund is a debt fund called SIDBI Make in India Loan for Enterprises (SMILE), which
was announced in the Union budget in February. The fund will provide soft term loans and
loans in the nature of quasi-equity to MSMEs to meet debt-to-equity norms and pursue growth
opportunities in existing MSMEs.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 MODERN INDIA & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 20]
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
George Yule
Sarojini Naidu
Annie besant
Chadrashekar Azad
Badruddin Tyabji
Select the above personalities who presided over the sessions of Indian National congress
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4 only
1,2,3 and 5 only
2,3,4 and 5 only
All presided over INC sessions
Q.20) Silambham is a Martial art patronised by which of the following ancient Indian
kingdoms
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cholas
Cheras
Pandyas
Pallavas
A martial art called Silambam was patronised by the Chola rulers. Ancient and medieval Tamil
texts mention different forms of martial traditions but the ultimate expression of the loyalty of
the warrior to his commander was a form of martial suicide called Navakandam
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https://telegram.me/suriasHJA
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
Q.1) RBI merged two funds to create a new Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF) to support
developmental and promotional activities for expanding reach of banking services.
Consider the following w.r.t FIF
1. The new FIF will be administered by NABARD.
2. FIF is created by merging National Innovation Fund and Financial Inclusion
Technology Fund
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
The Financial Inclusion Fund (FIF) and Financial Inclusion Technology Fund (FITF)
was constituted in the year 2007-08 for a period of five years with a corpus of Rs. 500
crore each to be contributed by Government of India (GOI), RBI and NABARD in the
ratio of 40:40:20.
GOI has merged the FIF and FITF to form a single Financial Inclusion Fund.
The Reserve Bank of India has finalised the new scope of activities and guidelines for
utilisation of the new FIF in consultation with GOI.
The new FIF will be administered by the reconstituted Advisory Board constituted by
GOI and will be maintained by NABARD.
The objectives of the FIF shall be to support developmental and promotional activities including creating of
FI infrastructure across the country, capacity building of stakeholders, creation of awareness to address
demand side issues, enhanced investment in Green Information and Communication Technology (ICT) solution,
research and transfer of technology, increased technological absorption capacity of financial service
providers/users with a view to securing greater financial inclusion. The fund shall not be utilized for normal
business/banking activities.
https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=10074&Mode=0
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
swift electronic data transfer between mobile vessels and shore (Base stations) through advance and
real-time exchange of information. RIS aims to streamline the exchange of information between
waterway operators and users. This would facilitate:Enhancement of inland navigation safety in ports and rivers.
Better use of the inland waterways
Environmental protection
control stations will monitor the vessels plying in this river stretch via Automatic Identification System
(AIS) and will communicate with Vessels via VHF.
NW 1 per chhe , phase 2 farraka to patana and phase 3 patana to varanasi
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
The major effects of inflation are as follows: 1. Effects on Redistribution of Income and
Wealth 2. Effects on Production 3. Other Effects!
Inflation affects different people differently. This is because of the fall in the value of
money. When price rises or the value of money falls, some groups of the society gain, some
lose and some stand in-between. Broadly speaking, there are two economic groups in every
society, the fixed income group and the flexible income group.
People belonging to the first group lose and those belonging to the second group gain. The
reason is that the price movements in the case of different goods, services, assets, etc. are
not uniform. When there is inflation, most prices are rising, but the rates of increase of
individual prices differ much. Prices of some goods and services rise faster, of others slowly
and of still others remain unchanged. We discuss below the effects of inflation on
redistribution of income and wealth, production, and on the society as a whole.
Q.5) The GDP price deflator is an economic metric that accounts for inflation by converting
output measured at current prices into constant-dollar GDP. Consider the following.
1. It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular
year at current prices to that at prices prevailing during any other reference (base)
year.
2. The deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy
as against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price
indices it is seen as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
The GDP deflator is a measure of price inflation. It is calculated by dividing Nominal GDP by
Real GDP and then multiplying by 100. (Based on the formula). Nominal GDP is the market
value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation. Real GDP is
nominal GDP, adjusted for inflation to reflect changes in real output. Trends in the GDP
deflator are similar to changes in the Consumer Price Index, which is a different way of
measuring inflation.
Further reading: http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/why-deflator-is-best-indicatorof-price-rise/
Q.6) Which of the following are correct about Producer Price Index?
a) The Producer Price Index (PPI) program measures the change in prices received by
the seller.
b) The PPI provides a broader coverage in terms of products and industries and it also
includes services, something which is not a part of the WPI.
c) PPI measures the price pressure due to increase in cost of finished goods.
d) All of the above.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
Speculation and cartelization can cause inflation and hence vitiate the market
dynamics.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
Q.13) Call and Term money markets are the sub-markets of Indian money market. Which
of the following statements are correct about these short term markets?
1. Call money refers to borrowing and lending of funds for one day.
2. Term money refers to borrowing and lending of funds for a period of more than 14
days.
3. Interest rates in these markets are fixed by banks.
4. Since banks work as both lenders and borrowers in these markets, they are also
known as Inter-Bank market.
Select the code from the following:
a) 1,2 and 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) All of the above
Q.13) Solution (c)
Call Money, Notice Money and Term Money markets are sub-markets of the Indian Money
Market. These refer to the markets for very short term funds.
Interest rates in these markets are market determined i.e. by the demand and supply of
short term funds. In India, 80% demand comes from the public sector banks and rest 20%
comes from foreign and private sector banks.
Since banks work as both lenders and borrowers in these markets, they are also known as
Inter-Bank market. The short term fund market in India is located only in big commercial
centres such as Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai and Kolkata. The intervention of RBI is prominent in
the short term funds money market in India. Call Money / Notice Money market is most
liquid money market and is indicator of the day to day interest rates. If the call money rates
fall, this means there is a rise in the liquidity and vice versa.
1 and 4
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 21]
With import of gold and inflow of FOREX, RBI has to print equivalent amount of currency.
This increases the liquidity and hence inflation increases.
International increase in crude oil causes increase in cost of production. This causes cost
push inflation.
DBT increases the money in consumers hand, causing demand pull inflation.
Q.15) Which of the following statements correctly explains the term Stagflation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.16) Which of the following economic entities is are benefitted with inflation?
1. Debtors
2. Exporters
3. Savings bank account holders
4. Creditors
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 only
2,3 and 4
None of the above
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Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding sugarcane and sugar pricing policy.
1. The concept of Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane was replaced with the
Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)' of sugarcane.
2. Sugar is an essential commodity under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
3. The Central Government has been following a policy of partial control and dual
pricing for sugar.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.18) Consider the following statements with respect to Missile technology control regime
(MTCR)
1. For non-signatories of missile technology control regime the maximum permissible
payload of a missile can be up to 1 ton
2. The range of missiles for non-signatories of MTCR should not exceed more than 300
Kms
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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1 only
2 only
Both
None
Tiger
One horned rhinoceros
Elephant
Peacock
Which of the following animals are found in the ten rupees Indian currency note?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2&4 only
2,3&4 only
1,3&4 only
1,2&3 only
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Q.21) The recent New Delhi Declaration is related to which of the following themes
a)
b)
c)
d)
For the first time, under the impetus of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French space agency,
Centre National dEtudes Spatiales (CNES), space agencies of over 60 countries have agreed to engage their satellites for
coordination in their methods and data to monitor human-induced greenhouse gas emissions.
The Conference of Parties (COP21) climate conference held in Paris in last December acted as a wake-up call in this
context
Click here
1&2 only
3 only
2&3 only
All are present in Kerala
Recession
Recovery
Depression
Boom
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Q.24) Consider the following statements with regards to inflation indexed bonds (IIBs).
1. IIBs will provide inflation protection to principal only.
2. Existing tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on
IIBs.
3. Foreign institutional investors (FIIs) are not allowed to invest in IIBs.
Which of the above statements are NOT correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above
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IIBs would be Government securities (G-Sec) and the different classes of investors eligible to
invest in G-Secs would also be eligible to invest in IIBs. FIIs would be eligible to invest in the
IIBs but subject to the overall cap for their investment in G-Secs (currently USD 25 billion).
For more details:
https://rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=91
Q.25) GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system will provide augmentation
service over which of the following areas?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Bay of Bengal
Middle East
South East Asia
Africa
Russia
Scandinavia
1,2,3 and 4
2,4,5 and 6
3,4,5 and 6
1 and 3 only
Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to Kaladan Multi-modal Transit
Transport Project
1. It is a project between India, Bangladesh and Myanmar
2. The project consists of only naval routes
3. It will reduce the need to transport goods through the Chickens neck
Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Only 1
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b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will connect the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in
Myanmar by sea; it will then link Sittwe seaport to Paletwa in Myanmar via Kaladan river boat route and then from Paletwa on to Mizoram by road
transport
The project has several sections/legs:[3]
539 km shipping route from seaport of Kolkata in India to Sittwe seaport in Myanmar via Bay of Bengal
158 km river boat route from Sittwe seaport to Paletwa jetty via Kaladan river in Myanmar
110 km road route from Paletwa jetty to Indo-Myanmar border in Myanmar
100 km route from Indo-Myanmar border to Lawngtlai in Mizoram in India by road on National Highway 54 (India) (NH-54), which then
continues further to Dabaka in Assam via 850 km long NH-54 which in turn is part of the larger East-West Corridor connecting North East India
with the rest of India.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 22]
assets (NPAs) can be assigned to ARCs by banks at a discounted price, enabling a one-time
clearing of the balance sheet of banks of sticky loans.
At the same time, the ARC can float bonds and recover dues from the borrowers directly. ARCs
can have several alternate structures. They can either be publicly or privately owned or a
combination of both, and can be either separately capitalised units or wholly-owned
subsidiaries.
Further
reading:
http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/policies/monetary-policy-meaning-
objectives-and-instruments-of-monetary-policy/11134/
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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Bank rate is the rate charged by the central bank for lending funds to commercial banks. Bank
rates influence lending rates of commercial banks. Higher bank rate will translate to higher
lending rates by the banks. In order to curb liquidity, the central bank can resort to raising the
bank rate and vice versa
Further reading: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=51
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funds by purchasing securities with an agreement to resell the securities on a mutually agreed
future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds lent."
This is the general definition of Repo and Reverse Repo in India. The securities transacted here
can be either government securities or corporate securities or any other securities which the
Central bank permits for transaction. Non-sovereign securities are used in many global markets
for repo operations. Unlike them, Indian repo market predominantly uses sovereign securities,
though repo is allowed on corporate bonds and debentures
The current repo, reverse repo and MSF are 6.5%, 6% and 7% respectively. Hence it is no
bound rule that there has to be a 100 basis points difference between them.
Q.6) Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank
of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Which of
the following is incorrect about MSF?
a) MSF is a penal rate as the repo limit is exhausted and also SLR limit is breached at times.
b) MSF operations also become necessary as the repo operations are limited to a specific
period of the day.
c) Only scheduled commercial banks can use this route with government securities
including SLR as collateral.
d) If banks do not have excess SLR it cannot borrow under MSF.
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RBI with the main aim of reducing volatility in the overnight lending rates in the inter-bank
market and to enable smooth monetary transmission in the financial system.
To balance the liquidity, RBI uses the sole independent "policy rate" which is the repo rate (in
the LAF window) and the MSF rate automatically gets adjusted to a fixed per cent above the
repo rate (MSF was originally intended to be 1% above the repo rate). MSF is at present aligned
with the Bank rate.
Even if the Banks do not have excess SLR they still can opt for MSF and it is allowed within
certain limits. The other statements are true.
Q.7) Consider the following about SLR. Which of the following are correct?
1. The ratio of liquid assets to net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that they should keep
in designated liquid assets is called statutory liquidity ratio (SLR).
2. To control expansion of bank credit and ensure solvency of commercial banks is major
objective.
3. Banks hold public sector bonds, current account balances with other banks and gold as
SLR.
4. Banks can also hold multilateral bonds and foreign exchange as part of SLR
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of the following forms as a percentage of their total Demand and Time Liabilities (DTL) / Net
DTL (NDTL);
[i] Cash.
[ii] Gold; or
[iii] Investments in un-encumbered Instruments that include;
(a) Treasury-Bills of the Government of India.
(b) Dated securities including those issued by the Government of India from time to time
under the market borrowings programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS).
(c) State Development Loans (SDLs) issued by State Governments under their market
borrowings programme.
(d) Other instruments as notified by the RBI.
Traditionally the amount to be held thus was stipulated to be no lower than 25 percent and not
exceeding 40 percent of the banks total DTL. However, effective from January, 2007 the floor
of 25 percent on the SLR was removed following an amendment of the Banking Regulation Act,
1949.
Further reading: http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Statutory_Liquidity_Ratio
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The question tries to catch the aspirant on reading and attention to detail. CRR is allowed only
in Cash is a known fact.
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): Each bank has to keep a certain percentage of its total deposits with
RBI as cash reserves.
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): Amount of liquid assets such as precious metals(Gold) or other
approved securities, that a financial institution must maintain as reserves other than the cash.
Formula: SLR rate = (liquid assets / (demand + time liabilities)) 100%
Time liabilities are liabilities which the banks are liable to pay after a certain period of time. E.g.
A 1 year fixed deposit. Demand liabilities are liabilities which the banks are liable to pay on
being demanded by the customer. E.g. A savings account
CRR limits the ability of the banks to pump more money into the economy. SLR is used to limit
the expansion of bank credit, for ensuring the solvency of banks (even if all the loans by the
bank go bad, the bank can still retrieve a part of it by selling the gold/govt securities.
Further reading: http://www.livemint.com/Money/VLvbh3hAk9sSOCvYdqd7SI/DYK-Differencebetween-CRR-and-SLR.html
Q.9) Which of the following is incorrect about qualitative and quantitative methods used by
RBI to control credit supply?
a) Qualitative method controls the manner of channelizing cash and credit in the economy.
b) Qualitative method restricts credit for certain section and expands for others depending
on the erstwhile situation
c) Marginal requirement is increased for those business activities where the flow of credit
is to be restricted and hence a quantitative method.
d) Under rationing of credit RBI fixes ceiling of credit setting a limit to the loans and
advances that can be made to particular sector is a qualitative method.
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The various methods employed by the RBI to control credit creation power of the commercial
banks can be classified in two groups, viz., quantitative controls and qualitative controls.
Quantitative controls are designed to regulate the volume of credit created by the banking
system qualitative measures or selective methods are designed to regulate the flow of credit in
specific uses.
Quantitative or traditional methods of credit control include banks rate policy, open market
operations and variable reserve ratio. Qualitative or selective methods of credit control include
regulation of margin requirement, credit rationing, regulation of consumer credit and direct
action.
Marginal requirement by the name sounds quantitative but is a qualitative method. So be
careful.
Further reading: http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/banking/important-methods-adapted-byrbi-to-control-credit-creation/23490/
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This scheme came into existence following a MoU between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and
the Government of India (GoI) with the primary aim of aiding the sterilization operations of the
RBI. Historically, the RBI had been sterilizing the effects of significant capital inflows on
domestic liquidity by offloading parts of the stock of Government Securities held by it. It is
pertinent to recall, in this context, that the assets side of the RBIs Balance Sheet (July 1 to June
30) includes Foreign Exchange Reserves and Government Securities while liabilities are
primarily in the form of High Powered Money (consisting of Currency with the public and
Reserves held in the RBI by the Banking System). Thus, any rise in Foreign Exchange Reserves
resulting from the intervention of the RBI in the Foreign Exchange Markets (with the intention,
say, to maintain the exchange rate on the face of huge capital inflows) entails a corresponding
rise in High Powered Money. The Money Supply in the economy is linked to High Powered
Money via the money multiplier. Therefore, on the face of large capital inflows, to keep the
liabilities side constant so as to not raise the Supply of Money, corresponding reduction in the
stock of Government Securities by the RBI is necessary.
Q.11) Consider the following about fixed and floating interest rates.
1. A floating interest rate is an interest rate that is allowed to move up and down with the
rest of the market or along with an index but linked to an underlying benchmark rate.
2. A fixed interest rate is an interest rate on a liability, such as a loan or mortgage, that
remains fixed either for the entire term of the loan or for part of this term.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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A floating interest rate, also known as a variable or adjustable rate, refers to any type
of debt instrument, such as a loan, bond, mortgage, or credit, that does not have a fixed
rate of interest over the life of the instrument.
Floating interest rates typically change based on a reference rate (a benchmark of any financial
factor, such as the Consumer Price Index). One of the most common reference rates to use as
the basis for applying floating interest rates is the London Inter-bank Offered Rate,
or LIBOR (the rates at which large banks lend to each other)
A fixed interest rate is an interest rate on a liability, such as a loan or mortgage, that remains
fixed either for the entire term of the loan or for part of this term. A fixed interest rate may be
attractive to a borrower who feels that the interest rate might rise over the term of the loan,
which would increase his or her interest expense. A fixed interest rate, therefore, avoids
the interest rate risk that comes with a floating or variable interest rate, wherein the interest
rate payable on a debt obligation depends on a benchmark interest rate or index.
The UPSC trend of asking questions is coming down to fundamentals of the current and
trending topics. This is relevant w.r.t Chinas devaluation and after effects.
Q.12) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted and Expert Committee to Revise and
Strengthen the Monetary Policy Framework under the Chairmanship of Dr. Urjit R.Patel.
Consider the following.
1. It has suggested that the apex bank should adopt the new CPI (consumer price index) as
the measure of the nominal anchor for policy communication.
2. The committee asked the Central Government to ensure that the fiscal deficit as a ratio
to GDP (gross domestic product) is brought down to 3.0 per cent by 2016-17.
3. The Patel panel felt that the monetary policy decision-making should be vested with a
monetary policy committee (MPC) which has participation of both government and RBI.
4. The FSLRC under Justice (retd) B N Srikrishna had also suggested for the formation of an
MPC.
Select the correct answer:
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/urjit-panel-suggests-4-cpi-
inflation-target/article5602626.ece
https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/PublicationReportDetails.aspx?ID=743
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These committees have been reffered in government documents repeatedly especially post
2015 budget.
Further reading:
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Public_Debt_Management_Agency_(PDMA)
Q.14) Which of the following is incorrect about Public Debt Management Agency the
government intends to set up?
a) Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) is a specialized independent agency that
manages the internal and external liabilities of the Central Government in a holistic
manner and advises on such matters in return for a fee.
b) PDMA is considered to be set up with the objective of "maximising the cost of raising
and servicing public debt over the long-term within an acceptable level of risk at all
times, under the general superintendence of the central government".
c) An autonomous PDMA can be the catalyst for wider institutional reform, including
building a government securities market, and bring in transparency about public debt.
d) Genesis of the thinking on an independent debt management office is traced back to
the Committee on Capital Account Convertibility (1997) and the Review Group of
Standing Committee on International Financial Standards & Codes (2004).
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PDMA is considered to be set up with the objective of "minimising the cost of raising and
servicing public debt over the long-term within an acceptable level of risk at all times, under the
general superintendence of the central government". This will guide all of its key functions,
which include managing the public debt, cash and contingent liabilities of Central Government,
and related activities.
Further reading:
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Public_Debt_Management_Agency_(PDMA)
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2. Phillips found a consistent inverse relationship: when unemployment was high, wages
increased slowly; when unemployment was low, wages rose rapidly.
3. It showed the rate of wage inflation that would result if a particular level of
unemployment persisted for some time.
4. Price stability has a trade-off against unemployment and some level of inflation could be
considered desirable in order to minimize unemployment, is the core argument.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
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reading:
http://www.livemint.com/Money/rmR2KGnzn18ltvP6zBgpsO/Dejargoned-
deflation-and-disinflation.html
Q.18) If deflation is general decline in prices caused by a reduction in the supply of money
then which of the following is not the possible consequence of the same?
a) Demand from businesses and consumers to buy products falls
b) Employment growth rate stabilizes and is upward in trend
c) Debt servicing becomes more expensive
d) Governments can resort to tax cuts to boost demand from consumers and businesses
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Minister, Shinzo Abe, declare that the period of deflation has come to an end and that
economic recovery is on its way.
A positive impact of deflation is increased export competitiveness as most other economies are
in an inflationary trend. Japan has benefited from competitive exports in the past decade or so.
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Q.20) Suppressed inflation adversely affects the economy. What are the probable
consequences?
1. When the distribution of commodities is controlled, the prices of uncontrolled
commodities rise very high.
2. Suppressed inflation reduces the incentive to work because people do not get the
commodities which they want to have.
3. Suppressed inflation leads to black marketing, corruption, hoarding and profiteering. It
invites extralegal powers of control.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
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(4) Frictions increase in the labour market when high inflation is associated with higher
unemployment.
(5) Suppressed inflation leads to black marketing, corruption, hoarding and profiteering. It
invites extralegal powers of control.
Q.21) The Nairobi Package was adopted at the WTO's Tenth Ministerial Conference, held in
Nairobi, Kenya. It contains a series of Ministerial Decisions on
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1, 2, 3 and 5
2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 5
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1, 2 , 3 and 4
Only 1
1, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
Q.23) In a major boost to the sustainable development of the Eastern Ghats, with special
focus on its fragile environment, the United Nations University has sanctioned one more
Regional Centre of Expertise (RCE) to India. What are the RCEs in India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
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b) 1, 2, 5 and 6
c) 2, 4 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
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Lake Erie
Huron
Michigen
Ontario
Superior
53124
53134
53214
53241
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3. Switzerland
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 22]
Q.28) Which of the following properties of light is observed in the phenomena of Rainbow
Formation?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Dispersion
Refraction
Total internal reflection
Reflection
1,2,3 only
2,3,5 only
3 only
All of these
Q.29) According to RBI guidelines, Basel III norms are to be implemented by all banks till
2019. Consider the following statements:
1. Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) is the percentage of banks risk weighted
credit exposures.
2. RBI has fixed CRAR as 9%.
3. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is expressed as CRAR.
4. Higher the CAR, higher is the risk.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 22]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Q.1) A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction. Consider the
following
1.
2.
3.
4.
Only 3
2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/clean-tech/change-is-in-theair/article7912910.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/features/metroplus/Motoring/honda-begins-sale-of-zeroemissions-car-the-clarity-fuel-cell/article8336475.ece
Read this to know the working of fuel cells
http://www.fuelcellenergy.com/why-fuelcell-energy/how-do-fuel-cells-work/
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Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
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Q.4) Digital convergence refers to the convergence of four industries into one
conglomerate. Identify those four industries?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Media
Consumer Electronics
Information Technology
Telecommunication
Entertainment
Cognitive Science
1, 3, 4 and 5
2, 3, 4 and 5
2, 3, 4 and 6
3, 4, 5 and 6
Q.5) Consider the following about totipotent, pluripotent and multipotent cells:
1. The correct order from most differentiated to least differentiated- is
pluripotent>multipotent>totipotent
2. Embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent cells
3. Multipotent cells are more limited than pluripotent cells
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3
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These terms refer to the differentiating potential of the particular cell in its development
stage. In general, going from least differentiated to most differentiated, you could arrange
the terms as totipotent=>pluripotent=>multipotent. Now this means that a totipotent cell is
not differentiated at all, and can create any cell type in the body and certain placental
tissues. Only embryonic cells in very early stages of development (the first few cell divisions
from a zygote or fertilized ovum) are totipotent. A pluripotent stem cell can create cells
from any of the three germ layers in the body, thus the least differentiated pluripotent cells
can become any cell in the body. Embryonic stem cells are one source of pluripotent cells.
Totipotent cells can form all the cell types in a body, plus the extraembryonic, or placental,
cells. Embryonic cells within the first couple of cell divisions after fertilization are the only
cells that are totipotent. Pluripotent cells can give rise to all of the cell types that make up
the body; embryonic stem cells are considered pluripotent. Multipotent cells can develop
into more than one cell type, but are more limited than pluripotent cells; adult stem cells
and cord blood stem cells are considered multipotent
Reference of pluripotent cells taken from this news
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/crisprcas-method-of-gene-editing-causescrisper-debates/article8203123.ece
Also learn about stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells
Q.6) Since the advent of the antibiotic superdrug in the 1940s, a new villain, the
superbug has emerged and has been making national and international headlines over
the past two decades. Consider the following
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
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Only 1
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Q.9) Consider the following regarding The Natural Resources Data Management System
(NRDMS) Programme
1. It was launched with the objectives of developing and demonstrating scientific
methods and techniques for national level planning
2. Ministry of Environment and Forest is the nodal agency to govern its function and
proper execution The Natural Resources Data Management System (NRDMS) Programme was launched in 1982
objectives of developing and demonstrating scientific methods and techniques for local level planning
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=142346
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
d) 1, 2 and 3
It is not a member of United Nations but a member of IMF and World Bank
It declared its independence from Serbia
It is a landlocked country
It is one of the Muslim majority territories on European mainland
Albania
Kosovo
Bosnia
Slovenia
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Religion in Kosovo
Religion
Population %
Islam
1,663,202 95.60
Christians 64,275
Catholic 38,438
Orthodox 25,837
3.69
2.20
1.48
Other
1,188
0.06
None
1,842
0.10
0.55%
Q.12) Acid attacks are one of the most gruesome kind of acts causing not only physical
harm to the victim but psychological and emotional harm as well. Which of the following
steps should be taken to reduce the effect of acid on the skin?
1. Burnt area should be washed with clean water or slightly saline water.
2. Burnt are should be washed with milk. Milk is basic and neutralizes acid.
3. Burnt area should be washed with a strong base to quickly neutralize it so that it
does not react further.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
1 only
1 and 2
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
fathers sperm. Since the genetic characteristics lie in the nucleus, the baby gets his genetic
traits from two parents only.
Q.14) Which of the following forces are not the example of contact forces?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Friction force
Electrostatic force
Magnetic force
Gravitational force
Air resistance force
1 only
1, 3, 4 and 5
2, 3 and 4
2, 4 and 5
Action-at-a-Distance Forces
Frictional Force
Gravitational Force
Tension Force
Electrical Force
Normal Force
Magnetic Force
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
2 and 3
All of the above
1 and 3
None of the above
Q.16) The 2014 Nobel Prize for physics has been awarded to a trio of scientists in Japan
and the US for the invention of blue light emitting diodes (LEDs). Why the invention of
blue LED was so special?
1. It was the first LED to be invented.
2. Together with Green and red LED, white light could be produced.
3. Blue LED is the most difficult to make as it uses, Gallium nitride and not Gallium
Phosphide.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
from infrared light to green light but they couldn't quite get to blue. That required
chemicals, including carefully-created crystals that they weren't yet able to make in the lab.
A white LED light is easy to make from a blue one. Engineers use a blue LED to excite some
kind of fluorescent chemical in the bulb. That converts the blue light to white light.
Two of the prize winners, Isamu Akasaki and Hiroshi Amano, worked together on producing
high-quality gallium nitride, a chemical that appears in many of the layers in a blue LED. The
previous red and green LEDs used gallium phosphide, which was easier to produce. Akasaki
and Amano discovered how to add chemicals to gallium nitride semiconductors in such a
way that they would emit light efficiently. The pair built structures with layers of gallium
nitride alloys.
The third prize-winner, Shuji Nakamura, also worked on making high-quality gallium nitride.
He figured out why gallium nitride semiconductors treated with certain chemicals glow. He
built his own gallium nitride alloy-based structures.
Q.17) Pole star is amongst the most useful stars for humans because of its fixed location in
the sky. Consider the following statements with respect to pole star:
1. Pole star is helpful in finding the north direction in night and helped in navigation in
ancient times.
2. Pole star can be pointed with the help of Ursa Major constellation.
3. Pole star is not visible in the Southern Hemisphere.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Q.18) In cricket, the bowlers are now mastering the art of reverse swinging the ball. This
helps them to take the pitch out of the equation, and move the ball in the air. Which of
the following statements are correct about reverse swing?
1. For reverse swing to happen the ball needs to be rough on one side and shiny on the
other.
2. The ball moves towards the shining side.
3. Due to friction, the air pressure on the rough side is less and shiny side is more.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Q.20) Steam burns are more severe than the burns caused by boiling water because:
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
1 and 2
1 and 3
2,3 and 4
All of the above
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/revered-nilgai-turns-farmersenemy/article8711052.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/nilgai-blues-hit-capitalsheart/article8652515.ece
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All border Mexico
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to SURYAMITRA Mobile App
1. It is developed by National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE)
2. SURYAMITRA is a skill development program designed to create skilled manpower in
installation, commissioning, and Operation & Maintenance of solar power plants and
equipment.
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
Q.25) Hand in Hand is a joint military exercise conducted between which of the
following two countries
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All the above
Gold Monetisation Scheme, which would replace both the present Gold Deposit and
Gold Metal Loan Schemes. The new scheme would allow the depositors of gold to
earn interest in their metal accounts and the jewellers to obtain loans in their metal
account. Banks/ other dealers would also be able to monetise this gold.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE & TECH & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 23]
The tenure of gold deposits is likely to be for a minimum of one year. The minimum
quantity of deposits is pegged at 30 gram to encourage even small deposits. The gold
can be in any form, bullion or jewellery.
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/government-announces-third-round-of-goldbond-scheme/article8314695.ece
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.1) Which of the following are the features of newly notified E-Waste Management Rules,
2016 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change?
1. These rules for the first time will bring the producers under Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR).
2. For the first time, Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamp
brought under the purview of rules.
3. Provision for Pan India EPR Authorization by CPCB has been introduced replacing the
state wise EPR authorization.
4. Micro and Small industry sector as defined in Micro Small and Medium Developmental
Act, 2006 are completely exempted with EPR Responsibility.
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.1) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All the given statements are correct and self-explanatory
India has emerged as the worlds fifth largest electronic waste (e-waste) producer.
Exemption continues for micro enterprises; however small enterprises, which have been
referred as one of the major source of generation of e-waste, have been included in the
rules for responsibility as manufacturer, without burdening them with EPR responsibility as
applicable to Producers.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138319
Q.2) Select the incorrect pair from the below given important environment related days and
its 2016 theme:
a) World Oceans Day (8th June every year) : : Healthy oceans, healthy planet
b) World Environment Day (5th June every year) : : Go Wild for Life -- Zero tolerance for
the illegal trade in wildlife
c) Earth Day (22nd April every year) : : Wetlands for our Future Sustainable Livelihoods
d) None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.3) Recently, the Union Government has launched the Centre for Environmental Health in
New Delhi. Consider the following statements in regard to it:
1. The centre will assess the impact of environment-related problems like climate change,
air pollution, pesticide use and sanitation on health.
2. It is a joint initiative of the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Public Health
Foundation of India (PHFI).
3. The initiative was launched by Union Minister for Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.3) Solution (c)
Explanation:
It is a joint initiative of the Tata Institute of Social Science (TISS) and Public Health
Foundation of India (PHFI).
Centre for Environmental Health will assess the impact of environment-related problems
like climate change, air pollution, pesticide use and sanitation on health.
The centre will conduct research across wide range of environmental health issues,
including water, chemical exposure and hygiene.
It will also establish a policy engagement platform with regular meetings with the civil
society, government, academia and private sector to develop strategies for better
implementation of the eco-friendly policies.
Source:
http://www.uniindia.com/nadda-launches-centre-for-environmentalhealth/india/news/488858.html
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.4) Which among the following statements are correct in regard to recently adopted historic
Paris Climate Agreement at the 21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC?
1. The agreement facilitates enforcement of global GHGs reduction measures, adaptation
and finance in the post-2020 i.e. in post Kyoto Protocol scenario.
2. All member countries agreed to work to limit global temperature rise to well below 2
degrees Celsius, and to strive for 1.5 degrees Celsius.
3. All member countries agreed to take into account the principle of equity (climate
justice) and common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) and respective
capabilities.
4. Developed countries will provide 100 billion dollars annually to the developing
counterparts beginning in 2020 and it would increase with time.
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
4. The loss of forest ecosystem must also be compensated by paying for net present value
of forest (NPV).
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) None of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1 only
Q.5) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Self explanatory All the given statements are correct
Q.6) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently released a new Four-color
Classification Scheme for industries based on their pollution potential. Select the correctly
matched new categorization system:
1.
2.
3.
4.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.7) Recently, the Union cabinet gave its formal approval for adopting the Statute of the
South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN). Select the incorrect statement from the
following in regard to SAWEN:
a) SAWEN is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched
in January, 2011 in Paro, Bhutan.
b) SAWEN aims to strengthen, promote and co-ordinate regional co-operation for curbing
illegal wildlife trade that threatens the wild flora and fauna of South Asia.
c) Except Pakistan, all other South Asian countries will be the part of SAWEN.
d) None of the above
Q.7) Solution (c)
Explanation:
All 8 South Asian countries will be the part of SAWEN (i.e. including Pakistan)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.10) Amur falcons has one of the longest and most fascinating migratory paths in the avian
kingdom. Consider the following statements regarding Amur falcons:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 and 3
2 and 4
3 only
All of the above
Q.11) Endosulfan has been used as a pesticide in agriculture for a long time. India has agreed
to phase out completely the use and manufacture of endosulfan by 2017. Which of the
following statements are correct about endosulfan?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
It is not pest specific and it can negatively impact the populations of beneficial insects.
Endosulfan is acutely neurotoxic to both insects and mammals.
Endosulfan has high potential to bio-accumulate and bio-magnify.
Endosulfan is banned across the world under Stockholm convention.
Endosulfan is the cause of death of Indian vultures.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.12) Government of India has being trying to protect the critically endangered Great Indian
Bustard. Which of the following statement are correct about Great Indian Bustard?
1. To protect the bird and create awareness, this has been made the state bird of Haryana.
2. It is a flight less bird.
3. It is found in arid and semi-arid grassland.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.13) Which of the following gas emissions are checked when pollution check of vehicles are
done in India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 and 2
3 and 4
1,2 and 4
All of the above
Q.14) India is amongst the first and foremost countries to have a forest policy. Although the
first policy of 1894 was designed on how to exploit the forest resources, constant revisions
were made in the policy after independence of India. The current policy was made in 1988,
known as The National Forest Policy 1988. Which of the following statements are incorrect
about this policy?
1. Maintenance of environmental stability through the preservation and restoration of
ecological balance.
2. Conservation of forests as a national heritage with vast varieties of flora and fauna.
3. Control of soil erosion and denudation in catchment areas of rivers, lakes and reservoirs.
4. Check on the extension of sand-dunes in desert areas.
5. To meet the needs of fuel-wood, fodder and minor forest products for the rural and
tribal people.
6. Encouragement of efficient utilization of forest produce and optimum substitution of
wood.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
1,2 and 3
4,5 and 6
5 and 6
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.15) Since the solid waste generation is rising in urban areas of India, many waste to energy
plants are being started. They serve the dual purpose of waste disposal as well as generation
of electricity. Which of the following statements are correct about waste to energy
generation?
1. The cost of waste to energy is somewhat higher than other renewable sources.
2. The chimneys of incinerators include acid gases, nitrogen oxide, heavy metals,
particulates, and dioxin, which are carcinogenic.
3. The efficiency of waste to energy plants is very low.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
All of the above
Location
Vienna
Montego Bay
Stockholm
Basel
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
1, 2 , 3 and 4
2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 4 and 5
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.19) Which of the following is not concerned with the Wildlife Protection Act?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
National Parks
Wildlife Sanctuaries
Conservation Reserves
Biosphere Reserves
Community Reserves
Tiger Reserves
3,4 and 5
Only 4
4 and 5
None of the above
Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to India Biodiversity Award
1. It is a joint initiative by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, National
Biodiversity Authority and United Nations Environment Programme
2. The categories for the award are aligned with Biological Diversity Act, 2002
3. Satpura Tiger Reserve won the India Biodiversity Award this year
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Q.21) Recently Himachal Pradesh fisheries department has started an artificial propagation
programme for rehabilitation and conservation of Golden Mahseer fish. Consider the
following statements with respect to Golden Mahseer Fish.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1,2 and 3
1,2 and 4
1 and 2
All of the above
Golden Mahseer Fish is the longest-living freshwater fish and is native to mountain and
sub-mountain regions.
It inhabit both rivers and lakes and is an omnivore
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
Argentina
Brazil
Uruguay
Paraguay
Which of the above countries does not belong to MERCOSUR Trade Bloc?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.23) Consider the following statements with respect to Free Trade agreement
1.
2.
3.
4.
Goods
Services
IPR
Investment
Which of the above is included in FTA (Free trade agreement) between two countries?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
All
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
FTAs normally cover trade in goods (such as agricultural or industrial products) or trade in
services (such as banking, construction, trading etc.).
FTAs can also cover other areas such as intellectual property rights (IPRs), investment,
government procurement and competition policy, etc.
Norway
Switzerland
Sweden
Iceland
Which of the above countries is a member of The European Free Trade association?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.24) Solution (b)
EFTA was in news yesterday as India is pushing to work out the modalities concerning to
finalising free trade Agreement with EFTA
To know more about EFTA click here
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 24]
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
1, 3 and 4
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
All of the above
Q.2) Consider the following statements in regard to the removal of Vice President of India:
1. The Vice-President may be removed on any ground considered sufficient by the two
Houses of the Parliament
2. In both the cases of removal of the President and the Vice-President, the power of
removal is lodged in the two Houses of Parliament
3. A Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States
passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the House of the People
4. A Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States
passed by a special majority and agreed to by the House of the People
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
4 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
Q.4) Consider the following statements and select the correct statement/s from the codes
given below:
1. Presiding officer decides on questions as to disqualifications of members of the
Parliament, in consultation with the Election Commission
2. Finance Minister causes to be laid before the Parliament the annual financial statement
3. No demand for a grant can be made except on Presidents recommendation
Choose the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
Explanation:
President decides on questions as to disqualifications of members of the Parliament, in
consultation with the Election Commission
President causes to be laid before the Parliament the annual financial statement
No demand for a grant can be made except on Presidents recommendation
Q.5) Which among the following statements is not true in regard to Presidents powers?
1. Presidents power to give or not to give assent to the bills passed by the Parliament is a
discretionary power, except in case of money bills and constitutional amendment bills.
2. The object of conferring this discretionary power on the President is to prevent hasty
and ill-considered legislation by the Parliament and to prevent a legislation which may
be unconstitutional.
3. It is not obligatory for the President to give his assent even if the bill is again passed by
the state legislature and sent again to him for his consideration.
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.5) Solution (b)
Explanation:
President has no such discretionary powers (hence, statement 1 and 2 is wrong)
President can act on his discretion (that is, without the advice of the ministers) under the
following situations:
1) Appointment of Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha or
when the Prime Minister in office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor.
2) Dismissal of the council of ministers when it cannot prove the confidence of the Lok
Sabha.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
3) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the council of ministers has lost its majority.
With respect to the government bills when the cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills
but before the assent by the President) and the new cabinet can advise the President not to
give his assent to such bills.
Q.7) Consider the following differences with regard to the President and the Governor of
India:
1. Governor has both constitutional and situational discretion power
2. President has no constitutional discretion, he has only some situational discretion
3. The pardoning power of the President is independent of the judiciary and is an
executive power
4. Both the Governor and the President have concurrent power in respect of suspension,
remission and commutation of death sentence
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
3 and 4
All of the above
Q.8) Consider the following statements in regard to the Prime Minister of India:
1. The Prime Minister holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office.
2. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President
can dismiss him.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
3. Prime Minister gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a member of
Parliament, only his sumptuary allowance varies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.8) Solution (c)
Explanation:
The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the
President.
2 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
Explanation:
President is only a nominal executive and the real powers are vested in the council of
ministers headed by the prime minister.
The executive power of the Union shall be vested in President and shall be exercised by him
either directly or through officers subordinates to him in accordance with this Constitution
(Article 53).
Prime Minister advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the
sessions of the Parliament.
Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be
authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President.
Q.10) Consider the following in regard to President of India:
1. A person to be eligible for election as President should have completed 35 years of age,
i.e, should be qualified for election as a member of the second chamber.
2. The salary and allowances of the president are charged from Consolidated Fund of India.
3. President may be elected for any number of terms
Q.11) Which among the following is/are correct statements in regard to Council of ministers
and Cabinet?
1. Cabinet functions are determined by the Council of ministers
2. Council of ministers supervises the implementation of its decisions by the cabinet
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 25]
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
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1)
2)
3)
4)
Attorney General
Prime Minister
Governor
Council of Ministers
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a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
None
Pardon
Reprieve
Respite
Commutation
Meaning
Completely relief from any punishment
Temporary suspension of any punishment
Awarding less sentence
Changing one punishment to another
1 and 3
2 and 4
1, 2 and 4
All of the above
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Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding impeachment of the President of India:
1. The President of India can be impeached from the office for violation of Constitution,
insolvency and using public office for private gains.
2. A motion of impeachment can be initiated only in Loksabha.
3. The proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved
after at least fourteen days' notice in writing, signed by not less than one-third of the
total number of members of the House, has been given of their intention to move the
resolution.
4. If the resolution is passed by a special majority (two thirds of present and voting), the
President stands impeached from his office.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect regarding the impeachment of the President
of India?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
4 only
None of the above
All of the above
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of the total number of members of the House, has been given of their intention to move
the resolution, and
(b) Such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total
membership of the House.
(3) When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall
investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the
right to appear and to be represented at such investigation.
(4) If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than twothirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to
be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained,
such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date
on which the resolution is so passed.
Q.18) The Ordinance mechanism has been devised to enable the executive to deal with a
situation that may suddenly and immediately arise when the Parliament is not in session
(either one or both houses). Which of the following statements are correct regarding
Ordinance making in India?
1. Article 123 of Indian Constitution empowers the president to promulgate Ordinances.
2. Maximum life of an ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks.
3. An Ordinance can only be promulgated on the subjects on which Parliament is
competent to make laws.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Article 123 of the Indian constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances.
An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of
Parliament, but every such Ordinance
Shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of
six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period
resolution disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those
resolutions. As maximum gap between two session of a house can be 6 months therefore
maximum life of a ordinance can be 6 months and 6 weeks; and May be withdrawn at any time
by the President.
Q.19) Article 74(1) requires the President to have a Council of Ministers with the Prime
Minister at the head to aid and advice him in the exercise of his power. Which of the
following statements regarding Council of Ministers are correct?
1. Ministers are appointed by the Prime Minister.
2. India has a three-tier ministry consisting of cabinet ministers, ministers of state and the
deputy ministers.
3. The term Cabinet is not present in the original Constitution.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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Q.20) Consider the following statements with respect to Swarna Bharat Yojana
1. The scheme is aimed to decrease gold imports by mobilising gold in the domestic
market
2. Gold monetisation, Indian gold coins, Gold bond scheme are some of the ancillary
schemes related to Swarna Bharat Yojana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.21) Swasth Dharaa Khet Haraa is a slogan of which of the following scheme by Government
of India
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to World Wild Life Fund
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1. The fund is created under the aegis of United Nations environment programme
2. Panda is the official logo of world wildlife fund
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
In 1961, World Wildlife Fund (WWF) was created. Sir Huxley and Sir Peter Scott, the famous
ornithologist who created the Panda logo, were among the founder members of World Wildlife
Fund.
The aims of the World Wildlife Fund are to halt the destruction of the earths natural
environment and to prepare a future in which all human beings can live in harmony with
nature. World Wildlife Fund does this by protecting all forms of life on earth, and making sure
that the earths natural resources like water and forests are not consumed faster than they can
be renewed. World Wildlife Fund encourages the people to curtail the amount of waste they
normally produce, and to cut down on pollution.
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http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/global-tiger-population-up-by-22per-cent/article8461131.ece
Tribal alienation
Public distribution system
Film certification
Regulation of MSME
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The committee recommended that the categorisation of films should be more specific. The UA
Category can be broken up into further sub-categories UA12+ and UA15+.
The A category should also be sub-divided into A and AC (Adult with Caution) categories.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/shyam-benegal-to-head-panel-to-revamp-censorboard/article8054774.ece
Q.24) Chaitra Vaishaka months in traditional Indian calendar corresponds to which of the
following months in English calendar?
a)
b)
c)
d)
March-April
May-June
Jan-Feb
April-May
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FESTIVALS/RITUALS
1. Chaitra
The month of Chaitra is also associated with the coming of Spring, since Holi, the spring festival
of colour, is celebrated on the eve of Chaitra (namely, the last day of Phalgun month). Exactly 6
days after which the festival of Chaiti Chhath is observed.
In lunar religious calendars, Chaitra begins with the new moon in March/April and is the first
month of the year. The first of Chaitra is celebrated as New Year's Day, known as Gudi Padwa
in Maharashtra, Chaitrai Vishu and Ugadi in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Other important festivals in the month are; Ram Navami, the birth anniversary of Lord Ram
celebrated on the 9th day of Chaitra, and Hanuman Jayanti that falls on the last day (purnima)
of Chaitra.
2. Vaikha
The harvest festival of (Baisakhi) is celebrated in this month. Vaisakha Purnima is celebrated as
Buddha Purnima or the birthday of Gautama Buddha amongst southern Buddhists or the
Theravada school. Purnima refers to the Full Moon. Known in Sinhalese as Vesak, it is observed
in the full moon of May
3. Jyaiha
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Snana Yatra is a bathing festival celebrated on the Purnima the Hindu month of Jyeshtha. It is
an important festival of the Jagannath Cult. The deities Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra,
Sudarshan, and Madanmohan are brought out from the Jagannath Temple (Puri) and taken in a
procession to the Snana Bedi. They are ceremonially bathed and decorated for a public
audience.
Sitalsasthi Carnival is being conducted in this month on the day of Jyeshtha Shuddha Shashthi in
Odisha for many centuries
4. Asadha
Guru Purnima, a festival dedicated to the Guru, is celebrated on the Purnima (Full Moon) day of
the month. Prior to it Shayani Ekadashi, is observed on the eleventh lunar day (Ekadashi) of the
bright fortnight.
5. Sravana
Shravana(jupaka) is considered to be a holy month in the Hindu calendar due to the many
festivals that are celebrated during this time. Krishna Janmashtami, marking the birth of
Krishna, falls on the 8th day after the full moon. Raksha Bandhan, the festival of brothers and
sisters, is celebrated on Shraavana Poornima (Full Moon). This day in Maharashtra is also
celebrated as Narali Poornima (Naral in Marathi language means coconut). In the coastal
regions of Maharashtra i.e. Konkan, a coconut is offered to the sea for calming it down after the
monsoon season. Fishermen now start fishing in the sea after this ceremony. Nag Panchami is
also celebrated in many parts of India on the fifth day after Amavasya of Shraavana month. The
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snake god Nga is worshiped. The last day of the Shraavana is celebrated as Pola, where the
bull is worshiped by farmers from Maharashtra.
In TamilNadu (& also in Kerala) Aadi Amavasaya is celebrated with great importance in all
temples. It is an equivalent to Mahalaya Amavasaya of north India.In
KarnatakaBasava Panchami is celebrated on 5th day after amavasya.
Shravani Mela is a major festival time at Deoghar in Jharkhand with thousands of saffron-clad
pilgrims bringing holy water around 100 km on foot from the Ganges at Sultanganj.Shravan is
also the time of the annual Kanwar Yatra, the annual pilgrimage of devotees of Shiva, known
as Kanwaria make to Hindu pilgrimage places of Haridwar, Gaumukh and Gangotri in
Uttarakhand to fetch holy waters of Ganges River
7. Asvina
Several major religious holidays take place in Ashvin, including Durga Puja (6-10 Ashvin),
Dasehra (10 Ashvin) and Divali (29 Ashvin), Kojagiri festivals and Kali Puja (new moon of
Ashvin),
8. Kartika
The festival of Kartik Poornima (15th day Full Moon) falls in this month, celebrated asDev
Deepavali in Varanasi. This coincides with the nirvana of the Jain Tirthankara - Mahavira and the
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birth of the Sikh Guru Nanak Guru Nanak Jayanti. And also, the well known festival, for the god
of Sabarimalai, Ayyappan's garland festival.
9. Agrahyaa
Vaikuha Ekda, the Ekda (i.e. 11th lunar day) of this Mrgaa month, is celebrated also
as Mokad Ekda. The 10th Canto, 22nd Chapter of Bhgavata Pura, mentions young
marriageable daughters (gopis) of the cowherd men of Gokula, worshiping Goddess Ktyyan
and taking a vrata or vow, during the entire month of Mrgaa, the first month of the winter
season (iira), to get r Ka as their husband.
Klabhairava Aam (or Klabhairava Jayanti) falls on Ka Paka Aam of this month of
Mrgaa. On this day it is said that Lord iva appeared on earth in the fierce manifestation
(avatra) as r Klabhairava. This day is commemorated with special prayers and rituals.
10. Pausa
The harvest festival of Pongal/Makar Sankranti is celebrated on this month.
11. Magha
Vasant Panchami, sometimes referred to as Saraswati Puja, Shree Panchami, or the Festival of
Kites is a Sikh and Hindu festival held on the fifth day of Magha (in early February) marking the
start of spring and the Holi season. On this day Hindus worship Saraswati, the goddess of
knowledge, music, art and culture.
Ratha Saptami or Rathasapthami is a Hindu festival that falls on the seventh day (Saptami) in
the bright half (Shukla Paksha) of the Hindu month Maagha. It marks the seventh day following
the Suns northerly movement (Uttarayana) of vernal equinox starting from Capricorn (Makara).
12. Phalguna
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Most parts of North India see early celebration of the famous Hindu festival Holi in this month.
Holi is celebrated at the end of the winter season on the last full moon day of the lunar month
Phalguna (Phalguna Purnima), which usually falls in the later part of February or March. The
Hindu festival of Shigmo is also celebrated in Goa and Konkan in the month of Phalguna.
Celebrations can stretch over a month.
Q.25) Consider the following regarding The Convention on the Rights of the Child
1. It is a legally binding treaty under the ambit of United Nations.
2. According to the convention a child is any person who has not reached the age of
sixteen unless a different age of maturity is specified in any country's law.
3. It talks about civil, political, economic, social, health and cultural rights of children.
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
http://www.childlineindia.org.in/united-nations-convention-on-the-rights-of-the-child.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convention_on_the_Rights_of_the_Child
World Day Against Child Labour: 12 June
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Q.1) Consider the following statements in regard to the conditions of Governors office:
1. Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be
determined by Parliament.
2. However, when the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states,
the emoluments and allowances are determined by the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Q.1) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined
by Parliament.
However, when the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the
emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as
determined by the president.
Q.2) Consider the following statements in regard to the appointment and oath of the
Governor:
1. Governor should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is
appointed.
2. While appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of
the state concerned and the latters advice is binding.
3. The oath of office to the governor is administered by the President or some person
appointed in that behalf by him.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
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d) 3 only
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.4) Which among the following given statements is/are the constitutional discretion that
Governor exercise?
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1. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for
mineral exploration
2. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and
legislative matters of the state
3. The governor has constitutional discretion while exercising his functions as the
administrator of an adjoining union territory
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.4) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All the given statements are correct Self explanatory
If any dispute arises as to the share of such royalties to be made over to a district council, it
shall be referred to the governor for determination and the amount determined by the
governor in his discretion shall be deemed to be the amount payable to the district council
and the decision of the governor shall be final
Q.5) Consider the following statements in regard to the Chief Minister of a State:
1. CM is the chief spokesman of the state government
2. He acts as a chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation, holding office for a
period of one year at a time
3. He is the member of the Inter-State Council and the National Development Council,
both headed by the prime minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above
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Q.6) Which among the below given statements is/are correct in regard to Governor?
1. The term of the Governor is not fixed by the Constitution and he holds office during the
pleasure of the President
2. Also the Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be
removed by the President
Select the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 26]
Explanation:
Self explanatory
Q.8) Which among the following are the powers of the Governor?
1. He appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state
2. He appoints the chief minister and other ministers including Tribal Welfare minister in
the states of Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
3. He appoints the state election commissioner and determines his conditions of service
and tenure of office
4. He decides on the question of removal of members of the state election commission in
consultation with the Election Commission
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.8) Solution (c)
Explanation:
He appoints the state election commissioner and determines his conditions of service and
tenure of office. However, the state election commissioner can be removed only in like
manner and on the like grounds as a judge of a high court.
Q.9) Consider the following statements in regard to the strength of the state council of
ministers:
1. The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the council of ministers in
a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of
that state.
2. But, the number of ministers, including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less
than 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
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d) None
Q.9) Solution (d)
Explanation:
Both the given statements are correct
Q.10) Governor has certain special responsibilities to discharge according to the directions
issued by the President. In which among the following states he can be directed to discharge
special responsibilities?
1. Karnataka
2. Telangana
3. Gujarat
4. Sikkim
5. Assam
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.10) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Governor has certain special responsibilities to discharge according to the directions issued
by the President. They are given below:
1. MaharashtraEstablishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha and
Marathwada.
2. GujaratEstablishment of separate development boards for Saurashtra and Kutch.
3. NagalandWith respect to law and order in the state for so long as the internal disturbance
in the Naga HillsTuensang Area continues.
4. AssamWith respect to the administration of tribal areas.
5. ManipurRegarding the administration of the hill areas in the state.
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6. SikkimFor peace and for ensuring social and economic advancement of the different
sections of the population.
7. Arunachal PradeshWith respect to law and order in the state.
8. Karnataka Establishment of a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka
region
Q.11) Consider the following statements in regard to the Governor:
1. He is the constitutional head of the state as well as the representative of the Centre
2. He is the chairman of the State Planning Board
3. He acts as the chancellor of universities in the state
4. He is the political head of the services
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) All of the above
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only
Q.11) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Chief Minister is the chairman of the State Planning Board and also the political head of the
services
Q.12) Which among the below given statements is/are correct with regard to legislative
councils?
1. The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
2. Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it, if the legislative
assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect
3. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority
4. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the
purposes of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary piece of legislation (i.e, by simple
majority)
Select the appropriate code:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3
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c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All of the above
Q.12) Solution (d)
Explanation:
All the given statements are correct and self-explantory
Q.13) Which among the following statements is/are true in regard to Governor?
1. Governor is consulted by the president while appointing the judges of the concerned
state high court.
2. Governor appoints persons to the judicial service of the state (including district judges)
in consultation with the state high court and the State Public Service Commission.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.14) Which among the below given statements is/are correct in regard to state council of
ministers and central council of ministers?
1. Unlike the Centre, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal
responsibility of the minister in the states.
2. Like at the Centre, in the states too, the council of ministers consists of three categories
of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers.
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3. The difference between them lies in their respective ranks, emoluments, and political
importance.
Choose the appropriate code:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Q.14) Solution (b)
Explanation:
As at the Centre, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal
responsibility of the minister in the states.
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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Deputy Ministers are not given independent charge of departments. They are attached to
the cabinet ministers and assist them in their administrative, political and parliamentary
duties. They are not members of the cabinet and do not attend cabinet meetings.
Q.16) In which of the following Union Territories, the administrator of the UT is called a Lt.
Governor?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
3 and 4
1,3 and 4
3,4 and 5
All of the above
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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A Governor is appointed on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers, or in reality on the
advice of the Prime Minister. For the President to consult the Chief Minister of the concerned
state, before the appointment of a Governor is not a constitutional requirement. But a healthy
convention grew up that the Chief Minister was consulted. But in the case of appointment of
several Governors, this convention has not been obeyed.
A Governor may be simultaneously assignee to more than one state. Thus, on many occasions,
the Governor of Assam was also the Governor of Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, etc.
A Governor is appointed for a period of 5 years. The President, if he so pleases may extend his
tenure. A vacancy in the Governors post arises, if:
The Governors also have often been transferred from one state to another.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to ParamParagt Krishi Vikas Yojana
1. The scheme follows cluster based approach of 50 farmers to promote organic farming
2. Each farmer will be provided 20000 rupees per acre in three years from seed to
harvesting crops and to transport them to market
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Click here
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Q.23) Consider the following statements with respect to Rashtriya Gokul Mission
1. The scheme focuses on conservation and development of indigenous and exotic breeds.
2. Gokul Grams will be established to develop indigenous breeds under Rashtriya Gokul
mission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to Jan Aaushadi scheme
1. The schemes aims to make generic medicines available to BPL and APL families only
2. The scheme is spear headed by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
The schemes aims to make generic medicines available to ALL citizens of India
irrespective of here economic status
The scheme is sphere headed by ministry of chemicals and fertilisers
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Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to recently announced Price
Stabilization Fund
1. It functions under Consumer Affairs Ministry
2. The Price Stabilization Fund aims to stabilize the prices of tea, coffee, rubber and
tobacco to contain the distress of the farmers
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 27]
Q.1) Economy Survey mentions about Rainbow Revolution. Consider the following w.r.t
it
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Food Processing
Fisheries
Forestry
Horticulture
Crop Cultivation
Animal Husbandry
2, 3 and 5
1, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q.2) Consider the statements and choose the incorrect from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 27]
0.1 for China. Thus China remains a net importer of water. This is also evident in China and
Indias trade patterns. China imports water-intensive soybeans, cotton, meat and cereal
grains6, while exporting vegetables, fruits and processed food. India, on the other hand,
exports water-intensive rice, cotton, sugar and soybean.
Q.3) Consider the impact of fall in the Crude Oil Price on Indian Economy
1. Exporters of petroleum producers are negatively impacted
2. It will help to narrow down Current Account Deficit
3. The value of Indian Rupee will strengthen
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 3
Q.4) Arrange the following countries in decreasing order of Average Cereal Yields
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
China
USA
India
Bangladesh
Brazil
Canada
2-1-3-5-6-4
1-2-5-6-3-4
2-1-5-4-6-3
2-1-5-3-6-4
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Q.6) Which of the following pulses are covered under Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Arhar
Masur
Urad
Moong
1 and 2
2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
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a)
b)
c)
d)
Only
1 and 3
2 and 3
Only 2
Q.8) Ragi, a millet is currently encouraged to include in the diet to supplement nutrients
to counter the malnutrition that is haunting the country. Consider the following
statements.
1. Ragi is rich in iron, calcium, roughage and is mainly grown in dry regions.
2. Among minor producers Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand are included.
3. It is grown as a major crop in Bengaluru-Mysuru table land from where the countrys
majority of Ragi production comes from.
Choose the correct statements from the code below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
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Q.9) Tea best grows in Assam, Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts of West Bengal. What
is/are the uniqueness of this region which suits this crop?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All the above
Q.10) Sugarcane grown in subtropical region has lower productivity than that is grown in
tropical regions.
Consider the following statements about subtropical region i.e Northern India which has
low productivity in sugarcane production.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Frost formations
Floods and water logging
High diurnal temperature
Low humidity
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
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1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 27]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.13) Sugar is one of the basic human necessities across the world. Sugarcane plantations
became a major driver of large and forced human migrations in 19 th and early 20th
century. Consider the following statements regarding sugarcane and sugar production:
1. It was in India that farmers discovered and began the farming of sugarcane.
2. The process to produce sugar crystals was invented in India.
3. European merchants started trading in sugar, which was a luxury and expensive
spice in Europe.
4. Europeans from India took sugarcane to Europe and it became an important crop to
be grown in England and France.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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Before the 18th century, cultivation of sugarcane was largely confined to India. A few
merchants began to trade in sugar a luxury and an expensive spice in Europe until the
18th century. Sugar became widely popular in 18th-century Europe, then graduated to
becoming a human necessity in the 19th century all over the world. This evolution of taste
and demand for sugar as an essential food ingredient unleashed major economic and social
changes. Sugarcane does not grow in cold, frost-prone climate; therefore, tropical and
semitropical colonies were sought. Sugarcane plantations, just like cotton farms, became a
major driver of large and forced human migrations in 19th century and early 20th century
of people from Africa and from India, both in millions influencing the ethnic mix, political
conflicts and cultural evolution of Caribbean, South American, Indian Ocean and Pacific
Island nations.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.15) European Union has extended ban on import of various food items causing a loss of
approximately $2 million to India. Consider the following statements regarding EU ban on
Indian items:
1. EU has extended its ban indefinitely on the import of Indian mangoes.
2. The ban was imposed as fruit flies were discovered in some of the consignments of
mango.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.15) Solution (b)
Ban was imposed on mangoes for 20 months in 2014 after the detection of fruit flies in
some of the consignments. However it was exempted last year.
The European Union (EU) has extended the ban on import of four vegetables bitter gourd,
eggplant, taro plant (arbi) and snake gourd from India by another year despite efforts
made by the country to put in place stringent quality control and packaging measures.
Q.16) According to the report of Food and Agriculture Organisation, India is the largest
producer of which of the following agricultural products in the world?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Fresh fruits
Jute
Pulses
Rice
Wheat
Fresh Fruit
Lemons and limes
Buffalo milk, whole, fresh
Castor oil seeds
Sunflower seeds
Sorghum
Millet
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Spices
Okra
Jute
Beeswax
Bananas
Mangoes, mangosteens, guavas
Pulses
Indigenous buffalo meat
Fruit, tropical
Ginger
Chick peas
Areca nuts
Other bastfibres
Pigeon peas
Papayas
Chillies and peppers, dry
Anise, badian, fennel, coriander
Goat milk, whole, fresh
Per final numbers for 2009, India is the world's second largest producer of the following
agricultural products:
Wheat
Rice
Fresh vegetables
Sugar cane
Groundnuts, with shell
Lentils
Garlic
Cauliflowers and broccoli
Peas, green
Sesame seed
Cashew nuts, with shell
Silk-worm cocoons, reelable
Cow milk, whole, fresh
Tea
Potatoes
Onions
Cotton lint
Cottonseed
Eggplants (aubergines)
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Floriculture
Olericulture
Viticulture
Oenology
Meaning
Production and marketing of Floral crops
Production and marketing of vegetables
Production and marketing of grapes
Study of wine
1 and 3
2 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
Q.18) Between 1970 and 2011, the GDP share of agriculture has fallen from 43% to 16%.
Which of the following statements is the correct reason for this?
1. The agricultural production gradually decreased.
2. There was a large scale rural to urban migration.
3. The secondary and tertiary sectors grew very rapidly.
Select the code from below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 only
2 and 3
All of the above
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As the share of manufacturing sector and tertiary sector increased, the share of agriculture
relatively decreased.
Q.19) Coconut is an important crop with almost all its parts used for some or the other
purposes. Coconut is widely grown in India and India is the third largest producer of the
world after Indonesia and Philippines. Consider the following statements regarding
coconut:
1.
2.
3.
4.
There are two basic varieties of coconut, the tall and the dwarf.
The plant requires a year round warm and humid climate.
Coarse sand soil is deemed perfect for coconut plantations.
Coconut trees need saline water to grow.
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 4
All of the above
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it to crop plants which cannot do this. Cracking this mystery would let us grow crops in arid
soils where salt is concentrated in the soil and leaches out into irrigation or rain water. For
that reason, they have a good understanding of the two tricks the halophytes use to
desalinate their drinks.
Halophytes have two ways of achieving their salt tolerance. First, their root membranes are
adept at excluding the Na atom of NaCl molecules from their roots. This lets them take in
H2O and other needed minerals but block out the salt. In addition, some halophytes can
route salt to shoots having special compartments within their cells, called vacuoles which
are large storage vats where NaCl can be cordoned off and excluded from the areas on the
plant cell where it would do harm.
Q.20) Indian seeds programme largely adheres to limited generation system for seed
multiplication. The system recognises three kinds of generation, namely breeder,
foundation and certified seeds. Consider the following statements:
1. Breeder seed is the basic seed which is genetically pure and obtained from a healthy
plant.
2. Offsprings of the Breeder seed which can be clearly traced to Breeder seed are
called Foundation Seeds.
3. Certified seed is the last stage, which actually reaches to a farmer. Certified seed is
the progeny of foundation seed and must meet the standards of seed certification
prescribed in the Indian Minimum Seeds Certification Standards, 1988.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 27]
The policy statements are designed towards making available to the Indian farmer,
adequate quantities of seed of superior quality at the appropriate time and place and at an
affordable price so as to meet the countrys food and nutritional security goals.
Indian seeds programme largely adheres to limited generation system for seed
multiplication. The system recognises three kinds of generation, namely breeder,
foundation and certified seeds.
On this basis, there are five different categories viz. Nucleus Seeds, Breeders Seeds,
Foundation Seeds, Registered Seeds and finally certified seeds. The Offspring of breeder
seeds is foundation seeds to registered seeds to certified seeds.
Further, each of the breeders, foundation, registered and certified seeds are certified and
labelled with a different colour tag as per Section 5 of the Seeds Act, 1966. Thus, they are
also called as Labelled Seed. The Breeder seeds have golden yellow tag, Foundation seeds
have white tag, registered seeds have opal blue tag and certified seeds have green tag.
The process of development of certified seeds begins from its distant parent called
Nucleus Seed. The nucleus seed is a genetically pure seed without any impurity. They
are obtained from a handful of healthy plants growing in a plot and then grown
strictly in isolation.
A breeders seed is an offspring of nucleus seed. A breeder is a person (qualified
plant breeder) or organization who raises plant primary for breeding purpose. While
nucleus seed is genetically pure; the Breeder seeds are produced by mutual
multiplication of three different lines which are denoted by A line, B line and R line. A
line is female, while B and R line are male sterile. The seeds from off springs with
best and desired quality are selected and certified as Breeder seeds. Such seeds are
protected by legal rights called as Breeders rights.
Offsprings of the Breeder seed which can be clearly traced to Breeder seed are
called Foundation Seeds. They are further breaded to give rise to certified seeds. The
production of the foundation seeds must be acceptable to a certification agency.
The progeny of the foundation seed approved and certified by a certifying agency
and is suitable to produce certified seeds is called Registered seed.
This is the last stage, which actually reaches to a farmer. Certified seed is the
progeny of foundation seed and must meet the standards of seed certification
prescribed in the Indian Minimum Seeds Certification Standards, 1988.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 27]
All
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All
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Q.23) Consider the following statements with respect to Medecins Sans Frontieres
(MSF)
1. It is also called by the name Doctors without Borders
2. It was formed aftermath of World War 2
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.24) The method of removing pollutants with the help of living organism like Bacteria is
known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bio magnification
Bio Remediation
Leaching
Bio Accumulation
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1 only
2 only
Both
None
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1,2 and 3
2 and 3
1 and 4
1,2 and 4
Q.2) Despite the efforts of the Forest Department and the Customs Department, the
smuggling of Red Sanders is going unabated. Which of the following statements are correct
about Red Sanders?
1.
2.
3.
4.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 28]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
1,2 and 4
All of the above
Q.3) Desert vegetation, also called Xerophytes, have adjusted or adapted to its harsh
environment. Which of the following statements are correct adaptations of Xerophytes?
1. Some plants called Succulents, store water in their stems and leaves.
2. Leaves have turned into thorns to reduce water loss and also act as a deterrent to
herbivores.
3. Flowers open at night to lure pollinators.
4. Growth of desert plants is very slow, so that they require less energy.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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Some plants have a short life cycle, germinating in response to rain, growing, flowering,
and dying within one year. These plants can evade drought.
Leaves with hair help shade the plant, reducing water loss. Other plants have leaves
that turn throughout the day to expose a minimum surface area to the heat.
Spines to discourage animals from eating plants for water;
Waxy coating on stems and leaves help reduce water loss.
Flowers that open at night lure pollinators who are more likely to be active during the
cooler night.
Slower growing requires less energy. The plants don't have to make as much food and
therefore do not lose as much water.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.6) Sea grasses are specialized angiosperms that resemble grass in appearance. They are the
only group of higher plants adapted to life in the salt water. Consider the following regarding
sea grasses.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Q.7) Solution (a)
Wildlife sanctuaries can be created for specific species while National Park is not focused on
any particular specie.
Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Topical Evergreen forest in India:
1.
2.
3.
4.
2,3 and 4
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 4
1 and 2
2 only
2 and 3
All of the above
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The Onge are one of the Andamanese indigenous peoples of the Andaman Islands. Traditionally
hunter-gatherers, they are a designated Scheduled Tribe of India.
Jarawa and Onge are endangered tribes of Andaman.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
According to the criteria adopted by UNESCO, a language becomes extinct when nobody speaks
or remembers the language.
The government has initiated a scheme to protect, preserve and document endangered Indian
languages - spoken by less than 10,000 people.
Under the scheme "Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages of India", Mysorebased Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) is working on the protection, preservation and
documentation of endangered languages.
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Q.11) Consider the statements regarding a particular valley which was in the news recently.
1. It is a part of Gangotri National Park
2. It is a cold desert and looks like a replica of Tibetan plateau
3. It is home to Snow Leopard
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nellong valley
Kashmir valley
Alaknanda valley
Bhagirathi valley
Q.12) Central Zoo Authority, a body set up in 1992 for the oversight of zoos.
Consider the following statements regarding CZA.
1. It is set up under the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972.
2. It is an affiliated member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium.
3. It doesnt have the power to regulate the trade of endangered species.
Choose the correct statements from the following code.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All the above
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Q.13) Himalayan yew is a plant found in Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh, was in
news recently.
Consider the following statements regarding the plant.
1. It is a medicinal plant.
2. A chemical compound called taxol obtained from the plant is used as an effective anticancer drug.
Choose the incorrect statements from code below.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None of the above
Deciduous Forests
Evergreen Forests
Tropical Deciduous Forests
Temperate Deciduous Forests
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Tropical deciduous are the monsoon forests found in the large part of India, northern Australia
and in Central America. These regions experience seasonal changes. Trees shed their leaves in
the dry season to conserve water.
In a large part of our country we have this type of forest. These forests are also called Monsoon
Forests. They are less dense. They shed their leaves at a particular time of the year in spring
and at onset of summer. Important trees of these forests are sal, teak, peepal, neem and
shisham. (The names that we hear often) They are found in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and in parts of Maharashtra.
Tropical Deciduous Forests are economically most important forests of India.
Q.15) If you are travelling through Eastern Himalayas, which of the following you will
encounter?
1. Golden Langur
2. Takin
3. Black Bear
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 2
1, 2 and 3
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1, 2 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
None
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The lowest amount of e-waste per inhabitant was generated in Africa (1.7 kg/inhabitant). The
continent generated 1.9 Mt of e-waste in total.
India is the fifth biggest producer of e-waste in the world, discarding 1.7 million tonnes (Mt) of
electronic and electrical equipment in 2014, a UN report has warned that the volume of global
e-waste is likely to rise by 21 per cent in next three years.
The Global E-Waste Monitor 2014, compiled by U.N.s think tank United Nations University
(UNU), said at 32 per cent, the U.S. and China produced the most e-waste overall in 2014.
India is behind the U.S., China, Japan and Germany.
Q.18) Consider the following with respect to Western Ghat and rainfall pattern along it
1. Karnataka receives less rainfall than Kerala and Maharashtra because of steep slopes
and continuous Mountains
2. The mountain topography in Karnataka is broader than the narrow topography of the
Ghats in Maharashtra.
Select the incorrect statements
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
Both
None
The mountain topography in Karnataka is broader than the narrow topography of the Ghats
in Maharashtra. Due to the greater width of the mountains, the rain bearing winds have to
necessarily travel a longer distance and have more time for the drops to coalesce and
precipitate as rainfall, resulting in higher rainfall. In contrast, the narrow width of the Ghats in
Maharashtra allows the rain-bearing wind to cross over to the leeward side rapidly before
precipitation can occur. As for Kerala, the Ghats there are in the form of isolated mountains,
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where the rain-bearing winds can easily cross over to the leeward side through the gaps in
between without precipitation occurring.
Second, the slope of the mountain has a direct bearing on the possibility of precipitation. This is
borne out by the Ghats of Karnataka where the mountains are gently sloping, compared to the
steep slopes of the Ghats in Maharashtra and Kerala.
The air parcel will retain its energy and speed for a longer time when the slope is gradual. This
will provide sufficient vertical motion to cloud droplets to grow by collisioncoalescence
process and hence form precipitation.
Third, the gentle slope provides a greater area for sunlight absorption and heating leading to
greater convection when compared with an abrupt slope i.e. less Ghat area such as that of the
Maharashtra and Kerala Ghats.
Fourth, the continuous mountain range presents a greater barrier to rain-bearing winds than a
range comprising isolated mountains with gaps in between where the winds can easily pass to
the leeward side. Unlike in the case of Kerala, the Ghats in Maharashtra and Karnataka are
continuous.
Q.19) Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) New Green Buildings rating system addresses
green features under certain categories. What are they?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
1, 3, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
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IGBC Green New Buildings rating system addresses green features under the following
categories:
Q.20) What are the factors for extinction of wildlife throughout the world?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Alteration of habitat
Introduction of foreign species
Control of pests and predators
Captive breeding
1 and 2 Only
1, 2 and 3 Only
1, 3 and 4 Only
All of the above
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Q.1) Which among the below given animals/birds cannot walk backwards?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Kangaroos
Emus
Penguins
Alligators
1 only
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
The tilt of Earth's axis of rotation relative to the ecliptic as Earth revolves around the Sun
The varying amount of sunspot activity
Earth's orbit about the Sun as an ellipse rather than a circle
The rotation of Earth during a 24-hour day
Q.3) When cool air flows from a high mountain region to a region of lower elevation, the air
will
a)
b)
c)
d)
List II
A. Smelting
a)
b)
c)
d)
A-B-C-D
1-4-3-2
1-4-2-3
2-1-4-3
2-1-3-4
Q.5) IASbabaji is hiking up Mt. Everest, and recently reached the base camp at 12,000 feet.
While there, babaji decides to make some tea, and puts a thermometer in the boiling water.
To his surprise, the thermometer tells him the water is boiling at 96 C. Why is this
happening?
a) Babaji was surprised to watch water boiling more quickly.
b) The pressure is lower at higher elevations, and results in a lower boiling temperature.
c) The number of solutes in the air is higher at higher elevations, resulting in boiling point
depression.
d) Babaji is suffering from oxygen deprivation, and is reading the thermometer incorrectly.
Q.6) Polarized sunglasses are used to cut glare from sunlight reflected at a glancing angle off
cars, water, and other surfaces. Such sunglasses are a practical application of which of the
following physical principles?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Brewster's law
Lenz's law
Coulomb's law
Snell's law
Tuber
Bulb
Rhizome
Corm
a)
b)
c)
d)
A-B-C-D
3-4-1-2
2-3-4-1
2-4-3-1
2-3-1-4
1.Saffron
2.Potato
3.Garlic
4.Turmeric
Srilanka
Maldives
China
Select the correct match of Indian Military Operations with other countries
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
Only 2
2 and 3
None
3. Solubility of Gas
4. Expansion of the gas
5. Diffusion of gas
Which of the above phenomenon (in liquid medium) will increase with the increase in
Temperature?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1, 4 and 5
1, 3, 4 and 5
2, 4 and 5
1, 3 and 4
2, 4 and 5
1, 2 and 5
All
Q.11) Recently scientists have found a way to lock CO 2 by turning it into harmless rock. Which
of the following statements are correct about this process?
a) The CO2 is injected into volcanic bedrock where it will react to form carbonate rocks.
b) CO2 is captured and solidified. This solid CO2 is then compressed to give it permanent
form.
c) CO2 is reacted with amorphous calcium to form calcium carbonate.
d) Carbon di oxide is captured and stored in Ocean trench where it gets solidified due to
high pressure.
Q.11) Solution (a)
The greenhouse gas carbon dioxide (CO2) can be permanently and rapidly locked away from
the atmosphere, by injecting it into volcanic bedrock. The CO2 reacts with the surrounding rock,
forming environmentally benign minerals.
Geoengineers have long explored the possibility of sealing CO2 gas in voids underground, such
as in abandoned oil and gas reservoirs, but these are susceptible to leakage. So attention has
now turned to the mineralisation of carbon to permanently dispose of CO2.
Q.12) Touch screens now have become an important component of many electronic devices
like mobiles, ATM machines, laptops etc. Consider the following statements regarding touch
screens:
1. Commonly there are two types of touch screens- resistive and capacitive.
2. Capacitive touch screens are multilayered with inner most and outer most layers
behaving as a conductor.
3. Resistive screens can detect more than one touch at once at different spots.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.13) Recently Zika virus caused a havoc in South American and central American countries.
Few cases have also been registered in USA. Which of the following statements are correct
about Zika virus?
1. It is disease caused by virus from infected Aedes mosquito.
2. Zika virus can be sexually transmitted.
3. Virus can pass through the fetus of a pregnant woman and can infect the brain cells of
the fetus.
4. The symptoms are similar to other arbovirus infections such as dengue, and include
fever, skin rashes, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, and headache.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,3 and 4
1 and 3
3 and 4
All of the above
Q.14) A two foot long but discovered in China has been declared as the worlds longest insect.
Which of the following species does this bug belongs to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
A Mantis
A Stick Insect
A centipede
A titan beetle
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Small stars become white dwarfs when there fuel gets over.
Q.16) Hepatitis is the medical term for inflammation of the liver. Consider the following
regarding this
1. There are five types of viruses responsible for Hepatitis
2. Intake of toxic substances, alcohol and certain drugs are some of the causes of Hepatitis
3. Hepatitis B is transmitted through exposure to infective blood, semen, and other body
fluids.
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/hepatitis-b-virus-more-prevalent-than-hivin-donor-blood/article8725933.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/its-a-long-road-to-recovery-for-hepatitis-cpatients-at-stanley/article8553352.ece
http://www.who.int/features/qa/76/en/
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/two-million-people-coinfected-with-hiv-hepatitis-cglobally/article8341900.ece
2 only
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
None of the above
Maglev Technology is generally used for Mono rails which doesnt operates based upon
engines. Moreover the Magnetic levitation doesnt use any kind of fossil fuels so it wont
release any of the greenhouse gases.
Monorail system is preferred for long distance commutation only metro rail is preferred
for short distance commutation.
2 only
1 & 2 only
2 & 3 only
1,2 & 3
Bio-digester technology is been carried out only with the help of bacteria and not by
using fungi. Moreover the same question can be asked in the perspective of Dark
Fermentation.
It is developed by DRDO
1 only
2 only
1 & 2 only
1, 2 & 3
Which of the above metro rail corporation works under Indian Railways?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
Chennai Metro rail is operated by the Ministry of urban development. Rapid metro rail
Gurgaon is Indias first fully privately financed metro and the first metro system in the
country to auction naming rights for its stations.
IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.1) One of the most accepted definitions of sustainable development is Development that
meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs." This definition is given by which of the following commissions?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.3) Heat from the earth can be used as an energy source in many ways, from large and
complex power stations to small and relatively simple pumping systems. This heat energy is
known as geothermal energy. Consider the following statements regarding geo thermal
energy:
1. The predominant source of the Earths heat is the gradual decay of radioactive isotopes.
2. It has extensive global distribution and it is accessible in both developed as well as
under developed nations.
3. It has low emission of sulphur, CO2 and other greenhouse gases.
4. It is independent of external supply and demand effects and fluctuations in exchange
rates.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 4
All of the above
Environmentally friendly nature; it has low emission of sulphur, CO2 and other
greenhouse gases.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.4) Solar energy is radiant light and heat from the Sun that is harnessed using a range of
ever-evolving technologies. Solar power is the conversion of sunlight into electricity, either
directly using photovoltaics (PV), or indirectly using concentrated solar power (CSP). Consider
the following statements regarding Solar Power Technology:
1. Photovoltaic cells use the ultraviolet radiations to convert solar energy into electric
current.
2. Semiconductors (usually silicon) are used to manufacture solar panels.
3. Concentrated Solar power use infrared radiations to heat the water and rotate turbines
with the generated steam.
4. Concentrated Solar Power systems generally use a huge convex lens to concentrate
energy at its focus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 and 4
2 and 3
1,2 and 3
Q.5) Wind energy has a very high potential in India. Indian government has already proposed
a National Wind Mission on the lines of National Solar Mission. Which of the following
statements are correct Regarding Wind energy in India?
1. In 2015-16, Indian Government fell short of achieving its target of wind energy
production.
2. The installed capacity of wind power in India is more than 25000MW.
3. East and North East region of India has no grid connected wind power plant.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding National Mission on Sustainable Habitats:
1. It is one of the missions under National Action Plan on Climate Change.
2. It works for the development and protection of natural habitats, especially of those
species which are at the verge of extinction due to habitat loss.
3. The mission works on development of green corridors to connect protected areas of
India.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
3 only
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.7) Carbon neutrality refers to achieving net zero carbon emissions by balancing a measured
amount of carbon released with an equivalent amount sequestered or offset, or buying
enough carbon credits to make up the difference. Which of the following countries are carbon
neutral?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Denmark
Bhutan
Iceland
Sweden
Q.8) Buildings contribute maximum to the green house gas emissions in the world. To reduce
the carbon foot print of buildings, the concept of green buildings was given. Consider the
following regarding Green Buildings:
1. Green building refers to both a structure and the using of processes that are
environmentally responsible and resource-efficient throughout a building's life-cycle.
2. GRIHA, an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment, is the National
Green Building Rating System of India.
3. GRIHA has been developed by TERI.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Green building (also known as green construction or sustainable building) refers to both a
structure and the using of processes that are environmentally responsible and resourceefficient throughout a building's life-cycle: from siting to design, construction, operation,
maintenance, renovation, and demolition. In other words, green building design involves
finding the balance between homebuilding and the sustainable environment. This requires
close cooperation of the design team, the architects, the engineers, and the client at all project
stages. The Green Building practice expands and complements the classical building design
concerns of economy, utility, durability, and comfort.
Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) is a set of rating systems for the design,
construction, operation, and maintenance of green buildings which was Developed by the U.S.
Green Building Council.
GRIHA, an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment, is the National Rating
System of India. TERI took the responsibility of popularizing green building by developing a tool
for measuring and rating a building's environmental performance in the context of India's
varied climate and building practices.
Nitrate pollution
Eutrophication
Biomagnification
Ozone Depletion
Salinisation
1,2 and 3
1,2,3 and 5
2,3,4 and 5
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.10) Which of the following statements correctly explains an Urban Heat Island?
a) A city or a metropolitan area, which is significantly warmer than the surrounding rural
area, due to anthropogenic activities.
b) An island with sudden increase in urbanization activity, increasing its average
temperature.
c) A volcanic island where people have settled due to population pressure on the
mainland.
d) None of the above
Q.10) Solution (a)
An urban heat island (UHI) is a city or metropolitan area that is significantly warmer than its
surrounding rural areas due to human activities. The temperature difference usually is larger at
night than during the day, and is most apparent when winds are weak. The main cause of the
urban heat island effect is from the modification of land surfaces. Waste heat generated by
energy usage is a secondary contributor. As a population center grows, it tends to expand its
area and increase its average temperature. The less-used term heat island refers to any area,
populated or not, which is consistently hotter than the surrounding area.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
These new conditions may be conductive to the establishment of additional organisms that may
subsequently arrive at the site.
Q.12) A Biotic interaction in which one species is harmed and other is unaffected is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Competition
Mutualism
Commensalism
Amensalism
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
All
Q.14) Consider the following with respect to Upgrading Skills and Training in Traditional
Arts/Crafts Development (USTTAD) Scheme
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
1. It aims for capacity building of traditional artisans and craftsman belonging to minorities
community
2. The scheme is implemented by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.15) Consider the following statements with respect to first Jain Council
1. It was convened at Pataliputra in 3rd century BC by Sthalabahu
2. The first Jain council resulted in the compilation of 12 Angas
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.16) Refer the diagrams below. Which diagram best represents the average monthly
temperature changes during a year for a tundra in the Northern Hemisphere?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Fungi, as a group, are heterotrophic organisms with an absorptive mode of nutrition. They
can obtain energy and nutrients from all members of the community.
Q.20) All of the following are likely to increase after large areas of tropical rain forests are cut
down EXCEPT the
a) species diversity of the areas
b) erosion by rivers fiowing through the areas
c) rate of nutrient loss from the areas
d) average surface temperature of the soil in the areas
Q.20) Solution (a)
Explantion:
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
The correct answerthe exceptionis (a). The continuing loss of the diverse habitats found
in tropical rain forests will cause a decrease in species diversity, not an increase.
Q.21) Observations of lakes in areas with granitic bedrock indicate that the lakes are
becoming depleted of living organisms. The primary cause is considered to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
nuclear waste
lowered water levels
acid rain
garbage dumping
Q.22) Which of the following is a true statement about the flow of energy in an ecosystem?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Smaller organisms need less energy per gram of body weight than do larger organisms.
Energy transfer between organisms normally involves conservation of heat energy.
Energy flow between trophic levels is inefficient.
Chemical energy is converted into radiant energy, which is then converted into chemical
energy at the next trophic level.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.23) Which of the following is most likely the result of decreasing levels of ozone in the
stratosphere?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.24) Weather events characterized by heavy rain, thunderstorms, and a sharp temperature
drop followed by clearing are most likely related to which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
Q.25) Which of the following substances is found in the runoff of chemically fertilized lawns
and is most likely to cause eutrophication in streams and lakes?
a) Sodium
b) Carbonate
c) Phosphate
d) Sulfate
Q.25) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Excess phosphates from lawn fertilizers can be carried by runoff into streams and lakes,
causing rapid plant growth and algal blooms. Sodium, carbonate, and sulfate are less likely
to be limiting nutrients and supplied by chemical lawn fertilizers.
Q.26) Methane, a gas that can be trapped and used for energy, is most likely to be produced
by which of the following?
a) Decomposition of organic materials in landfills
b) Burning of organic materials in incinerators
c) Heating of inorganic materials in a high oxygen atmosphere
d) Recycling of metals in recycling plants
Q.26) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Methanogenic microorganisms can produce methane from organic material in landfills.
Burning of organic material will not produce methane. Heating of inorganic materials in a
high-oxygen atmosphere or the recycling of metals are not likely to produce significant
methane.
Q.27) In the discussion of the nature of and solution to environmental problems, it is most
important for students to understand that
a) science is constantly advancing, and technology will be developed to solve current
problems
b) changes in the abiotic portion of the biosphere are self-correcting and result in
evolution of the biotic portion of the biosphere
c) once pollution has been stopped, communities will revert to their preindustrial status
d) cultural, political, and economic issues must all be considered, in addition to scientific
issues
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 30]
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.1) Although modern educated class, including Congress leadership was not happy with the
provisions of the Indian Councils Act of 1892, it was considered as a major achievement of
moderate INC. Which of the following statements are correct about Indian Councils Act 1892?
1. The Act was passed by the Central Legislative Council of India.
2. The idea of election was first time introduced through this Act.
3. The Act provided for additional members in Central as well as Provincial Legislative
Council.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.3) Abhinav Bharat Society was one of the most significant of the secret societies of
Maharashtra. Consider the following statements regarding Abhinava Bharat society:
1. It was initially started by Savarkar Brothers as Mitra Mela in Nasik.
2. It believed in overthrow of British government through armed rebellion.
3. It was involved in the killing of A.M.T. Jackson, the district magistrate of Nasik, the case
popularly known as The Nasik Conspiracy case.
Which of the following statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.7) The Deobandi movement was started in 1866 by orthodox Sunni Muslims. Which of the
following statements are incorrect about Deobandi Movement?
1. It was a revivalist Islamic movement to propagate pure teachings of Quran and Hadith
and to keep alive the spirit of Jihad again the foreign invader.
2. They were against the Aligarh movement and Sir Syed Ahmad.
3. They gave full support to formation of Indian National Congress.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Factual question.
All the above statements are correct about Deobandi movement. Hence none of the above
statement is incorrect.
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.9) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a major event of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian
Independence Movement. Which of the following statements are correct about this
movement?
1. The taluka Bardoli in Gujrat had suffered huge loss due to floods and famine. Despite
this fact, the Bombay presidency raised the tax by 30%.
2. The Satyagraha was led by Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
3. The farmers refused the payment of taxes. In retaliation, government forcefully ceased
all the property including cattle.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.10) Who of the following eminent personalities gave the title Mahatma to Gandhiji?
a)
b)
c)
d)
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.12) After sudden suspension of the non-cooperation movement the youth of the country
was not satisfied. They wanted to overthrow the British rule by violence and revolutionary
activities. One of the most prominent organizations that emerged during this time was
Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). Which of the following statements are correct
about HRA?
1. It was organized by Chandra Shekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh.
2. The aim was to establish Federal Republic of the United States of India by violent
revolution.
3. The manifesto of HRA was called The Revolutionary.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.14) First Factory Act was introduced by Lord Ripon in 1881 to improve the condition of
factory workers in India. Which of the following were not the provisions of this Act?
1. The Act banned the appointment of children below 10 years of age.
2. The working hours for women were reduced to 8 hours a day.
3. It made compulsory for all dangerous machines in the factories to be properly fenced to
ensure security to the workers.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1&2 only
2&3 only
1&3 only
All
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
The elevation at which one habitat changes to another varies across the globe,
particularly by latitude. The upper limit of montane forests, the forest line or timberline,
is often marked by a change to hardier species that occur in less dense stands.
Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir are some of
the states where montane climate is observed
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All
Spoon billed sandpiper, Ganges shark, large tooth saw fish, hawksbill turtle are some of
the critically endangered species.
Red panda which is found in the state of Sikkim is endangered
Click here
Q.19) Global investment trend monitor report is released by which of the following
international organisations United nation conference on trade and development
a)
b)
c)
d)
WTO
UNCTAD
IMF
ADB
UNCTAD, which is governed by its 194 member States, is the United Nations
body responsible for dealing with development issues, particularly international
trade the main driver of development
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
1 only
2 only
Both
None
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established as a pilot programme for
environmental protection. The current project cycle is GEF-6 over the years 2014-18. In
1992, when the Biodiversity and Climate Change Conventions were adopted at Rio de
Janeiro, the GEF was adopted as a financial mechanism for helping developing countries
meet their financing needs for achieving their climate change goals. As of November
2015, the GEF has directly invested a total of US$14.5 billion in 3946 projects in 167
countries, out of which US$4.2 billion is in 1010 projects for climate change mitigation.
Till date, India has received US$516.6 million of GEF grant, of which US$324.69 million is
for climate change mitigation projects while US$10 million is for climate change
adaptation projects.
The GCF was established as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the
UNFCCC in 2011 and is expected to be a major channel for climate finance from
developed to developing countries.
Source Economic survey
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.21) Which of the following are the views of the Orientalists, in regard to strengthen the
hold of British rule in India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
The British devised several strategies to make their rule effective. The early British
administrators in India like Warren Hastings, William Jones, Jonathan Duncan and others
glorified Indias ancient past (romanticizing of India). These scholars and administrators
were called Orientalists.
They thought that a better understanding of Indian languages, literature and culture would
make it easier for them to rule India.
The first orientalists were 19th century scholars who translated the writings of the orient
into English, based on the assumption that a truly effective colonial conquest required
knowledge of the conquered peoples. By knowing the orient, the west came to own it. The
orient became the studied, the seen, the observed, and the object.
William Jones (17461794), the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, who, with his vast
knowledge of Oriental peoples was the undisputed founder of scholarly Orientalism.
Most Orientalists had a kind of dual purpose of improving the quality of life of Indian
peoples and advancing arts and knowledge back in the heart of the Empire.
It should be noted here that the Orientalists never tried to bring reforms imposed from
outside nor wanted immediate change. They wanted to strengthen their hold by brining
gradual change without any force or violent means.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Q.22) Which of the following initiatives were the ones which worked on the idea of a
common political organisation for the whole India?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Self-explanatory. Except, the Madras Mahajana Sabha, all other initiatives worked on the
idea of a common political organization for the whole India
Madras Mahajana Sabha was considered to be a unique and holy organization which has
paved the way for India's national freedom by the South Indians.
Q.23) The moderate leaders political outlook was a happy combination of liberalism and
moderation. And hence they worked to procure for Indian:
1.
2.
3.
4.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.24) Which of the following were the beliefs of revolutionaries, in regard to Indian national
movements?
1. The alien rule was destructive of all that is worthwhile in national life political liberties,
religious freedom, morality and culture.
2. The Western imperialism could only be ended by Western method of violence
Select the correct answer from the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both are correct
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
The Revolutionary movement for Indian independence is a part of the Indian independence
movement comprising the actions of the underground revolutionary factions.
Groups believing in armed revolution against the ruling British fall into this category, as
opposed to the generally peaceful civil disobedience movement spearheaded by Mohandas
Karamchand Gandhi.
The revolutionaries doubted the efficacy of peaceful methods and stressed the need of
forceful constitutional agitations.
Both the given statements are correct
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 31]
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both are correct
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
INC was under the control of the Moderates after the Surat Split of 1907
When the 1st World War broke out in 1914, INC was dominated by Moderates and
Extremists had lost their influence or control.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Q.1) The script of Indus Valley civilization is considered to be the oldest script of the Indian
Sub continent. Which of the following statements are correct about this script?
1. Despite the efforts of linguists and symbologists, it is yet undeciphered.
2. The script is written in Boustrophedon fashion.
3. Square stamp seals are the dominant form of Indus writing media.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.2) Which of the following statements are correct about the town planning of Indus Valley
Civilisation?
1. The towns had well laid covered drains and houses had toilets.
2. Bricks were used for the first time in the history by habitants of Indus Valley civilization.
3. All houses were single storied and with standard size showing equal economic status of
everyone.
4. Proper granaries were built to store surplus grains.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 4
1 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Houses were both single storied and multi-storied showing different economic status of people.
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Wealth was owned in terms of cattle and not land.
Horse riding was introduced in India by Kushans. Before them only chariots were used.
Q.5) Out of Six Astikas of Hindu philosophy, which of the following is the oldest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Mimansa
Sankhya
Vedanta
Nyaya
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 3
2 and 4
1,3 and 4
None of the above
Q.7) Current the Hindu calendar that is being used is modified Shaka Samvat- Saka calendar.
Consider the following statements:
1. Saka era was started by Kanishka in AD 78.
2. Kanishka was the founder of Saka dynasty in India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.8) Which of the following Tamil Sangam literary piece of art are correctly matched with
their content:
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
1.
2.
3.
4.
Thirukullar
Tolakappiam
Ettutukai
Silappadikkaram
2 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
right faith
right knowledge
right conduct.
1 only
1 and 2
All of the above
None of the above
Q.11) Many new creeds and faiths emerged in the 6th century BC against the contemporary
Brahmanical society. One of the most staunch amongst them was the Ajivika Sect. Which of
the following statements are correct about the Ajivikas?
1. Ajivika was one of the Nastika school of Indian philosophy.
2. It was founded by Makkhali Gosala.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
3. Ajivikas do not believe in Karma philosophy and believe that whatever happens is
preordained by the cosmic order.
4. Bindusara was a follower of Ajivika Sect.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 4
2 and 3
1,3 and 4
All of the above
Q.12) Milind or Menander-I was one of the most famous Indo-Bactrian King. The most
important source of information about him is Milind Panho written by Nagasena.
Which of the following statements about Milind Panho are correct?
1. It contains religious dialogues of Milind with a Buddhist monk.
2. It is written in Sanskrit.
Select the code from the following:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the society in Chola kingdom:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1,2 and 3
1,3 and 4
2,3 and 4
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Q.15) Which of the following inscription provide detailed information about the formation
and functioning of village assemblies during Chola period?
a) Tanjore Inscription
b) Mammalapuram inscription
c) Uttiramerur Inscription
d) Gangaikondacholapuram inscription
Q.15) Solution (c)
The system of village autonomy with sabhas and their committees developed through the ages
and reached its culmination during the Chola rule. Two inscriptions belonging to the period of
Parantaka I found at Uttiramerur provide details of the formation and functions of village
councils. That village was divided into thirty wards and each was to nominate its members to
the village council.
The qualifications to become a ward member were:
a. Ownership of at least one fourth veli of land.
b. Own residence.
c. Above thirty years and below seventy years of age.
d. Knowledge of Vedas.
However, certain norms of disqualification were also mentioned in the inscriptions. They
were:
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
a. Those who had been members of the committees for the past three years.
b. Those who had failed to submit accounts as committee members.
c. Those who had committed sins.
d. Those who had stolen the property of others.
From the persons duly nominated, one was to be chosen for each ward by kudavolai system for
a year. The names of eligible persons were written on palm-leaves and put into a pot. A young
boy or girl would take out thirty names each for one ward. They were divided into six variyams
such as samvatsaravariyam, erivariyam, thotta variyam, pancha variyam, pon variyam and
puravuvari variyam to take up six different functions of the village administration. The
committee members were called variyapperumakkal. They usually met in the temple or under a
tree and passed resolutions. The number of committees and ward members varied from village
to village.
Q.16) Palmyra, the ancient city was recently in news. In which of the following countries is it
located?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Syria
Iraq
Saudi Arabia
Israel
IMF
WTO
World Bank
US Chamber of Commerce
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.19) Shishu, Kishore, Tarun are terms associated with which of the following government of
India scheme
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q.20) Global financial literacy survey is a report released by which of the following
organization?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
a)
b)
c)
d)
WTO
IMF
ADB
S&P rating services
UNDP
UNICEF
IMF
ILO
It is released by UNDP
Click here
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to Bilateral Totalization Agreement
(BTA)
1. It ensures that the tax charged for the exclusive purpose of social security in one
country is excluded from taxation
2. India has a BTA with USA but not Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)
3. USA has a BTA with only two Asian countries Japan and South Korea
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
1 and 2
1 and 3
Only 3
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Q.23) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List I
A.
B.
C.
D.
List II
1. Good Governance Day
2. Antyodaya Diwas
3. National Unity Day
A-B-C-D
a)
b)
c)
d)
1-( )-3-2
3-2-1-( )
( )-3-2-1
2-3-( )-1
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Diwas
Atal Bihari Vajpayee Good Governance Day
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to Rat Hole Mining.
1. It is mainly used for iron ore and coal mining in India
2. It is more prevalent in the state of Jharkhand
3. National Green Tribunal has issued a blanket ban on Rat Hole Mining
Which of the statements is/are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 2
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
Q.25) Which of the following statements is not true about Mural Painting?
1) Murals are large works executed on the walls of solid structure
2) Murals are mainly found in natural caves and rock-cut chambers
3) Themes of Murals - Buddhist, Jain and Hindu religions
Select the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Q.26) The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bindusara
Ashoka
Kunal
Kanishka
Q.27) Which of the following statement is/are correct about archaeological survey of India?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
1) ASI is responsible for the maintenance, restoration and discovery of ancient monument,
archeological site, horticulture site and museums.
2) Archeological and historical pursuits in India started with the effort of Charles Wilkins.
3) ASI is also responsible for epigraphical and numismatic study.
4) It is also responsible for archeological expedition outside India.
Select the appropriate code:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
Al of the above
Archaeological and historical pursuits in India started with the efforts of Sir William Jones,
who put together a group of antiquarians to form the Asiatic Society on 15th January 1784
in Calcutta.
Rest all statements are correct with regard to ASIs functions.
1 only
2 only
None
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
Q.28) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Factual question self explanatory
Excerpt from The Hindu article
Mundaka Upanishad
Maho Upanishad
Brihadaranyako Upanishad
Kena Upanishad
1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 32]
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
Q.2) The GST Council will be the body that decides which taxes levied by the Centre,
States and local bodies will go into the GST. Who among the following are members of
GST Council?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
1. The designated banks will accept gold deposits under the Short Term (1-3 years)
Bank Deposit as well as Medium (5-7 years) and Long (12-15 years) Term
Government Deposit Schemes.
2. Both principal and interest to be paid to the depositors of gold, will be valued in
gold.
3. Customer will have the choice to take cash or gold on redemption, but the
preference has to be stated at the time of deposit.
4. The interest rate is decided by the banks concerned.
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
Q.4) Which of following qualify as measures taken to curb tax evasion and black money by
government?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
All the above are right and crucial measures taken up by the government in last 2 financial
years. Place of Effective Management Rule may be raising eyebrows. So let us understand it.
http://www2.deloitte.com/in/en/pages/tax/articles/place-of-effective-management.html
Q.5) Consider the following.
1. Controller General of Accounts is part of Department of Revenue and prepares the
appropriation bill.
2. CGA is head of Indian Civil Accounts Service and administers it.
Select the correct answer:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Q.8) Solution (c)
Non plan expenditure is not a constitutional term. Rest should be self explainatory.
Further reading: http://pib.nic.in/budget2015/book/Budgetary.pdf
Q.9) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t Ways and Means Advances (WMAs)?
a) RBI provides 2 types of WMAs to state governments one with and another without
collaterals.
b) WMAs given by RBI to government of India do not require any collateral.
c) Replacement of adhoc bills with WMAs represents an advance in fiscal discipline and
harmonization of fiscal and monetary policies.
d) WMAs are made at Repo rate.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
Financial stability means financial institutions individually and collectively are being able to
deliver their functions properly, withstanding external shocks and avoiding internal
weaknesses. India Financial Stability Report published by the Reserve Bank of India (March
2010), defines financial stability: From a macro prudential perspective, financial stability
could be defined as a situation in which the financial sector provides critical services to the
real economy without any discontinuity.
During the time of the global financial crisis, RBI has made many unconventional measures
to protect the banking system. Liquidity support was provided abundantly so that no banks
should face stress. The RBI since 2010 is publishing India Financial Stability Report to assess
financial stability scenario in the country. Financial stability is now one of the three
important objectives of monetary policy besides price stability and credit support.
Q.13) Volume two of Economic Survey talks about a Chakravyuh problem of Indian
economy. Which of the following does Chakravyuh refers to?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 3
None of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
Q.15) SARFAESI Act refers to Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002. Banks utilize this act as an effective tool for
bad loans (NPA) recovery. Which of the following statements are correct about this act?
1. Upon loan default, banks can seize the securities (except agricultural land) without
intervention of the court.
2. Court intervention is not required only in case of secured loans where bank can
enforce the underlying security eg hypothecation, pledge and mortgages.
3. If the asset in question is an unsecured asset, the bank would have to move the
court to file civil case against the defaulters.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
1. Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in governments tax
revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
2. When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate
Select the code from below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.17) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pigovian Tax?
1. A Pigovian tax is a tax levied on any market activity that generates negative
externalities.
2. It is often levied on companies that pollute the environment or create excess social
costs.
3. A type of a Pigovian tax is a "sin tax", which is a special tax on tobacco products and
alcohol.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
A Pigovian tax is a special tax that is often levied on companies that pollute the environment
or create excess social costs, called negative externalities, through business practices. In a
true market economy, a Pigovian tax is the most efficient and effective way to correct
negative externalities.
A type of a Pigovian tax is a "sin tax", which is a special tax on tobacco products and alcohol.
Q.18) NITI Aayog has replaced the older planning commission. Which of the following
points differentiates NITI aayog from Planning Commission?
1. NITI Aayog is an advisory body while Planning Commissions recommendations were
binding.
2. State representatives were not there in Planning Commission while NITI Aayog has
included Chief Ministers of all states as well as administrators of UTs.
3. The provision of regional council is there in Niti Ayog to address local / regional
development issues.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding subsidies in current fiscal year:
1. Subsidies on food, fertiliser and petroleum have been pegged higher by over 4 per
cent.
2. The deregulation of diesel price, along with the introduction of direct benefit
(subsidy) transfer into the bank accounts of domestic LPG consumers, coupled with a
sharp decline in global crude oil prices has helped containing the petroleum subsidy
bill.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.20) Which of the following statement are the recommendation of Tax Administration
Reforms Commission?
1. A minimum of 10% of the tax administrations budget must be spent on taxpayer
services.
2. Pre-filled tax returns should be provided to all individuals. The taxpayer will have
the option of accepting the tax return or modifying it.
3. CBDT and CBEC should be fully integrated under Central Board of Direct and Indirect
Taxes.
4. The Permanent Account Number (PAN) should be developed as a Common Business
Identification Number (CBIN), to be used by other departments such as customs,
excise, etc.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,3 and 4
3 and 4
1,2 and 3
All of the above
There should be a separate vertical for delivery of taxpayer services in each Board. A
minimum of 10% of the tax administrations budget must be spent on taxpayer
services.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
Pre-filled tax returns should be provided to all individuals. The taxpayer will have
the option of accepting the tax return or modifying it.
CBDT and CBEC should be fully integrated in 10 years. Within the next 5 years, they
should move towards a unified management structure under the Central Board of
Direct and Indirect Taxes.
The post of Revenue Secretary should be abolished and its functions should be
assigned to the two Boards. A Governing Council to oversee the working of the two
Boards, and a Tax Council to suggest policy and legislation should be set up.
The Central Vigilance Commission should have a Member who has been an IRS
officer. The policy of not taking cognizance of anonymous complaints should be
strictly followed.
Both Boards should start a special drive for review and liquidation of cases currently
clogging the system by setting up dedicated task forces.
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
1. In Cryogenic engine its fuel or oxidizer (or both) are gases liquefied and are stored at
very low temperatures.
2. Combination of liquid hydrogen (LH2) fuel and the liquid oxygen (LOX) oxidizer is one
of the most widely used fuels in the rocket
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
1 &3 only
1&2 only
2&3 only
All
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
The PSLV is one of world's most reliable launch vehicles. It has been in service for
over twenty years and has launched various satellites for historic missions like
Chandrayaan-1, Mars Orbiter Mission, Space Capsule Recovery Experiment, Indian
Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) etc. PSLV remains a favourite among
various organisations as a launch service provider and has launched over 40 satellites
for 19 countries. In 2008 it created a record for most number of satellites placed in
orbit in one launch by launching 10 satellites into various Low Earth Orbits.
Click here
Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to IRNSS (Indian regional navigation
satellite system)
1. It provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region
extending up to 1500 km from its boundary
2. IRNSS will provide two types of services namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS)
and Restricted Service (RS) to all users
Select the correct answer
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Restricted area service is for military and other defence related purposes
IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by
India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India
as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary
service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area
enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30
deg East to 130 deg East.
IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS)
which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted
service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to
provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Click here
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 33]
Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to ISRO (Indian space research
organisation)
1. ISRO is the space agency of the Indian government headquartered at Sri Hari Kota
2. "Space technology in the Service of humankind." is the motto of ISRO
Select the correct option
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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Q.2) In 2012 SEBI brought out regulations for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). Which of
the following is incorrect?
1. Category I AIFs are those who invest in start-ups or early stage ventures or social
ventures that government considers socially or economically viable.
2. Category II AIFs are those funds are allowed to invest anywhere in any combination, but
cannot take debts, except for day-to-day operation purposes.
3. Category III AIFs are funds that make short-term investments and then sell, like hedge
funds, come under this.
4. Union Budget 2015-16 tax pass through has been given for all 3 categories.
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1. SAT consists of a presiding officer who is a deputy governor of RBI concerned with
money market and capital market.
2. SAT operates under Civil Procedure Code 1908.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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Q.4) Which of the following are part of the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
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The Board may co-opt other Secretaries to the Government of India and officials of financial
institutions, banks and professional experts in industry and commerce, when required. The
Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry of Small, Medium and Micro Enterprises and the
Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Revenue have been co-opted on the
Board.
1. Lottery business
2. Business of Chit funds.
3. Nidhi Company
4. Manufacturing of Cigars, Cheroots and cigarettes of tobacco
5. Gambling and betting.
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Chit funds
Activities / sectors not open to private sector investment e.g. Atomic Energy and
Railway Transport (other than construction, operation and maintenance of
(i) Suburban corridor projects through PPP,
(ii) High speed train projects,
(iii) Dedicated freight lines,
(iv) Rolling stock including train sets, and locomotives/coaches manufacturing and
maintenance facilities,
(v) Railway Electrification,
(vi) Signaling systems,
(vii) Freight terminals,
(viii) Passenger terminals,
(ix) Infrastructure in industrial park pertaining to railway line/sidings including electrified
railway lines and connectivities to main railway line and
(x) Mass Rapid Transport Systems.)
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a) The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), presently is housed in the Department
of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, is an inter-ministerial body.
b) The FIPB was initially constituted under the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) in the wake of
the economic liberalization drive of the early 1990s.
c) The Board was reconstituted in 1996 with transfer of the FIPB to DIPP
d) The approval limit for FIPB is Rs. 2000crore beyond which it needs approval of Union
Cabinet.
Q.7) Which of the following is correct about National Investment and Infrastructure Fund
(NIIF)?
a) NIIF was set up as a NBFC, to raise debt to invest in the equity of infrastructure finance
companies such as Indian Rail Finance Corporation (IRFC) and National Housing Bank
(NHB).
b) The objective of NIIF would be to maximize economic impact mainly through
infrastructure development in commercially viable projects, only greenfield and not
brownfield, but including stalled projects.
c) The NIIF will be established as one or more Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) under the
SEBI Regulations.
d) The Government had approved the creation of NIIF with the aim to attract investment
from international sources and not domestic for maximizing economic impact.
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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reading:
http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/accounting/buy-back-shares/buy-back-
shares-meaning-reasons-aspects-and-other-details/62687/
Q.9) Recently, the market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) barred 13
entities from the securities market for five years. They were accused of manipulating Global
Depository Receipts (GDRs) issued by Indian companies. Which of the following are correct
about GDRs?
1. Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) is a mechanism which allows one to buy and sell
shares of a foreign company without having to bother about opening a foreign
brokerage account.
2. Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) is a mechanism which allows one to buy and sell
shares of a foreign company without having to bother about opening a foreign
brokerage account.
3. GDRs are usually backed by sovereign governments of that country that provide
companies, investors and traders opportunities to make global investments.
4. Countrys prone to political unrest or geopolitical conflicts can severely impact the
valuations of a company, resulting in GDR valuations losses for an investor who may
have been betting on that particular company.
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reading:
https://in.finance.yahoo.com/news/all-you-need-to-know-about-global-
depository-receipts-043746355.html
1. "P-notes," are financial instruments used by investors or hedge funds that are not
registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to invest in Indian
securities.
2. India has permitted P Notes recently under the expert suggestion of top economist
Subramaniam Swamy who considers P Notes will bring back all black money stashed
away.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.12) Gilt-Edged securities are the most sought after type securities. Which of the following
statements are correct about Gilt-Edged securities?
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.13) Indian companies are allowed to access global finance market and benefit from the
lower cost of funds. They have been permitted to raise resources through which of the
following means?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1 and 2
3 and 4
1,2 and 4
All of the above
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Q.14) Buy Back of shares is a method of financial engineering. It is process which enables the
company to go back to its share holders and offer to purchase the shares by them. Which of
the following statements are correct about the process of buy-back of shares?
1. When a company faces a cash crunch it buys back its shares.
2. Buy Back is used as a defence mechanism when there is a threat of corporate takeover.
It provides a safeguard against hostile takeover by increasing promoters holding.
3. Buy Back can divert away the companys funds from productive investments.
4. A company can buy its shares every year with subject to the satisfaction of other
conditions like debt-equity ratio, limits of buy back etc.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
1,3 and 4
All of the above
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Q.15) A Commercial Paper is an important instrument in the money market. Which of the
following statements are correct about Commercial Papers?
1. Commercial paper is an unsecured, short-term debt instrument issued by a corporation,
typically for the financing of accounts receivable, inventories and meeting short-term
liabilities.
2. Commercial papers are usually sold at a discount from the face value.
3. It is not backed by collateral, only firms with excellent credit ratings from a recognized
credit rating agency will be able to sell their commercial paper at a reasonable price.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.16) Which of the following statements regarding Certificate of Deposits are correct?
1. Whenever a big corporation wants to open an account in RBI, it needs to take a prior
permission from the Governor. After assessing the performance of the company and its
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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.17) SEBI has established a Foreign Portfolio Investor Regulatory Framework. Which of the
following statements are correct about FPIs according to this framework?
1. All existing Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and QFIs are to be merged into one
category called FPI.
2. An applicant desirous of FPI registration should not be a resident in India or a NonResident Indian.
3. FPI registration is to be undertaken and granted by Designated Depository Participants
(DDPs) on behalf of SEBI.
4. The registration of FPI is temporary and has to be renewed yearly.
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Treasury bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government of India.
Treasury bills are issued through auctions and for a period of 91 days only.
State governments are also allowed to issue Treasury bills.
Treasury bills are available for a minimum amount of 1 lakh and then in multiples of
25000.
1 only
2,3 and 4
1,2 and 3
None of the above
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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 Only
All
Q.2) TERAHERTZ imaging has recently attracted attention for its ability to see through
everyday objects. It exists between
a) Microwave and Radio waves wavelengths
b) Radio waves and Infrared wavelengths
c) Microwaves and Infrared wavelengths
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
Q.3) There is a decline in the population of pollinators as per recent research and findings.
What could be the possible reasons for this?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Use of pathogens
Use of street lights
Air pollution
Misuse of pesticides
Change in seasonal behaviour due to global warming
1, 2, 4 and 5
1, 3, 4 and 5
1, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
a)
b)
c)
d)
Seeds
Invasive Species
Drugs
Microchips
http://www.frontline.in/science-and-technology/seed-time-
Q.5) 3D Printing has gained lot of attention in recent times. Consider the following
statements regarding 3D Printing
1. 3D printing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from anything
2. It is also known as Additive Manufacturing (AM)
3. 3D printing can create in a wide range of materials that include thermoplastics,
thermoplastic composites, pure metals, metal alloys, ceramics and various forms of
food.
Select the incorrect code
a)
b)
c)
d)
Only 1
Only 2
2 and 3
1 and 2
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
Q.6) Pick the odd one out in regard to its stem type:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bamboo
Sugar cane
Corn
Banana
Q.7) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
List I
Magnetic Flux
Magnetic Induction
Luminous intensity
Electric Charge
Inductance
List II
1. Tesla
2. Candela
3. Coulomb
4. Weber
5. Henry
A-B-C-D-E
a) 4-3-5-2-1
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
b) 4-1-2-3-5
c) 1-4-2-3-5
d) 1-4-2-5-3
Magnetic Flux
Magnetic Induction
Luminous intensity
Electric Charge
Inductance
1. Weber
2. Tesla
3. Candela
4. Coulomb
5. Henry
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2 only
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
Project Loon the project of Google to provide network connection in rural and remote
areas where network connection is not available.
Facebook is going to start a similar project, where it will be using drones rather than helium
balloons.
Q.12) The use of nanobots in healthcare, a fictional theory, is a reality now. Consider the
following statements:
1. Nanobots are tiny robots that can be directly injected in the blood stream and act
like white blood cells and destroy bacteria and other pathogen.
2. Nanobots will have their own sensors and propulsion system.
3. They can be used to deliver targeted medicine with minimum side effect.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of the above
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
These miniature robots would function like their full-size equivalents with their own
sensors, and propulsion systems and could perform small tasks like delivering chemotherapy
1000 times more powerful than using drugs and would not cause as many side-effects to
patients like the current treatments do.
Other specific types of nanobots that are being developed are Microbivore, Respirocyte,
Clottocyte, and Cellular repair nanobots that can destroy bacteria, carry oxygen, create
blood clots for wounds, and repair cells.
Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding Impacting Research Innovation and
Technology (IMPRINT) Project?
1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Human Resource Development and Pan IIT + IISc.
2. The project aims at finding engineering and scientific solutions to major social and
developmental needs like healthcare, energy, ICT, sustainable habitat etc.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14) India will be getting its first Bullet Train from a Spanish Company called Taglo. The
company is globally known for faster and lighter trains. Consider the following
statements:
1. The train will be tested on Delhi-Mumbai Railway line.
2. It can be run at a speed of around 300 km/hr without any significant upgrade of
railway tracks.
3. Currently the fastest train of India is Gatiman Express which runs between Delhi and
Agra.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.15) C. V. Raman, was the first Indian Scientist to receive a Nobel Price. He published his
theory on the Raman Effect in 1928. Raman Effect is associated with which of the
following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Scattering of light
Total internal reflection
Atomic structure
Semi-conductors
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above
Q.17) Early Career Research Award scheme aims to provide quick research support to the
young researchers who are in their early career for pursuing exciting and innovative
research in frontier areas of science and engineering. Consider the following statements
regarding this scheme:
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1. The research grant is 50 Lakhs, including overhead charges for travelling, manpower,
research equipment etc.
2. The award is given in three installments for three years.
3. The award is only for Indian citizens.
Which of the above statements regarding the scheme are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2
3 only
1 and 3
None of the above
The Early Career Research for the purpose of the program refers to the first
assignment of the applicant in a regular capacity in a recognized academic institution
or national laboratory or any other recognized R & D institution in India.
The Early Career Research Award is a one-time award and carries a research grant up
to Rs. 50 Lakhs (excluding overheads) for a period of three years.
The research grant covers equipment, manpower, consumables, manpower, travel
and contingency apart from overheads.
Eligibility :
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1 and 2
1,2 and 3
2,3 and 4
All of the above
Diamond
Graphite
Graphene
Charcoal
2 and 3
1 and 2
3 and 4
2 only
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
2. Rustom II is a fully featured, Combat capable drone built on the lines of US predator
drones.
Select the code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Q.22) 38th parallel is found between which of the following two countries
a) North Korea and South Korea
b) South Korea and China
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
1 only
2 only
Both
None
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IASbaba 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 35]
d) None
Click here
1 only
2 only
Both
None
Rajiv Rinn Yojana (RRY) is an instrument to address the housing needs of the
EWS/LIG segments in urban areas, through enhanced credit flow. It is also
formulated to channelize institutional credit to the poorer segments of the society
and increasing home ownership in the country along with addressing housing
shortage. RRY has been formulated by modifying the Interest Subsidy Scheme for
Housing the Urban Poor (ISHUP) piloted in the 11th Plan period with enhanced scope
and coverage. RRY is a Central Sector Scheme applicable in all the urban areas of the
Country.
Click here
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