NARAYANA MEDICAL ACADEMY, A.P.

LT-BIPC-CO-SPARK

Date: 21-12-2013

TIME: 3 HRS

EAMCET

Max. Marks: 160M

BOTANY
1.

Find the incorrect statement from the following

1) Phosphorous, Sulphur, Nitrogen and potassium are most readily mobilized
elements
2) Older dying leaves export much of their mineral content to younger leaves
3) The movement in phloem is bidirectional and the movement in Xylem is always
unidirectional
4) Xylem transports only inorganic nutrients while phloem transports only organic

2.

materials
A simple experiment conducted to identify that food is transported through
phloe is
1) Girdling

3.

2) Capillary sponge experiment

3) Mass flow by Munch

4) Cobalt chloride method
Find the set of beneficial non essential elements required by higher plants
1) Potassium, Silicon, Cobalt, Nickel
2) Sodium, Zinc, Calcium, Selenium
3) Selenium, Silicon, Sulphur, Cobalt

4.

4) Cobalt, Silicon, Selnium, Sodium

Mg2+ is an activator for
I) Nitrogenase

5.

II) PEP case

III) Alcohol dehydragenase

1) I & II
2) II & III
3) II & IV
Find the feature not related to Nitrogen

IV) RUBISCO

4) III & IV

1) it is an essential mineral macronutrient

2) It is taken by the plants in both anionic and cationic form

3) It is absorbed mainly as NO3

6.

7.

4) It forms bridges which help in stabilizing protein structure

Identify the correct set of trace elements from the following
1) P, S, Fe, Mn, Cu

2) Ca, Mg, S, P, Zn

3) Fe, Mn, Mg, K, Ni

Match the following

4) Zn, Mo, B, Fe, Cu

List I

List II

A) Structural element

I) Phosphorous

B) Component of energy related chemicals

II) Potassium

C) Activate or inhibit enzymes

D) Can alter the osmotic potential
1)

A
III

B
IV

C
II

D
I

III) magnesium
IV) Nitrogen

8.

2)
IV
III
I
II
3)
I
II
III
IV
4)
IV
I
III
II
The essential macro mineral element that activate enzymes and also a
component of energy related chemical compound in plants is

9.

1) Potassium
2) Phosphorous
3) Nitrogen
4) Magnesium
A couple of elements involved in photolysis of water and a pair of elements
help to maintain anion cation balance in cells respectively are
1) Mn, Fe and K, Cl

2) K, Cl and Mo, Cl

10.

3) Mn, Cl and K, Mg
4) Mn, Cl and K, Cl
The element required for the uptake and utilization of Ca +2 is

11.

1) Chlorine
2) Nickel
Micronutrients are

3) Boron

4) Zinc

1) Less important than macronutrients

2) Play minor role in plant nutrition
3) Not essential to the plants grown in culture medium
12.

4) As important as macronutrients in plant life

Incorrect information regarding Nickel
1) 17th essential nutrient

13.

3) Activator for Urease

4) 10th macro nutrient recently added
The micronutrient which is reversibly oxidized during electron transport
I) Manganese

14.

2) 8th micronutrient

II) Iron

III) Zinc

IV) Copper

1) I & II
2) II & III
3) I & IV
4) II & IV
The element needed in the synthesis of auxin and activates various enzymes
is

15.

1) Manganese
2) Magnesium
3) Zinc
4) Boron
Assertion (A) : Carbon, Hydrogen and oxygen are non mineral essential
elements
Reason (R) : They are abundantly found in the atmosphere
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

16.

3) A is true and R is false

Match the following

4) Both A and R are false

Element

Component

A) Sulphur

I) Chlorophyll

B) Zinc

II) Nitrogenase

C) Magnesium

III) Methionine

D) Molybdenum

IV) Auxin

1)
2)
3)

A
I
III
II

B
II
IV
I

C
III
I
IV

D
IV
II
III

4)
17.

III
II
I
IV
Assertion (A) : Molybdenum is an essential micronutrient participate in
protein synthesis
Reason (R) : Molybdenum is a component of several enzymes including
nitrogenase and nitrate reductase
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

18.

19.

3) A is true and R is false

Potassium helps in

4) A is false and R is true

I) Anion cation balance in cells

II) Protein synthesis

III) Opening and closing of stomata

IV) Maintain turgidity of cells

1) Except II
2) Except IV
3) I & III
4) I, II, III & IV
The macro mineral element needed for the formation of mitotic spindle and
also used in the synthesis of cell wall is

20.

1) Nitrogen
2) Carbon
3) Calcium
4) Sulphur
The common aspect related to Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine is
1) Helps in cell division

21.

2) Helps in functioning of cell membranes

3) Anion cation balance in the cells 4) Helps in photolysis of water

Among the given pair of elements the former is the constituent of
chlorophyll and the later is essential for the synthesis of chlorophyll. Find
the correct pair

22.

1) Mn & Fe
2) Mg & Mn
3) Fe, Mg
Find the correct statement from the following

4) Mg & Fe

1) Nitrogen is the essential element abundantly found in the atmosphere and

available to plants in non mineral form
2) Sulphur is an essential micronutrient required to stabilize protein structure
3) Magnesium is an essential macro mineral element helps to maintain ribosome
structure
4) Phosphorous is required for the phosphorylation reactions of chloroplast but
23.

not in mitochondria
The concept of use of bacteria for therapeutic purposes and for the
betterment of human health is

24.

1) Antibiotics
2) Probiotics
Match the following

3) Prolife

List I

List II

A) Citric acid

I) Clostridium

B) Acetic acid

II) Acetobacter

C) Butyric acid

III) Aspergillus

D) Lactic acid

IV) Lactobacillus

1)

A
I

B
II

C
III

D
IV

4) All the above

25.

2)
III
I
IV
II
3)
III
II
I
IV
4)
IV
III
II
I
Alexander Fleming discovered pencillin while working on
1) Penicillium notatum

26.

2) Streptococci

3) Aspergillus
4) Staphylococci
Autoclaving of the medium used in tissue culture is done at
1) 15 lb pressure at 2200C temperature for 120 minutes
2) 121 lb pressure at 500C temperature for 15 minutes
3) 15 lb pressure at 1210C temperature for 50 minutes

27.

4) 15 lb pressure at 1210C temperature for 15 minutes

Caulogenesis is due to
1) More auxin than cytokinin

2) Gibberellins

28.

3) More cytokinin than auxin

4) Ethelene and ABA
In a virus infected Banana crop, the healthy progeny can be obtained through

29.

1) Suckers
2) Rhizome
3) Embryo culture
Correct match of the following is

4) Shoot tip culture

1) Shoot tip culture production of viral resistant plants

2) Soma clonal variations Variations due to gene recombinations
3) Micro propagation Propagation of dwarf plants
30.

4) Somatic hybridization Production of plants like pomato

Somatic embryos with one set of chromosomes can be obtained by culturing
1) Sexual embryos

31.

2) Endosperm cells

3) Shoot apical meristem

4) Pollen grains
Choose the correct statements regarding somatic hybridization
I) Protoplasts of different cells of the same plant are fused
II) Protoplasts of different varieties can be fused
III) Treatment of cells with cellulose and pectinase is needed
IV) The hybrid protoplast contain characters of one parent

32.

1) I & II
2) II & III
3) III & IV
4) I & IV
Assertion (A) : Virus free plants can be obtained through shoot tip culture
Reason (R) : Plants obtained through shoot tip culture are not resistant to
viruses
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

33.

3) A is true and R is false

4) A is false and R is true
The nutrient culture medium is a mixture of
I) Inorganic nutrients II) Amino acids

34.

III) vitamins

IV) Sucrose

1) I & II
2) II & IV
3) II, III & IV
4) I, II, III & IV
Assertion (A) : Sterilization of culture medium is essential during tissue
culture
Reason (R) : Sterilization of the medium after the inoculation of explant is

advantageous and time saving

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
35.

3) A is true and R is false

Micropropagation is useful

4) A is false and R is true

I) To generate somaclonal variations which are exploited for crop

improvement
II) To multiply genetically uniform population
III) To produce homozygous pure lines
IV) To generate distant hybrids
36.

1) I & III
2) I & II
3) II & III
4) III & IV
Identify the correct sequence of events involved in tissue culture
experiments
A) Preparation of explant

B) Incubation for growth

C) Preparation of nutrient culture medium

D) Inoculation of explant

E) Sterilization of nutrient medium

37.

1) C A D E B
2) C E A D B
3) A C D E B
4) A C E B D
The puffed up appearance of fermented dough is due to the production of

38.

1) Ethanol
2) Lactic acid
3) O2
4) CO2
The bacterium that cause the formation of large holes in swiss cheese is
1) Pencillium roqueforti

39.

2) Acetobacter acetii

3) Propionibacterium shermanii
4) Brevibacterium glutamicum
Assertion (A) : Saccharomyces is commonly called brewers yeast
Reason (R) : It is used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

40.

3) A is true and R is false

4) A is false and R is true
Find the beverages produced without distillation of the fermented broth
1) Whisky

2) Rum

3) Wine

4) All the above

ZOOLOGY
41.

42.

43.

The thick double layered connective tissue membrane that protects human
brain is
1) Arachnoid
2) Dura mater
3) Corpus callosum
4) Pia mater
Which of the following is/are not a part/parts made of myelinated fibres
a) Corpus callossum
b) Arbor vitae
c) Funiculi
d) The part that surrounds central canal
1) all except a and d
2) all except a
3) all except a,b and c
4) all except a and b
Which one of the following is wrong about human being
1) Prosencephalon is concerned with the integration of the activities of ANS
2) Sexual behavior and expression of emotional reactions are regulated by limbic

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

system along with hypothalamus

3) The major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is the major
part of human brain
4) Damaged largest part of rhombencephalon would result in ataxia
The little brain in human is the
1) tree of life
2) gyroscope of the body
3) largest part of the brain
4) relay station between spinal cord and cerebellum
The part of human brain having pneumotaxic centre is
A) With nerve fibres which form a bridge between cerebral hemispheres
B) Located above the medulla oblongata below the mesencephalon
C) Located above the mid brain in front of the little brain
1) A is true, B and C are wrong
2) B and C are true, A is wrong
3) A and B are true, C is wrong
4) A and C are wrong, B is true
Which of the following parts of mesencephalon in man are with auditory and
visual functions respectively
1) Superior and inferior colliculi
2) Dorsal and ventral funiculi
3) Inferior and superior colliculi
4) Ventral and dorsal funiculi
The number of anterior and posterior lobes in the cerebellum of man is
1) 2 and 2 respectively
2) 3 and 3 respectively
3) 1 and 1 respectively
4) 2 and 1 respectively
The number of ventral longitudinal bands of nervous tissue that connect
cerebral hemispheres with pons varolii in human brain is
1) 1
2) 4
3) 3
4) 2
Match the following correctly
List I
List II
A) Satiety centre
I) Limbic systems
B) Cardio vascular centre
II) Cerebellum
C) Coordination of voluntary muscle movements III) Hypothalamus
D) Expression of emotional reactions
IV) Medulla oblongata
A
B
C
D
1)
II
I
IV
III
2)
III
II
IV
I
3)
IV
III
I
II
4)
III
IV
II
I
The cell bodies are concentrated in which of the following
1) Colossal commissure and H shaped part of spinal cord
2) Cerebral penduncles and Funiculi
3) Arbor vitae and crura cerebri
4) Butterfly shaped part of spinal cord and cerebral cortex
The inter ventricular opening/s of human brain
1) are two in number and they connect diocoel with myelocoel
2) is one in number and it connects myelocoel and paracoel
3) are two in number and they connect paracoels with diocoel
4) is one in number and it connects diocoel and myelocoel
The non nervous part of the thalamencephalon fused with the innermost
menix of the human brain is

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

1) pineal body
2) anterior choroid plexus
3) posterior choroid plexus
4) crus cerebrum
Assertion (A) : Hypothalamus is thermostat of the body
Reason (R): Hypothalamus has feeding centre
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are false
Fissures and sulci of human brain respectively are
1) Shallower and deepest grooves between folds of the surface of the cerebral
cortex.
2) The deepest and shallower folds of the gyri of the cerebral cortex
3) Shallower and the deepest folds of the grooves of the cerebral cortex
4) Deepest and shallower grooves between the gyri of cerebral cortex
The tapering portion of the spinal cord (inferior to the lumbar enlargement)
that ends at the level of the inter vertebral disc between the first and the
second lumbar vertebrae in the adult man is
1) Filum terminale
2) Colossal commissure
3) conus medullaris
4) Cauda equina
Study the following
A) Proliferation of follicular granulosa cells to form yellow body
B) Formation of corona radiata
C) Formation of primordial follicle
D) Formation of zona pellucida
E) Proliferationof cuboidal cells
F) Formation of primary follicle G) Elevated levels of progesterone
H) Release of secondary oocyte from ovary
Arrange the above events in correct sequence towards ovulation/post
ovulation consequences
1) FCED HAGB
2) FECDGBAH
3) CFEDBAGH
4)CEFDBHAG
Usually the period of post fertilization existence of the corpus luteum is
1) 14 days
2) from 3 to 4 months 3) from 5 to 6 months 4) 30 days
The formation of gametes takes place during
1) Menopause
2) Reproductive period 3) Ovulation
4) Implantation
The ovarian cycle in human female ends with the
1) Begining of ovarian follicle
2) Degeneration of corpusluteum
3) Beginning of yellow body
4) Deterioration of ovum
The voluntary activities of tongue in man are controlled by
1) Pathetic nerve
2) Abducens nerve
3) Occulo motor nerve
4) Hypoglossal nerve
Match the following correctly
List I
List II
A) Association areas
I) Shock absorber
B) Spinal cord
II) Middle man between the receptors and effectors
C) CSF
III) Connects two cerebral hemispheres
D) Corpus callosum
IV) More complex integrative functions such as

memory and communications

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

A
B
C
D
1)
I
IV
III
II
2)
III
I
II
IV
3)
IV
II
I
III
4)
II
I
III
IV
Number of spinal cervical nerves in man are
1) 12 pairs
2) 14 pairs
3) 7 pairs
4) 8 pairs
Occulomotor nerve of man is ....... cranial nerve
1) 3rd
2) 4th
3) 5th
4) 8th
The motor fibres of Vagus nerve in man arise from
1) diencephalon
2) Medulla
3) Pons
4) Mid brain
The dorsal portion of midbrain of man consists of
1) Corporaquadrigemina
2) Vermis
3) Crura cerebri
4) Pons
In human female, if menarche and menopause occur at the ages of 12 years
and 51 years respectively, the number of ovulations that she, probably,
would have in her healthy reproductive life is
1. More than 600 and less than 1000
2. More than 100 and Less than 200
3. More than 400 and Less than 500
4. More than 1000
Spot the correct combination (s) among the following :
Nerve
Nature
Origin
I)
Abducens
Motor
Lateral rectus muscle of the eye ball
II)
Spinal accessory
Motor
Medulla
III) Optic
Sensory
Optic chiasma
IV) Trochlear
Motor
Superior rectus muscles of the eye ball
1) all except II
2) all except II and III
3) all except IV
4) all except I, III and IV
The nerves that form Cauda equina in man are
1) Coccygeal spinal nerves only
2) Lumbar, sacral, coccygeal spinal nerves
3) Filum terminale and sciatic plexus
4) Thoracic and Lumbar spinal nerves
Identify the correct option pertaining to the number of spinal nerves in various
regions of the body of human being from the following (C = cervical, T = thoracic, L =
lumbar, S = sacral, Cd = coccygeal )
1) T > S < L > C > Cd
2) S > Cd > L = T > C
3) T > C > L = S > Cd
4) T > Cd > L > C=S
Cranial nerves innervating the muscles of eyeball of man from the following
are
1) Optic, occulomotor and pathetic nerves 2) Occulomotor, optic and trigeminal
3) Occulomotor, pathetic and abduscens 4) Pathetic, trigeminal and optic
Following are the statements about spinal cord of man
A) Nervous terminal part is filum terminale
B) Grey matter contains cell bodies, dendrites and non medullated axons

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77 .

78 .

79 .

80.

C) Spinal cord is enclosed in the neural canals of successive vertebrae

D) Spinal cord is divided into symmetrical right and left halves by dorsal
( posterior) fissure and ventral ( anterior ) sulcus
The incorrect options are
1) A and B only
2) A and C only
3) A Only
4) A and D only
During the time of embryonic development in man the cells of the trophoblast
above the region of inner cell mass are called
1) Stromal cells 2) Cells of Rauber
3) Granulosa cells 4) Follicular cells
In woman, primary and secondary oocytes are formed respectively by the
result of
1. Mitosis and meiosis I
2. Meiosis - I and meiosis II
3. Mitosis-I and meiosis II
4. Mitosis-I and mitosis-II
Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves in man?
1) Cervical plexus
2) Sacral plexus
3) Choroid plexus
4) Brachial plexus
Brain stem in human includes the parts of
1) Fore brain and mid brain 2) Fore brain and hind brain
3) Mid brain and hind brain 4) Corporaquadrigemina and cerebral aqueduct
The complex Lymbic system of the brain of man is formed by
1) Outer surface of cerebrum and hypothalamus
2) Inner surface of thalamus and corpuscallosum
3) Both amygdala and Hippocampus only
4) inner parts of cerebrum and amygdala, Hippocampus etc
During the first two weeks of the human menstrual cycle, artificially
increasing blood levels of progesterone will
1) Inhibit ovulation by opposing LH surge
2) Cause menarche to start early
3) Cause development of the overian follicle through binding to its receptors
4) Prevent pregnancy by causing shrinkage and reabsorption of the uterine lining
Ovulation in human female takes place during
1) The beginning of menstrual cycle
2) The middle of menstrual cycle
3) The end of menstrual cycle
4) Any time during menstrual cycle
How are mature human sperm and ovum similar?
1) They are of same size
2) They are formed before birth
3) They are produced from puberty until death
4) They both have the same number of chromosomes
Which one of the following is not true
1) The entry of sperm into the egg during the time of fertilization induces the
completion of meosis-II of the secondary oocyte
2) Usually capacitation is preceded by the lysosomal activity of spermatozoa
during fertilization
3) 120 millions of spermatozoa with normal size,shape and vigorous motility could
serve normal fertility
4) The disappearence of granulosa cells of human ovum is a post fertilization
event
PHYSICS

81.

Neutron was discovered by the experiment of

2) Artificial transmutation of
1) Artificial transmutation of

82.

83.

84.
85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

4
7

Be9 by particles
N 11 by particles

3) Rutherfored scattering of alpha particles by heavy nuclei

4) Bequerel with radio activity
Identify the correct statement/statements
A) At greater distances nuclear forces are negligible
B) Nuclear forces are non central forces
C) Nuclear forces are weakest in nature
D) Nuclear forces are charge dependent forces
1) A, B
2) B, C
3) C, D
4) A, D
Consider the following statements A and B. Identify the correct choice in the
given answer.
A) p p, p n, n n forces between nucleons are not equal and charge
dependent
B) In nuclear reactor the fission reaction will be in accelerating state if the
value of neutron reproduction factor k>1
1) Both A and B are correct
2) Both A and B are wrong
3) A is wrong and B is correct
4) A is correct and B is wrong
The amount of energy released in annihilation of electron positron is
1) 1.02 MeV
2) 0.58 MeV
3) 185 MeV
The phenomenon of pair production is

4) 200 MeV

1) The production of an electron and a positron from radiations

2) Ejection of an electron from a metal surface when exposed to ultraviolet light
3) Ejection of an electron from a nucleus
4) Ionization of a neutral atom
Assertion (A) : Nuclear forces arise from strong columbic interactions
between protons and neutrons
Reason (R) : Nuclear forces are independent of charge of the nucleons
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
In nuclear fusion, One gram hydrogen is converted into 0.993gm. If the
efficiency of the generator be 5%, then the energy obtained in KWH is
1) 8.75 103
2) 4.75 103
3) 5.75 103
4) 3.75 103
There is no hole current in conduction because they have
1) High conductivity
2) High electron density
3) No valence band
4) Overlapping of valence and conduction bands
The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
1) They carry negative charge
2) They are light
3) Their mutual collisions are less
4) They require low energy to continue their motion

90.

91.
92.

93.

In semiconductors at a room temperature :

1) The valance band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
2) The valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
3) The valence band is completely filled
4) The conduction band is completely empty
In intrinsic semiconductor conductivity is due to
1) Doping
2) Breaking of covalent bonds
3) Free electrons 4) Holes
Four magnets of magnetic moments M, 2M, 3M and 4M are arranged in the
form of a square such that unlike poles are in contact. Then the resultant
magnetic moment is
1) 2 2M
2) 2M
3) 10M
4) 2M
When five identical magnets each of moment M are arranged as shown in
figure with unlike poles in contact, then resultant magnetic moment is

1)
94.

2) 5M
3M
Match the following

3)

7M

4) 5M

List I
List II
A) Magnetic moment
I) H/m
B) Magnetic induction
II) A/m
C) Permeability
III) N m3/Wb
D) Intensity of magnetization
IV) N / (A m)
A
B
C
D
1)
I
IV
III
II
2)
III
I
II
IV
3)
III
IV
I
II
4)
II
I
III
IV
95. Assertion (A) : A magnet suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field

experiences no net force, but a torque that tends to align the magnet along
the field
Reason (R) : For a freely suspended magnet in a uniform magnetic field the
force on N Pole and S pole being equal unlike and parallel make up a
couple that tends to align the magnet along the field

96.

97.

98.

99.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
The force between the two poles is reduced to x Newton when their
separation is increased to n times. From this value, it is increased by y
Newtons when their separation is made 1/nth of their original distance of
separation the relation between x and y is
y
4
4
2
1) x y n 1
2) y x n 1
3) y xn
4) x 4
n
The force between two magnetic poles is F in air. If the pole strength of first
pole is doubled, that of second pole is tripled and the distance between the
poles is halved the force between the poles becomes and increases by
1) 24F and 2300%
2) 24F and 2400%
3
3) F and 150%
4) 2F and 100%
2
The incorrect statement regarding the lines of force of the magnetic field B
is
1) Magnetic intensity is a measure of lines of force passing through unit area held
normal to it.
2) Magnetic lines of force are closed curves
3) Inside a magnet, its magnetic lines of force are from north pole of the magnet to
its south pole
4) Due to a magnet, magnetic lines of force never cut each other
The time period of a freely suspended magnet does not depend upon

1) Length of the magnet

2) The pole strength of the magnet
3) The horizontal component of earths magnetic field
4) The length of the suspension
100. A magnet is parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The work done in rotating
the magnetic through 600 is 810-5 J. The work done in rotating through
another 300 is
1) 410-5J
2) 610-5J
3) 810-5J
4) 210-5J
101. A magnetized wire of magnetic length 21 pole strength m and magnetic

moment M is bent at an angle is radian at the centre of the circle, then

1) Its pole strength remains same

41sin 2

2) Its length decreases and becomes

2M sin 2

3) Its new magnetic moment becomes

4) All the above are correct

102. Earths magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at

1) Equator 2) Magnetic pole 3) A latitude of 600
4) None of the above
103. A magnetic dipole is free to rotate in a uniform magnetic field. For what

orientation of the magnet with respect to the magnetic field

A) Torque is maximum
B) Potential energy is maximum
0
0
0
1) 45 and 45
2) 0 and 1800
3) 900 and 1800 4) 00 and 900
104. Two bar magnets of the same length and breadth but having magnetic
moments M and 2M are joined with like poles together and suspended by a
string. The time of oscillation of the assembly in a magnetic field of strength
B is 3 sec, the period of oscillation, if the polarity of one of the magnets is
changed and the combination is again made to oscillate in the same field is
1) 2Sec
2) 3Sec
3) 2 3Sec
4) 3 3Sec
0
105. Two uniform magnetic fields of strengths B1 and B2 acting at an angle 75
with each other in horizontal plane are applied on a magnetic needle of
moment M, which is free to move in the horizontal plane. If the needle gets
B1
aligned at an angle 300 with B1, then the ration
is, In equilibrium
B2
position,
1
1
3)
4) 2
2
2
106. Two magnets X and Y are identical and these are arranged as shown in the
figure. Their length is negligible in comparison to the separation between
them. A magnetic needle is placed between the magnets at point P which
gets deflected through an angle under the influence of magnets. The ratio
of distance d1 and d2 will be (Ignore earths magnetic field)

1)

2)

1/3

1/3

1/3
2
tan
1)
2) 2cot
3)
4) 2 tan

cot
2
2
2
107. A magnetic needle has magnetic moment 6.7 10 Am and moment of inertia
I 7.5 106 kgm 2 . It performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70 s, the magnitude

of the magnetic field is

1) 0.01 T
2) 0.02 T
3) 0.03 T
4) 0.04 T
0
108. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30 with an external field of 800 G
experiences a torque of 0.016 Nm. The work done in moving it from its most

stable to unstable position is

1) 0.032 J
2) 0.064J
3) 0.08J
4) 0.016J
2
109. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is 0.40 A m . The length of the
magnet is 8.0 cm. The magnitude of equatorial field due to the magnet at a
distance of 50 cm from its mid point is
1) 2.5 105 T
2) 4.2 10 7 T
3) 3.2 107 T
4) 1.2 105 T
110. The figure shows a small magnetized needle P place

at a point O. The arrow shows the direction of its

magnetic moment. The other arrows show different
positions and orientations of the magnetic moment
of another identical magnetized needle Q. The
configurations in which the system is in stable
equilibrium
1) PQ1 and PQ2
2) PQ6 and PQ2
3) PQ3 and PQ6
4) PQ5 and PQ4
111. In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal component of the
earths magnetic field is 0.26G and the dip angle is 60 0, the magnetic field of
the earth at this location is
1) 0.52 G
2) 0.32 G
3) 0.15 G
4) 2.0 G
2
N m in a uniform
112. A bar magnet of length 10 cm experiences a torque of
10
magnetic field of induction 0.4 wb/m2, when it is suspended making an angle
450 with the field, the pole strength of the magnet is
1) 5 A m
2) 2.5 A m
3) 10 A m
4) 15 A - m
113. The following diagrams show the magnetic field lines. The option in which
the magnetic field lines are correct is

A)
B)
C)
1) A, B, C are correct
2) B, C are correct
3) B is correct
4) C is correct
114. Similar poles each of pole strength m are placed at distances of 1, 2, 4, 8,
.. metres from the origin on the x axis. Where do you place a similar pole
of same strength m on the other side of the origin so that the origin
becomes a neutral point
1) 0.7320 m
2) 0.5000 m
3) 0.8660m
4) 1.4140m

0
115. The torque required to keep a magnet of length 10 cm at 45 to a uniform

magnetic field is

Nm. The magnetic force on each pole is

1) 0.2mN
2) 20N
3) 0.02N
4) 2N
-2
-1
116. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.2510 JT is placed with its axis
perpendicular to the earths field direction. The resultant field is inclined at
450 with earths field on its normal bisector at some distance. This distance
from the centre of the magnet is (Magnitude of the earths field at the place
is given to be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to the
distances involved)
1) 15cm
2) 10 cm
3) 7.5 cm
4) 5cm
117. The work done in rotating the magnet from the direction of uniform
magnetic field to the opposite direction to the field is W. the work done in
rotating the magnet from the field direction to half the maximum couple
position is
W
W
3W
2 3
1 3
1) 2W
2)
3)
4)
4
4
2

118. Assertion (A) : A magnetized needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a

torque but no net force. An iron nail near a bar magnet, however, experiences
a force of attraction in addition to a torque
Reason (R) : The iron nail experiences a non uniform field due to the bar
magnet. There is induced magnetic moment in the nail, there fore, it
experiences both force and torque
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) A is false and R is true
119. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are
characterized by valance and conduction bands separated by energy band gap
respectively equal to Eg C , Eg Si and Eg Ge among the following the correct
statement is
1) Eg Si Eg Ge Eg C

3) Eg C Eg Si Eg Ge

2) Eg C Eg Ge Eg Si

4) Eg C Eg Si E g Ge

120. The electrical conductivity of a semi conductor increases when

electromagnetic radiation of wave length shorter than 2480nm is incident on
it. The forbidden band gap for the semiconductor is
1) 0.9 eV
2) 0.7 eV
3) 1.1 eV
4) 0.5 Ev
CHEMISTRY

121.

The compound with least PKa value is

F3CCOOH

1)

2)

3)

1)

2)

3)

4)

122.

4)

123.

124.

1)
2)
Formalin is
1) 10% CH 3COOH

125.

Then X is?

3)
2) 40%HCHO

4)
3) 40% HCOOH

4) 10%C2 H 5OH

1)

2)

3)

4)
126.

1) LiAlH 4
127.
128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

4) Anhyd ZnCl2 / HCl

Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones by

1) 2, 4 DNP
2) H2N OH
3) Semi carbazide
4) Tollens reagent
0
Ethanol vapours are passed over heated copper at 300 C and product is
treated with aqueous NaOH. the final product
1) Aldol
2) hydroxy butyraldehyde
3) Crotonaldehyde
4) None
Chemical name of Melamine is
1) 2, 4, - di amino 1, 3, 5 tri azine
2)2 amino 1, 3, 5 tri azine
3) 2, 4, 6 - tri amino 1, 3, 5 tri azine
4) 1, 3, 5 - tri amino 2, 4, 6 tri azine
Which of the following stages is not involved in anionic polymerization
1) chain initiation
2) chain propagation
3) chain termination
4) 2 and 3
Which of the following acts as chain initiator in cationic polymerization
1) SnCl2

2) Benzoyl peroxide

3) Na NH 3 l

4) R Li

Formation of HDP is catalysed by

1) AlCl3
3) AlEt3 TiCl4

133.

3) Zn Hg / HCl

2) Ni / Pt

2) Benzoyl peroxide
4) BF3

Vinyl chloride polymerizes by

1) Cationic polymerization
3) Free radical

2) Anionic polymerization
4) 1 and 2

134.

135.
136.
137.

138.

139.

140.

Monomer of neoprene is
1)

2)

3)
Condensation polymer is

4)

1) Polythene
2) Teflon
3) PVC
4) Phenol formaldehyde resin
Which of the following polymer has ester linkage
1) PVC
2) Nylon 6, 6
3) SBR
4 )Terylene
Assertion (A): Vulcanized rubber is good elastomer and possess good tensile
strength
Reason (R): Vulcanized rubber contains sulpur cross links
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are true
A polymer consisting of 100 molecules having molecular weight 10 3 each,
200 molecules having molecular weight 104 each and 200 molecules having
molecular weight 105 each. The weight average molecular weight is
1) 44,400
2) 22,200
3) 91,400
4) 52,000
Which of the following set contains only addition polymers
1) Polythene, polypropylene, terylene
3) Buna S, Nylon, polybutadiene
Match the following

2) Polythene, PVC, Buna S

4 )Bakelite, PVC, polythene

List I
List II
A) Phenol + Formaldehyde
I) Synthetic rubber
B) Terepthalic acid + Ethylene glycol
II) Bakelite
C) Caprolactum
III) Nylon
D) Butadiene + styrene
IV) Terylene
The correct match is
A
B
C
D
1)
II
III
IV
I
2)
III
I
II
IV
3)
II
IV
III
I
4)
I
II
III
IV
Which of the following is a natural polymer
141.
1) Protein
2) Polythene
3) Buna S
4) Bakelite
Aldol condensation between the following compounds followed by
142.
dehydration gives methyl vinyl ketone

1) HCHO, CH 3COCH 3
3) Two moles of CH 3CHO

2) HCHO, CH 3CHO
4) Two moles of CH 3CO CH 3

143.

144.

1) 3 bromobenzoic acid
2) Meta di nitrobenzene
3) 2 Nitrobenzoic acid
4) 3 Nitrobenzaoic acid
Which of the following compounds respond to iodoform reaction

CH 3 2 CO

145.

146.

1)
Ore

2)

3)
Composition

4)

A) Fools gold
FeS2
B) Malachite
CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
C) Calamine
FeCO3
D) Sphalerite
ZnS
E) Haematite
Fe3O4
Wrong match is/are
1) C only
2) C & E
3) D & E

1) CH 3 CH 2 COOH , CH 3 CH 2COOH
3) CH 3 COOH , CH 3 CH 2 COOH

147.

The reaction is

CH 3 CH 2 CHO

4) C & D

2) CH 3 COOH , CH 3CH 2 CHO

4) CH 3 CHO, CH 3CH 2 COOH

148.

1) Wolff Kishner reaction

2) Cannizaros reaction
3) Clemmensons reaction
4) Stephens reaction
Which of the following is one of the cross end product formed when a
mixture of acetone and acetaldehyde is heated after treating with aqueous
sodium hydroxide?

CH 3 2 C CH CHO
1)

2)

3) CH 3 CH CH CHO
149.

150.

151.
152.

153.

154.

155.

4) CH 3 2 CH OH CH 2CO CH 3

Which of the following compounds will give yellow precipitate with

I2/Na2CO3(aq) but does not respond to Cannizarro reaction?
1) C2 H 5 2 CO
2) CH 3CHO
3) CH 2O
4) C2 H 5 CH 2OH
Benzyl alcohol is obtained from Benzaldehyde by
1) Fittigs reaction
2) Kolbes reaction
3) Cannizzaros reaction
4) Wurtzs reaction
CH 3COOH X Y . Y on electrolysis gives ethane. Then X may be
1) Na
2) NaOH
3) NaHCO3
4) All of these
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer
A) PHBV
B) Polyglycolic acid
C) PMMA D) Nylon 2 Nylon - 6
The correct answer is
1) A, B, C
2) B, C , D
3) A, B, D
4) All are correct
Some statements about condensation polymers are given below
A) Condensation polymer molecule contains same number of atoms as the
number of atom present in all monomers
B) Monomers of condensation polymers have poly functional groups
C) Monomers of condensation polymers are co polymers
D) Molecular weight of condensation polymer molecule is integral multiples
of molecular weight of its monomers
The correct statement is/are
1) All are correct
2) Only B is correct
3) Only B and C are correct
4) B, C, D are correct
Which one of the following types of monomers mostly undergo cationic
polymerization
1) Vinyl monomers with electron donating group
2) Vinyl monomers with electron withdrawing group
3) Poly functional group monomers
4) Saturated hydrocarbons
2
CH 3 C CH
Hg A; A H 2 N NH
2
B KOH C . C is
H 2 SO4

1) Propanal

Boil

2) Propanone

3) Propane

4) Potassium propanoate

156.

157.

158.

159.

Assertion (A): CHO group can be easily oxidized to COOH group even with
mild oxidant
Reason (R): COOH group can be easily reduced back to CHO group by
using LiAlH4
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false
4) Both A and R are true
When aldehydes are heated with Fehlings solution reddish brown precipitate
formed. Then oxidation state of metal in the precipitate and functional group
of the product formed are
1) 2, COOH
2) O, OH
3) 1,OH
4) 1, COOH
Which of the following is incorrect statement
1) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 polymer of Isoprene
2) Natural rubber has the trans configuration at every double bond
3) Buna S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene
4) In vulcanization the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make
rubber harder and stronger.
A compound A (Molecular formulae C3H8O) is treated with acidified
potassium dichromate to form product B. B form shining silver mirror on
warming with ammonical silver nitrate. B when treated with an aqueous
solution of semicarbazide gives a product C. Then the structure of C is

CH 3 CH 2 CH N NH CONH 2
1)

2)

CH 3 CH 2CH NCONHNH 2
160.

3)
4)
The correct acidity order of the following is

I)
1) III>IV>II>I

II)
2) IV>III>I>II

III)
3) III>II>I>IV

IV)
4) II>III>IV>I

NARAYANA MEDICAL ACADEMY, A.P.

LT-BIPC-CO-SPARK

Date: 21-12-2013

TIME: 3 HRS

EAMCET

Max. Marks: 160M

KEY
BOTANY
1)
11)
21)
31)

4
4
4
2

41)
51)
61)
71)

2)
12)
22)
32)

2
3
3
4

1
4
3
2

42)
52)
62)
72)

3)
13)
23)
33)

3
2
4
2

4
4
2
4

43)
53)
63)
73)

4)
14)
24)
34)

3
2
1
1

3
3
3
3

44)
54)
64)
74)

5)
15)
25)
35)

2
4
2
3

4
2
4
2

6)
16)
26)
36)

4
2
4
2

ZOOLOGY
45) 4 46)
55) 3 56)
65) 1 66)
75) 3 76)

7)
17)
27)
37)

3
4
3
4

4
4
3
4

47)
57)
67)
77)

8)
18)
28)
38)

1
2
4
1

4
3
4
3

48)
58)
68)
78)

9)
19)
29)
39)

4
2
2
2

4
3
4
1

49)
59)
69)
79)

10)
20)
30)
40)

4
2
3
4

3
3
4
3

50)
60)
70)
80)

4
4
3
2

PHYSICS
81) 1
91) 2
101)4
111)1

82) 1
92) 1
102)2
112)1

83) 3
93) 3
103)3
113)3

84) 1
94) 3
104)4
114)3

85) 1
95) 1
105)1
115)1

86) 4
96) 2
106)2
116)4

87) 1
97) 1
107)1
117)3

88) 4
98) 3
108)2
118)1

89) 4
99) 4
109)3
119)3

90) 1
100)3
110)3
120)4

CHEMISTRY
121)
131)
141)
151)

1
1
1
4

122)
132)
142)
152)

3
3
1
3

123)
133)
143)
153)

4
3
4
3

124)
134)
144)
154)

2
3
3
1

125)
135)
145)
155)

1
4
2
3

126)
136)
146)
156)

3
4
3
3

PAPER SETTERS
MADHAPUR

127)
137)
147)
157)

4
1
1
4

128)
138)
148)
158)

3
3
1
2

129)
139)
149)
159)

3
2
2
1

130)
140)
150)
160)

3
3
3
1

BOTANY

: Smt. SUDHA RANI

: 9490850599

ZOOLOGY

: Sri. SK M BASHA

: 8019445544

PHYSICS

: Sri. NAZEEM

: 9030512786

CHEMISTRY : Sri. NAGA PRASAD

: 9849489399