Test Book 1

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1. Among the following revolt which is

not from Bengal and Eastern India?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kol Rising
Chuar and Ho Risings
The Ahoms Revolt
Koli Risings
4. Consider the statements:
2. With which objective, CR Das and

Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj
Party within the Congress?
A. Spearhead the mass struggles
B. Forge Hindu-Muslim unity
C. Participate in elections to the
provincial council
D. Organise legislative
against Rowlatt
protests
3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Non-cooperation Movement
sought to bring the working of the
Government to a standstill by not
cooperating
with
the
administration.
2.
The
Civil
disobedience
movements aim was to paralyse
the administration by performance
of specific illegal acts.
3. The Non-cooperative movement
was started by Gandhij through
Dandi March.
Choose the correct options:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2
C. Only 1
D. All of the above
1. Gandhi Irwin Pact was effected

on 5 March 1931
2. The pact declared that Dominion
status was the goal of Indias
constitutional development.
3. Gandhijee attended the Second
Round Table Conference, and the
conference was successful.
Choose the correct statement:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
1 and 2
All

1. Demand for Purna Swaraj was
made in 1929 in Karachi Session.
2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru presided
over the Congress Session in1929
3. Tricolour Flag of Indian
Independence was unfurled by the
Congress President Pt. Jawahar Lal
Nehru in Karachi Session.
Choose the correct statements
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Only 3
1,2 and 3
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6. Consider the statements regarding
INA (Indian National Army):
1. INA was organised by Capt.
Mohan Singh.
2. Subhash Chandra Bose reorganised INA as Azad Hind Fauj.
3. The captured INA soldiers were
tried by the British Govt. of India.
4. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the
Defence Counsel for the INA heroes.
7. Match List I with List II.
East India
Associatio
n
II Poona
Sarvajanik
Sabha
II Madras
I Mahajan
Sabha
IV Bombay
Presidency
List II
(Founder/Member
)
1
Justice Ranade
Dada
Naoroji
Firozshah
Mehta
II
III
IV
9. The slogan One religion, one caste,

one god for mankind was coined by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bhai
M.
Veer
Raghvachari
a. A parsi social reformer who

advocated for widow remarriage
b. His relentless efforts led to the
enactment of The Age Consent
Act in 1891 which forbade the
marriage for girls below age of 12
c. He founded Seva Sadan in 1885
which specialized in taking care
of exploited women
d. He himself married a widow and
proved to be an inspiration to his
followers.
1 and 3
2 and 3
1,2 and 3
All the above
List I
(Association)
8. Identify the incorrect statements

about B.M.Malabari
Choose the correct statements:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Sri Narayan Guru
Sahadaran Ayyappan
Swami Dayanand Saraswati
10. Which was the first newspaper

published by Gandhi?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Harijan
Young India
Indian Opinion
Navjivan
11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with

Mahatma Gandhi at the 2nd Round
Table Conference demanding
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A. Reservation
for
Government jobs
Dalits
in
D. Siddhartha Gautama
15. Ajithantha purana was composed by
B. Reservation for Dalits in Ministries
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. Separate citizen status for Dalits

D. Separate Electorate for Dalits
12. Which of the following were the
salient features of the government of
India Act, 1935?
I.
Provided
for
bicameral
federation legislature
Provided provincial autonomy
Provided for a federal court
Diarchy in Sind and Orissa was
maintained
II.
III.
IV.
Select the correct answer using the

code given below:
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
B.
2 and 4 only
C.
1, 3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2,3 and 4
A.
B.
C.
D.
Internal purification
Universal brotherhood
Salvation
Bond of love between God and
individual soul
14. Who among the following was

known as Prachanna Buddha?
A. King Ashoka
B. Shankaracharya
C. Ramanujachraya
16. Choose the correct statements about

Hyder Ali
I.
He was the commander in chief

in the army of Dalawyi Nanjayya
He lost the first Anglo Mysore
war against the British in 1767
He was killed in the second Anglo
Mysore war in 1782
He built Dariya daulat and
lalbagh gardens at Srirangapatna
II.
III.
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13. The doctrine of suleh kul among

the Sufis represents
Ranna
Ponna
Pampa
Bhoja
Only 1 is correct
1 and 2 are correct
1,3 and 4 are correct
All are correct
17. Who was the founder of Arvidu

dynasty
A.
B.
C.
D.
Achyuta Raya
Sadasiva Raya
Krishnadeva Raya
Tirumala Raya
18. Who rose in revolt against the

British during the 1857-58 uprising
A. Raja Venkatappa
Surapur
B. Dhondiya Wagh
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Nayaka
of
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C. Kittur Rani Chennamma
D. Krishshnappa Nayaka of Balam
C. Nizam of Hyderabad
D. janardan Rao Desai
19. The kodagu uprising was led by

A.
B.
C.
D.
Budibasappa in 1830-31
Swamy Aparamara in 1835-37
Sardar Gurusiddappa in 1833
Sangolli Rayanna in 1829
24. The integral principles of Indias

foreign policy Non Alignment and Five
principles for peaceful existence was
propogated by
A.
B.
C.
D.
20. Which of the following are kannada

journals that spread nationalistic spirit
among the people of Karnataka
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vrittanta chintamani
Kesari
Suryakanta
Jaimini bharata
25. Justice Miller

formed in 1918 for
Lewin Bowring
B.
Mark Cubbon
C.
John Briggs
D.
Sir Richard Meade
22. Mysore Chalo movement was

A. Demand
for
responsible
government
B. Demand
for
karnataka
unification
C. No tax campaign in Mysore state
D. Quit
India
movement
in
Karnataka
23. Hyderabad State Congress was
started by
A. Swamy ramananda teerta
B. Sir Mirza Ismail
Committee
was
A. To look into the grievances of

ivory canal peasants
B. To recommend for the upliftment
of Backward classes in Mysore
C. To look into the causes of
Ganapathi disturbances
D. To set up a strong institution
against the congress dominance
in Mysore
21. Who shifted the capital of Mysore

state to Bangalore?
A.
Mahatma Gandhi
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Jawaharlal Nehru
IndiraGandhi
26. Identify the correct statements

about Praja Mitra Mandali in Mysore
state
I.
II.
III.
It was inspired by The Justice

Party of Madras
It opposed the demand for
responsible
government
in
Mysore
It demanded expansion of
educational facilities of backward
classes by opening hostels and
extending scholarships
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IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
It was successful in becoming a

strong force against the Congress
dominance in Mysore
29. I. Mysore Rule during the period of

Krishnaraja odeyar is called the Golden
age of Mysore
Only 1 and 2
Only 1, 2 and 3
All the above
None of the above
II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called

the Morning star of Renaissance in
Karnataka
27. Nagar Insurrection that led to the

annexation of Mysore by the East India
company during 1831 was during the
period of
A.
Krishnaraja wodeyar II
B.
Krishnaraja Wodeyar III
C.
Chamaraja VIII
D.
Chamarajendra
I.
The Dakshinadi school is the

Karnataka school of music
The Taphe dance form in
temples which was banned gave
a blow to traditional dance in
Mysore
The rule of Krishnaraja Odeyar
IV encouraged the development
of independent Mysore School of
Painting
The Gudigars of north west
Karnataka are famous sculptors
known for their intricate work
on ivory or wood
II.
III.
IV.
Question 28 and 29 contain two

statements I and II. Answer these using
the following codes to identify the True
statements:
Code:
A.
Both the statements are true
B.
Only statement I is true
C.
Only statement II is true
D.
Both statement are false
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
31. Gandhara School of Art developed in

the reign of
28. I. Representative assembly was

convoked in 1881 when Sheshadri Iyer
was the dewan of Mysore
II. Rangacharlu was the first Diwan
of Mysore
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chandra Gupta Maurya

Ashoka
Chandra Gupta
Kanishka
32. In which of the following places rock

cut architecture is not found
A. Aihole
B. Badami
C. Ajanta
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D. Pattadkal
III.
33. Which of the following is called the

tajmahal of Deccan
A.
B.
C.
D.
34. With respect to the Mysore

legislative council, which of the
following statement is true?
I.
It was established when V.P
Madhavarao was the Dewan of Mysore
II.
At that time of its formation the
Council consisted of not less than 10
and not more than 15 additional
members to be nominated by the
Government, out of which not less than
two-fifths were required to be nonofficials.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which of the following significant

events occurred during Belgaum
session of Congress in 1924
I. The state anthem of Karnataka
was sung for the first time
II. State
Karnataka
Unification
Conference was also held
IV.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gol gumbaz
Jami masjid
Ibrahim rouza
Rangin mahal
A.
Praja Samyukta Paksha was

merged with Congess
Gandhiji presided the Congress
session
1 and 4 only
4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All the above
36. Consider the following statements

about Constituent Assembly of India:
I. It was set up as a result of
negotiations between the Indian
Leaders and Cripps Mission
II. Its members were directly
elected
III. It worked as Indias parliament
till the first election were carried
out
Which among the above statements is/
are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 3
D. None of them
37. The Directive Principles of State
policy, though attractive, are not
enforceable by law. But there is one
among the given options, which has
been so far made enforceable by a
Supreme Court fiat. Identify that DPSP
from the given options:
A. Uniform Civil Code
B. Free Education till the children
complete age of 6 years (provision
after 86th amendment act)
C. Equal pay for equal work
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D. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks
and of drugs which are injurious to
health
38. Which is the smallest parliament
constituency in India?
A. Sikkim
B. Goa
C. Anandaman & Nicobar
D. Lakshadweep
in context with Legislative procedures
at Center:
1. A Money bill can be referred to a
Joint Committee of the Houses
2. A motion for introduction of a
Finance Bill or an Appropriation
Bill in either house of Parliament
Which among the above statements is/
are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 is correct
Only 2 is correct
Both 1 & 2 are correct
Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
40. The salary and allowances of Chief

Justice of India and Other judges can be
reduced only if approval comes from:
A. President
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. None of them
41. Part IV of the Constitution of India
deals with
A. Civil rights
B. Political Rights
C. Economic Social and Cultural
rights
D. All of the above
42. Consider the following:

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Other Judges of Supreme Court
President may consult the Judges of
the
Supreme
Courts
for
appointment of which among the
above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 & 2
Neither 1 nor 2
43. The C & AG of India does not audit

the receipts and expenditure of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Municipal undertakings
State Governments
Government companies
Central Government
44. A member of a State Public Service

Commission can be appointed and
removed respectively by __:
A. Governor, Governor
B. Governor, President
C. President, Governor
D. President, President
45. With reference to the executive
power in a state in India, which among
the following statements is / are
correct?
1. Executive power of the state is
vested in Governor
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2. Real executive authority in a
state is Council of Ministers
3. All executive decisions in a state
are taken in the name of Chief
Minister
Choose the correct option from the

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 & 2
Only 2 & 3
Only 3
1, 2 & 3
46. With reference to the State

Legislative Council in India, which
among the following statements is / are
correct?
I.
The Legislative Council is a

continuing House & two-third of
the members retire in two years.
Members of local bodies elect
one-third of the total number of
members of the legislative
council
If a state legislative council is to
be created or abolished , a
resolution to that effect is to be
first passed by the State
legislature by a two-third
majority
II.
III.

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 & 2
Only 2 & 3
Only 1 & 3
1, 2 & 3
47. How long a person should have

practiced in a High Court to be eligible
to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court of India?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 Years
15 Years
12 Years
5 Years
48. Who among the following is known

as the father of local self government
in India ?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Wellesley
49. The power to vote money for public
expenditure rests in India with ___:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Legislative Assembly
4. Legislative Council
codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 & 2
Only 1 & 3
Only 1, 2 & 3
1, 2, 3 & 4
50. With respect to the President of

India, which among the following
statements is / are correct?
1. A person who has been president of
India is eligible for immediate reelection
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2. A person can not hold the office of
president of India for more than two
consecutive terms
codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 & 2
Neither 1 nor 2
51. The Sarkaria Commission was set

up to review the relation between
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prime Minister and the President

Executive and Judiciary
Legislative and Executive
Centre and the State
52. One of the following members was

not included in the drafting Committee
of the Indian Constitution
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Shri N Madhava Rao
D. Shri KM Munshi
53. The question asked orally after the
question hour in the House is called
A. Supplementary question
B. Short notice question
C. Starred question
D. Unstarred question
54. Under the term Double Jeopardy

implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the
Constitution of India, a person
A. convicted by a court of law
cannot be punished under
10
departmental proceedings for the

same offence
B. punished departmentally cannot
be prosecuted in a court of law
for the same offence
C. shall not be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence
more than once
D. cannot
be
subjected
to
proceedings in civil courts for
disobedience of an injunction
along with criminal proceedings
55. According to the Constitution, the
Lok Sabha must meet at least
A. thrice each year with no more
than two months between
sessions
B. twice each year with no more
than three months between
sessions
C. twice each year with no more
than four months between
sessions
D. twice each year with no more
than six months between
sessions
56.
Provisions
of
the
Indian
Constitution relating to the formation of
new States can be amended by
A. two-third majority of the

members present and voting in
each House of the Parliament
provided they also constitute the
majority of the total membership
in each House
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B. a Parliamentary resolution which
should be ratified by a majority
of State Legislatures
C. a simple majority in each House
of Parliament
D. a three-fourth majority in each
House of Parliament
57. The quorum requirement in the
Rajya Sabha is
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 126
58. A proclamation of failure of the

constitutional machinery (president
rule) in a State is valid in the first
instance for
A. One month
B. Three months
C. Four months
D. Six months
59. The Tenth Schedule of the
Constitution of India deals with the
A. languages of the Union
B. lists of legislative business
C. anti-defection law
D. special status of Jammu and
Kashmir
60. For removal of a Governor from
office, the President seeks advice from
______:
A. Council of Ministers
B. Supreme Court
C. Chief Minister of the concerned
state
D. None of them
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61.With reference to the procedure of

the Mercy petitions in India, consider
the following statements:
i. A mercy petition can be filed only by
Indian Citizens
ii. There is no time limit for the
president to respond on the mercy
petition
iii. The mercy petition is subject to
Judicial Review
iv. In India, the only authority to decide
on mercy petitions is the President
Which among the above statements
is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 & 2 are correct

Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
Only 2 & 3 are correct
1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct
62. In Lok Sabha of India, the Leader of

the House is nominated by ___:
A.
B.
C.
D.
President
Lok Sabha Speaker
Prime Minister
Deputy Speaker
63. In the Indian context, the term Denotified tribes refers to
A. Tribes which are aboriginals

B. Nomadic tribes
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C. Tribes
practising
shifting
cultivation
D. Tribes which were earlier
classified as criminal tribes
64. Which one of the following is not
explicitly stated in the Constitution of
India but followed as a convention?
A. The Finance Minister is to be a

member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign
if he loses majority in the Lower
House
C. All the parts of India are to be
represented in the Council of
Ministers
D. In- the event of both the
President and the Vice President
demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure, the
Speaker of the Lower House of
Parliament will officiate as the
President
65. The Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court does not involve
A. civil cases
B. criminal cases
C. disputes arising out of preConstitution
treaties
and
agreements
D. cases involving interpretation of
the Constitution
66. Who administers the Oath of Office
to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Speaker
12
C. The Prime Minister

D. The Vice-President
67. Which of the following is not in the

State List under the Constitution of
India?
A. Fisheries
B. Agriculture
C. Insurance
D. Betting and Gambling
68. The power to promulgate
ordinances during recess of Parliament
is vested with
A. The Council of Ministers
B. The Parliamentary Standing
Committee on Urgent Enactment
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister
69. Who is non-member who can
participate in the debate of Lok Sabha?
A. Vice President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Attorney General of India
D. None of the above
70. In which among the following
cases, the Supreme Court of India
propounded the theory of basic
structure of the Constitution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gopalan vs. State of Madras

Golak Nath
Keshvanand Bharati
Minerva Mills
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71. Of the various ways of financing
governments investment expenditure,
the least inflationary is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
foreign aid
deficit financing
taxation
public borrowing
72. Devaluation means:

A. converting rupee into gold
B. lowering of the value of one
currency in comparison of some
foreign currency
C. making rupee dealer in comparison
to some foreign currency
D. None of these
73. Monetary policy is regulated by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
money lenders
Central Bank
private entrepreneurs
Government policy
74. Which of the following comes under

non-plan expenditure?
I. Subsidies
II. Interest payments
III. Defence expenditure
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the
infrastructure created in the previous
plans
A.
B.
C.
D.
13
I,II
I, III
II, IV
I, II, III, IV
75. Which one of the following is the

basic objective of monetary policy?
A. To control deficit of the budget
B. To control deficit in the balance of
payment
C. To control cost and availability of
money
D. To control public expenditure
76. Consider the following actions by
the government
i.
ii.
cutting the tax rates

increasing the government
spending
iii. abolishing the subsidies
In context of economic recession,
which of the above actions can be
considered a part of fiscal stimulus
package?
A. i only
B. i and ii only
C. i and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
77. When the reserve bank of India
announces an increase in the Cash
Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
A. The commercial banks will have
more money to lend
B. The reserve Band of India will have
less money to lend
C. The commercial banks will have less
money to lend
D. The Union government will have less
money to lend
78. In order to comply with TRIPS
Agreement,
India
enacted
the
geographical indication of Goods Act,
1999. The difference between a Trade
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Mark and a Geographical Indication
is/are:
i. A trade Mark is an individual or a
company
right
whereas
a
geographical
Indication
is
a
community right
ii. A Trade mark can be licensed
whereas a GI cannot be licensed
iii. A TM is assigned to the agricultural
good/products and handicraft only.
A. i only
B. ii and iii only
C. i and ii only
D. i, ii and iii
ii.
Finance minister
iii.
Chief ministers of all states
Answer choices
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. all of them
82. If five year planning was continued,
the period of 13th five year plan would
be
79. The Government has been making

efforts for 100% Financial Inclusion in
recent times. What does Financial
Inclusion comprise?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Access to Credit
Access to Financial Advice
Access to Insurance
Access to savings account
i only
iv only
i and iv only
all the above
80. Deficit financing means that the

government borrows money from the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prime minister
B. 2015-2020
C. 2017-2022
D. None of above
83. The Goods and Services Tax (GST)
will subsume which among the
following central and state taxes?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
A.
B.
C.
D.
i, ii and iii
i, ii, iv and v
ii, iii, iv and v
i, ii, iii and iv
84. Which of the following is/are the

major objectives of MGNREGA?
i.
14
Excise duty
Sales tax
Income tax
Value added tax (VAT)
Luxury tax
Choose the correct option:
RBI
Local bodies
Big businessmen
IMF
81. Governing council of the NITI Aayog

includes
i.
A. 2013-2018
Wage employment
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ii.
iii.
Create durable community assets

Empower Gram Panchayats
Choose the correct option:

A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i and ii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
Karnataka
Andhra Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Telangana
86. With respect to Anti-Dumping Duty

which of the following statement is
incorrect?
A. It is duty imposed by government
on imported products which
have prices less than their
normal values or domestic price.
B. Usually countries initiate antidumping probes to check if
domestic industry has been hurt
because of a surge in below-cost
imports.
C. Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed
under the multilateral WTO
regime and vary from product to
product and from country to
country.
D. In India, anti-dumping duty is
recommended by the Union
Finance Ministry, while the Union
Ministry of Commerce imposes it.
15
i.
ii.
iii.
Market borrowing
Treasury bills
Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are components(s) of

internal debt?
85. Which among the following states

has maximum number of Special
Economic Zones (SEZ) as on February
2015?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87. Consider the following:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
1 and 2
2 only
1,2 and 3
88. In India, the interest Rate on savings

accounts in all the nationalized
commercial banks is fixed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Union Ministry of Finance

Union Finance Commission
Indian Banks Association
None of the above.
89. Which of the statements given

below is/are correct?
1. The Finance minister declared in
the Budget for 2015-16 that
General Anti-Avoidance (GAAR)
will be implemented with the
effect from 1 April 2015
2. The provisions of GAAR were
aimed at checking tax avoidance
by overseas investors
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
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D. Neither 1 nor 2
I.
90. Government of India recently

announced constitution of NITI Aayog
as a policy think-tank replacing
Planning Commission. NITI stands for
A. National
Institution
Transforming India
for
B. It is not an acronym, but only a

Sanskrit word for Policy
C. National
Initiative
Technological India
for
II.
III.
Credit Guarantee fund will be

created in the first phase of the
Programme
Mera Khata Bhagya Vidhaata is
the slogan of the mission
Micro Insurance will be provided
in the second phase of the
programme

given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
D. New Initiative for Transforming

India
91. Which of the following indices is
not considered while calculating
Human Development Index (HDI)?
A. Life expectancy
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
94. Which one among the following
sectors in India has the highest share
of employment?
A. Agriculture and allied activities
B. Education
B. Manufacturing
C. Housing
C. Construction
D. Income
92. Yellow Revolution in India refers to
growth of
A. Militancy in the north-east
D. Tertiary sector
items has maximum weight in
wholesale price index in India?
B. Oilseeds production
A. Primary article
C. Advertising industry
B. Fuel and power
D. Jaundice outbreak
C. Manufactured product
93. Which of the following statement

is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Jan
Dhan Yojana?
16
D. Food item
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96. If we deduct grants for creation of
capital assets from revenue deficit, we
arrive at the concept of
D. Neither 1 nor 2
99. Who is the current director general
of World Trade organisation?
A. primary deficit
B. net fiscal deficit
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. budgetary deficit
D. effective revenue deficit
97. Privatization includes
A. sale of public enterprises to
private sector
B. disinvestment
enterprise equity
C. Both 1 and 2
of
public
C. participation of private sector in

management in public sector
enterprises
Roberto Azevdo
Pascal Lamy
Jim Yong Kim
Christine Lagarde
100. The Union government has

recently given its approval for setting
up of the first ESDM (electronic system
design and manufacturing) in which
city?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mumbai
Bangalore
Mysore
Kochi
D. All of the above

98. What is/are the facility/facilities
the beneficiaries can get from the
services of Business Correspondent
(Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to
draw their subsidies and social
security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the
rural areas to make deposits and
withdrawals.
given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
17
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Direction: (Q. No. 1 to 15) Read the five

passages given below and answer the
fifteen questions that follow based on
the information given in the passage.
Passage 1
Brain drain, which is the action of having
highly skilled and educated people leaving
their country to work abroad, has become
one of the developing countries concern.
What makes those educated people leave
their countries should be seriously
considered and a distinction between
push and pull factors must be made. The
push factors include low wages and lack of
satisfactory working and living conditions.
Social unrest, political conflicts and wars
may also be determining causes. The pull
factors, however, include intellectual
freedom and substantial funds for
research.
1. Which of these conditions most likely
would lead to brain drain from a country
according to the passage?
A. New programmes like Skill India and
the Make in India Programmes will
make India the manufacturing hub of
the World
B. Policy of Housing for all aims to
build 2 crore houses in Urban areas
and 4 crore houses in Rural areas
C. The government spends a meagre
amount for research in science and
technology compared to other
countries
2. Brain drain results in movement of

A. People from one country to another
B. Educated professionals from one

country to another
C. Goods from one country to another
D. All the above
Passage 2
The best definition of Sustainable
development was presented by the report
Our Common Future (also known as the
Brundtland Report):
"Sustainable development is development
that meets the needs of the present
without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs."
Green
development
is
generally
differentiated
from
sustainable
development in that Green development
prioritizes what its proponents consider
to be environmental sustainability over
economic and cultural considerations. In
addition to that, sustainable development
has underlying concepts: the concept of
'needs', in particular the essential needs of
the world's poor, to which overriding
priority should be given; and the idea of
limitations imposed by the state of
technology and social organization on the
environment's ability to meet present and
future needs. There is an additional focus
on the present generations' responsibility
to improve the future generations' life by
restoring the previous ecosystem damage
and resisting to contribute to further
ecosystem damage.
3. Sustainable development stresses upon:

A. The relationship between man and
development,
B. A development that takes into
consideration the needs of future
generations.
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C. The luxuries of the worlds poor
D. Only preventing any further damage
to the ecosystem as much as possible
4. The word proponent in the passage
most nearly means
A. one who denies the existence of a
deity or of divine beings
B. one who believes it impossible to
know anything about God
C. the leader or principal person in a
movement, cause, etc.
D. a person who advocates a theory,
proposal, or course of action
5. Green development in the passage
means
A. Eco system centric approach to
development
B. Culture
centric
approach
to
development
C. Development considering the needs
of the poor and marginalized
D. Maximum monetary benefits is the
main concern
Passage 3
industrialization and the social protest

that it accompanied.
On this day women are usually given
flowers and small gifts. It is also
celebrated as an equivalent of Mother's
Day in some countries. Children also give
small gifts to their mothers and
grandmothers. In countries like Portugal,
it is customary, at the night of 8 March, for
groups of women to celebrate the holiday
with women-only dinners and parties. In
1975, the United Nations gave official
sanction to and started financing
International Women's Day.
Although, women are becoming more
powerful in business, entertainment,
politics and many more areas, there are
still a lot of inequalities around the world
which call for the mobilization of
everybody to grant women the proper
status they merit.
6. When was the first IWD celebrated?
A. In the end of the 20th century
B. In the middle of the 20th century
C. Early in the 20th century.
D. In the 19th century
International Women's Day (IWD) is

marked on March 8 every year. Countries
around the world celebrate IWD to give
credit to the economic, political and social
achievements of women and to show
7. Which of the statement is true according
respect to their contributions in the
to the passage?
development of their countries. The IWD
A. Social unrest and industrialization
was first celebrated on 19 March 1911 in
were some of the causes that led to
Germany following a declaration by the
IWD
Socialist Party of America. It's only in the
B. IWD is officially celebrated all over
beginning of the 20th century that the day
the world
was
officially
and
internationally
C. Women are restricted only to
acknowledged due
to the
rapid
domestic spheres all over the world
3
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D. There is no monetary support for the
international womens day across
the world
Passage 4
The chief claim for the use of science in
education is that it teaches a child
something about the actual universe in
which he is living, in making him
acquainted with the results of scientific
discovery, and at the same time teaches
him how to think logically and inductively
by studying scientific method. A certain
limited success has been reached in the
first of these aims, but practically none at
all in the second. Those privileged
members of the community who have
been through a secondary or public school
education may be expected to know
something about the elementary physics
and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but
they probably know hardly more than any
bright boy can pick up from an interest in
wireless or scientific hobbies out of school
hours. As to the learning of scientific
method, the whole thing is palpably a
farce. Actually, for the convenience of
teachers and the requirements of the
examination system, it is necessary that
the pupils not only do not learn scientific
method but learn precisely the reverse,
that is, to believe exactly what they are
told and to reproduce it when asked,
whether it seems nonsense to them or not.
The way in which educated people
respond to such quackeries as spiritualism
or astrology shows that fifty years of
education in the method of science in
Britain or Germany has produced no
visible effect whatever.
8. The word palpably most nearly means

A. empirically
B. obviously
C. tentatively
D. markedly
9. The author blames all of the following
for the failure to impart scientific method
through the education system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. the social and education systems
D. lack of interest on the part of
students
10. If the author were to study current
education in science to see how things
have changed since he wrote the piece, he
would probably be most interested in the
answer to which of the following
questions?
A. Do students spend more time in
laboratories?
B. Can students apply their knowledge
logically?
C. Have textbooks improved?
D. Do they respect their teachers?
11. Astrology is mentioned as an example

of
A. a science that needs to be better
understood
B. a belief which no educated people
hold
C. something unsupportable to those
who have absorbed the methods of
science
D. an acknowledged failure of science
Passage 5
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It begins the moment you set foot ashore,
the moment you step off the boat's
gangway. The heart suddenly, yet vaguely,
sinks. It is no lurch of fear. Quite the
contrary. It is as if the life- urge failed, and
the heart dimly sank. You trail past the
benevolent policeman and the inoffensive
passport officials, through the fussy and
somehow foolish customs - and we get
into the poky but inoffensive train, with
poky but utterly inoffensive people, and
we have a cup of inoffensive tea from a
nice inoffensive boy, and we run through
small, poky but nice and inoffensive
country, till we are landed in the big but
unexciting station of Victoria, when an
inoffensive porter puts us into an
inoffensive taxi and we are driven through
the crowded yet strangely dull streets of
London to the cosy yet strangely poky and
dull place where we are going to stay. And
the first half-hour in London, after some
years abroad, is really a plunge of misery.
This life here is one vast complex of
dullness! I am dull! I am being dulled! My
spirit is being dulled! My life is dulling
down to London dullness. This is the
nightmare that haunts you the first few
weeks of London. No doubt if you stay
longer you get over it, and find London as
thrilling as Paris or Rome or New York.
12. It in line 1 refers to a feeling of
A. foreboding
B. fear
C. depression
D. malaise
B. repetition and exclamation

C. accumulation of details
D. irony and satire
14. The extensive use of the pronoun you
in passage one indicates that the author
A. is speaking to one particular person
B. is describing the experience of
someone else
C. believes that his feelings will be
shared by many others
D. wishes to add variety to his style
15. The author apparently believes that
the nightmare is
A. uniquely caused by city life
B. only over when he leaves the country
C. made worse by the weather
D. dispelled by a longer stay in London
16. Pointing at a girl, Ramesh (male) said
She is the daughter of my mothers only
brother. How is Ramesh related to the
girl?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cousin brother
Maternal uncle
Brother
Data inadequate
17. Pointing to a man on the stage, Priya

said He is the brother of the daughter of
the wife of my husband. How is the man
on the stage related to Priya?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Son
Husband
Cousin
Nephew
18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Rajesh

13. The author of passage one makes his
said, His mother is the wife of my fathers
point mainly by the use of
A. metaphor and simile
5
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son. Brothers and sisters I have none. At
whose portrait was Rajesh looking?
A.
B.
C.
D.
His son
His cousin
His uncle
His nephew
A.
B.
C.
D.
19. Avinash walks 10 km towards North.

From there he walks 6km towards South.
Then he walks 3 km towards East. How far
and in which direction is he with reference
to his starting point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 km West
7km West
7km East
5km North-east
20. A watch reads 4:30 Oclock. If minute

hand points towards the East, in which
direction does the hour hand point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
North-East
South-East
North-West
North
21. Priya walked from P to Q in North, 100

m. Then, she turned to the left and walked
30 m. Again, she turned to left and walked
140 m. Now, how far is she from the
starting point?
A.
B.
C.
D.
many boys are there in both the rows

together?
23. In a class of 35 children, Maanyas rank

is sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks
below Maanya. What is Annies rank from
the bottom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22
20
19
23
24. In the Venn diagram given below,

circle represents sportspersons, square
represents unmarried persons, triangle
represents
women
and
rectangle
represents educated persons. Each section
is number. Study this diagram to answer
the following question.
Which sections are represented by the
region numbered 11?
30m
50m
20m
40m
22. In a row of boys, Pavan is seventh from

the start and eleventh from the end. In
another row of boys, Vikas is tenth from
the start and twelfth from the end. How
6
36
37
39
None of these
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A. Married educated sportswomen

B. Unmarried uneducated women
sportspersons
C. Married educated sportsmen
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D. Unmarried educated sportswomen
Direction (Qs 25 to 26): These
questions are based on the diagram
given below:
27. Statement: All windows are doors. All

buildings are doors. All doors are boats.
Conclusion:
I.
II.
III.
All windows are boats

All buildings are boats
Some boats are doors
Answer choices:
A.
B.
C.
D.
25. Which number is inside all the three

figures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
6
7
8
28. Statements: All belts are rollers. Some

rollers are wheels. All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
26. What is the sum of the numbers which

belong to two figures only?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
14
18
None of these
Direction (Qs 27 to 29): In following

three questions below is given a
statement followed by conclusions. You
have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then consider the
conclusions together and decide which
of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information
given in the statement and mark the
appropriate option.
7
I and II follow
I and III follow
II and III follow
All follow
Conclusion:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Some mats are rollers

Some mats are belts
Some cars are rollers
Some rollers are belts
Answer choices:
A. I and II follow
B. I, III and IV follow
C. I and IV follow
D. II, III and IV follow
29. Statements
i.
ii.
All poets are intelligent

All singers are intelligent.
Conclusion
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I.
II.
all singers are poets

some intelligent persons are not
singers
32. Which one among the following boxes

are similar to the box formed from the
given sheet of of paper (x)?
Answer choices
A. Only conclusion one follows
B. Only conclusion two follows
C. Either conclusion one or conclusion
two follows
D. Neither follows
diagrams illustrates relationship among
animals, cows and horses?
33. Find the Number of triangles in the

figure below.
A.
B.
C.
D.
31. What will be the next figure in this

series?
8
10
12
14
34. Find the number of square in the

figure below.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 15
8
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D. 18
5. H, a lady member is second to the

left of J.
6. F, a male member is seated opposite
to E, a lady member.
7. There is a lady member between F
and I
35. The six faces of a dice have been

marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F
respectively. This dice is rolled down
three times. The three positions are shown
as:
37. Who among the following is to the

immediate left of F ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Find the alphabet opposite A:

A.
B.
C.
D.
C
D
E
F
38. What is true about J and K ?
36. A, B, C, D and E when arranged in

descending order of there weight from the
top. A becomes third, E is between D and
A, while C and D are not at the top. Who
among them is the second?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1. 8 persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are

seated around a square table - two
on each side.
2. There are 3 ladies who are not
seated next to each other.
3. J is between L and F.
4. G is between I and F.
J is male, K is female
J is female, K is male
Both are female
Both are male
39. How many persons are

between K and F ?
C
B
E
Data inadequate
Direction (Qs 37 to 41): Each of these

questions are based on the information
given below:
G
I
J
H
seated
1
2
3
4
40. Who among the following are three

lady members ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E, H And J
E, F and G
E,H and G
C, H and J
41. Who among the following is seated

between E and H ?
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A. F
B. I
C. K
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D. Cannot be determined
42. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a
rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell
to gain 20%?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3
4
5
6
43. A is two years older than B who is

twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of
A, B and C be 27, then how old is B?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7
8
9
10
44. A train running at the speed of 60

km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is
the length of the train?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5:2
7:3
9:2
13:4
47. The average weight of A, B and C is 45

kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40
kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the
weight of B is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
17
20
26
31
48. The average monthly income of P and

Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly
income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the
average monthly income of P and R is Rs.
5200. The monthly income of P is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3500
4000
4050
5000
49. 36 men can complete a piece of work

in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
complete the same work?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15
16
18
25
46. The age of father 10 years ago was

thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence,
10
A.
B.
C.
D.
120mts
180mts
324mts
150mts
45. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20

days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than
Sakshi. The number of days taken by
Tanya to do the same piece of work is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
father's age will be twice that of his son.

The ratio of their present ages is:
12
18
22
24
50. In what ratio must a grocer mix two

varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs.
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20 per kg respectively so as to get a
mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3:7
5:7
7:3
7:5
51. A man completes a journey in 10

hours. He travels first half of the journey
at the rate of 21 km/hr and second half at
the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total
journey in km.
A.
B.
C.
D.
220km
224km
230km
234km
B. North
C. South
D. West
55. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 7 and 8 h
respectively. When they were opened
together, due to a leakage, the cistern took
16 min more to fill. The leakage alone can
empty the cistern in
A.
B.
C.
D.
42h
14h
56h
28h
Direction (Qs 56 to 60): Study the

diagram given below and answer each
of the following questions.
52. The percentage increase in the area of

a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased
by 20% is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
40%
42%
44%
46%
53. The difference between the length and

breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its
perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1520m2
2420 m2
2480m2
2520m2
54. One evening before Sunset, Rupesh

was standing facing a pole. The shadow of
the pole fell exactly to his left. To which
direction was he facing?
56. How many persons who take tea and

wine but not coffee ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57. How many persons are there who take

both tea and coffee but not wine ?
A. 22
B. 17
A. East
11
20
17
25
15
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C. 7
D. 20
58. How many persons take wine ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100
82
92
122
59. How many persons are there who

takes only coffee ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar

and Anthony is 80 years. What was the
total of their ages three years ago ?
90
45
25
20
63. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo.

By counting heads they are 80. The
number of their legs is 200. How many
peacocks are there ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60. How many persons takes all the three ?

A.
B.
C.
D.
71
72
74
77
20
30
50
60
64. If you write down all the numbers

from 1 to 100, then how many times do
you write 3 ?
20
17
25
15
A.
B.
C.
D.
61. Which number replaces the question?
11
18
20
22
65. The number of boys in a class is three

times the number of girls. Which one of
the following numbers cannot represent
the total number of children in the class ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
12
9
11
13
15
48
42
44
52
66. A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs.

15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple
interest. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3
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B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
67. A library has an average of 510 visitors
on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a
month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
250
276
280
285
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
Direction (Qs 71 to 75): Examine the

following graph and answer the
questions that follow.
68. A man has Rs. 480 in the

denominations of one-rupee notes, fiverupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The
number of notes of each denomination is
equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45
60
70
90
69. A rectangular field is to be fenced on

three sides leaving a side of 20 feet
uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq.
feet, how many feet of fencing will be
required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34
40
68
88
70. Choose the correct mirror image of the

given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
13
71. Which month showed the highest

difference in inflation rate over the
previous month?
A.
B.
C.
D.
March
April
May
June
72. Which month showed the highest

percentage difference in the inflation rate
over the previous month?
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A. March
B. April
C. May
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D. July
73. For how many months was the
inflation rate greater than 16?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One
Two
Three
None of these
74. In how many month was there a

decrease in the inflation rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76. In the case of how many years was

the production below the average
production of the given years?
Zero
One
Two
Three
75. The difference in the number of

months in which there was an increase in
the inflation rate and the number of
months in which there was a decrease,
was
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
77. What was the percentage drop in

production from 1996 to 1997?
Four
Three
Two
One
A.
B.
C.
D.

One
Two
Three
Four
100
50
65
40
78. In which year was the production 50%

of the total production in 1993 and 1998
together?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1994
1995
1996
1997
79. If the production in 1999 will be above

the average production of the given years,
which of the following could be the
minimum production for 1999?
14
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A.
B.
C.
D.
105000
120000
100900
130000
A.
B.
C.
D.
80. What was the approximate percentage

increase in production from 1993 to
1994?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60
40
110
30
83. Gita donated her earning of

Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveens
total earnings on Wednesday after Gitas
donation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rs 1040
Rs 1020
Rs 980
Rs 940
Rs 520
Rs 550
Rs 540
Rs 560
84. What is the difference between Rahuls

earnings on Monday and Gitas earnings
on Tuesday?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rs 40
Rs 20
Rs 50
Rs 30
85. What is the respective ratio between

Naveens earnings on Monday, Wednesday
and Thursday?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81. What is Gitas average earnings over
all the days together?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rs 285
Rs 290
Rs 320
Rs 310
82. What is the total amount earned by

Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday
and Thursday together?
15
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7:3:5
8:6:5
8:7:4
9:3:4
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film production who have not participated

in the strike?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3271
3819
3948
1273
89. What is the total number of employees

in engineering profession and industries
together?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86. What is the difference between the

total number of employees in teaching and
medical profession together and the
number of employees in management
professions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90. In teaching profession if three-fifth of

the teachers are not permanent, what is
the number of permanent teachers in the
teaching profession?
6770
7700
6700
7770
87. In management profession threefourth of the number of employees are

female. What is the number of male
employees in management profession?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1239
1143
1156
1139
88. 25% of employees from film

production profession went on a strike.
What is the number of employees from
16
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5884
5687
5896
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A.
B.
C.
D.
1608
1640
1764
1704
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Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) Given
below are ten questions. Each question
describes a situation and is followed by
four possible responses. Indicate the
response
you
find
the
most
appropriate. Choose only one response
for each question. The responses will
be evaluated based on the level of
appropriateness for the given question.
Please attempt all the items. There is no
penalty for wrong answers for these ten
items.
91. You are being sent for an intensive
efficiency improvement training program,
which you are not interested in going for.
You will
A. Proceed for the training keeping
your interest aside
B. Inform your boss to send someone
else for the training
C. Go for the training but you will spend
most of the time roaming here and
there
D. Try on finding excuses for avoiding
the training
92. You are the head of anti-naxal
operation in the jungles. Suddenly you
spot some naxalites hiding in the bush.
You will
A. Warn them to surrender
B. Make a sudden assault on them
C. Inform your senior officers and wait
for some forces to come
D. Circle them first and ask them to
surrender. If they refuse, then order
firing
your village. When the train is about to

start, you come to know that your ticket
has slipped somewhere from your pocket.
What would you do in such a situation
A. Cancel your journey and get down
from the train
B. You use your power and travel
without a ticket. Infact order the TTI
to arrange for a seat for you
C. Rush towards the window of ticket
counter to buy another ticket
D. Inform the incident to the TTI and
buy another ticket as per the rules
from the TTI
94. You are offered a heavy bribe in return
of granting profile tender relating to a
telecom services. The matter is not at all
serious and granting of tender is not going
to harm anyone. You will
A. Take legal action against the
organization offering bribes and will
strive to penalize the guilty
B. Accept the bribe
C. Try to keep yourself away from the
situation
D. Revolt against the system of bribery
and try to get the tender in a positive
way
95. You are acting as presiding officer
during the polling time. You see a
physically weak and old lady came to cast
her vote and waiting in queue for her turn.
What is your reaction
A. Go to her; tell her not to cast her vote
and advise her to go home
B. Ask someone to bring her to you and
help her to cast her vote
C. Do nothing as others may object for
doing so
93. You are a railway officer. For an

important personal work you have to go to
17
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D. Go to her; encourage her to cast her
vote by helping her to vote with the
help of others and ask the media to
take her photograph
96. You are the district magistrate of a
district. Sarpanch elections are going on in
the districts. During election in a village,
two leading parties had a conflict. How
will you handle the situation?
A. Direct the police to control the
situation
B. Tell the parties that you will cancel
their candidature
C. Go there and try to mediate in the
situation
D. Write to the state election
commission about the incident
97. You are a traffic police inspector. One

day, your brother was caught ina case of
while drunk and driving. What will you
do?
A. Go by the law and punish him
accordingly
B. Give him a warning and let him go
C. Let him go thinking that you will
make him understand at home
D. Warn him and let him go because
this is the first time he has done this
mistake
B. Order the police to arrest all those

people who are involved in such
heinous crimes
C. Talk to the people directly and warn
them not to get involved in honour
killings
D. Give protection to the people who
married outside their community
99. You go to your village in summer
vacation. You saw fire in a nearby village
and people were panicking. You
A. Pacify the people, form a team and
use sand and water to put off fire
B. Call up the fire brigade from the city
C. Wait for situation to calm down
D. Leave the village and rush away
100. You are DM of a flood prone district.
One day while on a survey of the area in a
boat with your subordinates, you found
that the boat had developed a hole in it
and water started coming in. you will
A. Order your subordinates to jump out
of the boat in order to guess the
depth of the water
B. Jump out the boat as you know how
to swim
C. Order your subordinates to plug the
leak with a cloth, threw the water by
bucket and started boating fast to
reach the destination
D. Call the disaster management
authority and tell them about the
situation
98. You are the police commissioner of a

state. Honour killing is very common in
your state. One or more such cases are
reported every day. What will you do to
control the situation
A. Launch a campaign to open the
minds of the people and to make
them realize that honour killing is a
crime
18
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1. The following sources give information
4. The mountain building in Himalayas
about the earths interior
began
i.
Meteors
A. about 45 million years ago
ii.
Magma from Volcanic eruptions
B. when the continental plates of India
iii.
Seismic activity
iv.
Magnetic surveys
C. both (a) and (b)
v.
Gravity anomoly
and Eurasia converged on each other

below
5. Which of the following is an example of
A. 1 and 2 only
metamorphic rocks?
B. 1, 2 and 3
A. Sandstone
C. All of the above
B. Basalt
C. Shale
D. Slate
2. Which of the following statements are

incorrect
A. Oceanic
6. The least explosive type of volcano is

crust
is
thinner
than
continental crust
B. Oceanic
crust
called
A. Basalt plateau
is
lighter
than
continental crust
C. Oxygen is the most abundant element
B. Cinder cone
C. Shield volcanoes
D. Composite volcanoes
in the earths crust

D. The earths crust constitutes less than
1% of earths total volume
3. The main source of salinity in the ocean is:
A. Land
B. Marine life
C. Meteorites
7. Which of the following is true about

stratosphere?
A. Vertical winds are almost absent in
this region
B. Temperature decreases with height in
this region
C. Violent weather changes are seen in
this region
D. Aurora borealis are seen in this layer
D. Volcanoes
8. Highest temperature is recorded at
A. The equator
2
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B. Slightly north of equator
D. All the above
C. Slightly south of equator

D. At both the tropics
9. The land-sea distribution or the positions
of the world's continents and major oceans
influences
A. the major pressure belts that develop
from the general circulation of the
atmosphere
B. the development of the mid-latitude
cyclonic
depressions,
at
the
convergence zone between polar and
subtropical air masses
C. both (a) and (b)
10. The humidity of the air depends upon
A. temperature
B. location
C. weather
D. All of the above
11. Consider the following statements about
extra tropical cyclones
1. They develop in the mid and high
12. Match the following

below
I
II
III
IV
Valley
breeze
Katabatic
wind
Typhoons
Water
sprouts
Violent storms over ocean

in tropical areas
Tornado over seas in mid
latitudes
The wind moving upslope
during
the
day
in
mountains
The cool air draining into
the valleys during night
2
3
II
III
IV
latitude
2. They develop due frontal situation at
the mid latitudes
3. They can originate only on seas
13. Which of the following statement is not

correct?
4. They move from west to east

A. Strait
Which of the above are true
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
3
of
Malacca
lies
between
lies
between
Malaysia and Sumatra

B. Strait
of
Malacca
Sulawesi and New Guinea
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C. Strait of Makassar lies between
Sumatra and Sulawesi
C. Both 1 & 2 are correct

D. Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
D. Strait of Sunda lies between Java and

Sumatra
16. The pass located at the southern end of

the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
14. Tides are caused by

1. Gravitational attraction of the sun
2. Gravitational attraction of the moon
3. Centrifugal force
4. Centripetal force
A. The Palghat gap

B. The Bhorghat pass
C. The Thalgat pass
D. The Bolan pass
17. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between
A. India and Pakistan
Choose the correct option from the codes
B. India and China
given below:
C. India and Myanmar

D. India and Afghanistan
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1,2 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All the above

1. India lies entirely in the Northern
Hemisphere
2. India is divided into two almost equal
18. Which of the following are true with

respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
1. The southern plateau block is formed
mainly of granite and gneiss
2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated
tableland consisting of horizontally
arranged lava sheets
3. The Malwa plateau dominates the
Vindhyan scraps, forming the northern
flank of the plateau
4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti
are interposed between the Vindhyan
and the Satpura ranges
halves by Tropic of Cancer

Which among the above statements is / are
correct?
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
4

given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
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B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. all the above
19. The most plausible explanation for the
location of the Thar desert in western India
is
A. the obstruction caused by the Aravalis
to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds
to the Ganga Valley
B. the evaporation of moisture by heat
C. the absence of mountains to the north
of Rajasthan to cause orographic
rainfall in it
D. that the moisture carried by the Southwest monsoon is driven away by the
dry upper air current
3. They
are
mainly
made
up
of
sedimentary rocks and consolidated

and semi consolidated deposits
4. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall
over short periods
given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All the above
22. Which among the following in India are
known for substantial coral reef formations?
20. Which among the following is/are the
1. Gulf of Mannar
major factor/factors responsible for the
2. Gulf of Kachchh
monsoon type of climate in India?
3. Andaman and Nicobar
1.
2.
3.
4.
Location
Thermal contrast
Upper air circulation
Inter-tropical convergence zone

below
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 2, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
21. Landslides occur in Nilgiris for the
following reasons
1. Nilgiris are tectonically active
2. The slopes of Nilgiris are very steep
with vertical cliffs
5
4. Lakshadweep Islands
given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 2, 3 & 4
D. All the above
23. The state having a largest area of forest
cover in India is
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Haryana
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Assam
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C. plantation agriculture
24. Which of the following has a potential
D. subsistence agriculture
for harnessing of tidal energy in India?

A. Gulf of Cambay
B. Gulf of Mannar
C. Backwaters of Kerala
D. Chilka lake
25. Which of the following groups

accounts for over 90 per cent of India's
annual coal production?
A. Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal
B. Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh
C. Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu
D. West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu
26. The only state in India that produces
saffron is
A. Assam
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Meghalaya
27. What is the predominant type of
Indian agriculture?
A. Commercial agriculture
B. Extensive agriculture
6
28. The scarcity or crop failure of which of

the following can cause a serious edible oil
crisis in India?
A.
B.
C.
D.
coconut
Groundnut
Linseed
Mustard
29. Karnataka is divided administratively

into following divisions
1. Bangalore division
2. Mysore division
3. Belgaum division
4. Dharwad division
5. Gulbarga division
6. Malnad division
given below:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1,2, 4 and 6
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5
D. 1, 2 ,4, 5 and 6
30. Sargur super crystals is the name given
to the
A. High grade metamorphic rocks in the
southern part of the state containing
economically important minerals
B. Volcanic rocks in the eastern part of
the state which are the host rocks for
gold mineralization
C. Sedimentary rocks on the northern
part with vast reserves of limestones
D. Monazite minerals found on the
coastal regions of karnataka
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31. Deccan traps are
1. Igneous rocks due to the volcanic
eruptions
2. Formed in the cretaceous to tertiary
periods
3. Cover substantial part of north
Karnataka
4. Acidic rocks of marine origin
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coffee
production
in
Karnataka:
1. Karnataka
is
III.
IV.
2 Black buck
3 Sloth bear
4 Tiger
given below:
32. Consider the following statements in

with
II.
Conservation
1 Peacock
1 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All the above
context
I.
Protected Area
Bandipur national
park
Adichunchangiri
sanctuary
Daroji sanctuary
Ranebennur
sanctuary
the
major
coffee
II
III
IV
producing state of India, accounting

about 53% total coffee production of
the country
2. Major coffee producing districts of
Karnataka are Tumkur, Davanagere
and Shimoga
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
33. Match the protected areas with their

main focus of conservation
7
34. The oldest rocks in India are reported

from
A. Dharwar region, Karnataka
B. Aravalli range, Rajasthan
C. Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
D. Siwalik range, Punjab
35. Which among the following river is not
an east flowing river of Karnataka?
A. Krishna
B. South pennar
C. Kali
D. Godavari
Great Indian Bustard?
1. Its found in Karnataka
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2. Its listed as critically endangered
species list by IUCN
3. Its threatened majorly by the presence
of wind mills, poaching and
encroachment into habitats
4. Its natural habitat is grassland
ecosystem
given below:
A. Only 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. All the above
C. Whale is a cold-blooded fish.

D. Polar bear is a cold blooded animal
because it goes in hibernation.
true?
1. Green
Revolution
has
increased
biodiversity in India.
2. CITES convention regulates the whale
poaching.
3. Western Himalaya and Eastern Ghats
are examples of biodiversity hotspots.
37. Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower latitudes as compared to the
higher latitudes.
2. Along
the
mountain
gradients,
biodiversity is normally greater in the
lower altitudes as compared to the
higher altitudes.

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 and 3
Only 3
All of the above
None of the above
40. Which among the following result in the

conservation of the water?
1. Wastewater treatment
given below:
2. Wasteland Development
A. 1 only
3. Watershed Protection
B. 2 only
4. Rainwater Harvesting
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
given below:
38. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Construction of large dam will increase
the biodiversity in the area.
B. Fish and Amphibians are cold-blooded
animals.
8
A. Only 1, 2 & 3
B. Only 1, 2 & 4
C. Only 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
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41. Which of the statements given below
is/are correct?
44. In India most of plant flowers during
1. Chemototrops
are
organism
that
convert organic matter into inorganic

matter
2. Autotrophs
are
organisms
that
produce complex organic compounds

from using energy from light or
inorganic chemical reaction.
given below:
45. Which of the following would not qualify

as an ecosystem service?
B. Squirrels burying acorns
B. 2 only
C. Leaves falling on a forest floor
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass
D. Neither 1 nor 2
42. Which contains the largest store of
carbon in the world?
A. Oceans
B. Atmosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Lithosphere
43. Which of the following levels of
organisation is arranged in the correct
sequence from most to least inclusive?
A. It is breeding season for butterflies

B. More solar radiation are available
C. Fruits and seed setting must be
completed before the onset of
monsoon
D. Environment fluctuations are low
A. Rain falling to Earth
A. 1 only
A. Ecosystem, community,
individual
B. Community, individual,
Ecosystem
C. Individual, Population,
Community
D. Ecosystem , population,
Community
spring or summer because
population,
population,
Ecosystem,
individual
46. The first community to establish itself in

an area having no vegetation is formed by
A. Xerosere
B. Pioneers
C. Beginees
D. Climate climax
47. Which sector shows the highest Global
Green House Gas Emission?
A. Agriculture and Forestry
B. Energy supply sector
C. Industry
D. Transport
48. Question contain two statements I and
II. Answer these using the following codes
to identify the True statements:
Code:
A.
B.
C.
D.
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are 2 of the projects proposed by
I Biomass accounts for the largest share in
the Renewable energy capacity in India
II Indias renewable energy sector is driven
NABARD to Adaptation Fund Board

D. At present NABARD is the 2nd such
NIE in the Asia Pacific Region
primarily by private sector.

49. With respect to National clean Energy
Fund (NCEF) consider the following
statement
i. The scope of the NCEF has now been
expanded to include funding in the
area of clean environment initiatives.
ii. Rs 50 per tonne cess on coal is used to
51. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT)

scheme under the National Mission on
Enhanced Efficiency is an example of
A. Carbon Tax
B. Carbon Trading
C. Carbon Research
fund NCEF
D. Carbon Money
given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which of the following are the by

products of composting
50. With respect to The Adaptation Fund

created under the UNFCCC identify the
incorrect statement
A. NABARD
is
Indias
National
Implementing Entity (NIE) for the

Adaptation Fund created under the
UNFCCC
B. 2 of NABARDs proposal on climate
change adaptation has been sanctioned
by the Adaptation Fund Board
C. Promoting Climate resilient agriculture
systems in West Bengal and enabling
the fisheries sector in Andhra Pradesh
10
1. Humus
2. Water
3. methane
4. Carbon dioxide
given below:
A. Only 1
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 1,2 and 4
D. All the above
53. The appropriate conditions for coral
growth are
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1. Temperature between 23-29 degree
celsius
2. Salinity
3. Calcium
4. Shallow waters
II
III
IV
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
55. Consider the following statement
D. All the above

54. Match List I with List II.
i.
Hydroflurocarbon (HFCs) has no

harm to ozone but is a greenhouse
List I
List II
(Convention/
(Purpose)
gas
ii.
protocol)
I
CITES
Climate change
II
Nagoya
Access To
Protocol
Hydrofluro carbon (HFCs) is one of

the gases to be phased out under
the Montreal Protocol.
Genetic
resources and the fair

and equitable sharing
of Benefits arising from
given below:
their utilization
A. 1 only
III Kyoto
Ozone layer
Stop illicit trade of
Protocol
IV Vienna
convention
11
wildlife
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
56. Which of the following dont use
given below:
sunlight for synthesis of food
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A. Cyanobacteria
B. Rhododendrons
C. Nitrosomonas
D. Algae
1. Phytoplanktons are present only in the
upper 200 meters of an aquatic
ecosystem
2. Eutrophication is increase in the
phytoplanktons due to increase in
nutrients in the water body
3. All animals in an aquatic eco system
solely depend upon phytoplanktons
for their nutrients
4. An aquatic ecosystem can be depicted
as an upright food pyramid of biomass
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4
58. Grasslands are affected by increased
grazing in following ways
1. Reduced mulch cover leading to drier
conditions
2. Invasion by xerophytic plants
3. Breakdown of biogeochemical cycles
4. Creates new habitat for burrowing
animals
given below:
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
12
D. All the above

59. Which of the following is not a desert
adaptation?
A. Succulent stems
B. Coating of wax and protected stomata
C. Plants germinate only during rainy
season
D. Pneumatophores
60. Which is the only community reserve in
Karnataka
A. Kokkarebellur
B. Ranganathittu
C. Nilgiri reserve
D. Bandipur reserve
61. The Environment (protection) act covers
the following
1. Handling of hazardous substances
2. Grassland conservation
3. Endangered wildlife
4. Forest conservation
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
62. Which of the following pollutants are not
found in automobile emissions
A. Nitrogen oxides
B. Volatile organic compounds
C. Ozone
D. Chloro flouro compounds
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63. Which of the following are incorrect
about Fly ash
1. Its very fine residue produced by
65. Match the Wildlife Sanctuaries/ National

park of Karnataka given in the map below
with the appropriate code.
burning of solid material

2. Settles on soil and acts as a fertile
manure for growth of plants
3. Can be used as a fill material in road
embankments
4. Is a major component of vehicle
emissions
given below:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
64. Which of the following is not a cause for
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bandipur National Park

Dandeli Wildlife sanctuary
Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
Ranebennur Wildlife sanctuary

given below:
land degradation
I
II
III
IV
C. Zero tillage farming
D. Sea water inundation
A. Overgrazing
B. Extractive industries
66. H1N1 or Swine flu is a

A. Viral infection
13
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B. Bacterial infection
C. Its a new service under Department of
C. Fungal infection
Posts
D. Parasitic infestation
D. Its a new scheme for Indias Rainfed

areas
67. NISAR mission is

A. Is a mission mode project to improve
renewable energy situation in the
country
B. a joint project between NASA and ISRO
to launch a dual frequency synthetic
aperture radar satellite.
C. Is a research project to study the
vulnerabilities of the coastal cities of
the country
D. Addresses the state of nutrition among
the
particularly
vulnerable
tribal
groups
68. In which among the following states, the
government is proposing a Neutrino-based
Observatory?
A. Rajasthan
70. Rashtriya Vigyan Diwas is celebrated on

February 28 of every year to mark
A. the discovery of Raman Effect by
Indian physicist C. V. Raman
B. the birthday of Indian physicist C. V.
Raman
C. the launch of first Indian satellite into
space
D. to launch of Mars Mission into its orbit
71. Bioprinting refers to
A. The use of 3D printing technology with
materials that incorporate viable living
cells.
B. Use of eco friendly materials for
printing like natural dyes etc
C. Imprinting of genetic code on the
individuals DNA during gamete
formation
D. Imprinting of cancer markers on
normal cells
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Kerala
72. Vishing refers to

A. using phone calls or voice messages to
69. Recently, the government of India has
trick people in revealing sensitive
launched a new initiative called MeghRaj.
information.
What is this MeghRaj?

A. Its a new Monsoon prediction system
B. Its a new project related to Cloud
Computing
14
B. group wishing for occasions on social

media
C. is unauthorized access to another
person's or company's data limited to
www.nammakpsc.com
gaining access to data during its
transmission
D. casual observance of an e-mail that
appears on another's computer screen
or watching what someone else is
B. Tuberculosis resistant to all known

drugs
C. Tuberculosis resistant to first line
antibiotics
typing.
77. What is renewable kerosene
73. In terms of percentage, which of the
A. A type of bio fuel produced by bagasse
following metals has highest composition in
B. Fuel formed by using artificial sunlight,
Polymetalic nodules?
A. Manganese
B. Iron
C. Nickel
water and carbon dioxide

C. Normal kerosene used in fuel efficient
stoves
D. A byproduct of refining of petroleum
D. Copper
74. In which of the following crop AzollaAnabaena biofertilizer is used?
A. wheat
Super heavy elements

1. They have atomic number more than
104
B. rice
2. They are not found In nature
C. maize
3. They are formed by fusion of nuclei
D. Egyptian cotton
4. They have a very short half life
75. When viewed in white light, soap bubble
shows colour because of
given below:
A. Interference
A. Only 1
B. Polarisation
B. 1 and 2 only
C. Refraction
C. All the above
D. Diffraction
76. MDR-TB is
A. Tuberculosis which is not treatable
79. Hydrogen bomb is based on the

following principle
A. Controlled nuclear fusion
15
www.nammakpsc.com
B. Controlled nuclear fission
C. uncontrolled nuclear fission
83. If a star emitting yellow light starts
D. uncontrolled nuclear fusion
moving towards the earth, its colours as

seen from the earth will
80. Consider the following
A. Turn gradually red
1. The volume of water is minimum at 4

degree Celsius
B. Turn gradually blue

C. Remain yellow
2. If the expansion of water had not been
D. Turn bright yellow
anamolous, the ponds and the lakes

would have frozen from top to bottom
3. Ice is a bad conductor of heat
84. A man is standing between two plane

mirrors inclined at an angle of 60 degree the
number of images formed are
A. 4
given below:
B. 6
A. All are correct
C. 2
B. 1 and 2 are correct
D. 5
C. 1 and 3 correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct
85. If a magnet is left to itself, it will lead to

A. Increase in its magnetic property
81.
Weightlessness
experienced
while
orbiting the earth is due to

A. Acceleration
B. Zero gravity
B. No change in its magnetic property

C. Decrease in its magnetic property
D. Its magnetic properties will first
increase and then decrease
C. Inertia
D. Centre of gravity
86. Consider the following statements.

Which of these is incorrect
82. Ball pen functions on which of the

following principle
A. Viscosity
B. Boyles law
16
A. Laser is a technique to produce light of

same wavelength, in a single direction
and in phase
B. Light produced by laser is incoherent
C. Gravitational force
whereas that of an incandescent bulb
D. Surface tension
is cohernt
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C. Laser beams are used to remove
unhealthy tissue from the body
D. This technique is useless for TB

bacteria as it is heat resistant
D. Laser is also used to weld a detached

retina back into space
90. The reason for stainless steel being rust

proof is
87. The phenomenon of emission of light in
A. High chromium content
certain bacteria and fishes is due to
B. High nickel content
presence of
C. High molybdenum content
A. Amylase
D. High carbon content
B. Luciferase
C. Serinace
D. Valinifin
91. Which of the following are reactions

to noise pollution
1. Increase in heart rate
88. Concave mirror is not used for which of

these
2. Constriction of blood vessels

3. Digestive spasms
A. Shaving mirror
4. Dilation of pupil of the eye
B. Reflection in search lights

C. Examination of internal parts of the
ear

given below:
D. Rear view mirror
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3

A. Pasteurization
is
technique
of
preservation by sterilization of fluid
C. All the above

foods only
B. It helps destroy all microorganisms
like virus yeast bacteria etc in the food
C. The food is heated to temperature
slightly below boiling point of water
then
suddenly
temperatures
17
cooled
to
chilling
92. Which of the following is incorrect

A. Cholesterol is a component of cell
membranes in human body
B. Cholesterol is essential for synthesis
of hormones
www.nammakpsc.com
C. Pure cholesterol is liquid at room
95.
temperature and is insoluble in
i.
water
D. Excess cholesterol is deposited in
arteries resulting in atherosclerosis
ii.
Artificial sweeteners are nutritious

agents
Aspartame is used as artificial
sweetener as it produces less calories
than per gram of sucrose
96. Satellites used for telecommunication

relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A
Instruction for question 93 to 95
satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
In the following questions select the
1. The orbit is geosynchronous
correct code
2. The orbit is circular
A. Both 1 and 2 are correct

B. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
C. Only 1 is correct
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earths

equator
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236km
D. Only 2 is correct
93.
i.
ii.
given below:
LPG contains ethane, propane butane
and pentane
The leakage can be detected by the
typical smell of these above
hydrocarbons
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
94.
97. Which one of the following pairs is not
i.
ii.
Microwave oven can heat all

materials irrespective of the water
content in them
Heat is not supplied from outside in
the oven but is generated within the
food materials
correctly matched?
A. Arjun: Indigenously produced Main
Battle Tank (MBT)
B. Phalcon: Cruise missile supplied by
Russia to India
C. Saras: Indigenously developed civilian
passenger aircraft
18
www.nammakpsc.com
D. Operation seabird: New Indian Naval
base at Karwar
98. In case of a nuclear disaster which of the
following options for cooling the nuclear
reactors may be adopted?
1. Pumping of water to the reactors
2. Use of boric acid
3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping
them in a cooling pond
given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
99. Use of biology in industrial process and
for improving quality of life is called
A. Genetic engineering
B. Eugenics
C. Microbiology
D. Biotechnology
100. Bluetooth technology allows
A. Wireless communications between
equipments
B. Signal transmission on mobile phones
only
C. Landline
to
mobile
phone
communication
D. Satellite television communication
19
[Type text]
www.nammakpsc.com
1. Identify the incorrect statement with
respect to the recently launched Sansad

Adarsh Gram Yojana.
A. It encourages MPs or Sansads to
identify and develop one village
from their respective constituency
as a model village by 2016 and
two more by 2019
B. MPs are required to pick one
village with a population of 30004000 in plains and 1000-3000 in
hills within a month of the launch
A. It is an initiative of the Ministry of

Rural Development.
B. This programme will be launched
in collaboration with the Indian
Institutes of Technology (IIT) and
the
National
Institutes
of
Technology (NITs) across the
country which will prepare a
roadmap
for
holistic
rural
development.
C. Each IIT will identify 10 villages in
its neighbourhood and work out
technologies to solve the most
pressing issues of the region.
C. It is applicable only to the elected

members of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha.
D. MPs cannot pick villages which
belong to themselves or their
spouses.
2. Find correct statements about Beti
bachao-beti padhaao (BBBP)
A. Itll be implemented through
ministry of human resource
Development.
B. Sukanya Samriddhi account is a
sub-component of BBBP.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

respect to Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
2
D. Once the solution is identified then

they will involve the industry in
this to solve the problem.
4. Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the
Childhood Movement) is an initiative
started by
A. Kailash Satyarthi
B. The Indian Red cross
C. Ministry of women's and child
development
D. Bill and Malinda Gates Foundation
www.nammakpsc.com
5. With respect to programmes aimed at
bringing minorities into mainstream
development Match List I with List II.
List I
(Programme)
I
II
Manzil
USTAAD
III Nai Roshni 3
IV MANAS
A. 21 June
List II
(purpose)
1
B. 16 September
Leadership
training
programme for
women
Upgrading
entrepreneurial
skills of
minority youths
Education and
skill
development of
dropouts
Build capacity of
traditional
artisans and
craftsmen
belonging to
minority
communities
II
III
IV
6. Paying heed to the Prime Ministers
exhortation during his address to UN

General Assembly in September 2014,
3
the UN has declared to celebrate which

day as International Yoga Day?
C. 12 August
D. 17 December
7. Government recently re-launched
Kisan Vikas Patra scheme (KVP). It is a
certificate saving scheme available for
A. Any Farmer
B. Women Farmer
C. General citizen
D. Member of farmer cooperative
8. Which Disease is not covered under
the Government scheme Indradhanush?
A. Diphtheria
B. whooping cough
C. tetanus
D. rotavirus
9. With respect to Motion of Thanks to the
President for his address in the parliament.
Consider the following statement
i.
ii.
If an Amendment to Motion of Thanks

to the President for his address is
passed in the Lok Sabha, it will lead to
censure of the government
So far the Motion of Thanks to the
President for his address has been
amended 4 times in the Lok Sabha.
www.nammakpsc.com
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which is the first state to make voting

compulsory in the Local body elections?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kerala
Karnataka
Jammu and Kashmir
Gujarat

respect to National Lok Adalat (peoples
courts)?
A. It is aimed at reducing the backlog of
cases in the courts
B. It settles dispute through conciliation
and compromise
C. It adjudicates matters based on
ancient Indian customary laws
D. It was organized by the National Legal
Service Authority (NALSA)
12. what is the name of the documentary by
the British film-maker Leslee Udwin about
the Delhi Gang rape victim?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Indias Daughter
In Cold Blood
Mind of the Rapist
Death of a Princess
13. Which Indian boxer was provisionally

suspended by the AIBA for refusing to
accept the bronze medal won after losing
the semi-final fight over a controversial
decision at the 2014 Asian Games?
4
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mary Kom
Sarita Devi
Kavita Goyat
Sarjubala Devi
14. 31st October, will be celebrated as

National Integration Day or Rashtriya Ekta
Divas to celebrate the Birth Anniversary of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lal Bahadur Shastri

Indira Gandhi
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
lala lajpat rai
15. As per Census 2011 data, which among

the following States has higher sex ratio
than the national average?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nagaland
Delhi
Arunachal Pradesh
Tripura
16. Professor Arvind Panagariya was

recently appointed as
A. Chairman,
University
Grants
Commission
B. Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog
C. Economic Advisor to the Prime
Minister
D. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
17. The government in the Budget 201516 has decided to extend visa on arrival
from the existing ___ countries to ____
countries in Phased manner. Fill the
Blank by choosing the appropriate
option.
www.nammakpsc.com
A.
B.
C.
D.
43/150
56/119
34/119
52/148
B. Strategic location along borders

with neighbouring countries
C. Low Female Sex Ratio in the state
18. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)

is an integrated bill payment system
offering inter-operable and accessible bill
payment service to customers. Which
institute has been appointed as the nodal
agency for its implementation?
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. NABARD
C. State Bank of India (SBI)
D. Hilly and difficult terrain

21. Which variable has been included by
the Fourteenth Finance commission in
the Horizontal Devolution Formula?
A. Fiscal discipline
B. Forest Cover
C. Area
D. Education
D. The National Payment Corporation

of India (NPCI)
19. Which Company was accused by the

Income Tax department for underpricing the shares in a rights issue to the
parent firm for fiscal 2009-2010?
A. Airtel India
B. Vodafone India
C. Tata Indicom
D. Reliance Infocomm
20. Which of the following is not a
feature required for granting special
status to a state by Finance Commission
A. Economic
and
backwardness
infrastructural
22. In the General Budget 2015-16 8

centrally sponsored schemes were delinked
from support of the central government. It
includes all except
A. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban
Renewal Mission (JNNURM)
B. National e-Governance Plan
C. Backward Regions Grant Funds
D. Rajiv
Gandhi
Panchayat
Sashaktikaran Abhiyaan (RGPSA)
23. What constitutional amendment bill has
been introduced in the Lok Sabha on 19th
December, 2014, which provides for levy of
a Goods and Services tax (GST)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122nd constitutional amendment Bill

112th constitutional amendment Bill
www.nammakpsc.com
24. Which of the following are not
recommended by Shanta Kumar Committee
on FCI restructuring
i.
ii.
iii.
Coverage of National food security act

should be widened.
Priority households under NFSA
should be given more grain allotment
Antyodaya households should be
given grains at 50% below the MSP

given below :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1 and 2
Only 2 and 3
Only 1 and 3
None of them
A. IRNSS 1C was launched on a PSLV

C26 from Sriharikota.
B. It is the third satellite in its series
C. It
sun
i.
It is an initiative by Bill and

Melinda gates foundation
ii.
It aims to make internet more

accessible and affordable to all
people around the world.

given below
D. It was launched using an
XL
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
26. Indentify the incorrect statement
with respect to IRNSS 1C
with respect to Nirbhay

i.
ii.
It is Indias first indigenously

designed and developed long
range sub-sonic cruise missile.
It is capable of carrying only
conventional warhead

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 and 2

with respect to Ebola Virus
i.
ii.
Camels are believed to be the

natural Host of this virus
The virus is spread through contact
with body fluids of inflected
persons such as blood, urine and
saliva

given below
A. 1 only
into
version of the PSLV rocket
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
placed
synchronous Polar orbit
25. With respect to Internet.org consider
the following statement
was
www.nammakpsc.com
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2

respect to SpaceX
A. It is a private space transport
services company
B. It has developed two reusable
launch vehicles: the Falcon 1 and
Falcon 9 and a spacecraft called
Dragon
C. It was responsible for the first
privately funded, liquid-fuelled
rocket to reach orbit
D. It is the first private company to
send a satellite in to Martian orbit
30. Recently the Defence Research
Development Organisation (DRDO) has
developed herbal drug Lukosin, for
treatment of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leucoderma
Leukaemia
Malaria
Kala Azar
31. Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile

(LRSAM) {Barak-8} which was recently
tested successfully is co-developed by
India and
A. Russia
B. France
C. Israel
7
D. United states
32. What is GreenPHABLET?
A. It is a device that provides farmers
precise information related to
agriculture
B. It is a device used to calculate the
Carbon foot print
C. It is a device used by forest
department to keep track of forest
cover
D. It is a device which uses solar energy
to power itself
33. Which state of India received its first
train in the year 2014?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Meghalaya
Sikkim
Tripura
Manipur
34. For the first time Voter Verifiable Paper

Audit Trail (VVPAT) with Electronic Voting
Machines was used for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leh district of J&K

Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan
Tuensang district of Nagaland
Thiruvananthapuram
district
Kerala
of
35. Operation Kali was launched in Delhi

Metro for better protection of Women
commuters. Which central armed Police
force launched this operation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
BSF
CISF
CRPF
ITBP
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36. Which of the following countries are

member of Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation?
A. China,
Belarus,
Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan
B. China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan
C. China, Kazakhstan, Ukraine, Russia,
Afghanistan and Uzbekistan
D. Russia,
Belarus,
Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan,
Tajikistan
and
Uzbekistan
37. Exercise MALABAR 2014 was a
trilateral naval exercise involving the
navies of India and which other 2
Nations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
United states and Japan

United states and Australia
Srilanka and Maldives
Singapore and Australia
38. The defence deal under negotiation

involving
the
ShinMaywa
US-2
amphibious aircraft is between India and
which other country?
A.
B.
C.
D.
South Korea
Japan
United States
Israel
39. According to the Land Boundary

Agreement (LBA between India and
Bangladesh, India will exchange ___ enclaves
measuring 17,160 acres with Bangladesh
8
and receive____ enclaves covering 7,110

acres
A.
B.
C.
D.
121,61
131,71
111, 51
101,41
40. Among the following who is not a part of

the New Development Bank (NBD)
A.
B.
C.
D.
India
Russia
China
Japan
41. The maritime dispute involving the

South Talpatti or New Moore island decided
by United Nations tribunal was between
India and
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pakistan
Sri Lanka
Bangladesh
Myanmar
42. Recently, a loose pro-democracy political

movement referred to as umbrella
movement took place in 2014 at
A.
B.
C.
D.
Singapore
Hong Kong
Thailand
Russia

ISIL?
i.
ii.
is a Salafi extremist group

The proclaimed goal of ISIL is to
establish itself as a Caliphate, an
Islamic state worldwide
www.nammakpsc.com
iii.
iv.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISIL is destroying Iraq's cultural

heritage
India is a party to the Coalition to
Counter the ISIL
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
1,2 and 3 only
All the above
44. What does CLMV countries stand for

A. Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam
B. Cambodia, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam
C. China, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam
D. China, Laos, Malaysia, Vietnam
45. The 13th amendment of Srilankais
significant as it guarantees
A. Devolution of powers to the provinces
by creation of Provincial Councils
B. Peace accord between LTTE and
SriLankan government
C. Rehabilitation of the war affected
Tamils
D. Independent investigation of the war
crimes
47. Which Indian company was granted

permission by Australian government to
extract coal in Queensland?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vedanta Resource
Adani Mining Ltd
Coal India Ltd
Hindalco Industries
48. Which country returned a Bronze

Nataraj Idol to India that was sold illegally
by one subash Kapoor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
United Kingdom
United States
Norway
Australia
49. With respect to 6th BRICS summit

consider the following statement
i.
ii.
iii.
It was held in Fortaleza, Brazil

BRICS countries agreed to set up a
new development bank
Deal on $100 billion Currency
Reserve Arrangement (CRA) was
agreed upon

given below
46. Which of these is party to Treaty of
Nuclear Non Proliferation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
India
Israel
Iran
Pakistan
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
50. What was Indias total medal tally in

the 2014 Asian Games, Incheon?
A. 57
B. 62
www.nammakpsc.com
C. 45
D. 71
51. With respect to the Bidaai Scheme
launched by Government of Karnataka,
consider the following statement
i.
It is a financial assistance scheme to

poor women belonging to only
Muslim community
ii.
Under the scheme Rs 50000/- will

be given to the Beneficiaries at the
time of their marriage.

code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
52. What is the use of the recently launched

'Dhruv' category helicopter called Garuda
Vasudha from the Hindustan Aeronautics
(HAL) Complex, Bangalore?
A. It will be used by the police for traffic
management and crowd control in
Bangalore Urban
B. It will be used for ferrying VIPs from
Bangalore international airport
C. It will be used by the Geological Survey
of India for detecting deep seated
mineral deposits
10
D. It will be used by District Health

Department for the transportation of
Heart from Donors
53. In which Tiger Reserve of Karnataka the
Forest Department launched the habitat
tracking device called HEJJE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bandipur Tiger Reserve

Bhadra Tiger Reserve
Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve
Nagarhole Tiger Reserve
54. The state government launched Mythri a

pension scheme for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Old aged
Destitute women
Street Vendors
Sexual Minorities
55. Yettinahole is a tributary of which River?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Tungabhadra
Kabini
Netravati
Hemavati
56. The Union Government Launched the

Nirbhaya scheme in the state. Who will this
scheme benefit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Victims of Endosulphan Poisoning

Victims of Rape
Victims of Acid attack
Victims of Domestic Violence
57. Who won the 2015 Hero I-League

Football cup?
A. Mohun Bagan Athletic Club, Kolkata
B. Royal Wahingdoh Football Club,
Shillong
C. Dempo Sports club, Goa
www.nammakpsc.com
D. Bangalore Football club, Bangalore
58. With regard to Karnataka Integrated and
sustainable water Resources Management
Investment Programme (2014-22) consider
the following statement.
i.
ii.
iii.
It will be executed by the Karnataka

Neeravari Nigam Ltd.
The programme receiving loan from
the World Bank
The project is in two phases- Gondi
Irrigation (shimoga) and Vijayanagara
canals and Tungabhadra Left bank
canals (Bellary)

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
iii only
i and iii only
i, ii and iii
59. Department of Atomic Energy undertook

aerial survey to scan for uranium and
thorium deposits at
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bagalkote
Dakshina Kannada
Mangalore
Uttara Kannada
60. The state government constituted a

commission of Inquiry, headed by H.S
Kempanna, retired judge of the High court of
Karnataka, to probe
A. The alleged denotification of land
acquired for the formation of the
Arkavathi Layout
B. The alleged sexual crime committed in
a Bangalore school
11
C. The growing incidence of rape in

Karnataka
D. The alleged attack on churches
61. Arka Rakshak developed by Indian

Institute of Horticultural Research, Bangalore
is a variety of
A. Tomato
B. Brinjal
C. Ladies Finger
D. Green Grapes
62. What is the objective of the recently
launched Health Adalat, a first of its kind in
the country at Gulbarga?
A. It is a tribunal related to Health sector

B. It is a government-Citizen interface on
health issues
C. It is a grievance redressal centre for
government healthcare workers
D. It is the nodal agency for implementing
Government health schemes in
Karnataka
63. Karnataka got its first food park under
the mega food park scheme of Ministry of
Food Processing at
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chikkaballapur
Kolar
Doddaballapur
Tumkur
64. State government will observe December

29 as Rationalism Day to mark the birth
anniversary of
www.nammakpsc.com
A.
B.
C.
D.
G.S Shivarudrappa
U.R Ananthamurthy
Kuvempu
Kavi Pradeep
65. Government has set up a 14 member

search committee to choose a poet for the
title of Rashtrakavi. Who among the following
have not been awarded the title of
Rashrakavi?
A. M. Govinda Pai
B. Kuvempu
C. G. S. Shivarudrappa
D. D R Bendre
66. Suvarna gramodaya yojana is

A. State government programme focusing
on development of 1000 villages every
year by concerted efforts by the
government, NGOs private and village
communities
B. Central government programme that
aims at development of a model village
adopted by each MP by dedicating
funds
C. Achieving villages which are open
defecation free under the total
sanitation campaign
D. Developing
village
infrastructure
under the PURA scheme of central
government
67. Match the World heritage sites in
Karnataka given in the map below with the
appropriate code that follows.
1
2
3
4
Pattadakallu
Hoysala complex
Hampi
Monuments and Forts of Deccan
Sultanate
Select the appropriate code

I
II
III
IV
68. Basava Vasathi Yojane

A. Provides housing for rural house less
poor with a component of subsidy and
along with beneficiary contribution
12
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B. Provides housing for urban slum
dwellers with equal contribution from
state and centre

71. Backward Region Grants are not
provided to which of the following districts
C. Is a CSS to provide housing for rural
A.
B.
C.
D.
SCs and STs by providing built houses

at subsidized rates
D. Is a scheme of building shelter homes
for urban street vendors
69. Soura Belaku
A. aims at universal installation of roof
top solar devices in industrial
establishments
B. Aims at installation of Solar Street
Lights at grama panchayat level
C. Solar pump set will be distributed to
farmers at 50% subsidy or maximum
up to Rs.3 lakhs/solar pump set
D. Improving agricultural income of
farmers by incentivizing them to
integrate biofuel tree species into
agriculture
Kalburgi
Yadgir
Chitradurga
Bagalkot
72. Major source of energy to the power

sector in Karnataka is
A. Hydel energy
B. Thermal energy
C. Wind energy
D. Biomass energy
73. Deendayal Upadhyay gram Jjyothi yojana
i.
Aims to supply 24x7 uninterrupted

power supply to all homes
ii.
Involves separating agricultural and

non agricultural feeders
70. Karnataka biofuel policy has following

provisions
i.
ii.
It provides for usage of oilseeds for bio

fuel production like groundnut, linseed
oil etc
Oilseeds should be grown only in dry
or infertile land or land unsuitable for
cultivation

given below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
13
iii.
Involves
strengthening
transmission
and
sub
distribution
infrastructure in rural areas

iv.
Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran

Yojana (RGGVY) has been subsumed in
the new scheme

given below
A. 1 and 3Only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1,2 ,3 and 4
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D. All the above

given below
74. Rural infrastructure development fund

i.
Was instituted in NABARD
ii.
Objective of giving low cost fund

support to State Governments for
quick completion of ongoing rural
infrastructure projects.
iii.
Designed to support innovative, risk

friendly, unconventional experiments
in these sectors that would have the
potential
to
promote
livelihood
opportunities and employment in rural

areas
iv.
Banks who cant meet their priority

sector lending targets are required to
deposit the shortfall amount in this
fund

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 Only
1, 2 and 4 only
1,2 and 3 only
All the above
75.
Electronic
benefit
scheme
is
implemented on a pilot basis in the
following districts
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
14
Ballari
Chitradurga
Chamarajanagar
Mandya
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 Only
1, 2 and 4 only
1,2 and 3 only
All the above
76. Stree Shakti programme is

A. Empowering rural women by a SHGcredit linkage programme
B. Financial Assistance to run hostels for
girls from rural areas
C. Scheme of financial assistance for
remarriage of destitute widows and
marriage of devadasis
D. Empowering victims of atrocities by
providing financial relief, temporary
shelter, protection etc to lead a normal
life
77. High Power Committee For Redressal of
Regional Imbalances (HPCFRRI) was headed
by the renowned economist
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. Nanjudappa.
L. G. Havanur
V.K. Gokak
Amartyasen
78. The lowest in the the ranking of

development in terms of HDI (human
Development Index) 2001
A.
B.
C.
D.
Raichur
Gadag
Davanagere
Chamarajnagar
79. The State government has identified five

facilities ie. Pancha Saulabhya under Sarva
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Shiksha Abhiyan Which of these are not
included under this
A. drinking water
B. toilets
C. school building
D. library
80. 'Naipunya Nidhi'' is set up for the
following purpose
A. Skill Training programme for all the
degree
students
Government
studying
First
Grade
in
colleges
across the State.

B. Provide the Human Resources and
enhance the teaching efficiency of the
staff, the teaching faculties have been
deputed to higher education
C. An
aim
to
harness
collaborative
potential of students by encouraging

innovation
to
solve
persistent
problems of our state

D. Aims for the development of higher
education in the country by ensuring
B. Empanelled private hospitals are

incentivized to conduct all normal
deliveries for free
C. All surgeries in private hospitals
require part contribution from the
patients
D. BPL pregnant women (including
SC/ST) who undergo deliveries in
Government Hospitals are given
incentive
for
getting
their
nutritional requirement
82. AYUSH Pusti programme is
A. giving AYUSH medicines given in
the form of Syrup and Biscuits to
correct malnourishment in children
aged between 3 to 6 years
B. Free health check up programmes
to popularize AYUSH system in
rural areas.
C. Training given to Medical and
Paramedical staff, General Public,
ASHA worker, Anganawadi worker
and others regarding AYUSH health
system
D. Teaching yoga to school children to
maintain mental and physical well
being
access, equity and quality
83. National Food Security Mission was

THAYI BHAGYA
A. It is implemented in all the districts
of Karnataka
15
started during 11th Five Year Plan in the

state. Impact of NFSM Programme in the
state is as follows
i.
9% increase in average yield of Rice
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ii.
17% and 53% increase in area,
losses
production and yield of pulses
conditions
respectively
iii.
iv.
adverse
weather
Farmers have taken up improved
rain dependent farming community by
production technologies practices
achieving
like inter cropping etc in pulses
agriculture
15 % increase in average yield and

given below
growth
in
C. Procurement of perishable agriculture

commodities through hopcoms in the
districts/taluks
D. Mission goal of increasing average
by 20 %
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
86. Majority of forest cover in Karnataka
C. 1,2 ,and 3 only
is under
D. All the above

Implementation
of
Soil
Health
Mission does not include
nutrients and micro nutrients

C. Analysis is linked to k-kissan project
organic
B. Semi-evergreen forests
D. Plantations form
B. Analysis of soil samples for macro
specific
A. Wet evergreen forests

C. Deciduous forests
A. Collection of soil samples
D. Crop
sustainable
productivity of selected rainfed crops
A. 1 and 3 Only
fertilizer
distribution
85. Krishi Bhagya is a
A. scheme that compensates the insured
farmers against losses due to financial
16
to
B. Scheme for improving livelihood of
area of production of oil seeds
84.
due
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87. Match the following e governance
projects of Karnataka with their importance
List I
(Governance
project)
I Telegram
II
List II
(importance)
1
Krishi Gyan 2
Sagar
III K-KISAN
IV Raitha Mitra
Unified
electronic
platform to
handle
all
kinds
of
agricultural
activities
Website to
provide
timely
information
on various
schemes in
agriculture
Collection of
Good
Agricultural
Practices
Application
where
farmers
groups can
exchange
progress and
problems
faced
by
them
II
III
IV
88. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region have

been provided the following privileges after
the enactment of Article 371(J)
A. 100% of budget of SDP is earmarked
for Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
B. Provides for reservation of 70% of the
seats in any educational institution
C. Provides for creation of a local cadre
D. Establishment
of
a
separate
development board
89. Bhagyalakshmi scheme is
A. Deposit of fixed amount in the name of
girl child which will be paid to the girl
child after completing 18 years
B. providing shelter and counselling to
victims of domestic violence
C. Self employment training programme
for rehabilitation of sex workers
D. Extending financial assistance to
transgenders who were exploited by
the Society
Sneha Shivir
given below
17
i.
Involves a cluster of 4-5 anganwadi

centres
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ii.
iii.
Parents of all children are given

training for 12 days in preparation
of nutrition food, feeding practices,
health and hygiene.
Its taken up in 4 high burdened
districts of Bagalkote, Kolar, Bellary
and Gulbarga

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
1 and 3 Only
1 and 2 only
All the above

Karnataka Nuthana Javali Neethi 2013-18
i.
ii.
Maximum Financial Assistance is

being provided to MSME sector
Karnataka is the first State in the
Country to launch State Textile
Policy.

given below
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither of them
92. Savayava bhagya yojaneIs an
improvement over earlier organic
farming programmes as it
i.
Aims at developing good marketing

linkages and market development
for the organic products of the state
18
ii.
Brings around 100 ha. area under

organic farming in each hobli of the
taluka

given below
A. only 1
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2
D. none of the above
93. Custom Hire and Service Centres
primarily catering to
A. Small and marginal farmers
B. Farmers in rain fed areas
C. SC and STS
D. Farmers producing breeder seeds
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Questions 94 and 95 consists of two

statements.
Determine
whether
Statement A is correct and Statement B
is correct, and if Statement B is the
correct explanation for Statement A.
Choose the correct options
A. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct and Statement B is the correct
explanation for Statement A.
B. Both Statement A and Statement B are
correct but Statement B is not the correct
explanation for Statement A.
C. Statement A is correct but Statement B
is incorrect.
B. Provide incentives for research,

conducts awareness and training
programmes
C. Give approval to Monsanto for use
of biological resources commercial
or research purposes
D. Declaration of biodiversity Heritage
sites
Annabhagya Yojane
i.
ii.
iii.
D. Statement A is incorrect but Statement

B is correct.
94. A: Oil Palm is a water loving plant
B: Its cultivation is being taken up in
the farmer's fields of the districts prone
to droughts to improve farmers income
95. A: Fertigation delivers fertilizers at
the roots of the plant
B: Its promoted under the Central
Sponsored scheme of National Mission
on Sustainable Agriculture
It is a CSS which was launched in

July-2013
It Aims to supply 30 kg of food
grains @ Rs. 1/- per kg to BPL
families across the State.
It is implemented with a cost
sharing formula of 50:50 between
centre and state

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3 Only
2 only
All the above
None of the above
98. The infant mortality rate (IMR) of
Karnataka in 2013 is about

96. Karnataka Biodiversity Board does
not have the authority to perform
following functions
A. Promotion of in-situ and ex-situ
conservation of biological resources
19
A. 31 per 1000 live births

B. 31 per 100,000 live births
C. 10 per 1000 live births
D. 10 per 100,000 live births
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99. Which of the following is not true

about JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANE (JSY)
A. Objective is reduction in maternal and
infant mortality rate
B. Aims at increasing the institutional
deliveries of BPL and SC/ST families
C. Cash
assistance
is
provided
for
deliveries taking place only in health

institutions
D. It is implemented in both urban and
rural areas
100. MGNREGS is operational in all
districts of Karnataka since
A. 2005-06
B. 2006-07
C. 2008-09
2004-05
20
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which
of the following states
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Assam
Jammu and Kashmir
Punjab
Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct code:

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i
Only i and ii
Only i, ii and iv
All the above

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Flagship
programme
for
universalizing elementary education
Seeks to open new schools in those
habitations which do not have
schooling facilities
Strengthen
existing
school
infrastructure
Has special focus on girl's education
and children with special needs.
B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
4. What are the salient features of Sukanya
Samridhi Yojana
i.
It is meant for girl child of 10 years

or above.
It can be opened with nil-balance.
Girl child receives free 1 lakh
accident insurance and 30,000 life
insurance tied up with her account.
ii.
iii.

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. Consider the following statement with

respect to National Optical Fibre Network
Project
i.
It is Being implemented by
Department of Telecommunications
(DOT)
It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000
Gram Panchayats in the country with
a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth
internet
It is funded by Universal Service
Obligation

A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i,ii and iii only
All the above
None of the above
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel

Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following
categories has been included into the
award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of
budding/young talent.
ii. Employment of sportspersons and
provide sports welfare measures.
given below:
A. i only
2
Only i and ii
Only ii and iii
Only i and iii
None of them
ii.
iii.
Which of the following statement is true?

A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i only
i and iii only
i, ii and iii
6. The recently launched programme called

Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed
at promoting
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Organic Farming
Plantation in the North east states
Oil seed cultivation
Minor Irrigation
7. Identify the correct statement about
the proposed Investigative Units on

Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?
A. This scheme is externally funded

by the World Bank
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities
will have dedicate police units for
crime against women
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize
and arrest beyond the traditional
powers available to a police office
under CrPC.
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost
sharing basis between Union :
State
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,
2014 which got president assent on 31st
December deals with
A. Establishment of National Judicial
Appointments Commission (NJAC)
B. Goods and services Tax (GST)
C. Agreement to transfer land to
Bangladesh, on the basis of IndoBangladesh
Land
transfer
agreement
D. Special status to Hyderabad
Karnataka region
9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who

among the following can acquire private
land for public purpose?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
One person company

Public limited company
private limited company
Educational trust.
Religious charity organization

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only ii and iii

Only i, ii and iii
Only i, ii, iii and iv
All of them
10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the

ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anil Kumble
Sachin Tendulkar
Kapil Dev
Mahendra Singh Dhoni
11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently

annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over
following
A. Information posted by making use of
such computer resource or a
communication device, causing
insult, injury, criminal intimidation,
enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Websites which could affect
sovereignty and integrity of the
country, defence, security, friendly
relations with foreign states
C. Information posted online with the
criminal intent in striking terror in
the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the
purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to
increase in GDP growth by
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i.
ii.
iii.
Adding to spending power of the

households
Increase profit margins of the
corporates
Increasing foreign inflows
initiative for developing skills in

Rural Area
Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
detection
and
intervention,
counselling
&
medical
interventions and provision of
aids & appliances
II.
Select from the codes below

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 2 and 3
All the above
13. Which of the following natural

resources garnered a whopping amount of
revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coal mines
Telecom spectrum
Land
Petroleum reserves
14. Disaster management is under which

list in 7th schedule
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central list
State list
Concurrent list
None of the above

statements:
Code:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15.
I.
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen

Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a
Ministry of Rural Development
16
I.
India has the second largest

foreign exchange reserve holder
as on 6th February, 2015
China has the largest foreign
exchange reserve in the world.
II.
17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an

initiative of whom among the following
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Vodafone India
ICICI Bank
Airtel
HDFC
Which among the following codes are

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
ii and iii only
iii and iv only
i, ii and iv only
18. Which variable has been excluded by

B. Forest Cover
C. Area
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D. Education
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
correct?
i.
ii.
iii.
Imports would be zero rated

An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply
It will be a Origin-based tax as
against the present destinationbased tax

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i and iii only
ii only
i, ii and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to

A. Prevent tax avoidance
B. To recover the black money
stashed abroad
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are
correct?
i.
ii.
Due to weakening of demand for

crude oil in the economies of Asia,
especially china and Europe
Exploration of shale gas by
countries like US and Canada has
led to lower demand for oil

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
ii only
Both i and ii
Neither i nor ii
22. What are the functions of Food

Corporation of India (FCI)
i.
ii.
iii.
public procurement of foodgrains

storage of foodgrains
distribution of foodgrains

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i and ii
Only ii and iii
Only i and iii
All of them
23. Public debt management agency

proposed in the recent budget will help
in
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Development of the bond market

in the country
Regulating government lending
Preventing leakages of public
funds
Bringing in fiscal discipline

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i, ii and iii only
i, iii and iv only
All of the above
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24. Priority sector includes lending to

the following sectors
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
Agriculture
Micro,
Small
and
enterprises,
Education
Social infrastructure
sanitation
renewable energy
medium

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i and ii
i, ii, iii, iv and v
All the above

about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. Its a statutory body
B. It regulates the commodity market in
India
C. It functions under the ministry of
finance
D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity
market irregularities
about INS Kolkata (D63)
A. It is second largest destroyer to be
operated by Indian Navy after INS
Delhi
B. It was commissioned by Prime
Minister on 16th August, 2014
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited,
Mumbai
D. It fitted with advance stealth
technology
27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov

has been renamed and commissioned into
Indian Navy as
A.
B.
C.
D.
INS VIRAAT
INS VIKRANT
INS VISHAL
INS VIKRAMADITYA
28. Which of the following is not correctly

matched?
A. AkashSurface to Surface
Missile
B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile
C. Brahmos-Cruise missile
D. Sagarika-Submarine
Launched
Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
29. Which country is set to become the

first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
United Kingdom
Switzerland
United States of America
Brazil

regarding
Asian
Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB).
i.
ii.
It is a multilateral development
bank to provide finance to
infrastructure projects in the
Asia-Pacific region
It has been promoted by the
United States to counter the
China influence in the region

code given below
A. i only
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B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of

people referred to as Arab Spring
originally started from
A.
B.
C.
D.
Egypt
Lebanon
Syria
Tunisia
COUNTRY
Ukraine
Mali
Pakistan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly

matched?
A.
B.
C.
D.
iii only
ii and iii only
i and iii only
i, ii and iii
33. Which of the following is not a party to

Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone
(CANWFZ) treaty
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kazakhstan
Kyrgyzstan
Tajikistan
Afghanistan
34. Houthi tribes are

A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall
of the government in yemen
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in
Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in
Karnataka famous for bee keeping
7
A.
B.
C.
D.
Israel
Russia
France
Britain
36. Following the cancellation of more

than 200 coal mines allocated by the
government between 1993 and 2010,
the government is preparing to auction
or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st
round.
32.
REGION OFTEN IN
NEWS
i. Kiev
ii. Darfur
iii. Swat Valley
35. Maitri project for the co-development

of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is
between India and
A.
B.
C.
D.
110
101
121
130
37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by

Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra
Pradesh Coast on October is named after
a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Afro-Eurasian bird
State dish of Oman
The 2nd largest city of Oman
River in Oman
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is

A. A style of martial arts that has its
origin in Philippines.
B. A Women self help group scheme
of West Bengal
C. A form of Ancient medicine
promoted under AYUSH mission
D. A new all women battalion of the
BSF
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an

IIT was taken in the recent union
Budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telangana
Goa
Karnataka
Andrapradesh
40. What is Bitcoin?

A. It is a form of digital currency
B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the
National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI)
C. It is a new digital encrypted system
to prevent forgery of currency
D. It is the first digital bank of India
41. Who of the following leader died on
the day when Non-cooperation Movement
was launched in 1920?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pheroz shah Mehta

Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C.R. Das
42. Which Movement was launched along

with the Khilafat Movement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Swadeshi movement
Home rule movement
Civil Disobedience movement
Non-cooperation Movement
A.
B.
C.
D.
1914 May 21
1914 August 18
1915 March 19
1915 January 9
45. The first round table conference

was held in
A.
B.
C.
D.
London
Edinburgh
Delhi
Calcutta
46. Tripitakas are sacred books of

A.
B.
C.
D.
Buddhists
Hindus
Jains
None of the above
47. Which Governor Generals of India is

known as the father of Indian Civil
Services
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lord Cornwallis
Warren Hastings
Lord Wellesley
Lord William Bentinck
48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mahatma Gandhi
Jayaprakash Narayan
Swami Vivekananda
Acharya Vinoba Bhave
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha"

first against?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The European Indigo Planters

The mill owners of Ahmedabad
The British Government
The racist authorities of South
Africa
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa

on?
8
49. The National Song of India was

composed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rabindranath Tagore
Bankim Chandra Chatterji
Iqbal
Jai Shankar Prasad
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj
by an agreement. The Axis power was
A.
B.
C.
D.
China
Germany
Italy
Japan
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in

1920 was withdrawn
A. Because of Gandhijis ill-health
B. Due to extremist policy then
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the
Government
D. Because of violence at ChauriChaura
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
of
A. Gajabentekara
B. Bhashege tappuva rayara
ganda
C. Mooru rayara ganda
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was
signed between Tipu Sultan and
A. Robert Clive
B. Cornwallis
C. Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings
54. Which of the following are the cause
that led to the movement for Unification in
Karnataka?
9
i.
ii.
Renaissance in Karnataka
Pro unification policies of Nizam of
Hyderabad
Belgaum Congress in 1924
Karnataka
State
Political
Conference, Dharwad in 1920
iii.
iv.
Select the correct code

A.
B.
C.
D.
i ii and iv only
i iii and iv only
i and iii only
i ii and iv ony
55. Mysore congress

conference at
A.
B.
C.
D.
held
its
first
Sivapur
Ankola
Sirsi
Siddapur
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a

joint sitting of the both the houses of
Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Simple majority of the total number
of members of both the Houses
present and voting
B. Two-third majority of the total
number of members of both the
houses
C. Simple majority of the total number
D. Two-third majority of the total
Houses present and voting
57. Which one of the following has the
right to address the Parliament?
A. Attorney General of India
B. Chief election commissioner
India
C. Chief justice of India
of
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D. National security Advisor
58. Which one of the following statements
about parliament of India is not correct?
A. The Constitution provides for a
Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the
Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C. The membership of the cabinet is
restricted to the Lower House
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the
confidence of the majority in the
Popular Chamber
59. Which one of the following is a
function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok
Sabha?
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the
House in the absence of the speaker
B. To check if the election certificates
of the members of the House are in
order
C. Swear in the members of the House
and hold the charge till a regular
Speaker is elected
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill
60. The resolution for removing the vicepresident of India can be moved in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lok Sabha alone

Either House of Parliament
Joint sitting of Parliament
Rajya Sabha alone
61. The supreme Court of India tenders

advice to the President on a matter of law
or act
A. On its own initiative
B. Only if he seeks such advice
C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
10
D. Only if the issue poses a threat to

the unity and integrity of the
country
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged
to the Upper House of the Parliament
A. He will not be able to vote in his
favour in the event of a nonconfidence motion
B. He will not be able to speak on the
Budget in the lower House
C. He can make statements only in the
Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the
Lower House within six months
after being sworn in as the Prime
Minister
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Violating the constitution
B. Disregarding parliament
C. For not taking the advice of council
of minister
D. All of the above
64. The name of the union given in the
constitution is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
India or Hindustan
India or Bharat
Bharatadesh or India
65. The purpose of the inclusion of

Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
A.
B.
C.
D.
Political democracy
Social democracy
Gandhian democracy
Social and economic democracy
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities

B. Only Linguistic minorities
C. Religious
and
linguistic
minorities
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic
minorities
67. Which of the following rights are
available to Indian citizens as well as
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Cultural and educational rights

Right to freedom of religion
Right against discrimination by
the state on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth
Right to personal Liberty
Select the correct answer from the code

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
iii and iv only
ii and iv only
i, ii, iii and iv
68. A college student desires to get elected

to the Municipal Council of his city. The
validity of his nomination would depend
on the important condition, among others,
that
A. Right to vote and rights to be

elected without any distinction of
caste, religion, sex, property etc
B. Right to vote and right to be elected
without any distinction of age,
caste, creed or sex
C. Equal opportunity for taking part in
elections
D. The right to occupy highest office in
the
state
irrespective
of
qualifications
70. The preventive Detention Act has a
restraining effect on
A.
B.
C.
D.
Right to Equality
Right to Freedom
Right to Religion
Right to constitutional Remidies
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors,

narcotic drugs and opium comes under
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Excise Duty

CENVAT
State Excise Duty
General Sales Tax
72. Protection means

A. Restriction imposed on import
trade
B. Protection to home goods
C. No free exchange of goods and
services between countries
D. All of these
A. He obtains permission from the

Principal of his college
B. He is a member of a political party
C. His name figures in the voters list
D. He flies a declaration owing
allegiance of the constitution of
India
73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of

revenue to
69. Civil and political equality gives

citizens
74. Which of the following is not the

instrument of fiscal policy?
11
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Government
State Government
Local administration
Central and state Government
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Bank rate
Government expenditure
Taxes
Licence fees
ii.
iii.

about SDR(Special Drawing Right):
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
It is an international financing
instrument
It is created in 2000
It is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry
IMF is associated with it
Which of the above statements are

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i, ii and iii only
i and iii only
i, iii and iv only
76. With referece to steps taken to

achieve financial inclusion in India,
consider the following statements:
i.
ii.
iii.
Nationalisation of banks
Formation of RRBs
Adoption of village by bank
branches
Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
77. Consider the following statement:

i.
12
Fourteenth Finance commission

was set up in 2011

was set under chairmanship of
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
To make recommendations on
the devolution of taxes, the
has been directed to use the
census figures of 1971

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
78. Commercialisation of agriculture

implies
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cultivation of timbers
Plantation
Production of crops for sale
Production of crops like wheat
and rice
79. Quota (in cross border trade) is

A. Tax on imports
B. Imports of capital goods
C. Limit on quantity of imports
D. Limit on quantity of exports
80. Open market operations of the RBI
mean
A. Buying and selling of shares
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
www.nammakpsc.com
i.
ii.
iii.
C. Trading in securities
D. Transacting in gold
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large
industries
B. Promoting both agriculture and
industries in the economy
C. Co-existence of public and
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor
regarding new Corporate Social
Resposibility (CSR) rules:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Companies to spend 2% of their

3 years average annual net profit
on CSR activities
Surplus from CSR activities can
become a part of the profit of the
company
All CSR activities will have to be
within India
The new rules will not be
applicable
to
the
foreign
companies registered in India

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
i, ii, iii and iv
83. Too much of import of gold by India

adversely affects:
13
Trade balance
Current account balance
Capital account balance

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i, ii and iii
i and iii
84. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
List I
(PLAN MODEL)
Bombay plan
II Gandhian Plan
III Peopless Plan
IV Sarvodaya Plan
2
3
4
List II
(PROPOSER)
Jai
Prakash
Narayan
M N Roy
Sriman Narayan
Birla and Tata
Groups
Choose the correct option

I
II
III
IV
85. Which of the following can be used for

checking inflation temporarily?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase in wages
Decrease in money supply
Decrease in taxes
None of these
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about sea floor spreading?
A. There is constant creation of new
oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the
oceanic ridges
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to
shrinking of another ocean
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are
thinner than expected
87. Which of the following landforms are
not formed by glaciers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cirques
Glacial troughs
Moraines
Playas

true about red soil
A. Red soil is derived from igneous
rocks in area of low rainfall
B. The colour of soil is red due to
mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime
D. They are moisture retentive
89. The pattern of planetary winds
depends on the following
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Latitudinal variation of atmospheric

heating
Emergence of pressure belts
Migration of pressure belts
Land and sea distribution

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
14
i only
i,ii and iv only
i and iii only
All the above
90. Which among the following a line or

surface drawn on a map or chart indicates
connected point of equal salinity in the
ocean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isotherm
Isohaline
Isogyre
Isodiaphere
91. Continental drift theory was put

forward by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arthur Holmes
Alfred Wegner
Abraham Ortelius
Mc Kenzie and Parker
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India,

is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ganga
Indus
Brahmaputra
Mahanadi
93. Which of the following areas or

regions is most prone to earthquakes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ganga-Brahmaputra valley
Deccan plateau
Plains of northern India
Western Ghats
94. Which of the following are true

regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
i.
ii.
iii.
It is largely practiced in Assam

It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique
In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
few years

codes given below:
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i & ii
Only ii & iii
Only i & iii
All the above
97. Consider the diagram below.
95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some
spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and
in
the
northern
states
increased
The diagram shows the position of
the Earth, the moon and the Sun
codes given below:
where
A. Only a
B. Only b
C. Both (a) and (b)
A. Only situation A explains the

spring tides
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
96. Which of the following types of soil

are mostly confined to river basins and
coastal plains of India?
A. Alluvial soils
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
15
C. Both A and B explains the

spring tides
D. None of these explains the
spring tides
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka
B. i and ii only
are
C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii
i.
Also called as mango showers
ii.
Due to sea breezes over the
100. Which is the most common type of
Maidan
soil found in Karnataka?
iii.
Develop due to low pressure

during the summer months
iv.
The rainfall generally exceeds

50cms
codes given below:

A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka
given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i.
Kollur Ghat: Udupi district
ii.
Agumbe
Ghat:
between
chikmagalur and Mangalore

Charmadi
Ghat:
between
Shimoga and Udupi

code given below:
A. i only
16
B. Back Soil
C. Laterite Soil
D. Alluvial Soil
iii.
A. Red Soil
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1. AFSPA is currently applicable in which
of the following states
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Assam
Jammu and Kashmir
Punjab
Arunachal Pradesh

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i
Only i and ii
Only i, ii and iv
All the above

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Flagship
programme
for
universalizing elementary education
Seeks to open new schools in those
habitations which do not have
schooling facilities
Strengthen
existing
school
infrastructure
Has special focus on girl's education
and children with special needs.
B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
4. What are the salient features of Sukanya
Samridhi Yojana
i.
It is meant for girl child of 10 years

or above.
It can be opened with nil-balance.
Girl child receives free 1 lakh
accident insurance and 30,000 life
insurance tied up with her account.
ii.
iii.

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.

respect to National Optical Fibre Network
Project
i.
It is Being implemented by
Department of Telecommunications
(DOT)
It is aimed at connecting 22,50,000
Gram Panchayats in the country with
a minimum 500Mbps bandwidth
internet
It is funded by Universal Service
Obligation

A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i,ii and iii only
All the above
None of the above
3. Under the revised Rashtriya Khel

Protsahan Puruskar, which of the following
categories has been included into the
award criteria?
i. Identification and nurturing of
budding/young talent.
ii. Employment of sportspersons and
provide sports welfare measures.
given below:
A. i only
2
Only i and ii
Only ii and iii
Only i and iii
None of them
ii.
iii.
Which of the following statement is true?

A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i only
i and iii only
i, ii and iii
6. The recently launched programme called

Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is aimed
at promoting
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Organic Farming
Plantation in the North east states
Oil seed cultivation
Minor Irrigation
7. Identify the correct statement about
the proposed Investigative Units on

Crimes against Women (IUCAW)?
A. This scheme is externally funded

by the World Bank
B. Under this scheme, each state
capital / UT and all metro cities
will have dedicate police units for
crime against women
C. These units will be given
additional powers to search-seize
and arrest beyond the traditional
powers available to a police office
under CrPC.
D. These units will be on 50:50 cost
sharing basis between Union :
State
8. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill,
2014 which got president assent on 31st
December deals with
A. Establishment of National Judicial
Appointments Commission (NJAC)
B. Goods and services Tax (GST)
C. Agreement to transfer land to
Bangladesh, on the basis of IndoBangladesh
Land
transfer
agreement
D. Special status to Hyderabad
Karnataka region
9. Under Land ordinance 2014, who

among the following can acquire private
land for public purpose?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
One person company

Public limited company
private limited company
Educational trust.
Religious charity organization

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only ii and iii

Only i, ii and iii
All of them
10. Who became the 4th Indian to enter the

ICC cricket hall of fame recently?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anil Kumble
Sachin Tendulkar
Kapil Dev
Mahendra Singh Dhoni
11. Sec 66 A of IT Act which was recently

annulled by the SC had jurisdiction over
following
A. Information posted by making use of
such computer resource or a
communication device, causing
insult, injury, criminal intimidation,
enmity, hatred or ill will
B. Websites which could affect
sovereignty and integrity of the
country, defence, security, friendly
relations with foreign states
C. Information posted online with the
criminal intent in striking terror in
the minds of people
D. Information posted online with the
purpose of religious incitement
12. Declining oil prices will lead to
increase in GDP growth by
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i.
ii.
iii.
Adding to spending power of the

households
Increase profit margins of the
corporates
Increasing foreign inflows
initiative for developing skills in

Rural Area
Swavalamban Yojana is a scheme
for Physical Rehabilitation of
disabled, which includes early
detection
and
intervention,
counselling
&
medical
interventions and provision of
aids & appliances
II.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 2 and 3
All the above
13. Which of the following natural

resources garnered a whopping amount of
revenue for the nation upon auctioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coal mines
Telecom spectrum
Land
Petroleum reserves
14. Disaster management is under which

list in 7th schedule
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central list
State list
Concurrent list
None of the above

statements:
Code:
A.
B.
C.
D.

15.
I.
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen

Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a
Ministry of Rural Development
16
I.
India has the second largest

foreign exchange reserve holder
as on 6th February, 2015
China has the largest foreign
exchange reserve in the world.
II.
17. Mobile commerce service M-Pesa is an

initiative of whom among the following
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Vodafone India
ICICI Bank
Airtel
HDFC
Which among the following codes are

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
ii and iii only
iii and iv only
i, ii and iv only
18. Which variable has been excluded by

B. Forest Cover
C. Area
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D. Education
about Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
correct?
i.
ii.
iii.
Imports would be zero rated

An integrated GST would be levied
on interstate supply
It will be a Origin-based tax as
against the present destinationbased tax

given below
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i and iii only
ii only
i, ii and iii
20. The main objective of GAAR is to

A. Prevent tax avoidance
B. To recover the black money
stashed abroad
C. To prevent tax evasion
D. To strengthen bond market
about Falling Global Crude Prices is/are
correct?
i.
ii.
Due to weakening of demand for

crude oil in the economies of Asia,
especially china and Europe
Exploration of shale gas by
countries like US and Canada has
led to lower demand for oil

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
ii only
Both i and ii
Neither i nor ii
22. What are the functions of Food

Corporation of India (FCI)
i.
ii.
iii.
public procurement of foodgrains

storage of foodgrains
distribution of foodgrains

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i and ii
Only ii and iii
Only i and iii
All of them
23. Public debt management agency

proposed in the recent budget will help
in
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Development of the bond market

in the country
Regulating government lending
Preventing leakages of public
funds
Bringing in fiscal discipline

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i, ii and iii only
i, iii and iv only
All of the above
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24. Priority sector includes lending to

the following sectors
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
Agriculture
Micro,
Small
and
enterprises,
Education
Social infrastructure
sanitation
renewable energy
medium

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i and ii
i, ii, iii, iv and v
All the above

about the Forwards Market Commission?
A. Its a statutory body
B. It regulates the commodity market in
India
C. It functions under the ministry of
finance
D. It has powers to investigate and
prosecute cases of commodity
market irregularities
about INS Kolkata (D63)
A. It is second largest destroyer to be
operated by Indian Navy after INS
Delhi
B. It was commissioned by Prime
Minister on 16th August, 2014
C. It was Built at Maza Dock Limited,
Mumbai
D. It fitted with advance stealth
technology
27. The Aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov

has been renamed and commissioned into
Indian Navy as
A.
B.
C.
D.
INS VIRAAT
INS VIKRANT
INS VISHAL
INS VIKRAMADITYA
28. Which of the following is not correctly

matched?
A. AkashSurface to Surface
Missile
B. Nag-Surface to Air Missile
C. Brahmos-Cruise missile
D. Sagarika-Submarine
Launched
Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
29. Which country is set to become the

first country to legalize creation of
three-parent IVF designer babies using
Mitochondrial Donation Technique?
A.
B.
C.
D.
United Kingdom
Switzerland
United States of America
Brazil

regarding
Asian
Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB).
i.
ii.
It is a multilateral development
bank to provide finance to
infrastructure projects in the
Asia-Pacific region
It has been promoted by the
United States to counter the
China influence in the region

code given below
A. i only
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B. ii only
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i and ii
31. Recently, a series of uprisings of

people referred to as Arab Spring
originally started from
A.
B.
C.
D.
Egypt
Lebanon
Syria
Tunisia
COUNTRY
Ukraine
Mali
Pakistan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly

matched?
A.
B.
C.
D.
iii only
ii and iii only
i and iii only
i, ii and iii
33. Which of the following is not a party to

Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone
(CANWFZ) treaty
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kazakhstan
Kyrgyzstan
Tajikistan
Afghanistan
34. Houthi tribes are

A. Rebels in Yemen who caused the fall
of the government in yemen
B. Particularly vulnerable tribe in
Assam
C. Group of nomadic tribes in
Karnataka famous for bee keeping
7
A.
B.
C.
D.
Israel
Russia
France
Britain
36. Following the cancellation of more

than 200 coal mines allocated by the
government between 1993 and 2010,
the government is preparing to auction
or allocate ______ coal mines in the 1st
round.
32.
REGION OFTEN IN
NEWS
i. Kiev
ii. Darfur
iii. Swat Valley
35. Maitri project for the co-development

of a short Range Surface-to-air Missile is
between India and
A.
B.
C.
D.
110
101
121
130
37. Cyclone Hudhud (name given by

Oman) that hit the odisha and Andhra
Pradesh Coast on October is named after
a
A.
B.
C.
D.
Afro-Eurasian bird
State dish of Oman
The 2nd largest city of Oman
River in Oman
38. Pekiti-Tirsia Kali is

A. A style of martial arts that has its
origin in Philippines.
B. A Women self help group scheme
of West Bengal
C. A form of Ancient medicine
promoted under AYUSH mission
D. A new all women battalion of the
BSF
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39. In which state a proposal to setup an

IIT was taken in the recent union
Budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Telangana
Goa
Karnataka
Andrapradesh
40. What is Bitcoin?

A. It is a form of digital currency
B. It is Indian domestic card scheme
conceived and launched by the
National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI)
C. It is a new digital encrypted system
to prevent forgery of currency
D. It is the first digital bank of India
41. Who of the following leader died on
the day when Non-cooperation Movement
was launched in 1920?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pheroz shah Mehta

Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C.R. Das
42. Which Movement was launched along

with the Khilafat Movement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Swadeshi movement
Home rule movement
Civil Disobedience movement
Non-cooperation Movement
A.
B.
C.
D.
1914 May 21
1914 August 18
1915 March 19
1915 January 9
45. The first round table conference

was held in
A.
B.
C.
D.
London
Edinburgh
Delhi
Calcutta
46. Tripitakas are sacred books of

A.
B.
C.
D.
Buddhists
Hindus
Jains
None of the above
47. Which Governor Generals of India is

known as the father of Indian Civil
Services
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lord Cornwallis
Warren Hastings
Lord Wellesley
Lord William Bentinck
48. Who started Bhoodan Movement?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Mahatma Gandhi
Jayaprakash Narayan
Swami Vivekananda
Acharya Vinoba Bhave
43. M.K. Gandhi applied his "Satyagraha"

first against?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The European Indigo Planters

The mill owners of Ahmedabad
The British Government
The racist authorities of South
Africa
44. Gandhiji returned from South Africa

on?
8
49. The National Song of India was

composed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rabindranath Tagore
Bankim Chandra Chatterji
Iqbal
Jai Shankar Prasad
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50. Subhas Chandra Bose organized the

Indian soldiers taken as prisoners by
an Axis power into the Azad Hind Fauj
by an agreement. The Axis power was
A.
B.
C.
D.
China
Germany
Italy
Japan
51. The Non-Cooperation Movement in

1920 was withdrawn
A. Because of Gandhijis ill-health
B. Due to extremist policy then
adopted by the National congress
C. On a fervent appeal from the
Government
D. Because of violence at ChauriChaura
52. Krishnadevaraya was given the title
of
A. Gajabentekara
B. Bhashege tappuva rayara
ganda
C. Mooru rayara ganda
D. Yavana Rajya Sthapanacharya
53. The treaty of Srirangapatna was
signed between Tipu Sultan and
A. Robert Clive
B. Cornwallis
C. Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings
54. Which of the following are the cause
that led to the movement for Unification in
Karnataka?
9
i.
ii.
Renaissance in Karnataka
Pro unification policies of Nizam of
Hyderabad
Belgaum Congress in 1924
Karnataka
State
Political
Conference, Dharwad in 1920
iii.
iv.
Select the correct code

A.
B.
C.
D.
i ii and iv only
i iii and iv only
i and iii only
i ii and iv ony
55. Mysore congress

conference at
A.
B.
C.
D.
held
its
first
Sivapur
Ankola
Sirsi
Siddapur
56. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a

joint sitting of the both the houses of
Indian parliament, it has to be passed by a
A. Simple majority of the total number
present and voting
B. Two-third majority of the total
houses
C. Simple majority of the total number
D. Two-third majority of the total
Houses present and voting
57. Which one of the following has the
right to address the Parliament?
A. Attorney General of India
B. Chief election commissioner
India
C. Chief justice of India
of
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D. National security Advisor
58. Which one of the following statements
about parliament of India is not correct?
A. The Constitution provides for a
Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the
Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C. The membership of the cabinet is
restricted to the Lower House
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the
confidence of the majority in the
Popular Chamber
59. Which one of the following is a
function of the Pro-Tem speaker of the Lok
Sabha?
A. Conduct of the proceedings of the
House in the absence of the speaker
B. To check if the election certificates
of the members of the House are in
order
C. Swear in the members of the House
and hold the charge till a regular
Speaker is elected
D. To endorse a bill as Money bill
60. The resolution for removing the vicepresident of India can be moved in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lok Sabha alone

Either House of Parliament
Joint sitting of Parliament
Rajya Sabha alone
61. The supreme Court of India tenders

advice to the President on a matter of law
or act
A. On its own initiative
B. Only if he seeks such advice
C. Only if the matter relates to the
fundamental rights of citizens
10
D. Only if the issue poses a threat to

the unity and integrity of the
country
62. If the Prime Minister of India belonged
to the Upper House of the Parliament
A. He will not be able to vote in his
favour in the event of a nonconfidence motion
B. He will not be able to speak on the
Budget in the lower House
C. He can make statements only in the
Upper House
D. He has to become a member of the
Lower House within six months
after being sworn in as the Prime
Minister
63. The President can be impeached for
A. Violating the constitution
B. Disregarding parliament
C. For not taking the advice of council
of minister
D. All of the above
64. The name of the union given in the
constitution is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
India or Hindustan
India or Bharat
Bharatadesh or India
65. The purpose of the inclusion of

Directive Principles of state policy in
the Indian Constitution is to establish
A.
B.
C.
D.
Political democracy
Social democracy
Gandhian democracy
Social and economic democracy
66. The constitution of India recognizes
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A. Only religious minorities

B. Only Linguistic minorities
C. Religious
and
linguistic
minorities
D. Religious, Linguistic and ethnic
minorities
67. Which of the following rights are
available to Indian citizens as well as
foreigners residing in Indian territory?
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Cultural and educational rights

Right to freedom of religion
Right against discrimination by
the state on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth
Right to personal Liberty
Select the correct answer from the code

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
iii and iv only
ii and iv only
i, ii, iii and iv
68. A college student desires to get elected

to the Municipal Council of his city. The
validity of his nomination would depend
on the important condition, among others,
that
A. Right to vote and rights to be

elected without any distinction of
caste, religion, sex, property etc
B. Right to vote and right to be elected
without any distinction of age,
caste, creed or sex
C. Equal opportunity for taking part in
elections
D. The right to occupy highest office in
the
state
irrespective
of
qualifications
70. The preventive Detention Act has a
restraining effect on
A.
B.
C.
D.
Right to Equality
Right to Freedom
Right to Religion
Right to constitutional Remidies
71. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors,

narcotic drugs and opium comes under
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Excise Duty

CENVAT
State Excise Duty
General Sales Tax
72. Protection means

A. Restriction imposed on import
trade
B. Protection to home goods
C. No free exchange of goods and
services between countries
D. All of these
A. He obtains permission from the

Principal of his college
B. He is a member of a political party
C. His name figures in the voters list
D. He flies a declaration owing
allegiance of the constitution of
India
73. Agricultural income-tax is a source of

revenue to
69. Civil and political equality gives

citizens
74. Which of the following is not the

instrument of fiscal policy?
11
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Government
State Government
Local administration
Central and state Government
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Bank rate
Government expenditure
Taxes
Licence fees
ii.
iii.

about SDR(Special Drawing Right):
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
It is an international financing
instrument
It is created in 2000
It is neither paper nor gold but an
accounting entry
IMF is associated with it

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii only
i, ii and iii only
i and iii only
i, iii and iv only
76. With referece to steps taken to

achieve financial inclusion in India,
consider the following statements:
i.
ii.
iii.
Nationalisation of banks
Formation of RRBs
Adoption of village by bank
branches

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
77. Consider the following statement:

i.
12

was set up in 2011

was set under chairmanship of
Yaga Venugopal Reddy
To make recommendations on
the devolution of taxes, the
has been directed to use the
census figures of 1971

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
78. Commercialisation of agriculture

implies
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cultivation of timbers
Plantation
Production of crops for sale
Production of crops like wheat
and rice
79. Quota (in cross border trade) is

A. Tax on imports
B. Imports of capital goods
C. Limit on quantity of imports
D. Limit on quantity of exports
80. Open market operations of the RBI
mean
A. Buying and selling of shares
B. Auctioning of foreign exchange
www.nammakpsc.com
i.
ii.
iii.
C. Trading in securities
D. Transacting in gold
81. Mixed economy means
A. Co-existence of small and large
industries
B. Promoting both agriculture and
industries in the economy
C. Co-existence of public and
private sectors
D. Co-existence of rich and poor
regarding new Corporate Social
Resposibility (CSR) rules:
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Companies to spend 2% of their

3 years average annual net profit
on CSR activities
Surplus from CSR activities can
become a part of the profit of the
company
All CSR activities will have to be
within India
The new rules will not be
applicable
to
the
foreign
companies registered in India

is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
i and iii
i, ii and iii
i, ii, iii and iv
83. Too much of import of gold by India

adversely affects:
13
Trade balance
Current account balance
Capital account balance

codes given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i and ii
ii and iii
i, ii and iii
i and iii
84. Match List I with List II and select the

correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
List I
(PLAN MODEL)
Bombay plan
II Gandhian Plan
III Peopless Plan
IV Sarvodaya Plan
2
3
4
List II
(PROPOSER)
Jai
Prakash
Narayan
M N Roy
Sriman Narayan
Birla and Tata
Groups
Choose the correct option

I
II
III
IV
85. Which of the following can be used for

checking inflation temporarily?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase in wages
Decrease in money supply
Decrease in taxes
None of these
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about sea floor spreading?
A. There is constant creation of new
oceanic crust at the oceanic ridges
B. There is eruption of magma at the
oceanic ridges
C. Spreading of one ocean leads to
shrinking of another ocean
D. Sediments on the ocean floor are
thinner than expected
87. Which of the following landforms are
not formed by glaciers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cirques
Glacial troughs
Moraines
Playas

true about red soil
A. Red soil is derived from igneous
rocks in area of low rainfall
B. The colour of soil is red due to
mangnesium oxides
C. They are rich in nitrogen and lime
D. They are moisture retentive
89. The pattern of planetary winds
depends on the following
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Latitudinal variation of atmospheric

heating
Emergence of pressure belts
Migration of pressure belts
Land and sea distribution

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
14
i only
i,ii and iv only
i and iii only
All the above
90. Which among the following a line or

surface drawn on a map or chart indicates
connected point of equal salinity in the
ocean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isotherm
Isohaline
Isogyre
Isodiaphere
91. Continental drift theory was put

forward by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arthur Holmes
Alfred Wegner
Abraham Ortelius
Mc Kenzie and Parker
92. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India,

is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ganga
Indus
Brahmaputra
Mahanadi
93. Which of the following areas or

regions is most prone to earthquakes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ganga-Brahmaputra valley
Deccan plateau
Plains of northern India
Western Ghats
94. Which of the following are true

regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
i.
ii.
iii.
It is largely practiced in Assam

It is referred to as 'slash and
burn' technique
In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
few years

codes given below:
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Only i & ii
Only ii & iii
Only i & iii
All the above
97. Consider the diagram below.
95. The significant shifts in Indian

agriculture during green revolution
include
a. Non-food grains reported some
spectacular progress and shift in
the cropping pattern
b. Major food grains, in the eastern
regions productions decreased
and
in
the
northern
states
increased
The diagram shows the position of
the Earth, the moon and the Sun
codes given below:
where
A. Only a
B. Only b
C. Both (a) and (b)
A. Only situation A explains the

spring tides
B. Only situation B explains the
spring tides
96. Which of the following types of soil

are mostly confined to river basins and
coastal plains of India?
A. Alluvial soils
B. Black soils
C. Laterite soils
D. Red soils
15
C. Both A and B explains the

spring tides
D. None of these explains the
spring tides
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98. Pre monsoon showers in karnataka
B. i and ii only
are
C. i and iii only

D. i, ii and iii
i.
Also called as mango showers
ii.
Due to sea breezes over the
100. Which is the most common type of
Maidan
soil found in Karnataka?
iii.
Develop due to low pressure

during the summer months
iv.
The rainfall generally exceeds

50cms
codes given below:

A. Only i
B. Only i and ii.
C. Only i, ii and iii
D. All the above
99. Which of the passes of Karnataka
given below and their locations are
matched properly?
i.
Kollur Ghat: Udupi district
ii.
Agumbe
Ghat:
between
chikmagalur and Mangalore

Charmadi
Ghat:
between
Shimoga and Udupi

code given below:
A. i only
16
B. Back Soil
C. Laterite Soil
D. Alluvial Soil
iii.
A. Red Soil

regarding the Jyothi Sanjeevini Scheme
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
It a health scheme for Government

employees
The scheme also covers the
dependent spouses, parents and
dependent children
It is a cashless treatment against
seven
life
threatening
ailments/hazards
Suvarna Arogya Surakasha Trust will
administer the programme
Select the correct statement using the code

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i, ii and iii only
i and iii only
i, ii, iii and iv
2. Which is not a service provided by

Karnataka MobileOne?
A. Bill payments
B. Redressal of issues like road potholes
or street lights
C. Online FIR from police
D. Information to Farmers about
monsoon, market rates and subsidies.
3. Government of India has recently
launched
National
Heritage
City
Development and Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) in 12 cities across India. Which
Historical place from Karnataka is included
under this scheme?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Badami
Hampi
Mysore
Srirangapatna
4. Who is the recipient of the 2014 Sahitya

Akademi Award for Kannada?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gopal Krishna Pai

H.S Shivaprakash
C N Ramachandran
Govindray H Nayak
5. Ricky Kej won this years Grammy Award in

the Best new Age Album category for his
collaborated album called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Winds of Samsara
Winds of change
Winds of winter
Winds of rath
6. Abhaya is a scheme lauched by Mysore

City Police for the safety of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Women
Senior citizens
School children
Tourists
7. e-Sugam is an initiative by
A. Ministry of women and
development
B. Department of Agriculture
C. Depatment of Commercial tax
D. Ministry of Home
child
8. What is the objective of Suryajyothi

scheme?
A. To provide Solar lighting to Poor
farmers belonging to SC and ST
B. To provide Solar water heaters at
subsidised rates
C. To provide Solar lamp to all
government school children
D. To provide solar powered pump sets
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respect to Gourava Yojane
i.
ii.
A. Under
the
scheme
financial
assistance is provided to rural families
to construct bathroom cum toilet
B. Beneficiaries have to belong to BPL
families
C. Construction will be under NREGA
D. Beneficiaries would be shortlisted by
MLA concerned
10. Namma Bhoomi is
A. An online delivery and management
of land record project
B. Software
to
identify
illegal
construction under akrama sakrama
C. Scheme for landless
D. Name of the textbook that has been
introduced in the Primary school
respect to Ksheera Bhagya Yojane
i.
ii.
iii.
It is Nutritional supplementary
Programme
The Nodal agency is the Department
of Education
150 ml of milk is provided 3 times a
week to school children at
Government schools only

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i, ii and iii only
i and ii only
i, and iii only

respect to Vidyasiri scheme
3
It is a scheme to provide free hostel

facility to students
The scheme was originally for
students belonging to OBC, has been
extended to SC/ST postgraduate
student in the 2014-15 budget.

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
ii only
Both i and i
Neither i nor ii
13. Who among the following will be the

beneficiary of Mukhyamantrigala Santhwana
Yojane?
A. Rape Victim
B. Victims of Bonded labour
C. Industrial workers who
injuries during work
D. Victims of Road accident
sustain
14. Who won the best Actor award in the

62nd National film awards for his
performance in Nannau Avanalla Avalu?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sanchari Vijay
Marasu Manjunath
Charuhasan
Bobby Simha
15. Manaswini is a scheme for

A. Unmarried or divorced women of age
40-65 age
B. Women above the age of 65
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C. Unmarried women belonging
Minority communities
D. Working mothers
to
16. The beneficiary of Ashakiran includes:

A. Sports persons from the state
B. Physically challenged person
C. Children suffering from mental
disorder
D. Old aged person without home

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
19. Who presided over the 81st Kannada

Sahitya Sammelana?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Na D'Souza
KO.Chanabassapa
Siddalingaiah
Devanooru Mahadeva

respect to Jaladhara.
i.
ii.
It aims at providing drinking water

facility through tap connection
It will cover all household in rural
area

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
20. What was the demand of Gokak

agitation?
A. Demand for special status to
Hyderabad-Karnataka
B. Demand to give Kannada language
first-language status in Karnataka
C. Against the verdict of Kaveri water
tribunal
D. Against Marati influence in Belgaum
21. The proposed reservoir at Mekedatu is

proposed to be built across

regarding Kannada Sahitya Parishat
i.
ii.
4
Its head quarter is located at

Bangalore
It is under the ministry of Higher
education
A.
B.
C.
D.
River Cauvery
River Nethravathi
River Bhima
River Godavari
22. Power supply in Karnataka is
www.nammakpsc.com
i.
ii.
iii.
Free of cost for the agricultural

purposes
Is provided at a subsidised cost for
agricultural purpose
Provided at subsidised cost only in
rural areas
Which of the above statements are true?

A.
B.
C.
D.
i.
ii.
25. Which of the following is true
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 1 and 3
None of the above
23. Karnataka Legislators Local

Development Scheme involves
i.
ii.
Area
Investment
in
development
programmes based on a sectoral
planning process
A participatory demand responsive
development approach to address
infrastructure
development
requirements of the local area within
a Legislator's Constituency
Which of the above is true? Choose the
correct codes from below
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither of the above
24. Karnataka Udyog Mitra

A. Is specially meant for the
promotion and facilitation of
investments in the State.
5
B. Is a specially designed placement

cell for migrant population
C. Is meant for skill development
programme under skill India
programme
D. Extension centre for young
entreprenuers belonging to SC and
ST
Bengaluru, is the 4th Best

Technology Hub in the world
The share of Karnataka in IT
exports is nearly 38% of the
country's exports.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2

about Karnataka I4 Policy ?
A. Land allotment for companies
linked
to
employment
generation
B. Sole focus on Bangalore rural
and urban areas
C. Start-up companies to be
provided
internet
at
concessional rates
D. Skill development programme
for training unemployed youth
in basic IT/BPO/ESDM/Telecom
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27. Which of these form part of

Karnatakas exports
i.
Electronics
and
software
Petroleum and
products
Gems& jewellery
ii.
iii.
ii.
computer

petroleum
A.
B.
C.
D.
Select from codes below

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 1 and 3
Only 1 and 2
All the above
28. Which of the following schemes are

extended for the welfare of SC/STs
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
Training in various computer

courses and plastic processing
technology
Ganga Kalyana Scheme

Micro Credit Scheme
Self-Employment Scheme
Sandhya suraksha scheme
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
30. Match
objectives
the
programmes
Programmes
Swavalambana 1
II
Prathibe
III
Sadhane
Only 1
Only 1,2 and 3
Only 1,2 and 4
All the above
IV
Niramaya

Koushalya scheme?
i.
Its extended for unemployed

women belonging to minority
communities
its
Objective
Financial
assistance for
Sports
for
disabled
Financial
assistance for
Cultural
activities for
disabled
Insurance
scheme
for
the disabled
Margin Money
Loan Scheme
for minorities

A.
B.
C.
D.
with

below
I
II
III
IV
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C
ii.
31. Grameena Punarvasathi Yojane

A. Scheme of education, training and
rehabilitation of persons with
disabilities
B. Provision of housing for SC/STs in
rural areas
C. Provision of shelter for STs
subjected to land alienation
D. Rehabilitation of migrant labour
32. Heritage Based Urban Development is

A. Aimed at better preservation the
various heritage sites of the
historical past
B. Aimed at improving the quality of
life
and
socioeconomic
development opportunities in
heritage towns and cities
C. Conserving the natural heritage
like various green belts, reserved
forests etc in urban areas
D. Identifying newer places of
archaeological importance and
developing them into tourist
hotspots
33. Which of the following statements is

true?
i.
Karnataka is yet to implement its

first Biogas Plant unit to tackle its
iii.
Solid
Waste
Management
problems.
Municipal
Corporations
(Amendment) Act, 2013 imposes
penalties on the violators of rules
for waste disposal
Karnataka
doesnt
have
anIntegrated policy on Solid
Waste Management
Select from the code below

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 2
Only 3
None of the above

Nanna Mane scheme?
i.
ii.
iii.
Affordable
Housing
for
Belowpoverty line people
Aimed at Auto drivers, Film
Industryworkers,
Unorganized
sector workers,Beedi workers,
Hamals Street Vendors etc
Centrally sponsored scheme

A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 2
Only 2 and 3
35. Which of the following are true about

Comprehensive Horticulture Development
Scheme of Karnataka
i.
It aims to divert farmers from

traditional agriculture crops to
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ii.
iii.
iv.
more
income
fetching
Horticultural crops.
It also aims to decrease the post
harvest loss from 25% to 10% by
correcting the defects in post
harvest chain
But fails to provide for a market
mechanism for sale of farmers
horticultural produce
There is no thrust on the newer
technological
innovations
in
farming
Only 1 and 2
Only 1 and 3
Only 1,2 and 3
All the above
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 1 and 3
None of the above
38. Which of the following statements

are true about Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
i.
ii.
iii.

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
iv.
Aimed at enhancing livelihood

security in rural areas
By providing at least 100 days of
guaranteed wage employment
Provides unskilled manual work to
adult
members
of
every
household who volunteer to work.
It also involves generation of
productive assets in rural areas

36. Precision Farming in banana is a scheme
directed at
A. Schedule Caste/Schedule
farmers
B. Farmers in rainfed areas
C. Farmers in hilly areas
D. BPL farmers
Tribe
37. CPCB has specified water quality criteria

depending on the designated best use and
activities in the river. Which of these classes
refer to drinking water
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E

8
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 1
Only 1 and 2
Only 1 and 3
All the above
39. Tamarind grove, Nallur; Hogrekhan,

Chikmaglur; GKVK,UAS Bangalore; and
Ambargudda, Shimoga are all example of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Conservation reserve
Botanical Garden
Heritage site
Biofuel Park
40. In Karnataka which type of irrigation

accounts for the highest proportion in
net irrigated area?
A. Tube wells/ bore wells
B. Canals
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C. Dug wells
D. Tanks
41. Horticulture is the science of
cultivation of:
1. Fruit.
2. Vegetables.
3. Flowers.
code given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 & 2 only.
3 only.
1, 2 & 3.
1 & 3 only.
42. Consider the following statements with

regard to Thorium based nuclear power
plants:
Assertion: Thorium cannot be used directly
to produce nuclear energy.
Reason: Thorium does not contain any fissile
material.
A. Assertion & Reason both are
correct and Reason is the correct
explanation.
B. Assertion & Reason both are
correct but reason is not the
correct explanation.
C. Assertion is wrong, Reason is
correct.
D. Assertion is correct, reason is
wrong.
43. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with regard to the Solar cell
technologies:
1. Crystalline silicon solar cells have a
greater market share than thin film
solar cells.
2. Thin film solar cells are cheaper
than crystalline silicon solar cells.
3. Crystalline silicon cells are more
efficient than thin film solar cells.
4. Both the technology operates on
the same photovoltaic principle.
5. Crystalline silicon solar cells are
more environmental friendly to
dispose than thin film solar cells at
the end of their respective lives
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
All except 2 & 5.

All except 2 & 3.
All except 3.
All the above options are wrong.
44. Which of the following statements is/are

correct about Dark Matter:
1. Dark matter does not interact with
any electromagnetic radiation.
2. Dark matter interacts with ordinary
matter through gravity only.
3. The force between dark matter and
ordinary matter is repulsive.
given below:
A. 1 only.
B. 1 & 2 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
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D. 1, 2 & 3
48. Which of the following is not a feature of

Graphene?
45. What is Kessler Syndrome ?

A. A disease where human talk while
sleeping.
B. A rare viral disease causing
respiratory problems.
C. A problem found in space launch
vehicles.
D. Proliferation of space debris in low
earth orbit.
46. Consider the following statements.

1. IRNSS is an Independent regional
navigation satellite system being
developed by India.
2. IRNSS
will
provide
Standard
Positioning Service (SPS) only.
3. IRNSS satellites revolve round the
earth at the height of about 18,000
km from the earths surface.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
1 and3
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
47. In year 2014, a drug named ZMapp was

approved
by
World
Health
Organisation(WHO) to against
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
Ebola
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Dengue
A.
B.
C.
D.
Elastic
Lightweight
Weak
Flexible
49. Night blindness can be corrected by the

intake of ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vitamin A
Vitamin B Complex
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
50. The purpose of Genetically modifying

brinjal and cotton as Bt-Brinjal, Bt-Cotton
was to make them?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Drought resistant
High yielding
Pest resistant
Short-duration crops
51. The release of which one of the

following into Ponds and wells helps in
controlling mosquitoes ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crab
Gambusia Fish
Dogfish
Snail
52. What is a Firewall in Computer Network?

A. An operating System of Computer
Network
www.nammakpsc.com
B. The physical boundary of Network
C. A web browsing Software
D. A system designed to prevent
unauthorized access
53. What is the difference between a CFL

and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses
mercury vapour and phosphor
while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is
much longer than that of an
LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as
compared to an LED lamp.
is/are correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 only
1 and 2
1 and 3
All the above
54. Which of the following is used in

pencils?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11
Graphite
Silicon
Charcoal
Phosphorous
55. Consuming unsaturated fats reduce the

occurrence of cardiovascular problems like
stroke, heart failure and heart attacks.
Which of the following are rich sources of
unsaturated fats
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
olive oil
leafy greens
fish
coconut oil
butter
Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 3Only
1,2 and 3 only
1,2 ,3 and 4
All the above
56. Which of the following are biofuels

1.
2.
3.
4.
Biogas
Bioethanol
Syngas
Green diesel

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 and 4
All the above
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true
1. Carbon di oxide is not a
greenhouse gas
2. Nitrogen dioxide and methane are
greenhouse gases produced from
agricultural fields
3. The greenhouse effect is due to
impermeability
of
long
wavelength radiations through the
atmosphere
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
All the above
58. Which of the following are techniques of

preventing soil erosion?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Terrace cultivation
Contour ploughing
Jhuming
Strip cropping

given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
1, 3 and 4
1. Ultra violet rays strike on the

earth due to depletion of ozone
layer
2. Wet scrubbers method is used to
remove sulphur dioxide and
ammonia from the polluted aur
3. Compound of mercury cause
minamata disease
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
2 and 3
All of these
None of these
60. Which of the following are

characteristics of persistent organic
pollutants
1. Highly toxic to humans and the
environment
2. Persistent in the environment,
resisting bio-degradation
3. Taken up and bio-accumulated in
terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems
4. Capable
of
long-range,
transboundary
atmospheric
transport and deposition
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
2 and 3
1, 2 and 3
All the above
61. Septic tank is:

not true
12
A. An aerobic attached
treatment system
growth
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B. An aerobic suspended growth
biological treatment system
C. An anaerobic attached growth
biological treatment system
D. An anaerobic suspended growth
treatment system
D. 1 and 4
65. A recent study taken up by a team of
researchers from the Zoological Survey of
India (ZSI), Chennai, brought to light the
serious threat of extinction the coral reef
62. Biological oxygen demand of ______ is

the least.
colonies and mangrove forests in the Palk

Bay are facing. The probable reasons for this
A.
B.
C.
D.
sewage
sea water
pure water
polluted water
decline are:
1. Global Warming.
2. Siltation.
63. The three primary soil macronutrients

are
A. carbon, oxygen, and water.
B. copper, cadmium, and carbon.
C. potassium,
phosphorus,
and
nitrogen.
D. boron, zinc, and manganese.
64. Identify the correctly matched pairs
3. Overgrowth of Algae.
given below:
A. 1 & 2 only.
B. 1 & 3 only.
C. 2 & 3 only.
D. 1, 2 & 3
1. Basel
convention-biodiversity
convention
2. Montreal
protocol- ozone
conservation
3. Kyoto protocol-climate change
4. Ramsar convention-endangered
species conservation
given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
13

correct with regard to Red tide a term
used to describe Harmful Algal Blooms
(HABs) in marine coastal areas.
1. These blooms are not associated
with tides.
2. HABs tint the seawater to a
reddish color.
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3. Not all algal blooms are harmful,
even
those
involving
red
discoloration.
C. Reducing
Environmental
Degeneration
and
Land
Degaradation
given below:
D. Reducing Ecological Destruction

by Deforestation
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 & 3 only.
1 & 2 only.
2 & 3 only.
1, 2 & 3
69. Global warming has the following

effects
67. Which of the pairs are correctly matched

1. Olive Ridley sea turtle Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary.
2. Dolphins-Vikramshila Sanctuary
3. Indian Rhinos-Kaziranga National
Park
given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 and 2
1 and 3
All of these
None of these
1. Earths crust is moving upwards in

the Northern Antarctic Peninsula
2. Rising sea levels
3. Disrupted monsoons
4. Ozone hole formation
code given below:
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 ,2 and 3
D. All the above
68. REDD refers to
A. Reducing
Emissions
Deforestation
and
from
Forest
Degradation
B. Reducing
Deforestation
Land Degardation
14
aboutThe Jawaharlal Nehru National

Solar Mission
1. It is apart of National Action Plan on
and
Climate Change
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2. The Mission hasset a target of

deploying
2000
MW
of
grid
connected solar power by 2022

3. The first phase up to 2013 focussed
on promoting off-grid systems to
serve populations without access to
electricity
4. Phase II focuses on modest capacity
addition in grid-based systems.
correct? Choose from the codes given
below
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All the above
Direction: (Q. No. 71 to 77) Read the three

passages given below and answer the
seven questions that follow based on the
information given in the passage.
Passages-1
Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry,
urban crowding and deforestation has
added to atmospheric concentrations of
carbon, warming land and oean bringing
extreme weather. Societal benefits of
abating high levels of emissions far outweigh
15
the cost of doing so. Yet economists and

policy makers have not drawn the
implication of this calculus for the reform
agenda, be it in trade energy or
infrastructure. Sadly the costs of such
neglect are large. Also, no country has
enough motivation to confront global
problems alone. Because only a part of the
benefits of addressing those problems
would accrue to countries taking action,
while others have a free rid. The gains are
also spread over time, beyond the horizon of
politicians interest. Such situations call for
collective action even if they are not easy
when many diverse countries are involved.
71. Which of the following is true in the
context of the passage?
A. Pollution from vehicles is the greatest
contributor to global warming
B. The rise of middle income countries
has doubled the level of green house
gases emissions
C. Urban crowding has resulted in
extreme weather conditions
72. According to the passage, why are

politicians
reluctant
to
formulate
environmental reforms?
1. The expenditure on implementing
environmental reform does not justify
the benefits
2. Economic stability is a more pressing
concern for countries today
3. The impact of these policies will only
be felt in the long run which does not
benefit them politically
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given below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 3
Only 1
1 and 3
2 and 3
73. Which of the following is a means to

reduce the environmental threat to growth?
A. Governments should conduct a cost
benefit
analysis
of
various
environmental protection measures
and implement those which are cost
efficient
B. Participation of all countries in arriving
at consensus on measures necessary
to combat environment challenges to
growth
C. Scientists, not economists should
determine the risks of climate change
these things, however, would seem to them

to involve any essential change in the beliefs
and purposes of men as they had known
them. The Prohibition Amendment, on the
contrary, would evidence to their minds the
breaking down of a principle of government
which they had deemed axiomatic, the
abandonment of a purpose which they had
supposed immutable.
74. It can be inferred that the paragraph is
intended as
A. An introduction to a discussion of a
constitutional amendment
B. A summary of social and political
change since the writing of the Federal
Constitution
C. An introduction to a history of the
Constitution
D. A clarification of the authors view of a
controversy
75. The author apparently believes that the
principle of government mentioned in the
last sentence is
Passage-2
Could Washington, Madison, and the other
framers of the Federal Constitution revisit
the earth in this year 1922, it is likely that
nothing would bewilder them more than the
recent Prohibition amendment. Railways,
steamships, the telephone, automobiles,
flying machines, submarines all these
developments, unknown in their day, would
fill them with amazement and admiration.
They would marvel at the story of the rise
and downfall of the German Empire; at the
growth and resent greatness of the Republic
they themselves had founded. None of
16
A. Not implicit in the original Constitution

B. To be taken as true for all time
C. Apparently violated by the Prohibition
Amendment
D. An essential change in the beliefs of
the American people
Passage-3
I have previously defined a sanctuary as a
place where man is passive and the rest of
Nature active. But this general definition is
too absolute for any special case. The mere
fact that man has to protect a sanctuary
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does away with his purely passive attitude.
Then, he can be beneficially active by
destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies
or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for
diseases like the epidemic which periodically
kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of
the carnivora to death. But, except in cases
where experiment has proved his
intervention to be beneficial, the less he
upsets the balance of Nature the better,
even when he tries to be an earthly
Providence
During a party, a person was exposed to

contaminated water. A few days later, he
developed fever and loose motions. He
suffered for some days before going to a
doctor for treatment. On starting the
treatment, he soon became better and
recovered completely a few days later. The
following graph show shows different
phases of the persons disease condition as
regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
76. The author implies that his first

definition of a sanctuary is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Totally wrong
Somewhat idealistic
Unhelpful
Indefensible
77. The authors argument that destroying

bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a
beneficial action is most weakened by all of
the following except
A. Parasites have an important role to
play in the regulation of populations
B. The elimination of any species can
have unpredictable effects on the
balance of nature
C. The pests themselves are part of the
food chain
D. These insects have been introduced to
the area by human activities
Directions (Qs 78-80): Read the passage

given below. Study the graph that follows
and answer the three items given below
the figure.
17
78. Which region/regions of the curve

corresponds to incubation phase of the
infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A only
B only
B and C only
No part of the curve indicates the
incubation Phase
79. which region of the curve indicates that

the person began showing the symptoms of
infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A
B
C
D
80. Which region of the curve indicates that

the treatment yielded effective relief?
A. C
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B. D
C. E
D. The curve doesnot indicate the
treatment
81. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age
when she was born while her mother was 36
years old when her brother four years
younger to her was born. What is the
difference between the ages of her parents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 years
4 years
6 years
8 years
82. If the average marks of three batches of

55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55,
60, then the average marks of all the
students is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.33
54.68
55
none of these
83. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a

kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to
produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1:3
2:3
3:4
4:5
84. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of

10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km
more. The actual distance travelled by him
is:
A. 50km
B. 56km
18
C. 70km
D. 80km
85. A sum of money at simple interest
amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854
in 4 years. The sum is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rs 650
Rs 690
Rs 698
Rs 700
86. The percentage increase in the area of a

rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by
20% is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
40
42
44
46
87. In a swimming pool measuring 90m by

40m, 150 men take a dip. If the average
displacement of water by man is 8 cubic
metres, what will be the rise in water level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.33cm
30cm
20cm
25cm
88. The population of a town increased from

1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The
average percent increase of population per
year is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.37%
5%
6%
8.75%
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89. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells
40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A.
B.
C.
D.
588 apples
600 apples
672 apples
700 apples
90. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations

of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and
ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of
each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45
60
75
90
91. A man has some hens and cows. If the

number of heads be 48 and the number of
feet equals 140, then the number of hens
will be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
26
24
23
22
92. When the following figure is folded to

form a cube, how many dots lie opposite the
face bearing five dots?
D. 4
93. Find the number of triangles in the given

figure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
18
19
21
Direction for Q.No 94-96: Study the

following figure and answer the questions
given below.
94. How many doctors are neither artists nor

players ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17
5
10
30
95. How many doctors are both players and

artists?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
19
A. 22
B. 8
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C. 3
D. 30
96. How many artists are players ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5
8
25
16
Directions for the following four (4) items:

Given below are four items. Each item
describes a situation and is followed by
four possible responses. Indicate the
response you find most appropriate.
Choose only one response for each item.
The responses will be evaluated based on
the level of appropriateness for the given
situation.
[note: KPSC notification mentions that the
negative marking for the following questions
shall be inbuilt in the form of different marks
being awarded to the most appropriate and
not so appropriate answer for such
questions]
97. You are an employee in one of the

public enterprises. You have to make a
presentation in front of your customers
with one of your co-workers. Just before
stating the presentation, you found your
partner missing. You would
A. Take the suitable substitute partner
B. Not take part in the presentation
C. Deliver the whole presentation
alone
D. Get tense and frustrated
20
98. You are a manager of a construction

company. There have been regular
complaints about an employee by many
customers in written. You will
A. Punish the concerned employee
instantly
B. Sack the employee from the job as
it is affecting the working conditions
of the company
C. Call the concerned employee and
discuss the matter
D. Try to enquire about the concerned
employee from his co-workers and
till then give some assurance to the
customers
99. You are returning home and you find
a sealed envelope on the street. Its fully
addressed with unused stamps on it. You
would
A. Leave it there as it was and walk
away
B. Remove the stamps and destroy the
envelope
C. Open the envelope, find out who
has dropped by mistake and send it
to him if possible
D. Post it at the nearest post office
100. You are the head of a village

panchayat. In a national level meeting on
the success of a government project, you
have to make a presentation giving all
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the feedbacks. You have collected all the

data and some of the data that you have
gathered for the presentation opposes
the success of the project, some of the
important ministers are attending the
conference. What should you do?
A. Make the presentation giving all the
feedbacks and data despite the risk
of losing hold
B. Make the presentation on the basis
of only favouring data
C. Exaggerate the favourite data,
without much highlighting the
opposing data
D. Modify the opposing data to make
it upto the mark
21

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1. Among the following revolt which is

4. Consider the statements:

2. With which objective, CR Das and

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Gandhi Irwin Pact was effected

5. Consider the following statements:

7. Match List I with List II.

9. The slogan One religion, one caste,

a. A parsi social reformer who

8. Identify the incorrect statements

Choose the correct statements:

E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker

10. Which was the first newspaper

11. Dr B R Ambedkar clashed with

B. Reservation for Dalits in Ministries

C. Separate citizen status for Dalits

Select the correct answer using the

14. Who among the following was

16. Choose the correct statements about

He was the commander in chief

13. The doctrine of suleh kul among

17. Who was the founder of Arvidu

18. Who rose in revolt against the

19. The kodagu uprising was led by

24. The integral principles of Indias

20. Which of the following are kannada

25. Justice Miller

Sir Richard Meade

22. Mysore Chalo movement was

A. To look into the grievances of

21. Who shifted the capital of Mysore

26. Identify the correct statements

It was inspired by The Justice

It was successful in becoming a

29. I. Mysore Rule during the period of

II. Krishnaraja odeyar III was called

27. Nagar Insurrection that led to the

Krishnaraja Wodeyar III

The Dakshinadi school is the

Question 28 and 29 contain two

Both the statements are true

Only statement I is true

Only statement II is true

Both statement are false

31. Gandhara School of Art developed in

28. I. Representative assembly was

Chandra Gupta Maurya

32. In which of the following places rock

33. Which of the following is called the

34. With respect to the Mysore

35. Which of the following significant

Praja Samyukta Paksha was

36. Consider the following statements

40. The salary and allowances of Chief

D. All of the above

42. Consider the following:

43. The C & AG of India does not audit

44. A member of a State Public Service

Choose the correct option from the

46. With reference to the State

The Legislative Council is a

Choose the correct option from the