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Betalactam drugs

1. T/F regarding antibiotics


a) Bactericidal drugs are more effective against rapidly dividing
organisms T
b) MIC(minimum inhibitory concentration) is an indicator of potency
of an antibiotic T
c) Inappropriate use of antibiotics promote antibiotic resistance T
d) Initiation of empirical therapy is microbiologically guided F
e) Chemoprophylaxis is given in large bowel surgery T

2. T/F regarding antibiotics


a) Benzyl penicillin is given once in 21-28 days rheumatic fever T
b) Gentamicin is well absorbed following oral administration F
c) Erythromycin is contraindicated in patients with penicillin allergy
F
d) Chloramphenicol is known to cause grey baby syndrome T
e) Metronidazole is used to treat pseudomembranous colitis T

3. T/F regarding beta lactam antibiotics


a) Cephalosporins inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross links
in bacterial cell walls T
b) Benzyl penicillin is acid stable F
c) Reduced doses of benzyl penillin are required for patients with
renal impairment T
d) Have a low therapeutic index F
e) Amoxicillin is beta lactamase resistant F
4. These drugs inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
a) Macrolids F
b) Choloramphenicol F
c) Cephalosporins T
d) Quinolones F
e) Carbepenams T
5. T/F regarding antimycobacterial drugs
a) Dapsone is known to cause red urine F
b) Streptomycin can be safely given in pregnancy F
c) Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis T
d) Miliary TB is treated with the standard drug regime given for 8
months F

e) Pyrazinamide is the most least likely out of the standard antiTB


drugs to cause hepatotoxicity F

Antimalarial drugs
6. Chloroquine
a) is a blood schizonticidal drug T
b) produces a radical cure for plasmodium vivax infection F
c) Is contraindicated in pregnancy F
d) Has a large volume of distribution T
e) Hypotension is a risk seen in intravenous administration T
7. Antimalarial drugs
a) PQ hypnozoidal in P.V infection T
b) Parentral quinine causes hypoglycemia T
c) Metroquinne chemoprophylaxis in SL F
d) Quinene is contraindicated in 1st trimester F
e) Cortem is given according to weight T

Antivirals and antifungals


8. T/F in antivirals and antifungals
a) Acyclovir is given IV in herpes simplex encephalitis T
b) Acyclovir reduces the severity of herpes zoster infection if
started within 24hrs of onset of rash T
c) Tamiflu is recommended for post exposure prophylaxis of
influenza in healthy individuals F
d) Oral nystatin is effective in treatment of superficial candidacies
of the mouth T
e) Antacids reduce the absorption on ketoconozole T
9.

T/F regarding antivirals


a) Macrolides are known to decrease anticoagulatory effects of
warfarin F
b) Chloramphenicol act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis T
c) Tetracyclines are known to cause brownish pigmentation of teeth
in children T
d) Sulphanamides are bacteriocidal T
e) Erythromycin is bactericidal in high doses T

Aminoglycosides

10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Aminoglycosides
Are known to cause reversible otoxicity F
Shows time dependent killing F
Act by arresting the multiplication of bacteria F
Are effective against gram negative aerobic infections T
Once daily dose is recommended in patients with infective
endocarditis F

Aminoglycosides
Single dose in infective endorcarditis F
Synergistic act with benzyl penicillin T
Destroys cell by inhibiting cell wall synthesis F
Irreversible autotoxicity T
Does not cross BBB readily T

Quinolones
12.

Quinolones
Are used in the treatment of airway tract infections F
Are bacteriostatic F
Are safe throughout pregnancy F
Are more active against gram negative than gram positive
organisms T
e) Are known to cause tendernitis due to concomitant use of
NSAIDS F
a)
b)
c)
d)

Iron therapy and vitamins


13.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

14.

T/F regarding iron therapy


Taking iron with tea enhances absorption F
Total iron binding capacity is decreased in iron deficiency anemia
T
Serum transferrin level is a measurement of iron stores F
Black stools are known to occur in iron replacement therapy T
Ferrous fumarate has a higher efficacy than ferrous sulphate F

T/F regarding vitamins


a) Isoniazid can cause pyridoxine deficiency T

b) Hyperkaelemia is known to occur in the treatment of pernicious


anemia F
c) Vitamin B12 absorption is dependent on lipid metabolism F
d) Vitamin A is used in the treatment of psoriasis T
e) Folic acid supplements are given via the oral route T
Calcium and phosphate metabolism
15.

In drug treatment for osteoporosis


a) HRT(hormone replacement therapy) in post menopausal women
is known to increase the risk of endometrial carcinoma T
b) Raloxifene reduces the incidence of nonvertebral fractures F
c) Alendronate is safely prescribed in renal failure
d) Etidronate causes gastric irritation T
e) Alendronate suppresses bone resorption by osteoporosis T

Pharmacokinetics
16.

T/F regarding drug metabolism


a) Zero-order metabolism applies to most drugs in clinical use F
b) In first-order metabolic processes enzyme activity is rate limiting
T
c) In zero-order kinetics a constant amount of the drug is
eliminated per unit time T
d) In first order kinetics, at steady rate the rate of elimination of a
drug is less than the rate of administrationF
e) Alcohol at higher doses a constant fraction of the plasma
concentration is eliminated per unit time F

17.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Drugs act by
Interacting with receptors T
Altering the activity of enzymes T
Altering the metabolism of microorganisms
Altering the membrane permeability
Interfering with the activity of the ion channelsT

18.
T/F regarding drugs acting on
muscarinic receptors
a) Pilocarpine produces miosis due to agonism T
b) Atropine is a muscarinis agonist F
c) Ipratropium relaxes the bronchial smooth muscles T
d) Propanthelin increases gastro intestinal spasms F
e) Hyoscine produces an antiemetic effect T

19.

T/F regarding absorption of a drug


a) Most clinically used drugs are absorbed in the small intestine T
b) Absorption of drugs are independent of the Ph F
c) Rate of absorption is greater when given IM than when given SC
T
d) Absorption is less if the drugs are non ionized F
e) Lipid solubility enhances the absorption of drugs T

20.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/f regarding effects of Beta adrenergic agonists


Bronchoconstriction F
Negative chronotropic effect F
Relaxes uterine smooth muscles T
Positive inotropic effect T
Increase oxygen demand T

21. T/F regarding plasma half life


a) Drugs with a short half life a given orally F
b) Determines the time taken for a drug to be eliminated from the
body T
c) Drugs that show zero-order elimination processes have a
constant t F
d) It determines the time taken to reach steady state concentration
T
e) Drugs that have long t are given once daily T

22.

T/F regarding therapeutic index


a) It is the ratio between toxic dose to the therapeutic dose T
b) Frequent dose increments of drugs with a small therapeutic index
is safe F
c) Digoxin has small therapeutic index T
d) Frusemide has high therapeutic index
e) Drugs that have small therapeutic index can be given more
frequently without monitoring F

23.

Bioavailability of a drug is dependent on


a) Method of administration T
b) Molecular size T
c) Route of excretion

d) First past metabolism T


e) Excipients T
24. Drugs with narrow therapeutic index are
a) Theophillin T
b) Gentamycin T
c) Warfarin T
d) Lithium T
e) Digoxin T

Cholinergic and anticholinergic drugs


25.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Symptoms of atropine intoxication are


Hyperthermia
Bradycardia F
Mydriasis T
Bronchocospasm F
Sweating F

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Following drugs are used in myasthenia gravis


Edrophonium T
Metoprolol F
Pilocarpine F
Pyridostigmine T
Neostigmine T

26.

Drugs used in thyroid disorders


27.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/F reagarding drugs used in thyroid disorders


Propylthiouracil inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 T
Carbimazole is converted to methimazole in vivo T
Agranulocytosis is a common adverse effects of carbimazole T
Propylthiouracil is contraindicated in pregnancy
Levothyroxine is the treatment of choice for maintenance
therapy in neonatal hypothyroidism T

Adrenal steroids
28.

T/F regarding adrenal steroids

a)
b)
c)
d)

Fluorinated steroids should be avoided during pregnancy T


Dexamethasone is a short acting glucocorticoid F
Hyperglycemia is a known side effect of corticosteroids T
Chronic corticosteroid therapy is stopped during an infective
episode F
e) Hydrocortisone is known to cause retension of salt and water
Drugs for DM
29.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30.

T/F regarding insulin


Insulin lispro is a short acting insulin F
Insulin is stored in the door of the refrigerator T
Absorption is greater when injected to the thigh compared to the
abdomen F
Biphasic insulin consists of a long acting and short acting insulin
F
Rapid acting preparations have a cloudy appearance F

Metformin
a) Causes weight gain F
b) Mechanism of action is dependent on the presence of functioning
beta cells F
c) Has no effect on postprandial blood glucose F
d) Is contraindicated in hepatic impairment T
e) Should be avoided during lactation F

31.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/F regarding oral hypoglycemic drugs


Oral hypoglycemic drugs are generally given before meals T
Thiazolidinediones act by increasing insulin secretion F
Glibenclamide is preferred in elderly diabetic patients F
Sulphonylureas cause weight loss F
Acarbose reduces the absorption of carbohydrates T

Sex hormones
32.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
OCP

T/F regarding sex hormones


Oestradiol causes retention of salt and water T
Testosterone is used to treat prostatic cancer F
Progesterone therapy is known to cause hirsutism T
Oestrogen reduces the risk of thromboembolism F
Testosterone is increased by growth hormone F

33.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

34.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/F regarding oral contraceptive pills


The routinely prescribed OCP is a monophasic high strength
preparation
The multiphasic pill has less metabolic adverse effects than the
monophasic pill T
Commonly used oestrogen is ethinyloestridiol T
Oestrogen in OCP thickens the cervical mucus F
Migraine with typical focal aura is a contraindication T

T/F regarding emergency contraception


Levonorgestriol is the preparation used T
Interferes with an established pregnancy F
Should be taken within 72 hrs of unprotected sex T
It is recommended to use a barrier method after using the
emergency pill until the next period T
Replace the dose if vomiting occurs within 2hrs of takin the pill
T ? 1 HR

Ovarian stimulants and oxytocic drugs


35.

T/F regarding ovarian stimulants


a) Clomifene acts as an antagonist in the presence of endogenous
oestrogens T
b) Tamoxifen improves survival in breast carcinoma T
c) Clomifene is administered during the early luteal phase of the
menstrual cycle to treat infertility F
d) Tamoxifen is a partial agonist of oestrogen receptors F
e) Clomifene reduces the risk of ovarian carcinoma F

36.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/F
Ergometrine causes rhythmic contractions F
Hypertension is a common side effect of oxytocin F
Misoprostol induces abortion T
Salbutamol is given to delay premature labour T
Prostaglandins inhibit uterine contractions F

Best of five

37.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause
hypoglycemia
a) Methformin
b) Acarbose
c) Tolbutamide
d) Insulin T
e) glitazone

38.
drug
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

In which of the following conditions is tertracycline the


of first choice
Amoebiasis
Treatment of chronic hyponatremia due to ACTH secretion
Prophylaxis of malaria
Mycoplasma pneumonia T
Soft tissue infections in patients who are allergic to beta lactam T

Macrolides
39. Macrolides
a) Erythromycin induce p450 enzyme F
b) Time dependent killing T
c) Used in atypical pneumonia T
d) Penicillin resistance, given as substitute T
e) Is a protein synthesis inhibitor

40.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

41.

Drugs causing hepatic induction


Rifampicin T
Erythromycin F
Ethanol T
Carbemazepine T
Penicillin

Antidotes
a) Methanol-ethanol T
b) Iron-desferixamin T

c) Opiods-flumazenil F
d) Digoxin-atropine T
e) TAC-naloxone F

42.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Diazepam
Antagonist of GABA receptors F
Effective in the management of status epilepticum T
Long term use cause dependence T
Rapid iv administration cause resp. depression T
Reduces anxiety T

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Antidepressants
Tricyclics-start with a low dose T
Imipramine-selective serotonin uptake inhibitor F
Imipramine-more cardiotoxic than fluxetine T
Salt free diet is recommended when lithium is given F
Are addictive F

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Antiepileptic
Carmazepine-inhibit GABA F
Phenytoin-gingival hyperplasia T
Folic acid given all epileptic women in their childbearing age T
Sodium valproate-tratment of absence seizure T
Carbemazepine-induces its own metabolism T

43.

44.

45. Antipsychotic drugs


a) All act by blocking dopamine D2 receptors T
b) Risperidone-less extrapyramidal symptoms than chloprmazin T
c) Chlorpromazine-effective in resistant schizophrenia F
d) Clozapine-fatal agranulocytosis T
e) Chlorpromazine-no sedative effect F

46.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

T/F of peptic ulcer disease


Effects of H2 receptor blockers are enhanced post-pandrially F
AL-diarrhoea F
Simeticone-reduce flatulence T
Omeprazole-accumulate in areas of low PH T
Omeprazole is a pro drug T