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MOCK XAT - 2
INSTRUCTIONS :

There are 2 parts in this test. Part-A consists of 89 questions distributed in 3 sections. You have 2 hours time
to complete Part-A. For first five wrong answer in each section 1/3 mark will be deducted from your score, after
which 1/2 mark will be deducted for any further wrong answers. Total marks for Part-A is 100.

Part-B consist of General Awareness & Essay-Writing. You will be given 40 minutes to complete Part-B.

PART - A

SECTION - I : VERBAL ABILITY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Read the passage carefully and

choose the correct answer.
The world as an art is the play of the Supreme Person revelling in
image making. Try to find out the ingredients of the image - they
elude you; they never reveal to you the internal secret on
appearance. In your effort to capture life, as expressed in living
tissue, you will find carbon, nitrogen and many other things
utterly unlike life, but never life itself. The appearance does not
offer any commentary of itself through its material. You may call
it Maya and pretend to disbelieve it, but the great artist, the
Mayavin, is not hurt. For art is Maya, it has no other explanation
but that it seems to be what it is. It never tries to conceal its
evasiveness, it mocks even its own definition and plays the game
of hide and seek through its constant flight in changes.
And the life which is an incessant explosion of freedom finds its
metre in a continual falling back in death. Every day is a death,
every moment even. If not. it would be an amorphous desert of
deathlessness eternally dumb and still. So life is Maya, as
moralists love to say, it is and is not.

All that we find in it is the rhythm through which it shows

itself. Are rocks and minerals any better? Has not science shown
us the fact that the ultimate difference between one element and
another is only that of rhythm? The fundamental distinction of
gold from mercury lies in the difference of rhythm in their
respective atomic constitution, like the distinction of the king
from his subject which is not in their different constituents but in
the different metres of their situation and circumstances.
There you find behind the scene the Artist, the Magician
of rhythm, who imparts an appearance of substance to the
unsubstantial. What is this rhythm? It is the movement generated
and regulated by harmonious restriction. This is the creative force
in the hand of the artist. So long as words remain in uncadenced
prose form, they do not give any lasting feeling of reality. The
moment they are taken and put into rhythm they vibrate into a
radiance. It is the same with the rose. In the pulp of its petals you
may find everything that went to make the rose, but the rose,
which is Maya, an image is lost; its finality which has the touch
of the infinite is gone. The rose appears to me of movement

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2
within that stillness which is the same as the dynamic quality of
a picture that has a perfect harmony. It produces a music in our
consciousness by giving it a swing of motion synchronous with
its own. Had the picture consisted of a disharmonious aggregate
of colours and lines, it would be deadly still.
In perfect rhythm, the art-form becomes like the stars,
which, in their seeming stillness, are never still, like a motionless
flame which is nothing but movement. A great picture is always
speaking, but news from a newspaper, even of some tragic
happening is still born. Some news may be a mere commonplace
in the obscurity of a journal; but give it a proper rhythm and it will
never cease to shine. This is art. It has the magic wand which
gives undying reality to all things it touches and relates them to
the personal being in us. We stand before its productions and
say; I know you as I know myself, you are real.
1.
Rhythm has been defined in the passage as;
(1 mark)
(a) Creative force in the hand of the artist.
(b) Movement generated and regulated by harmonious
restrictions.
(c) Dynamic quality of a picture.
(d) Vibrations of a radiance.
(e) None of these.
2.
Which of the following, according to the passage, are
examples of perfect rhythm of art forms?
(1 mark)
(a) Motionless flame
(b) Rose petals in radiant beauty.
(c) Words in uncadenced prose form.
(d) Living tissue-the embodiment of Maya
(e) None of these.
3.
According to the passage the difference between a king
and his subjects is in:
(1 mark)
(a) Their constituents.
(b) Same as that between gold and mercury.
(c) The different metres of their situation and
circumstances.
(d) Rhythm.
(e) None of these.

4.

5.

Which of the following is most suitable as a title for this

passage?
(1 mark)
(a) Art Form in Rhythmic Style - A Study in Contrasts.
(b) Maya and the Mayavin - an Analysis
(c) The Meaning of Rhythm.
(d) The Definition of Infinity.
(e) None of these.
Where is a passage of this nature most likely to be
published?
(1 mark)
(a) In a next book on the historical evolution of monarchy.
(b) In a scientific journal studying different elements in
nature.
(c) In a book on philosophy.
(d) In a journal studying the implications of rhythmic
movements in industrial applications.
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 6-9) : Read the passage carefully and

choose the correct answer.
Our view of the capital markets will have to undergo a
drastic change. With the new thrust in the recent budget, past
performance trends and investor preferences are becoming
irrelevant.
Indian industry has so far thrived in a protected
environment. Now, with trade barriers being brought down,
domestic industry will face the full force of external factors. As
free markets come into existence, it will be survival of the sturdiest.
And it would be no exaggeration to state that only about 40 per
cent of our corporate sector quite make this grade.
Globalisation is a nice sounding word. What it really
means is brutal global competition. And the law of comparative
advantage must be allowed to rule. In effect, the emphasis will
have to be on industries where we have a comparative
advantage (with reference to raw materials, labour, technology,
etc) which will give our exports a competitive edge. We should
not fight shy of importing products where we have no
competitive edge.

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3
Indian investors have always had a fancy for companies
manufacturing import substitute product. But in the changed
scenario of low or no tariffs, these hot favorites have lost their
charm. To quote Peter Drucker Up to the nineties, the problem
was managing the business. In the nineties, the problem is going
to be that of identifying opportunities. What this implies is that
investment decisions become altogether more difficult.
As business restructure themselves, the next two years
are likely to be the most painful. But it is only such times that
offer values, for long term investment decisions will be based on
several factors. A critical one among these will be the quality of
management. Management must have the ability to change with
the times and the capacity to adapt. Productivity and innovation
would be the key factors for surviving in the global world or even
turning in a profit.
Capital is another crucial factor where, in the nineties, the
problem is going to be that of identifying opportunities. To be
lean, corporations would-do well to rely on their own funds rather
than borrowed funds. Global alliances and scouring would also
emerge as key words in our lexicon.
To clearly understand this, take the case of the two top
world automobile manufacturer, Toyota and General Motors.
Toyota produces roughly 4.5 million cars with 65,000 workers
and General Motors produces 8 million cars with 75,000 workers.
Toyota is much more productive as its worker produces 70 cars
while a GM worker only 11 cars. Both the plants are equally
automated. Toyota utilizes its capital in the most productive way
as it manufactures only 25 per cent of its components and the
rest are secured from various sub-contractors and suppliers. As
against this, GM manufactures more than 50 per cent of its
components. This is how world leaders function in the nineties.
As against this, Telco produces roughly around 90,000
trucks with 38,000 workers, which gives us a productivity level
of around 2.5 cars per worker. From this it is clear that the
beacons of productivity and innovation must be our guideposts.
If we achieve profits at the cost of downgrading productivity,
or not innovating, they are not profits. We are destroying
capital. Investors will have to be patient and only long term
strategies will pay. The fancy short-term returns of the past will
no longer exist.

The capital market will be flooded with a host of innovative

financial instruments. Futures and options will see the light of
the day. Money markets will be more challenging with the
introduction of variable interest rate instruments, credit riserelated debt instruments and various other types of medium term money market instruments. Investors would find various
alternatives on yield and maturity.
The stock exchange will be modernized with screen - based
trading and paper-less officers. Central depository and custodial
services will be established. The Over the Counter Exchange of
India will be the National Stock Exchange and, by the end of the
nineties, its volumes would be equivalent to those of the BSE.
6.
Which of the following statements is true?
(1 mark)
(a) Globalisation of economy would bring in frontal global
competition.
(b) Investment decisions should be based on the industry
profitability.
(c) In the nineties the problems would be to manage
companies more profitably.
(d) By 1999 The Over the counter Exchange, in volume
terms, will be equivalent to the BSE.
(e) None of these.
7.
Of the companies given in the passage, the productivity
level of a worker is highest in:
(1 mark)
(a) GM
(b) Telco
(c) OTC Exchange of India
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
8.
The innovative financial instruments as per the passage
are
(1 mark)
I. Options
II. Futures
III. Bonds
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I & II
(d) I, II & III
(e) None of these.
9.
Indian investors have always had a fancy for companies
manufacturing.
(1 mark)
(a) Imported products
(b) Export products
(c) Import substituting products
(d) Products with comparative advantage
(e) None of these.

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4
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10-13) : Read the passage carefully and
choose the correct answer.
Anybody who has not lived before the war cannot imagine
how different life was. I was a full grown male of 21 years when
the Second World War broke out. So I had more than an incline of
what the world was like in 1939. In a way, Im grateful that I was
born in the time I was because of the graciousness of living in
those days. Today it is a struggle for survival. Whether you like
them or not those were extremely exciting days, especially since
in India, particularly, we were in the throes of a struggle for
independence. It intensified in the forties, which were exciting
years when I learnt a good deal of what India could be like when
we managed our own affairs.
Those were days when we all believed in idealism. But we
got many of our priorities wrong. We went in for a massive
industrial base (as we thought we should have), but at the expense
of education or population control. The amount of government
expenditure in these crucial areas is negligible. We spend 2 per
cent of our national income on education. Compared to that
Singapore spends 19 percent and Thailand 17 percent. With no
quality in our educational standards, small wonder that we are
not an educated electorate.
The one thing that I commend is the enormous success
we have had on the agricultural front. The money we have spent
tens of thousands of crores - on the public sector, is not something
I am proud of. In todays critical financial position, there is nothing
that would help us more than to make these PSUs yield at least a
five percent return. That alone would prevent a fiscal deficit.
If we were go to through with the current liberalization
properly, in two or three years time we will have the ideal economy.
People ask me if India is going to be a great country in 10 years
time. They only think in terms of economics. I feel the need of the
country is LEED - leadership, education, efficiency and discipline.
Economics does not figure among these; yet, without these four
attributes no nation can consider itself great.
By and large, people are employing better ethical standards
in business. There are of course, many business houses which
had very high ethical standards but have lost them. But overall
standards have improved. For instance, there isnt as much tax
avoidance as there was in the older days.

My values were fashioned by the house of Tatas. These

were to so conduct your business that profit was not your only
motive. The happiness of those who worked in your business , a
fair deal to customers who bought your goods, and efficiency
and professionalism in your job. But everything has been tainted
by the general falling standards taking place all over the country.
Business is expanding all the time. But the question to
ask is; are we expanding at the same rate as the growth in our
population? Because if we are not, per capita income will decline.
There has been a definite change towards professionalism, and
more professionals than families are now managing business.
Here in Tatas, we had a unique occurrence. We had one chairman
for 46 years. Who had appointed me. And after 45 years. I
succeeded him. This is quite unique.
This usually happens between father and son, not
employer and professional. But that is the way it happened here.
If liberalization really takes place at a faster rate, there will
emerge a private sector, a market-oriented economy both of which
will certainly benefit the country. I think liberalization will succeed.
But regardless of whether it does or not, we have to change over
from the controlled economy - what I call Nehruvian Socialism which we have practiced for the last 45 years. It has brought us
nothing but disaster I would like to see an economy free from
controls; otherwise lets not talk of liberalization. Partial
liberalization is no liberalization. In the meanwhile, disruptions
will continue for a few years. On the one hand, SHELL can pull
out of Nocil and on the other IBM and Coca Cola, which had
been homed out of here, could come back. Nestle is back.
Ultimately, if we behave ourselves and dont give the world outside
the image that we are complete savages, as we have in recent
months there is a chance that outsiders will come in and the
country will get the foreign investment it wants. If I were a
foreigner, I would find it difficult right now to invest in India. As
one of them said to me : We are not just looking for stability in
this country, we are also looking for tranquillity.
10.
The alternative that the author gives to fiscal deficit is:
(1 mark)
(a) reduce government expenditure.
(b) increase exports.
(c) make PSUs yield at least 5% return
(d) improve standards in business.
(e) None of these.

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11.

12.

13.

If liberalization really takes place at a fast rate, there will

emerge
(1 mark)
(a) a public sector economy
(b) a market-oriented economy
(c) a sellers market
(d) a stronger India
(e) None of these.
According to the passage, which of the following
statements is true?
(1 mark)
(a) Ethical standards in business have improved overthe past 45 years.
(b) Large corporates with high standards have
maintained them in most cases.
(c) Tax avoidance has increased over years.
(d) Efficiency and professionalism have shown a mark
decline.
(e) None of these.
Nehruvian Socialism implies
(1 mark)
(a) Liberalized economy
(b) Partially Liberalized economy
(c) Controlled economy
(d) Open economy
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 14-16) : In the following questions, a part

of the sentence is underlined. Given below are four different
ways of phrasing it. Mark the correct alternative.
14.

Upset by the recent down turn in production numbers

during the first half of the year, the possibility of adding
worker incentives was raised by the board of directors at
its quarterly meeting.
(a) The possibility of adding worker incentives was raised
by the board of directors at its quarterly meeting
(b) the addition of worker incentives was raised as a
possibility by the board of directors at its quarterly
meeting

15.

16.

(c) the board of directors raised at its quarterly meeting

the possibility of worker incentives being added
(d) the board of directors, at its quarterly meeting, raised
the possibility of adding worker incentives.
(e) None of these.
With its plan to create a wildlife sanctuary out of
previously unused landfill, Sweden is but one of a number
of industrialized nations that is accepting its responsibility
to protect endangered species and promote conservation.
(1 mark)
(a) is accepting its responsibility to protect endangered
species and promote
(b) is accepting its responsibility for protecting
endangered species and promoting
(c) are accepting its responsibility to protect endangered
species and promoting
(d) are accepting their responsibility to protect
endangered species and promote
(e) None of these.
Heavy metals, toxic waste by-products that can cause
tumors in fish, are generally found in the waters off
industrial shorelines, but have been discovered in trace
amounts even in the relatively pristine waters of the South
Pacific.
(1 mark)
(a) are generally found in the waters off industrial
shorelines, but have been discovered in trace
amounts even
(b) are generally to be found in the waters off industrial
shoreline and have even been discovered in trace
amounts
(c) had generally been found in the waters off industrial
shorelines, but have even been discovered in trace
amounts
(d) are found generally in the waters off industial
shorelines, but have been discovered in a trace
amount even
(e) None of these.

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DIRECTIONS (Qs. 17-19) : Arrange the sentences A, B, C
and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6
17.

18.

1.

With the self destruction of the USSR between 1985

and 1991, the American strategy towards Russia
shifted from confrontation to forestalling the
recrudescence of a strategic challenge and the
reconsolidation of the former Soviet space under
Russian leadership.
(A) As the deliquescent Russian state flails about for a
magical formula for reform and recovery, the next
objective is to prevent Moscow losing control over
its nuclear arsenal and exporting terrorism.
(B) Russia must not degenerate, in American patois, into
mother of all rogue states.
(C) That has been achieved through the destruction of
Iraq and Yugoslavia, the detachment of Central Asia,
the expansion of North Atlantic Treaty Organization,
deep into Eastern Europe, and the imposition of a
debilitating economic reform on Russia.
(D) This is very far indeed from the cold war and it sharply
alters the functions of Pakistan, India and China in
American strategy.
6. Beijings role is diminished, as the China Card
against the former Soviet Union has lost its function,
but Pakistan has lost the most as it is no longer a
springboard for any kind of action against Russia.
(1 marks)
(a) ABCD
(b) CBAD
(c) CABD
(d) ACBD
(e) None of these.
1. After its tough, anti-loving, non permissive
perception, Watson the pendulum swung back, as
pendulums do, and we got his very opposite, the
psychoanalytic Dr. Spock with his extremely
permissive, feeding-on-demand not on schedule,
hugging and kissing perception.
(A) But both the permissive and scientific child rearing
model were based on too narrow a view.
(B) Baby and Child care was outsold only by the Bible.

(C) Spock finally acknowledged that his recommendations had been wrong.
(D) Mothers everywhere gratefully relapsed into a more
emotional relationship with their children, something
Watson had warned explicitly against.
6. Bringing up children his way failed to bring the results
he had hoped for.
(1 marks)
(a) DBAC
(b) BDAC
(c) DBCA
(d) ABCD
(e) None of these.
19.
1. The entire social scene became so vitiated that the
alarmed American people soon repealed the
constitutional amendment and scrapped prohibition.
(A) But they have brought with them the organization,
the techniques and the resources built up during the
brief interlude of the prohibition era.
(B) They have moved into other activities, most of which
are lawful.
(C) The gangsters have moved away from the liquor
trade.
(D) But, even today, half a century later, the American
system has not recovered from that devastating
experience.
6. Even today, some of the city and state,
administrations are controlled by organized crime.
(1 marks)
(a) BCAD
(b) ADCB
(c) DCBA
(d) CABD
(e) None of these.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 20-23) : Read each of the short passage
given below and answer the questions that follows it.
20.

Above all, disagreement is needed to stimulate the

imagination. One may not need imagination to find one
right solution to a problem. But then this is of value
only in mathematics. In all matters of true uncertainty
such as the executive deals with - whether his sphere
be social, political, economic or military - one needs
creative which create a new situation,. And this means
one needs imagination - a new and different way of
perceiving and understanding. Imagination needs to

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21.

22.

be challenged and stimulated, however, or else it

remains latent and unused. Disagreement, especially if
forced to be reasoned, thought through, documented,
is the most effective stimulus we know.
From the above paragraph, which of the following
statements is most unequivocally derived
(1 mark)
(a) Imagination cannot occur without an impetus.
(b) Disagreement is the only effective stimulus to
imagination.
(c) Thoughtful imagination needs a stimulus.
(d) There is no need of imagination in world of certainty.
(e) None of these.
When a manager raises factory productivity and fires some
blue collar workers, he is firing someone else- someone
with a different education and background. When a
manager raises office productivity and fires professional
and managerial workers, he is firing someone just like
himself- someone with th e same education an d
background. If he fires those beneath him, then he can be
fired by those above him.
Which of these statement(s) reflects the central idea of
the above paragraph?
(1 mark)
(a) Factory productivity has direct implications on hiring
and firing.
(b) It is not easy to justify firing whether at the same or
a different level
(c) It is not easy to fire blue collar workers.
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these.
Researchers have identified a number of benefits that
come from perceiving that we are in control of the events
in our lives. People who find they are unable to control
important events may suffer from learned helplessness
and depression. However, researchers also have found
some important exceptions to this rule. People who find
they cannot directly control important outcomes
sometimes rely on secondary control, such as focussing
their attention on what they can control or by placing
their trust in others.

23.

Select the option best representing the theme of the

paragraph.
(1 mark)
(a) Dependability is not having faith in ones own self.
It also makes the individual lethargic and sometimes,
just not performing because deep in the back of his
mind, he has conditioned himself to the idea that
there are others who would do the job for him.
(b) Sometimes people experience increased anxiety when
given control over a situation or choose to relinquish
control to another person. This may reflect their
incapability at handling tough situations but then
may also reflect their views of getting the thing done
by more competent persons.
(c) It is indeed appreciable if a person handles difficult
situations with calm and grace. Without getting
bogged down, he should rather accept it as a
challenge and work out the suitable means of tackling
such trying situations.
(d) Life is a struggle and those who bravely withstand
the stormy conditions with gusto are the ones who
are definitely going to emerge victorious.
(e) None of these.
During the past week, 120 PureTech Corporation
employees have reported symptoms of a strain of food
poisoning known as disporella, but only eight of these
employees have tested positive for the strain. A PureTech
spokesperson claims that the apparent outbreak of
disporella can be attributed to contaminated food served
two weeks ago at the companys annual employee picnic.
Which of the following, if true, would most support the
claim made by the PureTech spokesperson above?
(1 marks)
(a) Disporella symptoms generally last only a few days.
(b) PureTechs cafeteria facilities provide lunch to
PureTech employees during every workday.
(c) People with disporella do not generally test positive
for disporella until at least one week after disporella
symptoms begin to occur.
(d) People with disporella often do not exhibit disporella
symptoms until more than a week after contracting
disporella.
(e) None of these.

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8
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-25) : Given below is a sentence in
which a word has been underlined. Below the sentence four
words are given. Select the word which has nearly the same
meaning as the underlined word.
24.

25.

26.

Due to Claire's frugality, she was able to some more than

half of her take home pay.
(1 mark)
(a) pernicious
(b) parsimony
(c) vehement
(d) wantonness
(e) None of these.
The angry husband bellowed a Diatribe at his
unsuspecting wife.
(1 mark)
(a) amassed
(b) deflated
(c) castigation
(d) vindication
(e) None of these.
Below, four different ways of writing a sentence are
indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies
is that they create difference of prices at which goods
are traded on the world market and their price within a
local market
B. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies
is that they create a difference of prices at which goods
are traded with the world market and their prices in the
local market.
C. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies
is that they create a difference between prices at which
goods are traded on the world market and their prices
within a local market.
D. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies
is that they create a difference across prices at which
goods are traded with the world market and their prices
within a local market.
(1 mark)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-28) : Each question consists of four

sentences on a topic. Some sentences are grammatically
incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates
the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s).

27.

28.

A. Large reductions in the ozone layer, which sits about

15-30 km above the Earth, take place each winter over
the polar regions, especially the Antarctic, as low
temperatures allow the formation of stratospheric
clouds that assist chemical reactions breaking down
ozone.
B. Industrial chemicals containing chlorine and bromine
have-been blamed for thinning the layer because they
attack the ozone molecules, making them to break apart.
C. Many an offending chemicals have now been banned.
D. It will still take several decades before these
substances have disappeared from the atmosphere.
(1 mark)
(a) D
(b) B & D
(c) A & D
(d) A & C
(e) None of these.
Which of the following sentences is/are grammatically
wrong?
(1) No, It was not a piece of bad memory ; he prided
him on his memory.
(2) I have only two pens but the each pen writes well.
(3) I lost all my valuables in the accident and my friend too
(4) Now, it is doubtful that America would give its
hightech to India.
(1 marks)
(a) Only 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 29-30) : Given below is a sentence in

which a word has been underlined. Below the sentence four
words are given. Select the word which is OPPOSITE IN
MEANING to the underlined word.
29.

If but few readers know how constantly the blunt

sententious utterances of this character are reappearing,
not on the stage alone, but in the novel and even in poetry,
it is because a play whose motive is monstrous and
intolerable can only live in a monstrous and intolerable
state of society.
(1 marks)
(a) enervated
(b) wordy
(c) esoteric
(d) terse
(e) None of these.

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9
30.

Nevertheless the whole expedition was a forlorn hope.

(1 marks)
(a) mandatory
(b) derelict
(c) susceptible
(d) joyous
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs 31-32): For each of the two questions,

indicate which of the statements given with that particular
question is consistent with the description of the
unseasonable man in the passage below.
Unseasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible
things at the wrong time. The unseasonable man is the sort of
person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He
serenades his beloved when shes ill. He asks a man who has just
money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bill for him. He invites
a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car
trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which
cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he

stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really

anxious to agree, such is the unseasonable man.
31. He tends to
(1 mark)
(a) entertain women
(b) be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are
anxious to agree
(c) be helpful when solicited
(d) tell a long story to people who have heard it many
times before
(e) None of these.
32. The unseasonable man tends to
(1 mark)
(a) bring a higher bid to a salesman who has just closed a
deal
(b) disclose confidential information to others
(c) sing the praises of the bride when he goes to a wedding
(d) sleep late and rise early
(e) None of these.

SECTION - II : QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 33-36) : Refer the table below which
shows the data on sanitation & drinking water facility
expressed as % for rural & urban areas as well as overall %
for some countries for the year 1999-2000 and answer the
following questions.
Country
India
Bangladesh
China
Pakistan
Phillipines
Indonesia
Sri Lanka
Nepal

Drinking water
Sanitation facility
Urban Rural Total Urban Rural Total
84.15 78.21 80.19 69.31 13.86 28.71
93.06 95.04 96.03 78.21 43.56 47.52
96.03 55.44 66.33 72.27
6.93 23.76
81.18 68.31 73.26 76.23 21.78 46.53
91.08
79.2 85.14 87.12 65.34 76.23
78.2 53.48 61.38 71.28
39.6 50.49
87.12 51.48 56.43 67.32 61.38 62.37
87.12
59.4 62.37 57.42 11.88 17.82

A dominates B, i.e A>B if A has higher percentage than B

in total population of drinking water and sanitation facility both.
A country is said to be on coverage frontier if no other country

dominates it. A country is not on coverage frontier if it is dominated

by atleast one country. Disparity is gap between population
coverage of drinking water and sanitation facility.
33.
Using the data in sanitation facility columns only, rural
population in India as a percentage of total population is
approximately
(1 marks)
(a) 76
(b) 70
(c) 73
(d) can't be determined
(e) None of these.
34.
Using only data in sanitation facility column, ascending
order of the countries China, Indonesia and Phillipines of
rural population as percentage of their respective total
population is
(1 marks)
(a) Phillipines, China, Indonesia
(b) Phillipines, Indonesia, China
(c) China, Indonesia, Phillipines
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these.

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10
35.

36.

India is not on coverage frontier because it is

(A) lesser than Bangladesh in drinking water coverage
(B) lesser than Sri Lanka in sanitation facility coverage
(C) lesser than Phillipines in sanitation facility coverage
(D) dominated by Indonesia
(1 mark)
(a) A & B
(b) A & C
(c) Only D
(d) B & D
(e) none of these
Country with highest disparity in coverage of rural sector
is
(1 mark)
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 37-39) : Each of the following questions

has two statements marked I and II. As your answer,
Mark (a), if statement I is greater than statement II,
Mark (b), if statement II is greater than statement I,
Mark (c), if both statements are equal,
Mark (d), if the data is insufficient to determine which of the two
statements is greater.
37.
ABCD is a rectangle. P, Q, R and S are midpoints of the
sides of ABCD.
(1 marks)
A

P
D

38.

39.

I.
II.
40.

Three labeled boxes containing blue and black balls are all
mislabelled. It is known that one of the boxes contains only
black balls and other only blue balls. The third contains a
mixture of blue and black balls. You are required to correctly
label the boxes with the labels blue, black, and blue and
black by picking a sample of 1 ball from only 1 box. What is
the label on the box you should sample?
(1 mark)
(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) Blue & Black
(d) Not possible to determine from a sample of 1 ball
(e) None of these.

41.

The speed of a railway engine is 42 km per hour when no

compartment is attached, and the reduction in speed is
directly proportional to the square root of the number of
compartments attached. If the speed of the train carried by
this engine is 24 kmph when 9 compartments are attached,
the maximum number of compartments that can be carried
by the engine is
(1 mark)
(a) 49
(b) 48
(c) 46
(d) 47
(e) None of these.

42.

A Bangalore- Mumbai Air India plane, leaves Bangalore at

9.00 a.m. At the same time another plane leaves Mumbai for
Bangalore. After passing each other they completed their

B
R

I. The area of the shaded region.

II. The area of PQRS.
X and Y are integers such that :
(1 mark)
2 4 8 16 32 64 = 2X + Y
I. The arithmetic mean of X and Y.
II. The harmonic mean of 10 and 15.
In a 100 question multiple choice test, 1 mark was awarded
for each question answered correctly and mark was
deducted for each question answered incorrectly. A student
who answered all the questions on the test received a total
of 83. Each question carry equal weightage. (1 mark)

The number of questions on the test answered incorrectly.

Numerical value of length of the hypotenuse of a
triangle with arms equal to 5 and 12

1
1
and 60 minutes respectively. The speed
2
2
of the Mumbai - Bangalore plane is 260 km/hr. Find the
speed of Bangalore- Mumbai plane
(1 mark)
(a) 250 km/hr
(b) 275 km/hr
(c) 272 km/hr
(d) 270 km/hr
(d) None of these
journey in 84

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11
43.

44.

45.

46.

In a competition, 50 members of Gymkhana Club. 63 members

of NSCI, 41 members of US Club, and 5 members of WIA
participate. If 3 members are members of all 4 clubs and 5 are
members of NSCI and Gymkhana and US club; 3 are members
of NSCI. US and WIA; 2 are members of WIA, US and
Gymkhana; 25 are members of Gymkhana and US; none are
members of any of the other clubs taken 2 or 3 at a time, then
how many people are participating in this competition?
(1 mark)
(a) 169
(b) 141
(c) 144
(d) 149
(e) None of these.
There are 100 students applying for summer jobs in a
university's geology/geography department. Ten of the
students have never taken a course in geology or geography.
Sixty-three of the students have taken at least one geology
course. Eighty-one have taken at least one geography course.
What is the probability that of the 100 applicants any student
selected at random has taken only one course in either
geography or geology?
How many students (in %) have taken at least one course in
both geology and geography? The answers to the two
questions are given respectively.
(1 mark)
(a) 0.36, 54%
(b) 0.54, 36%
(c) 0.45, 63%
(d) 0.63, 45%
(e) None of these.
If 733 is divided by 10, what will the remainder be?
(1 mark)
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 1
(e) None of these.
Nitram Rendrag, the world's most renowned puzzle creator,
often rents a private dining car on the Charlotte-GreensboroCharlotte turn-around shuttle. The railroad charges Rendrag
$120 for the trip. On a recent trip, the conductor informed
Rendrag that there were two students at the Franklin station
who wished to go from Franklin to Greensboro and back to
Franklin. Franklin is halfway between Charlotte and
Greensboro. Rendrag asked the conductor to let the students
ride with him.

47.

48.

When the students boarded Rendrag's car, he said, "If you

can tell me the mathematically correct price you should pay
for your portion of the trip, I'll let you ride for free. Remember,
your answer has to be mathematically equitable for all of
us." How much should the students pay for their journey?
(1 mark)
(a) $ 60
(b) $ 40
(c) $ 20
(d) Can't be determined
(e) None of these.
Sometimes in school or business, we are given information
that looks impossible to decipher, only to find out that
applying a little "elbow grease" aids in sorting things out.
Below are several statements that attempt to form some
relationships between the letters A, B, C, and D, and the
numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Using the following information, see
if you can straighten out this confusion and identify each
letter with its associated number.
If A is 1, then B is not 3. If B is not 1, then D is 4. If C is 3, then
D is not 2. If C is not 2, then D is 2. If D is 3, then A is not 4.
(1 mark)
(a) A1, B2, C3, D4
(b) A2, B4, C3, D1
(c) A3, B1, C4, D2
(d) A4, B2, C3, D1
(e) None of these.
If the radius of the circles with centres O and P are 4 and 2
units respectively. Find the area of D ABC. Also,

DOA = EPC = 90
A

(1 mark)
D

O
E
P
C

(a) 36 sq units
(c) 18 sq units
(e) None of these.

(b)
(d)

36 2 sq units
data insufficient

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12
49.

The last digit in (25 _)32 and (25 _)33 both is 6. The missing
digit is :
(1 mark)
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) None of these.

54.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 50-51) : Refer to the code below and

answer the questions that follow.

50.

51.

52.

53.

a
b

a b = ab

ab =

ab=a +b

aDb = ab

55.

1
What is the value of [{12 5) (24 6)}D ] ? (1 mark)
6
(a) 3
(b) 14
28
(c) 2
(d)
3
(e) None of these.
(6D3) {(20 5) (80 16 )} ?
What is the value of
(25 4) {(76 38) (2D 4)}
(1 mark)
196
236
(a)
(b)
82
82
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these.
Ramesh starts a simple calculation. He multiplies the integers
1,2,3....,n two at a time and adds up the products. If n is 10,
the final sum will be :
(1 marks)
(a) 1320
(b) 2640
(c) 660
(d) 782
(e) None of these.
Your boss has asked you to purchase three different types
of ballpoint pen. The first costs 50 cent, the second $5.50,
and the third $9.50. He has given you $100 and told you to
purchase 100 pens in any combination as long as you spend
exactly $100 for 100 pens. Just one solution is possible.
What is it?
(1 mark)
(a) 93, 2, 5
(b) 94, 1, 5
(c) 92, 4, 4
(d) 91, 3, 6
(e) None of these.

56.

57.

Two candidates attempt to solve a quadratic equation of

the form x2 + px + q = 0. One starts with a wrong value of p
and finds the roots to be 2 and 6. The other starts with a
wrong value of q and finds the roots to be 2, 9. Find the
correct roots.
(1 mark)
(a) 3, 4
(b) 3, 4
(c) 3, 4
(d) 3, 4
(e) None of these.
A mule and a donkey were carrying full sacks on their backs.
The mule started complaining that his load was too heavy.
The donkey said to him Why are you complaining? If you
gave me one of your sacks Id have double what you have
and if I give you one of my sacks wed have an even
amount. How many sacks were each of them carrying?
Give the minimal possible answer.
(2 marks)
(a) Mule-4, Donkey-8
(b) Mule-5, Donkey-7
(c) Mule-2, Donkey-10 (d) Mule-5, Donkey-9
(e) None of these.
A group of workers was put on a job. From the second day
onwards, one worker was withdrawn each day. The job was
finished when the last worker was withdrawn. If no worker
was withdrawn at any stage, the group would have finished
the job in two-thirds the time. How many workers were there
in the group?
(2 marks)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10
(e) None of these.
In a sports contest there were m medals awarded on n
successive days (n > 1). On the first day 1 medal and 1/7 of
the remaining m - 1 medals were awarded. On the second
day 2 medals and 1/7 of the now remaining medals was
awarded; and so on. On the nth and last day, the remaining
n medals were awarded. How many days did the contest
last, and how many medals were awarded altogether?
(1 mark)
(a) 5 days, 25 medals
(b) 7 days, 49 medals
(c) 6 days, 36 medals
(d) 8 days, 64 medals
(e) None of these.

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58.

59.

60.

A message is whisphered to one of the many Chinese present

in a conference. The nth Chineseman to receive the message
would either add n words or delete n words from the message
he received before passing it on. If the nth operation is
additioned, then the(n+1)th is a deletion and vice versa. If
the 243rd member passes on a message with 125 words after
deleting 243 words, how many words were there in the
original message ?
(1 mark)
(a) 3
(b) 247
(c) 250
(d) 4
(e) None of these.
A survey shows that 63% of Delhites like cheese whereas
76% like butter. If x % of the Delhites like both cheese and
butter, then x is
(1 mark)
(a) 25 x 50
(b) 39 x 63
(c) 51 x 83
(d) 27 x 53
(e) None of these.
The figure below shows 2 concentric circles with centre O.
PQRS is a square, inscribed in the outer circle. It also
circumscribes the inner circle, touching it at points B, C, D
and A. What is the ratio of the perimeter of the outer circle
to that of polygon ABCD?
(2 mark)
P

(a)

2
(e) None of these.
(c)

(b)

3
2

(d)

61.

62.

The co-ordinates of two vertices of an isosceles triangle are

(2,4) and (2,4). The area of the triangle is 6 m2. The given
co- ordinates form the base of the triangle. What are the
co-ordinates of the 3rd vertex?
(1 mark)
(a)

(0, 4 3)

(b)

(0, 4 3)

(c)

(0, 4 3 3)

(d)

(0, 2 3)

(e) None of these

p, q and r are all multiples of 5, q is greater than p and less
than r and r is greater than p. What is the value of

( p q) ( p r )
?
(q r)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

(1 mark)

10
5
10
cannot be determined from the information given
None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 63-64) : Answer the questions on the

basis of the information given below
Ram and Shyam run a race between points A and B, 5 km
apart.Ram starts at 9 a.m. from A at a speed of 5 km/hr, reaches B
and returns to A at the same speed. Shyam starts at 9:45 a.m. from
A at a speed of 10 km/hr, reaches B and comes back to A at the
same speed.
63. At what time do Ram and Shyam first meet each other?
(1 mark)
(a) 10 a.m.
(b) 10:10 a.m.
(c) 10:20 a.m.
(d) 10:30 a.m.
(e) None of these.
64. At what time does Shyam overtake Ram?
(1 mark)
(a) 10:20 a.m.
(b) 10:30 a.m.
(c) 10:40 a.m.
(d) 10:50 a.m.
(e) None of these.

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14

SECTION - III : REASONING AND DECISION MAKING ABILITY

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 65-71) : The data given below pertains to seven different industry sector with respect to income, expenditure,
Profits. Study the data and answer the questions.
Particular
1 Sales
2 Other Income
3 Total
Income=(1+2)
4 Raw material cost
5 Power & material
expenses
6 Salaries and wages
7 Depreciation
8 Interest payments
9 Other expenses
10 Total expenses
=(4+5+7+8+9)
11 Profit before tax
=(310)
12 Tax paid
13 Profit after tax
=(1112)

65.

66.

Chemical
498,476
7,303

Diversified Electricity
128,125
2,374
130,830

338,683
18,467

78,237

13,791
11,065
11,135

4,412
4,807
2,923
24,706
119,316

31,060
4,865

4,807
5,756
5,604
58,769

11,514
7,467
19,861

8,887

Which of the following statements is wrong ?(1 mark)

(a) Depreciation expense is the lowest for food industry
(b) Power and fluel expenses are 5th largest item in the
expenditure of diversified industries.
(c) Electricity industry earns more of other income as a
percentage of total income compared to other
industries.
(d) Raw material cost is the largest item of expense in all
industry sectors
(e) None of these.
Depreciation as a percentage of total expenses is maximum
in which industry sector ?
(1 mark)
(a) Chemical
(b) Diversified
(c) Electricity
(d) Machinery
(e) None of these.

2,394
8,501

67.

68.

Food
82,808

Machinery

Service

Textiles
56,401
1,705
58,106

2,887
128,733

6,097

48,188
2,003

54, 994
1,973

81,600

33,738
4241

4,284

20,038
5,026

23,570
80,750

34,271
120,557

44,371
22,854
133,619
97,092
385,694

4,361
3,013
5,259
10,368

3,814

8,176

50,484

2,538

5,001

32,698

0
2,874

Which industry sector has salaries and wages as 3rd

largest item in its expense?
(1 mark)
(a) Food
(b) Services
(c) Textiles & Food
(d) Food & Machinery
(e) None of these.
If the industry sectors are ranked on the basis of Tax paid
as a proportion of sales in the ascending order, then which
industry will be placed at rank 3?
(1 mark)
(a) Machinery
(b) Electricity
(c) Food
(d) Diversified
(e) None of these.

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15
69.

70.

71.

If power and fuel charges are increased by 200% and the

rankings are based on Profit Before Tax in the descending
order, then which of the following statements is wrong?
(1 mark)
(a) The service industry retains its rank
(b) Chemical changes its rank from 2nd to 6th
(c) Diversified changes its rank from 3rd to 4th
(d) Machinery and food industry improve their ranking
(e) None of these.
If the ranking is based on Profit Before Tax in the descending
order, subject to the condition that other expenses of all
the industry sectors equals zero, then which of following
statements is wrong?
(1 marks)
(a) Rank of Chemical industry does not change
(b) Rank of electricity industry declines
(c) Diversified industry rank changes from 3rd to 4th
(d) Rank of food industry changes from 5th to 6th
(e) None of these.
If sales in all industries decrease by 10% and salaries &
wages increase by 10% which industry will fall in the middle
of the ranks based on Profit Before Tax?
(1 marks)
(a) Food
(b) Diversified
(c) Electricity
(d) Chemical
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 72-76) : Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A, B, C, D and E are five towns out of which two are hill
stations and the rest are in plain. Two towns, which are in plain,
are harbours. Four towns out of five are capitals and two are
industrial towns. Population of two towns is less than 5 lacs. It is
20 lacs of one town and more than 50 lacs of two towns. Two
towns are on the same latitudes and other two are on the same
longitudes. Latitudes and longitudes of both harbours are different
and out of these one is an industrial town. The population of both
industrial towns is more than 50 lacs. The longitudes of the other
hill station and other harbour are different. One industrial town is
neither a hill station nor a harbour. None of the hill stations is an
industrial town. The hill station, of which longitudes are same as

that of a harbour, is a capital. B is a hill station while the longitudes

of A and E are same. E is a harbour. The latitudes of D and C are
same and the population of D is 20 lacs. Both the harbours are
capitals and one of them is an industrial town.
72. Which of the following two towns are those whose
population is less than 5 lacs?
(1 mark)
(a) D and A
(b) B and C
(c) A and B
(d) A and C
(e) None of these.
73. Which of the following towns is not a capital? (1 mark)
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) B
(e) None of these.
74. Which of the following is a harbour, capital and an industrial
town?
(1 mark)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) None of these.
75. Which of the following town have population more than 50
lacs?
(1 mark)
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and E
(d) C and D
(e) None of these.
76. Which one of the following town is a hill station as well as
capital?
(1 mark)
(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) A
(e) None of these.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 77-80) : Answer the questions on the basis
of the information given below. Any additional information provided
with a question pertains to that individual question only.
A Manager has seven employees A, B, C, D, E, F and G
reporting to him in his group. A and B have strong quantitative
skills, but poor communication skills. E and F excel in both
quantitative ability and communication. C, D and G have strong

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16
communication skills, but poor quantitative skills. The Manager
must assign his seven employees to three projects in the following
manner:
Project 1 must be staffed with at least two people. At least

one team member must possess quantitative skills. At least

one team member must possess communication skills.
No more than two people must be assigned to Project 2.

This project requires at least one person with quantitative

ability.
Project 3 must be staffed with exactly three people. At least

one of them must possess good communication skills.

77. Which of the following combinations is a feasible
assignment of team members to projects?
(1 mark)
(a) A & B on Project 1, F & G on Project 2
(b) A & C on Project 1, E & F on Project 3
(c) A & G on Project 1, C & E on Project 2
(d) A & B on Project 1, E, F & C on Project 3
(e) None of these.
78. In addition, if C, D and G are women and if each project team
cannot contain more than 2 men, which of the following are
feasible assignments?
(1 mark)
(a) A & E on Project 1, D, F and G on Project 3
(b) D & G on Project 1, A and C on Project 2
(c) A & G on Project 1, C, D and E on Project 2
(d) A, E & F on Project 3
(e) None of these.
79. Employee D crosses a road rashly and is unfortunately run
over by a bus. The manager scrambles to reassign his
employees to project teams in a manner that satisfies the
skill set requirements. A feasible assignment is provided by
(1 mark)
(a) C, F & G on Project 3, A on Project 2
(b) A & F on Project 1, C, E & G on Project 3
(c) F & B on Project 1, C, A & G on Project 3
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these.

80.

Assume that A and E have been assigned to Project 1, and

D, F and G have been assigned to Project 3. A sudden change
in the business climate requires that Project 2 be staffed
with three people and Project 3 be staffed with only two
people. Further, at least two members of the Project 2 team
must have both quantitative and communication skills. In
the new business climate, Project 1 requires only
quantitative skills and Project 3 requires only communication
ability. A feasible assignment is
(1 mark)
(a) Move F to Project 1 and A to Project 2
(b) Move A to Project 3.
(c) Move B to Project 1, D to Project 2.
(d) Move E & F to Project 2, and B to Project 1.
(e) None of these.

DIRECTIONS (Qs 81-84) : Answer the questions on the basis

of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa,
Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations
conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields,
labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The
following five facts about the participants are given.
I.
The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half
the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every
continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each
category.
III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any
category.
IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the
America would have had twice many experts as each of the
other continents.
V.
Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies
who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
81. Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from
the information given?
(1 mark)
(a) Number of labour experts from the Americas.
(b) Number of health experts from Europe.
(c) Number of health experts from Australasia.
(d) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa.
(e) None of these.

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17
82.

83.

84.

Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?

(1 mark)
(a) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and
2 health experts from Africa attended the conference.
(b) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and
1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.
(c) 3 experts in refugee relocation from the Americas and 1
health expert from Africa attended the conference.
(d) Africa and America each had 1 expert in population
studies attending the conference.
(e) None of these.
If Ramos is the lone America expert in population studies,
which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of
experts in the conference from the four continents?
(1 mark)
(a) There is one expert in health from Africa.
(b) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.
(c) There are two experts in health from the Americas.
(d) There are three experts in refugee relocation from the
Americas.
(e) None of these.
Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first
keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred
about the number of American experts in refugee relocation
in the conference, excluding Alex?
(1 mark)
(i) At least one
(ii) Atmost two
(a) Only (i) and not (ii)
(b) Only (ii) and not (i)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Only (ii)
(e) Neither (i) nor (ii)

DIRECTION (Qs. 85-89) : Read the following passage given

below and answer the questions that follows.
From the very beginning TCL (Tata Chemical Ltd.) has
successfully grown by meeting consumer requirements in a
mutually beneficial way. To determine its benchmark, it uses its
own Customer Requirements Determination Process (CRDP)
where in it explores present and future customer requirements to
enable them to incorporate those in their business offerings. This
process starts with listening to end-users by exploring various
customer listening information sources. This information captures

various expectations of customers. Next step starts with

identification of segments and matching of segment wise
expectations. Outcome of this exercise gives enough guidelines
about new business scopes and grey areas of current business
practices. After validation of customer expectations through cross
checking, TCL matches its internal resources and skill sets with
external opportunities and threats to address attractive business
avenues. Launch of Tata Kisan Sansar was an outcome of that to
offer all sort of end-to-end agri solutions to farmers.
Agriculture till today contributes a lot for the development
of Indian economy with an employment share of around 69 percent
of the work force and with a contribution of near about 24 percent
of the GDP of the country. Indian agriculture sector has its
importance in economic growth but value addition in this sector
in terms of earning capacity is decreasing because of greater
income streams from industry and services sectors. The
continuous expanding of the gap in per capita income between
the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors has huge economic
and social implication and it is almost necessary to empower the
farmers financially by enriching the source of income. In this
backdrop, one of the motivations for TCL to start Tata Kisan
Sansar (TKS) was to ensure business by empowering agri product
producers. Again TCL felt that due to its business nature of
manufacturing and marketing commodities, it developed an image
of a purely product centric organization. TCLs internal research
substantiated its feeling and it recognized a paradigm shift towards
a customer centric organization.
TCL first started Tata Kisan Kendra in 1988, exclusive
franchised retail outlets of Tata, with the objective of providing
one-stop agri input shop to the farmers. With the marketing
function being transferred from Rallis to Tata Chemicals, TCL used
the Tata Kisan Kendras (TKKs) more extensively to market their
products. It was understood by the company that the range of
offering under the TKKs offered an attractive basket of benefits
to the farmers. The business model of the TKKs was based on
offering a complete set of inputs to the farmer. Along with this, it
also offered extension services and technology inputs to help
farmers plan their crops. At the time it dealt more with offering
fertilizers and other inputs from those centers. Over the time it
realized that the job is half done because requirement of a farmer

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18
is multi-layered. To offer a more holistic services it changed Tata
Kisan Kendra as Tata Kisan Sansar and repositioned it as onestop farmers solution shop by offering entire range of agri services
including quality agri input products. Objective was to empower
farmers by providing them information about better agronomic
practices, facilitating farm credit and providing quality agri inputs
from single source.
85. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the
statement in bold (Agriculture..... income)?
(1 mark)
(a) The emergence of TKS is only because of the rising
gap between the income from the agricultural and nonagricultural sources.
(b) The farmers income can be enriched through TKS.
(c) The alternate sector growth can only be curtailed
through emphasis on TKS.
(d) TKS can enhance agricultures GDP contribution.
(e) None of these.
86. As a business manager, what was not a major motivation
behind using CRDP model?
(1 marks)
(a) Ensuring sustainable competitive advantage by
knowing customers in a better manner.
(b) For segmenting the market into heterogeneous group
of customers to serve better.
(c) For estimating of gap analysis of what customer expects
and TCL delivers.
(d) Formulate business offerings and identification of new
business scopes.
(e) None of these.

87.

88.

89.

What would have been a wrong decision as a manager in

the context of CRDP programme of TCL?
(1 mark)
(a) Using external agencies to cross check validity of
information.
(b) Using information to offer readymade solution for
different initiatives of TCL.
(c) Identify external opportunities to explore in a
strategically profitable manner.
(d) Projecting TCL as more customer centric organization.
(e) None of these.
For long term sustainability of TKS as a concept a manager
should not?
(1 mark)
(a) Project TKS as a corporate social responsibility
initiative of TCL.
(b) Enrich offerings of TKS with value added facilities and
services.
(c) Position itself as a commodity retailing centre of TCL.
(d) Focus on return on investment of TKS initiative.
(e) None of these.
Transition from TKK to TKS was logical for TCL because:
(1 marks)
(a) Conceptually there was a mismatch between skill sets
of TCL and TKK.
(b) TKK lost its acceptability as it became older as a
concept and could not coverage first mover advantages.
(c) Emerging needs sets outmoded existing value
proposition of TKK.
(d) Changing demographics of farmers forced TCL to add
new spark in its offer.
(e) None of these

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19

PART - B
1.

2.

3.

G
E
N
E
R
ALAW
AR
E
NE
S
S

Financial inclusion means provision of

(a) financial services namely payments, remittances,
savings, loans and Insurance at affordable cost to
persons not yet given the same.
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the
same.
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the
same.
(d) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the
same.
(e) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given
the same.
The Government of India recently decided to lift four years
old ban on export of wheat. What was the reason for the
same?
(A) India had a bumper crop of wheat in last two years.
Hence it has excess stock of wheat.
(B) As per the Food Security Act India is bound to provide
10 million tones of wheat to World Food Grain stock
every year. India defaulted last year. This year it does
not want to be one.
(C) As advised by the Supreme Court of India, the money
received from export should be used to pay subsidy to
the farmers.
(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Both (A) & (B)
(e) All (A), (B) & (C)
One Carbon Credit is defined as ____ .
(1) Credit permit to release one ton of carbon dioxide.
(2) providing loans to establish a unit which produces
carbon dioxide for industrial use.

4.

5.

(3) Finding out one new business which can use and
recycle greenhouse gases.
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of these
There are research reports analyzing the causes of the subprime crisis in USA and the world. Which of the following
could be the most common cause of the crisis?
(a) Investors believed that property price were
predictable and built all their financial plan on the back
of the American housing market
(b) Credit rating agencies were not equipped to forecast
the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy.
Agencies were overconfident and did not react in time.
(c) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the
crisis in time.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(e) Only 1 and 3
"Third party ATM usage" will now be restricted to certain
withdrawals and limits only. What does this mean ?
(1) ATM cardholders will not be able to withdraw from
other banks ATMs under any circumstances.
(2) Customers of one bank may be able to withdraw only a
limited amount from other banks ATMs.
(3) ATM cardholders will have to pay a fee if they withdraw
money from other banks ATMs.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) Only 1 and 3

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6.

7.

8.

9.

Non-Performing Assets of the banks have increased during

2009-10. What does it say about the performance of the
banks?
(1) Banks have not earned good profit during the period
(2) Banks have granted which have become bad loans
(3) Banks did not make provision for such bad loans earlier
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
(e) Only 2 and 3
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has asked all
FIIs to divulge the structure of their offshore entities. What
purpose will it serve ?
(1) To identify if there is flow of funds from questionable
sources
(2) To know how much money FIIs are planning to invest
in India
(3) To forecast the possibility of any financial crisis
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of these
Foreign direct investment is done for many reasons which
may include
A. taking advantage of cheaper wages in the country.
B. taking advantage of the special investment privileges
such as tax exemptions offered by the country
C. as an incentive to gain tariff-free access to the markets
of the country or the region.?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) All A, B, and C
(e) None of these
Which three of the following might be used to indicate
increased globalisation?
(A) A sharp fall in the average transnationality index for
the top 100 multinationals
(B) A rapid increase in the average transnationality index
for the top 1000 multinationals

10.

11.

12.

(C) An increased proportion of national regulatory

changes more favourable to foreign direct investment
(D) An increased proportion of national regulatory
changes less favourable to foreign direct investment
(E) A sharp increase in the share of world national income
derived from information and knowledge-based
activities
(a) (A), (B) and (E)
(b) (B), (D) and (E)
(c) (B), (C) and (E)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)
(e) None of these
Which of the following perspectives of globalisation is most
likely to reflect the views of economists?
(a) The rise of global culture and global media
(b) The emergence of global conflicts and global
institutions
(c) The development of new and faster communication
technologies
(d) The growth of international trade and the increase in
international trade flows
(e) The decline of sovereignty of the nation state
Benefit to the local company of joint production with MNCs is
(A) Money from MNCs for additional investments
(B) Moral & Social support
(C) Latest technology for production
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A) and (C)
(e) None of these
To get large orders, Indian exporters try hard to cut their
own costs by
(a) Reducing cost of raw materials
(b) Reducing advertising and marketing cost
(c) Reducing electricity cost
(d) Cutting labour cost
(e) None of these

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13.

Which of the following statements best describes Corporate

Social Responsibility?
(a) A corporation's requirement to make as much profit as
possible.
(b) A corporation's obligation to society that goes beyond
the requirements of the law and economics to take into
account the social and environmental impact of its
decisions.
(c) A corporation's obligation to consider the impact of its
decisions on the environment.

17.

(d) The duty of care a corporation has to its employees

and customers.
(e) None of these
14.

Which of the following arguments was not put forward by

Friedman in his criticism of the idea of CSR?
(a) Managers are not experts in social welfare or in dealing
with environmental problems.
(b) Managers are the agents of the owners and should act
in their best interest.
(c) Corporations have responsibilities.
(d) Using funds for purposes other than profit maximisation
would be undemocratic.
(e) None of these

15.

Which of the following form part of the business case for CSR?
(a) Better motivated staff reduce operating costs.
(b) Increased brand value and reputation.
(c) The maintenance of the 'licence to operate'.
(d) All of the options given.
(e) None of these

16.

India has signed an agreement with the European Patent

Office. How would this help India?
(1) It will enable India in safeguarding traditional
medicines.

18.

(2) India's digital Traditional Knowledge Library will now

be available to European patent examiners.
(3) India can grant patents for its traditional medicines
and herbs.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All the three
(e) None of these
The Government gives emphasis to development of Small
Scale Industry (SSI). What is the role of SSI in India?
(1) 40% of GDP comes from SSI.
(2) SSI absorbs surplus labour and helps in more equitable
distribution of income.
(3) 35% of total exports come from SSI.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of these
GOI recently constituted the New Finance Commission
(13th). What are its major functions? To decide the ____.
(1) salary structure of the employees of the Central Govt.
(2) distribution of net proceeds of taxes between states
and Central Govt.
(3) Rate of Income tax and other taxes collected by the
Union Govt.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of these

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19.

What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of

India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones
2. Providing the benefit of single window clearance
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and
Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) None of these

20.

The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign

body because
(a) it can legislate only on subjects entrusted to the Centre
by the Constitution
(b) it has to operate within the limits prescribed by the
Constitution
(c) the Supreme Court can declare laws passed by
parliament as unconstitutional if they contravene the
provisions of the Constitution
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these

ESSAY-WRITING Write an essay on the following topic :

For hundredsof years, the monetary system of most countrieshasbeen based
on the exchange of metal coins and printed pieces of paper. However,
because of recent developments in technology, the international community
should consider replacing the entire system of coins and paper with a system
of electronic accountsof creditsand debits.

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