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ethical
conflict
resolution
4. Due to financial scandals in 2002, the United State Federal Legislature created what Board?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley
b. PCAOB
c. AICPA
d. TSBPA
Answer: b. PCAOB
5. According to the Senate Subcommittee that investigated Enron, the duties of the Board of Directors of
a listed company include
a. reviewing the listed companys overall business strategy
b. selecting and compensating the listed companys senior executives
c. evaluating the listed companys outside auditor
d. overseeing the preparation of the listed companys financial statements
e. all of the above
Answer: E. all of the above
Religious
Values
All
of
the
above
11. Key decisions driving hiring and firing decisions should be based upon:
a. Marital Status
b. National Origin and Race
c. Age
d. Religion
e. Job performance and ability to do the job
Answer: e. Job performance and ability to do the job
12. Facilitating payments as defined by the FCPA are problematic because the payments
a. Add to the cost of doing business
b. Undermine merit based purchasing
c. Risk possible negative consequences from competing stakeholders
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
13. Directors and executives have found that support of stakeholders is essential to the optimal
achievement of
a. Medium-term corporate objectives
b. Long-term corporate objectives
c. Short-term corporate objectives
d. All of the above
e. a and b
Answer: b. Long-term corporate objectives
14. According to Kohlberg, this is the stage where moral individuals develop a principled conscience and
adhere to moral and social codes because the codes are the moral principles that guide society.
a. First
b. Middle
c. Fifth
d. Sixth
e. All the above
Answer: c. Fifth (In Stage five (social contract driven), the world is viewed as holding different
opinions, rights and values. Such perspectives should be mutually respected as unique to each person or
community. Laws are regarded as social contracts rather than rigid edicts. Those that do not promote
the general welfare should be changed when necessary to meet the greatest good for the greatest
number of people)
15. General Values found in the majority of Professional Codes of Ethics that Accountants are to follow
include
a. Professional competence
b. Due professional care
c. Proper supervision
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
16. Behavior that is uncivil does not include:
a. Slamming doors
b. Profanity
c. Throwing objects
d. None of the above
Answer: d. None of the above
17. A conflict of interest occurs when:
a. The defense against influences is managed to ensure that all employees are aware of the existence and
consequences.
b. When the independent judgment of a person is swayed, or might be swayed, from making decisions in
the best interest of others who are relying on the judgment.
c. Guidelines prove helpful to specify when it may be acceptable to give or accept a gift or preferential
treatment.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
Answer: b. When the independent judgment of a person is swayed, or might be swayed, from making
decisions in the best interest of others who are relying on the judgment.
18. Expectations for behavior of professional accountants are and will be embodied in:
a. Court decisions
b. Commonly understood standards of practice
c. Research studies and articles
d. Regulators guidelines
e. All of the above
Answer: e. All of the above
19. Which of the following are the rationalizations of unethical actions according to Joseph Heath?
a. Denial of responsibility
b. Denial of injury
c. Appeal to higher loyalties
d. Denial by the victim
e. All of the above
20. A typical board of directors duties includes all of the following except:
a. Reviewing the companys overall business strategy
b. Evaluating the companys outside auditor
c. Overseeing the day-to-day activities of the company
d. Monitoring company performance
Answer: c. Overseeing the day-to-day activities of the company
21. Which of the following factors is not considered by the U.S. Department of Justice when deciding
when to prosecute directors with non-compliance with SOX requirements?
a. Whether the compliance program is substantive or just a paper sham
b. If there is staff sufficient to monitor and audit the compliance program
c. Whether management is enforcing the program
d. The size of the public company and its related ability to implement the program
e. All of the above
Answer: d. The size of the public company and its related ability to implement the program
22. Professional accountants are best suited to play the dominant or supporting roles in design,
preparation and management of a variety of areas that are vital to corporate governance including all of
the following except:
a. Ethical corporate culture
b. Stakeholder interests assessment
c. Tax planning
d.
Ethics
rick
management
systems
c. The duty of care requires a director to be diligent and prudent in managing the corporations affairs
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
25.Which of the following is not a guideline for acceptance of gifts or preferential treatment discussed in
the Brooks text?
a. What is the FMV?
b. Is it nominal or substantial?
c. Is it legal?
d. What are the circumstances?
e. What is the companys policy?
Answer: a. What is the FMV?
26. The professional accountant should be dedicated to serving the public interest. To achieve this the
IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants indicates compliance with 5 fundamental principles.
These five principles are
a. Objectivity, Independence, Professional Behavior, Integrity, and Due Care
b. Objectivity, Reliability, Professional Appearance, Integrity, and Independence of Mind
c. Integrity, Objectivity, Professional Behavior, Competence, and Confidentiality
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Integrity, Objectivity, Professional Behavior, Competence, and Confidentiality
27. Which of the following is a false statement concerning Circular 230 lists of best practices?
a. Cash IRS checks on behalf of clients
b. Provide the highest level of quality, professional care, acting fairly, and with integrity
c. Avoid conflicts of interest when representing more than one client
d. Not advise the client to take a patently improper or frivolous position
Answer: a. Cash IRS checks on behalf of clients
28.Which of the following is an element in the fraud triangle?
a. Motive
b. Rationalization
c. Opportunity
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
29. Which of the following is a false statement?
a. Conflict of interests have been a subject of extreme importance in recent scandals in which employees,
agents and professionals failed to exercise proper judgment on behalf of their principals.
b. A conflict of interest occurs when the independent judgment of a person is swayed, or might be
swayed, from making decisions in the best interest of others who are relying on that judgment.
c. A professional accountant is expected to make judgments that are in the public interest.
d. An executive is not expected to make judgments in the best interest of the company.
Answer: d. An executive is not expected to make judgments in the best interest of the company.
30. In Maslows Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following is a physical need?
a. Fulfillment
b. Affinity
c. Safety
d. Self-actualization
Answer b. Affinity (SEX ??) he suggested that people first need to satisfy their basic physiological needs
food, shelter, sleep, sex, etc. Once these requirements have been secured then safety needs (protection,
physical security, resources, job security, income, etc.)
31. To remedy the concerns over a conflict of interest, which general approaches should be considered?
a. Disclosure to those stakeholders relying on the decision
b. Management of the conflict of interest so that benefits of the judgment made are greater than the
costs
c. Avoidance
d.
All
of
the
above
Answer: d. All of the above
________________________________________________________________________
32. Corporations are now increasingly realizing that they are accountable:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Legally to shareholders
Legally to all stakeholders
Strategically to additional stakeholders
(a) and (b)
(a)
Answer: c.
33.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
and
Strategically
(c)
to
additional
stakeholders
The companys internal auditors and the Ethics Officer should report:
Day-to-day to the CEO
Day-to-day to the Audit Committee of the Board of Directors
Regularly to the Audit Committee of the Board of Directors without management being present
(a) and (c)
(a)
and
(b)
Answer: c. Regularly to the Audit Committee of the Board of Directors without management being
present
the
above
may
not
be
met
Answer: a. Normal definitions of risk are too narrow for stakeholder accountability
37. A conflict of interest exists when a given decision maker (D) and another person (P) are in the following
situation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(c)
38. A potential conflict of interest exists when a given decision maker (D) and another person (P) are in the
following situation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(b)
and
(c)
Management
Disclosure
Remediation
Avoidance
Awareness
Answer: d. Avoidance
stakeholders
goals
20%
60%
80%
100%
None
of
the
above
Answer: a. 20%
42. Which of the following is not a characteristic identified by forensic experts in prospective fraud
situations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
High intelligence
Greed
Need for whatever is taken
Opportunity to take advantage
Low
probability
of
being
caught
c.
d.
e.
the
above
organizational
values
and
encourage
above
employee
commitment
45. The most important factor in encouraging employee observance to an ethics program is that
employees perceive that it is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Compliance-based
Value-based
Achievement oriented
Stakeholder-based
Externally oriented
Answer: b: Value
46.) Building trust within an organization can have favorable impact on employees willingness to share
information and ideas in a process of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Ethical awareness
Ethical awakening
Ethical renewal
Ethical wave
None of the above
Answer:
47. A Conference Board survey identified the following rationale for developing codes of ethics:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
48. This code deals with ethics principles plus additional examples:
above
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Credo
Code of ethics
Code of conduct
Code of practice
All of the above
Answer:
49. Which of the following is not a mechanism for monitoring a code of ethics?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
surveys
50. Which of the following is not an example of emerging public accountability standards or initiatives?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
SOX-404
GRI
AA-1000
FTSE4Good
All
of
the
above
the
above
Answer: a. SOX-404
Fines
Suspension
Criminal prosecution for executives
Return of ill-gotten gains
All
of
Answer: e. All of the above
Honesty
Integrity
Objectivity
A primary commitment to self-interest
All
but
one
of
the
above
54. The following duties are essential to maintaining a fiduciary relationship in the accounting profession:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(b)
only
55. Professional Accountants, in their fiduciary role, owe primary loyalty to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
of
the
above
56. According to Kohlberg, at this stage of moral reasoning, fear of punishment and authorities are a motive
for doing right:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Pre-conventional
Conventional
Post-conventional
Autonomous
Principled
Answer: a.
Pre-conventional
57. According to Kohlberg, at this stage of moral reasoning, adherence to moral codes or to codes of law and
order are a motive for doing right:
a.
Pre-conventional
b.
c.
d.
e.
Conventional
Post-conventional
Autonomous
Principled
Answer: b. Conventional
58. Which of the following is not a fundamental principle in codes of conduct for professional accountants?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
with
misleading
information
59. If a professional accountant is billing an audit client for more hours than those actually worked, he will
be violating the following fundamental principle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Objectivity
Professional due care
Integrity
Confidentiality
All
of
the
above
Answer: c. Integrity
60. If a professional accountant is auditing a public company and she receives company shares as payment
for her audit services, she will be violating the following fundamental principle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Integrity
Objectivity
Professional due care
Confidentiality
All
of
the
above
Answer: b. Objectivity
61. A professional accountant is auditing client A and providing consulting services to client B. Both clients
are in the same industry. If the professional accountant uses specific information from client As audit to
prepare a business plan for client B, he will be violating the following fundamental principle:
a. Integrity
b. Objectivity
c. Professional due care
d. Confidentiality
e.
All
of
the
above
Answer: d. Confidentiality
62. The adoption of the following measures would reduce the expectation gap and lessen public
misunderstanding of the auditor's role
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(c)
63. The recommendation of appointment and review of the external auditors by the audit committee is an
example of:
a.
b.
c.
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest created by the profession, legislation, or regulation
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest between an auditor and management
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a professional accounting firms own systems
and procedures
d. All of the above
e. (a)
and
(c)
only
Answer: b. Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest between an auditor and management
64. Using partners who do not report to audit partners for the provision of non-assurance services to an
assurance client would be an example of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest created by the profession, legislation, or regulation
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a client
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a professional accounting firm
All of the above
(a)
and
(c)
only
Answer" c.
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a professional accounting firm
65. The external review of an audit firms quality control system is an example of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within the audit profession
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a client
Safeguards reducing the risk of conflict of interest within a professional accounting firm
All of the above
(a) and (c) only
66. This organization is developing an international code of conduct for professional accountants:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
of
Accountants
67. This organization issues auditing standards, carries out inspections of public accounting firms auditing
U.S. public clients, and imposes sanctions when applicable:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CPAB
PCAOB
SEC
FASB
AICPA
Answer: b PCAOB
AICPA
FASB
SEC
PCAOB
All
Answer: a.
of
the
above
AICPA
69. A professional accounting firm has several audit and tax clients; however, a single client represents 40%
of the firms revenue. This situation could result in the following threat to professional independence:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Self-review
Intimidation
Advocacy
Familiarity
Over-dependence
Answer: E
70. A professional accountant has been the partner in charge of a particular audit client for the past eight
years. This situation could result in the following threat to professional independence:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Self-review
Intimidation
Advocacy
Familiarity
None
Answer: d
of
the
above
71. A new audit client was taken on by a professional accountants firm. The fee for this clients audit
engagement is significantly lower than that charged by the prior accountants. This situation could result
in the following threat to professional independence:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Self-review
Intimidation
Advocacy
Familiarity
None
Answer: b.
of
the
above
Intimidation
72. Which of the following is not a dimension of the COSO Enterprise Risk Framework?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Strategic
Monitoring
Operations
Reporting
Compliance
73. Which of the following is not a component of the COSO Enterprise Risk Framework?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Risk assessment
Risk review
Internal environment
Information and communication
Control
activities.
74. Ethics and ethical corporate culture should likely play a vital role in setting:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Control environment
Risk assessment
Information and communication
Monitoring
Control
Answer: a.
Control
activities
environment
75. Which of the following is a source of risk identified by both the AICPA/CICA and the Institute of
Internal Auditors:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Environmental
Informational
Financial
Operational
e.
All
Answer: e.
of
All
the
of
above
the
above
76. What is the recommended strategy when stakeholders potential for threat is HIGH and the
stakeholders potential for cooperation is HIGH?
a. Monitor
b. Involve
c. Discuss
d. Defend
e. None
of
the
above
Answer: e.
None
of
the
above
(Collaborate)
77. What is the recommended strategy when stakeholders potential for threat is LOW and the
stakeholders potential for cooperation is HIGH?
a. Monitor
b. Involve
c. Discuss
d. Defend
e. None
of
the
above
Answer: b. Involve
78. The following three performance indicators are recommended by the Global Reporting Initiative:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
and
social
Answer: a. Economic, environmental and organizational : NOT sure .. GRI web indicate three
categories: (G3.1s Performance Indicators are organized into categories: Economic, Environment and
Social. The Social category is broken down further by Labor, Human Rights, Society and Product
Responsibility sub-categories.)
79. The following performance component recommended by the Global Reporting Initiative relates to
customer health and safety, marketing communications and customer privacy:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Labor practices
Human rights
Product responsibility
Society
Costumer
Answer: b. Human rights ???
rights
80. Auditors are mandated to assess the clients risk of financial reporting fraud. Auditing standard SAS-99
considers the following a mandatory tool in fraud assessment:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All
the
of
above
the
above
81. Which of the following would be the least useful report of ethics risks and opportunities?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
By hypernorm value
By shareholder group
By product or service
By corporate objective
By
reputation
driver
Improper behavior considered offensive by the victim, and the perpetrator knows that this is an
offensive behavior
b. Improper behavior considered offensive by society in general, and the perpetrator knows that this is an
offensive behavior
c. Improper behavior not considered offensive by the victim, and the perpetrator knows that this is an
offensive behavior
d. Improper behavior considered offensive by the victim, and the perpetrator does not know that this is an
offensive behavior
e. Improper behavior considered not offensive by the victim, and the perpetrator does not know that this
is
an
offensive
behavior
Answer: b. Improper behavior considered offensive by society in general, and the perpetrator knows
that this is an offensive behavior
83. An employee in charge of counting and depositing cash holdings at end of the day urgently needs some
extra cash to pay her sons medical bills. Using the fraud triangle, this situation likely constitutes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Motive
Rationalization
Opportunity
(a) and (b)
(a)
and
(c)
Answer: e.
(a)
and
(c)
84. An employee in charge of the costumer service help line needs urgently some extra cash for paying
his sons hospital bills. Using the fraud triangle, this situation likely constitutes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Motive
Rationalization
Opportunity
(a) and (b)
(a) and (c)
85. An employee who thinks he is being treated unfairly because he is regularly working unpaid overtime,
urgently needs some extra cash. Using the fraud triangle, this situation likely constitutes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Motive
Rationalization
Opportunity
(a) and (b)
(a)
and
Answer: d. (a)
(c)
and
(b)
86. An employee in charge of the cash register at a busy restaurant steals small sums of money at the end of
the day whenever the cash in the register exceeds the sum of the days bills. He thinks it is fine to do so
because every day there are two or three costumers that pay more than they should.This type of
rationalization is based on:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
of
the
victim
87. An employee in charge of writing checks to suppliers in a manufacturing firm steals small sums of money
every month by writing himself a check for the total of the discounts he negotiates with the companys
suppliers. This type of rationalization is based on:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Denial of responsibility
Denial of the victim
Condemnation of the condemners
Everyone else is doing it
Entitlement
Answer: e.
Entitlement
88. An employee in charge of collecting tickets at the entrance of a movie theater lets her friends enter the
theater without paying for tickets. She thinks it is fine to do so because the employees at the popcorn bar
give free popcorn to their friends. This type of rationalization is because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Denial of responsibility
Denial of the victim
Everyone else is doing it
Appeal to higher loyalties
Entitlement
Answer: c.
Esteem
Respect
Fulfillment
Safety
Affinity
Answer : d.
crises
Pre-crisis
Reputation restoration
Controlled
Uncontrolled
Post-crisis
92. Which of the following would hinder an organizations code of conduct from functioning properly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
94. To maintain good client relationship, an auditor must do all of the following except:
a- Define work to be done in fee agreement, if appropriate, provide reasonable estimates of costs.
b- Utilize staff and office automation to provide cost effectiveness and efficient service.
c- Bill periodically and often, rather than allowing fees to accumulate.
d- Generally decline accepting other telephone calls when in conference with the client.
e- All of the above should be done to maintain good client relationship.
95. Forensic experts point out that in most instances of fraud or opportunistic behavior, they begin to
identify prospective perpetrators through the use of what theory?
a) SING
b) Chinese Wall
c) GONE
d) 20/60/20
96. Forensic experts point out that in most instances of fraud or opportunistic behavior, they can begin
to identify prospective perpetrators through the use of the GONE Theory. The acronym, GONE, stands
for circumstances that account for motivation of illicit behavior. What does GONE stand for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
G-Greed
O-Opportunity to take advantage
N-Need for whatever is taken
E-Expectation of being caught is low
All
of
the
above
97. To remedy the concerns over a conflict of interest, three general approaches should be considered
a. Avoidance
b. Disclosure to the those stake holders relying upon the decision
c. Management of the conflict of interest so that the benefits of the judgment made outweigh the costs.
d. All of the above
98. Hypernorms involve the demonstration of the following basic values: Honesty, Fairness,
Compassion, Integrity, Predictability and Responsibility.
a. True
b. False
100. According to the Texas Public Accounting Act Rules regarding Form of Practice, a certificate or
registration holder may practice public accountancy only in the following business organizations:
a. Proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. LLC
d. Corporation
e. All of the above
101. According to 7216 IRS Code, a CPA can disclose confidential client information if he received:
a.
court order
b.
administrative summons from IRS
c.
written consent from the client
d.
All of the above
103. According to rule 501.52 for the rules of professional conduct, Professional services or
Professional accounting work includes which of the following:
a. Issuing reports or financial statements
b. Providing management or financial advisory or consulting services
c. Preparing tax returns
d. All of the above
e. Only A & B
104.
a.
Which of the following are considered reportable events under the Texas Public Accountancy Act?
The cancellation, revocation or suspension of a drivers license related to a Driving While Intoxicated
related offense
b.
c.
d.
e.
A felony
A crime of moral turpitude
B&C
All of the above
105. In general, the duties expected of a professional CPA are the maintenance of which of the following:
a. Competence
b. Objectivity
c. Integrity
d. All of the above.
106. Which of the following are considered to represent deficiencies in professional codes of conduct:
(a) Consultation on ethical matters is not uniformly encouraged, and may require the hiring of outside
counsel rather than counseling through the professional association.
(b) A fair reporting/hearing process is not always indicated, so members are uncertain whether to come
forward.
(c) Protection is not offered to a whistle blower.
(d) Sanctions are often unclear and their applicability is not defined.
(e) All of the above.
107. Independence of mind is the state of mind that permits the provision of an opinion without being
affected by influences that compromise professional judgment, allowing an individual to act with
integrity, and exercise objectivity and professional skepticism.
(a) True
(b) False
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
- the state of mind that permits the provision of an opinion without being affected by influences
that compromise professional judgment, allowing an individual to act with integrity, and exercise
objectivity and professional skepticism.
Attention Deficit Disorder or A.D.D.
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder or O.C.D.
Independence of mind or I.O.M.
Post-traumatic Stress Disorder or P.T.S.D.
None of the above
109. To maintain good client relationship, an auditor must do all of the following except:
a. Define work to be done in fee agreement, if appropriate, provide reasonable estimates of costs.
b. Utilize staff and office automation to provide cost effectiveness and efficient service.
110. The proper discharge of the ethical values of competence, integrity, honesty, and objectivity relies
substantially, if not primarily, upon
a.
b.
c.
d.
111. A CPA's independence would not be considered to be impaired by which of the following:
a. The CPA has a financial interest in the client.
b. The CPA has a close relative who holds a key position with the client.
c. The CPA had breakfast with the client that morning.
d. All of the above.
An audit or other engagement required by the Board to be performed in accordance with the auditing
standards adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or another national
accountancy organization recognized by the Board.
b.
A review, compilation or other engagement required by the Board to be formed in accordance with
standards for accounting and review services adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public
Accountants or another national accountancy organization recognized by the Board.
c.
An engagement required by the Board to be preformed in accordance with standard for attestation
engagements adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or another national
accountancy organization recognized by the Board; or
d.
Any of the assurance service required by the Board to be performed in accordance with professional
standards adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or another national
accountancy organization recognized by the Board.
e.
113. When implementing an ethical culture, all items below are important aspects to be
considered in such culture EXCEPT:
A.
B.
Organizational focus that stresses care for employees and the community.
C.
114.
The 20/60/20 Rule regarding division of the general population into three groups states that:
a. 20% of people would never commit fraud.
b. 60% of people would seek to commit fraud depending on circumstances.
c. 20% of people would seek to commit fraud.
d. Managers underestimate associates and employees unethical behavior.
e. All of the above
115. An ethical culture combines formal and informal elements to guide employees thought and action,
including the following:
a. Ethical leadership by executives and supervisors
b. Reward systems to incorporate ethical considerations
c. Perceived fairness, fair treatment of employees
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
116.
The Brooks text identified 3 threats to good governance and accountability. Those 3 threats are:
a.
b. Failure to manage people and familial duties; Misunderstanding SOX; and Lack of codes
of conduct.
a. Misunderstanding employees objectives; Failure to identify the board of directors;
and Co-worker conflicts.
b. Misunderstanding objectives and fiduciary duty; Failure to identify and manage ethics
risks; and Conflicts of interest.
117. Which of the following would hinder an organizations code of conduct from functioning properly?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
118.
a. It clearly defines expectations so that there are no surprises at the end of the job.
b. If the client requires specialized expertise, the CPA can advise the client of any outside
resources
he will utilize during the engagement.
c. It will lay out the billing guidelines (i.e., pay in advance, monthly retainer, etc.) so that there
are no
surprises after work has begun.
d. It allows the CPA to disclose any potential conflicts of interest so that the client is
aware of them from day 1.
e. All of the above.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
119. Which of the following are mechanisms for monitoring the compliance with corporate code of
conducts?
Employee surveys
Annual sign-offs by some or all employees
Reviews by legal department
Ethics audit or internal audit procedures
All of the above
120. The most important aspect of an ethics program designed to ensure an effective understanding and
commitment to one organizations ethical principles is the choice of program orientation. Which of the
following
is
not
a
commonly
know
orientation
type
for
this
purpose:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Satisfaction
of
internal
Protect
top
management
Integrity
or
All of the above are commonly known orientation types for ethics program.
Posted 16th October 2012 by Jorge L. Verar, CFE
Compliance-based.
stakeholders.
from
blame.
Values-based.
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