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MCQs in Psychiatry

1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

The term for a false perception of a sensory stimulus in the absence of a stimulus is
Hallucination
Illusion
Delusion
Derealization
Depersonalization

2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

A condition in which the patient feels detached from herself is called


Derealization
Depersonalization
Illusion
Hallucination
Detachment

3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Circumstantiality is a disorder of
mood
affect
speech
behavior
thinking

4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

A person who laughs one minute and cries the next without any clear stimulus has
Flat affect
Euphoria
Labile mood
Labile affect
Split personality

5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

An example of a specific phobia is fear of


horses
public transportation
bridges
Social situations
Crowds

6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Posttraumatic stress disorder differs from adjustment disorder in that


it occurs in veterans
impairment of social functioning occurs
it persists long after the stress has abated
it is characterized by preoccupation with the stress
it can be accompanied by depression

7. Which of the following psychotropic drugs is most likely to produce a severe withdrawal
syndrome when suddenly discontinued?
A) amtitriptyline
B) alprazolam
C) chlorpromazine
D) benztropine
E) lithium carbonate

MCQ psychiatry

8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

The term ego syntonic refers specifically to


ideas suggested by another individual rather than independently derived
a dissociative state such as psychogenic fugue or amnesia
the recognition ones own thoughts as unacceptable
the belief in ones own hallucinations
a character style where patients don't recognize that anything is wrong with them that need
to be changed

9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

All of the presentations described below are consistent with normal grief reactions EXCEPT
complaints regarding exhaustion or lack of strength
feelings of increased emotional distance
preoccupation with guilt and personal responsibility
increased activity without feelings of loss
feelings of irritability, hostility, and anger

10. All of the following statements concerning conduct disorder are true EXCEPT that
A) there is higher incidence in pre-pubertal boys than pre-pubertal girls
B) there is higher incidence in post-pubertal boys than post-pubertal girls
C) there higher incidence in children of alcoholic parents than in the general population
D) AD/HD can be a predisposing factor
E) almost 10% of boys 18 years of age or younger meet diagnostic criteria
11. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder is characterized by all the following EXCEPT
A) psychological complaints or physical symptoms
B) begin the week prior to menstruation
C) resolve shortly after the onset of the menstrual flow
D) a well established etiology
E) symptoms must be of such severity as to impair functioning
12. The treatment of choice for reversing anti-cholinergic delirium is
A) dantrolene
B) bethanecol
C) physostigmine
D) bromocriptine
E) haloperidol
13. The term dementia describes all of the following clinical states EXCEPT
A) gradual decline in certain mental operations such as orientation, cognition, and memory
B) presence of a specific language disorder such as aphasia, alexia, or agraphia
C) onset of behavioral changes including apathy, eccentricity, and distractibility
D) sudden loss of intellectual functioning, such as following an anoxic episode or a CVA
E) intellectual decline accompanied by neurological abnormalities
14. When a psychiatrist asked a patient You said you got up this morning and put on your
shmurple. What does that mean? the patient plies, This (pointing to his purple shirt). In
this context the word shmurple is an example of
A) circumstantiality
B) verbigeration
C) neologism
D) clang association
E) echolalia

MCQ psychiatry

15. A patient reported that he saw a man feeding two cats in the park on his way. He says that
this means his future will be decided in 2 weeks. The term that best describes this mode of
thinking is
A) illusion
B) hallucination
C) delusion
D) loosed association
E) neologism
16. An adequate trial of lithium therapy has proved unsuccessful in the treatment of a 24-yearold woman. Which of the following drugs would b most reasonable to describe next?
A) chlorpromazine
B) carbamazepine
C) alprazolam
D) amitriptyline
E) olanzapine
17. Identity disorder of adolescence is considered to be related to which of the following types
of adult personality disorder?
A) borderline
B) paranoid
C) narcissistic
D) schizoid
E) dependent
18. Antisocial personality disorder is considered to be
A) synonymous with criminal behavior
B) the male counterpart of histrionic personality disorder
C) correlated with EEG studies suggesting cortical immaturity
D) a more serious personality disorder than compulsive personality disorder
E) amenable to pharmacologic treatment with anti-androgenic agents
19. The term circumstantiality refers specifically to
A) a formal thought disorder in which there is a lack of goal-directed thinking
B) the enunciation of a long string of nonsense syllables
C) an atypical expression for malingering in the special case of factitious disorder with
psychological symptoms
D) speech that unnecessarily long-winded and tedious but that maintains logical direction
E) the tendency to be retiring and noncommittal in an interview
20. All of following statements regarding the clinical presentation of anorexia nervosa are true
EXCEPT that
A) there may be emphasized interest in food preparation and consumption
B) self-induced vomiting is often present
C) female patients may report menstrual irregularity or amenorrhea
D) patients frequently complain about being underweight
E) there may be an associated abuse of laxatives or diuretics or both

MCQ psychiatry

21. The diagnosis of Alzheimers disease is confirmed by


A) CT scan
B) EEG
C) laboratory investigation
D) neurological examination
E) none of the above
22. Of the following antipsychotic drugs, which has the lowest anti-cholinergic potency?
A) haloperidol
B) fluphenazine
C) trifluoperazine
D) chlorpromazine
E) thioridazine
23. Delirium is distinguished from dementia by the presence of
A) impaired judgment
B) impaired memory
C) clouding of consciousness
D) thought disorder
E) disorientation
24. The condition in which a person cannot produce normal language due to a neurologic
condition is known as
A) dysarthria
B) stuttering
C) echolalia
D) pressured speech
E) aphasia
25. A compound that is found at a decreased level in the CSF of violent offenders
A) nor epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) dopamine
D) 5-HIAA
E) lactic acid
26. The prevalence rate is similar in men and women for
A) major depressive disorder
B) dysthymic disorder
C) B I D
D) B II D
E) cyclothymic disorder
27. The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder requires which one of the following criteria?
A) repeated episodes of hypomania and depression
B) a minimum duration of 6 months
C) at least one prior major depressive episode
D) at least one prior manic episode
E) comorbid substance abuse

MCQ psychiatry

28. A 30-year-old man complaining of panic attacks and anticipatory anxiety. Which one of the
following drugs would be effective for his treatment?
A) haloperidol
B) venlafaxine
C) pentobarbital
D) carbamazepine
E) clonazepam
29. A person with which one of the following personality disorders is less likely to seek medical
care or psychiatric treatment?
A) dependent
B) antisocial
C) borderline
D) schizoid
E) obsessive-compulsive
30. Tactile hallucinations of insects crawling over the skin are called
A) hypnagogic
B) hypnopompic
C) formication
D) kinesthetic
E) gustatory
DIRECTIONS (Questions 31 through 44): Each group of items in this section consists of
lettered headings followed by a set of numbered words or phrases, select the ONE lettered
heading that is most closely associated with it. Each lettered heading may be selected once,
more than once, or not at all.
Questions 31 through 36
For each statement below describing drug side effects, select the psychotropic medication with
which it is most likely to be associated.
(A) lithium carbonate
(B) phenelzine
(C) diazepam
(D) clozapine
(E) haloperidol
(F) thioridazine
31. Dosage above the recommended upper limit can lead to retinitis pigmentosa
32. Sudden development of a severe throbbing headache signals a possible medical emergency
33. GI distress and fine tremor of the hands indicate toxicity
34. In low doses, its relative lack of autonomic side effects make it a drug of choice in the
treatment of agitation in elderly individuals
35. Inhibition of ejaculation is a characteristic side effect
36. Agranulocytosis
31

32

33

MCQ psychiatry

34

35

36

Questions 37 through 40
For each class of psychoactive drug, select the specific agent that is a member of that class.
(A) phenelzine
(B) clomipramine
(C) benztropine
(D) clonazepam
(E) haloperidol
37. Tricyclic antidepressant
38. Neuroleptic (antipsychotic)
39. MAO inhibitor
40. Anticonvulsant
37

38

39

40

Questions 41 through 44
In conducting a mental status examination, assessment of language and communication is essential
in determining whether or not a patient has a formal thought disorder. For each description of verba
behavior, select the term with which it is associated.
(A) incoherence
(B) derailment
(C) perseveration
(D) neologism
(E) pressure of speech
41. An increase in the amount of spontaneous speech as compared with what is considered
ordinary
42. A pattern of speech that is essentially incomprehensible
43. A pattern of spontaneous speech in which ideas slip into other ideas that are clear but
unrelated
44. New word formation, either a word in which the derivation cannot be understood or a word
in which the meaning will be evident even though the usage is peculiar.

MCQ psychiatry

DIRECTIONS (Questions 45 through 54): Each group of items in this section consists of
lettered headings followed by a set of numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word
or phrase, select
A if the item is associated with (A) only,
B if the item is associated with (B) only,
C if the item is associated with both (A) and (B),
D if the item is associated with neither (A) nor (B).
Questions 45 through 50
(A) bipolar disorder
(B) schizophrenia
(C) both
(D) neither
45. Premorbid developmental history typically is normal
46. Hospitalization is strongly indicated sometimes
47. Suicide risk is greater than in controls
48. Euphoria, irritability, poor impulse control, and distractibility are cardinal symptoms
49. affected persons typically show residual symptoms even when the disease is inactive
50. four days of so severe symptoms are enough for diagnosis
45

46

47

48

49

50

Questions 51 through 54
(A) panic disorder
(B) generalized anxiety disorder
(C) both
(D) neither
51. A coexisting major depressive episode often is diagnosed
52. Caffeine intoxication must be considered in the differential diagnosis
53. Identifiable worrisome situations often trigger symptoms
54. Recommended drug treatment includes use of long-acting benzodiazepines
51

52

53

MCQ psychiatry

54

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