MATERNITY NURSING

A.
B.
C.

This test paper contains 200 questions.

Write your answer in CAPITAL LETTERS before
each number
No erasures, superimpositions and alterations
allowed in your answer.

1. You performed the leopolds maneuver and found the

following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right side of
the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal
heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location?
A. Left lower quadrant
B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant
2. In Leopolds maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft broad
mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct
interpretation of this finding is:
A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
B. The presentation is breech.
C. The mass palpated is the back
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
3. In Leopolds maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round
movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct
interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the fetal small part
4. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
5. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the graafian
follicle is:
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone
7. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is:
A. Transverse position
B. Vertical position
C. Oblique position
D. None of the above
8. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may
experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe
explained as:
A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is
using more oxygen
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm
upwards
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy
and its hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication of
pregnancy
9. Which of the following findings in a woman would be
consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?
A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
10. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal movement felt by mother
B. Enlargement of the uterus
C. (+) pregnancy test
D. (+) ultrasound
11. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the
expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
A. Lightening
B. Ballotment
C. Pseudocyesis

D. Quickening
12. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will
prevent which prenatal discomfort?
A. Backache
B. Vertigo
C. Leg cramps
D. Nausea
13. When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the
correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is:
A. Allow the woman to exercise
B. Let the woman walk for a while
C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the
knees
D. Ask the woman to raise her legs
14. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy
mother should have prenatal check up every:
A. week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
15. The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during
the 3rd trimester is
A. 1 pound a week
B. 2 pounds a week
C. 10 lbs a month
D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester
16. In the Batholonews rule of 4, when the level of the fundus
is midway between the umbilicus and xyphoid process the
estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:
A. 5th month
B. 6th month
C. 7th month
D. 8th month
17. The following are ways of determining expected date of
delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
A. Naegeles rule
B. Quickening
C. Mc Donalds rule
D. Batholomews rule of 4
18. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD)
is
A. Oct. 7
B. Oct. 24
C. Nov. 7
D. Nov. 8
19. Kegels exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
A. Strengthen perineal muscles
B. Relieve backache
C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema
20. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to
relieve which discomfort?
A. Leg cramps
B. Urinary frequency
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Backache
21. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron
in pregnancy is:
A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the
increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal
requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the
mother must supply
D. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of
pica
22. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should
be high in
A. Protein, minerals and vitamins
B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
D. Fats and minerals

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

24. Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek

immediate medical attention?
A. When the first fetal movement is felt
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
25. You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your
pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by:
A. Asking her to void
B. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
C. Giving the client a perineal care
D. Doing a vaginal prep
26. When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of
pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should
instruct her to:
A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
B. Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure
and not void until the procedure is done
D. Void immediately before the procedure for better
visualization
27. The nursing intervention to relieve morning sickness in a
pregnant woman is by giving
A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid
28. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the
uterus is
A. Upper uterine portion
B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment
29. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of
abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the first pregnancy was a
twin. She is considered to be
A. G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4
30. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea negra
D. Chadwick's sign
31. Which of the following statements is TRUE of conception?
A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse conception is possible in
a fertile woman
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation
C. Conception is possible during menstruation in a long
menstrual cycle
D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days
before and 3 days after menstruation
32. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic fluid?
1.Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma 2.Serves as the
fluid for the fetus
3.Maintains the internal temperature
4.Facilitates fetal movement
A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above
33. You are performing abdominal exam on a 9th month
pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt breathless, had
pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct
assessment of the womans condition is that she is
A. Experiencing the beginning of labor
B. Having supine hypotension
C. Having sudden elevation of BP
D. Going into shock

34. Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because

A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mothers blood vessels
B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the mother
reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus
C. The smoke will make the fetus and the mother feel dizzy
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood
vessels
35. Which of the following is the most likely effect on the fetus
if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?
A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
36. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most
likely make the nurse suspect that the patient is having
hydatidiform mole?
A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus
37. Upon assessment the nurse found the following: fundus
at 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, last menstrual period
(LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not appreciated.
Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this
condition?
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
38. When a pregnant woman goes into a convulsive seizure,
the MOST immediate action of the nurse to ensure safety of
the patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her tongue
and the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions to
drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a precipitate labor
39. A gravido-cardiac mother is advised to observe bedrest
primarily to
A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine growth
B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can aggravate the
condition of the compromised heart of the mother
C. Prevent perinatal infection
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor
40. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the
chief complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not
in labor. The nurse must always consider which of the
following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict
asepsis with a double set-up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be
made ready before examining the patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure
41. Which of the following signs will distinguish threatened
abortion from imminent abortion?
A. Severity of bleeding
B. Dilation of the cervix
C. Nature and location of pain
D. Presence of uterine contraction
42. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to
maternal supine hypotension is:
A. Place the mother on semi-fowlers position
B. Put the mother on left side lying position
C. Place mother on a knee chest position
D. Any of the above
43. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are
usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly
given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

C. Progesterone and estrogen

D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
44. In placenta praevia marginalis, the placenta is found at
the:
A. Internal cervical os partly covering the opening
B. External cervical os slightly covering the opening
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges near the
internal cervical os
D. Lower portion of the uterus completely covering the cervix
45. In which of the following conditions can the causative
agent pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in utero?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Rubella
C. Candidiasis
D. moniliasis
46. Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult
males?
A. German measles
B. Orchitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Rubella
47. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer
of
A. Cervix
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Breast
48. Which of the following causes of infertility in the female is
primarily psychological in origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence
49. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a
pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the patients
condition. Which of the following conditions will require the
nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose of magnesium
sulfate?
A. 100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
50. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?
A. The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the
fetus is Rh(-)
B. Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result to
erythroblastosis fetalis
C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will
not be affected
D. RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to prevent
incompatibility
51. Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-forgestational age fetus due to less blood supply to the fetus?
A. Diabetes in the mother
B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. Premature labor
D. Abruptio placenta
52. The lower limit of viability for infants in terms of age of
gestation is:
A. 21-24 weeks
B. 25-27 weeks
C. 28-30 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks
114. The uterine fundus right after delivery of placenta is
palpable at
A. Level of Xyphoid process
B. Level of umbilicus
C. Level of symphysis pubis
D. Midway between umbilicus and symphysis pubis
56. In a woman who is not breastfeeding, menstruation
usually occurs after how many weeks?

A. 2-4 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
55. The preferred manner of delivering the baby in a gravidocardiac is vaginal delivery assisted by forceps under epidural
anesthesia. The main rationale for this is:
A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby
B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into the maternal
circulation
C. To make the delivery effort free and the mother does not
need to push with contractions
D. To prevent perineal laceration with the expulsion of the
fetal head
56. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother in labor, the
special consideration to follow is:
A. The progress of labor is well established reaching the
transitional stage
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well and delivery of the
baby is imminent
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at least 8 cm. and
the station is at least (+)2
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby will not be
delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
57. The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 A.M. in a G1P0
patient was 6 cm. A repeat I.E. done at 10 A.M. showed that
cervical dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation of this
result is:
A. Labor is progressing as expected
B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
D. The duration of labor is normal
58. Which of the following techniques during labor and
delivery can lead to uterine inversion?
A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother in bearing
down during delivery of the fetal head
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the
placenta and hasten placental separation
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to contract
D. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that
has already detached from the uterine wall
59. The fetal heart rate is checked following rupture of the
bag of waters in order to:
A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head compression
B. Determine if cord compression followed the rupture
C. Determine if there is utero-placental insufficiency
D. Check if fetal presenting part has adequately descended
following the rupture
60. Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2
perineal pads highly saturated with blood within 2 hours post
partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well
defined. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is:
A. Normal blood loss
B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
61. The following are signs and symptoms of fetal distress
EXCEPT:
A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreased during a contraction and
persists even after the uterine contraction ends
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160 bpm
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR during
contraction is 118 bpm and FHR after uterine contraction is
126 bpm
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular
62. If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours, the nurse should
suspect that the following conditions may occur:
1.Laceration of cervix
2.Laceration of perineum
3.Cranial hematoma in the fetus
4.Fetal anoxia
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2,3,4

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

D. 1,2,3,4
63. The primary power involved in labor and delivery is
A. Bearing down ability of mother
B. Cervical effacement and dilatation
C. Uterine contraction
D. Valsalva technique
64. The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine
contraction is
A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the
contraction
B. Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic area and
time the contraction
C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try
to indent the abdominal wall at the height of the contraction
D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the
contraction at the fundal area
65. To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction during
labor, the right technique is to time the contraction
A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the
same contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of
the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the
next contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of
the next contraction
66. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the
A. Acceleration
B. Acme
C. Deceleration
D. Axiom
67. When determining the duration of a uterine contraction
the right technique is to time it from
A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of the same
contraction
B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of another
contraction
C. The acme point of one contraction to the acme point of
another contraction
D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of another
contraction
68. When the bag of waters ruptures, the nurse should check
the characteristic of the amniotic fluid. The normal color of
amniotic fluid is
A. Clear as water
B. Bluish
C. Greenish
D. Yellowish
69. When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the
nurse should inspect the vaginal introitus for possible cord
prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has prolapsed into
the vaginal opening the correct nursing intervention is:
A. Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal canal
B. Place the mother on semifowlers position to improve
circulation
C. Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze wet with sterile
NSS and place the woman on trendellenberg position
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman
on sims position
70. The fetal heart beat should be monitored every 15
minutes during the 2nd stage of labor. The characteristic of a
normal fetal heart rate is
A. The heart rate will decelerate during a contraction and then
go back to its pre-contraction rate after the contraction
B. The heart rate will accelerate during a contraction and
remain slightly above the pre-contraction rate at the end of
the contraction
C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine contraction.
D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of a contraction
and remain so for about a minute after the contraction
71. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery is
A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation
B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external
rotation

C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension

D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion
72. The first thing that a nurse must ensure when the babys
head comes out is
A. The cord is intact
B. No part of the cord is encircling the babys neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating
73. To ensure that the baby will breath as soon as the head is
delivered, the nurses priority action is to
A. Suction the nose and mouth to remove mucous secretions
B. Slap the babys buttocks to make the baby cry
C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base
D. Check the babys color to make sure it is not cyanotic
74. When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the
nurse should observe the following EXCEPT
A. Use up-down technique with one stroke
B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C. Use mild soap and warm water
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area
75. What are the important considerations that the nurse
must remember after the placenta is delivered?
1.Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes
2.Check if the cord is long enough for the baby
3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels
4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3
76. The following are correct statements about false labor
EXCEPT
A. The pain is irregular in intensity and frequency.
B. The duration of contraction progressively lengthens over
time
C. There is no vaginal bloody discharge
D. The cervix is still closed.
77. The passageway in labor and deliver of the fetus include
the following EXCEPT
A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment
B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis
78. The normal umbilical cord is composed of:
A. 2 arteries and 1 vein
B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above
79. At what stage of labor and delivery does a primigravida
differ mainly from a multigravida?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
80. The second stage of labor begins with ___ and ends with
__?
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends with delivery
of placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with delivery of baby
C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of cervix
and ends with delivery of baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with full dilatation
and effacement of cervix
81. The following are signs that the placenta has detached
EXCEPT:
A. Lengthening of the cord
B. Uterus becomes more globular
C. Sudden gush of blood
D. Mother feels like bearing down
82. When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out first,
this is called the ___ mechanism.

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

A. Schultze
B. Ritgens
C. Duncan
D. Marmets

D. Cervical rigidity

83. When the babys head is out, the immediate action of the
nurse is
A. Cut the umbilical cord
B. Wipe the babys face and suction mouth first
C. Check if there is cord coiled around the neck
D. Deliver the anterior shoulder
84. When delivering the babys head the nurse supports the
mothers perineum to prevent tear. This technique is called
A. Marmets technique
B. Ritgens technique
C. Duncan maneuver
D. Schultze maneuver
85. The basic delivery set for normal vaginal delivery includes
the following instruments/articles EXCEPT:
A. 2 clamps
B. Pair of scissors
C. Kidney basin
D. Retractor
86. As soon as the placenta is delivered, the nurse must do
which of the following actions?
A. Inspect the placenta for completeness including the
membranes
B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal
C. Label the placenta properly
D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the nursing aide
to dispose properly
87. In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the doctor
routinely orders an oxytocin to be given to the mother
parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta
has been delivered and not before because:
A. Oxytocin will prevent bleeding
B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus trap the
placenta inside
C. Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery
D. Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery of the
placenta
88. In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2 hours postpartum
(4th stage of labor and delivery) particularly in a cesarean
section is a critical period because at this stage
A. There is a fluid shift from the placental circulation to the
maternal circulation which can overload the compromised
heart.
B. The maternal heart is already weak and the mother can die
C. The delivery process is strenuous to the mother
D. The mother is tired and weak which can distress the heart
89. The drug usually given parentally to enhance uterine
contraction is:
A. Terbutalline
B. Pitocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Lidocaine
90. The partograph is a tool used to monitor labor. The
maternal parameters measured/monitored are the following
EXCEPT:
A. Vital signs
B. Fluid intake and output
C. Uterine contraction
D. Cervical dilatation
91. The following are natural childbirth procedures EXCEPT:
A. Lamaze method
B. Dick-Read method
C. Ritgens maneuver
D. Psychoprophylactic method
92. The following are common causes of dysfunctional labor.
Which of these can a nurse, on her own manage?
A. Pelvic bone contraction
B. Full bladder
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head

93. At what stage of labor is the mother is advised to bear

down?
A. When the mother feels the pressure at the rectal area
B. During a uterine contraction
C. In between uterine contraction to prevent uterine rupture
D. Anytime the mother feels like bearing down
94. The normal dilatation of the cervix during the first stage of
labor in a nullipara is
A. 1.2 cm./hr
B. 1.5 cm./hr.
C. 1.8 cm./hr
D. 2.0 cm./hr
95. When the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spine, it is
said that the station of the head is
A. Station 1
B. Station 0
C. Station +1
D. Station +2
96. During an internal examination, the nurse palpated the
posterior fontanel to be at the left side of the mother at the
upper quadrant. The interpretation is that the position of the
fetus is:
A. LOA
B. ROP
C. LOP
D. ROA
97. The following are types of breech presentation EXCEPT:
A. Footling
B. Frank
C. Complete
D. Incomplete
98. When the nurse palpates the suprapubic area of the
mother and found that the presenting part is still movable, the
right term for this observation that the fetus is
A. Engaged
B. Descended
C. Floating
D. Internal Rotation
99. The placenta should be delivered normally within ___
minutes after the delivery of the baby.
A. 5 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes
100. According to Rubins theory of maternal role adaptation,
the mother will go through 3 stages during the post partum
period. These stages are:
A. Going through, adjustment period, adaptation period
B. Taking-in, taking-hold and letting-go
C. Attachment phase, adjustment phase, adaptation phase
D. Taking-hold, letting-go, attachment phase

EXAM II
1. A client who is a brittle diabetic is seeking to get pregnant.
Who should she choose as a care provider?
a. a certified nurse-midwife
b. a family nurse practitioner
c. an obstetrician
d. a maternal-fetal medicine specialist
2. A client who is gravida 14, para 10-3-0-16, gave to all her
children vaginally. She presents in labor and upon vaginal
examination the obstetrician discovers the infant is in footling
breech position. The obstetrician plans to do a C.S.
immediately but the family dramatically refuses. How can the
nurse help resolve the dilemma?
a. follow the physicians order and prepare the client for
surgery
b. help identify all the options, taking action on the on the
best option for all concerned
c. side with the client and refuse to prepare for the surgery
d. call the supervisor so she can mediate the dispute
3. A child bearing is considered a developmental crisis for a
family because:

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

a.
b.
c.
d.

it is an abnormal experience in the process of growth and

development
it is a period of physical, psychological, in social change
causing a sense of disorganization
it is a stressful, unexpected event caused by external
factors
the family has already mastered the tasks of this
maturational age.

4. A nurse is a defendant in a suit brought by a client who had a

post partum hemorrhage requiring transfusion of 20 units of
blood and a hysterectomy after the delivery of her 3rd child.
The client had an epidural before the delivery and
immediately after delivery of the placenta the client had
persistent uterine atony with heavy bleeding. In the
immediate postpartum, the clients uterus continued to get
boggy and the client had a heavy, bright rubra lochial flow.
The nurse is being sued for not providing appropriate care.
Which of the following would be the standard of care for a
client experiencing a post partum hemorrhage?
a. palpate the fundus every 10 to 15 minutes and if boggy,
massage to expel clots
b. have the client empty her bladder only when she has the
urge to void
c. discontinue the pitocin IV when the uterus is firm and 4
cm above the umbilicus
d. do assessment every 30 minutes as indicated in the
postpartum flow sheet
5. A client basal. Body temperature (BBT) graph shows a nearly
straight line. Which of the following describes the etiology of
what the graph means?
a. the client is not ovulating
b. the client is not having intercourse
c. the client is ovulating late in her menstrual cycle
d. the client is not taking her temperature correctly
6. A client who has a pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused
by Chlamydia trachomatis is at risk for which of the following?
a. anovulatory menstrual cycle
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. multifetal pregnancy
d. cervical dysplasia
7. Which of the following statements tells you that a client needs
further teaching? To become pregnant, we should:
a. have intercourse on the 14th day of menstrual cycle
b. have intercourse when my basal body temperature rises
c. have intercourse every other day during the week before
and after ovulation
d. abstain from intercourse for the month prior to the month
I want to conceive.
8. An infertile couple will likely have which of the following tests
ordered?
a. Semen analysis and hystersalpingogram
b. Hystersalpingogram and Pap smear
c. Colposcopy with endocervical biopsy
d. Sexually transmitted infection testing and artificial
insemination
9. Nursing care of the infertile couple would include which of the
following?
a. assistance in dealing with feelings of guilt and shame
b. facilitation of verbalizing which partner is to blame
c. History and vital sign analysis only
d. discussing the advantages of adoption instead of
infertility treatment
10. A client with fallopian tube blockage would be a candidate for
which of the following methods of achieving pregnancy?
a. natural family planning
c. tubal ligation
b. vitro fertilization
d. sperm washing
11. The client has been scheduled to have a
hysterosalpingogram. Which of the following questions does
the nurse need to ask?
a. Do you have any metal implants?
b. When was the last time you had intercourse?
c. When was the first day of your last menstrual cycle?
d. What was your age at menarche?

12. A couple visits the genetic counseling clinic regarding a family

history of cystic fibrosis, an autosomal recessive disorder.
They ask the nurse, What are the chances that we will have
a child with cystic fibrosis if we are both carriers?
a. They should not have children because they will all have
cystic fibrosis
b. the disorder occurs at random, and there is no way to
calculate the risk
c. there is 50% chance that they will have a child with cystic
fibrosis
d. there is a 25% chance that they will have a child with
cystic fibrosis
13. A nurse is counseling a couple about fertility awareness. The
nurse determines they understand the ideal time for
conception when the client states:
a. ovulation usually occurs 14 days after the beginning of
the menstrual cycle
b. the ovum survives for 24 hours after ovulation
c. it is best to have intercourse 24 to 48 hrs. after ovulation
d. the ovum must be in contact with sperm for 48 hours in
order for fertilization to occur.
14. After completing a health history in a prenatal clinic, the nurse
recognizes which client as having the greatest risk for
potential birth anomalies?
a. a 23 y.o. pregnant woman at 7 months gestation with a
urinary tract infection
b. a 15 y.o. primigravida with a sister who has Down
syndrome
c. a 35 y.o. multigravida at 16 weeks gestation with a yeast
infection
d. a 42 y.o. multigravida at 5 months gestation with a colds
15. A 30 y.o. woman is pregnant with twins. She tells the nurse
that twins run in her family. She has a twin brother, her
mother is a twin, and many relatives have twins. The nurse
explains that this type of twinning is most likely:
a. identical
c. dizygotic
b. monozygotic
d. monoamniotic
16. A client at 8 months gestation is diagnosed with
oligohydramnios. She asks the nurse if this can harm the
fetus. The nurse best response is
a. yes, it can lead to umbilical cord compression.
b. yes, it means the fetus swallowed too much fluid.
c. No, this commonly occurs toward the end of pregnancy.
d. No, this is a sign that the lungs are maturing.
17. At a family planning clinic, the nurse explains how a urine
pregnancy test works and tells the client that the test detects
an increase in the hormone:
a. Estriol
b. progesterone
c. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
d. human placental lactogen (hPL)
18. Following an ultrasound at 6 weeks gestation the client
comments, the embryo doesnt look human. And asks,
when will it begin to look like a baby? The nurse best
response is:
a. in one week the embryo will take on a human
appearance.
b. the embryo looks like a baby already. Let me show you
again.
c.
the embryo becomes a fetus and looks human after 8
weeks gestation.
d. you are right. The embryo doesnt look human. Is this
important to you?
19. Following an amniocentesis, the parents discover that their
fetus has Down syndrome. The nurse should:
a. provide information about Down syndrome
b. discuss the possibility of intrauterine surgery
c. refer the parents for karyotyping
d. refer the parents to their local public health surgery.
20. During the clients initial prenatal visit, which of the following
would indicate a need for further assessment?
a. history of diabetes for 6 years
b. exercises 3 times a week
c. occasional use of over the counter pain relievers
d. maternal age 30 years

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

21. The low-risk client, who is 16 weeks pregnant, should be told

to return to the prenatal clinic in:
a. one week
c. 3 weeks
b. two weeks
d. four weeks

31. Which of the following actions would take priority when caring
for the woman with suspected ectopic pregnancy?
a. administering oxygen
b. monitoring vital signs
c. obtaining surgical consent
d. providing emotional support

22. The pregnant woman reports that she has a 3 year old child
at home who was born at term, had a miscarriage at 10
weeks gestation, and delivered a set of twins at 28 weeks
gestation that died after 24 hours. In the prenatal record, the
nurse should record:
a. gravida 2 para 1
c. gravida 4 para 2
b. gravida 3 para 3
d. gravida 5 para 4

32. A client with a known placenta previa is admitted at 30 weeks

with painless vaginal bleeding. The nurse weighs the clients
peri-pads to monitor blood loss. An increased weight of 50 g
would indicate approximately how much blood loss.
a. 0.5 ml
b. 5 ml
c. 50 ml
d. 500 ml

23. The clients prenatal education includes danger signs to

report, Which of the following, if reported, would indicate that
the client understood the teaching?
a. dizziness and blurred vision
b. occasional nausea and vomiting
c. no bowel movement for 3 days
d. ankle edema
24. The is planning a childbirth education class for women in their
first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following topics is
most appropriate?
a. breathing techniques for pain relief in labor
b. choosing a prenatal care provider
c. postpartum self-care
d. care of the newborn infant
25. Which of the following would be the best indicator of normal
fetal growth?
a. maternal weight gain 7 lbs at 22 weeks gestation
b. fundal height 22 cm at 25 weeks gestation
c. maternal waist circumference 41 inches at 36 weeks
gestation
d. maternal intake1,500 calories per day
26. The pregnant client is scheduled to have an ultrasound.
Which of the following might indicate a need to do the
assessment transvaginally?
a. client is 5 ft 1 inc tall and weighs 230 lbs.
b. client is 15 yrs old and easily embarrassed
c. client is 32 weeks gestation
d. client is concerned about ultrasound wave hurting the
baby
27. A client with class ll heart disease is being seen for her first
prenatal visit. Which of the following teaching points would
the nurse stress for this client?
a. avoid all over the counter (OTC) medications during
pregnancy
b. regular exercise will help increase the cardiac capacity
during pregnancy
c. it is important to take prenatal vitamins and iron as
prescribed
d. the clients fetus will probably have a similar congenital
heart disease.
28. When an insulin-dependent diabetic client gives birth, the
expects the clients insulin requirements in the first 24 hrs.
after delivery to:
a. drop significantly
b. gradually return to normal
c. increase slightly
d. stay the same as before
29. Which of the following lab tests would the nurse look at to
provide the best information about ongoing control of insulindependent diabetes in a pregnant adolescent?
a. fasting blood sugar
b. glycosylated hemoglobin
c. oral glucose tolerance test
d. post-prandial test
30. The nurse should be aware that pregnant women who
practice substance abuse and present themselves for
prenatal care:
a. are ready to kick their habit
b. must be reported to the authorities
c. recognize the need for caring interventions
d. will lack appropriate parenting skills

33. A client is hospitalized in the antepartum unit with premature

rupture of membranes at 37 weeks gestation. Which of the
following routine physician orders would the nurse alter for
this client?
a. bed rest with BR
b. diet as tolerated
c. external fetal monitor prn
d. vital signs every shift
34. A client with pre-eclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate
and oxytocin IV to induce labor at 36 weeks. What is the main
indication of the magnesium sulfate for this client?
a. lower blood pressure
c. provide sedation
b. prevent convulsions
d. soften stools
35. Which of the following complications of pregnancy would be
most consistent with development of sinusoidal fetal heart
rate pattern during labor?
a. abrutio placenta
b. chorioamnionitis
c. pregnancy-induced hypertension
d. prolapsed cord
36. The nurse performs a vaginal exam and determines that the
fetus is in a sacrum anterior position. This means:
a. the fetal sacrum is toward the maternal symphysis pubis
b. the fetal sacrum is toward the maternal sacrum
c. the fetal face is toward the maternal sacrum
d. the fetal face is toward the maternal symphysis pubis
37. The client has been having contractions every 5 minutes for 7
hours. Which factor is used to determine if this is a true or
false labor?
a. the cervix is effacing and dilating
b. this is the clients 2nd baby
c. the contractions are becoming more intense and lasting
longer
d. the membranes have ruptured
38. The highest priority in nursing care of the laboring client is:
a. pain relief measures are offered that are acceptable to
the client
b. the clients partner is involved with the labor and delivery
c. appropriate fluid intake is monitored
d. fetal response to the labor is assessed
39. As labor progresses, the nurse expects to find contractions
becoming:
a. more intense, less frequent, and of longer duration
b. more intense, more frequent, and of longer duration
c. constant in intensity, more frequent, and of shorter
duration.
d. constant in intensity and frequency, and of shorter
duration
40. Which of the following nursing observations would indicate a
sign of impending placental separation and expulsion?
a. steady trickle of blood with an unchanged cord length
b. no bleeding with the lengthening of the cord
c. small gush of blood with lengthening of the cord
d. small gush of blood with unchanged length of the cord.
41. The nurse determines a laboring client is anxious and
recognizes that may result in:
a. rapid progression in labor
b. increased pain during labor
c. no reliance on support person
d. need for episiotomy

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

42. Earlier in the day, the fetal heart rate baseline was 140. It is
now 170. One explanation for this could be:
a. maternal fever
b. narcotic administration
c. fetal movement
d. utero-placental insufficiency
43. The nurse determines teaching has been effective when a
laboring client responds:
a. effacement is the opening of the cervix.
b. my cervix will probably efface before it dilates because
this is my first pregnancy.
c. effacement is measured from 0 to 10 cm.
d. my cervix will probably efface and dilate simultaneously
because this is my first pregnancy.
44. The clients vaginal examination reveals: 3 cm dilated, 80%
effaced, vertex at a -1 station. The woman is talkative and
appears excited. The nurse determines the client is to be in
which stage and phase of labor?
a. 1st stage, latent phase
b. 1st stage, active phase
c. 2nd stage, latent phase
d. 3rd stage, transition phase
45. The nurse determines that vaginal delivery of a vertex
presentation is more likely to occur if the fetus adapts to the
passageway (pelvis) in which sequence of movements?
a. flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
b. extension, flexion, descent, external rotation
c. descent, internal rotation, extension, external rotation
d. internal rotation, descent, flexion, extension
46. Assessment of a normal episiotomy immediately post delivery
is most likely to reveal:
a. gaping between the sutures
b. slight bruising
c. pus coming from the sutures
d. edema that makes the tissue looks shiny
47. 4th stage nursing care for a client with an episiotomy includes
which of the following?
a. application of ice beginning 4 hours after delivery
b. ice pack to the perineum for up to 60 minutes per
application
c. inspection every 15 minutes during the first hour after
childbirth
d. instruction to avoid intercourse for at least 12 weeks
48. The nurses goal in teaching childbirth education classes is to:
a. provide education to all pregnant client
b. ensure a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery
c. help client know what to expect during labor
d. prepare the couple for all possible complications

d.

our baby will come out with the back of the head first.

53. Following an amniotomy, the most important nursing action is

to:
a. reposition the mother on her left side
b. place a clean underpad on the bed
c. listen to fetal heart tone
d. observe the color and consistency of the amniotic fluid
54. The nurse may help a client with a fetus in the right occiput
posterior (ROP) position by avoiding which of the following
actions?
a. position her on her left side
b. position her on her right side
c. helping her walk around the room
d. assisting her to knee chest position
55. A nulliparous client has not made any progress in cervical
dilatation or station since she was 7 cm and 0 station over 2
hrs. ago. According to the Friedman curve, this is termed:
a. prolonged deceleration phase
b. protracted active phase
c. arrest of descent
d. secondary arrest of dilatation
56. A clients amniotic fluid is greenish-tinged. The fetal
presentation is vertex. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine
activity have remained within normal limits. At the time of
delivery, the nurse should anticipate the need for:
a. an infant laryngoscope and suction catheters
b. forceps
c. a transport isolate
d. emergency CS set-up
57. A client who is 34 weeks gestation has been having
contractions every 10 minutes regularly. In addition to
instructing her to lie down and rest while continuing to time
contractions, the nurse should also tell her to:
a. refrain from eating or drinking anything
b. Take slow deep breaths with each contraction
c. go to the hospital if contractions continue for more than
one (1) hour.
d. drink 3 to 4 cups of water
58. The client who has had a previous cesarean birth asks about
vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Which of the following
factors from her history is a contraindication for VBAC?
a. previous cesarean was for breech presentation
b. the client has a classical uterine incision
c. the abdominal incision was vertical rather than
transverse
d. an induction of labor is planned for this delivery

49. The nurse note on the antepartal history that the client has an
android pelvis and recognizes an increased risk for:
a. a prolonged labor
b. occiput posterior position
c. precipitous delivery
d. developing postpartum complications

59. A client is undergoing induction of labor with oxytocin. An

important observation by the nurse that requires slowing or
stopping the infusion is:
a. contractions lasting longer than 60 seconds
b. resting phase interval less than 60 seconds
c. Maternal BP 90/50 mmHg
d. Nausea and vomiting

50. The nurse determines teaching has been effective when a

client with a fetus in a frank breech position says: My babys
hips are:
a. Flexed and the knees are flexed
b. extended and the knees are flexed
c. flexed and the knees are extended
d. extended and the knees are extended

60. In addition to routine assessment and care, nursing care for a

client who is receiving terbutalin to prevent premature labor
should include assessing:
a. oral temperature every 2 hrs.
b. fetal hear tone every 30 minutes
c. breath sounds every 4 hrs.
d. deep tendon reflexes every 4 hrs.

51. If the fetal head is determined to be presenting in a position of

complete extension, the nurse should anticipate a:
a. precipitous labor and delivery
b. prolonged labor and possible CS delivery
c. normal labor and spontaneous vaginal delivery
d. forceps assisted vaginal delivery

61. A multiparous client who has been in labor for almost 3 hrs.
suddenly announces that the baby is coming. The nurse sees
the infant crowning. Which of the following actions should the
nurse do first?
a. Ask the woman to pant while preparing to place gentle
counter pressure on the infants head as it is delivered.
b. quickly obtain sterile gloves and towel.
c. retrieve the precipitous delivery tray from the nursing
station
d. telephone the physician using the bedside phone

52. The pregnant client is 7 cm, 100% effaced, and at +1 station.

The fetus is in a face presentation. You know your teaching
has been effective when the clients husband states:
a. our baby will come out face first
b. our baby will come out facing one hip.
c. our baby will come out buttocks first

62. The nurse determines that a client does not understand what
to expect during cesarean delivery, when the client states:

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

a.
b.
c.
d.

an indwelling Foley catheter will be inserted before

surgery
my husband can be present during birth
I maybe given an antacid before surgery
I will receive a blood transfusion during surgery.

63. The nurse concludes that deceleration of the fetal heart rate
from 130 to 70 beats per minute with contractions followed by
a rapid return to a normal baseline rate is most likely a clients
response to:
a. umbilical cord compression
b. fetal head compression
c. severe fetal hypoxia
d. uteroplacental insufficiency
64. The nurse determines that fetal distress is occurring after
noting which of the following signs?
a. moderate amount of bloody show
b. pink-tinged amniotic fluid
c. meconium stained amniotic fluid
d. acceleration of FHR with each contraction
65. On performing Leopolds maneuver in multiparous client in
early labor, the nurse finds no fetal parts in the fundus or
above the symphysis. The fetal head is palpated in the right
mid quadrant. The nurse notifies the admitting physician and
anticipates:
a. an external version
c. a cesarean delivery
b. an internal version d. prolonged labor
66. The nurse discovers a loop of the umbilical cord protruding
through the vagina when preparing to perform a vaginal
examination. The most appropriate intervention is to:
a. call the physician immediately
b. place a moist clean towel over the cord to prevent drying
c. immediately turn the client on her side and listen to FHR
d. perform the vaginal examination and apply upward digital
pressure to the presenting part while having the mother
assume a knee-chest-position
67. The client has refused sedation ordered by the physician for
hypertonic contractions and prolonged latent phase labor for
fear that her labor will stop. The nurse may help by
explaining:
a. Sedation helps to provide needed rest and allows time
for uterine contractions to become coordinated so the
labor is progressive
b. If the woman is experiencing true labor, contractions will
not stop even with sedation
c. If contractions continue without cervical effacement and
dilation, the fetus is at risk for hypoxia
d. sedation will stop contractions that are uncoordinated
and provide more time to determine if CS is needed
68. The client is receiving IV magnesium sulfate at 2 g/h to stop
premature labor. The most important nursing assessment to
this client include:
a. I & O, LOC, & BP
b. blood pressure, pulse, and uterine activity
c. deep tendon reflexes, hourly I & O, and RR
d. I & O, reflexes, and BP
69. During the vaginal examination, the nurse palpates the fetal
head and large diamond-shaped fontanel. The fetal
presentation is:
a. face
c. vertex
b. transverse
d. brow
70. A nurse is assessing a client 24 hrs. after delivery and finds
the fundus to be slightly boggy and 2 cm above the umbilicus.
What should the priority nursing intervention be?
a. document the expected finding
b. assess the mothers vital signs
c. gently massage the fundus until firm
d. notify the physician
71. A new mother complains of afterpains. The nurse first action
should be to
a. administer an analgesic as ordered
b. advise her to stop breast feeding until the pain stops
c. encourage her to empty her bladder
d. assess her vital signs

72. The nurse is preparing to instruct a new mother on resuming

sexual intercourse postpartum. The nurse should include
which of the following in the teaching plan?
a. use petroleum jelly for lubrication
b. an IUD is an appropriate method of birth control in an
early postpartum period
c. wait until the episiotomy has healed and the lochia has
stopped before resuming intercourse
d. refrain from intercourse until the first menstrual period
after delivery is completed
73. A client is caring for a client who has decided not to
brestfeed. Client teaching to promote lactation suppression
should include which of the following?
a. applying warm compresses
b. pumping the breast
c. applying ice bags
d. using medication to suppress lactation
74. A client has a temperature of 100.2F four hours after
delivery. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
a. encourage increased fluid intake
b. do nothing for this is an expected finding during this time
c. check the physicians order for antibiotics to treat the
clients infection
d. medicate the client for pain
75. Which laboratory finding should the nurse assess further on
a client 24 hrs. after delivery?
a. hemoglobin 7.2g/dL
b. WBC count 20,000/mm
c. trace to 1+ proteinuria
d. hematocrit 35%
76. A client is to be discharge 12 hours after delivery. The nurse
should delay the discharge and notify the physician if which of
the following is observed?
a. moderate lochia rubra
b. fundus firm at umbilicus
c. pulse 62 beats per minute
d. 3 voiding totaling 240 cc in 12 hours
77. This is the first postoperative day for a client who delivered
cesarean. The client asks the nurse why she has to get up
and walk when it hurts her incision so much. The nurse
responds that:
a. walking decreases the risk of blood clots after surgery
b. walking encourages deep breaths to blow off the
anesthetic from surgery
c. early ambulation is important to stimulate milk production
d. walking will decrease the occurrence of after pains
78. Which of the following interventions should be omitted when
caring for a client with a midline episiotomy with a 3rd degree
laceration?
a. increase fiber in the diet
b. administer Dulcolax suppository
c. increase fluid intake
d. administer an oral stool softener
79. You are caring for a client whose baby was sent to the
neonatal intensive care unit because of respiratory distress.
The client plans to breastfeed her baby. You understand
teaching has been effective when the client states: I know I
need to continue pumping my breast to:
a. prevent engorgement
b. stimulate my milk supply
c. remove the infected milk
d. keep my uterus contracted
80. A client delivered by cesarean 2 days ago. While assessing
the clients incision, The nurse notes that the skin edges
around the incision are red, edematous and tender to the
touch. A scant amount of purulent drainage is noted. What is
the most appropriate initial action by the nurse?
a. cleanse the wound with betadine
b. notify the physician
c. document this expected response
d. observe the incision closely for the next 24 to 48 hrs.
81. On the 3rd post partum day, a client reports that she has
voided 5 times that morning. The nurse should initially:
a. Collect the next voiding and measure the amount of
urine.

Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

b.
c.
d.

call the physician

catheterize the client for residual urine
insert a foley catheter

82. A clients vital signs following delivery are:

Day 1 BP 116/72, T 98.6F, P 68
Day 2 BP 114/80, T 100.6F, P 76
Day 3 BP114/80, T 101.6F, P 80. The nurse should
suspect that the client:
a. is dehydrated
b. may have an infection
c. has normal vital signs
d. is going into shock
83. The client is 36 y.o. woman, grvida 6, para 6, who delivered a
baby girl at 36 weeks gestation after 48 hrs. of labor. The
baby weighs 7 lbs. 14 ounces. The clients vital signs are
stable, and her lochia is bright red, heavy, and contains blood
clots. The largest clot is about the size of a grape fruit. The
client considered to be high risk for uterine atony because of
which of the following?
a. grand multiparity
c. length of labor
b. size of the baby
d. clients age
84. Upon assessment of a postpartal client, the home visit nurse
observes symptoms of infection. Which of the following
symptoms indicates infection?
a. pinkish lochia
b. bradycardia
c. abdominal tenderness
d. oral temperature of 99.2F
85. A mother with mastitis is concerned about breast feeding
while she has an active infection. The nurse should explain
that:
a. The child is protected from infection by immunoglobulin
in the breast milk
b. the infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause
mastitis
c. the organisms that cause mastitis are not passed in the
milk
d. the organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid
86. Which of the following signs of thrombophlebitis must the
nurse educate the postpartal client to assess at home after
discharge from the hospital?
a. muscle soreness in her legs after exercise
b. varicose veins in the legs
c. local tenderness, heat, and swelling
d. bruising
87. Which of the following instructions should be included in the
discharge teaching plan to assist the post partal client in
recognizing early signs of complications?
a. the passage of clots as large as an orange is expected
b. report any decrease in the amount of brownish-red lochia
c. palpate the fundus daily to make sure it is soft
d. notify your health care provider for any increase in the
amount of lochia or a return to a bright red bleeding
88. Which of the following items of clothing worn by a post partal
client could possibly promote a problem for the woman?
a. pantyhose
c. knee-highs
b. short athletic socks
d. colored tights
89. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate to
help a lactating client prevent mastitis?
a. apply vitamin E cream to soften the nipples
b. wear tight, supportive bra
c. when the clients nipple is sore, offer the infant a bottle
d. encourage the client to breast feed her infant frequently.

the vagina. Her fundus is firm and located in the midline.

What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
a. lacerations
c. uterine atony
b. hematoma d. retained fragments of conception
92. One of the most causes of hypotonic uterine dystocia is:
a. toxemia
c. pelvic contracture
b. maternal anemia
d. twin gestation
93. To determine if the is CPD (cephalopelvic disproportion) the
physician should order?
a. pelvimetry
c. amniocentesis
b. X-ray exam
d. fetal scalp Ph
94. A 6 months pregnant client is admitted with complaints of
painful urination, flank tenderness and hematuria and
diagnosis of pyelonephritis is made.. An important nursing
intervention during attack is
a. limiting fluid intake
b. observing for signs of premature labor
c. examining the urine for albumin
d. maintaining her on a low salt diet
95. A client with pyelonephritis is to receive antibiotic therapy. The
nurse should recognize that the safest antibiotic for
administration during pregnancy would be:
a. nitrofurantoin
c. tetracycline
b. gantrisin
d. ampicillin
Situation : A client is a Class l cardiac client with a history of
rheumatic fever. She is admitted to the labor room in active
labor. Questions 96 through 98 refer to this situation
96. Proper positioning for this client is:
a. semi Fowlers; supine
b. lying on the right side, head elevated 30 degrees
c. left lateral, semi Fowlers
d. supine. High Fowlers
97. A specific nursing intervention during labor for a client with
cardiac problem is:
a. auscultating for rales q 30 minutes
b. turning from side to side q 15 minutes
c. monitoring BP every hour
d. encouraging frequent voiding
98. In view of the clients past medical history, the nurse
anticipates that after delivery, the client will be prophylactically
placed on:
a. digitalis
c. ampicillin
b. lasix
d. heparin
99. A 2 months pregnant client asks the clinic nurse how
smoking will affect the baby. The nurses answer reflect the
following knowledge:
a. fetal and maternal circulation are separated by the
placental barrier
b. the placenta is permeable to specific substances
c. smoking relieves tension and the fetus responds
accordingly
d. vasoconstriction will affect both maternal and fetal blood
vessels.
100.
The nurse encourages continued medical supervision
for the pregnant woman with pyelitis because:
a. antibiotic therapy is given until the urine is sterile
b. toxemia frequently occurs following pyelitis
c. PID occurs with untreated pyelitis
d. a low protein diet is given until pregnancy is terminated.

90. What factor in a clients history places the client at greatest

risk for post partal endometritis?
a. cesarean delivery after 24 hrs. of labor and failure to
progress
b. external monitoring during labor
c. ruptured membranes for 4 hrs. prior to delivery.
d. spontaneous vaginal delivery after 8 hrs. labor
91. After the delivery of a large-for-gestational age infant, a client
is noted to have bright red blood continuously trickling from
Ultimate Review Specialist (URS BAGUIO)

10