GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

1. According to ________________, all objects

radiate energy, no matter what their
temperature happens to be.
a. Stefan Boltzmann Law
b. Pascals Law
c. Huygens Principle
d. Boltzmann Law
2. Who is called the father of modern
science precisely because he initiated the
comparison
between
theory
and
experiment?
a. Plato
b. Aristotle
c. Galileo
d. Socrates
3. How many million tons of hydrogen are
converted into helium every second at the
sun?
a. 400 million tons
b. 500 million tons
c. 600 million tons
d. 700 million tons
4. What is the unit of radiation which takes
into account its biological effects?
a. millirem
b. millisem
c. siemens
d. hertz
5. What is the expression of the
magnitude and direction of the lattice
distortion associated with dislocation?
a. Vector graph
b. Line vector
c. Vector Diagram
d. Burgers Vector
6. It states that two images are just
resoluable when the center of diffraction
disk of one is directly over the first
minimum in the diffraction pattern of the
other.
a. Relay criteria
b. Rayleigh criterion
c. Radio Criterion
d. None of the above

7. What theorem relates the line integral

of a vector field around a simple closed
curve C is in IR3 to an integral over
surface S for w/c C is the bondary?
a. Stokes Theorem
b. Gradient Theorem
c. Vector Theorem
d. None of the above
8. A tornado warning siren on top of a tall
pole radiates sound waves uniformly in all
directions. At a distance of 15.0 m the
intensity of the sound is 0.250 W/m2. At
what distance from the siren is the
intensity 0.010 W/m2?
a. 74.0 m
b. 75.0 m
c. 76.0 m
d. 77.0 m
9. In a sinusoidal sound wave of moderate
loudness
the
maximum
pressure
variations are of the order of 3.0 x 10-2 Pa
above and below atmospheric pressure pa
(nominally 1.013 x 105 Pa at sea level).
Find
the
corresponding
maximum
displacement if the frequency is 1000 Hz.
In air at normal atmospheric pressure and
density, the speed of sound is 344 m/s
and the bulk modulus is 1.42 x 105 Pa.
a. 1.2 x 10-8 m
b. 1.2 x 10-6 m
c. 1.3 x 10-7 m
d. 1.3 x 10-6 m
10. What is the speed of longitudinal
waves in a lead rod?
a. 1.1 x 103 m/s
b. 1.2 x 103 m/s
c. 1.3 x 103 m/s
d. 1.4 x 103 m/s
11. Compute the speed of sound waves in
air at room temperature (T=20C) and find
the range of wavelengths in air to which
the
human ear (which can hear
frequencies in the range of 20-20,000 Hz)
is sensitive. The mean molar mass for air
(a mixture of principally nitrogen and
oxygen) is 28.8 x 10-3 kg/mol and the
ratio of heat capacities is = 1.40.
a. 341 m/s
b. 330 m/s
c. 335 m/s
d. 344 m/s

GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

12. Consider an idealized model with a

bird (treated as a point source) emitting
constant sound power, with intensity
inversely proportional to the square of the
distance from the bird. By how many
decibels does the sound intensity level
drop when you move twice as far away
from the bird?
a. 4.0 dB
b. -4.0 dB
c. 6.0 dB
d. -6.0 dB
13. On a day when the speed of sound is
345 m/s, the fundamental frequency of a
stopped organ pipe is 220 Hz. a.) How long
is this stopped pipe? b.) The second
overtone of this pipe has the same
wavelength as the third harmonic of an
open pipe. How long is the open pipe?
a. 0.470 m, 0.392 m
b. 0.740 m, 0.932 m
c. 0.392 m, 0.470 m
d. 0.932 m, 0.740 m
15. A stopped organ pipe is sounded near
a guitar, causing one of the strings to
vibrate with large amplitude. We vary the
tension of the string until we find the
maximum amplitude. The string is 80% as
long as the stopped pipe. If both the pipe
and the string vibrate at their fundamental
frequency, calculate the ratio of the wave
speed on the string to the speed of sound
in air.
a. 0.38
b. 0.39
c. 0.40
d. 0.41
16. If the siren is moving away from the
listener with a speed of 45 m/s relative to
the air and the listener is moving toward
the siren with a speed of 15 m/s relative to
the air, what frequency does the listener
hear?
a. 277 Hz
b. 272 Hz
c. 727 Hz
d. 722 Hz

17. The Concorde is flying at March 1.75 at

an altitude of 8000m, where the speed of
sound is 320 m/s. How long after the plane
passes directly overhead will you hear the
sonic boom?
a. 19.5 s
b. 20.5 s
c. 21.5 s
d. 22.5 s
18. A glass flask with volume 200 cm 3 is
filled to the brim with mercury at 20C.
How much mercury overflows when the
temperature of the system is raised to
100C? The coefficient of linear expansion
of the glass is 0.40 x 10-5 K-1.
a. 2.4 cm3
b. 2.5 cm3
c. 2.6 cm3
d. 2.7 cm3
19. An aluminium cylinder 10 cm long,
with a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2, is to
be used as a spacer between two steel
walls. At 17.2C it just slips in between the
walls. When it warms to 22.3C, calculate
the stress in the cylinder and the total
force it exerts on each wall, assuming that
the walls are perfectly rigid and a constant
distance apart.
a. +8.6 x 106 Pa, +1.7 x 104 N
b. +8.6 x 106 Pa, -1.7 x 104 N
c. -8.6 x 106 Pa, +1.7 x 104 N
d. -8.6 x 106 Pa, -1.7 x 104 N
20. You are designing an electronic circuit
element made of 23 mg of silicon. The
electric current through it adds energy at
the rate of 7.4 mW = 7.4 x 10-3 J/s. If your
design doesnt allow any heat transfer out
of the element, at what rate does its
temperature increase? The specific heat of
silicon is 705 J/kgK.
a. 0.44 K/s
b. 0.45 K/s
c. 0.46 K/s
d. 0.47 K/s
21. A geologist working in the field drinks
her morning coffee out of an aluminium
cup. The cup has a mass of 0.120 kg and
is initially at 20.0 C when she pours in
3.00 kg of coffee initially at 70.0 C. What
is the final temperature after the coffee
and the cup attain thermal equilibrium?
(Assume that coffee has the same specific

GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

heat as water and that there is no heat
exchange with the surroundings.)
a. 63.0 C
b. 64.0 C
c. 65.0 C
d. 66.0 C

22. A physics student wants to cool 0.25

kg of Diet Omni-Cola (mostly water),
initially at 25C, by adding ice initially at
-20C. How much ice should she add so
that the final temperature will be 0C with
all the ice melted if the heat capacity of
the container may be neglected?
a. 69 g
b. 70 g
c. 71 g
d. 72 g
23. A Styrofoam box used to keep drinks
cold at a picnic has total wall area
(including the lid) of 0.80 m2 and wall
thickness 2.0 cm. It is filled with ice,
water, and cans of Omni-Cola at 0C. What
is the rate of heat flow into the box if the
temperature of the outside wall is 30C?
a. 1.01 x 106 J
b. 1.02 x 106 J
c. 1.03 x 106 J
d. 1.04 x 106 J
24. A thin square steel plate, 10 cm on a
side, is heated in a black-smiths forge to
a temperature of 800C. If the emissivity
is 0.60, what is the total rate of radiation
of energy?
a. 800 W
b. 900 W
c. 1000 W
d. 1100 W
25.
The
condition
called
standard
temperature and pressure (STP) for a gas
is defined to be a temperature of 0C =
273.15 K and a pressure of 1 atm = 1.013
x 105 Pa. If you want to keep a mole of an
ideal gas in your room at STP, how big a
container do you need?
a. 21.4 L
b. 22.4 L

c. 23.4 L
d. 24.4 L
26. Five gas molecules chosen at random
are found to have speeds of 500, 600,
700, 800, and 900 m/s. Find the rms
speed.
a. 711 m/s
b. 712 m/s
c. 713 m/s
d. 714 m/s

27. A rocket is in outer space, far from any

planet, when the rocket engine is turned
on. In the first second of firing, the rocket
ejects 1/120 of its mass with a relative
speed of 2400 m/s. What is the rockets
initial acceleration?
a. 17 m/s2
b. 18 m/s2
c. 19 m/s2
d. 20 m/s2
28. A discus thrower moves the discus in a
circle of radius 80.0 cm. At a certain
instant, the thrower is spinning at an
angular speed of 10.0 rad/s and the
angular speed is increasing at 50.0 rad/s2.
At this instant, find the tangential and
centripetal
components
of
the
acceleration of the discus and the
magnitude of the acceleration.
a. 89.1 m/s2
b. 89.2 m/s2
c. 89.3 m/s2
d. 89.4 m/s2
29. Cast Irons that contains 4.3% C is
known as ____.
a. Eutectic cast iron
b. Eutectiod cast iron
c. Eutectic cast iron
d. Eutectiod cast iron
30. At temperature above ________, iron is
liquid form
a. 1395 deg C
b. 910 deg C
c. 1540 deg C
d. 768 deg C

GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

31. In the Iron-Iron carbide diagram, the
alloys containing solid phase with more
that 2% carbon are known as ______.
a. steel
b. cast iron
c. alpha-ferrite
d. graphite
32. ______ is use to nullify the effect
harmful effect of sulphur in steel and is
added during deoxidation
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Manganese
d. Phosphorus

33. The intermetallic compound

carbide is called ________
a. Austenite
b. Cementite
c. ferrite
d. pearlite

iron

34. Steels which contain less than 0.8%C

are known as __________
a. Hypoeutectiod Steel
b. Hypereutectic Steel
c. Hypereutectiod Steel
d. Hypoeutectic Steel
35. Cast iron that contains more than
4.3%C is known as ________
a. Hypoeutectiod Cast Iron
b. Hypereutectic Cast
c. Hypereutectiod Cast Iron
d. Hypoeutectic Cast Iron
36. _____ raises the elastic limit and
ultimate strength of the steel without
reducing the ductility
a. Phosphorus
b. Manganese
c. Sulfur
d. Silicon
37. _____ the combination of operation
involving the heating of metal/alloy in
solid state an cooling it to obtain the
desired properties
a. Heat treatment
b. Annealing
c. Normalising

d. Hardening
38. The transformation product of
austenite at low temperature is known as
_______
a. Pearlite
b. Martensite
c. Bainite
d. Cementite
39. Any steel heated to a particular
temperature
above
the
critical
temperature results in the formation of
______
a. Cementite
b. Martensite
c. Austenite
d. Bainite
40. The principal source of information in
the actual process of autenite under nonequilibrium condition as a ______
a. TTT Diagram
b. TTL Diagram
c. TTC Diagram
d. CCT Diagram
41. ______ involves heating to a
predetermined temperature, holding at
that temperature and then cooling at a
very slow rate.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Heat treatment
Annealing
Normalising
Hardening

42. _____ is the process of rapid cooling of

steel from the austenitising temperature
a. Hardening
b. Annealing
c. Quenching
d. Normalising
43. The purpose of _____ is to refine the
grain structure and decrease the residual
stress to improve the machinability.
a. Hardening
b. Annealing
c. Quenching
d. Normalising
44. To eliminate/reduce residual stresses,
steel is subjected to ________ annealing
a. Recrystallization

GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

b. Spherodising
c. Stress relief
d. Full
45. The purpose of ____ annealing is to
improve ductility, remove internal stress,
enhance
magnetic
and
electrical
properties and refine grain structure
a. Recrystallization
b. Spherodising
c. Stress relief
d. Full
46. The first stage in the heat removal
during quenching is ____
a. Vapour blanket stage
b. Vapour transport stage
c. Liquid cooling stage
d. Vapour cooling stage
47. Hardening is always followed by _____
in order relieve the residual stresses an
improve the ductility and toughness of the
hardened steel
a. Heat treatment
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
d. Hardening
48. ___ is the process by which the carbon
content of the steel is increased
a. Carbonitriding
b. Carburising
c. Cyaniding
d. Nitriding
49. The condition of equilibrium of a body
will remain unchanged if a force acting at
a given point of the rigid body is replaced
by a force of the same magnitude and
same direction, but acting at a different
point but having the same line of action is
known as __________.
a. Torque
b. Transmissibility
c. Moment
d. Moment Arm
50. The law that states, If the resultant
force acting on a particle is zero, the
particle will remain at rest (if originally at
rest) or will move with constant speed in a
straight line (if originally in motion), is
____________.
a. Newtons First Law
b. Newtons Second Law

c. Newtons Third Law

d. Newtons Law of Gravitation
51. A force of 500 N forms angles of 600,
450, and 1200, respectively with the x, y
and z axes. Obtained the scalar
component of F.
a. F = (205 N) i + (345 N) j + (250 N)
k
b. F = (250 N) i + (354 N) j (250
N) k
c. F = (250 N) i + (354 N) j + (250 N)
k
d. F = (205 N) i + (345 N) j (250 N)
k
52. Which of the following support or
connection has two unknowns?
a. Roller Support
b. Rocker Support
c. Short Link
d. Hinge Support

53. The unit of spring constant k is

a. N/m
b. N m
c. N m2
d. kg m
54. The stability of equilibrium defined by
dV/dA =0 and d2V/dA2 > 0 is called
a. Stable Equilibrium
b. Marginally Unstable Equilibrium
c. Unstable Equilibrium
d. Neutral Equilibrium
55. What type of unit is a slug?
a. Unit of Length
b. Unit of Force
c. Unit of Mass
d. Unit of Time
56. The phenomenon whereby a force is
brought to bear on a moving electron or
hole by a magnetic field that is applied
perpendicular to the direction of motion.
The force direction is perpendicular to
both the magnetic field and the particle
motion directions.
a. Skin Effect
b. Tesla Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Weber Effect

GEAS QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

57. The total electrical resistivity of a

metal is equal to the sum of temperature-,
impurity-,
and
cold
work-dependent
contributions.
a. Ficks Law
b. Matthiessens rule
c. Braggs law
d. Burgers Rule
58. The capacity of a material to absorb
energy when it is elastically deformed.
a. Frenkel
b. Ductile
c. Plastic
d. Resilience
59. A
elastic
a.
b.
c.
d.

single quantum of vibrational or

energy.
phonon
photon
quarks
leptons

60.
The
time-dependent
permanent
deformation that occurs under stress; for
most materials it is important only at
elevated temperatures.
a. Creep
b. Frenkel defect
c. Plastic deformation
d. Point defect
61. In mechanical vibration, what do you
call the maximum displacement of the
body from its equilibrium position.
a. Wave
b. Oscillation
c. Amplitude
d. Distance
62. In Engineering Economy, what do you
call the method of repaying a debt, the
principal and interest included, usually by

a series of equal payments at periodic

intervals of time.
a. Amortization
b. Depreciation
c. Annuity
d. Deflation
63. Which among the crystal system has
the least symmetry due to its unequal unit
cell dimensions and angles?
a. Biclinic
b. Quadclinic
c. Monoclinic
d. Triclinic
64. In Physics, what should be the speed
at which an object must travel so that its
mass will increase by 10%
a. 0.203c
b. 1.119c
c. 0.416c
d. 0.025c
65. It is a time-dependent elastic behavior
of materials.
a. Anelastic
b. Inelastic
c. Plastic
d. Non-elastic

66. It is a device used to measure amount

of elongation.
a. Tachometer
b. Extensometer
c. Elongonometer
d. Longatometer