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Hayat medical

school
First Progressive EMBRYOLOGY Assessment for Year I Medical Students
Date: February 27, 2010
Time allowed: 2 hours
Name: ____________________________________________________Total No of Pages: FFF
For each of the following Multiple Choice Questions choose the one best
appropriate answer and mark X in the appropriate box located against the
corresponding question number and letter in the separate answer sheet provided.
( 40 points, 1 point for each correct answer)

1.With regard to gametogenesis, which statement is false?


a) All primary oocytes are formed prenatally.
b) Primary oocytes remain dormant in prophase of meiosis I unitl puberty.
c) If fertilization does not occur, the secondary oocyte becomes primary oocyte.
d) The primary spermatocytes are the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.
e) The difference in the sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of primary sex
determination.

2. Which statement is true about female reproductive cycles?


a) LH stimulates the development of ovarian follicles and the production of estrogen by its
follicular cells.
b) ovulation is triggered by a surge of FSH production.
c) if an oocyte is fertilized, the corpus luteum involutes and degenerates.
d) during the proliferative phase, the corpus luteum attains the maximum growth.
e) ischemic phase occurs when the oocyte is fertilized.
3. Which statement is false about fertilization?
a) it restores the normal diploid number of chromosomes.
b) it stimulates the penetrated oocyte to complete the first meiotic division.
c) it causes metabolic activation of the ootid and initiates cleavage of the zygote.
d) it results in variation of the human species.
e) it determines the chromosomal sex of
the embryo.
4. Where does the blastocyst normally implant?
a) functional layer of the cervix
b) myometrium
c) functional layer of the
endometrium
d) perimetrium
e) basal layer of the endometrium

5. Which of the following structures must degenerate for blastocyst implantation to occur?
a) endometrium in progestational phase
b) zona pellucida
c)
syncytiotrophoblast
d) cytotrophoblast
e) functional layer of the endometrium.
6. Select the incorrect statement.
a) gastrulation is first indicated by the formation of the primitive streak.
b) neurulation is the process by which neuroectoderm forms the neural plate.
c) preponderance of sacrococcygeal teratoma is found in male newborns.
d) epiblast and hypoblast are fused in the cloacal membrane.
e) all germ layers are derived
from epiblast.
7. Which of the following is/are not a derivative(s) of the neural crest?
a) Schwann cells
b) chromaffin cells
parafollicualr (C) cells.

c) neurohypophysis

d) melanocytes

e)

8. Which structure is/are not visible during the fourth week?


a) closed neuropores
b) three pairs of pharyngeal arches
c) scalp
vascular plexus
d) upper limb buds
e) lens placodes.
9. Select the correct event during the fetal period.
a) fetal spleen is an important site of hematopoiesis during week 20.
b) the quantity of white fat is about 8% of body weight during week 21.
c) during the 10th week, the skin of the fetus is coverd by vernix caseosa.
d) the eyelids open at week 18.
e) umbilical herniation is a normal event during
the 38th week.
21. Which of the following componenets plays the most active role in invading the endometrium
during blastocyst implantation?
a) epiblast
b) syncytiotrophoblast
c)
hydroblast
d) extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
e) extraembryonic visceral
mesoderm
22. The prochordal plate marks the site of the future
a) umbilical chord
b) heart
c) mouth
d) anus
e) nose
23. Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers?
a) neurulation
b) gastrulation
c) craniocaudal folding
angiogenesis

d) lateral folding

24. During the first week of development,


a) Neural tube is formed.
b) The embryo is a solid ball of blastomeres and is called gastrula.
c) Developmental disturbances may give rise to major congenital anomalies.
d) Somites, which will give rise to the vertebrae, ribs and axial musculature, are formed.
e) None of the above.

e)

25. During the embryonic period,


a) pigment is visible in the retina
b) ossification of the fetal skeleton is active.
c) sex of the embryo is distinguishable externally.
d) the amount of white fat is about 16% of body weight.
e) the body of the embryo is usually completely covered with lanugo hairs.

1. With regard to spermatogenesis, which statement is false?


a. spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
b. The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately 72 hours.
c. Primary spermatocytes are the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.
d. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
e. Spermatogonia begin to increase
in number at puberty.
2. Select the incorrect statement.
a. Oogonia enlarge to form primary oocytes before birth.
b. Spermatogenesis is regulated by LH production by the pituitary.
c. spermatogonia increase in number at puberty.
d. No primary oocytes form
after birth in females.
e. primary spermatocytes in males begin the first meiotic division before birth, but
completion of prophase does
not occur until adolescence.
3. Sertoli cells do not
a. may be involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
b. Line the seminiferous tubules
male germ cells.
d. remain dormant in the ovarian follicles until puberty.
fluid.

c. support and nurture the


e. Produce testicular

4. Concerning the female reproductive system,


a) the usual site of fertilization is the ampulla of the uterine tube.
b) the endometrium has a wall made up of a very thick smooth muscle layer.
c) the basal layer of endometrium is sloughed off during each menstruation.
d) the perimetrium is a trumpet-shaped opening towards the peritoneal cavity.
e) the vaginal glands are sloughed off and discarded with menstrual flow during
pregnancy.
5. Select the incorrect statement.
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the development of ovarian follicles.
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) serves as the "trigger" for ovulation.
c. When a follicle becomes atretic, the corpus luteum enlarges to form a corpus luteum
of pregnancy and increases its hormone production.
d. Degeneration of the corpus luteum is prevented by human chorionic gonadotropin.
e. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of
the blastocyst.
6. Liquor folliculi,

a) stimulates the myoepithelial cells of the mature follicle to rupture.


b) acts as a porous filter through which dissolved hormones and enzymes are
prevented.
c) causes the endometrial glands to secrete and prepare the endometrium for
implantation.
d) is secreted by the developing oocyte e) is composed of cumulus oophorus and polar
bodies.
7. Concerning oogenesis, which statement is true?
a) all oogonia become primary oocytes during ovulation.
b) primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth.
c) oogonia grow and give rise to secondary oocytes by mitotic division.
d) primary oocytes undergo cytodifferentiation to form three polar bodies prior to
ovulation.
e) the difference in sex chromosome complement of oocytes forms the basis of primary
sex determination.
8. Which statement is false?
a. The basal layer of the endometrium is sloughed off during menstruation.
b. The number of oocytes that ovulate is greatly reduced in women who take oral contraceptives.
c. If a sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the second meiotic division is completed.
d. At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division,
but progresses only to
metaphase.
e. The difference in the sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of
primary sex determination.
9. Development of an ovarian follicle is not characterized by:
a. Growth and differentiation of primary oocyte b. Proliferation of follicular cells
c. Formation of zona pellucida
d. Development of the theca folliculi
e. FSH inhibits the ovarian follicles to develop.
10. With respect to the zona pellucida, which statement is false?
a. is composed of sulfated glycoproteins.
b. prevents
polyspermy
c. prevents premature implantation
d. functions as a
porous filter
e. arises by delamination from the embryoblast.
11. Which statement is true?
a.The corpus luteum of pregnancy degenerates 10 to 12 days after ovulation.
b. If fertilization occurs, the blood levels of circulating estrogens and progesterone fall.
c.The corpus luteum of pregnancy is subsequently transformed into atretic follicles after ovulation.
d. Removal of the corpus luteum of pregnancy before the 4 th month usually leads to
abortion.
e. If an oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum remains functionally active throughout
the first

20 weeks of pregnancy.
12. Which statement is false?
a. Ovulation normally occurs 24 to 36 hours after the LH surge.
b. At ovulation, the oocyte is in metaphase of the second meiotic division.
c. Sweeping action of tubal fimbriae may carry the oocyte into the uterine tube.
d. Syncytiotrophoblast manufactures most of the bodys progesterone in females.
e. the large size of the corpus luteum is caused by hypertrophy and accumulation of
lipid in granulosa and theca interna cells.
13. Before a spermatozoan fertilizes an ovum.
a) its glycoprotein coat must be removed from its head.
be shed.
c) its acrosomal membrane must be impermeable.
lost.
e) it should be capacitated in the epididymidis.

b) the zona pellucida must


d) its tail piece should be

14. If fertilization occurs:


a) The corpus luteum degenerates.
b) Estrogen and progesterone
levels fall.
c) Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
d) Menstruation occurs.
e) The secretory endometrium enters an ischemic phase.
15. If fertilization does not occur:
a. Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
b. The luteal phase continues and menstruation does not occur.
c. Human chorionic gonadotropin keeps the corpus luteum secreting estrogens and
progesterone.
d. The blastocyst begins to implant in the endometrium on approximately the 6 th day of the luteal phase.
e. None of the above.
16. Fertilization does not
a) determines chromosomal sex of the embryo.
b) restores the normal diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote.
c) stimulates the penetrated oocyte to complete the first meiotic division.
d) causes metabolic activation of the oocyte and initiates cleavage of zygote.
e) results in variation of human species through mingling of maternal and paternal chromosomes .
17. Regarding cleavage, which statement is false?
a) results in the formation of increasingly small cells.
b) occurs as the zygote passes drown the uterine tube.
c) begins when the male and female pronuclei contact each other.
d) enhances the corpus luteum to enlarge to form corpus albicans.
e) is a series of rapid mitotic divisions while the zygote is still surrounded by the zona
pellucida.

18. During the first week of development, which statement is false?


a) the trophoblast at the embryonic pole differentiates into cytotrophobast and syncytiotrophoblast.
b) gastrulation takes place.
c) a blastocyst cavity is
formed.
d) the embryoblast, which gives rise to the embryo and some extraembryonic tissues, is
formed.
e) None of the above.
19. Regarding the phases of fertilization, which statement is false?
a) Passage of sperm through corona radiate.
b) Penetration of zona
pellucida.
c) Fusion of plasma membranes of the oocyte and sperm.
d) Completion of the first meiotic division of spermatozoa and formation of the male
pronucleus.
e) Fusion of the male and female pronuclei into a single diploid aggregation of
chromosomes,
the ootid becomes a zygote.
20. Regarding the sperm transport, which statement is false?
a) Prostaglandins in the semen stimulate uterine motility.
b) Vesiculase coagulates some of the semen and forms a vaginal plug.
c) Fructose in the semen, secreted by the seminal glands, is an energy source for the
sperms.
d) Spermatozoa are nonmotile during storage in the epididymis, but become motile in the ejaculate.
e) None of the above.
1. With regard to spermatogenesis, which statement is false?
a. Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
b. The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately 72 hours.
c. Primary spermatocytes are the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.
d. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
e. Spermatogonia begin to increase in number at
puberty.

2. Select the incorrect statement.


a. Oogonia enlarge to form primary oocytes before birth.
b. Spermatogenesis is regulated by LH production by the pituitary.
c. Spermatogonia increase in number at puberty.
d. No primary oocytes form after birth in females.
e. Primary spermatocytes in males begin the first meiotic division before birth, but
completion of
prophase does not occur until adolescence.
3. Sertoli cells do not
a. involve in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
b. line the seminiferous tubules
c. support and nurture the male germ cells.
d. remain dormant in the ovarian follicles until puberty.
e. produce testicular fluid.

4. Concerning the female reproductive system,


a) The usual site of fertilization is the ampulla of the uterine tube.
b) The endometrium has a wall made up of a very thick smooth muscle layer.
c) The basal layer of endometrium is sloughed off during each menstruation.
d) The perimetrium is a trumpet-shaped opening towards the peritoneal cavity.
e) The vaginal glands are sloughed off and discarded with menstrual flow during
pregnancy.
5. Select the incorrect statement.
a. Luteinizing hormone (LH) serves as the "trigger" for ovulation.
b. HCG is a hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of the blastocyst.
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the development of ovarian follicles.
d. Degeneration of the corpus luteum is prevented by human chorionic gonadotropin.
e. When a follicle becomes atretic, the corpus luteum enlarges to form a corpus luteum
of
pregnancy and increases its hormone production.
6. Liquor folliculi,
a) stimulates the myoepithelial cells of the mature follicle to rupture.
b) acts as a porous filter through which dissolved hormones and enzymes are
prevented.
c) causes the endometrial glands to secrete and prepare the endometrium for
implantation.
e) is composed of cumulus oophorus and polar bodies.
d) None of the above.
7. Concerning oogenesis, which statement is true?
a) All oogonia become primary oocytes during ovulation.
b) Primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth.
c) Oogonia grow and give rise to secondary oocytes by mitotic division.
d) Primary oocytes undergo cytodifferentiation to form three polar bodies prior to
ovulation.
e) The difference in sex chromosome complement of oocytes forms the basis of primary
sex
determination.
8. Which statement is false?
a. The basal layer of the endometrium is sloughed off during menstruation.
b. The number of oocytes that ovulate is greatly reduced in women who take oral contraceptives.
c. If a sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the second meiotic division is completed.
d. At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division,
but
progresses only to metaphase.
e. the difference in sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of primary sex determination.

9. Development of an ovarian follicle is not characterized by:


a. Growth and differentiation of primary oocyte
b. Proliferation of follicular cells

c. Formation of zona pellucida


folliculi
e. FSH inhibits the ovarian follicles to develop.

d. Development of the theca

10. With respect to the zona pellucida, which statement is false?


a. is composed of sulfated glycoproteins.
b. prevents
polyspermy
c. prevents premature implantation
d. functions as a
porous filter
e. arises by delamination from the embryoblast.
11. Which statement is true?
a.The corpus luteum of pregnancy degenerates 10 to 12 days after ovulation.
b. If fertilization occurs, the blood levels of circulating estrogen and progesterone fall.
c.The corpus luteum of pregnancy is subsequently transformed into atretic follicles after ovulation.
d. Removal of the corpus luteum of pregnancy before the 4 th month usually leads to
abortion.
e. If an oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum remains functionally active throughout
the first
20 weeks of pregnancy.
12. Which statement is false?
a. Ovulation normally occurs 24 to 36 hours after the LH surge.
b. At ovulation, the oocyte is in metaphase of the second meiotic division.
c. Sweeping action of tubal fimbriae may carry the oocyte into the uterine tube.
d. Syncytiotrophoblast manufactures most of the bodys progesterone in females.
e. the large size of the corpus luteum is caused by hypertrophy and accumulation of
lipid in
granulosa and theca interna cells.
13. Before a spermatozoan fertilizes an ovum,
a) its glycoprotein coat must be removed from its head.
be shed.
c) its acrosomal membrane must be impermeable.
lost.
e) it should be capacitated in the epididymidis.

b) the zona pellucida must


d) its tail piece should be

14. If fertilization occurs:


a) The corpus luteum degenerates.
b) Estrogen and progesterone
levels fall.
c) Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
d) Menstruation occurs.
e) The secretory endometrium enters an ischemic phase.
15. If fertilization does not occur:
a. Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
b. The luteal phase continues and menstruation does not occur.

c. HCG keeps the corpus luteum secreting estrogens and progesterone.


d. The blastocyst begins to implant in the endometrium on approximately the 6 th day of the luteal phase.
e. None of the above.
16. Fertilization does not
a) determine chromosomal sex of the embryo.
b) restore the normal diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote.
c) stimulate the penetrated oocyte to complete the first meiotic division.
d) cause metabolic activation of the oocyte and initiates cleavage of zygote.
e) result in variation of human species through mingling of maternal and paternal
chromosomes.
17. Regarding cleavage, which statement is false?
a) results in the formation of increasingly small cells.
b) occurs as the zygote passes down the uterine tube.
c) begins when the male and female pronuclei contact each other.
d) enhances the corpus luteum to enlarge to form corpus albicans.
e) is a series of rapid mitotic divisions while the zygote is still surrounded by the zona
pellucida.
18. During the first week of development, which statement is false?
a) the trophoblast at the embryonic pole differentiates into cytotrophobast and syncytiotrophoblast.
b) gastrulation takes place.
c) a blastocyst cavity is
formed.
d) the embryoblast, which gives rise to the embryo and some extraembryonic tissues, is
formed.
e) None of the above.
19. Regarding the phases of fertilization, which statement is false?
a) Passage of sperm through corona radiata.
b) Penetration of zona
pellucida.
c) Fusion of plasma membranes of the oocyte and sperm.
d) Completion of the first meiotic division of spermatozoa and formation of the male
pronucleus.
e) Fusion of the male and female pronuclei into a single diploid aggregation of
chromosomes,
the ootid becomes a zygote.
20. Regarding the sperm transport, which statement is false?
a) Prostaglandins in the semen stimulate uterine motility.
b) Vesiculase coagulates some of the semen and forms a vaginal plug.
c) Fructose in the semen, secreted by the seminal glands, is an energy source for the
sperms.
d) Spermatozoa are nonmotile during storage in the epididymis, but become motile in the ejaculate.
e) None of the above.

21. Which of the following is not present in the secondary chorionic villi?
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytotrophoblast
c) Connective
tissue
d) Blood vessels
e) None of the above
22. The networks of lacunae developed by the action of the syncytotrophoblastic
invasion of
the endometrium will develop into:
a) Extraembryonic coelomic cavity
b) Intraembryonic coelonic cavity
c) Primordium of intervilous spaces of the placenta d) a & c
e) None of the
above
23. The yolk sac contributes to the development of all of the following, except:
a) Central nervous system.
b) Germ cells.
c) Midgut.
d) Hindgut.
Foregut.
24. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the prechordal plate?
a) Is made by fusion of tall columnar cells of hypoblast layer with those of epiblast
layer.
b) Is not split by the intraembryonic mesoderm.
c) Separates the primitive oral cavity from the foregut.
d) Appears for the first time during the third week.
e) Is the organizer of the development of the head region.
25. Primary yolk sac is formed when the wall of the blastocyst cavity is lined from the
inside by:
a) Somatic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm
b) Splanchnic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm
c) Exoccoelomic membrane
d) Hypoblast
e)
Syncytotrophoblast
26. Chorion is formed inner to outer by:
a) Somatic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm, exoccoelomic membrane,
cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
b) Splanchnic layer of the extraembryonic, exoccoelomic membrane, cytotrophoblast
and syncytotrophoblast
c) Splanchnic layer of the extraembryonic, cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
d) Somatic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast and
syncytotrophoblast
e) Cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
27. Intraembryonic coelomic cavity is formed by the split of:
a) Paraxial mesoderm
b) Intermediate mesoderm
mesoderm
d) a & b
e) a & c
28. Extraembryonic coelomic cavity will give rise to:

c) Lateral

e)

a) Pericardial cavity
cavity
d) All of the above

b) Pleural cavity

c) Peritoneal

e) None of the above

29. Which of the following is not a developmental event of the 2nd week?
a) Formation of amniotic cavity
b) Formation of the
notohord
c) Formation of chorion
d) Completion of
implantation
e) Formation of bilaminar germ disc
30. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the early development of the nervous system?
a) Neural plate is formed from the notochord

b) Caudal neuropore is closed before cranial neuropore

c) Neural crest is formed by cells detaching from neural tube


d) Neural tube gives rise to both central and peripheral nervous system
e) None of the above
31. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the somites:
a) Are derivatives of paraxial mesoderm
b) Differentiate into sclerotomes located ventromedially and dermomyotomes located dorsolaterally

c) Develop from somitomers


above

d) All of the above

e) None of the

32. Which germ layer is responsible in giving rise to the epithelial tissue?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) a & c
of the above
33. Which organ system is the first to be functional?
a) Digestive system
b) Respiratory system
Urogenital system
d) Cardiovascular system
e) Nervous system

e) All

c)

34. Which one of the following structures changes its position because of the head
fold?
a) Oropharyngeal membrane
b) Septum transversum
c) Primitive heart
d) a & b
e) All of the above
35. At the end of the embryonic period, all of the following are correct, except:
a) Head has reached to its normal relative size in relation to the other regions of the
body
b) Tail disappears
c) Neck is established
d) The auricles attain final shape, but are low-set
e) Eyelids close the
eyes
36. Which of the following conditions cause intrauterine growth retardation?
a) Multiple gestation
b) Smoking by the mother
c) Cardiovascular malformations
d) All of the above
e) None of
the above

37. Which of the following condition is not seen in prolonged pregnancy?


a) No lanugo hairs
b) Increased vernix caseosa
c) Long nails
d) Over weight
e) Increased alertness
38. The normal period of intrauterine development is:
a) 266 days from the date of fertilization
b) 280 days from the date of
fertilization
c) 266 days from the appearance of last normal menstrual period
d) 288 days from the appearance of last normal menstrual period
e) None of
the above
1. With regard to spermatogenesis, which statement is false?
a. spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
b. The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately 72 hours.
c. Primary spermatocytes are the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.
d. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
e. Spermatogonia begin to increase in
number at puberty.
2. Sertoli cells do not
a. involve in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
b. line the seminiferous tubules
germ cells.
d. coagulate semen and form a vaginal plug

c. support and nurture the male


e. Produce testicular fluid.

3. Concerning the female reproductive system,


a) the usual site of fertilization is the ampulla of the uterine tube.
b) the endometrium has a wall made up of a very thick smooth muscle layer.
c) the perimetrium is a trumpet-shaped opening towards the peritoneal cavity.
d) the vaginal glands are sloughed off and discarded with menstrual flow during
pregnancy.
e) the basal layer of endometrium is sloughed off during each menstruation
(endometrial cycle).
4. Select the incorrect statement.
a. No primary oocytes form after birth in females.
b. FSH stimulates the development of ovarian follicles.
c. All oogonia become primary oocytes during ovulation.
d. Oogonia enlarge to form primary oocytes before birth.
e. Degeneration of the corpus luteum is prevented by human chorionic gonadotropin.
5. Liquor folliculi,
a) stimulates the myoepithelial cells of the mature follicle to rupture.

b) acts as a porous filter through which dissolved hormones and enzymes are
prevented.
c) causes the endometrial glands to secrete and prepare the endometrium for
implantation.
d) is composed of cumulus oophorus and polar bodies.
e) None of
the above.
6. Which statement is true?
a.The corpus luteum of pregnancy degenerates 10 to 12 days after ovulation.
b. If fertilization occurs, the blood levels of circulating estrogens and progesterone fall.
c. primary oocytes undergo cytodifferentiation to form three polar bodies prior to
ovulation.
d. Removal of the corpus luteum of pregnancy before the 4 th month usually leads to
abortion.
e. If an oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus atreticum remains functionally active
throughout the
first 20 weeks of pregnancy.
7. Development of an ovarian follicle is not characterized by:
a. Growth and differentiation of primary oocyte
b. Proliferation of follicular
cells
c. Formation of zona pellucida
d. Development of the
theca folliculi
e. FSH inhibits the ovarian follicles to develop.
8. Which statement is false?
a. primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth.
b. oogonia grow and give rise to secondary oocytes by mitotic division.
c. The number of oocytes that ovulate is greatly reduced in women who take oral
contraceptives.
d. The difference in the sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of primary sex
determination.

e. At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division,
but progresses
only to metaphase.
9. With respect to the zona pellucida, which statement is false?
a. is composed of sulfated glycoproteins.
polyspermy
c. prevents premature implantation
porous filter
e. arises by delamination from the embryoblast.
10. Before a spermatozoan fertilizes an ovum.
a) its glycoprotein coat must be removed from its head.
pellucida must be shed.
c) its acrosomal membrane must be impermeable.
should be lost.

b. prevents
d. functions as a

b) the zona
d) its tail piece

e) it should be capacitated in the epididymidis.


11. If fertilization occurs:
a) The corpus luteum degenerates.
progesterone levels fall.
c) Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
occurs.
e) The secretory endometrium enters an ischemic phase.

b) Estrogen and
d) Menstruation

12. Fertilization does not


a) determine the chromosomal sex of the embryo.
b) restore the normal diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote.
c) stimulate the penetrated oocyte to complete the first meiotic division.
d) cause metabolic activation of the oocyte and initiates cleavage of zygote.
e) result in variation of human species through mingling of maternal and paternal
chromosomes.
13. Regarding cleavage, which statement is false?
a) results in the formation of increasingly small cells.
b) occurs as the zygote passes down the uterine tube.
c) begins when the male and female pronuclei contact each other.
d) enhances the corpus luteum to enlarge to form corpus albicans.
e) is a series of rapid mitotic divisions while the zygote is still surrounded by the zona
pellucida.
14. The human placenta is of _____________ type.
a) Zonary
b) Diffuse
c) epitheliochorial
d) endotheliochorial
e) hemochorial
15. During the first week of development, which statement is false?
a) gastrulation takes place.
b) a blastocyst cavity is
formed.
c) the embryoblast, which gives rise to the embryo and some extraembryonic tissues, is
formed.
d) the trophoblast at the embryonic pole differentiates into cytotrophobast and
syncytiotrophoblast.
e) None of the above.
16. Concerning the placenta, which statement is false? The placenta:
a) It typically weighs approximately 500 grams (1 lb) at term.
b) fetal part develops from the chorionic sac (villous chorion).
c) the precursor cells of the human placenta are the trophoblasts.
d) cotyledons are partially separated by the chorionic plate and amnion.
e) is made up of the chorion frondosum together with the decidua basalis.
17. At full term, which statement is false about the human placenta?

a) is discoid

b) has a diameter of 15~25 cm


c) is
approximately 3 cm thick.
d) weighs about 500~600 g.
e) Primordial germ cells appear in
the decidua basalis.
18. Which of the following is NOT the function of the placenta?
a) production of hormones.
b) exchange of gases.
c) exchange of nutrients
and electrolytes.
d) Permits normal fetal lung development.
e) transmission of
maternal antibodies.
19. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The amniotic sac enlarges faster than the chorionic sac.
b) The amnion and smooth chorion fuse to form the amniochorionic membrane.
c) The placenta during early pregnancy synthesizes glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty
acids.
d) High levels of alpha fetoprotein usually indicate the presence of a severe neural tube
defect.
e) As pregnancy advances, the placental membrane becomes progressively thicker
and, therefore, acts
as a perfect barrier to infections.
20. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The chorionic plate and umbilical cord are covered by amnion.
b) The umbilical veins carry poorly oxygenated fetal blood to the placenta.
c) The umbilical vesicle (yolk sac) transfer nutrients to the embryo during the 2 nd and 3rd
weeks.
d) During the 4th week, the endoderm of the umbilical vesicle (yolk sac) is incorporated
into the embryo
as the primordial gut.
e) The umbilical cord usually has two arteries and one vein that are surrounded by
mucoid connective
tissue (Wharton jelly).
21. Which of the following statements is false?
a) dizygotic twins have two amnions, two chorions, but the chorions and placentas may
be fused.
b) Monozygotic twins usually have two amnions, one chorion, and one placenta.
c) The frequency of DZ twinning shows marked racial differences and a hereditary
tendency.
d) the rate of DZ twinning increases with maternal age.
e) None of the above.
22. The amniotic fluid does NOT
a) allow free fetal movements.
b) prevent adherence of the embryo
to the amnion.
c) assist in the regulation of fetal body temperature.
d) participate in blood development in
the third week.

e) absorb jolts to provide a protective buffer for the embryo or fetus.

23. The main cause of oligohydramnios is are:


a) central nervous system disorders (e.g., anencephaly)
b) renal agenesis and/or obstructive uropathy
d) gastrointestinal defects (e.g., esophageal atresias)

c) maternal diabetes
e) All of them.

24. Which of the following statements is false?


a) The umbilical cord is usually 1 2 cm in diameter and 30 90 cm in length (average, 55
cm).
b) The umbilical cord usually has two arteries and one vein that are surrounded by
mucoid
connective tissue (Wharton jelly).
c) The umbilical cord is surrounded by amnion.
d) Primordial germ cells also originate in the wall of the umbilical cord.
e) None of the above.
25. Amniotic fluid does NOT contain
a) aqueous solution.
alpha fetoprotein.
c) meconium [fetal feces] d) urine
capillaries.

b) desquamated fetal epithelial cells

and

e) cytotrophoblast and endothelium of fetal

26. Which of the following is not present in the secondary chorionic villi?
b) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytotrophoblast
Connective tissue
d) Blood vessels
e) None of the above

c)

27. The networks of lacunae developed by the action of the syncytotrophoblastic


invasion of the
endometrium will develop into:
b) Extraembryonic coelomic cavity
b) Intraembryonic coelonic cavity
c) Primordium of intervilous spaces of the placenta d) a & c
e) None of
the above
28. Chorion is formed inner to outer by:
f) Somatic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm, exoccoelomic membrane,
cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
Splanchnic layer of the extraembryonic, exoccoelomic membrane, cytotrophoblast
and syncytotrophoblast
g) Splanchnic layer of the extraembryonic, cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
h) Somatic layer of the extraembryonic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast and
syncytotrophoblast
i) Cytotrophoblast and syncytotrophoblast
29. Which of the following is not a developmental event of the 2nd week?
a) Formation of amniotic cavity
b) Formation of the notohord

c) Formation of chorion
e) Formation of bilaminar germ disc

d) Completion of implantation

30. Intraembryonic coelomic cavity is formed by the split of:


b) Paraxial mesoderm
b) Intermediate mesoderm
mesoderm
d) a & b
e) a & c

c) Lateral

31. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the early development of the nervous system?
b) Neural plate is formed from the notochord
c) Neural crest is formed by cells detaching from neural tube
d) Caudal neuropore is closed before cranial neuropore
e) Neural tube gives rise to both central and peripheral nervous system
f) None of the above
32. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the somites:
e) Are derivatives of paraxial mesoderm
f) Differentiate into sclerotomes located ventromedially and dermomyotomes located
dorsolaterally
g) Develop from somitomers
d) All of the above
e) None of
the above
33. Which germ layer is responsible in giving rise to the epithelial tissue?
b) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) a & c
e) All of the above
34. In which of the following regions of the embryo is the intraembryonic mesoderm
does not form?
a) Cloacal membrane
b) Midline region between precohordal plate
and cloacal membrane
c) Oropharyngeal membrane
d) a & c
e)
All of the above
35. Which organ system is the first to be functional?
b) Digestive system
b) Respiratory system
c) Urogenital system
d) Cardiovascular system
e) Nervous system
36. Which one of the following structures changes its position because of the head fold?
a) Oropharyngeal membrane
b) Septum transversum
c) Primitive
heart
d) a & b
e) All of the above
37. At the end of the embryonic period, all of the following are correct, except:
c) Head has reached to its normal relative size in relation to the other regions of the
body
d) Tail disappears
c) Neck is established

h) The auricles attain final shape, but are low-set


eyes

e) Eyelids close the

38. Which of the following condition is not seen in prolonged pregnancy?


b) No lanugo hairs
b) Increased vernix caseosa
c) Long nails
d) Over weight
e) Increased alertness
39. The normal period of intrauterine development is:
a) 266 days from the date of fertilization
b) 266 days from the appearance of last normal
menstrual period

c) 280 days from the date of fertilization

d) 288 days from the appearance of last normal

menstrual period

e) None of the above


40. The process of formation of notochord involves all of the following, except:
a) Formation of notochordal plate
b) Communication of amniotic cavity with
secondary yolk sac
c) Disappearance of roof of notochordal process
d) a & c
All of the above

PART II. Answer the following questions. ( 40 points)


1. List the phases of Gametogenesis.

2. Enumerate the derivatives of the Paraxial mesoderm.

e)

3. How would you reasonably estimate the age of an embryo?

1. List the phases of Gametogenesis.

( 2 points)

2. Enumerate the derivatives of the Paraxial mesoderm.

3. How would you reasonably estimate the age of an embryo?

( 4 points)

( 5 points)

4. Mention the structures added to the wall of the blastocyst cavity to convert it to the
following
sacs:
(1 point)
a) Primary yolk sac.

b) Secondary yolk sac.

5. Enumerate on the cells lining the wall of the chorion, inner to outer:

6. Enumerate on the functions of the notochord.

7. Mention the cells that give rise to:

(1.5 points)

(2 points)

(1.5 points)

a) Amnion (amniotic membrane):


.
b) Extrambryonic mesoderm:

c) Intraembryonic mesoderm:

Meiosis

Provides constancy of the chromosome number from generation to generation by


reducing the chromosome number from diploid to haploid, thereby producing haploid
gametes.

Allows random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes between the gametes.

Relocates segments of maternal and paternal chromosomes by crossing over of


chromosome segments, which "shuffles" the genes and produces a recombination of
genetic material.

primary spermatocytes, the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.


Oogonia enlarge to form primary oocytes before birth
Primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth,
The primary oocytes in suspended prophase (dictyotene) are vulnerable to environmental agents
such as radiation.
No primary oocytes form after birth in females,
The primary oocytes remain dormant in the ovarian follicles until puberty.
The difference in the sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of primary sex
determination.
Development of an ovarian follicle (see Figs. 2-8 and 2-9) is characterized by:

Growth and differentiation of primary oocyte

Proliferation of follicular cells

Formation of zona pellucida

Development of the theca folliculi

The vascular theca interna produces follicular fluid and some estrogen.
Ovulation is triggered by a surge of LH production
The LH surge, elicited by the high estrogen level in the blood, appears to cause the stigma to
balloon out, forming a vesicle
Degeneration of the corpus luteum is prevented by human chorionic gonadotropin
Direct arteriovenous anastomoses are prominent features of the luteal (secretory, progesterone)
phase.
If fertilization does not occur:

The corpus luteum degenerates.

Estrogen and progesterone levels fall and the secretory endometrium enters an ischemic
phase.

Menstruation occurs.

The ischemic phase occurs when the oocyte is not fertilized.


If fertilization occurs:

Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis (formation of blastocyst) occur.

The blastocyst begins to implant in the endometrium on approximately the sixth day of
the luteal phase (day 20 of a 28-day cycle).

Human chorionic gonadotropin, a hormone produced by the syncytiotrophoblast (see Fig.


2-21), keeps the corpus luteum secreting estrogens and progesterone.

The luteal phase continues and menstruation does not occur.

Sperm Transport.
The enzyme vesiculase, produced by the seminal glands, coagulates some of the semen or
ejaculate and forms a vaginal plug that may prevent the backflow of semen into the vagina.
When ovulation occurs, the cervical mucus increases in amount and becomes less viscid, making
it more favorable for sperm transport.
The reflex ejaculation of semen may be divided into two phases:

Emission: Semen is delivered to the prostatic part of the urethra through the ejaculatory
ducts after peristalsis of the ductus deferens; emission is a sympathetic response.

Ejaculation: Semen is expelled from the urethra through the external urethral orifice; this
results from closure of the vesical sphincter at the neck of the bladder, contraction of
urethral muscle, and contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscles.

Prostaglandins in the semen are thought to stimulate uterine motility at the time of intercourse
and assist in the movement of sperms to the site of fertilization in the ampulla of the tube.
Fructose, secreted by the seminal glands, is an energy source for the sperms in the semen.
Sperms are nonmotile during storage in the epididymis, but become motile in the ejaculate.
They move slowly in the acid environment of the vagina, but move more rapidly in the alkaline
environment of the uterus.
MATURATION OF SPERMS
Freshly ejaculated sperms are unable to fertilize oocytes.
Sperms must undergo a period of conditioning-capacitation-lasting approximately 7 hours.
During this period, a glycoprotein coat and seminal proteins are removed from the surface of the
sperm's acrosome.
Sperms are usually capacitated in the uterus or uterine tubes by substances secreted by these
parts of the female genital tract.
Completion of capacitation permits the acrosome reaction to occur.
The acrosome reaction of sperms must be completed before the sperm can fuse with the oocyte.
When capacitated sperms come into contact with the corona radiata surrounding a secondary
oocyte (Fig. 2-14), they undergo complex molecular changes that result in the development of
perforations in the acrosome. Multiple point fusions of the plasma membrane of the sperm and
the external acrosomal membrane occur. Breakdown of the membranes at these sites produces
apertures. The changes induced by the acrosome reaction are associated with the release of
enzymes, including hyaluronidase and acrosin, from the acrosome that facilitate fertilization.

Fertilization

Stimulates the penetrated oocyte to complete the second meiotic division.

Restores the normal diploid number of chromosomes (46) in the zygote.

Results in variation of the human species through mingling of maternal and paternal
chromosomes.

Determines chromosomal sex of the embryo.

Causes metabolic activation of the ootid and initiates cleavage (cell division) of the
zygote.

Shedding of the zona pellucida and hatching of the blastocyst takes place approximately 30
hours after fertilization. FFFFF
Implantation of the blastocyst is completed by the end of the second week.
The syncytiotrophoblast
invades the endometrial connective tissue, and the blastocyst slowly embeds itself in the
endometrium.
displace endometrial cells at the implantation site providing a rich source of embryonic
nutrition.
produces human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG),
The epiblast forms the floor of the amniotic cavity and is continuous peripherally with the
amnion.
The hypoblast forms the roof of the exocoelomic cavity and is continuous with the thin
exocoelomic membrane (see Fig. 3-1B).
The extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast form the chorion.
prechordal plate indicates the future site of the mouth and is an important organizer of the head
region.
Implantation of the blastocyst begins at the end of the first week and is completed by the end of
the second week.
The zona pellucida degenerates (day 5).
The blastocyst adheres to the endometrial epithelium (day 6).
The trophoblast differentiates into two layers: the syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast (day
7). The syncytiotrophoblast erodes endometrial tissues, and the blastocyst starts to embed in the
endometrium (day 8).
Blood-filled lacunae appear in the syncytiotrophoblast (day 9).
The blastocyst sinks beneath the endometrial epithelium, and the defect is filled by a closing plug
(day 10).

Lacunar networks form by fusion of adjacent lacunae (days 10 and 11).


The syncytiotrophoblast erodes endometrial blood vessels, allowing maternal blood to seep in
and out of lacunar networks, thereby establishing a uteroplacental circulation (days 11 and 12).
The defect in the endometrial epithelium is repaired (days 12 and 13).
Primary chorionic villi develop (days 13 and 14).
Implantation of a blastocyst in the inferior segment of the uterus near the internal os results in
placenta previa.
Rapid development of the embryo from the embryonic disc during the third week is
characterized by

Appearance of primitive streak

Development of notochord

Differentiation of three germ layers

Embryonic ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis, central and peripheral nervous
systems, the eye, and inner ear, and, as neural crest cells, to many connective tissues of
the head (see Chapter 5).

Embryonic endoderm is the source of the epithelial linings of the respiratory and
alimentary (digestive) tracts, including the glands opening into the gastrointestinal tract
and the glandular cells of associated organs such as the liver and pancreas.

Embryonic mesoderm gives rise to all skeletal muscles, blood cells and the lining of
blood vessels, all visceral smooth muscular coats, the serosal linings of all body cavities,
the ducts and organs of the reproductive and excretory systems, and most of the
cardiovascular system. In the trunk, it is the source of all connective tissues, including
cartilage, bones, tendons, ligaments, dermis, and stroma of internal organs.

The bilaminar embryonic disc is converted into a trilaminar embryonic disc during gastrulation.
The first sign of gastrulation is the appearance of the primitive streak.
cells of the epiblast, through the process of gastrulation, give rise to all three germ layers in the
embryo, the primordia of all its tissues and organs.
The primitive streak
appears at the beginning of the third week as a thickening of the epiblast at the caudal end
of the embryonic disc.
results from migration of epiblastic cells to the median plane of the disc.
actively forms mesoderm until the early part of the fourth week.
Normally undergoes degenerative changes and disappears by the end of the fourth week.
Remnants may persist and give rise to a sacrococcygeal teratoma.

The notochord

Defines the primordial longitudinal axis of the embryo and gives it some rigidity

Provides signals that are necessary for the development of axial musculoskeletal
structures

Provides signals that are necessary for the development the central nervous system

Contributes to the intervertebral discs ,

is the primordial axis of the embryo around which the axial skeleton forms (e.g., vertebral
column).

Ectoderm gives rise to the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system; sensory
epithelia of the eye, ear, and nose; epidermis and its appendages (hair and nails);
mammary glands; pituitary gland; subcutaneous glands; and enamel of teeth. Neural
crest cells, derived from neuroectoderm, give rise to the cells of the spinal, cranial
(cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X), and autonomic ganglia; ensheathing cells of the
peripheral nervous system; pigment cells of the dermis; muscle, connective tissues, and
bone of pharyngeal arch origin; suprarenal medulla; and meninges (coverings) of the
brain and spinal cord.

Mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue; cartilage; bone; striated and smooth muscles;
heart, blood, and lymphatic vessels; kidneys; ovaries; testes; genital ducts; serous
membranes lining the body cavities (pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal); spleen; and
cortex of suprarenal glands.

Endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts,
parenchyma of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid glands, thymus, liver, and pancreas,
epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and most of the urethra, and the epithelial lining of
the tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, and pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube.

Fourth Week
By 24 days, the first two pharyngeal arches are visible.
The embryo is now slightly curved because of the head and tail folds. The heart produces a large
ventral prominence and pumps blood.
Three pairs of pharyngeal arches are visible by 26 days, and the rostral neuropore is closed.
Upper limb buds are recognizable by day 26 or 27 as small swellings on the ventrolateral body
walls
Toward the end of the fourth week, a long tail-like caudal eminence is a characteristic feature.
By the end of the fourth week, the caudal neuropore is usually closed.

Fifth Week
The rapidly growing second pharyngeal arch overgrows the third and fourth arches, forming a
lateral ectodermal depression on each side-the cervical sinus.
Mesonephric ridges indicate the site of the mesonephric kidneys, which are interim excretory
organs in humans.
Sixth Week
By the sixth week, embryos show reflex response to touch.
The upper limbs begin to show regional differentiation as the elbows and large handplates
develop.
The primordia of the digits (fingers), called digital rays, begin to develop in the handplates,
which indicate the formation of digits.
Embryos in the sixth week show spontaneous movements, such as twitching of the trunk and
limbs.
Development of the lower limbs occurs 4 to 5 days later than that of the upper limbs.
Several small swellings-auricular hillocks-develop around the pharyngeal groove or cleft
between the first two pharyngeal arches.
Largely because retinal pigment has formed, the eye is now obvious.
This umbilical herniation is a normal event in the embryo. The herniation occurs because the
abdominal cavity is too small at this age to accommodate the rapidly growing intestine.
Seventh Week
The limbs undergo considerable change during the seventh week. Notches appear between the
digital rays in the handplates, clearly indicating the future digits.
By the end of the seventh week, ossification of the bones of the upper limbs has begun.
Eighth Week
The scalp vascular plexus has appeared and forms a characteristic band around the head.
By the end of the eighth week, all regions of the limbs are apparent, the digits have lengthened
and are completely separated (Fig. 5-20).
Purposeful limb movements first occur during this week. Ossification begins in the femur.
All evidence of the caudal eminence has disappeared by the end of the eighth week.
Both hands and feet approach each other ventrally.
The intestines are still in the proximal portion of the umbilical cord.
Table 5-1. Criteria for Estimating Developmental Stages in Human Embryos
AGE FIGURE
CARNEGIE NO. OF LENGTH MAIN EXTERNAL
(DAYS) REFERENCE STAGE
SOMITES (MM)* CHARACTERISTICS
20-21 5-1A1
9
1-3
1.5-3.0
Flat embryonic disc. Deep neural
groove and prominent neural
folds. One to three pairs of
somites present. Head fold
evident.
22-23 5-8A
10
4-12
1.0-3.5
Embryo straight or slightly
5-9A,B
curved. Neural tube forming or
formed opposite somites, but
widely open at rostral and caudal
neuropores. First and second pairs

24-25

5-8C
5-10

11

13-20

2.5-4.5

26-27

5-8D
5-11

12

21-29

3.0-5.0

28-30

5-8E
5-12

13

30-35

4.0-6.0

31-32

5-15
5-16

14

5.0-7.0

33-36

15

7.0-9.0

37-40

16

8.0-11.0

17

11.0-14.0

18

13.0-17.0

41-43

5-17

44-46

47-48

5-18

19

16.0-18.0

49-51

5-19C

20

18.0-22.0

of pharyngeal arches visible.


Embryo curved owing to head
and tail folds. Rostral neuropore
closing. Otic placodes present.
Optic vesicles formed.
Upper limb buds appear. Rostral
neuropore closed. Caudal
neuropore closing. Three pairs of
pharyngeal arches visible. Heart
prominence distinct. Otic pits
present.
Embryo has C-shaped curve.
Caudal neuropore closed. Upper
limb buds are flipper-like. Four
pairs of pharyngeal arches visible.
Lower limb buds appear. Otic
vesicles present. Lens placodes
distinct. Tail-like caudal eminence
present.
Upper limbs are paddle shaped.
Lens pits and nasal pits visible.
Optic cups present.
Handplates formed; digital rays
visible. Lens vesicles present.
Nasal pits prominent. Lower
limbs are paddle shaped. Cervical
sinuses visible.
Footplates formed. Pigment
visible in retina. Auricular
hillocks developing.
Digital rays clearly visible in
handplates. Auricular hillocks
outline future auricle of external
ear. Trunk beginning to straighten.
Cerebral vesicles prominent.
Digital rays clearly visible in
footplates. Elbow region visible.
Eyelids forming. Notches between
the digital rays in the hands.
Nipples visible.
Limbs extend ventrally. Trunk
elongating and straightening.
Midgut herniation prominent.
Upper limbs longer and bent at
elbows. Fingers distinct but

52-53

5-19

54-55
56

21
22

5-20
5-21

23

webbed. Notches between the


digital rays in the feet. Scalp
vascular plexus appears.
22.0-24.0 Hands and feet approach each
other. Fingers are free and longer.
Toes distinct but webbed.
23.0-28.0 Toes free and longer. Eyelids and
auricles of external ears more
developed.
27.0-31.0 Head more rounded and shows
human characteristics. External
genitalia still have sexless
appearance. Distinct bulge still
present in umbilical cord, caused
by herniation of intestines.
Caudal eminence ("tail") has
disappeared.

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