Electrodynamics

Spring, ‘05
Problem Set 2

Problem 2
Jackson 6.17

Part (a)
The Lorentz force on a charged particle is:
G G G G
(
F = q E+v×B )
If all particle have a constant ratio of electric to magnetic charge, then the duality
G
G G G G E
transform of E ′ = E cos ξ + cB sin ξ and B′ = B cos ξ − sin ξ will change Maxwell’s
c
equations with magnetic charges to the standard form. Using this in the Lorentz force
gives:
G G G G
(
F = q E ′ + v × B′ )
G G G G q sin ξ
= q cos ξ E + q sin ξ cB + q cos ξ v × B − v× E
c

At this point, qe = q cos ξ and to get Jackson’s equation, qm = qcµ0 sin ξ . This gives a
constant ratio of qm / qe = µ0 / ε 0 tan ξ = Z 0 tan ξ . This gives the Lorentz force of

G
G G B G G G G
F = qe E + qm + qe v × B − qmε 0 v × E
µ0

Part (b)

For general charges, you have to transform the charges as well as the fields. First
transform the fields:
 G
G G B′ G G G G
F = qe′ E ′ + qm′ + qe′v × B′ − qm′ ε 0 v × E ′
µ0
G
G E 
 B cos ξ − sin ξ 
G G c
( )
= qe′ E cos ξ + cB sin ξ + qm′  +
µ0
G
G G E  G G G
(
qe′v ×  B cos ξ − sin ξ  − qm′ ε 0 v × E cos ξ + cB sin ξ
c
)
 
G
 qm′ sin ξ  G B
=  qe′ cos ξ −  E + ( qm′ cos ξ + qe′ µ0 c sin ξ ) +
 µ0 c  µ0
 qm′ sin ξ  G G G G
 qe′ cos ξ −  v × B − ( qm′ cos ξ + qe′ µ0 c sin ξ ) ε 0 v × E
 µ0 c 

Thus, if qe = qe′ cos ξ − qm′ sin ξ / Z 0 and qm = qm′ cos ξ + qe′ Z 0 sin ξ , then the force is
invariant.

Part (c)

Equation 6.155 gives you the impulse on particle 2 with electric charge due to a magnetic
charge of at the origin. If there were an additional electric charge at the origin and an
e g −e g
additional magnetic charge at 2, you would get ∆p y = 2 1 1 2 . The minus sign comes
2π b
from the sign difference in the cross product terms for the electric and magnetic fields.
e g −e g
The angular momentum changes is ∆Lz = 2 1 1 2 and if this is quantized in units of
2π
= , this becomes e2 g1 − e1 g 2 = nh . Under a duality transform (the same ξ applies to all
particles),
 g ′ sin ξ   g1′ sin ξ 
e2 g1 − e1 g 2 =  e2′ cos ξ − 2  ( g1′ cos ξ + e1′Z 0 sin ξ ) −  e1′ cos ξ −  ( g 2′ cos ξ + e2′ Z 0 sin ξ )
 Z 0   Z 0 
= e2′ g1′ cos 2 ξ − g 2′ e1′ sin 2 ξ + e2′ g1′ sin 2 ξ − g 2′ e1 cos 2 ξ
= e2′ g1′ − g 2′ e1′