1

Regarding puncture wounds; which is False?

C;

Radiological examination is essential

Treatment is wound irrigation, antibiotic treatment & tetanus prophylaxis
Small foreign bodies should be dissected & removed
Abscess formation may take place in deeper tissues

All of the following are associated with stretched scars, EXCEPT:

Decreased tension across the wound gives narrower scars
Scars on the face often stretch
Prolonged wound support decreases stretch in scars
Buried non-absorbable or long-term absorbable sutures can minimize scar
stretching
Healing by secondary intention does not lead to:
Granulation tissue formation
Surface epithelialisation to close the wound
Possibility of contracture
Thick layer of epithelium on scar tissue that is long lasting
All of the following statements regarding hypertrophic scars are FALSE,
EXCEPT:
They may be familial
There is an extreme overgrowth of scar tissue beyond the limits of the
original wound
They are more cellular & more vascular than mature scars
More common in females in 10.30 year age group
In the pseudo tumor approach for wound excision, which of the following
is not carried out?
Devitalised fat is pink & it is excised
Dark coloured muscle is excised
No local anaesthetic with adrenaline or pneumatic tourniquet used
Bone fragments with no soft tissue attachments are excised
Pressure sores are not seen when:
In paraplegias lacking usual sensory input that warns them of tissue
ischaemia
Capillary perfusion pressure ex-ceeds external pressure where there is
unrelieved pressure in soft tissues overlying bone
Patients with hypotension & peri-pheral vascular disease
Unconscious patients
Degloving injuries have limited potential for primary healing when:

B;

D;

C;

C;

B;

D;

10

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12

13

14

It is open & circumferential

Closed & localised
Present in just the subcutaneous plane
Found between muscles & fascia & between muscles & bone
No mans land in palm corresponds to:
B;
Zone I
Zone II
Zone III
Zone IV
Preop shaving is ideally done at :
C;
Evening before Sx (Surgery)
On the operation table
Just before operation
Morning of the operation day
Best treatment for keloids is:
D;
Intralesional injection of steroids
Radiotherapy
Wide excision
Multimodalityapproach
Which of the following surgical procedures is considered to have a clean A;
contaminated wound?
Elective open cholecystectomy
Hernioplasty
Appendectomy with walled of abscess
Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection
Suture removal in lower trunk region is done in:
D;
2-3 days
5 days
7 days
10-14 days
The cheatle's split is applicable in :
B;
Anastomosis of vessels
Anastomosis of bowel
Anastomosis of skin
Anastomosis or approximation of rectus sheath
The free ends of knots should be atleast long:
A;
1 - 2 mm

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17

18

19

20

21

3 - 4 mm
5 - 6 mm
10 mm
PDS, the commonly used suture material is a:
Monofilament polyester polymer
Monofilament copolymer of glycolide and caprolactone
Multifloment copolymer of lactide and glycolide
Monofilament polyamide polymer
Most frequent cause of Sodium depletion seen in Surgical practice is:
High intestinal external fistulae
Duodenal fistulae
Obstruction of small intestine
Ulcerative colitis
In metabolic alkalosis which of the following does not take place?
Excretion of carbon dioxide by lungs
Excretion of bicarbonate base by the kidneys
Cheyne Stokes respiration
Latent tetany
A normal anion gap is not seen in :
Renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhoea
Intestinal (small) fistulas
Renal failure
After fasting for 15 days, 20 m ill workers were hospitalized. Their blood &
urine reports revealed presence of ketone bodies, acidic urine &
bicarbonate value of 20 mmol/L : The underlying abnormality is :
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
PAIR is used for treatment of:
Amoebic liver abscess
Hepatic Hydatid cyst
Schistosomasis
Cysticercosis
Treatment of choice for fasciola hepatica is:
Albendazole

A;

C;

A;

D;

B;

B;

B;

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23

24

25

26

27

Triclabendazole
Bithionol
Mebendazole
Indications for emergency surgery in case of amoebic bowel disease are all,
EXCEPT:
Toxic megacolon
Segmental gangrene of colon
Substantial haemorrhage from large bowel
None of the above
Risk factor for wound infection is/are:
Radiotherapy
Shock
Haematoma
Any of above
According to CDC classification of HIV disease, persistent generalized
lymphadenopathy is classified as:
Group I
Group II
Group III
Group IV
Common anal neoplasms seen in HIV positive individuals are all, EXCEPT:
Squamous cell carcinoma
Kaposi's sarcoma
Perianal Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Malignant melanoma
In the latent period of HI\; infection, patient develops:
Flu-like symptoms & lymphadenopathy
Progressive increase in HIV-1 viral titres
Progressive fall in CD4 counts
Systemic immune deficiency
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding occupationally
acquired HIV infection in health care workers?
Risk is greatest during the earliest and latest stages of the disease
Principal route is by skin perforation with a solid needle containing HIV
infected blood
Post exposure HIV-prophylaxis should be started after confirming HIV status
of the source

D;

D;

C;

D;

D;

A;

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29

30

31

32

33

Post-exposure HIV-prophylaxis is with' zidovudine (250 mg bd) for 3 month

What is of utmost importance in treatment of wound abscesses?
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Adequate surgical decompression and curettage of abscess
Primary closure of wound
Use of absorbable suture
A 38 year old obese lady develops pain & swelling in her right leg along
with fever & chills. On examination, there is calor, rubor, dolor over a
poorly localized area over her calf with no pus pointing. WBC count is
18000/cumm. Blood culture is negative. Diagnose her condition:
Calf abscess
Lymphangitis
Cellulitis
SSSI
All of the following are characteristics of a MAJOR wound infection,
EXCEPT:
Discharge of infected serous fluid
Secondary drainage procedure may be required
May be associated with SIRS
Planned discharge to home may be delayed
A 40 year old man is operated for an abdominal surgery via a midline
abdominal incision. When is he most likely to develop a wound abscess
post-operatively?
2-3 ddays
7-9 days
10-14 days
14-21 days
Use of all of the following significantly decreases airborne infection in
operation theatre, EXCEPT:
Laminar air flow
Minimizing the no. of individuals in the OT
Air conditioning
High-efficiency particulate filters
Which of the following antiseptic is inappro-priate for skin preparation of
the operative site?
Chlorhexidine
Povidone Iodine
Cetrimide

B;

C;

A;

B;

C;

C;

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35

36

37

38

39

40

Hexachlorophane
Definition of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) includes all,
EXCEPT:
Hyperthermia (> 38C)
Bradycardia (60/min)
Tachypnoea (> 20/min)
WBC count < 4000/min
Following regarding Tropical chronic pancreatitis is false:
Affects alcoholic elderly from lower socioeconomic region esp. South India
Associated with ingestion of cassava
Imaging studies reveal nodular fibrotic pancreas with dilated ducts filled with
stones
Surgery reserved for intractable pain
Regarding typhoid all are true, EXCEPT:
Caused by gram Negative bacillus
Diagnosis is by leucopenia, stool and blood cultures and positive Widal test
Perforation of ulcer in 1st week carries poor prognosis than 2nd week
Surgical intervention done in case of complications
For in order of minimize surgical site in the operation theatre all are true,
EXCEPT:
First scrubs should be for 3 mins.
Bacterial count to be kept below 10 CFU/cmm
Temp should below 19-22C and humidity between 45-55%
Good prepping and maintaining distance of unscrubbed staff of atleast 50
cms from sterile field
Thymus gland abscess is congenital syphilis are called:
Politizer's abscess
Fouchier's abscess
Duboi's abscess
Mycotic abscess
Malignant pustule occurs in:
Melanoma
Anthrax
Carbuncle
Actinomycosis
Following are true of eryiseplas, EXCEPT:
Streptococcal infection

B;

B;

C;

A;

C;

B;

D;

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42

43

44

45

46

47

Margins are raised

Commonly seen in temperate region
None of the above
Commonest cause of acute LN-adenitis in India is:
TB
Lymphoma
Staphylococcal skin infection
Bare foot walking
Tetanus is caused by:
CI. Tetani
CI. Welchi
CI. Edematiens
CI. Septicum
65 Kg male with 60% burns in catabolism is admitted. An individual of this
state requires 40 Kcal/kg/day and 2 gm of protein/day/kg. This young man
is given solutions having 20% glucose and 25% protein. If 3000 ml/day is
given, then:
Patient gets insufficient protein
Inadequate carbohydrate intake
Both protein and carbohydrate are adequate
Too much protein is infused
Metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition include all, EXCEPT:
Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Hypokalemia
Best method of post operative pain relief is:
NSAID suppositories
Intramuscular morphine
Acupuncture
Epidural analgesia
Metabolic features of
Low plasma insulin levels
Decreased hepatic gluconeogenesis
Increased hepatic glycogenolysis
Increased lipolysis
In Evidence Based surgery all are true,' EXCEPT:

B;

A;

D;

B;

D;

B;

D;

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49

50

51

52

53

Aims to provide practice of surgery on a logical and scientific basis

Emphasis on preparing systemic review and keeping them up-to-date them
Includes randomized control trials and studies
Level V evidence or grade of recommendation D is the best evidence
For consent to be valid, informed it requires all, EXCEPT:
Patient must be competent, not coerced into and well informed of pros and
cons of procedures and other modalities available
Can be taken by junior member of the surgeons team
Explained in easy, lucid, language understood by the patient
Incase of childrens/ mentally II patients, parents / guardians are allowed for
consent of procedure
In a person who has fasted for 5 days all are seen, EXCEPT:
Free fatty acid levels in plasma increased
Immune reactive insulin level deceased
GH levels decreased
Glucose tolerance decreased
During nutritional assessment of surgical patients status of muscle protein
is indicated by which one of following parameters:
Serum albumin
Triceps skin fold thickness
Hb level
Mid arm circumference
Commonest cancer in burn scar is :
Sq. cell Ca
Fibrosarcoma
Adenoa Ca
Adeno-squamous Ca
What concentration of carboxy Haemoglobin in blood are chemically
significant?
>1%
> 10%
> 30%
> 60%
Treatment of a superficial burn involves:
Surgical excision of burnt area
Skin grafting
Spontaneous healing in 2 weeks

B;

C;

D;

A;

B;

C;

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55

56

57

58

59

60

Porcine skin graft

The commonest form of reconstruction used in extensive burn injuries is;
Wolfe graft
Thiersch graft
Tissue expenders
Pedicled flaps
True regarding inhalation burn injury are all, EXCEPT:
Occur in head & face burns
Laryngeal edema may set in 24-48 hours
Occurs in closed space burns
Chemical pneumonitis occurs after 1 week
Intravenous fluid resuscitation in a child is required if percentage of TBSA
is:
>30%
> 10%
> 20%
> 50%
All are true regarding vacuum assisted wound closure, EXCEPT:
Useful for nonhealing bed sores
Reduces bacterial load by negative suction
Increases tissue edema
Increases the local circulation
Agent used as a prophylaxis against pseudomonas in burns patients is :
Silver sulfadiazine 1 %
Silver nitrate 0.5%
Mafenide 5%
Betadine 5%
Head & neck involvement in burns in infant is:
9%
18%
27%
32%
In 3rd degree burns, all are seen, EXCEPT:
Hyperthermia
Painful
Fluid loss by evaporation
Vasodilation

B;

D;

B;

C;

B;

B;

B;

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62

63

64

65

66

67

The ideal temperature of water to cool the burnt surface is:

15
10
8
6
Metabolic derangements in severe Burns are all, EXCEPT:
Increased corticosteroid secretion
Hyperglycaemia
Increased secretion of HCI
Neutrophil dysfunction
A point on TPN for 20 days presents with weakness, vertigo and
convulsions. Diagnosis is:
Hypo mg +2
Hyper NH3'
Hyper Ca+2
Hyper K+
Immuno nutrients are required more in the conditions of stress are all,
EXCEPT:
Arginine
Glutamine
Fatty acids
Magnesium
A 50 year old man has a non healing ulcer over the shin with undermined
edges with apple jelly appearance on the floor. Your diagnosis:
Rodents ulcer
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Squamous cell carcinoma
All are true regqrding epidermoid cyst" EXCEPT:
Also called steatoma
It is a type of retention cyst
Transillumination is positive
Treatment if it gets infected is incision & drainage with cyst wall avulsion
A 60 year old diabetic male comes with a foot ulcer with black necrotic
eschar and purulent discharge. Your immediate treat-ment of choice:
Intravenous antibiotics will be sufficient
Daily dressing

A:

C;

A;

D;

C;

C;

C;

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70

71

72

73

74

Surgical debridement
Hydrocolloid dressing
All the following are congential cysts, EXCEPT:
Urachal cyst
Polycystic kidney
Mucous cyst of mouth
Dermoid cyst
Cock's peculiar tumour is :
An infected sebaceous cyst
Calcifying epithelima
Self healing nodular lesion with central ulceration.
An indicator of underlying osteo-myelitis
Bedsore is an example of:
Tropical ulcer
Trophic ulcer
Venous ulcer
Post thrombotic ulcer
Cause of persistence of a sinus or fistulae includes:
Foreign body
Non dependent drainage
Unrelived obstructon
All of the above
All the following lipomas have a potential for malignant change, EXCEPT:
Retroperitoneal
Inter muscular in the thigh
Shoulder
Scalp
Which condition is associated with the fifth cranial nerve?
Von Recklinghausen's disease
Molluscum fibrosum
Plexiform neurofibromatosis
Le Fraumeni syndrome
Desmoid tumor is associated with which syndrome?
Le Fraumeni syndrome
Gardner's syndrome
Lynch syndrome
Aperts syndrome

C;

A;

B;

D;

D;

C;

B:

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77

78

79

80

81

82

All the following are examples of tubulo dermoid, EXCEPT:

Thyroglossal cyst
Pilonidal sinus
Ependymal cyst
Urachal cyst
The type of naevus which is most likely to undergo malignant change:
Intradermal naevus
Compound naevus
Blue naevus
Junctional naevus
Regarding Neurofibromatosis, false is:
Un encapsulated tumors of schwann cells
Resected along with nerve fibres
Association with axillary freckling and Lisch noduls
Always benign tumor
Spontaneous regression of malignant tumors is seen with:
Neuroblastoma
Retinoblastoma
Malignant melanoma
All of the above
About cong torticollis all of the true, EXCEPT:
Associated with Breech deliveries
Untreated cases may lead to plagiocephaly
Associated pterigium coli/Klieppel feil syndrome
Always required surgical correction
Ephilis is:
Type of freckle
Dental Anomaly
Infection caused by T.palidum
Pregnancy tumor
In malignant melanoma, the margin of excision for tumor size 2cms is :
1 cms
0.5 cms
2 cms
5 cms
Where are you most likely to use a full thicknes graft?
Scrotum

D;

D;

D;

D;

D;

A;

C;

D;

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85

86

87

88

89

Back
Scalp
Face
The best reconstruction after a segmental mandibulectomy in a patient of
lower alveolus malignancy:
Skin grafting
Pectorals major myocutaneous flap
Delto pectoral flap
Free fibula flap
A deltopectoral flap is a type of :
Free flap
Myocutaneous flap
Fasciocutaneous flap
Fasciomyocutaneous flap
The blood supply for a transverse Rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
comes from:
Internal mammary artery
Superficial epigastric artery
Deep inferior epigastric artery
Superficial external pudendal artery
Ideal graft for leg injury with 10 x 10 cm. exposed bone :
Amniotic memb graft
Pedicle graft
Full thickness graft
Split thickness skin graft
Following are true of cultured bilayer skin equivalent, EXCEPT:
More closely mimics normal anatomy
easily handled, can be sutured or meshed
Does not need secondary procedure
Long shelf life
Regarding Hemangiomas following are true:
Salman patch disappears after age one
Portwinestain present through life
Salman patch seen on forehead or over occiput
All are correct
Criteria for Brainstem death include the following, EXCEPT:
Absence of corneal reflexes

D;

C;

C;

B;

D;

D;

D;

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92

93

94

95

96

Absence of motor response

Absence of spontaneous respiration after preventilation with 100% O2 for
atieast 5 minutes, pt is connected from ventilator for 10minutes with PO2 >
60 mm of Hg
Tests performed by two clinicians on two separate occasions with atleast
one of them a consultant from the transplant team.
Optimal storage time in hrs for liver is :
< 24 hrs
< 12 hrs
< 10 hrs
< 3hrs
In creation of peritoneum, gas used in Laparoscopy is:
Coz
N20
Helium gas
All of the above
The intra abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:
5-8 mm Hg
10 25 mm Hg
20 25 mm Hg
30 35 Hg
Principal cause of death in renal transplant patients is:
Uraemia
Rejection
Malignancy
Infection
Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by :
B lymphocytes
Macrophages
Preformed Antibodies
T-Iymphocytes
MOA of Sirolimus is :
Blocks-IL-2 gene transcription
Blocks IL-2 receptor signal transduction
Depletion and Blockade of T-cells
Prevents Iymphocyte proliferation
In renal transplantation in a living donor kidney, Renal artery is

B;

D;

B;

D;

C;

B;

C;

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99

100

101

102

anastomosed to :
Ext. Iliac Artery
Renal artery
Int. Iliac artery
Aorta
NOTES is :
Non obliterative trans esophageal surgery
Natural orfice trans esophageal surgery
Natural orfice trans luminal endoscopic surgery
Neo occlusive trans arterial Endo surgery
Triangle of doom has following Boundaries, EXCEPT:
Vas deferens
Testicular vessels
Iliac vessels
Reflected peritoneal fold
Length of the laparoscopic Hand instruments used/regularly in adult
surgeries is:
18cms
28 cms
25 cms
36 cms
Graft-versus-host disease has occurred with the transplantation of which
of the following?
Kidney
Lung
Heart
Bone marrow
Which of the following is the safest and most efficient tool in diagnosis of
lower limb arterial disease?
Arteriography
Hand-held Doppler probe
Duplex imaging
Treadmill
Which of the following drugs is effective as a non surgical measure for
arterial stenosis?
-blockers
Anti-platelet agents

C;

C;

D;

D;

C;

B;

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104

105

106

107

108

Naftidrofuryl oxalate
Oxpentifylline
Which is the standard thrombolytic agent used today?
Urokinase
Streptokinase
Tissue plasminogen activator
None of the above
Which of the following not true regarding Raynaud syndrome?
It is the same as Raynaud disease
Common in users of pneumatic road drills
Sympathectomy yields poor results
Steroids are helpful
All of the following are the clinical feature of thromboangiitis obliterans,
EXCEPT:
Raynaud's phenomenon
Claudication of extremities
Absence of popliteal pulse
Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis
Two days after admission to the hospital for a myocardial infarction, a 65
year old man complains of severe, unremitting midabdominal pain. His
cardiac index is 1.6. Physical examination is remarkable for an absence of
peritoneal irritation or distention despite the patient's persistent
complaint of severe pain. Serum lactate is 9 (Normal<3). In managing this
problem you should:
Perform MRI
Perform mesenteric angiography
Perform OGDscopy
Perform sigmoidoscopy
Which among the following is not a feature of peripheral arterial
occlusion?
Shock
Pallor
Pain
Pulselessness
What will be diagnosis of Ramu, who is 45 year old male with history of
chronic smoking and pain in lower limb due to blockage of femoral artery:
Thromboangitis obiterarns
Atherosclerosis

C;

C;

C;

B;

A;

B;

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110

111

112

113

114

115

Embolism
Arteritis
Which one is Not true regarding Buergers disease?
Mean are usually involved
Occurs below 50 years of age
Smoking is predisoposing factor
Veins and nerves are never involved
Rare complication after elective abdominal aortic aneurysm repair consists
of:
Cardiac infarction
Renal failure
Lower lobe consolidation
Atelectasis
A patient presented with local gigantism of the leg and increased
pulsations of the lower limb veins. Most probable diagnosis is:
Tumor
AV fistula
Varicose veins
Incompetence of the sapheno-femoral junction
Pseudoarterial aneurysm in drug abuser's seen in:
Radial
Branchial
Femoral
Carotid
Syndrome of internal iliac artery occlusion manifested by:
Pain in calf
Absent pulse at the dorsalis pedis artery
Intermittent claudication
None of the above
AV fistula all regarding it is true, EXCEPT:
Arterialisations of veins
Causes LV enlargement and LVF
Causes overgrowth of limb and indolent ulcers
Proximal compression causes increased pulse pressure
Which is not true of hyperabduction syndrome:
Physio therapy and position exercises relives symptoms
Neurological signs and symptoms are common

D;

B;

B;

C;

D;

D;

C;

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117

118

119

120

121

Most commonly radial nerve involved

Rajnand's phenomenon may be seen
Abdo aortic aneurysm is characterized by all, EXCEPT:
usually asymptomatic before rupture
For asymptomatic cases, Rx requisite> 5 cms size
In emergency surgery rate of complication usually> 50%
CECT is used for diagnosis
40 years old female K/C/O migraine and chronic smoking comes with C/O
headache and pain in upper limbs along with classical triphasic colour
changes in the digits. On examination, all peripheral pulses normal and BP
= 150/90. However there was thickening of the digital subcutaneous
tissues along with loss of Rt little finger. The clinical is diagnosis in this
patient is (Inv:BT = 1 min 40 secs, CT = min, 5 sec = Normal, srcholestrol
>200 mg/dl)
Thromboangitis obliterans
Atherosclerosis
Raynaud's disease
Takayasus disease
All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis, EXCEPT:
May be caused by a cervical rib
Treated with IV anticoagulant
Embolectomy is done in all cases
May occur following excessive exercise
Most serious complication of varicose veins is:
Superficial thrornbophlehitis
Venous pigmentation
Lipodermatosclerosis
Venous ulceration
Atrophie blanche in venous valvular incompetence refers to:
Calf muscle hypertrophy
Ankle edema
Brown pigmentation due to haemo-siderin deposition in the skin
Loss of superficial blood vessels with development of white patches in skin
All of the following statements are true regarding injection sclerotherapy
as a modality for treatment of varicose veins, EXCEPT:
It can be used in the absence of junctional incompetence
It is injected into the vein with the leg veins not emptied

B;

C;

C;

D;

D;

B;

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123

124

125

126

127

128

Major perforating incompetence is to be ruled out

Sodium tetradecyl is the sclerosant used
VNUS closure as a modality of management of various veins does not
include:
Use of ablation catheter
No rise of DVT
Possibility of recurrence
Damage to overlying skin
Regarding Klieppel Trenauy syndrome following false:
Multiple AV fistulae with ulcerations and venous HTN
Non familial mesodermal abnormality
Increased risk of DVT
Most treated by conservative Rx
Regarding pulm. Embolism and DVT, false is:
Approximately 30% of spinal cord injured patients develop a clinically
significant DVT
Fatal embolism is noted in 5-10% of all spinal cord injured patients
Highest risk is seen in 1st 3 weeks
Prophylactic intervention is Important in this patients
Lymph node metastasis seen in :
Histiocytoma
Angiosarcoma
Liposarcoma
Neurofibrosarcoma
The following are true of congenital lymphoedema, EXCEPT:
Lower limbs are affected more often
Usually unilateral
Onset usually occurs before puberty
Episodes of lymphangitis worsens the edema
In the management of leg ulcers, which of the following is not done?
Cleaning the ulcer under tap water
Treating the skin of leg with emulsifying ointment
Use of topical antibiotics during dressing
Use of topical steroids to treat allergic response
Mr. Menon is due for a 10 hr flight to London. He has undergone knee
replace-ment surgery one month ago. How best can he prevent DVT from
taking place:

B;

A;

B;

A;

B;

C;

D;

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130

131

132

133

134

135

Taking sleeping tablets

Avoid alcohol
Walk in the aisle occasionally
Low-molecular weight heparin administered before the flight
The commonest lymphangiographic finding in a patient with lymphoedema
praecox is:
Congenital hyperplasia of lymphatics
Proximal obliteration
Distal obliteration
Dysfunctional lymphatics
All of the following statement regarding filariasis are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Commonest cause of lymphoedema world-wide
Microfilariae enter the blood at night
Diethylcarbamazine destroys the parasites and reverses the Iymphatic
changes
Wucheria bancrofti is responsible for 90% cases
Most accurate diagnostic technique in lymphoedema is:
Lymphangiography
Isotope Iymphoscintigraphy
CT scan
MRI
Decongestive lymphoedema therapy includes all, EXCEPT:
Skin care
Manual lymphatic drainage
Multilayer lymphoedema bandaging
Diuretics
Commonest cause of chyluria is :
Tuberculosis
Filariasis
Ascariasis
Malignancy
Meige's disease is :
Congenital lymph oedema
Ovarian tumor with pleural effusion and ascitis
Lymphaedema precox
Lymphagio sarcoma in chronic Iymphoedematous limb.
Alemtuzumab is a chemo therapeutic agent with MOA as:

C;

C;

B;

D;

B;

C;

B;

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137

138

139

140

141

Antibody against CD20 Ag

Antibody against CD 52 Ag
Tyrosine kinase receptor inhibitors
Farnesyl transferase inhibitors
Severe unilateral lymph edema is:
> 20 % excess limb volume
> 40 % excess limb volume
> 30 % excess limb volume
> 50 % excess limb volume
All the following are good prognosis features of Hodgkins disease, EXCEPT:
Hb>10gm
Abs. lymphocyte count < 600/111
WBC < 15000/ cmm
Age < 45 years
Most malignant form of NHL is:
Diffuse large cell
Small cell lymphocytic
Follicular lymphoma
Large cell follicular
Podoconiosis is :
Type of fungal infections of feet
Endemic elephantiasis
Type of occupational chest infections
Malignancy of the nail
Odema pitting on pressure and disappearing an bed rest and elevations is:
Grade II
Grade III
Latent or subclinical
Grade I
A young child was brought by her mother with swelling in the lower
posterior half of neck which became prominent on crying. On examination
the margins more not well defined and fluctuation was positive.
Compressibility was possible diagnosis in this patient is:
Cystic Hygroma
Bronchial cyst
Solitary lymph cyst
Cold abscess

B;

B;

D;

B;

D;

A;

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143

144

145

146

147

148

Which of the following is not a feature of severe limb ischaemia?

Pain in calf on walking
Rest pain
Coldness, numbness and paraes-thesia
Ulceration and gangrene
Salim had a cut throat injury following a brawl. He developed air
embolism. Which of the following is incorrect regarding treatment of this
condition?
Placement of patient in Trendelenburg position
Oxygen administration
Left side placement of patient
Aspiration of left ventricle
False about fat embolism is:
Fat is metabolic in origin
Patient becomes comatose with small pupils
Retinal changes take place late after onset of disease
Petechial hemorrhages often occur
In all of the following, sympathectomy is effective, EXCEPT one:
Intermittent claudication
Hyperhydrosis
Raynaud's disease
Causalgia
An ABI of less than suggests arterial injury even in the presence of palpable
pulses:
0.7
0.5
0.3
0.9
Gold standard for diagnosis of aortic rupture is:
20 ECHO
X-ray chest PA view
Aor togram
Multi slice CT scan with contrast
While doing BK amputation, most important technical consideration is :
Stump should be short
Ant flap longer than post flap
Fipula transected above the tibial

A;

D;

C;

A;

D;

C;

C;

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150

Nerves ligated at the level of muscles

Regarding Aortic dissection following is false:
Presents as tearing intrascapsular pain
Diagnosed by echo or CT/MRI with contrast
Control of BP is must before any further Imaging or intervention
Type A usually are best managed medically
Cimino fistula is a fistula created between:
Radial A and cephalic vein
Ulnar A and vein
Subclavian A and vein
Long Saphenous vein and femoral artery

D;

A;