presents

MANAGE – National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.

Special GK inputs
MANAGE – National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.
(An organisation of Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India)

The National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management, popularly known as MANAGE, is an

apex national institute set up in 1987 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Agriculture,
Government of India. MANAGE is the Indian response to the challenges of management in a rapidly
growing agricultural sector.

The institute is located on a 16 hectare campus in the serene rural surroundings of Rajendranagar, 15
km away from Hyderabad city.

Courses offered :
2-year PGPABM (Post-Graduate Programme in Agri-business Management): Open only to the
graduates in agricultural and allied technology areas. The programme aims at enabling meritorious
agricultural graduates to acquire the critical competencies to function as effective Agri-Business
managers. The programme, launched in 1996, is recognised by the All India Council for Technical
Education. . On completion of the programme, successful candidates are awarded with the Post
Graduate Diploma in Agri-Business Management.

Notification and Entrance Procedure: The notification for the course will be in the newspapers like
Employment News, in some more days. The written test is normally conducted in January/February.
There will be a computer based objective type written test conducted by MANAGE followed by
GD/Extempore and a Personal Interview with Psychological Test.

The written test seen last year, had the following pattern:
Section I – Agriculture (questions upto graduation level) – 120 questions.
Section II – Mathematical Aptitude (Basic Maths) – 30 questions
Section III – Statistics – 30 questions
Section IV – General English – 60 questions

There was no negative marking for the test till the last year.

DAESI (Diploma in Agricultural Extension Services for Input Dealers)

Eligibility: Dealers/Candidates sponsored by companies and prospective dealers with 10+2 standard
qualification.
Duration: One year
Course Fee: Rs.27,000/- in lump sum at a time of admission

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There are no written test for the admission in this course till last year, but the Personal Interview is
conducted.

AWASCM (Post Graduate Programme in Agri-ware-housing and Cool Chain Management) is the
first of its kind in India. This course has been specially designed to fabricate students by explicitly
training them in both managerial and technical field along with other accommodating courses so as to
make them equipped in the highly shifting scenario of agriculture commerce.

PGP AJMC (Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture Journalism and Mass Communication):
A one year Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture and Journalism and Mass Communication has
been launched by MANAGE from 2003.

CONTACT:
National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE)
Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500 030
Phones: General: +91 - 40 - 24016702 to 706
Fax: +91 - 40 - 24015388
Email: vedini@manage.gov.in

Best of Luck !
Academic Team - PT

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 Sample questions for your reference

1. The years of Green Revolution was 10. Foodgrain production was quite low after
(1) fifties independence because of after partition
(2) late sixties and seventies (1) law and order problems
(3) late fifties and early sixties (2) drought
(4) early fifties (3) high-yielding areas and Punjab went to
Pakistan
2. The Yellow Revolution resulted in (4) (1) and (3)
(1) increase in flower production
(2) increase in oil production 11. In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was …..
(3) increase in gold production million tonnes
(4) increase in wheat production (1) 51 (2) 100
(3) 30 (4) 70
3. In early fifties the per capita availability of
foodgrains was 12. In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was 51
(1) 395 g (2) 425 g million tonnes but in 1994-95 it was 1901 million
(3) 295 g (4) 500 g tonnes resulting in a buffer stock of 35 million
tones.
4. In world, pulse crops are grown in largest area in (1) The statement is true
(1) India (2) Buffer stock was 37 million tonnes, rest of
(2) India and USA the statistics is correct.
(3) India and China (3) The statement is false.
(4) USA, India and China (4) 51 million tonnes is wrong, it was 61 million
tones.
5. Main traditional crops, are
(1) moong, soybean, summer groundnut, 13. The forest area increased form 404.8 million ha in
sunflower 1950-51 to 682.8 lakh has in 1992-93.
(2) soybean, groundnut, sugarcane (1) Area increased, but from 404.8 to 700 million
(3) sugarcane, cotton ha
(4) (1) and (3) (2) Area decreased to nearly two-third
(3) The statement is correct
6. Cropping pattern is changing due to (4) Correct estimated is not available
(1) domestic demands
(2) export requirement 14. From 1950-51 to 1993-94 gross cropped area
(3) (1) and (2) under
(4) None of the above (1) non-food grains increased
(2) foodgrains increased
7. Short duration varieties were introduced to (3) non-foodgrains decreased
(1) utilize residual moisture after post- kharif and (4) remained same
post-rabi season
(2) avoid land-wastage 15. On June 2000, the production of rice and wheat
(3) (1) and (2) was
(4) None of the above (1) 15.2 and 27.76 million tones
(2) 27.6 and 15.12 million tones
8. Residual moisture after post-kharif and post-rabi (3) 152 and 277.6 million tones
season can be utilized by (4) None of the above
(1) growing short-duration varieties
(2) inter-cropping 16. The relative share of foodgrains and non-
(3) (1) and (2) foodgrains in gross cropped area in 1993-94 is
(4) None of the above (1) 66.9% (2) 70%
(3) 72% (4) 75%
9. Which organization was the fore-runner to the
World Trade Organisation? 17. The main crop seasons are
(1) The World Bank (1) three (2) four
(2) General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (3) two (4) five
(3) The United Nations Development Fund
(4) The League of Nations

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18. The main crop seasons are 29. Indian seed programme includes
(1) Kharif, rabi, jayad (1) central and state government
(2) Kharif (2) ICAR, SAU’s
(3) Kharif and rabi (3) Public, Private and co-operative sectors
(4) Rabi (4) All of the above

19. The main crops of Kharif are 30. Indian Seed Sector consists of
(1) rice, jowar, bajra (1) NSC, SFCI, SSCs
(2) maize, cotton, sugarcane (2) Private seed companies
(3) (1) and (2) (3) None of the above
(4) None of the above (4) All of the above

20. The main crops of rabi are 31. A new variety has to be notified.
(1) wheat, jowar, barley (1) Not necessarily
(2) gram, linseed, rapeseed, mustard (2) True
(3) (1) and (2) (3) Only food grain crops
(4) None of the above (4) Only cash crops

21. The summer crops are 32. Seed is an essential commodity.

(1) rice, maize (1) Yes
(2) groundnut (2) No
(3) (1) and (2) (3) In some states
(4) None of the above (4) During drought lines only

22. Rice is a 33. The seed was declared essential under

(1) summer and kharif crop (1) Essential Commodity Act, 1955
(2) monsoon crop (2) Seed Act, 1971
(3) rabi crop (3) Essential Commodity Act, 1971
(4) None of the above (4) None of these

23. Wheat is a 34. Seed production and distribution is controlled

(1) rabi crop (2) summer crop under
(3) kharif crop (4) winter crop (1) The Seed (Control) Order, 1983
(2) The Essential Commodity Act, 1995
24. Sugarcane is a (3) Both of the above
(1) kharif crop (2) summer crop (4) None of the above
(3) jayad crop (4) rabi crop
35. The seed (control) order was promulgated in
25. Maize Zea mays (1) 1983 (2) 1971
(1) Kharif and summer crop (3) 1982 (4) 1973
(2) Rabi crop
(3) Winter crop 36. New Seed policy is in operation since
(4) Monsoon crop (1) 1988 (2) 1990
(3) 1993 (4) 1989
26. Groundnut is a
(1) Kharif crop 37. Main aim of New Seed Policy is to make
(2) Summer crop available to Indian farmers
(3) Rabi crop (1) Best quality seed material available anywhere
(4) Kharif and summer crop in world
(2) Best quality plant material available
27. Where are the headquarters of NATO anywhere in world
(1) Brussels (3) Both of the above
(2) London (4) None of the above
(3) Washington DC
(4) Paris 38. The plant quarantine clearance is requested under
(1) Plant, Fruit and Seed (Regulation of import in
28. The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is related to India) Order, 1989
(1) Asian Trade Development (2) Plant (Regulation of import in India) Order,
(2) International Cyber Crime 1989
(3) International Drug Trafficking (3) Seed Act, 1989
(4) Global Climate Change (4) None of the above

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39. Export of seed is allowed (2) preventing export of infectious material
(1) liberally except a few which needs licence (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) liberally allowed (4) None of the above
(3) licences is required
(4) not allowed 49. Plant quarantine activities also work for
(1) controlling / containing exotic plant diseases
40. Overall improvement in seed quality was the aim already introducing in the country
of: (2) controlling / containing exotic pests already
(1) National Seed Project III (SNP III) introduced in the country
(2) National Agriculture Control Board (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) National Seed Board (4) None of the above
(4) None of the above
50. Plant activities are implemented through
41. Central committee has notified following total (1) Destructive Insects and Pests Act
varieties of agricultural and horticultural crops (2) Plants, Fruits and Seeds Order 1989
(1) 2,385 (2) 3,000 (3) Insecticide and Biogas Act, 1989
(3) 2.000 (4) 3,157 (4) Both (1) and (2)

42. NSP-III stands for 51. Technology missions were started on

(1) National Seed Project III (1) oilseeds, pulses
(2) National Security Programme III (2) maize
(3) National Seed Programme III (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) National Safety Plan III (4) None of the above

43. During 1996-97, the fertilizer consumption was 52. From 1987-88 to 1996-97 the oilseed production
(1) 14.93 million tones was
(2) 15.83 million tones (1) doubled (2) tripled
(3) 18.23 million tones (3) quadrupled (4) None of the above
(4) 16.00 million tonnes
44. The lower consumption of fertilizers is mainly 53. Oilseeds production in 1996-97 was
due to (1) 24.4 million tones
(1) sharp price rise (2) 24.8 million tones
(2) drought (3) 30 million tones
(3) more farmers are depending upon manure (4) 30.3 million tonnes
(4) None of the above
54. The loan given for purchasing of seeds and
45. Centrally sponsored scheme of Balanced and fertilizers is called as
Integrated use of fertilizer aims (1) Long term (2) Short term
(1) to popularize the use of organic source of (3) Medium (4) All of these
nutrients
(2) to produce organic manure 55. Which of the following holding is smaller than
(3) Both of the above economic holding and may be able to provide a
(4) None of the above reasonable standard of leaving to the cultivator,
but not sufficient for the purpose of agricultural
46. Scheme on conducting studies and formulating operation is known as?
long-term mechanization strategies for each agro- (1) Economic holding
climatic zone started under (2) Operational holding
(1) Five-Year 9th Plan (3) Basic holding
(2) Five-Year 6th Plan (4) Optimum holding
(3) Five-Year 8th Plan
(4) Five-Year 4th Plan 56. The law of diminishing retime applies more
generally to which of the following industry
47. Scheme on popularization of Agricultural (1) Chemical (2) Film
equipment in North-Eastern states’ was started in (3) Agriculture (4) Cloths
(1) Five-Year 9th Plan
(2) Five-Year 8th Plan 57. In India which of the following state has
(3) Five-Year 6th Plan maximum number of tube-wells and pumpsets?
(4) Five-Year 5th Plan (1) Uttarranchal
(2) Himachal Pradesh
48. The Plant quarantine activities aims at (3) Uttar Pradesh
(1) preventing introduction of exotic pests and (4) Madhya Pradesh
diseases into the country

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58. A farmer having less than one hectare irrigated 67. In which of the following farming, large number
land is known as of farmers own and they manage the farm is
(1) Big farmers called as
(2) Small farmers (1) State farming
(3) Marginal farmers (2) Co-operative farming
(4) None of these (3) Collective farming
(4) None of the above
59. In which of the following farming land is owned
by Government and workers work as employers 68. Medium term loan are repayable up to .........years.
getting their wages regularly. (1) Three (2) Five
(1) Peasant farming (3) Two (4) None
(2) Collective fanning
(3) Co-operative farming 69. Short term laon is given for a period of
(4) State fanning ...............year.
(1) One (2) Two
60. Which of the following is a major objective of (3) Three (4) Four
planning commission?
(1) Increase agricultural production 70. Long term loan is given for the period of
(2) Increase employment opportunities ...........year.
(3) Reduce the pressure of population on land (1) 5 to 15 (2) 25 to 35
(4) All of the above (3) 45 to 55 (4) 65 to 75

61. The Food Corporation of India was established in 71. In Mahalwari system of land tenure, revenue was
January ….. to supply grains at reasonable prices collected by
to the consumers. (1) District Collector
(1) 1945 (2) 1955 (2) BDO
(3) 1965 (4) 1975 (3) Village Panchayat
(4) None of the above
62. The Food Corporation of India was stated initially
with the purpose of purchasing......... crop only. 72. Which of the following holding is smaller than
(1) Rice (2) Wheat economic holding and may be able to provide a
(3) Maize (4) Gram reasonable standard or living to the cultivator but
not sufficient for the purpose of Agricultural
63. The breach of Agricultural economics which deals operations is known as
with the principles and practices of farming with (1) Multiple farming
an object of obtaining the maximum possible (2) Co-operative farming
return from the land as a unit under a sound (3) Specialized farming
farming programme is known as (4) Irrigated farming
(1) Farm management
(2) Agricultural finance 73. A farming system in which more than 50%
(3) Agricultural marching receipts are derived from one sources:
(4) Agricultural Prices (1) Collective farming
(2) Co-operative farming
64. Which of the following is the economic process (3) Specialized farming
by which goods and service’s are exchanged and (4) Irrigation farming
their values determined in term of money prices?
(1) Credit 74. The best use of limited resources is studied under
(2) Marketing which of the following law:
(3) Budgeting (1) Law of substation
(4) Consumer surplus (2) Diminishing return
(3) Both of the above
65. Which of the following principle is very useful in (4) None of the above
determining the best use of limited resources?
(1) Law of diminishing regime 75. In India, Agricultural Price Commission was
(2) Law substitution established during the year.
(3) Law of equimarginal returns (1) 1945 (2) 1955
(4) Law of opportunity cost (3) 1965 (4) 1975

66. In which of the following farming the owner of 76. Reserve Bank of India was established during the
land is farmer year
(1) Pleasant (2) Mixed (1) 1925 (2) 1923
(3) Diversified (4) Specialized (3) 1935 (4) 1940

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77. In India, Agricultural Refinance Corporation was 88. Indian Forest Act 1927, as amended up to date,
established during the year; with short notes, in year
(1) 1962 (2) 1965 (1) 1971 (2) 1987
(3) 1968 (4) 1978 (3) 1991 (4) 2001

78. Which of the following is main function of 89. First Van Mahotsava was organized in India on
NABARD, established in 1982? (1) 1 July, 1946 (2) 1 July, 1947
(1) NABARD (3) 1 Aug. 1948 (4) 1 July, 1950
(2) Financing the weaker section
(3) Refinancing the Bank 90. Sore forestry is the part of
(4) Financing the Agricultural Universities (1) Farm forestry
(2) Social forestry
79. Which of the following is broad leaved species? (3) Recreation forestry
(1) Teak (4) Protected forestry
(2) Sal
(3) Sterculea 91. Indian forests are a source of
(4) All of the above (1) Pulp wood
(2) Gums
80. Which of the following is shade bearer tree? (3) Lac
(1) Magnifera indica (4) All of the above
(2) Mimosopa elengi
(3) Delinea indica 92. National Forest Policy was passed in
(4) All of the above (1) 1948
(2) 1952
81. Which of the following tree is suitable for sport (3) 1965
industry? (4) None of the above
(1) Morus Alba (2) Silver fir
(3) Spruce (4) Ailanthus 93. The aim(s) of social forestry was
(1) to provide fuel, fodder and small timber for
82. Forest area in India is the community
(1) 45 million hectare (2) to generate income and employment in rural
(2) 52 million hectare areas
(3) 73 million hectare (3) to help maintain environmental stability
(4) 62 million hectare (4) All of the above

83. U.P. Private Forest Act was passed in 94. Under man-made forestry programme, which of
(1) 1947 (2) 1948 the following important scheme have been
(3) 1945 (4) 1955 undertaken
(1) Plantation of quick growing species
84. Himachal Pradesh Forest Act was passed in (2) Plantation of economic species
(1) 1948 (2) 1958 (3) Plantation to rehabilitate degraded forests
(3) 1968 (4) 1978 (4) All of the above

85. Which of the following is best grazing season in 95. Headquarters of World Trade Organisation
forest? (WTO) is located in
(1) Pre monsoon (1) New York
(2) During monsoon (2) Tokyo
(3) Post-monsoon (3) Geneva
(4) Around the year (4) Berlin

86. Rangers training first started during the year of 96. Van Mahotsav was inaugurated in
(1) 1971 (2) 1978 (1) 1950 (2) 1951
(3) 1988 (4) 1989 (3) 1952 (4) 1935

87. Ranger training first started at 97. Central Rice Research Institute is located at
(1) Bhopal (1) Port Blair (2) Cuttack
(2) Dehra Dun (3) Manila (4) Bangalore
(3) Moussurrc
(4) Calcutta (Kolkata) 98. Which variety of rice is suitable for both rabi and
kharif in Andhra Pardesh and eastern states?
(1) VL Dhan 81 (2) Neerja
(3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103

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99. Janaki and Ravana are recently released varieties Choose the correct combination
of (1) I is correct
(1) Wheat (2) Maize (2) II and III are correct
(3) Rice (4) None of these (3) II is correct
(4) I and II are correct
100. Which variety of rice is grown in shallow lowland
areas of eastern India? 111. The growth period, crop performance and
(1) VL Dhan (2) Neerja productivity are determined by the combination of
(3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103 (1) temperature
(2) photoperiod
101. In rainfed upland, rice ecosystems gave higher (3) light intensity
returns with intercropping of (4) All of the above
(1) Pigeon pea
(2) Soybean 112. The rice crop tolerates submergence because
(3) Groundnut (1) the plant does not need oxygen
(4) All of the above (2) the plant has mechanism to transport oxygen
through leaves
102. International Rice Research Institute is located at (3) bacteria keep the rhizosphere oxidized
(1) Mexico (2) Cuttack (4) oxygen penetrating the root zone through air
(3) Manila (4) Florida movement is sufficient

103. Most of the varieties of rice have ….. of 113. Rice is grown in
chromosomes (1) riverine alluvium
(1) 10 pairs (2) 11 pairs (2) red-yellow
(3) 12 pairs (4) 13 pairs (3) red loamy
(4) terai
104. The rice grain is a
(1) Caryopsis 114. Rice production is the highest in areas having”’:
(2) Psoropsis I. high rainfall
(3) Both of the above II. canal irrigated lands
(4) None of these III. sunny days during and after mid June
Choose the correct combination using the codes
105. How many amino acids are normally present in given below
rice? (1) I is correct
(1) 15 (2) 17 (2) II and III are correct
(3) 19 (4) 21 (3) II is correct
(4) I and II are correct
106. Rice is crop, cultivated purely in rainfed upland in
(1) West Bengal (2) Bihar 115. Laterite, coastal alluvium, red, sandy, mixed red
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) All of these and black, and medium and shallow black soils
are suitable for the
107. Directorate of Rice Research is located at (1) Wheat (2) Rice
(1) Haryana (2) Patna (3) Maize (4) Barley
(3) Cuttack (4) Hyderabad
116. Total number of cropping patterns involving
108. Rice is a paddy and jowar is
(1) short day plant (1) 10 (2) 29
(2) long day plant (3) 30 (4) 60
(3) both of the above
(4) None of the above 117. Which type of days require for tuberization in
sweet potato
109. The red or purple colour of rice is owing to (1) Short days (2) Long days
(1) anthocyanin (3) Day neutral (4) All types
(2) non-anthocyanin
(3) plastids 118. Yield of Sree Bhadra, cultivar of sweet potato is
(4) None of these (1) 10-15 q/ha (2) 15-20 q/ha
(3) 20-25 q/ha (4) 30-35 q/ha
110. Consider the following statements: In paddy,
fertilizer application should be directed to the 119. Which variety is resistant to spidermite?
I. oxidised zone (1) S-856 (2) S-850
II. reduced zone (3) H-95 (4) H-110
III. surface of these statements

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120. Sugarbeet is a 132. Radish scab is caused by
(1) Tetraplarid (2) Hexaploid (1) Pythium aphamidermatu
(3) Octaploid (4) All of the above (2) Pythium ultimatum
(3) Streptomyces sp.
121. Aster yellow is disease of following plant (4) None of the above
(1) Daucus carda
(2) Aster 133. Powdery mildew of cucurbits is caused by:
(3) Both of the above (1) Altemaria brassicicola
(4) None of the above (2) Pythium ultimatium
(3) Sphacrotheca fuliginea
122. Toxic gases from brick kilns are the main cause of (4) None of the above
(1) Die back (2) Black top
(3) Twig die back (4) Stem canker 134. Clubrot and Black rot diseases are found in
(1) Chilli (2) Turnip
123. Which are self pollinated vegetable crops? (3) Pea (4) Cabbage
(1) Carrot, Garlic, Okra, Tomato
(2) Onion, Date Palm, Sweet Potato 135. In upper hills potato is sown in
(3) Pea, Okra, Potato, Chilli (1) January (2) May
(4) Brinjal, Lettuce, Garlic (3) September (4) December

124. Carrot is a rich source of: 136. The average yield of potato in the world is around
(1) Carotene (1) 15 tonnes/ha (2) 16 tonnes/ha
(2) Cynacobalamine (3) 17 tonnes/ha (4) 18 tonnes/ha
(3) Pyridnme
(4) All of the above 137. What is the rank of India in potato production in
the world?
125. Pusa Yamdagni is variety of (1) First (2) Third
(1) Radish (2) Potato (3) Fifth (4) Seventh
(3) Carrot (4) Spinach
138. Black heart of potato is owing to
126. Forking of carrot is owing to (1) Efficiently of CO2
(1) Excess of P (2) Compact soil (2) Lack of O2
(3) Excess of N (4) None of these (3) Efficiency of micronutrient
(4) All of the above
127. Average seed yield/ha of Asian carrots is
(1) 2-3 q (2) 5-6 q 139. Temperature and relative humidity for storage of
(3) Compact soil (4) All of these potato is
(1) 3.1°C and 60-70% RH
128. ‘Local red round’ golden ball is a cross of (2) 3.3°C and 80-85% RH
(1) Pusa Sadabahar (3) 3.5°C and 75-80% RH
(2) Pusa Kanchan (4) 3.7°C and 90-95% RH
(3) Pusa Yamdagini
(4) Pusa Rakshak 140. Dormancy of Solanum tuberosum tuber can be
broken through the use of
129. Pusa Meghali carrot is developed by the crossing (1) IAA(1%)
of (2) Cholorohydrine (3%)
(1) Pusa Yamdagni, HC-1 (3) Gibberellic acid (5%)
(2) Pusa Yamdagni, Nantes (4) Etherel (0.5%)
(3) Nantes, HC-1
(4) Pusa Keser, Nantes 141. Tristiza virus is transmitted by
(1) Insects
130. Black rot of carrot is caused by (2) Aphid
(1) Botrytis cinaria (3) Pests
(2) Alternaria radicina (4) All of the above
(3) Erwinia carotovaro
(4) None of these 142. Farming System is
(1) Crop System (2) Cropping System
131. Cavity spot in carrot is caused by (3) Crop Rotation (4) All of the above
(1) Deficiency of calcium
(2) High potassium
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of these

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143. The principle of crop rotation is 149. Suppose if maize-barley-late potato-green gram
(1) The crops with tap with roots should be are grown in first year and moong-potato-maize
followed by those which have a fibrous root are grown in second year. What will be its
system Rotation Intensity?
(2) The leguminous crops should be grown after (1) 350% (2) 300%
non-leguminous crops (3) 250% (4) 400%
(3) More exhaustive crops should be following
by less exhaustive crops 150. An example of relay cropping is
(4) Selection of the crops should be demand- (1) Maize-wheat
based (2) Maize-wheat-chari
(5) All of the above (3) Maize-potato-wheat-lobia
(4) Paddy-wheat-sugarcane
144. The crop of the same family ........ in succession
because they act like alternate hosts for many 151. Alley cropping means
insects, pests and diseases (1) Growing of pastures in between two widely
(1) should be grown spaced rows of fast growing trees
(2) should not be grown (2) Growing of field crops in between two
(3) both of the above on 50% basis widely spaced rows of fast growing trees
(4) None of the above (3) Growing of only short duration crops in
between two widely spaced of fast growing
145. In crop rotation crops should be grown trees
(1) On slopy lands which are prove to erosion (4) Growing of only fodder crops in between two
(2) Under dry farming the crop should be such widely spaced rows of fast growing trees
which can tolerate the draught
(3) In low lying and flood prone areas the crops 152. Maize-potato-wheat greengram is an example of
should be such which can tolerate water (1) Double cropping
stagnation (2) Multistoried cropping
(4) The selection of crops should be economical (3) Relay cropping
(5) The crops selective should suit to the soil and (4) Intercropping
climate condition
(6) All of the above 153. Specialized farming is an example of
(1) Type of farming
146. Crop rotation is essential because (2) System of farming
(1) Agricultural operations can be done timely (3) Capitalistic farming
for all the crops (4) None of the above
(2) Soil fertility is restored
(3) Maintains physical properties of the soil 154. Which Mexican wheat came in India?
(4) Helps in controlling insects, pests, and (1) Lermareja
diseases (2) Sonara - 63
(5) Controls the weeds in the fields (3) Sonara - 64
(6) All of the above (4) All of the above

147. Which of the following(s) is true for crop 155. Sustainable agriculture yield can be obtained
rotation? through
(1) It helps for proper utilization of all the (1) More resources
resources and inputs (2) More subsidies
(2) Farmers can get better price for his produces (3) More technological support
because of higher demands in the market (4) Better prices of the produce
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above 156. Which of the following is not a system of
farming?
148. Rotational Intensity is found out by (1) State farming
(1) Calculation of the number of crops grown in (2) Collective farming
a rotation (3) Co-operative farming
(2) Multiplication of 100 (4) Dry farming
(3) Division of the duration of that rotation
(4) All of the above

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157. Rotation of crops means? 164. In plains of eastern Uttar Pradesh an efficient
(1) Different crops are grown on a piece of land double cropping system is
in a pre-planned succession to maintain soil (1) Rice-Linseed
fertility besides higher crop production (2) Corn-Safflower
(2) Growing two crops at the same time on a (3) Both of the above
piece of land in either different row ratio or (4) None of the above
mixed together
(3) Growing crops on a piece of land over a fixed 165. In Bundelkhand region of Uttaranchal an efficient
period and their interaction with farm double cropping system is
resources and other farm enterprises with (1) Rice-Wheat
available technology (2) Rice-Chickpea
(4) All of the above (3) Sorghum-Chickpea
(4) Moongbean-Wheat
158. Why do we use intercropping? (5) All of the above
(1) Suppression of weed
(2) Reduction in plant and disease 166. In submontane soils of north-east Punjab an
(3) Stability in more yield efficient double cropping system is
(4) All of the above (1) Corn-mustard (2) Maize-wheat
(3) Paddy-wheat (4) Cotton-wheat
159. Which of the following is / are the advantages of (5) All of the above
intercropping?
(1) Improvement of soil health 167. Paddy-Transplanted Gobhi sarson and cotton-
(2) Improve agro eco-system transplanted Gobhi sarson are efficient double
(3) Better use of growth resources including cropping system in
light, nutrient and water (1) Vidarbha region
(4) All of the above (2) Bundelkhand region
(3) Submontane soils of the north-cast Punjab
(4) Malwa Plateau
160. What are disadvantages of intercropping?
(1) Labour intensive 168. In submontane soils of Jammu an efficient crop
(2) Control of pests and diseases or chemical rotation takes place as
weed control (1) Corn-Mustard
(3) Mechanisation is difficult (2) Corn-Safflower
(4) Adverse competitive effect by allelopathy (3) Both of the above
(5) All of the above (4) None of the above

161. The direct or indirect harmful effect on one plant 169. Moong bean-Safflower crop rotation suits to
or another through the production of chemical (1) Vidarbha region
substances that escape into the environment (2) Malwa Plateau
(1) Main crop (3) Bundelkhand region
(2) Component crop (4) None of the above
(3) Completion crop
(4) Allelopathy 170. In Malwa plateau the famous crop rotation is
(1) Sorghum-Safflower
162. In submontane north-west region an efficient (2) Sorghum-Chickpea
double cropping system has following crops (3) Soybcan-Safflower
rotation (4) All of the above
(1) Rice-Wheat
(2) Rice-Chickpea 171. If the yield of each crop is greater than the
(3) Corn-Chickpea expected yield, it is called
(4) Soybean-Wheat (1) Mutual inhibition
(5) All of the above (2) Inter co-operation
(3) Compensation
163. Who is associated with Narmada Bachao (4) None of the above
Andolan?
(1) A. B. Vajpayee 172. The Components of soil are
(2) Medha Patkar (1) Mineral material
(3) Mamata Bannerjee (2) Organic matter
(4) Sunder Lal Bahuguna (3) Water and air
(4) All of the above

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173. How many kinds of main rocks are there? 182. The process of soil formation include
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) the addition of organic and mineral materials
(3) 3 (4) 4 (2) the loss of these materials from the soil
(3) the translation of materials from one point to
174. Igneous rocks are formed by the another within the soil callus
(1) Cooling, hardening and crystallizing of (4) the transformation of mineral and organic
various kinds of lavas substances
(2) Consolidation of fragmentary rock materials (5) None of the above
and the products of their decomposition by (6) All of the above
water
(3) Action of intense heat and high pressure or 183. Pedology means
both resulting in considerable change the (1) a study of soil profile important both from
texture and mineral composition standpont of soil formation and soil
(4) Weathering development
(2) a study of crop husbandry
175. The common sedimentary rocks are (3) a coarse grained soil
(1) conglomerate (4) None of the above
(2) sandstone
(3) shale and limestone 184. Shamrock is the emblem of which country?
(4) All of the above (1) Denmark
(2) Ireland
176. The common igneous rocks found in India are (3) Spain
(1) granites (acidic) (4) Italy
(2) basalts or the deccan trap (basic)
(3) Both (1) and (b) 185. A unit of Kaolinte crystal lattice consists of silica
(4) None of the above and aluminium in the ratio of
(1) 1 2 (2) 2 1
177. Unconsolidated sedimentary rocks are the forms (3) 1 1 (4) 1 3
of
(1) alluvial deposits (2) aeolian deposits 186. A unit of Montmorillonite crystal lattice consists
(3) glacial deposits (4) All of the above of silica and alumina in the ratio of
(1) 1:2 (b) 2 1
178. The principal agents of physical weathering are (3) 2 3 (d) 3 2
(1) Temperature
(2) Wind and Water 187. A unit of illite consists of
(3) Plants and Animals (1) silica
(4) All of the above (2) alumina
(3) potassium
179. The Chemical decomposition of rocks is brought (4) All of the above
about by
(1) Solution 188. The CEC value of kaolinite is ….. me / 100 g.
(2) Hydration (1) 3-10 (2) 10-30
(3) Hydrolysis (3) 80-150 (4) None of these
(4) Carbonation
(5) Oxidation and Reduction 189. The CEC value of illite is ..... me/100 g.
(6) All of the above (1) 10-20 (2) 10-40
(7) None of the above (3) 20-30 (4) 10-30

180. Phosphorus fixation refers to the phenomenon of 190. The CEC value of montmorillonite ..... is me/ 100
(1) absorption of P2O5 by the plant and synthesis g.
of biological compounds (1) 80-140 (2) 80-150
(2) leaching of from soil by percolating waters (3) 80-160 (4) 80-170
(3) conversion of soluble phosphorus into plant
unavailable forms 191. If a soil has more than 15% exchangeable sodium
(4) anion exchange with colloidal constituents of it is considered to be
soil (1) acidic
(2) alkali
181. The ratio of organic carbon to organic matter in (3) neutral
soils is (4) None of the above
(1) 1.0 1.7 (2) 1.0 2.0
(3) 1.7 1.0 (4) 20.0 1.0

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192. Humus soil contains carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, 202. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana has
hydrogen and ash in the ratio of: developed mounted type semiautomatic drip type
(1) 10 7 1 1 1 sugarcane planter. A tractor of 25 or more horse
(2) 7 10 1 1 1 power can be used for operating this machine.
(3) 1 7 10 1 1 The field capacity of this machine is ha/day.
(4) None of the above (1) 2.43 (2) 2.02
(3) 1.62 (4) 0.81
193. Organic carbon is found .................. % in deep
black soil. 203. A power tiller operated orchard sprayer is
(1) 0.28 - 1.10 developed by ......................... centre of AICRP on
(2) 0.68 - 6.53 power tillers
(3) 0.34 - 0.77 (1) HPKV, Shimla
(4) None of the above (2) MPKV, Rahuri
(3) CIPHET, Ludhiana
194. Humus soil contains carbon..............%. (4) All of the above
(1) 35 (2) 50
(3) 5 (4) 5 204. One can plant ..................... of potato in a way
with a tractor mounted row and space maker cum
195. There is a net increase in the mineralization of fertilizer applicator and a 3 bottom ridger.
organic nitrogen in soil when (1) 4.05-4.86 ha
(1) C N = 20 - 30 1 (2) 5.67-6.48 ha
(2) C N = 20 1 (3) 2.43-3.24 ha
(3) C N = 30 1 (4) 1.62-2.43 ha
(4) nitrogen is taken up by the crops
205. The planter is suitable for sowing ….. using
196. Soils with high pH are generally deficient in appropriate seed plates.
(1) Zn and Mn (2) B and Fe (1) small and bold seeds
(3) Cu and Mo (4) Ca and Mg (2) large and bold seeds
(3) only large seeds
197. Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering is (4) None of the above
located at
(1) Baroda (2) Mumbai 206. In a semi-automatic plants with audible timing
(3) Bhopal (4) Barrackpore device, the row width, plant spacing and depth
can be adjusted and controlled. Row spacing can
198. A power-tiller operated multi-crop planter is be controlled from 45 to 75 cm. A team of 4 to 5
developed by person can plant ….. to ….. ha/day.
(1) CIHPET, Ludhiana (1) 2.43-2.83 (2) 2.02-2.43
(2) HPKV, Palampur (3) 1.62-2.43 (4) 1.21-2.43
(3) MPKV, Rahuri
(4) None of the above 207. Central Institute of Post-harvest Engineering and
Technology is located at
199. The seed planters are available in different sizes (1) Lalitpur (2) Ludhiana
viz single row, two row and............ according to (3) Delhi (4) Dehradun
the source of power.
(1) Four rows (2) Five rows 208. Tractor mounted ring fed potato planter can
(3) Six rows (4) Seven rows plant.......... to ...........ha 8 hr/day.
(1) 0.60-0.81 (2) 0.81-1.01
200. A vertical conveyor reaper windrower is designed (3) 1.01-1.21 (4) 1.21-1.62
for harvest crop at
(1) CIRCOT, Mumbai 209. A power-litter-operated Potato planter-cum-
(2) MPKV, Rahuri fertilizer applicator is developed by
(3) PAU, Ludhiana (1) CIAE, Bhopal
(4) CIAE, Bhopal (2) MPKV, Rahuri
(3) HPKV, Palampur
201. The labour requirements potato planters are (4) All of these
reduced to..........to man/hrs than 100 to 120
man/hr used in manual planting of potatoes. 210. The population of draft animal in India
(1) 30 to 40 (2) 40 to 50 is..............millions.
(3) 50 to 60 (4) 60 to 70 (1) 80 (2) 70
(3) 60 (4) 50

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211. A pair of bullocks has about............ hp for usual (3) Both of the above
farm work. (4) None of the above
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0
(3) 3.0 (4) 4.0 221. There are.......... types of tractors.
(1) 1 (2) 5
212. In which type of engine liquid fuel under high (3) 2 (4) 4
pressure of 105 kg. per sq. cm or above at the
right moment directly into the combustion 222. Total breeds of Cattle in India are
chamber which contain highly compressed air. (1) 28 (2) 27
(1) Carbucrator (2) Diesel (3) 10 (4) 30
(3) Duel fuel (4) All of these
223. Total number of breeds of buffalo is
213. Which of the following device is used for (1) 7 (2) 10
changing the voltage from one value to another (3) 15 (4) 8
without a change in frequency?
(1) Fuel Nozzles (2) Piston 224. Famous cattle breeds of Gujarat are
(3) Transformer (4) Power Station (1) Kankrej and Gir
(2) Hariana
214. The desi wooden plough is the most commonly (3) Sahiwal
used implement of puddling on small farms of (4) Sindhi
India. It is also used for dry land tillage. Output of
this plough is usually-ha/day 225. Kankrej is a
(1) 0.2 to 0.3 (2) 0.5 to 0.8 (1) draught
(3) 0.6 to 0.8 (4) 1.62 to 2.43 (2) dual purpose
(3) milch
215. The field capacity of the planter was ........... for (4) None of the above
different crops with field efficiency from 71.5 to
75%. 226. Gujarat is name of Kankrej in
(1) 0.50-0.58 ha/hr (1) Gujarat (2) Brazil
(2) 0.20 - 0.28 ha/hr (3) USA (4) UK
(3) 0.40 - 0.48 ha/hr
(4) None of the above 227. Female Tharparker is a
(1) good draught animal
216. The strole-Bore - Ratio of tractor engine is about (2) excellent milk breed
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.00 (3) poor draught animal
(3) 1.50 (4) 1.25 (4) None of the above

217. A 6 - row tractor mounted inclined plate planter is 228. Male Tharparker is a
designed and developed by (1) good draught animal
(1) CIAE, Bhopal (2) excellent meat breed
(2) PAU, Ludhiana (3) poor draught animal
(3) CIPHET, Ludhiana (4) None of the above
(4) All of the above
229. Most popular dual-purpose cattle breed of Indo-
218. Piston speed of the high speed tractor engine gangetic plains is
range between ........... m/min. (1) Hariana
(1) 100 to 500 (2) 200 to 500 (2) Surti
(3) 300 to 500 (4) 400 to 500 (3) Meharana
(4) None of the above
219. A wide swath high clearance tractor sprayer has
been developed by ........ its effective field 230. Krishna valley cattle breed is native of:
capacity is about 3 ha/hr. (1) along the river Kr’shna and adjoining are
(1) CCSHAU, Hisar areas of Karnatan. .
(2) PAU, Ludhiana (2) Karnataka
(3) HSR, Lucknow (3) Tamil Nadu
(4) SBI, Coitnbatore (4) Gujarat

220. ..................is a special system of leveling chiefly 231. Male Krishna valley were used to
employed for establishing bench marks with high (1) carry military equipment
precision at widely distributed point. (2) loads
(1) Precise leveling (3) meat
(2) Transverse levelling (4) None of the above

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232. Ongole breed is suitable for 244. In West Indies new breed was developed by
(1) heavey draught work crossing Jersey M/F
(2) light agricultural work (1) Sahiwal
(3) meat (2) Rathi
(4) None of the above (3) Gir
(4) None of the above
233. Ongole is found in
(1) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh 245. At Vijayanajram State breed developed was
(2) Karnataka (1) Hallikar
(3) Maharashtra (2) Krishna Valley
(4) Gujarat (3) Rathi
(4) None of the above
234. Santa-Gertrudis breed of texas has inheritance of
(1) Ongole (2) Hariana 246. Hallikar was used by Tipu Sultan for
(3) Tharparker (4) Sahiwal (1) Carrying cannons
(2) Draught
235. Rathi is found in (3) Milk
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar (4) Meat
(3) Assam (4) Rajasthan
247. West Bengal University of Agriculture and
236. Gir is native of Fisheries Science is located at
(1) Punjab (2) Gujarat (1) Kolkata
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar (2) Barrackpore
(3) Kalyani
237. Most popular export cattle is (4) None of the above
(1) Gir (2) Hariana
(3) Sahiwal (4) Rathi 248. Fish production during 2000 was............. million
Tonnes India.
238. In Brazil Gyr is name of (1) 55.81 (2) 0.5581
(1) Gir (2) Rathi (3) 5.581 (4) 558.1
(3) Surti (4) Mehsana
249. During 2000-2001 subsidies to fish farmers
239. Indo-Brazil cattle has been developed by: increased for
(1) India (1) Construction of ponds and tanks
(2) Brazil (2) Input for fish cultures
(3) South America (3) Building of houses
(4) None of the above (4) All of the above

240. Hometract of famous Red Sindhi cattle is: 250. Mariculture technologies are developed for
(1) Karanchi, Hyderabad of Pakistan (1) Green mussel
(2) Pakistan (2) Pearl oysters
(3) Punjab (3) Clams and sea weed
(4) Gujarat (4) All of the above

241. Red Sindhi was used to develop (1) 251. PUFA stands for
Karan Swiss (1) Poly unsaturated Fatty Acid
(2) Frieswal (2) Poly urinary follicle agency
(3) Sunnandini (3) Polymerase unsaturated fatty acid
(4) None of the above (4) None of the above

242. Sahiwal cattle is native of:. 252. The fish export has crossed the value of in 1999-
(1) Punjab (2) Haryana 2000
(3) Gujarat (4) Pakistan (1) more than Rs 35010 millions
(2) Rs 35010 millions
243. Best breed of Asian continent is (3) Less than Rs 35010 millions
(1) Sahiwal (4) None of the above
(2) Hariana
(3) Rathi 253. What is the position of India in inland fish
(4) None of the above production in world ?
(1) First (2) Second
(3) Third (4) Fourth

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254. Central Institute of Fisheries Education is located 264. ‘Shriniketan’ project was developed by Shri
at Rabindranath Tagore in collaboration with ...........
(1) Solan (2) Kochi(Cochin) in 1921 at Shriniketan in Bengal for the uplift of
(3) Mumbai (4) None of these the villagers.
(1) Spencer Hatch (2) W S Wiser
255. WSSV stands for (3) L K Elmhirst (4) Albert Mayer
(1) Waste Soil Salinity Virus
(2) White Spot Syndrome Virus 265. Which of the following project was started by Mr.
(3) White Spot Syndrome Vessel Specher Hatch in Travancore State under the
(4) None of the above auspices of YMCA in 1921?
(1) Sahibabad (2) Etawah
256. What is the position of India in fish production in (3) Delhi (4) Marthandam
the world ?
(1) 5 (2) 6 266. Which of the following project was originally
(3) 7 (4) 8 started to rehabilitate the displaced person from
Pakistan?
257. In India, Integrated Rural Development (1) Etawah (2) Nilokheri
Programme was adopted in which of the Five (3) IVS (4) Sevagram
Year Plan?
(1) First (2) Third 267. In training and visit system each sub-divisions
(3) Sixth (4) Eight extension officer supervises and provides
technical support to the eight........... under this
258. Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labours jurisdiction.
Agencies were set up on the recommendation (1) PAU (2) TNAU
made by ............ during 1969. (3) AEO (4) KAU
(1) NABARD
(2) CDP 268. Subdivisional extension officers has a team of
(3) NDRP subject matter specialists, each team has three
(4) Rural Credit Review Committee specialist from which of the following discipline
(1) Agronommy,Plant-Proteetion, Extension
259. The Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated (2) Botany, Horticulture, Agronomy
in Maharashtra during the Fourth Plan period in (3) Agricultural Extension, Economics,
(1) 1970-71 (2) 1980-81 Agronomy
(3) 1990-91 (4) 2000-01 (4) None of the above

260. Anyodya Yojana Programme was launched on 2 269. Which of the following officer is responsible for
October, ............ for upliftment of the poorest of arranging forthrightly training session to all staff
the poor families in every village of Rajasthan. in T & V system.
(1) 1978 (2) 1976 (1) CSAUA & T (2) GBPUA & T
(3) 1977 (4) 1989 (3) GAU (4) SMS

261. The National Scheme of Training of Rural Youth 270. Which of the following authority is responsible
for Self’Employment was initiated from August for the smooth operation of all extension activities
1979 with the principle objectives of in the district that comprise the zone?
(1) Provide employment of the poorest (1) PAO (2) SDEO
(2) Removal of unemployment among youth (3) JDA (4) AEO
(3) Study of tribal areas
(4) Systematic training of backward youth 271. In India Panchayati Raj system was introudced by
the recommendation of committee
262. ‘Jawahar Rozgar Yojana’ was announced and (1) Basant Rao Patil
implemented on 28th April ............ by Village (2) Indira Gandhi
Panchayat all over the country. (3) Ashoka Mehata
(1) 1958 (2) 1968 (4) Balawantrai Mehta
(3) 1989 (4) 1993
272. Which of the following is the major characteristic
263. ‘Firka Development Project’ was started for the of good extension programme?
Rural Development in India during 1947 by (1) Awarenso
which of the State Government. (2) Adoption
(1) Maharashtra (2) Punjab (3) Flexible
(3) Haryana (4) Tamil Nadu (4) None of the above

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273. The degree to which an individualis relatively 281. Which of the following is opulent for the
earlier in adopting new ideas than other member extension workers and the people to follow in
of his social system is known as moving forward ?
(1) Canmumcation (1) Innovators
(2) Adoption (2) Adoption
(3) Innovativeness (3) Develop plan of work
(4) Laggards (4) None of the above

274. The first farmers who adopt a new idea before 282. In extension programme planning the process of
anyone else in their community are called as determining the extent to which objective have
(1) Awareners been attained is known as;
(2) Innovators (1) Evaluation
(3) Evaluation (2) Laggards
(4) All of the above (3) Early Majority
(4) None of the above
275. When compared with the average farmer which of
the farmers have slightly higher education, are 283. In Programme planning assembling of facts
little younger in age and participate more in pertaining to
formal organization ? (1) Awareness
(1) Awareners (2) Innovations
(2) Adoption (3) Keeping the record up-to-date
(3) Early adopters (4) None of the above
(4) All of the above
284. In Extension programme planning analysis or
276. Which of the following farmers are last adopt new interpretation of situation means
ideas, have the least education, few social contact (1) NDP
and low participation in formal organization? (2) Translation of facts into familiar language
(1) Laggards (2) Early majority (3) KVK
(3) Adopter id All of the above (4) None of the above

277. A continuous series of activities or Co-operation 285. In extension programme planning the valuation of
leader leading to the development of a definite all stages should be done at:
plan of action to accomplish particular objective (1) The beginning of programme year
is known as (2) The end of programme year
(1) Training and Visit (3) Before implementation of programme
(2) Programme Planning (4) None of the above
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above 286. The guidance, leadership and corneal of the
efforts of a group of individuals toward some
278. Evaluation is an essential step in the extension common goal is known as
educational process and is an integral part of: (1) Administration
(1) Programme Planning (2) Extension education
(2) Adoption (3) Both of the above
(3) Both of the above (4) None of the above
(4) None of the above
287. The assembling of two or more integrating human
279. In extension programme planning plan of work being collectively seeking to attain some common
refers to description of goal is known as
(1) Awareness (1) NDP
(2) Innovators (2) KVK
(3) Rural Sociology (3) ORP
(4) Situation and problems (4) Extension organization

280. The impact of Green Revolution in India has been 288. As an extension teaching method television can
more spectacular on the production of: be grouped under
(1) Cereals (1) Group contact
(2) Vegetables (2) Visual
(3) Both of the above (3) Individual contact
(4) None of the above (4) Audio-visual

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289. Which of the following is the major principle of 299. A body of general principles or laws of a field of
method demonstration? knowledge activity is known as:
(1) Seeing is believing (1) Education
(2) Learning by doing (2) Extension
(3) To develop leadership (3) Amplification
(4) None of the above (4) None of the above

290. Reserve Bank of India was established in year 300. A process by which a person becomes changed in
(1) 1910 (2) 1923 his behaviour through self activity is known as
(3) 1946 (4) 1929 (1) Teaching (2) Learning
(3) Amplification (4) Education
291. The unit of development community
Development programme was 301. Which of the following Extension teaching
(1) Tahsil (2) State method is face to face type of individual contact
(3) Village (4) District by the extension worker with the farmer at his
home?
292. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) (1) Farm and Home visit
was established in (2) Office call
(1) 1909 (2) 1923 (3) Result demonstration
(3) 1946 (4) 1929 (4) None of the above

293. Which of the following is the principle objective 302. Farm and Home visit method is more
of extension education? advantageous toward
(1) Teaching of Rural People (1) Quick communication
(2) Development of Leadership (2) Gaining confidence of farmers
(3) Development of Rural people (3) Crediting general awareness among farmers
(4) None of the above (4) None of the above

294. Which of the following is the extension teaching 303. Which of the following is fundamental objective
methods it includes posters, photographs, film of method demonstration conducted by the
strips, black boards, etc. extension worker?
(1) Audio-visual (2) Visual (1) Show worth of a practice to the farmer
(3) Written (4) Spoken (2) Teach a skill to the farmer
(3) Influence the farmer
295. Indian Agricultural Research Institute was (4) Influence the authority
established at Pusa in Bihar in
(1) 1901 (2) 1910 304. What is the important advantage of suing farm
(3) 1905 (4) 1925 publications?
(1) Useful for developing new techniques
296. The basic idea of community development (2) Can reach a large number of people quickly
programme was and simultaneously
(1) Building of School (3) Reach people directly
(2) Building of Roads (4) Arouse and sustain interest
(3) Building of Human being
(4) None of the above 305. Which of the following is a medium for mass
communication and tool for giving information
297. The process of teaching rural people, how to live and entertainment?
better by learning ways that improve their form, (1) Circular letter
home and community institution (2) Office call
(1) Extension Work (3) Telephone call
(2) Extension Programme (4) None of the above
(3) Extension Education
(4) None of the above 306. Which of the following is an instructional
communicating device in which the message can
298. Which of the following step of Extension be heard as well as seen?
education process consist of review of previous (1) Visual (2) Audio
efforts and results which reveal a new situation? (3) Audio-visual (4) Mass contact
(1) Reconsideration
(2) Evaluation
(3) Analysis of situation
(4) Deciding upon objectives

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307. Which of the following is an instructional or 318. The art of directing the efforts or harnessing the
communicating device can be used as audio- energy of human being to the attainment of
visual aids? organization needs and objectives is known
(1) Television (1) Administration
(2) Dramas and Puppet shows (2) Supervision
(3) Sound films (3) Community development
(4) All of the above (4) Evaluation

308. Which of the following is a process of change 319. Which of the following is the key person or the
from the traditional way of living to progressive pivot of the Community Development
way of living? Programme, helping the village people in
(1) Motivation improving all phases of village life?
(2) Communication (1) Dirtrict Magistrate
(3) Rural development (2) Gramsevak
(4) Extension education (3) Basic Siksha Adhikari
(4) Block Development Officer
309. The art and science of helping adult to learn is
known as 320. Which of the following authority attending the
(1) Sociology administrative duties in community development
(2) Psychology programme?
(3) Dendrology (1) Gramsevak
(4) All of the above (2) BDO
(3) Village Extension Worker
310. National Extension Service Programme was (4) Tahsildar
stated in India during
(1) 1965 (2) 1948 321. A group of people in more or less permanent
(3) 1953 {d) 1955 association who are organized for their collection
activities and who feel that they belong together is
311. In India the Pilot Project for Rural Development known as
was started in (1) Family (2) House
(1) 1971 (2) 1980 (3) Society (4) Community
(3) 1981 (4) 1979
322. Which of the following is social and cultural unit
312. In India the ‘Rural Landless Employment possesses a basically uniform organization ?
Guarantee Scheme’ was started during (1) Family (h) Village
(1) 1971 (2) 1980 (3) Society (4) Block
(3) 1981 (4) 1979
323. The role and status of one or more individuals in
313. The Eight Five Year plan was started during the the structure and functioning of group
year organizations which enable these group to meet a
(1) 1990-91 (2) 1992-93 need is known as
(3) 1993-94 (4) 1994-95 (1) Personality (2) Leadership
(3) Organization (4) Society
314. ‘Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Scheme’
was started in 324. The degree to which an innovation is consistent
(1) 1957 (2) 1978 with existing values and past experience of the
(3) 1967 (4) 1970 adopters known as
(1) Computability
315. In India the use of television was started in (2) Divisibility
(1) 1962 (2) 1967 (3) Communicability
(3) 1982 (4) 1976 (4) None of the above

316. In India ‘NABARD’ was established in year 325. Which of the following is one of the important
(1) July 1981 (2) July 1982 function of extension workers?
(3) October 1983 (4) July 1984 (1) To teach discipline to farmers
(2) To diffuse new ideas and practices
317. ‘Command Area Development Programme’ was (3) To implement demonstration in the field
lauuched in (4) None of the above
(1) 1971 (2) 1972
(3) 1973 (4) 1974

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326. Which of the following is the fundamental 335. The cost which is not paid to others, is called
objective of Community Development in India? (1) Implicit cost
(1) Destination man (2) Explicit cost
(2) Development of people (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Both of the above (4) None of these
(4) None of the above
336. Extension in demand means
327. Which of the following bank does not provide (1) Change in demand due to change in Income
finance to the farmer for capital working? (2) Change in demand due to change in price
(1) Nationalized Bank (3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Regional Rural Bank (4) None of these
(3) Primary Credit Society
(4) Primary Land Development Bank 337. The cost incurred by a firm in purchasing any
factor of production is referred to as
328. Regional Rural Bank was established under the (1) Implicit cost
sponsorship of nationalized bank (2) Variable cost
(1) 1964 (2) 1974 (3) Explicit cost
(3) 1954 (4) 1984
338. At equilibrium, the slope of the indifference curve
329. In India ‘Panchayati Raj System’ was started first is.
in which of the following state (1) Greater than the slope of the budget line
(1) Rajasthan (2) Smaller than the slope of the budget line
(2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Equal to the slope of the budget line
(3) Maharashtra (4) None of these
(4) Karnataka
339. When total utility increases marginal utility is
330. Which of the following is national level body for (1) Positive (2) Negative
policy formulation of rural development (3) Zero (4) None of these
programme in India?
(1) Community Development Programme 340. If the quantity of a commodity demanded does not
(2) Election Commission change when its price changes, the demand curve
(3) Planning Commission is
(4) National Development Council (1) Positive slope (2) Vertical
(3) Negative slope (4) None of these
331. Average product is equal to marginal product
when 341. The meaning of word ‘Economics’ is most closely
(1) Average product is minimum associated with the word
(2) Average product is maximum (1) Free (2) Scarce
(3) Marginal product is zero (3) Unlimited (4) None of these
(4) None of the above
342. A Market structure with large number of firms
332. When we study a problem from particular to selling homogeneous product is known as
general, the method is known as (1) Prefect Competition
(1) Inductive method (2) Monopoly market
(2) Deductive method (3) Monopolistic Competition
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(4) None of the above
343. The canons of taxation were given by
333. When marginal product is zero, the total product (1) Robbin (2) Pigou
is (3) Adam Smith (4) None of these
(1) Minimum
(2) Maximum 344. The want satisfying power of a commodity is
(3) Zero called
(4) None of the above (1) Consumption (2) Utility
(3) Production (4) Demand
334. The economics of farming is dependent upon
(1) Farm size 345. Sun light is
(2) Agri. price (1) Economic good
(3) Av. yield and cost of production (2) Free good
(4) All of these (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

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346. The demand for common salt is 356. If two items are complementary then demand of
(1) Inelastic one item will increase for ...........in price of
(2) Prefectly elastic another item
(3) highly in elastic (1) Decrease (2) Increase
(4) None of these (3) No effect (4) Not known

347. Supply for perishables in very short run. 357. Which of the following is not component of farm
(1) can be decreased business
(2) can be increased (1) Land (2) Capital
(3) remains constant (3) Management (4) Environment
(4) None of these
358. Which of the following contributes Rob-bins
348. The total fixed cost curve more to national income and stand next to
(1) decreases as output increases agriculture
(2) increases with the level of output (1) Transportation
(3) remains constant at all the output levels (2) Mining and Manufactures
(4) None of these (3) Forestry
(4) Animal husbandry
349. Diversified farming is a
(1) Type of farming 359. Gross return + change in inventory total cost is
(2) System of farming equal to
(3) Both of the above (1) Tax
(4) None of the above (2) Farm Income
(3) Family Income
350. Enterprise budgeting deals with input output (4) None of the above
relationship of
(1) A single enterprise of the farm 360. Opportunity cost is
(2) A set of different enterprises (1) Cost of cultivation
(3) Both of the above (2) Cost of next best alternative Foregone
(4) None of the above (3) Cost of production
(4) Cost of supplementary enterprise.
351. If substitution ratio is equal to price ratio then cost
will be 401. What is the average population of India’s villages
(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing (1) Less than 1000
(3) Minimum (4) Maximum (2) More than 1000
(3) More than 1500
352. If change in price is 1% and charge in demand is (4) Less than 500
1% then demand will be called
(1) Inelastic 362. Economics is primarily a study of
(2) Elastic (1) Wealth (2) Wants
(3) Proportionate elastic (3) Man (4) None of these
(4) None of the above
363. Man’s wants are
353. The amount added to total cost for producing (1) Unlimited (2) Limited
additional unit of output is known as (3) Scarce (4) Countable
(1) Average cost (2) Total cost
(3) Marginal cost (4) None of them 364. Means to satisfy human wants are
(1) Limited
354. The return from best alternate use of that input (2) Unlimited
forgone by putting it to the present use is known (3) 1 and 2 both
as (4) None of the above
(1) Total cost
(2) Marginal cost 365. Marshall’s definition of Economics has been
(3) Opportunity cost criticised by
(4) Average cost (1) Robbins (2) Carlyle
(3) Ricardo (4) Ruskin
355. The law which is very useful in determining the
best use of limited resources is 366. The author of the “Wealth of Nations” was
(1) Law of substitution (1) Ricardo (2) Adam Smith
(2) Law of opportunity cost (3) Marshall (4) Robbins
(3) Law of diminishing return
(4) None of these

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367. Economics is a.....Science 378. The more we have of things, the desire for
(1) Political (2) Natural additional units of it will be
(3) Social (4) None of these (1) More
(2) Less
368. Economics is an............ (3) Remains the same
(1) Art (4) None of the above
(2) Art and Science both
(3) Science 379. A consumer spends his income according to the
(4) None of these law of
(1) Increasing cost
369. Laws of Economics are not as certain as (2) Least cost
(1) Moral laws (3) diminishing marginal utility
(2) Government laws (4) Equi-marginal utility
(3) Physical laws
(4) All above 380. We get maximum satisfaction when
(1) Average utility is decrease
370. Goodwill of a business is a (2) Marginal utility is the same
(1) Non-material good (3) Total utility is decrease
(2) Material and non-material (4) Total utility is the same
(3) Material goods
(4) None of the above 381. During the period of economic depression which
sector provides more stability to the economy
371. Free goods have a great (1) Industries (2) Agriculture
(1) Value in exchange (3) Transport (4) Service sector
(2) Transferability
(3) Value in use 382. Utility of the last unit is called as
(4) 1 and 2 both (1) Initial utility
(2) Zero utility
372. Patents and copy-rights are (3) Marginal utility
(1) Non-material goods (4) Total utility
(2) Transferable goods
(3) Material goods 383. A holding which allows a man a chance of
(4) Scarce goods producing sufficient to support himself and his
family in reasonable comfort after paying his
373. A table is a necessary expenses is called
(1) Non-material good (1) Economic holding
(2) Material good (2) Basic holding
(3) Free good (3) Optimum holding
(4) None of the above (4) Operational holding

374. Tulsidas’s works are 384. When price rises, demand

(1) International wealth (1) Contracts
(2) Social wealth (2) Increases
(3) Personal wealth (3) Decreases
(4) None of the above (4) Remains the same

375. Wealth is a 385. If more is demanded at the same price, it is a case

(1) Flow (2) Fund of
(3) Capital (4) Income (1) Increase in demand
(2) Extension in demand
376. As income increases the expenditure on light, fuel (3) Decrease in demand
and rent generally (4) Contraction in demand
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases 386. Creation of utility by way of marketing is known
(3) Remains the same as
(4) None of the above (1) Production (2) Exchange
(3) Consumption (4) Distribution
377. The expenditure on .... increase as income
increases
(1) Luxuries (2) Necessaries
(3) Comfort (4) AU of these

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387. If more and more capital and labour are applied to 394. Quasi-rent rises in
a fixed piece of land, the system of cultivation of (1) Capital (2) Management
farming is known as (3) Law (4) Labour
(1) Extensive cultivation
(2) Large scale farming 395. The classical theory of interest is also called as
(3) Intensive cultivation (1) Lonable funds theory
(4) Large scale farming (2) Real theory of interest
(3) Liquidity prefrence theory
388. The modern theory of population is called as (4) Monetary theory of interest
(1) Demand and supply theory of population
(2) Classical theory of population 396. Marshall defines Economics as
(3) Optimum theory fo population (1) The study of human behaviour as a
(4) None of the above relationship between ends and scarce means
which have alternative uses
389. Which one of the following is not capital (2) Fundamentally a science of scarcity
(1) Skill of a doctor (3) The study of mankind in the ordinary
(2) Cloth in a shop business of life
(3) Goodwill of business (4) An enquiry into the nature and causes of the
(4) Furniture in a house wealth of nation

390. Mines and Fisheries are subject of the law of 397. Utility in Economics means
(1) Constant return (1) Satisfaction
(2) Diminishing return (2) Pleasure
(3) Increasing return (3) Usefulness
(4) None of the above (4) Want satisfying power of an commodity.

391. In a manufacturing industry generally applies the 398. Marginal utility of a commodity is the utility
law of derived from the purchase of
(1) Increasing return (1) Any extra unit
(2) Decreasing return (2) The first unit
(3) Constant return (3) The last one unit
(4) All of the above (4) All the units

392. Rent arises under 399. Marginal cost is equal to

(1) Intensive cultivation (1) The difference between average cost and the
(2) Extensive cultivation cost of the last unit produced
(3) Both intensive cultivation and Extensive (2) The extra cost of an additional unit produced
cultivation (3) The average cost of the total output produced.
(4) None of the above (4) The cost of the last but one unit produced.

393. The theory of rent is associated with the name of 400. Which one of the following is correct statement
(1) Marshall (2) Pigou for market
(3) Malthus (4) Ricardo (1) Potential buyers and sellers of the product.
(2) An organization which provides facilities for
exchange of commodities
(3) A place where commodities are bought and
sold.
(4) All of these

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 Answers Key

1.(2) 2.(2) 3.(1) 4.(1) 5.(1) 6.(3) 7.(1) 8.(1) 9.(2) 10.(3)
11.(1) 12.(1) 13.(3) 14.(1) 15.(1) 16.(1) 17.(1) 18.(1) 19.(3) 20.(3)
21.(3) 22.(1) 23.(1) 24.(1) 25.(1) 26.(4) 27.(1) 28.(4) 29.(4) 30.(4)
31.(2) 32.(1) 33.(1) 34.(1) 35.(3) 36.(1) 37.(3) 38.(1) 39.(1) 40.(1)
41.(1) 42.(1) 43.(1) 44.(1) 45.(1) 46.(1) 47.(1) 48.(1) 49.(3) 50.(4)
51.(3) 52.(1) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(3) 56.(3) 57.(3) 58.(3) 59.(4) 60.(4)
61.(3) 62.(1) 63.(1) 64.(2) 65.(4) 66.(1) 67.(3) 68.(3) 69.(1) 70.(1)
71.(3) 72.(4) 73.(2) 74.(3) 75.(3) 76.(3) 77.(3) 78.(3) 79.(3) 80.(2)
81.(2) 82.(3) 83.(3) 84.(3) 85.(2) 86.(1) 87.(2) 88.(2) 89.(2) 90.(4)
91.(4) 92.(2) 93.(4) 94.(4) 95.(1) 96.(3) 97.(2) 98.(4) 99.(3) 100.(3)

101.(4) 102.(3) 103.(3) 104.(1) 105.(2) 106.(4) 107.(4) 108.(1) 109.(1) 110.(2)
111.(4) 112.(2) 113.(3) 114.(4) 115.(2) 116.(4) 117.(1) 118.(4) 119.(2) 120.(3)
121.(1) 122.(3) 123.(1) 124.(2) 125.(2) 126.(1) 127.(3) 128.(1) 129.(2) 130.(1)
131.(3) 132.(3) 133.(1) 134.(3) 135.(2) 136.(4) 137.(4) 138.(3) 139.(1) 140.(4)
141.(1) 142.(4) 143.(5) 144.(2) 145.(6) 146.(6) 147.(3) 148.(4) 149.(1) 150.(3)
151.(2) 152.(3) 153.(1) 154.(4) 155.(3) 156.(4) 157.(1) 158.(4) 159.(4) 160.(5)
161.(4) 162.(5) 163.(2) 164.(3) 165.(5) 166.(5) 167.(3) 168.(4) 169.(1) 170.(4)
171.(2) 172.(4) 173.(4) 174.(1) 175.(4) 176.(3) 177.(4) 178.(4) 179.(f) 180.(3)
181.(1) 182.(f) 183.(1) 184.(2) 185.(3) 186.(2) 187.(4) 188.(1) 189.(4) 190.(2)
191.(2) 192.(1) 193.(2) 194.(2) 195.(1) 196.(4) 197.(3) 198.(3) 199.(3) 200.(1)

201.(4) 202.(3) 203.(2) 204.(3) 205.(1) 206.(4) 207.(2) 208.(3) 209.(3) 210.(1)
211.(1) 212.(2) 213.(3) 214.(1) 215.(1) 216.(4) 217.(1) 218.(3) 219.(2) 220.(1)
221.(3) 222.(1) 223.(1) 224.(1) 225.(1) 226.(2) 227.(2) 228.(1) 229.(1) 230.(1)
231.(1) 232.(1) 233.(1) 234.(1) 235.(4) 236.(2) 237.(1) 238.(1) 239.(2) 240.(1)
241.(1) 242.(2) 243.(1) 244.(1) 245.(1) 246.(1) 247.(1) 248.(2) 249.(4) 250.(4)
251.(1) 252.(1) 253.(2) 254.(4) 255.(2) 256.(3) 257.(3) 258.(4) 259.(1) 260.(3)
261.(2) 262.(3) 263.(4) 264.(3) 265.(4) 266.(2) 267.(3) 268.(1) 269.(4) 270.(3)
271.(4) 272.(3) 273.(3) 274.(2) 275.(3) 276.(1) 277.(2) 278.(1) 279.(4) 280.(3)
281.(3) 282.(1) 283.(3) 284.(4) 285.(4) 286.(1) 287.(4) 288.(4) 289.(2) 290.(4)
291.(3) 292.(4) 293.(3) 294.(1) 295.(3) 296.(3) 297.(3) 298.(1) 299.(3) 300.(4)

301.(3) 302.(2) 303.(2) 304.(4) 305.(3) 306.(4) 307.(3) 308.(4) 309.(3) 310.(3)
311.(4) 312.(2) 313.(2) 314.(2) 315.(2) 316.(2) 317.(4) 318.(4) 319.(2) 320.(2)
321.(3) 322.(2) 323.(2) 324.(1) 325.(2) 326.(3) 327.(1) 328.(2) 329.(1) 330.(4)
331.(2) 332.(1) 333.(2) 334.(3) 335.(1) 336.(2) 337.(1) 338.(3) 339.(1) 340.(2)
341.(2) 342.(3) 343.(3) 344.(2) 345.(2) 346.(1) 347.(3) 348.(3) 349.(3) 350.(1)
351.(3) 352.(1) 353.(3) 354.(3) 355.(2) 356.(2) 357.(4) 358.(2) 359.(2) 360.(2)
361.(1) 362.(3) 363.(1) 364.(1) 365.(1) 366.(2) 367.(3) 368.(2) 369.(3) 370.(1)
371.(3) 372.(1) 373.(2) 374.(2) 375.(2) 376.(2) 377.(3) 378.(2) 379.(4) 380.(3)
381.(2) 382.(3) 383.(1) 384.(3) 385.(1) 386.(1) 387.(3) 388.(1) 389.(4) 390.(2)
391.(3) 392.(2) 393.(4) 394.(1) 395.(2) 396.(3) 397.(4) 398.(1) 399.(2) 400.(4)

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