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National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2005

Total Marks 600 Instructions

1. 2.

Read instructions carefully. This test paper contains One Hundred Fifty Questions with multiple-choice answers. Of which forty questions from Legal Aptitude, thirty questions from Information Level, thirty questions from English, thirty questions from Reasoning Ability and twenty questions are from Mathematical Ability. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer one mark shall be deducted. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HP pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet as instructed. This test is of Two Hours. First bell will ring five minutes before commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write his/her roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printed and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of this booklet for rough work. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil, sharpener, and eraser. Electronic gadgets (except wrist watch without any add on facility) such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include talking to neighbors, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet.

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Signature Center in-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

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Section I Information Level Test (ILT)

1.

Match the Congress sessions with the significant ideological formulations: A. Lucknow Session, 1916 democracy B. Lahore Session, 1929 Congress-League Pact C. Karachi Session, 1931 Swaraj Resolution D. Faizpur Session, 1936 of Fundamental Rights Codes: A 1. 2. 3. 4. G F F H B F G H G C H H E F D E E G E E. Full

F.

G. Purna

H. Adoption

2.

According to the estimate of W. H. Moreland, the population of India in 1600 A. D. was: a. 80 million million b. 100 million c. 120 million d. 125

3.

The Mughal emperor who issued a firman to the East India Company in 1717 A. D. to trade freely in Bengal was: a. Bahadur Shah Shah b. Shah Jahan c. Farukh Siyar d. Jahadar

4.

The Central Hindu School at Banaras, which served as a nucleus of the Banaras Hindu University, was established by: a. Madan Mohan Malviya c. Bhagwan Das b. Mrs. Annie Besant d. Swami Shradhananda

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5.

Name the Mauryan ruler who was also known as Amitraghata: a. Chandragupta Brihadratha b. Bindusara c. Ashoka d.

6.

Who was the first president of the All-India Trade Union Congress? a. S. A. Dange Hardayal b. Jawahar Lal Nehru c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. Lala

7.

Who among the following Viceroys became a victim of one of the convicts during his visit to the Andamans? a. Lytton b. Ripon c. Curzon d. Mayo

8.

Arrange the following events in the chonological order: 1. Champaran Satyagrah 3. Reunion of the Congress 2. Launcing of the Khilafat Movement 4. Nagpur session of the Congress

Codes: a. 3, 1, 2, 4 b. 3, 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4, 2 d. 1, 4, 3, 2

9.

Who among the following played an important role in the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact? a. Motilal Nehru Hari Deshmukh b. Tej Bahadur Sapru c. Madan Mohan Malviya d. Gopal

10.

Who was the founder of the newspaper The Tribune ? a. Robert Knight Bannerjee b. Dayal singh c. Lord Macauley d. S N

11.

Who among the following is known as parrot of India? a. Sarojini Naidu Singh b. Amir Khusro c. Tansen d. Raja Man

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12. What is the percentage fixed for the strength of Council of Ministers qua the membership of Parliament and the State Legislatures after the Constitution Ninety First Amendment Act, 2003? a. 10% b. 15% c. 12.5% d. 20%

13.

Which of the following issue was in the news recently relating to Indian-Pakistan relations, which was subsequently taken to the World bank by Pakistan against the wishes of India? a. Tulbul Navigation Project c. Baglihar Dam Construction b. Sir Creek d. Siachen conflict

14.

Deficit Financial means: a. Government expenditure minus revenue receipts b. Government expenditure minus borrowing c. Budget deficit minus borrowing and liabilities d. Budget surplus

15.

The foreign exchange reserves of the country consists of: a. Foreign currency assets held by the RBI b. Gold holding of the RBI c. Special drawing rights d. All the above

16.

The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is in:

17.

Which one of the following is not true of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999: a. Removal of quantitative restrictions on imports b. Introducing of new chapter for boosting exports c. Indian Companies are at liberty to access ADR/GDR d. There is no negative limit for FDI

18.

Who among the following Indian economists has done pioneering work on national income:

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a. P. N. Dhar Shenoi b. Jagdish c. V. K. R. V. Rao d. Prof.

19.

Among the organized industry, the oldest is: a. Cotton textiles steel b. Sugar c. Paper d. Iron &

20.

The Terms TRIPS and TRIMS are related to: a. NAFTA b. SAPTA c. EFTA d. WTO

21.

Which of the following is the most important source of revenue for the States in India: a. Excise Duties Professional Tax b. Land Revenue c. Sales Tax d.

22.

The brand ambassador for Bank of Rajasthan is: a. Sachin Tendulkar Bachhan b. Preity Zinta c. Hema Malini d. Amitabh

23.

Who among the following was holding the offer of Vice-President of India, who passed away while in office? a. Dr. Zakir Hussain Jatti b. Shri Krishna Kant c. Shri Gopal Swarup Pathak d. Shri B. D.

24.

Which one of the following help in aerating the soil? a. Microfauna above b. Mesofauna c. Macrofauna d. All of the

25.

Which of the following glands in human body is popularly called Adams Apple? a. Adrenal b. Thyroid c. Liver d. Thymus

26.

Match column I with column II Column I A. Dalton Column II E. Definition of an element

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B. Madam Curie C. Robert Boyle D. Mendeleev a. A-E, B-F, C-G, D-H C-F, D-E F. Periodic Table G. Atomic Thoery H. Radio Activity b. A-G, B-H, C-E, D-F c. A-H, B-F, C-G, D-E d. A-G, B-H,

27.

Which one of the following country won Indian Oil Asia Cup 2004? a. India Bangladesh b. Pakistan c. Sri Lanka d.

28.

Australia won its 28th Davis Cup title in: a. October, 2003 2005 b. November, 2004 c. January, 2005 d. March,

29.

Which one of the following does not belong to future missile projects under process in India? a. Sagarika b. Dhanush c. Barak d. Vinashak

30.

Which one of the following medicine was recently in news for effective and safe prevention of HIV transmission from mother to unborn child during birth? a. Rantidine b. Nevirapine c. Atenol d. Bextra

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Section II Language Comprehension Test (LCT)

Direction: Q31-Q35: Read the following passage carefully and give the correct answers from among the alternatives given below each question.

It was first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember holding it at every angle in order to catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the dresser. The man in the photograph was unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I had never met him before but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was looking at the photograph, as I always did before I went to sleep, I noticed a shadow across the mans thin face. I moved the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his hollow cheek. How different he looked!

That night I could not sleep, thinking about the letter I would write. First I would tell him that I was eleven years old, and if he had a little girl of my age, she would write to me instead of him. I knew he was a busy man. Then I would explain to him the real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how wonderful he looked with the shadow that I had seen across his photograph, and I would most carefully suggest that he grows whiskers.

Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield, New York, he was wearing a full beard. He was so much taller than I had imagined from my tiny photograph.

Ladies and gentlemen, he said I have no speech to make and no time to make it in. I appear before you that I may see you and that I may see you and you may see me. Then he picked me right up and kissed me on both cheeks. The whiskers scratched. Do you think I look better, my little friend? he asked me. My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoin.

31.

What is the authors main purpose in the passage? a. To explain how Grace Bedell took photograph of Abraham Lincoin. b. To explain why Abraham Lincoin wore a beard. c. To explain why the first photograph were significant in American life. d. To explain why Westfield is an important city.

32.

The word fascinated in the first paragraph could best be replaced by: a. interested b. frightened c. confused d. disgusted

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33.

The word flickering in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to: a. burning constantly brightly b. burning unsteadily c. burning very dimly d. burning

34.

The man in the photograph a. was smiling kind b. had a beard c. had a round fat face d. looked

35.

What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep? a. She wrote letters b. She looked at the photograph

c. She made figures on the wall

d. She read stories

Direction: Q36-Q45: In the following paragraph some spaces have been left blank and numbered 36 to 45. The most appropriate word to fit in each blank has been given as one of the four alternatives against the corresponding number given below the paragraph. The alternative with the most appropriate word is the answer.

The Constitution envisages the establishment of a welfare state at the federal level as well as the state___36___. In welfare state the primary duty of the government is to secure the___37___of the people. Providing adequate medical facilities for the people is an essential part of the ___38___undertaken by the government in a welfare state. The government discharges this obligation by running hospitals and health ___39___ which provide ___ 40 ___ care to the person seeking to avail those facilities. Article 21 imposes an obligation on the state to ___ 41 ___ the right to ___ 42 ___ of every person. Preservation of human life is thus of paramount importance. The ___ 43 ___ hospitals run by the state and the medical officers employed therein are duty bound to extend medical assistance for preserving human life. Failure on the part of a government hospital to provide timely medical treatment to a person in need of such treatment results in ___44___ of his right to life ___ 45 ___ under Article 21.

36.

a. legislature government

b. level

c. machinery

d.

37.

a. benefit obligations

b. welfare

c. rights

d.

38.

a. duties

b. obligations

c. services

d. statute

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39.

a. centers medicines

b. functions

c. care

d.

40.

a. professional affectionate

b. medical

c. services

d.

41.

a. safeguard propagate

b. jeopardize

c. enhance

d.

42.

a. liberty

b. life

c. living

d. dignity

43.

a. local

b. charitable

c. government

d. central

44.

a. violation

b. guaranteed

c. nullified

d. motivated

Direction: Q46-Q50: Choose the correct analogy.

46.

Ballad : Song Credit : Movie Painting b. Shutter : Darkness c. Novel : Chapter d. Portrait :

47.

Rehearsal : Performance a. Engagement : Marriage c. Applause : Audience b. Entrapment : Game d. Antidote : Illness

48.

Retirement : Service a. Employment : Salary c. Contract : Agreement b. Arrangement : Flowers d. Graduation : Studies

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49.

Scalpel : Surgeon a. Pen : Reader Anger b. Bow : Violinist c. Bed : Patient d. Pistol :

50.

Umpire : Playfield a. Carpenter : Cabinet Locker b. Plumber : Wrench c. Judge : Courtroom d. Player :

Direction: Q51-Q55: Rearrange the following sentences. Out of six, the first and the last sentence are in order. Four sentence in between have to be arranged. Out of four given alternatives choose the one, which rearrange sentences in the best possible manner.

51.

Eradication of corruption in public office and elsewhere is an intricate and delicate task. (P) it is difficult to prove the charge (Q) Those conventions must be respected. (R) The law is not effective in dealing with corruption (S) So some conventions will have to be built. This is possible if we are men of integrity having honesty of purpose. a. PSQR b. RPSQ c. SQPR d. RSQR

52.

Progress and success are attained in slow degrees. (P) But slow progress makes one grow impatient, disheartened and discouraged. (Q) The general tendency is to find fault with the system. (R) It is for this reason that people condemn and criticize the government. (S) People expect miracles and nothing short of a magical transformation can convince them. However, we must realize the truth that perfection is attained in slow proportions to the amount of labour put in by us. a. PSQR b. QPSR c. RSPQ d. SQRP

53.

He had suddenly realized that his life was passing and (P) That in twenty years perhaps he would be dead.

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(Q) That he had not understood anything. (R) He realized that he was trapped in a treadmill. (S) That he never had time to watch it pass. Without having done anything except achieving a certain standing in the world. a. RSPQ b. RPQS c. SPQR d. SRPQ

54.

The Police Department of the Government of Rajasthan shall take steps to. (P) Ensure that the law laid by this court in the matter of protection of human rights of citizens as against action by the police. (Q) By issuing necessary circulars in that regard. (R) And the responsibility is placed on the Superintendent of Police. (S) It must be brought to the notice of all Superintendents of Police in the Districts soon after the decision is given. To ensure compliance with the said circulars by the sub-ordinate police personnel under his charge. a. PQRS b. PSQR c. SRQP d. QRSP

55.

There is a kind of war hysteria in India. (P) We are sure to feel upset. (Q) In fact these are discussions and not protesting (R) Why should others accuse us to protesting. (S) There has been aggression on our country. Being democratic we have the right to discussion. a. QPRS b. PQRS c. SPRQ d. RSPQ

Direction: Q56-Q60: Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms and phrases.

56.

Dare devil a. A type of devil b. A dangerous game c. A reckless person d. Trekking

57.

A bunch of fives

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a. Anger b. Fist c. Flowers d. Beauty

58.

A wolf in sheeps clothing a. Hypocrite cunning man b. A coward c. A brave man d. A

59.

Maiden speech a. Speech by a maid interview b. The very first speech c. Ineffective speech d. An

60.

To look blue a. To feel depressed happy b. To feel angry c. To feel jealous d. To feel

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Section III Reasoning Ability Test (RAT)

Direction: Q61-Q65: In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered A and B. You are to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide to correct answer from four choices.

61.

Statements: Smoking is dangerous. Rash driving is dangerous. Conclusion: A. Rash driving is smoking B. Smoking is rash driving a. Only conclusion A follows c. Neither A not B follows b. Only conclusion B follows d. Both A and B follows

62.

Statements: Some cooks are young. All boys are young. Conclusion: A. Some boys are cooks. B. Some cooks are boys. a. Only conclusion A follows c. Neither A nor B follows b. Only conclusion B follows d. Both A and B follows

63.

Statements: Stories are interesting. All interesting incidents are rumors. Conclusion: A. Stories are rumors. B. Rumors are stories.

a. Only conclusion A follows c. Neither A nor B follows

b. Only conclusion A follows d. Both A and B follows

64.

Statements: Doctors serve their country. Engineers are not doctors. Conclusion: A. Engineers do not serve their country. B. Some engineers serve their country. a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion B follows

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c. Neither A nor B follows d. Both A and B follows

65.

Statements: All travelers are men. All men are graduates. Conclusion: A. All men are travelers. B. All travelers are graduates. a. Only conclusion A follows c. Neither A nor B follows b. Only conclusion B follows d. Both A and B follows

Direction: Q66-Q70: In each of the following questions, a conclusion is made out of two assumptions. You are required to consider each assumption first and decide about the conclusion offered from the set of four answers i.e., true, false, irrelevant and uncertain.

66.

Assumption (i) Airplanes have no wings. (ii) Animals have no wings. Conclusions: Therefore, airplanes are animals. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant d. Uncertain

67.

Assumption (i) No member over 30 can participate in summit. (ii) Krishna Participated. Conclusion: So, Krishna is less than 30 years of Age. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant d. Uncertain

68.

Assumption (i) I know a police officer. (ii) He drinks too much. Conclusion: Therefore, all police officers drink too much. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant d. Uncertain

69.

Assumption (i) Carbohydrates are helpful in the formation of body. (ii) Growing children are in need of nutrition. Conclusion: So, carbohydrates are necessary for growing children. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant d. Uncertain

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70.

Assumption (i) P is behind M and N (ii) Q is behind P. Conclusion: Therefore Q is behind M. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant d. Uncertain

Direction: Q71-Q76: In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by twoarguments numbered X and Y. Consider each statement and the arguments that follow and decide which of the argument is forceful, choose from the four answers given under each question.

71.

Statement: Should our country leave democracy? Arguments: X. Yes, as elections are giving hung Parliament every time. Y. No, dictatorship will be even worse. a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

72.

Statement: Should India go for only two major political parties? Arguments: X. Yes, because so many parties are leading to a hung Parliament at the centre. Y. No, it will effect revenue collection in the country. a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

73.

Statement: Should liquor be banned throughout the country? Arguments: X. Yes, as it will minimize road accidents. Y. No, it will effect revenue collection in the country. a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

74.

Statement: Should national highways in India be given to private companies, for maintenance? Arguments: X. Yes, because they will maintain it better than government agencies.

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Y. No, because they are meant for public a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

75.

Statement: Open book system should be introduced in the examination. Arguments: X. Yes, because it will eradicate mass copying from examination system. Y. No, because then all students will get first division without much hard work. a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

76.

Statement: Should India take the services of a European coach for its national hockey team? Arguments: X. Yes, because Asian hockey is dying. Y. No, because Europeans will learn about Indian hockey skills by doing so. a. Argument X is forceful. c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful d. Both X and Y are forceful.

Directions: Q77-Q81: Questions herein below are based on the following statement. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A, B, C are children of Mr. A and Mrs. Z. D, E, F are children of Mr. and Mrs. Z F and A are married and G and H are their children. I and J are children of Mr. and Mrs. X I is married to C and has three children named K, L and M.

77.

How is B related to M? a. Brother Uncle b. Uncle c. Brother-in-law d. Maternal

78.

How is B related to G? a. Brother-in-law b. Maternal Uncle c. Father-in-law d. Cousin

79.

How is B related to A?

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a. Maternal Uncle b. Father c. Brother d. Cousin

80.

F and J are related as: a. Uncle and Cousin and b. Brother-in-law c. Brother d. Father

81.

D realtes to H as: a. Mother b. Sister c. Aunt d. Brother

Direction: Q82-Q83:- In the following questions, a group of statements is followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusions, which logically follows the given statements.

82.

Statement: I. I watch TV only if I am bored. II. I am never bored when I have my brothers company. III. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along. Conclusions:

a. b. c. d.

If I am bored, I seek my brothers company If I am bored, I do not watch TV If I am bored, I watch TV If I am not with my brother then I watch TV

83.

Statement: I. Shyam is not the father of Hari. II. Hari is the brother of Shyam. Conclusions:

a. b. c. d.

Shyam is the son of Suresh. Hari is the brother of Shyam. Suresh is the father of Hari. Shyam has no children.

84.

A recent study found that school-age children who participate in school related sports activities fight less during school and school related activities than those children who do not participate.

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It was concluded that sports must satisfy aggressive impulses, which would otherwise be released through fighting. Which of the following if true weakens the conclusion referred to in the above passage. a. School related adults always supervise sports activities. b. Children who participated in school related activities tend to be more aggressive physically than those who do not participate. c. Supervisor of school related sports activities tend to be more aggressive than those who do not participate.

d. Most schools suspend those who fight during school or school related activities from the school sports team.

85.

Because heroin addicts usually have one or more needle marks on their arms, and Rajiv has some needle mark on his arm, it follows that Rajiv is probably a heroin addict. Which of the following most closely parallel the reasoning used in the question: a. Because patients with malaria usually have high fever and Ram is a patient with malaria, Ram probably has a high fever. b. Because doctors have high income and people with high income pay high taxes, doctors probably pay high taxes. c. Because patients with malaria usually have high fever, malaria and probably causes fever.

d. Because students are usually under twenty-five years old and Heena is under twenty-five year old, Heena is probably a student.

86.

Taking advantage of the absence of his parents, Prabhat decide to call his friends at home for a party. Which of the following assumptions did Prabhat make while taking the above decision? (1) His parents would not come back immediately. (2) His friends will accept his invitation. (3) There will be enough food in the home to feed friends. a. All three and 2 b. Only 2 and 3 c. Only 1 and 3 d. Only 1

87.

In the following question selects an alternative which third statement is implied by the first two statement is implied by the first two statements: a. All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So all figs are black. b. All dogs are mad. All sick persons are mad. So all sick persons are dogs. c. No man can fly. No kite can fly. So all man are kites.

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d. All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So all windows are doors.

88.

The fathers of five students A, B, C, D, E have different professions i.e. teaching, music, medicine, law and architecture. As father is not an architect but Es father is a singer. Bs father teaches while Cs father practices medicine. Ds father is not a lawyer. Whose father is lawyer? a. As b. Bs c. Cs d. Es

89.

An executive magistrate is a powerful person in a region. The correct explanation for this premise is that: A. He is like the Governor in the state C. He controls the political system of the region a. Only A and B are correct c. A, B, C and D are all correct B. He is like the Chief Minister in the State D. He can malign the masses of the region b. Only C and D are correct d. None of A, B, C and D are correct

90.

Choose the correct letter that follows in the series: A, C, f, J, O? a. P b. Q c. U d. V

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Section IV Mathematical Ability Test (MAT)

91.

The population of a town increases 10% annually. If the population of the town were 60,000 in 2005, what would be the population of the town in the year 2008? a. 66,000 b. 78,880 c. 77,770 d. 79,860

92.

The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% after each year. What is its purchase price, if at the end of 3 years its value is only Rs. 8748? a. 10,000 b. 11,000 c. 12,000 d. 13,000

93.

A guava tree was planted 2 years ago. It increases at the rate of 20% per annum. If at present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was its height when the tree was planted? a. 255 cm b. 375 cm c. 295 cm d. 395 cm

94.

Mustard oil is now being sold at Rs. 15 per kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 13 per kg. Find, by how much percent must a family reduce its consumption to keep the expenditure fixed. a. 12.55% b. 13.33% c. 14.33% d. 12.33%

95.

Mr. X spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and he increased his expenditure by 10%. His savings are increased by: a. 10% b. 25% c. 38 % d. 50%

96.

The average age of 30 students in a class is 9 years. If teachers age is included. The average age becomes 10 years. What is the age of the teacher? a. 25 years b. 30 years c. 40 years d. 50 years

97. a. 25 b. 16 c. 5 d. 8

98.

In a survey 60% of those surveyed owned a car and 80% of those surveyed owned a T.V. If 55% owned both a car and a T.V., what percent of those surveyed owned either a car or a T.V.?

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a. 60 b. 85 c. 75 d. 70

99.

The average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 40 degree centigrade. The average temperature for Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 41 degree centigrade. If the temperature on Thursday was 42 degree centigrade, what was the temperature on Monday? a. 25 degree centigrade degree centigrade b. 29 degree centigrade c. 39 degree centigrade d. 43

100. The sum of 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + . 203 is: a. 44100 b. 14400 c. 13400 d. 11025

101. A train runs between two Stations X & Y. While going from X to Y, its average speed is 100 km/hr. And while coming back from Y to X, its average speed is 150 km/hr. What is the average speed during the whole journey? a. 110 km/hr km/hr b. 120 km/hr c. 130 km/hr d. 140

102. The ratio between two numbers is 2:3. If each number is increased by 4, the ratio between them becomes 5:7. What are the number? a. 14 and 20 23 b. 16 and 24 c. 19 and 32 d. 20 and

103. A college boy 1.4 meters tall casts a shadow 1.2 meters long at the same time when the college building casts a shadow 5.4 meters long. What is the height of the college building? a. 5.2 meters meters b. 5.8 meters c. 6.3 meters d. 7.3

104. One third of Rams savings in National Saving Certificate is equal to one half of his saving in Public Provident Fund. If he has Rs. 50,000 as total savings, how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund? a. 20,000 b. 30,000 c. 20,050 d. 27,000

105. An insect climbs up a 10 meters high pole. It climbs up 3 meters in the first minute but slips down 2 meters in the second minute, again climbs up 3 meters in the third minute and slip down 2 meters in the fourth minute and so on. It reaches the top of the pole in: a. 17 Min. b. 19 Min. c. 15 Min. d. 20 Min.

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106. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If their L.C.M. is 180, what are the numbers?

a. 44 and 48 62

b. 45 and 60

c. 44 and 46

d. 60 and

107. A sum of Rs. 430 has been distributed among 45 people consisting of men, women and children. The amounts given to men, women and children are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 16. But, the amount received by each man, woman and child are in the ratio 6 : 5 : 4. What is the amount each man, each woman and each child receives? a. Rs. 12, Rs. 10 and Rs. 8 c. Rs. 10, Rs. 9 and Rs. 8 b. Rs. 11, Rs. 9 and Rs. 10 d. Rs. 14, Rs. 13 and Rs. 10

108. Three partners A, B and C agree to divide the profit or losses in the ratio of 1.50 : 1.75 : 2.25. If, in a particular year, they earn a profit of Rs. 66,000, the share of each partner is: a. Rs. 18,000, Rs. 21,000, Rs. 27,000 c. Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 22,000 and Rs. 28,000 b. Rs. 17,000, Rs. 22,000 and Rs. 27000 d. Rs. 19,000, Rs. 21000 and 26,000

109. If 8 men working 9 hours a day can build a wall 18 meters long, 2 meters broad and 12 meters high in 10 days, how many men will be required to build a wall 32 meters long, 3 meters broad and 9 meters high, by working 6 hours a day, in 8 days? a. 40 b. 35 c. 30 d. 25

110. A trader allows 10% discount. What price should he mark on an article, which costs him Rs. 200 to gain 26% on the cost price? a. 200 b. 250 c. 280 d. 260

111. ****** tones of coat, when each is running 9 hours a day; how much coal will be required for 8 engines, each running 12 hours a day, it being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as 4 engines of latter type? a. 25 tonnes b. 20 tonnes c. 18 tonnes d. 24 tonnes

112. A can do a piece of work in 10 day, B in 12 days and C in 15 days. All being together, but A leaves the work after 2 days and B leaves 3 days before the work is finished. How long did the work last? a. 5 days b. 6 days c. 7 days d. 9 days

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113. What is the value of the following expression? (1 + x) (1 + x ) (1 + x ) (1 + x ) (1 x) = ? a. 1 + x

16 2 4 8

b. 1 x

16

c. x

16

d. x + 1

114. Ms. Radhika drove at an average speed of 50 km/hour for the first two hours of her trip. For the next three hours, she averaged 20 km/hour. What was Ms. Radhikas average speed for the five-hour trip? a. 30 km/hour km/hour b. 32 km/hour c. 34 km/hour d. 36

115. If X is the number satisfying 2<X<3 and Y is a number satisfying 7<Y<8, which of the following expressions will have the largest value? a. X2Y b. XY2 c. 5XY d. X2/Y

116. Water is poured into an empty cylindrical tank at a constant rate for 5 minutes. After the water has been poured into the tank, the depth of the water is 7 feet. The radius of the tank is 10 feet. Which of the following is the best approximately for the rate at which the water was poured into the tank. a. 44 cubic feet/minute feet/minute b. 140 cubic feet/minute c. 440 cubic feet/minute d. 700 cubic

117. Which of the following sets of numbers can be used as the lengths of the sides of a triangle? I. [5, 7, 12] a. Only I three II. [2, 4, 10] b. Only III III/ [5, 7, 9] c. Only I and III d. All the

118. If a rectangle has length L and the width is one half of the length, then the area of rectangle is: a. L b. L2 c. L2 d. 2L

119. If a + 2b = 6 and ab = 5 what is the value of 2/a + 1/b: a.

1 2

b.

1 3

c.

3 2

d.

5 2

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120. What percentage of the numbers from 1 to 50 have squares that end in digit 1? a. 5 b. 10 c. 11 d. 20

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Section V Legal Aptitude Test (LAT)

Direction: In this section every question is appended with facts and principles, and multiplechoice answers. You are required to read the facts carefully, then read the principles, apply the principles in the given facts and make choice as to the most appropriate answer from the given four answers.

121. Facts: Raghuram owns a chemical factory in Delhi. During the process of making chemicals the factory drains out a lot of sewage. In course of time the chemicals contained in the sewage contaminated the source of underground water.

Principle: If any person intentionally contaminated any source of public water in such a way that it becomes non-consumable, he shall be punished.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Raghuram has committed offence because such contamination is due to working of his employees. Raghuram has committed an offence because his factory is liable for contaminating the ground water, and he owns the factory. Raghuram has not committed an offense. None of the above.

b.

c. d.

122. Facts: Akbar enters into an agreement with Birbal that if he pays Akbar a premium of Rs. 500 per annum and Birbals house is devastated by fire within one year of entering into agreement. Akbar shall make good the loss suffered by Birbal.

Principle: if any person enters into wagering or betting agreements, such agreements would be illegal and cannot be given for enforcing obligations.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The agreement entered into between Akbar and Birbal is a wagering agreement and even if Birbalss house is devastated by fire he cannot claim price of the house against Akbar. b. The agreement entered into between Akbar and Birbal is a valid contract and can be enforced if Birbals house is devastated by fire within one year of entering this agreement.

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c. Akbar and Birbal are betting thus this agreement is not a contract.

d. None of the above

123. Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a lawyer is not complete. The lawyer files a write petition against the Parliament for enacting such an incomplete law and wants a direction from the Court that Parliament should re-enact the law.

Principle: Writ petitions can be filed against the State and the Court may issue mandamus against the government. According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the State includes the Government and Parliament of India and Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. No write would lie against the Parliament, as the Court has no authority to direct the Parliament to enact or re-enact a law because it provided by the principle of separation of power. b. Parliament is State within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution and as such writ petition would lie against the Parliament. c. No writ would lie against the Parliament because Parliament can alter even the Constitution of India.

d. None of the above.

124. Facts: A competent court sentenced a convict to undergo rigorous imprisonment for seven years. The Jailor puts this prisoner for breaking stories and also puts him as lobourer for construction operation inside the Jail. The prisoner has not given any consent for doing such manual work. The prisoner challenges such forced work and labour as violative of his fundamental right under Article 23 of the Constitution.

Principle: Article 23 reads, that traffic in human beings and beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law, Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The Prisoner cannot be asked to do forced labour without his consent. b. The Jailor has committed an offence by putting the prisoner to work against his will.

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c. The Jailor has committed to offence.

d. The court has passed an illegal sentencing order because such punishments are proscribed by the Constitution.

125. Facts: Kundan a Scientist discovers that turmeric has healing properties, for his findings he applies for the grants of a Patent.

Principle: Patent is a legal monopoly granted for invention. It is required that thing invented must be novel, non obvious and industrially useful.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following a. Kundan would get a Patent because he has invented something, which is industrially useful. b. Kundan would not get a Patent because his research is not in the interest of India. c. dan would get a Patent because he has put research in finding healing properties of turmeric.

d. dan would not get a Patent because his research is obvious.

126. Facts: Shivam used a mark to brand all his cows so that his cows could be identified. Bhupendra also started using the same mark to brand his cows with the intention that at grazing field cows could mix up and he can take Shivams good breed cows.

Principle: Trade Mark is a mark used by business people to distinguish their product from that of others. In order to be a Trade Mark it must be used in the course of trade. Any person using Trade Mark of others for his products shall be punished.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Bhupendra must be punished because he used Trade Mark of Shivam. b. Bhupendra cannot be punished because he has branded his cows. c. Bhupendra cannot be punished for using this mark because it is not a Trade Mark.

d. Shivam and Bhupendra both must be punished because branding cows is punishable.

127. Facts: Ramdin enters into an agreement with Vishal under which Vishal undertook to kill Ramdin when Ramdin is asleep. For this act, Ramdin deposited Rs. 5,000 with a bank, which Vishal could withdraw once he has performed the aforesaid task. Vishal kills Ramdin according to terms of agreement.

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Principle: Law of Contract mandates that two or more people are free to create mutual rights and obligations provided such rights and obligations are not opposed to public policy.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Vishal must get Rs. 5,000 because he has performed his task. b. Vishal must be prosecuted because he has killed Ramdin. c. Vishal must not be prosecuted because Ramdin consented to be killed.

d. Vishal msut be prosecuted for killing Ramdin but he should get Rs. 5,000 as agreed by Ramdin.

128. Facts: X, a muslim scarifies a cow on Bakra-id believing it to be a part of his religious rites. However, there was a law of general prohibition on slaughter of cows. X, was prosecuted for slaughtering cow.

Principle: Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess, practice and propagate his religion subject to public order, morality and health.

Answer: a. X cannot be prosecuted as killing of cow on Bakra-Id has the Muslim religious sanction. b. X can be prosecuted as the state has a right to regulate the freedom of the religion in the interests of the public order. c. X can be prosecuted as the slaughtering of cow hurts other communitys religious sentiments.

d. X can be prosecuted, as the slaughtering of cow is cruelty to animals.

129. Facts: S was hiding being a bus to catch some rabbits. M also came to the same place for hunting with his gun. When M noticed some movements behind the bus he thought it was an animal and fired a shot due to which S, was killed. Can M be prosecuted for murder?

Principle: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death.

Answer: a. M, would not be liable for murder because he did not have the intention to kill, S.

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b. M, shall be liable for murder because he should have taken care to find out the target before shooting. c. M shall not be liable for murder because M was not expecting to identify the target before shooting.

d. M shall be liable for murder because for whatever reason S, was killed.

130. Facts: X, opened a saving bank account in a local bank and Y, his neighbour helped him to complete the formalities. Subsequently X, used to entrust money to Y along with his passbook. One day X, discovered that Y, instead of crediting the money to his account was pocketing it and he made the entries in the passbook without authorization.

Principle: A person who knows that he is dishonestly and fraudulently inducing the other person to part with property, which inducement causes or is likely to cause harm to other in reputation or property is said to cheat.

Which one of the following is correct? a. Y has not cheated X, as the bank did not authorize the entries in the passbook. b. Y, cheated X, as he dishonestly pocketed the money. c. Y. has not cheated X, as it was the duty of X to deposit the money himself.

d. None of the above.

131. Facts: Ganesh is a well-known artist and his paintings has earned recognition worldwide. One day he paints a picture titled mother earth wherein he depicted a naked woman and from her womb a plant is coming out. He puts this painting in exhibition.

Principle: Whoever sells, lets to hire, distributes, publicity exhibits or in any manner puts into circulation, or for purposes of sale, hire, distribution, public exhibition or circulation, makes, produces or has in his possession any obscene book, pamphlet, paper shall be punished.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Ganesh must be punished. b. Ganesh cannot be punished because his painting is an act and it cannot be called obscene. c. Ganesh has made a painting, which portrays a naked woman and is indeed obscene thus he must be punished.

d. Ganesh has abused his freedom of expression by painting an obscene picture thus he must be punished.

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132. Facts: Anand saw a great fire near his house; he started pulling down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. In this process he pulled down two houses in his neighbourhood.

Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Anand has committed offence of destroying property of others. b. Anand has committed no offence. c. Anand is liable to pay compensation.

d. Anand is not liable to pay compensation.

133. Facts: Anthony is a woodcutter. One day when he was at work a number of children flocked him and asked him to make a cricket bat for them. Without listening to them he continued to chop woods using a heavy axe. Suddenly a piece of chopped wood flew and struck one child who was standing just two feet away from him as a result of which the child lost his one eye.

Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by accident or misfortune and without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and without proper care and caution.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Anthony is liable for causing injury to child. b. Anthony is not liable because it was merely an accident. c. Anthony is not liable because children flocked to him.

d. None of the above.

134. Facts: A Law teacher saw a good programme relating to wild life and environment protection on National Geographic Channel. He recorded the programme and showed it to his college students. He charged students paltry sums to meet expenses towards recording and editing of this programme. National Geographic Channel field suit against the teacher for infringing their Copyright.

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Principle: No broadcast reproducing right to performers right shall be deemed to be infringed by the making of any sound recording or visual recording for the private use of the person thanking such recording, or solely for purposes of bona fide teaching or research.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The law teacher ahs infringed Copyright of National Geographic Channel. b. The law teacher has used this programme for teaching purposes thus he has no infringed Copyright. c. The law teacher has been contributed from students thus it is a commercial show thereby he has infringed Copyright.

d. None of the above.

135. Facts: A cable operator shows a new film on his cable and transmission of the film takes place at 2 a.m., when all the subscribers of the cable operator are sleeping. The producer of the film prosecutes the cable operator for infringement of copyright of his film. The cable operator takes the plea that though the film was shown yet nobody has seen the film: as such there is no infringement of Copyright.

Principle: Copyright in any work of literature, art, drama, cinematography etc. would be infringed. If an unauthorized publication takes place. Publication shall mean communicating such work of people, meaning thereby, making any work available for display or diffusion other than by issuing copies of such work.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Since film was shown at a time when people were sleeping, there is no publication. b. Communication does not require actual act of watching, making available for watching is enough for publication. c. For infringement of Copyright it is required that there must be authorized publication.

d. None of the above.

136. Facts: Alexander deals in coconut oil only and having showroom and offices all around the country. The registered office is Banglore. One day he received a call from Suresh, a merchant from Delhi. Suresh is a dealer in edible oils. Suresh said, please send me 1,000 tons of oil and without stating which oil he wants, he put down he phone.

Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.

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Choose which one of the following action Alexander should take. a. Alexander should immediately supply 1,000 tons of coconut oil, as a contract has taken place. b. Alexander should not supply any oil because Suresh has not made it clear as to which oil he wants. c. Alexander should call up Suresh and ask him which oil he wants.

d. None of the above.

137. Facts: Shyama agrees to sell to Meena a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. Shyama is a recognized importer of various commodities and she confirms her dealing quite in advance. In the present case, it turned out that, before the day of the bargain the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost and this was not within the knowledge of Shyama and Meena. Due to this event Meena suffered loss. She asked Shyama to compensate her or supply goods on the agreed price. Shyama refused.

Principle: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. However an erroneous opinion as to the value of the things which forms the subject matter of the agreement, is not be deemed a mistake as to a matter of fact,

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following a. Court would award damages to Meena. b. Shyama should buy the specific cargo and supply the same to Meena. c. If Shyama supplies the cargo, she cannot claim difference as to market price on the date of supply and as on the date of agreement.

d. None of the above.

138. Facts: Ramesh entered into a contract with Suresh under which he sold his house for Rs. 5 lakh. This contract was signed and registered on 15 February, 2005. On 20 February, 2005 a suit was filed by legal heirs of Ramesh to get the contract dated 15 February, 2005 annulled by the Court on the ground that Ramesh is not of sound mind. The Court found that Ramesh was suffering from acute depression resulting in forgetfulness and had orientation problems and was put on medicines for neurotic and psychiatric ailments since 10 Feburary, 2005.

Principle: Only persons of sound mind can enter into a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his

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interests. A person, who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of sound mind. A person, who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind, may not make a contract when he is of unsound mind.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Ramesh is competent to enter into contract dated 15 February, 2005. b. Ramesh was of sound mind when he entered into the contract. c. Ramesh cannot be considered of sound mind on 15 February, 2005.

d. Under all circumstances the contract entered between Ramesh and Suresh is valid.

139. Facts: A, a man who consumed too much liquor at his friends birthday party, entered into a altercation with X a cigarette vender and took a knife out of his pocket and injured X. The injury proved fatal. A, is charged for the offence of murder.

Principle: A person who is voluntarily intoxicated is liable for his act, as if a person having the knowledge does the act and intention to do while a person involuntarily intoxicated can claim immunity for the act.

Can A take the defence of intoxication? a. No, because it was voluntarily. b. Yes, because it was involuntarily. c. Depends on the full circumstances of the case.

d. None of the above is correct.

140. Facts: X, was walking on a lonely road when he came face to fact with Y. Y took out a knife from his pocket and threatened X, and asked him to hand over his gold ring and purse. X, took out his revolver. On seeing it, Y started running away. Even then Y, was running away from the spot, X shot Y on his legs and injured him.

Principle: A person is allowed to defend his body or property by the use of reasonable force if he apprehends danger to his body or property by the act of other person.

Which of the following is correct? a. X, can defend himself against the act of Y, as he apprehends danger to his life.

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b. X, cannot defend himself as there was no reasonable apprehension of danger when Y, started running away. c. X, can defend himself as Y, was a thief.

d. None of the above.

141. Facts: X, has tamed his dog so that he understands his language. In order to take revenge from Y, x conspires with his dog to kill Y.

Principle: When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act, which is legal by illegal means, such agreement amounts to criminal conspiracy.

Which of the following is correct? a. X, is guilty of conspiracy for killing Y. b. X, is not guilty because the required number of persons are not present. c. X, is guilty because conspiracy with a tamed dog that understands the language is there.

d. None of the above.

142. Facts: X, is Ys servant. On his way to his masters house to report for duty, he stops at a roadside teashop to have tea. There he see Z, and starts shouting in front of the other customers that Z, was a dishonest person, which in fact he was not.

Principles: I. If a person by his act lowers the reputation of another in the eyes of right thinking people, the person whose reputation is under attack can sue for damages. II. Master if liable for the act of the servant done in the course of employment, however the master is not liable if the act of the servant is not connected with his employment.

Which one of the following is correct? a. Y, is liable for defaming Z, as X, was his servant. b. Y, is not liable for damages as he is a very poor person. c. X, is liable for defamation as his act of defaming Z, as in no way connected with his employment with Y.

d. None of the above

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143. Facts: A, an Indian has property worth Rs. 100 crores in Iran, which the Govt. of Iran his nationalized. A filed a case in the highest Court of Iran to recover his property, but lost it. A, now wants to file a suit in the International Court of Justice (I.C.J). Both India and Iran have accepted the compulsory jurisdiction of the I.C.J.

Principle: Only States (nations) can be parties to be dispute before the I.C.J.

Answer: a. A can file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J., as he is an India. b. A can file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J. only if Iran allows him to file. c. A cannot file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J.

d. A can file a suit against Iran on behalf of India in the I.C.J.

144. Facts: Ms. Rosa applied for a job in response to an advertisement placed by Navin & Co., a private concern, in the Hindustan Times. Despite the fact that Rosa, was fully qualified for the job, she was not called for the interview as the employer thought that since a woman has to maintain a family, he should prefer a man to a woman who has no corresponding liability.

Principle: State shall not discriminate between any person in the matters of employment on the grounds of sex.

Answer: a. Rosa cannot be employed, as she is inferior to a man. b. Rosa cannot be employed, as the number of unemployed men in the country would increase. c. Rosa does not have a right to be employed, as Navin & Co. is a private company.

d. Rosa cannot be employed, as her proper place is her home.

145. Facts: In pursuance of an order passed by the Supreme Court of India, the Govt. of Delhi bans all light motor vehicles, which do not conform in Euro-II norms. Arvind Motors, an auto-dealer challenges the ban as it violates his right to carry his business.

Principle: Every citizen of India has a fundamental right to carry on any trade or business or profession of his choice subject to the imposition of reasonable restriction by the state.

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Answer: a. The Govt. of Delhi has a superior right and the ban is justified. b. The ban is justified, as the right of Arvind Motors to carry his business is not absolute. c. The ban is not justified, as the Govt. of Delhi cannot deprive any person of his right to carry on his business.

d. None of the above.

146. Facts: A, B and C form a partnership firm. All the partners being in capital Rs. 10 lakhs each. It is agreed that instead of their shares in the profits of the firm. B and C will continue to charge interest @ of 12% per annum on their capital irrespective of the fact whether the firm is making profits or not.

Principle: Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all.

Answer: a. A, B and C form a valid partnership firm. b. A, B and C does not form a valid partnership firm. c. The firm will be valid only if A also agrees to charge interest as the same rate instead of his share in the profits.

d. None of the above.

147. Facts: Kamiah, a student leader in the Faculty of Law, JNU University, Jodhpur assaulted a teacher injuring him seriously. Kamiah was arrested by police and prosecuted for the offence of causing grievous hurt. Subsequently, the Dean, Faculty of Law rusticated Kumiah from the Faculty of Law of 5 years. Kamiah challenges the rustication.

Principle: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice.

Answer: a. Kamiah will succeed as he is prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice. b. Kamiah cannot succeed, as he ought to have known that he can be rusticated as well as punished for the assault.

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c. Kamiah cannot succeed, as rustication from Faculty of Law does not amount to punishment.

d. None of the above

Directions: Q148-Q150: Following questions pertain to common understanding of legal words and terminology. Choose correct answer from the choices given under each question.

148. ******* liberty of the individual, which cannot be deprived of except according to the procedure established by: a. The Parliament President b. The Judiciary c. Law d. The

149. Sub justice means: a. That which is finally decided by a Court. b. Something still not under judicial consideration. c. Something, which cannot be decided by judiciary but only by the Parliament. d. Under judicial consideration.

150. X is appointed by the Court to represent a poor litigant. X is called: a. Amicus Curiae the above b. Advocate for poor c. Legal aid advocate d. None of

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