For The
Professional Engineer License Examination
In
Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering
With
Sample Examination and Solution
Prepared by:
The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers
December 2009
Subject to Annual Update and Revision
Table of Contents
Introduction
Licensing Requirements
Eligibility
Application Procedures and Deadlines
Description of Examination
Examination Schedule
Examination Content
Examination Development
Examination Validity
Examination Content Outlines
Examination Preparation and Review
Minimum Competency
Scoring Procedures
Examination Procedures and Instructions
Examination Booklets
Answer Sheets
Starting and Completing the Examination
References
Special Accommodations
Examination Specifications
Sample Examination Questions
Sample Examination Question Solutions
Study References for Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering
Appendix A: Sample Examination Cover Sheet
Appendix B: Sample Examination Answer Sheet
Appendix C: Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
INTRODUCTION
In 1995 The National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) approved the offering of
a national examination for professional licensure of naval architects and marine engineers (NAME) with The
Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers as the sponsoring organization. A survey of the Societys
membership was conducted to determine the range of subject matter of importance to practice in this field and
an examination specification was developed and published. In the October, 1998 and April, 1999 issues of
Marine Technology and SNAME NEWS, articles were presented by the then President, J ose Femenia,
discussing various aspects of the examination for Professional Engineer Licensure in Ship Design Engineering
(SDE),. The first Principles and Practice Examination was given on October 29, 1999. In 2001, the name was
changed and thenceforth is identified as Naval ArchitectureMarine Engineering (NAME). In an effort to assist
the Societys membership in their exam preparation, some study materials were developed and presented on the
SNAME Web Site that are concerned with some subject areas of the examination specification (the
examination specification was published in the Marine Technology issue Volume 35, Number 4, of October,
1998). Since 2001, an annual examination has been administered in April of each year by the various licensing
jurisdictions authorized to offer a Principles and Practices examination in this field of licensure. During 2005
and 2006, a second survey of the naval architecture and marine engineering field was conducted to assess
needed changes in requirements for abilities, knowledge and practices. Based on this survey, a revised
examination specification was developed and implemented in April of 2008.
Obtaining a Professional Engineer license in Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering is one of the biggest
steps to be taken in establishing your position in the field. The Society of Naval Architects and Marine
Engineers, in cooperation with the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES), is
pleased to be of help as you prepare yourself for the examination. This Study Guide will provide you with
important information on what, how, and when to do it and who to contact for additionally needed information.
The Society encourages its nonlicensed membership to consider sitting for the PE exam in Naval Architecture
Marine Engineering next April. Application deadlines vary by jurisdiction and in some jurisdictions are as early
as six months prior to the exam. Members must contact their licensing boards to determine whether or not their
jurisdiction will be offering the exam, and for the examinee qualifications, application deadlines, and
application fees. Contact information for the licensing boards, as well as other information pertaining to
professional licensure, can be found on the website for the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and
Surveying at http://www.ncees.org. It is understood that approximately 42 states and other jurisdictions offer
the NAME examination to qualified applicants. In the event that a member's jurisdiction does not offer the
NAME examination, it is worthy of note that, since the examination is national in scope, the state or other
jurisdiction may offer registration by comity if the examinee passes the examination administered by another
jurisdiction. This information should be available from the local licensing board.
Beginning in 2002, a Professional Engineer Review Course (PERC) has been presented each year to assist
those preparing to take the NAME examination. Those interested in registering for a PERC offering should go
online at www.snamelearning.org, or contact SNAME headquarters.
The examination specification has four main categories, Engineering Fundamentals, 25%, Naval Architecture,
30%, Marine Engineering, 26% and Common, 19%. Each of these categories is further subdivided into topic
areas, each of which is weighted within the above noted amounts. The study materials that are presented in the
PERC typically cover more than one subject area at a time; some presentations are of a more general nature
while problems concerned with a specific subject area will also be included from time to time. Problem
solutions and reference suggestions are also given, but not necessarily with the initial presentation of subject
area materials. The PERC ends with a set of sample problems and solutions in the format of the NAME exam.
(For those wishing to use the SNAME Web Page materials as a study guide, it should be noted that these
materials have not been updated recently, although it is intended that further development will be done when
the new SNAME web software is installed, as primary work has been directed toward continuing development
of the PERC). Marine electrical engineers should note that the NAME exam has only about a 5 percent focus
on electrical equipment, load analysis, distribution, energy conversion and emergency systems. Therefore,
marine electrical engineers might find licensure in electrical engineering more appropriate for their needs. They
should refer to the NCEES web site at http://www.ncees.org for further guidance. NAME examination
questions have been authored by a wide variety of the Societys currently licensed and widely scattered
membership so that it may not be possible to respond rapidly or to all questions. Submitted questions and
responses will be added to the Web Page materials when they become available, but without attribution.
It is important to note that the examination preparation is ongoing and will continue to be so. P.E. members are
requested to submit to SNAME Headquarters their latest ideas and suggestions regarding subject matter and
specific questions that may be suitable for use in future examinations. Any efforts will be greatly appreciated.
To start with exam preparation, the prospective examinee should collect an appropriate selection of the
professional references summarized below:
 Introduction to Naval Architecture, E. Tupper, 1996, INA/SNAME
 Principles of Naval Architecture, E.V. Lewis, 1988, SNAME
 Ship Design and Construction, R. Taggart, 1980, SNAME
 Ship Design and Construction, T. Lamb, 2003, SNAME
 Ship Production, R.L. Storch, C.P. Hammon, H.M. Bunch & R.C. Moore, 1995, SNAME
 Fiberglass Boat Design and Construction, R.J . Scott, 1996, SNAME
 Marine Engineering, R.L. Harrington, 1992, SNAME
 Elements of Ocean Engineering, R.E. Randall, 1997, SNAME
 Rules for Building and Classing Steel Vessels, American Bureau of Shipping, (ABS)
 Rules for Building and Classing Plastic Vessels, 1978, ABS
 Rules for Building and Classing High Speed Planing Craft, 1997, ABS
 U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Titles 33 and 46 (CFR 33 and CFR 46)
Additional reference recommendations are provided in the PERC Units and new or updated texts are in
development by the Society and information concerning the availability of these materials may be obtained by
contacting SNAME Headquarters at (201) 4995056.
 For those wishing to have specific questions answered concerning the examination subject areas and
study materials, an email to btrentham@sname.org or FAX message to (201) 7984975 at SNAME
Headquarters will be responded to as soon as and to the extent possible. It should be noted that
examination questions have been and are generally authored by a wide variety of the Societys
currently licensed and widely scattered membership so that it may not be possible to respond rapidly
or to all questions. Further, the examinations are copywrited by NCEES and are not available for
public review or discussion.
Eligibility
The primary purpose of licensure is to protect the public health, safety and welfare. 55 United States
jurisdictions (all 50 states as well as The District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, The U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam,
and The Northern Marianas Islands) have enacted professional engineer licensing statutes that are administered
by appointed licensing boards. The passing of license examinations provides one means of measuring the
professional competence of candidates, however the various licensing jurisdictions generally require a
minimum 12 years of experience in order to become qualified to take the Principles and Practice examination.
Eight (8) years of experience is usually credited to those applicants who have graduated from an ABET
(Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology) accredited engineering program, and additional
experience is credited for completion of advanced engineering degree requirements at an accredited institution.
Some states now require graduation from an accredited engineering program. In some states, possessing an
earned doctoral degree in an engineering discipline satisfies the education and experience requirement. Most
jurisdictions also require that candidates pass an examination on the Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) in order
to be qualified to sit for the P.E. license. While some states do not require passing the FE examination in order
to become qualified to take the Principles and Practice examination, it should be kept in mind that if in your
career you move your practice from one jurisdiction to another, licensing by comity may not be possible if you
have not passed the FE Exam. Licensing qualification requirements vary from state to state (jurisdiction to
jurisdiction) and several states do not offer examinations in all engineering fields, so a candidate needs to
contact the appropriate licensing board to obtain specific information on requirements and application forms.
To obtain addresses and Fax numbers of the licensing boards, see the survey results given below, or visit the
NCEES home page at www.ncees.org, or call (800) 2503196.
In the information below, there are summary notes presented on the various jurisdictions, indicating whether
NAME licensure is offered and dates for making application to the licensing boards to become qualified and
authorized to take the examination. Most states use examination administration agencies to proctor the
examination. Professional Credential Services, Inc. in Tennessee
 (page updated 12/31/08  wmm)
Licensing Requirements
Application Procedures and Deadlines
Licensing requirements and associated fees vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction and applicants
are responsible for making contact with their appropriate board. Application forms for taking the
Principles and Practices examination in Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering and
instructional information are available from the individual licensing boards. The results of a
License Board Survey taken in 2006 are given below:
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Licensing Board contact information
Offering
NA/ME
Exam
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
NOTE: The following survey is offered as guidance only. It is not exhaustive and should not be relied
upon as an official document. Contact your own state licensing board for specific information on the
April NA/ME PE exam offering, or go to http://www.ncees.org.
Alabama
334.242.5568, or 866.461.7640 (toll free)
334.242.5105 fax
Regina A. Dinger, Executive Director
regina.dinger@bels.alabama.gov
http://www.bels.alabama.gov
Yes Jan. 15 **
Alaska
907.465.1676
907.465.2974 fax
Email: ginger.morton@alaska.gov.us
Ginger L. Morton, Executive Administrator
ginger.morton@alaska.gov
http://www.commerce.state.ak.us/occ/pael.
cfm
No *Licenses only six disciplines,
Chemical, Civil, Electrical and
Computer, Mechanical, Mining
and Mineral, Petroleum. Will
proctor the exam for any other
jurisdiction, but does not offer
comity.
Arizona
602.364.4930
602.364.4931 fax
Email: info@btr.state.az.us
Ronald W. Dalrymple, Executive Director
ronald.dalrymple@btr.state.az.us
http://www.btr.state.az.us
No
NAMEs
listed in
state
register
Licenses by discipline only.
Application must be submitted
315 days before exam date and
if approved, register with
ELSES by February 1.
Arkansas
501.682.2824
501.682.2827 fax
Stephen W. Haralson,PE., Executive
Director
Stephenw.haralson@arkansas.gov
http://www.arkansas.gov/pels
Yes Feb 15
(Complete
application)
**Offers Comity
California
916.263.2230
916.263.2221 fax
Email: bpels_office@dca.ca.gov
Cindi Christenson, P.E., Executive Director
Cindi_Christenson@dca.ca.gov
http://www.dca.ca.gov/pels/contacts.htm
No *CA licensing is discipline
specific whereby any
examination must have the
appropriate discipline defined
by the legislature. At this time,
Naval Architecture is not in the
statute.
Colorado
303.894.7788
303.894.7790 fax
Angeline Kinnaird, Program Director
angie.kinnairdlinn@dora.state.co.us
http://www.dora.state.co.us/engineers_surv
eyors
Yes Jan. 1 ** Applicants for licensure must
be lawfully in the United States.
Colorado Board approves
BS+30 change in Model Law.
Connecticut
860.713.6145 860.713.7230 fax
Barbara SypMaziarz, Board Administrator
barbara.syp@po.state.ct.us
http://www.state.ct.us/dcp
Yes Dec. 1 **
Delaware
302.368.6708
302.368.6710 fax
Margaret Abshagen, Executive Director
peggy@dape.org
http://www.dape.org
Yes Nov. 1 **
District of Columbia
202.442.4320
202.442.4528 fax
Theresa Ennis, Board Representative
theresa.ennis@dc.gov
http://www.asisvcs.com/indhome_fs.asp?C
PCAT=ENO9STATEREG
No Per 2001 survey
Florida
Phone:850.521.0500 Fax:850.521.0521
board@fbpe.org
Paul Martin, Executive Director
http://www.fbpe.org
Yes * Nov. 7,
2008
**See www.fbpe.org under
applications for deadline
Go to ELSEXAM.ORG for exam
registration
Georgia
Phone:478.207.1450 Fax:478.207.1456
pels@sos.state.ga.us
J ulianne Busbee
Darren Mickler, Executive Director
dmickler@sos.state.ga.us
http://www.sos.state.ga.us/plb/pels/
Yes Dec. 15 **Deadline may change for
2009
Guam
671.646.3115/3138
671.649.9533 fax
Ms. Amor A. Pakingan, Board
Administrator
amor@guampeals.com
http://www.guampeals.org
No *The NAME Group II exam is
not currently offered on Guam.
It is not within the regulatory
authority of the Board
Hawaii
Phone:808.586.2702 Fax:808.586.2874
J ames Kobashigawa, Executive Officer
easla@dcca.hawaii.gov
www.hawaii.gov/dcca/pvl
No *Hawaii licenses by discipline
but NAME is not one of the
disciplines they license.
Idaho
208.334.3860
208.334.2008 fax
David L. Curtis, P.E., Executive Director
dcurtis@ipels.state.id.us
http://www.state.id.us/ipels/index.htm
Yes J an. 10 **
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2009
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
Illinois
217.785.0877
217.782.7645 fax
Mr. Terry Baird, Design Professions
Coordinator
tbarring@dpro84R1.state.il.us
http://www.dpr.state.il.us
Yes Nov. 15 **
Indiana
317.232.2980
317.232.2312 fax
Gloria Keating, Examination Manager
gkeating@pla.state.in.us
Gerald H. Quigley, Executive Director
http://www.in.gov/pla/bandc/engineers
Yes J an. 2 **
Iowa
515.281.4126
515.281.7411 fax
Gleean M. Coates, Executive Officer
gleean.coates@comm7.state.ia.us
http://www.state.ia.us/government/com
Yes Feb. 1 **
Kansas
785.296.3053
J ean Boline, Exam Specialist
ksbtp1@ink.org
Betty L. Rose, Executive Director
http://www.accesskansas.org/ksbtp
Yes J an. 15 **
Kentucky
800.573.2680
502.573.2680
502.573.6687 fax
B. David Cox, Executive Director
bdavid.cox@mail.state.ky.us
http://kyboels.state.ky.us
Yes J an. 1 **
Louisiana
225.925.6291
225.925.6292 fax
Donna Sentell, Executive Secretary
benh@lapels.com
http://www.lapels.com
Yes Dec. 1 **
Maine
207.287.3236
207.626.2309 fax
pengineers@prexar.com
Warren T. Foster, Executive Director
http://www.professionals.maineusa.com/en
gineers
Yes 6 mo. prior **
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
20094
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
Maryland
410.230.6322
410.333.0021 fax
pe@dllr.state.md.us
Pamela Edwards
pamedwards@dllr.state.md.us
Sally Wingo, Executive Director
swingo@dllr.state.md.us
http://www.dllr.state.md.us
Yes 120 days
before the
exam for
1st time
applicants
and 60
days for re
exam
applicants.
**
Massachusetts
617.727.9957
617.727.1627 fax
Deborah Milliken, Administrative Assistant
deborah.m.milliken@state.ma.us
http://www.state.ma.us/reg
No **The Massachusetts Board
uses the services of
Professional Credential
Services, Inc. (PCS) to offer the
Naval Architecture Marine
Engineering exam. The
examination is listed as Marine.
Michigan
517.241.9253
517.241.9280 fax
Dianne Bailey, Assistant Licensing
Administrator
dlbaile@michigan.gov
http://www.michigan.gov/cis/0,1607,7154
10557_12992_14016,00.html
Yes **All the scheduling and
administering of the exams is
done by NCEES
Minnesota
651.296.2388
651.297.5310 fax
Sheri Lindemann, PE Exam Coordinator
sheri.lindemann@state.mn.us
Doreen Frost, Executive Director
doreen.b.frost@state.mn.us
http://www.aelslagid.state.mn.us
Yes Feb. 16 **
Mississippi
601.359.6160
601.359.6159 fax
information@pepls.state.ms.us
Rosemary Brister, Executive Director
http://www.pepls.state.ms.us
Yes Dec. 15 **
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2004
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
Missouri
573.751.0047
573.751.8046 fax
moapels@mail.state.mo.us
J udy Kempker, Executive Director
jkempker@mail.state.mo.us
http://www.ecodev.state.mo.us/pr/moapels
Yes * Dec. 1 * The filing deadlines in which
to apply with the Board to take
the April24, 2009 PE exam are
as follows: Final Application
Filing Deadline  December 1,
2008. Evaluation Application
Filing Deadline  December 1,
2008. ReExam/ReScheduling
Filing Deadline  February 15,
2009. Once you're approved by
the Board you will then need to
register with the National
Council. You will be advised of
the National Council's deadline
when you receive your approval
letter from the Board
Montana
406.841.2367
406.841.2332 fax
dlibsdpels@state.mt.us
Todd Boucher, Program
Administrator/Investigator
toboucher@state.mt.us
http://www.discoveringmontana.com/
dli/bsd/license/bsd_boards/pel_board/boar
d_page.htm
Yes Dec. 10 **
Nebraska
402.471.2021/2407
402.471.0787 fax
board@nol.org
Charles Nelson, Executive Director
http://www.ea.state.ne.us
Yes J an. 12 *
Nevada
775.688.1231
775.688.2991 fax
board@boe.state.nv.us
Lane Garrison, Examination Administrator
Noni J ohnson, Executive Director
nonijohnson@boe.state.nv.us
http://www.boe.state.nv.us
Yes See
www.boe.st
ate.nv.us
for
deadline;
usually
about
J anuary 20
*
New Hampshire
603.271.2219
603.271.6990 fax
Louise Lavertu, Executive Director
llavertu@nhsa.state.nh.us
http://www.state.nh.us/jtboard/home.htm
Yes Feb. 1 * * for the application and all
supporting documentation
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State: Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2009
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
New J ersey
973.504.6460
973.273.8020 fax
Arthur Russo, Executive Director
russoa@state.nj.us
http://www.state.nj.us/njbiz/s_license_engi
neers_surveyors.shtml
Yes Oct. 3
New Mexico
505.827.7561
505.827.7566 fax
Elena Garcia, Executive Director
Elena.Garcia@state.nm.us
http://www.state.nm.us/pepsboard
No **Insufficient demand
New York
518.474.3817 ext 140
518.473.6282 fax
enginbd@mail.nysed.gov
J ane Blair, Executive Secretary
http://www.op.nysed.gov
Yes Nov. 1 **
North Carolina
919.841.4000
919.841.4012 fax
Andrew L. Ritter, Executive Director
aritter@ncbels.org
http://www.ncbels.org
Yes Jan. 2 **
North Dakota
701.258.0786
701.258.7471 fax
brdofreg@btinet.net
Candie Robinson
Clifford E. Keller, Executive Secretary
Yes J an 2 (if a
weekday)
**
Northern Mariana Islands
(011) 670.234.5897
(011) 670.234.6040 fax
Florence C. Sablan, Executive Director
nmi.bpl@gtepacifica.net
Yes J an. 1 *
Ohio
614.466.3651
614.728.3059 fax
Mark T. J ones, PS, Executive Director
mjones@mail.peps.state.oh.us
http://www.ohiopeps.org
Yes 90 days
prior to
exam date
**
Oklahoma
405.521.2874 ext. 25
405.523.2135 fax
Sue Andrews
sue@pels.state.ok.us
Kathy Hart, Executive Director
okpels@pels.state.ok.us
http://www.pels.state.ok.us/
Yes J an. 3 **Residency requirement
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State: Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2004
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
Oregon
503.362.2666
503.362.5454 fax
Edward B. Graham, P.L.S., Executive
Secretary
Ed@osbeels.org
http://www.osbeels.org
No **Recommends exam proctored
by Washington State, licensing
in Oregon by comity
Pennsylvania
717.783.7049
717.705.5540 fax
engineer@pados.dos.state.pa.us
Shirley S. Klinger, Board Administrator
http://www.dos.state.pa.us/bpoa/engbd/mai
npage.htm
Yes Dec. 1 **
Puerto Rico
Board of Examiners of Engineers and Land
Surveyors
P.O. Box 9023271
San J uan, Puerto Rico 009023271
787.722.0058
787.722.4818 fax
Executive Director: Marcos R. Velez Green
Yes Per 2001 survey
Rhode Island
401.222.2565
401.222.5744 fax
Lois Marshall, Administrative Assistant
loism@mail.state.ri.us
http://www.bdp.state.ri.us
No *No Group II exams offered. No
Comity offered
South Carolina
803.896.4422
803.896.4427 fax
engls@mail.llr.state.sc.us
J ay Pitts, Board Administrator
http://www.llr.state.sc.us/POL/Engineers
Yes Dec. 1 **
South Dakota
605.394.2510
605.394.2509 fax
Ann Whipple, Executive Director
ann.whipple@state.sd.us
http://www.state.sd.us/state/executive/dcr/e
ngineer/enghom.htm
Yes * J an. 1 **The deadline for initial
application completion
(everything must be received by
this office) is J anuary 1.
Repeat exam deadline is
February 10.
Tennessee
800. 2565758
615.741.3221
615.532.9410 fax
Barbara Bowling, Executive Director
barbara.bowling@state.tn.us
http://www.state.tn.us/commerce/ae.html
Yes Dec. 1 **
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2004
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
Texas
512.440.3054
512.442.1414 fax
peboard@tbpe.state.tx.us
David J . Lusk, P.E., Director of Licensing
david.lusk@tbpe.state.tx.us
www.tbpe.state.tx.us
Yes Was J an. 3
for 2003
exam;
expect date
prior to
Christmas
for 2004
exam
**
Utah
801.530.6632
801.530.6511 fax
Douglas Vilnius, Board Administrator
dvilnius@utah.gov
http://www.dopl.utah.gov
Yes February
Vermont
802.828.2875
802.828.2368 fax
Loris Rollins
lrollins@sec.state.vt.us
http://www.vtprofessionals.org
Yes 12 weeks
prior to
exam date
*
Virginia
804.367.8512 (Board)
804.367.8514 (Administrator)
804.367.2475 fax
APELSCIDLA@dpor.state.va.us
Mark N. Courtney, Administrator
www.state.va.us/dpor
Yes See
www.state.
va.us/dpor
Deadline
for 2003
exam was
Dec. 13
**
Virgin Islands
340.773.2226
340.778.8250 fax
boards@dlca.gov.vi
Lisa Davis, Administrator
http://www.dlca.gov.vi/proaels.html
Yes J an. 31
Washington
360.664.1575
360.664.2551 fax
engineers@dol.wa.gov
George Twiss, P.L.S., Executive Director
gtwiss@dol.wa.gov
http://www.dol.wa.gov/engineers/engfront.h
tm
Yes 4 mo. prior
to exam
**For example, for the April
2009 examination, the deadline
would be 122408
SURVEY OF STATE LICENSING
BOARDS
As of 123108
State:
Lic. Board tele. Number
Offering
NA/ME
April
2004
Anticipated
Application
Deadline
Comment:
West Virginia
304.558.3554
304.558.6232 fax
wvpebd@wvnet.edu
Lesley L. Rosier, P.E., Executive Director
RosierL@wvnet.edu
www.wvpebd.org
Yes 90 days
prior to
exam
**
Wisconsin
608.261.7096
608.267.3816 fax
Darwin Tichenor, Office of Examinations
608.267.9362
dorl@drl.state.wi.us
Otis Nicksion, Director
otis.nicksion@drl.state.wi.us
http://www.drl.state.wi.us
Yes 60 days
prior to
exam
Wyoming
307.777.6155
307.777.3403 fax
wyopepls@wyoming.com
Christine Turk, Executive Director
cturk@wyoming.com
http://www.wrds.uwyo.edu/wrds/borpe/borp
e.html
Yes J an. 1 *
*Licenses issued as a disciplinespecific engineer restricted in practice in a specific field, which
is usually the discipline of the professional examination taken for licensure.
**As a professional engineer, allowed to practice in his/her area(s) of competency, regardless of
which discipline of the professional examination was taken for licensure.
As indicated in the table above, the deadlines for filing applications vary widely from state to
state and you should allow ample time to assemble the required data and complete the
application process.
Description of Examination
Examination Schedule
The NCEES examination in Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering is in a multiplechoice,
no choice format and is given only in the spring of each year, typically the second, third, or
fourth Friday of April. You should contact your state board to determine specific dates and
locations. A summary of currently planned Future P.E. Examination Dates for Naval
Architecture and Marine Engineering is given below:
Friday, April 24, 2009 Friday, April 12, 2013
Friday, April16, 2010 Friday, April 11, 2014
Friday, April 8, 2011 Friday, April 17 2015
Friday, April 13, 2012 Friday, April 15, 2016
The Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) examination is held on the Saturday following the Friday
of the P.E. Exam.
Examination Content
The Principles and Practice examination in Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering (NAME)
covers a broad range of subject matter, the foundations for which are developed in the academic
programs of accredited curricula. The table below indicates the subject areas covered in the
examination along with their approximate examination weighting. The NAME examination is 8
hours in duration and given in an openbook style, however, unbound materials are generally not
allowed and you should find out from your state board what restrictions they may have on
materials that may be brought into the examination room. The examination is composed of 80
multiplechoice questions, 40 in the A.M. session and 40 in the P.M. session. The questions are
estimated to take approximately 6 minutes to answer, on average, and generally require some
computation to be carried out. All questions are independent and equally weighted, so time
management is important. If a problem solution is not immediately apparent, it is usually wisest
to skip to the next one and return later when time might still be available.
EXAMINATION SPECIFICATION
Refer to the table below for the Examination Specification and Subject Area weighting:
THE NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF ENGINEERING EXAMINATION
Naval ArchitectureMarine Engineering Examination
EFFECTIVE (April 2008)
Approximate
Percentage of
Examination (probs)
I Engineering Fundamentals
A Mechanics
1 rigid body (static, dynamic, equilibrium)
2 deformable body (static, dynamic, equilibrium, elastic, inelastic)
B Loads
1 axial, lateral, flexural, torsional and shear (e.g. tension & compression,
bearing), thermal, fatigue
2 fluid loads (static & dynamic, pressure induced, hydrostatic, hydroelastic)
3 specialized marine loads including cargo, seaway induced (e.g. slamming
25% (20)
6% (5)
8% (6)
and impact), collision, grounding, drydocking , launching, and moorings
C Welds/Connections and Structure
1 connectors and fasteners (e.g., rivets, bolts, adhesives) and bimetallic
joints (e.g. explosion bonding)
2 welding design and procedures (stresses, symbols, filler materials,
methods, inspection and testing)
3 structural elements including frames, beams, girders, trusses, plates,
columns, pillars, stanchions, clips, brackets, knees, gussets, and flexible
strength members (e.g., stays and shrouds)
4 structural applications and considerations including hull girder, midship
section, buckling, stress concentration, fatigue, corrosion, foundations,
stiffened elements (e.g. shell, bulkhead, deck), finite element models 
FEM (boundary conditions, element selection), and appendages
D Vibration
1 local vibration including vortex induced, flow induced, machinery
induced, e.g., propulsor, shafting (torsional, axial, whirling)
2 global vibration including hull girder and seaway induced (e.g., whipping,
springing, slamming)
II Naval Architecture
A Stability and Flotation and Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response
1 stability principals (static and dynamic), intact and damaged, stability
criteria, righting arm, free surface effect, stability aground, cargo shift,
submerged and transitional stability, stability while towing or lifting
2 stability methods and procedures including computation and curves (e.g.
displacement curves, Bonjean curves, cross curves), integration methods
(e.g., Simpsons rule, trapezoidal rule), and tests (inclining and sallying)
3 dynamic stability in waves, including forces and motions caused by wind
and waves, response amplitude operators, towing, parametric roll,
porpoising, broaching, chine walking, flow effects (e.g. squat, bank
suction, channel effect, passing)
B Hydrodynamics
1 hydrodynamic/aerodynamic resistance and propulsion, including
cavitation
2 propulsor and appendage design
3 maneuvering and directional stability, including dynamic positioning and
steering, rudders and control surfaces
4 seakeeping and added mass
5 hull modes, including displacement, planing and semidisplacement and
foil borne
6 computational fluid dynamics and application of analytical design tools
such as strip or diffraction theories
C Wind and Waves
1 wave spectra
2 currents
3 tides
7% (6)
4% (3)
30% (24)
11% (9)
8% (6)
5% (4)
4 wind scale
5 sea state
D Hull Forms
1 conventional displacement monohulls including barges
2 special hull forms including sailboats, semidisplacement, planing, surface
effect ships, air cushion vehicles, hydrofoils, submersible (e. g.
submarine), semisubmersible and SWATH
3 multihulls (e.g. catamarans, trimarans, cathedral hulls, pontoons)
4 sailboats
III Marine Engineering
A Thermodynamics
1 Thermodynamics fundamentals (e.g. conservation of mass and energy,
heat balance including power cycles, fluid properties (enthalpy, entropy),
and combustion)
2 Heat transfer and heat exchangers
B Internal Fluid Flow
1 piping system components (e.g. valves and control devices, strainers,
filters, sea chests, sea cocks)
2 system requirements, layout, and calculations (e.g., pipe flow, resistance,
pressure drop, viscosity, limiting flow speeds, flow effects including
noise, cavitation, and pipe hammer)
3 hydraulics
4 pumps (including NPSH) and compressors
C Propulsion and Power Generation
1 power systems including steam plants, internal combustion engines,
nuclear plants, fuel cells, solar power, wind power, and electric drive
2 fuels (properties, handling systems, effects on equipment)
D Machine Design
1 gearing, shafting, and bearings
2 lubrication (lubricants, properties, systems)
E HVAC/Refrigeration
1 HVAC systems including cargo dehumidification, chilled water systems,
ventilation systems, vessel layup, combining elements from refrigeration
(e.g. psychrometrics, enthalpy)
F Electrical Systems
1 electrical equipment including energy conversion devices (e.g. motors,
generators and transformers), batteries, cables, circuit breakers, lighting,
rectifiers, electronic devices, VFD & SCR systems, emergency power
supply (e.g. UPS), clean power systems
2 electrical systems including system analysis and design, distribution and
power circuits, power factors, voltage loss, short circuit analysis, breaker
coordination, degaussing systems, and determination of the optimal
number of power sources and voltages
6% (5)
26% (21)
4% (3)
5% (4)
6% (5)
4% (3)
2% (2)
5% (4)
IV Common
A Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control
1 structural materials and properties (e.g. strength, elongation and fatigue
strength), ferrous and nonferrous metals, plastics and composite
materials, wood, concrete
2 other materials and considerations including composite construction
processes (e.g. compatibility, laminating, resin infusion, vacuumbagging,
closed molding), ballast materials, sail materials (e.g. Dacron, cotton,
carbon fiber, aramid), ropes, and cables
3 elements of corrosion including galvanic series, general wastage, pitting,
crevice and stress corrosion, fretting, and stray currents
4 corrosion control applications including impressed current systems,
sacrificial anodes, bonding and grounding, and coating selection and
procedures
B Navigation and Vessel Control
1 bridge layout
2 visibility
3 understanding of integrated bridge system
C Hull Outfitting
1 steering gear, winches and mooring equipment, including ground tackle,
fenders, deck fittings (e.g. bollards and bitts, chocks), cranes and cargo
gear (e.g. closed loading/unloading systems, cargo pumps and vapor
recovery), hull closure devices (e.g., doors, sideports, hatchcovers), pin
systems (Articulated TugBarges), ramps, ladders (e.g. pilot ladders),
gangways, conveyors, tank gauging, tank washing systems, inert gas
systems, and mission specific equipment
2 accommodation outfit including insulation (e.g. structural fire protection,
acoustic, thermal), ladders, joiner work, furnishings, galley equipment,
and deck covering
D Weight Engineering
1 weights and centers
2 weight controls, including margins, allowances and statistics
E Shipbuilding and Repair
1 shipbuilding and repair, launching, drydocking, surface preparation and
coatings, shaft alignment, ship breaking and disposal, maintainability,
rigging, and material handling
2 quality assurance including deflection and distortion controls, inspection,
surveys, testing, trials, and commissioning
F Economics
1 engineering and ship economics including life cycle costs, disposal costs,
depreciation, costbenefit analysis (e.g., net present value), multiple cost
savings (e.g., learning curve), project cost estimating (e.g., acquisition,
operation)
2 trade and market analysis, financing, and subsidies
19% (15)
3% (2)
1% (1)
3% (2)
2% (2)
3% (2)
2% (2)
G Rules And Regulations, Human Factors, Safety Systems, Procedures and
Manuals, and Pollution Prevention
1 statutory requirements including regulatory agency requirements (e.g., US
Coast Guard, OSHA, EPA, ADA), admeasurement and international
conventions and agreements (e.g. IMO, STCW, MARPOL, SOLAS)
2 construction, design and inspection standards including classification
Societies (e.g. ABS, Alternate Compliance Programs), ABYC, ASTM,
NFPA, MCA, IEEE, AWS, Panama Canal Regulations
3 safety issues including emergency egress and fatigue
4 fire fighting systems and equipment (e.g., fire main, foam, CO
2
, fire
fighter outfits, alarms, fire prevention)
5 life saving equipment including lifeboats, life rafts, davits, rescue boats,
inflatable buoyant apparatus (IBA), personal flotation devices, survival
suits
6 cargo loading, trim and stability booklet, loading computers
7 emergency plan and procedures including damage control, Fire Control
Plan, International Safety Management, ISPS, periodic safety test
procedures, spill response (OPA 90)
8 prevention and treatment of air, liquid and solid pollution including
biological contaminants (e.g., OWS equipment, sewage systems,
incinerators, exhaust emissions, VOC  Volatile Organic Compound
control, antifouling coating constituent release), and HAZMAT control
5% (4)
V
Notes:
1. The examination is developed with problems that will require a variety of approaches and
methodologies including design, analysis and application. Some problems may require knowledge of
engineering economics.
2. The knowledge areas specified under 1, 2, 3, or as e.g. are examples of kinds of knowledge, but they
are not exclusive or exhaustive categories.
3. This examination contains a total of eighty (80) multiplechoice questions. Examinee works all
questions.
Examination Development
Examination Validity
In order to assure the validity of the Principles and Practices examination, a survey of
practitioners was conducted in 199596 in which the critically required knowledges and skills
were identified. The results of the survey analysis allowed the subject areas and their weightings
to be determined. The survey will be repeated periodically in order to keep the requirements
current with developments in the field. Based on the examination specification, examination
questions are developed by and selected for inclusion in an examination by a group of currently
licensed practitioners. The questions are multiply reviewed to insure appropriateness,
completeness and accuracy.
Examination Content Outlines
Due to the breadth and depth of knowledges and skills required for the practice of naval
architecture and marine engineering, the subject areas covered in the examination typically
include multiple elements, only a few of which can in any examination be adequately covered.
Thus, there are significant differences in the content of questions covering a subject area in
succeeding examinations, though the questions are intended to give as broad coverage as
possible.
Examination Preparation and Review
The questions are submitted by working professionals and put into the approved NCEES format
by SNAME staff. Upon assembly, the examination is sent to NCEES for preparation in the
proper format, returned to SNAME for proofing and finally back to NCEES for preparation in
the examination booklet format.
Minimum Competency
In order to properly assess minimally competent performance, it is necessary to establish a
standard that can be used in assessing the minimum level of knowledge and skill required
to protect the public health and safety. This standard is then used to arrive at a
satisfactory level of examination performance. This is done through the conduct of a Cut
Score Study in which a broadly diverse group is tasked with arriving at a standard and
using that standard to assess the expected performance of the examinees. The analysis of
the study results allows the determination of a recommended passpoint for the
examination, which is presented to the NCEES Board for its decision.
The current standard (May 2008) is presented below:
NCEES Naval Architect and Marine Engineer Examination
Standard of Minimal Knowledge, Skills and Abilities
A minimally competent Naval Architect and Marine Engineer demonstrates
sound engineering judgment in the application of science and engineering
principles and practices to the design of vessels, marine craft, and offshore
structures. The minimally competent engineer shall:
 Be knowledgeable of global and local ship structure, its arrangement, weight and
load bearing capability, and its interrelation with the marine environment, giving
due consideration to environmental degradation and external loads such as wind
and waves.
 Be knowledgeable concerning ship resistance and energy conversion, its application
to ship propulsion, power plant selection and ship system design.
 Be knowledgeable of the principles and practices of marine engineering including
chemical, thermal, mechanical, environmental, pollutionprevention, and electrical
systems, and component selection and integration.
 Be knowledgeable of the principles and practices of hydrostatics, stability, and
hydrodynamics.
 Be knowledgeable of the effects of changes of ship form and parameters on dynamic
response, seakeeping and controllability.
 Be able to size, select, specify, and evaluate ship components and their materials of
construction.
 Be knowledgeable of the lifecycle economic effects of ship design characteristics,
component selection and operations.
 Be knowledgeable concerning constraints and practicability of shipbuilding, ship
repair, and operational maintainability.
 Be knowledgeable concerning fire fighting, structural fire protection, life saving,
ship survivability, personnel safety and associated systems.
 Be aware of and be able to apply applicable codes and standards.
 Be knowledgeable concerning vessel mission and its effect on design.
 Be aware of computer applications as they apply to naval architecture and marine
engineering.
Scoring Procedures
As the weighting of each item on the examination is the same, the raw score for the examinee is
equal to the number of items whose answers are correctly selected. Evaluation of the pass/fail
score is determined by the results of the CutScore Study conducted with a panel of Subject
Matter Experts.
Study References for Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering
To start with, the prospective examinee should collect the professional references already
suggested in Marine Technology and elsewhere, as summarized below:
 Introduction to Naval Architecture, E. Tupper, 1996, INA/SNAME
 Principles of Naval Architecture, E.V. Lewis, 1988, SNAME
 Applied Naval Architecture, R. Zubaly, 1996, SNAME
 Ship Design and Construction, R. Taggart, 1980, SNAME
 Ship Production, R.L. Storch, C.P. Hammon, H.M. Bunch & R.C. Moore, 1995, SNAME
 Fiberglass Boat Design and Construction, R.J. Scott, 1996, SNAME
 Marine Engineering, R.L. Harrington, 1992, SNAME
 Elements of Ocean Engineering, R.E. Randall, 1997, SNAME
 Rules for Building and Classing Steel Vessels, American Bureau of Shipping, (ABS)
 Rules for Building and Classing Plastic Vessels, 1978, ABS
 Rules for Building and Classing High Speed Planing Craft, 1997, ABS
 U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Titles 33 and 46 (CFR 33 and CFR 46)
Note: The above Rules and Codes are available Online and need not be obtained in Hard
Copy. When Rules and Codes are cited and to be used for developing solutions in the
NAME Examination, they will be provided in the Item Statement.
For Examination Procedures and Instructions
Examination Booklets
Answer Sheets
Starting and Completing the Examination
References
Special Accommodations
Go to: http://www.ncees.org/exams/
Much more useful information is also available of the NCEES Web Site
SAMPLE EXAMINATION
Sample Examination Questions The following questions concern Subject Areas of the
NAME Examination specification in the approximate weighting of the examination. The
solutions of these questions have not been timed and do not necessarily reflect any specific
problems that have been or will be on an NAME examination.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 1, Spec. Number: I.A.1.a
Subject: Mechanics 1
A shear leg, composed of three pipe sections in a tilted tripod arrangement, is mounted at the
bow of a squareended barge (as indicated in the figure below), so to be suitable for hoisting and
lowering mooring anchors and buoys in a mooring field. The design calls for a lift capacity of 5
tonnes. The forward two sidelegs are 10 meters long and their base connections (in clevises) are
set 12 meters apart. The third leg is 12.8 meters long with its base attached 8 meters aft of the
axis of the other two legs bases. The third leg is attached to its base connection with a round
pin connected through a Clevis B. The pin is thus in double shear. The hoisting cable passes
over a sheave at the apex of the tripod and is attached to a winch mounted on the third leg as
shown. The design shear stress of the pin is 16 MPA. The required diameter (mm) of the third
legs clevispin is most nearly:
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.2, Spec. Number: I.A.1.b
Subject: Mechanics 2
A commercial vessel is to be outfitted with a radar antenna, of 250 kg mass, atop a 10meter
stayed mast that is mounted on the flying bridge. The flying bridge is located 30 meters above
the ships base line and the vessel has a design draft of 10 meters. The installation is to be
designed to sustain a rollamplitude of 35 degrees with a 6 second period of roll. The mast is to
be simply supported at its base and stayed transversely and fore and aft by shrouds connected at
its top that are attached to flying bridge structure five meters fore and aft and outboard Port and
Starboard from the mast base. The design loading of the transverse shrouds (kilonewtons) due to
vessel rolling is most nearly:
A) 5
B) 14
C) 28
D) 50
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 3,Spec. Number: I.A.2.a
Subject: Mechanics 3
A 10ton plateyard crane is to be mounted on a lightweight, simply supported beam having a
40 foot span. In order to provide adequate beam stiffness, a design criterion restricts midspan
deflection to 1/360 of the span. The lightest weight American Standard IBeam that meets this
criterion is most nearly:
A) S 20 x 75.0
B) S 20 x 65.4
C) S 18 x 70.0
D) S 18 x 54.7
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 4, Spec. Number: I.A.2.b
Subject: Mechanics  4
A longitudinally stiffened section of 20.4 pound deck plating, and having a yield strength of 36 ksi,
is fitted with 8 x 4 x 9/16 inverted angles stiffeners, spaced on 30 inch centers. A naval architect is
tasked to check the buckling stress (ksi) and finds it to be most nearly:
A) 33
B) 30
C) 27
D) 24
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 5, Spec. Number: I.A.2.c
Subject: Mechanics  5
A longitudinally stiffened section of deck plating is composed of 20mm plate fitted with 200mm
x 100mm x 13mm inverted angles, spaced on 750mm centers. The platestiffener Section
Modulus (10
3
mm
3
) is most nearly:
A) 4550
B) 3980
C) 439
D) 407
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 6, Spec. Number: I.B.1.a
Subject: Loads  1
An electric motor drives a saltwater circulating pump through a coupling connecting their shafts.
The motor delivers 150 horsepower at 900 RPM. The steady state torque transmitted (foot
pounds) by the shaft coupling is most nearly:
A) 1750
B) 875
C) 91.7
D) 15.1
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 7, Spec. Number: I.B.1.b
Subject: Loads  2
A longitudinally stiffened Tween deck is to be designed to carry a live load of 1200 pounds per
square foot. The supporting arrangement of the deck consists of a set of longitudinal girders
(spaced at 25 feet) and maintransverse webframes (spaced at 30 feet). At the intersection of
each longitudinal girder and maintransverse webframe, a pillar (or stanchion) is placed to
support the load. The longitudinal stiffener spacing is 30 inches. Neglecting the dead load of the
structure, the axial load on a pipesection stanchion (Long Tons) and the longitudinal stiffener
design load (Pounds per foot) are most nearly:
A) 450, 1.5
B) 450, 300
C) 400, 1200
D) 400, 3000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 8, Spec. Number: I.B.1.c
Subject: Loads 3
A channel section (C 15x50) is loaded as shown below with the lateral loading in line with the
section center of gravity, the geometric center of the section. In addition to the vertical shear and
bending considerations, a twisting moment is generated (inchpounds per foot) that is most
nearly:
A) 1,700
B) 960
C) 700
D) 550
1200
lbs/ft
15 ft
1200
lbs/ft
Geometric
Center
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.9, Spec. Number: I.B.2.a
Subject: Loads 4
A luffing and slewing crane, to be located on a vessels foredeck for anchor handling and other
miscellaneous work, is to have a capacity of 5 tons when extended horizontally to its maximum
length of 45 feet. Crane luffing is controlled by a hydraulic cylinder ram attached 6 feet below the
connection between the crane boom and the pedestal and 6 feet outboard of the connection. In the
fully extended position stated, the load (Tons) on the hydraulic ram is most nearly:
A) 40
B) 50
C) 200
D) 300
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.10, Spec. Number: I.B.2.b
Subject: Loads 5
The transverse bulkhead of a singleshell saltwater ballast deep tank, extending from the deck to
the bottom, of a liquid cargo barge (20 feet deep) is horizontally stiffened. The stiffeners are at a
24inch spacing and supported by vertical webs 12 feet apart. The tank vent extends to 36 inches
above the deck. The design load on the bottommost stiffener (pounds per foot) is most nearly:
A) 2700
B) 2300
C) 1300
D) 1100
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.11, Spec. Number: I.B.3.a
Subject: Loads 6
A container vessel proceeding in a seaway experiences pitch amplitudes of 12 degrees with a
pitch period of 7 seconds. The vessel is 870 feet long and the center of flotation is located 0.08 L
aft of midships. The maximum vertical acceleration (g) deck cargoes experience on the foredeck
at 0.05L aft of the Forward Perpendicular due to the pitching is most nearly:
A) 1.0
B) 2.4
C) 3.0
B) 3.4
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.12, Spec. Number: I.C.1.a
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure  1
A 150 H.P. electric motor is to drive a main circulating pump with a maximum speed of 900
RPM. The motor and pump shafts are connected by a flanged coupling having six, inch
diameter steel bolts. If the shear stress in the coupling bolts is not to exceed 13.5 ksi, with a
factor of safety of 4.0, the bolt circle diameter (inches) must be not less then:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.13, Spec. Number: I.C.1.b
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 2
An Upper Engine Room hoisting winch for use in main engine overhaul work is to be mounted
on a removable Ibeam that spans the 20foot wide engine room casing. The hoist is to have a 5
L.Ton capacity, and the connection brackets at each end of the Ibeam are to be fitted with bolts
adequate to resist the shear force and bending moments generated when the hoist is located at
midspan with the maximum shearing force in the bolts not to exceed 13,500 psi. The bracket
bolts are to be six in number and in a single line with 3inch spacing. The diameter of the bolts
(eighths of an inch) need to be not less than:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.14, Spec. Number I.C.1.c
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure  3
The deck plating of a tank barge is selected as 12mm, with a material yield stress of 220.6 MPa
or 32 ksi. The selection of longitudinal deck plate stiffeners is decided to be on the basis that the
plate buckling stress is not to exceed 85% of the materials yield stress. If Poissons Ratio for
the steel is 0.30, and the Elastic Modulus (E) of the steel is 30 x 10
6
psi, or 206.8 GPa, the
maximum spacing of the longitudinal stiffeners (mm), assuming the plate panels may be
considered long, i.e., have an aspect ratio of 3.0 or greater, is most nearly:
A) 800
B) 750
C) 700
D) 650
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.15, Spec. Number: I.C.2.a
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 4
A inch thick flanged bracket is to be used to transfer force and moment between the web of a
horizontal 8 x 4 x inverted angle deck longitudinal and the web of a vertical 8 x 4 x
bulkhead stiffener. The fitting of the bracket allows for a 5 x 10 rectangular fillet weld
configuration. If the shear force to be transmitted is estimated to be 3.5 L Tons and the moment
to be transferred is estimated to be 9.4 L TonFt., the minimum weld size (in 1/16 increments)
needed to keep the maximum shear stress in the weld within the13,600 psi allowable stress for
the material is most nearly:
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.16, Spec. Number: I.C.2.b
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 5
A C15 x 50channel section is selected to act as a temporary (easily removable) beam in an engine
space. It is to be connected in position using a .375 inch thick gusset plate attached to support
structure. The channel section is to be connected to the gusset plate with eight (8) bolts using a
3.0inch pitch and a 4.0inch back pitch. Assume the bolts have an allowable shear stress of 13.6
ksi. The bolt shank size (inches) you would select to support an expected direct joint load of 4.0 L.
ton and a moment of 10 L.tonfeet is most nearly:
A) 3/4
B) 7/8
C) 1
D) 11/8
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.17, Spec. Number: I.C.2.c
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 6
Two mild steel 3in by 4in by 3/8in angles are to be welded to a 1/2 in thick gusset plate as
indicated in the sketch below with 5/16in welds. The yield strength of the material is 33 ksi
and the allowable shear stress through the weld throats is 13.6 ksi. The required length of weld
L
1
(inches) will be most nearly:
A) 36
B) 18
C) 12
D) 8
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.18, Spec. Number: I.D.1.a
Subject: Vibrations 1
A marine engineer is tasked to determine the vibration characteristics of a ships propeller and
propulsion shafting system. The 30 meter long, steel propeller shaft is hollow, having an outside
diameter of 0.6m and an inside diameter of 0.3 m. As part of a simple massspring vibrating
system, the effective spring constant, k
e
, (N/m) of the shafting acting with the propeller mass is
most nearly:
A) 5,800
B) 1940
C) 1850
D) 1460
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.19, Spec. Number: I.D.1.b
Subject: Vibrations 2
A motor generator set, weighing 1,900 pounds, is mounted at midspan of a simplysupported
deck beam having a moment of inertia of 26.0 inches
4
, a section modulus of 8.7 inches
3
and a
length of 12 feet. The lowest motor rotating speed (RPM) capable of exciting the fundamental
mode of a simple massbeam system is most nearly:
A) 1,500
B) 1,000
C) 500
D) 250
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.20, Spec. Number: I.D.3.c
Subject: Vibrations  3
A 20,000 ton displacement cargo vessel having a four bladed propeller is estimated to have
vertical vibration natural frequencies (Hertz), as follows: 2noded, 1.2, 3noded, 2.2, 4noded, 3.0
and 5noded, 4.0. The vertical mode of vibration most likely to be excited when the vessel is in the
maneuvering mode at 60 RPM is:
A) 2noded
B) 3noded
C) 4noded
D) 5noded
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.21, Spec. Number: II.A.1.a
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  1
A vessel having the characteristics listed below has an Initial GM of 3.2 feet when all fuel and
water tanks are pressed up to 98% capacity.
Length Between Perpendiculars 580 feet
Beam 72 feet
Draft 24 feet
Double Bottom Depth 5 feet
Displacement 20,600 L.Tons
KM 31.6 feet
The vessel has four cargo deep tanks, each 35 feet long, 36 feet wide and 14 feet deep. A cargo of
molasses (specific gravity 1.4) is loaded into the deep tanks until the tanks are filled to a depth of
10 feet. Assuming that KM remains the same, the apparent GM, with the deep tanks partially
filled with molasses, is (feet) most nearly:
A) 4.71
B) 4.16
C) 2.44
D) 2.23
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.22, Spec. Number: II.A.1.b
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  2
A cargo ship having a rolling period of 14 seconds sustains an accident that causes the flooding of
one of its holds. After the accident, the rolling period is 21 seconds. The percent loss of
transverse GM is most nearly:
A) 35
B) 45
C) 55
D) 65
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 23, Spec. Number: II.A.1.c
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  3
A vessel having the characteristics given below has 250 tonnes of fuel transferred from the No. 2
Center Double Bottom tank, located 32 meters aft of the F.P. to the No. 6 Center Double Bottom
tank, located 96 meters aft of the F.P., a distance of 64 meters.
Vessel characteristics:
LBP 165 meters
Beam 23.5 meters
Displacement 24,300 tonnes
Block Coefficient 0.72
Longitudinal Center of Flotation 6.2% of LBP (aft of midships)
TPcm 28.50
MTcm 557 tonnemeters
If the vessel is initially on an even keel with a mean draft of 8.5 meters, the draft forward
(meters) after completing the fuel transfer will be most nearly:
A) 8.213
B) 8.339
C) 8.356
D) 8.374
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.24, Spec. Number: II.A.2.a
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  4
An oceangoing vessel has the following characteristics:
Length Between Perpendiculars 193 meters
Beam 26.066 meters
Draft 9.495 meters
Displacement 30,743 tonnes
Sea Water Density 1.025 tonnes per cubic meter
HalfBreadths of the vessel's Waterplane are as given in the tabulation below.
Station Half
Breadth (m)
0 0.171
1.300
1 3.807
2 8.300
3 11.696
5 13.033
7 12.965
8 12.211
9 8.815
91/2 6.106
10 2.914
Using Simpsons First Rule, the vessels Tonnes per Centimeter Immersion (TPcm) (tonnes) is
most nearly:
A) 19.5
B) 37.1
C) 39.0
D) 58.5
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.25, Spec. Number: II.A.2.b
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  5
A coastal cargo vessel has the following particulars:
Displacement (Tons, Salt Water) 7,500
Length Between Perpendiculars (Ft.) 350
Beam (Ft.) 50
Draft (Ft.) 20
The vessels Block Coefficient (C
B
) is most nearly:
A) 0.73
B) 0.75
C) 0.77
D) 0.79
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.26, Spec. Number: II.A.2.c
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  6
The structure and loadings of a rectangular tank barge having dimensions of 100m x
20m x 10mm requires reviewing. The barge has four (4) transverse bulkheads that
subdivide it longitudinally into five tank compartments, each 20m in length. It has a
double bottom structure of one (1) meter depth and a light displacement of 2,000 tonnes.
The basic structure is of single side shell construction and has the following nominal
plate thicknesses:
Deck 12mm
Side Shell 10mm
Innerbottom 10mm
Bottom Plate 14mm
The barge is loaded in its three middle tanks to a depth of 6m with a liquid cargo having a
specific gravity of 1.5 for transport on a coastwise voyage. The displaced weight (tonnes) and
draft (meters) of the barge in salt water are most nearly:
Displacement Draft
A) 5600 2.73
B) 9200 3.51
C) 12800 6.24
D) 18000 8.78
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.27, Spec. Number: II.A.2.d
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  7
A yacht designer wishes to use an existing yacht as a prototype for a new 55 LOA design. The
parent vessel has the following particulars:
Length Over All 45 11
Waterline Length (LWL) 42 04
Displaced Weight (lbs) 25,500
Sail Area (Ft
2
) 975
Ballast (lbs) 11,000
The new, 55 design will have particulars most nearly:
Sail Area Ballast
A) 1,170 13,200
B) 1,240 15,800
C) 1,400 18,900
D) 1,645 24,100
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.28, Spec. Number: II.A.3.a
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  8
A longitudinally stiffened section of 20.4 pound deck plating, and having a yield strength of 36
ksi, is fitted with 8 x 4 x 9/16 inverted angles stiffeners, spaced on 30 inch centers. A naval
architect is tasked to check the buckling stress (ksi) and finds it to be most nearly:
A) 33
B) 30
C) 27
D) 24
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.29, Spec. Number: II.A.3.b
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  9
A small catamaran harbor ferry has a hull form consisting of tubular hulls 15 meters long and 1.0
meter in diameter. The hull centerlines are spaced 8 meters apart. When loaded with passengers
until the vessel draft is 0.5 meters, the vessels metacenter is located above the vessel keel
(meters) most nearly:
A) 10.2
B) 10.4
C) 20.4
D) 20.8
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.30, Spec. Number: II.B.1.a
Subject: Hydrodynamics 1
A monohull sailing yacht having a waterline length of 72 feet and a nominal hull speed of 11.4
knots is to be towingtank tested using a 12foot model. The towing tank carriage speed (feet per
second) for testing the 12foot model at the same Froude Number is most nearly:
A) 3.4
B) 3.9
C) 6.8
D) 7.8
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.31, Spec. Number: II.B.1.b
Subject: Hydrodynamics 2
A fuel barge is scheduled to be towed by a harbor tug at an average speed of 6 knots, the barge
requiring a tow force at 6knots estimated to be 88 Tons. Four tugs are available, each having a
propulsive efficiency estimated to be 65%. The tug most nearly able to meet the tow power
requirements will have (horsepower) available for towing:
A) 2,500
B) 3,250
C) 5,000
D) 6,500
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.32, Spec. Number: II.B.2.a
Subject: Hydrodynamics 3
Open water model tests of a ships propeller indicate that K
T
=0.225 and K
Q
=0.031 when the
advance ratio, J , is 0.6. The open water propeller efficiency, q
o
is most nearly:
A) 0.55
B) 0.60
C) 0.65
D) 0.70
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.33, Spec. Number: II.B.3.a
Subject: Hydrodynamics 4
A midsized passenger vessel is to be fitted with a set of port and starboard activatedfin
stabilizers. The vessel, having a 75 foot beam and a displacement of 25,000 tons usually has a
GM of 4 ft. and is expected to be stabilized when operating at 20 knots in a wave system having
a nominal wave length of 1,000 feet and a wave height of 15 feet. If the distance from the
vessels center of gravity to the midlength of the activated fin is approximately 50 feet, the
projected area (square feet) of each activated fin should be most nearly:
A) 55
B) 70
C) 85
D) 90
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.34, Spec. Number: II.B.4.a
Subject: Hydrodynamics 5
A naval architect is tasked to select a propeller for a vessel designed to have a sea speed of 23
knots. Model tests show that the Block 0.60 hull form of interest has a Taylor Wake Fraction of
0.24. The selection of a suitable propeller would be based upon a Speed of Advance (Knots)
most nearly:
A) 17.5
B) 18.9
C) 19.5
D) 20.9
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.35, Spec. Number: II.B.5.a Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 6
A naval architect is tasked to make an evaluation of the performance of one of his companys
vessels on the companys trade route and plan for appropriate drydocking. Log book analysis
shows that the ships propeller, which has a pitch of 31 feet, turns at 90 RPM, when steaming at
full power. The vessel log also notes that the vessel had a distance made good of 650 nautical
miles in 24 hours of fair weather travel. Analysis shows that the vessels apparent slip (%) is
most nearly:
A) 0.8
B) 1.7
C) 11
D) 16
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 36, Spec. Number: II.C.1.a
Subject: Wind and Waves  1
The speed (Feet per Second) and Period (Seconds) of a harmonic deepsea wave 800 feet long
is most nearly:
A) 64, 12.5
B) 91, 12.5
C) 64, 8.8
D) 91, 8.8
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 37, Spec. Number: II.C.4.a
Subject: Wind and Waves  2
A naval architect is tasked to evaluate fore deck structural loadings of a container vessel having a
length between perpendiculars of 230 meters traveling into head seas at 24 knots, and
experiencing a nominal period of encounter of 7 seconds with a pitch amplitude of 10 degrees.
The forward most containers are secured in position 0.05 L aft of the forward perpendicular. If
the waterplane centroid is located 0.08L aft of midships, the range of vertical acceleration (g),
augmented by vessel pitching, and thereby inducing loads on the hull structure, experienced by
the forwardmost container will be most nearly:
A) 1.75g to +1.75g
B) 2.75g to +0.75g
C) .75g to +2.75g
D) 2.75g to +1.75g
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.38, Spec. Number: II.C.5.a
Subject: Wind & Waves 3
The American Bureau of Shipping (ABS) in the Mobile Offshore Drilling Units rules defines the
wind force on vessels as:
P =0.00338 V
k
2
C
h
C
s
lbf/ft
2
;
F =P A lbf
P =wind pressure
V
k
=wind velocity in knots
C
h
=height coefficient
C
s
=shape coefficient
F =wind force
A =projected area in ft
2
of all exposed surfaces in either the upright or heeled condition
A 500foot long vessel with a mean draft of 20 feet has a lateral area of the above water portion
of 7,500 ft
2
. Assuming a shape coefficient of 1.0 and an average height coefficient of 1.10. The
wind force (in long tons) and heeling moment (in long tonfeet) on the vessel in a beam wind of
55 miles/hour is most nearly:
A) 8.5 285
B) 8.5 500
C) 28.5 285
D) 28.5 500
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 39, Spec. Number: II.C.5.b
Subject: Wind & Waves  4
A tanker of 250m LWL steams ahead at 17 knots. It encounters a train of deepwater waves
having a period of 7 seconds advancing towards the tanker from 50 degrees off the tankers
starboard stern. The tankers period of encounter (Seconds) is most nearly:
A) 3.05
B) 6.28
C) 14.4
D) 16.0
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.40, Spec. Number: II.D.1.a
Subject: Hull Forms  1
The structure and loadings of a rectangular tank barge having nominal dimensions of
100m x 20m x 10m requires reviewing. The barge is subdivided longitudinally into five
tank compartments, each 20m in length. It has a double bottom structure of one (1)
meter depth and a light displacement of 1,000 tonnes. The basic structure has the
following nominal thicknesses:
Deck 12mm
Side Shell 10mm
Innerbottom 10mm
Bottom Plate 14mm
The barge is loaded in the three middle tanks to a depth of 6m with a liquid cargo having a
specific gravity of 1.5. The barge is to be used to transport the cargo on a coastwise voyage.
The midship section moment of inertia (meters
4
) is most nearly:
A) 14
B) 17
C) 29
D) 31
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.41, Spec. Number: II.D.2.a
Subject: Hull Forms  2
A longitudinally stiffened section of deck plating is composed of 20mm plate fitted with 200mm
x 100mm x 13mm inverted angles, spaced on 750mm centers. The stiffened plate Section
Modulus (10
3
mm
3
) is most nearly:
A) 190
B) 200
C) 380
D) 400
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.42, Spec. Number: II.D.2.b
Subject: Hull Forms  3
A ship having a beam of 32.2 meters and a design draft of 12.2 meters has a bilge radius of 4.5
meters and a Dead Rise of 0.5 meters. The ships midship section coefficient (C
m
) is most
nearly:
A) 0.987
B) 0.978
C) 0.956
D) 0.912
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.43, Spec. Number: II.D.3.a
Subject: Hull Forms  4
A small vessel for ocean service is to be inclined to determine its GM. The vessel dimensions
are as follows:
LBP =75 meters
Beam =12.5 meters
Draft = 4.5 meters
The vessels Block Coefficient, C
B
=0.72
A 7.5 metric tonne weight is moved transversely a distance of 5.2 meters, causing the vessel to
heel 2.6 degrees.
The vessels GM (meters) is most nearly:
A) 0.15
B) 0.30
C) 0.45
D) 0.66
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.44, Spec. Number: II.D.4.a
Subject: Hull Forms  5
A vessel about to be drydocked in a graving dock has characteristics as listed below:
LBP 150 meters
Beam 20 meters
Draft 4.52 meters Forward
5.36 meters Aft
TPcm 22.14
MTcm 125
LCF 0.08L aft of midships
Landing Point 0.45L aft of midships
The keel loading at the landing point just prior to being fully landed of the docking blocks is most
nearly:
A) 130
B) 140
C) 155
D) 190
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.45, Spec. Number: III.A.1.a
Subject: Thermodynamics  1
A 250 hp auxiliary turbine is supplied superheated steam at 600 psia and 750
o
F. The turbine
exhausts to an auxiliary exhaust line at 30 psia at saturated conditions. If the turbine has an
overall efficieny of 60 %, the steam mass flow rate of the turbine (lbs per hour) is most nearly:
A) 500
B) 3,000
C) 5,000
D) 10,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.46, Spec. Number: III.A.2.a
Subject: Thermodynamics  2
A marine engineer is tasked to check the design of a singlepass, counterflow heat exchanger
used to cool lube oil. The oil enters the heat exchanger at 190
o
F and is cooled to 150
o
F while
the sea water enters at 85
o
F and leaves at 120
o
F. The log mean temperature difference for the
heat exchanger is most nearly;
A) 30
B) 60
C) 67
D) 105
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.47, Spec. Number: III.A.2.b
Subject: Thermodynamics  3
A consulting marine engineer is tasked by a client to evaluate the performance of a ships
ventillation system in order to assess maintenance requirements. After installation of a mounted
pitot tube into an inspection port of a 24 inch by 36 inch ventillation fan outlet duct, a measurement
indicates a velocity pressure of 0.45 inches of water. The marine engineer calculated that the air
flow rate (CFM) was most nearly:
A) 900
B) 10,800
C) 16,100
D) 51,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.48, Spec. Number: III.B.1.a
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 1
A ships fire main supplies two fire hoses located on the flying bridge level with a seawater
flow rate of 300 gpm. The flying bridge hydrants are located 85 feet vertically above the
elevation of the fire pump discharge. The piping system between the fire pump discharge and
the hydrant outlets consists of 200 linear feet of 4inch, Schedule 40 welded steel pipe, six (6),
long radius 90 degree elbows, two (2) gate valves and one (1) angle valve, all valves being in
the open position when providing service. The pressure drop (psi) between the pump discharge
and the hydrant outlets is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 37
C) 45
D) 100
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.49, Spec. Number: III.B.2.a
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 2
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch firehoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
The pumping capacity (gallons per minute) required in order to supply the two fire nozzles with
the pitot tube pressure stated is most nearly:
A) 150
B) 300
C) 450
D) 600
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.50, Spec. Number: III.B.2.b
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 3
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch firehoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
Assuming the pressure drop in the fire main due to fluid flow losses between the pump discharge
and the Flying Bridge nozzles is 25 psi, and ignoring the fluid flow velocity head at the pump
discharge, the pump discharge pressure (psi) while supplying the two fire hoses is most nearly:
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 175
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 51, Spec. Number: III.B.3.a
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow  4
100 gpm of water at 68 degree F. flows through 500 feet of a 2 inch schedule 40 steel pipe,
having a nominal surface roughness of 150 x 10
6
ft. The pressure drop (pounds per square inch)
over this length is most nearly:
A) 8
B) 15
C) 75
D) 150
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.52, Spec. Number: III.B.4.a
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 5
An electrically driven circulating pump delivers 800 gpm of sea water to a lubricating oil
cooler. The total head of 45 feet is developed by the pump. If the pump efficiency is 75%, the
brake horsepower (hp) required to drive the pump is most nearly:
A) 10
B) 12.5
C) 15
D) 20
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.53, Spec. Number: III.B.4.b
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 6
A ship having a mean draft of 28 feet has a 300 gpm centrifugal pump that has its suction eight
(8) feet above the ships baseline. The pump suction is connected to a 4 schedule 40 pipe and
delivers 60
o
F sea water to a heat exchanger. The Net Positive Suction Head Available (ft) at
the pump inlet is most nearly:
A) 20
B) 34
C) 53
D) 61
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 54, Spec. Number: III.C.1.a
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  1
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch fire hoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
Assuming the pump has a suction head of 12 feet, an 85 percent pumping efficiency, q
p,
and
discharges 300 gpm at a discharge pressure of 150 psig, the pumps required input shaft
horsepower is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 55, Spec. Number: III.C.1.b
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  2
A WaterJ et propulsion installation for a small, seagoing vessel moving at 40 knots has an
intake area of 3.5 square feet and a discharge nozzle diameter of 8 inches. Neglecting flow
losses, the delivered thrust and horsepower of the WaterJ et is most nearly:
A) 140,000 2,872
B) 160,000 2,955
C) 280,000 585
D) 320,000 654
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 56, Spec. Number: III.C.1.c
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation 3
A preliminary design is being developed for a 26knot containership. Model tests have resulted
in a predicted propulsion thrust requirement of 330,000 pounds. If the vessel form has an
estimated propulsion efficiency of 72 % and the line shafting incurs losses of 2 %, the required
shaft horsepower to be delivered by the main engine is most nearly:
A) 37,000
B) 35,000
C) 27,000
D) 25,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 57, Spec. Number: III.C.2.a
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  4
A marine engineer is tasked to estimate the required fuel capacity for a new 24 knot vessel
planned for operation between ports on the North American continent and Australia. It is
expected that a roundtrip voyage would cover 22,000 nautical miles with stops at eight (8) ports.
The vessel is to be powered by a 45,000 SHP diesel main engine having a specific fuel
consumption of 0.35 lbs. per shaft horsepowerhour. It is planned that the fuel to be used will be
lowsulfur Bunker C residual, 13 degrees API gravity, bunkering in North American ports, with
an estimated heating value of 18,500 BTU/Lb. The required fuel capacity (L.Tons) is most
nearly:
A) 7,000
B) 6,000
C) 5,000
D) 4,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.58, Spec. Number: III.D.1.a
Subject: Machine Design 1
A set of spur gears is to transmit 35 horsepower with a pinion speed of 1750 RPM. The pitch
diameter of the pinion is 6 inches and the diametral pitch is 3. The pitch diameter of the driven
gear is 24 inches and its diametral pitch is 3. The contact force (pounds) at the line of contact
is most nearly:
A) 35
B) 105
C) 210
D) 420
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.59, Spec. Number: III.D.1.b
Subject: Machine Design 2
A ships propeller tailshaft has been removed to the shipyards shop where it is to be fitted with
a bronze liner. The shaft diameter is 0.254m and the liner, which is 0.0127 m thick, is to be
shrinkfitted on to the shaft. The bronze material has a linear coefficient of thermal expansion of
o =21.24 x 10
6
m/m degree Celsius. If the liner is bored for an internal diameter of 253.8 mm
and heated to 165 degrees C. above the shops ambient temperature of 22 degrees C., so as to
facilitate its fitting onto the shaft, the liners clearance (mm) during its fitting will be most
nearly:
A) 0.31
B) 0.70
C) 0.89
D) 1.07
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.60, Spec. Number: III.D.2.a
Subject: Machine Design 3
Fretting corrosion of main propulsion line shafting caused by minute movements between mating
parts may produce sites for fatigue crack initiation. Fatigue life of tailshafts subject to fretting can
be greatly improved by:
A) Case Hardening the tailshaft
B) Using High Strength steel
C) Cold Rolling the shaft surface
D) Normalizing and Tempering the tailshaft
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.61, Spec. Number: III.E.1.a
Subject: HVAC/Refrigeration 1
Using the Psychrometric Chart below, and assuming the specific volume of dry air is approximately
fourteen cubic feet per pound, the moisture content (Lbs per hour) of an air flow of 5,000 CFM when
the dry bulb temperature is 75 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is 60 % is most nearly:
. A) 214
B) 235
C) 257
D) 278
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.62, Spec. Number: III.E.1.b
Subject: HVAC/Refrigeration 2
The air conditioning system for a ships accommodation spaces delivers 4,800 cfm. If the system
takes in 15% outside air at a temperature of 90 degrees F and 80% relative humidity, the additional
thermal loading of the system (BTU/Hr.) in order to deliver the outside air at 68 degrees F and 50%
relative humidity is most nearly.
A) 20,000
B) 40,000
C) 60,000
D) 80,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.63, Spec. Number: III.F.1.a
Subject: Electrical Loads 1
A 3phase, 60 Hz, 440V/120V stepdown transformer provides 25 KVA to a 0.8 power factor load.
The transformer is connected DeltaWye. The line current (Amps) feeding the transformer is most
nearly:
A) 56.8
B) 45.5
C) 32.8
D) 26.2
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.64, Spec. Number: III.F.1.b
Subject: Electrical Loads 2
A ships electrical plant has a 3phase, 4pole, 60hz generator producing 450Volt power. Its name
plate indicates a rating of 1200 Amperes with 0.8 lagging power factor. If its electrical efficiency is
92%, its reactive power, Q, (KVAR) is most nearly:
A) 560
B) 750
C) 860
D) 935
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.65, Spec. Number: III.F.2.a
Subject: Electrical Loads 3
A motorships main engine startingair compressor is driven by a 25 horsepower 230 volt three
phase AC motor having an 87% efficiency and a 0.8 power factor under normal operating
conditions. During engine maneuvering operations, when the vessel is entering and departing a
port, it is expected that the compressor will have a normal on/off cycle of 15 minutes on and 10
minutes off. The StartingAir Compressor electrical load that should be added to the load analysis
for the maneuvering condition is (kW) most nearly:
A) 7.4
B) 8.1
C) 9.3
D) 16.1
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.66, Spec. Number: III.F.2.b
Subject: Electrical Loads 4
The compressors of a ships refrigeration system are driven by four (4) 25 hp, 1750 rpm electric
motors. The refrigeration compressors require an input torque of 66 footpounds at 1750 rpm
under normal, atsea operating conditions, on a 20minute per halfhour cycle. The motor
efficiency is approximately 80% at half rated load, 86% at 75% rated load and 90% at 100%
rated load. The contribution to the atsea electric power load analysis (kW) for the refrigeration
system is most nearly:
A) 12
B) 22
C) 50
D) 90
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.67, Spec. Number: III.F.2.c
Subject: Electrical Loads  5
A marine engineer is tasked to perform an electrical load analysis for a machinery system design.
The machinery space ventillation system has port and starboard fans driven by 60 horsepower
squirrel cage induction motors operating on 240 volt, 60 Hz, 3 phase power. During atsea
operations, the service factor is 0.85 and the motor efficiency is 91%. The contribution to the atsea
electrical load analysis (kW) is most nearly:
A) 44.8
B) 49.2
C) 76.1
D) 83.6
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.68, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.a
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  1
A Standard IBeam section is to be used for support of a ships stores crane operating from a vessels
side port. The crane lifting capacity is to be 2 L.tons, and the beam is to extend 15 feet outboard of
the support located just inside the ships side, the inboard support being located 10 feet farther
inboard. The lightest weight Standard IBeam section that will have a maximum shear stress not to
exceed 13.6 ksi and a maximum normal stress not to exceed 20 ksi is most nearly
A) S20 x 66
B) S15 x 42.9
C) S12 x 40.8
D) S10 x 25.4
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.69, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.b
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  2
The deck plating of a tank barge is selected as 12mm, with a material yield stress of 220.6
MPa or 32 ksi. The selection of longitudinal deck plate stiffeners is decided to be on the
basis that the plate buckling stress is not to exceed 85% of the materials yield stress. If
Poissons Ratio for the steel is 0.30, and the Elastic Modulus (E) of the steel is 30 x 10
6
psi,
or 206.8 GPa, the maximum spacing of the longitudinal stiffeners (mm), assuming the plate
panels may be considered long, i.e., have an aspect ratio of 3.0 or greater, is most nearly:
A) 800
B) 750
C) 700
D) 650
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 70, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.c
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  3
An insulated aluminum LNG tank having a diameter of 35 meters is to be cooled from 75
degrees Fahrenheit above zero to 260 degrees Fahrenheit below zero while the supporting steel
structure remains at ambient temperature. If the average coefficient of thermal expansion of
aluminum over that temperature range is o =11 x 10
6
, the relative vertical shrinkage (Inches) of
the tank with respect to the support structure will be most nearly:
A) 0.5
B) 2.5
C) 5.0
D) 25
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.71, Spec. Number: IV.A.2.a
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  4
Uncoated steel structure in a saltwater ballast tank has a nominal wastage of about 0.1 mm per
year. The surface wastage on a vessels ballast tank spaces over a 25 year service life will weigh
(kilograms per 1000 square meters) most nearly:
A) 20
B) 200
C) 2,000
D) 20,000
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.72, Spec. Number: IV.B.2.a Solution
Subject: Navigation and Vessel Control  1
A passenger ferry steaming at sixteen knots across the eight mile wide inlet channel of a bay to
its southern terminal encounters an incoming tide of 4.5 knots. If the pilot wishes to maintain a
course made good of 180 degrees and the tidal current flows due west, the course (degrees true)
to be steered is most nearly:
A) 186
B) 180
C) 164
D) 74
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.73, Spec. Number: IV.C.1.a
Subject: Hull Outfitting 1
An oceangoing supply vessel anchor windlass is to be driven by an electric motor. The vessel
has an anchor weighing 480 kg with 150 meters of 22 mm diameter anchor chain, weighing 13.5
kg per meter. It is required that the windlass be capable of weighing anchor when fully paidout
at a speed of 1 meters per second. If the friction coefficient for drawing the anchor chain
through the hawse pipe is 0.25, the required power (kw) of the windlass motor is most nearly:
A) 61.4
B) 53.4
C) 30.7
D) 26.7
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.74, Spec. Number: IV.C.1.b
Subject: Hull Outfitting 2
A ship owner is interested in modifying his ships steering system by adding an auxiliary steering
gear for emergency use with the ships speed at 19 knots and the rudder angle restricted to 10
degrees. Sea trial data were used to establish a rudder torque of 23.4 x 10
6
poundinches when the
ships speed was 19 knots and its rudder angle was 45 degrees, based on the following relationships:
Rudder Force =(4.6 K A V
2
Sin o)/(0.39 + 0.61 Sin o)
Where K = Constant
A =Rudder Area (Square Feet)
V =Ship Speed (Knots)
o =Rudder Angle (Degrees)
and,
Moment Arm =(0.195 +.305 Sin o ) x Rudder Width
The estimated rudder torque value (poundinches x 10
6
) at a ship speed of 19 knots and rudder angle
of 10 degrees is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 10
C) 6
D) 2
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.75, Spec. Number: IV.D.1.a
Subject: Weight Engineering 1
A shipyard is planning to fabricate subassembly sections consisting of a longitudinally stiffened
9/16inch thick plate with inverted L8 x 4 x 9/16 angles welded to the plate. The stiffeners are
equally spaced at 30 inches. The plate is 108 inches wide and 45 feet long. The lifting and
transporting capacities (Short Tons) of the shipyard in order to transport this subassembly, will be
most nearly:
A) 5.0
B) 6.0
C) 7.5
D) 10.0
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.76, Spec. Number: IV.D.1.b
Subject: Weight Engineering 2
A welded plate/shape subassembly is to be produced in the plate shop. The fabrication will join
two 20millimeter thick plates each having a width of 3 meters and a length of 15 meters. They
will be longitudinally stiffened by 200mm x 100mm x 12mm inverted angles at 750 mm equal
spacing. Upon completing the fabrication, one of the shop cranes will be used to move it to
another location for further work. The minimum crane capacity (tonnes) required to safely make
this move is most nearly:
A) 15.0
B) 17.5
C) 20.0
D) 25.0
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.77, Spec. Number: IV.E.1.a
Subject: Shipbuilding and Repair 1
A shipyard Plate Shop is tasked to plan for production of longitudinally stiffened 30.6 lb. shell
plates, each to be fitted with 4  8 x 4 x 19.6 lb inverted angles. The angles are to be 3/8
double fillet welded to the plate which is 9 feet wide and 45 feet long. A plate shop automatic
welding machine, capable of doublefillet welding has a 3/16 filler rod feed rate of 15 feet per
minute for each fillet weld. Neglecting setup time, production of each stiffened plate will take
(minutes) most nearly:
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.78, Spec. Number: IV.E.1.b
Subject: Shipbuilding and Repair 2
A shipyard plate shop planning production of stiffened plates requires adequate crane capacity
for handling the following fabrication. Four 225 mm x 100 mm x 15 mm inverted angles, double
fillet welded to a 3 m x 15 m x 25 mm plate. The required crane Safe Working Capacity
(tonnes) for handling this fabrication is most nearly:
A) 2.5
B) 5.0
C) 10
D) 15
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.79, Spec. Number: IV.F.1.a
Subject: Economics 1
A shipyard engineer is tasked to carry out a Present Value investigation of an installation of a
proposed solarelectric generating system on the shipyards administration building roof as a
means of reducing the shipyards electric utility expenses and to take advantage of government
programs subsidizing such environmentally favorable installations to reduce greenhouse gas
production by electric utility power plants. The candidate system is designed to produce 750
kilowatts of electric power for 12 hours a day, on average, under normal environmental
conditions. The monthly maintenance expenses of the candidate system are estimated to be
$1.50 per kilowatt capacity per month, and remain essentially constant over its 20year expected
life. With a cost of utilitydelivered power at $0.10 per kilowatt hour, the cost of investment
capital at 6%, and a corporate policy to obtain a return on investment of 20%, the installation of
the system, based on a Present Value analysis, must not cost (Thousand $) more than:
A) 3,010
B) 3,140
C) 3,410
D) 3,610
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.80, Spec. Number: IV.F.1.b
Subject: Economics 2
A new plate shop production facility is being planned that will have an estimated cost $25,000,000
and an expected service life of 15 years. Operating and maintenance costs for the facility are
estimated to be $1,500,000 per year, and the facilitys scrap value is estimated to be $1,200.000. It
is planned to issue 7.5% industrial bonds for the acquisition and establish a sinking fund for their
redemption. The total annual budget (Million $) for support of this new facility will amount to most
nearly:
A) 3.17
B) 2.46
C) 2.17
D) 0.96
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.81, Spec. Number: IV.F.2.a
Subject: Economics 3
A marine engineering firm purchased and installed a new production facility for fabrication of its
line of fluid machinery at a cost of $750,000, funded by a bank loan at an interest rate of 8.5%
for a period of five (5) years. The firms cost accountants determined that, because of the
efficiency of the new facilities, the companys production costs would be reduced by $300,000
per year over the fiveyear term of the bank loan. A Present Value Analysis shows that the
Return On Investment (ROI) for this project has a rate of return most nearly:
A) 8.5
B) 12
C) 24
D) 58
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.82, Spec. Number: IV.F.2.b
Subject: Economics 4
A Naval Architecture and Marine Engineering firm has received a $52,500 payment for a long
overdue billing, with annually compounded interest and surcharges. The payment was six years
overdue and the original billing was for $25,000. The effective interest rate received is most nearly:
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 13
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.83, Spec. Number: IV.G.2.a
Subject: Rules and Regulations, Human Factors, Safety Systems, etc.  1
A longitudinally framed vessel having a 15.5 m molded depth to the freeboard deck, a
10.25m design draft and a 750 mm side frame spacing supported by transverse frames
spaced at 3.0 meters, requires, at a distance of 6m below the design waterline, a stiffener
section modulus (cm
3
) most nearly:
A) 210
B) 460
C) 570
D) 625
Refer to the construction rules below.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 84, Spec. New Number: IV.G.2.b
Subject: Rules and Regulations, Human Factors, Safety Systems, etc.  2
A naval architect is tasked to determine the materials for the hull of a container vessel, having a
Length Between Perpendiculars of 273 meters (777 feet) and a design draft of 10.7 meters (35 feet).
At a location on the bottom shell 60 meters aft of the forward perpendicular the plating is chosen to
be 35.7 lb/sq. ft. plate. Refer to the Tables 1 and 2 and Notes below to determine the required
minimum quality of plating material as:
A) A, AH
B) B, AH
C) D, DH
D) E, EH
8 ABS RULES FOR BUILDING AND CLASSING STEEL VESSELS . 2004
3 Application of Steel Materials 51.0 mm (2.00 in.) and
Under in Thickness
3.1 Selection of Material Grade
Steel materials for particular locations are not to be of lower grades than those required by
312/Table 1 for the material class given in 312/Table 2.
3.3 Note for Users
The attention of users is drawn to the fact that when fatigue loading is present, the effective strength of
higherstrength steel in welded construction may not be greater than that of ordinarystrength steel.
Precautions against corrosion fatigue may also be necessary.
TABLE 2
Material Class or Grade of
Structural Members (2003)
SAMPLE NAME EXAMINATION SOLUTION
Sample Examination Questions The following 80 questions concern topics of the
NAME Principles and Practice Examination Specification Subject Areas in the approximate
weighting of the examination. The solutions given below have not been reviewed or timed by a
subject matter expert and do not necessarily reflect any specific problems that have been or
may in future be on an NAME examination. More than 6 minutes may be required to solve
some of them. They are presented for personal study only. Comments and suggestions
regarding errors, manner of presentation or other improvements will be appreciated. That the
questions are numbered up to 84, reflects the fact that several numbered items have not yet
been prepared. In some groups, there are more questions than the specification calls for, while
in others there are fewer. This remains a work in progress. It is believed, however, that if you
can successfully solve all of these problems, you will be reasonably well prepared for taking
the examination. You have our best wishes for a successful effort.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 1, Spec. Number: I.A.1.a Solution:
Subject: Mechanics 1
A shear leg, composed of three pipe sections in a tilted tripod arrangement, is mounted at the
bow of a squareended barge (as indicated in the figure below), so to be suitable for hoisting
and lowering mooring anchors and buoys in a mooring field. The design calls for a lift capacity
of 5 tonnes. The forward two sidelegs are 10 meters long and their base connections (in
clevises) are set 12 meters apart. The third leg is 12.8 meters long with its base attached 8
meters aft of the axis of the other two legs bases. The third leg is attached to its base
connection with a round pin connected through a clevis. The pin is thus in double shear. The
hoisting cable passes over a sheave at the apex of the tripod and is attached to a winch mounted
on the third leg as shown. The design shear stress of the pin is 16 MPA. The required diameter
(mm) of the third legs clevispin is most nearly:
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
E) 40
With the two forward legs 10 meters long and their base attachments 12 meters apart, there is a
3/4/5 triangle, thus the distance from their base attachment axis (A) to the apex (C) is 8 meters.
The distance from the two legs axis (through Clevis A) to the third leg clevis (lets call this point
B) is given as 8 meters, thus the triangle shown in the elevation is an isosceles triangle. The
third leg is 12.8 meters long. Thus, the perpendicular distance from the axis A to the third leg
is given by (8
2
6.4
2
)
1/2
=4.8 meters.
The acute angle of the triangle will be arcsine (4.8/8) =36.87 degrees and thus the angle the
forward legs make with the horizontal is 73.74 degrees and the distance from the axis A to the
line of action of the 5 tonne load is 8 cosine 73.74 degrees =2.24 meters.
Summing moments about the axis A we obtain the force in the member at B as,
5 x 2.24 F x 4.8 =0, or F = 2.333 tonnes. =2,333 kg =22890 Newtons since one Kilogram
mass x 9.81 m/sec
2
produces 9.81 Newtons force in the gravitation field.
With an allowable stress of 16 Mpa or 16 N/mm
2
, the shear area required in the clevis pin
becomes 22890/16 =1430.625 mm
2
. The clevis pin is, however, in double shear, so the shear
area only needs to be 715.3125 mm
2
.
The clevis pin is round so that the shear crosssection area =tD
2
/4
Thus, the clevis pin diameter must be (715.312 x 4/t)
1/2
= 30.18 mm
Therefore, the correct answer is C)
It should be noted here that the distracters given in the problem statement are only partially
arbitrary as 10 mm results from neglecting gravity, 40 results from neglecting a factor of four in
crosssectional and 20 is arbitrarily selected.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.2, Spec. Number: I.A.1.b Solution
Subject: Mechanics 2
A commercial vessel is to be outfitted with a radar antenna, of 250 kg mass, mounted atop a 10
meter stayed mast that is fitted on the flying bridge. The flying bridge is located 30 meters
above the ships base line and the vessel has a design draft of 10 meters. The installation is to be
designed to sustain a rollamplitude of 35 degrees with a 6 second period of roll. The mast is to
be simply supported at its base and stayed transversely and fore and aft by shrouds connected at
its top that are attached to flying bridge structure five meters fore and aft and outboard Port and
Starboard from the mast base. The design loading of the transverse shrouds (kilonewtons),
including a Factor of Safety of 4.0, due to transverse rolling motion, is most nearly:
A) 5
B) 14
C) 28
D) 50
Assume that the vessels rolling takes place about its waterplane centerline axis and thus the
radar unit is located 30 +10 10 =30 meters above the axis of roll. With a 6 second period of
roll (T) and a roll amplitude of 35 degrees the rolling motion can be described as  =
(35t/180)sine(2tt/T). When the vessel is heeled at 35 degrees and accelerating back upright, the
angular acceleration, o, acting on the radar unit can be computed as
d
2
/dt
2
=(35t/180)(2t/T)
2
sin(2tt/T) directed perpendicular to the masts axis. The lateral
acceleration experienced by the unit will be ro where r is the distance of the unit from the axis of
rolling, or 30 meters. Thus the lateral acceleration force will be:
F
l
=m*r*o =250*30*(35t/180)(2t/T)
2
= 5024.16 Newtons
The weight of the radar unit that is directed vertically downward and is
W
g
=250 * 9.81 = 2452.5 newtons and it exerts a force component perpendicular to the mast
axis of W
g
sin (35 degrees) or 1406.7 Newtons.
The total lateral component of force is thus 5024.16 +1406.7 = 6,430.86 newtons.
The shroud makes an angle with the flying bridge of  =arctan 2 =63.43 degrees, so the force in
the shroud has a component perpendicular to the mast axis of F cosine (63.43 degrees), or 0.4472
*F. Thus, 0.4472*F =6430.86 newtons or F =14.379 kilonewtons.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 3,Spec. Number: I.A.2.a Solution
Subject: Mechanics 3
A 10ton plateyard crane is to be mounted on a lightweight, simply supported beam having a
40 foot span. In order to provide adequate beam stiffness, a design criterion restricts midspan
deflection to 1/360 of the span. The lightest weight American Standard IBeam that meets this
criterion is most nearly:
D) S 20 x 75.0
E) S 20 x 65.4
F) S 18 x 70.0
D) S 18 x 54.7
Solution:
The midspan deflection under midspan loading of a simply supported beam is determined by
the equation:
o =PL
3
/48EI, where:
o =midspan deflection in inches
P =midspan load in pounds
L =span length in inches
E =beam material elastic modulus in pounds per square inch
I =Moment of Inertia of the beam section in inches
4
This equation can be rewritten to determine required beam section moment of inertia as
follows:
I =PL
3
/48 Eo
From the data, P =2,000 pounds per ton * 10 tons =20,000 pounds;
L =40 feet * 12 inches per foot =480 inches
E =29.6 * 10
6
pounds per square inch
o =40*12/360 =1.333 inches
Thus I =20,000 * 480
3
/ 48 * 29.6 * 10
6
* 1.3333 =1167.6 inches
4
From Marks Standard Handbook for Mechanical Engineers, Ninth Edition, 1987, it is found
that the Standard American IBeam section S 20 x 65.4 has a moment of inertia of 1169.5
inches
4
, and this is the lightest IBeam meeting the requirement. I believe that a later edition
of the Handbook will have similar information from which to select the correct section shape.
In the AISC Manual of Steel Construction, Ninth Edition, 1991 the S20 x 66 is indicated to
have an Ibeam moment of inertia of 1190 inches
4
, which is also the lightest section meeting
the required moment of inertia.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 4, Spec. Number: I.A.2.b Solution
Subject: Mechanics  4
A longitudinally stiffened section of 20.4 pound deck plating, and having a yield strength of 36
ksi, is fitted with 8 x 4 x 9/16 inverted angles stiffeners, spaced on 30 inch centers. A naval
architect is tasked to check the buckling stress (ksi) and finds it to be most nearly:
A) 33
B) 30
C) 27
D) 24
Solution:
Steel has an Elastic Modulus (E) of approximately 29.6 x 10
6
psi and a Poissons Ratio (v) of
about 0.3.
For a long, simplysupported plate, of thickness t, under longitudinal compression loading, the
buckling critical stress is approximately defined by
o
cr
= 4 t
2
D/(b
2
t) where D =E t
3
/12(1v
2
) =0.3388 x 10
6
o
cr
=0.3388 x 10
6
x 4 x 9.8696 / (30
2
x .5) =29,725 psi
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 5, Spec. Number: I.A.2.c Solution
Subject: Mechanics  5
A longitudinally stiffened section of deck plating is composed of 20mm plate fitted with
200mm x 100mm x 13mm inverted angles, spaced on 750mm centers. The plate stiffener
Section Modulus (10
3
mm
3
) is most nearly:
A) 4550
B) 3980
C) 439
D) 407
Solution:
Make a Base Line axis at the interface of the plate and the shape and set up a table as below:
Dimensions Area y A*y A*y
2
(10
6
) I
o
(10
6
)
Plate Element 20 x 750 15000 10 150000 1.500000 .500000
Web 200 x 13 2600 +100 +260000 26.00000 8.666666
Flange 13 x 87 1131 +193.5 +218848 43.347184 .0159248
Total 18731 +328848 70.847184 9.182594
yBar =A*y/A =328848/18731 =17.556mm
I
BL
=E(Ay
2
+I
o
) =70.847184 +9.182594 =80.029778 x 10
6
mm
4
The distance from the neutral axis to the plate shape interface is 17.556 mm therefore the
moment of inertia about the N.A. is:
I
BL
A*yBar
2
=80.029778*10
6
18731*17.556
2
I
NA
=80.029778  5.773140 =74.256638*10
6
mm
4
Therefore the Section Modulus referring to the flange becomes:
S =I
NA
/c =74.256638/(20017.556) =74.256638/182.444 (10
6
) =407010.5 mm
3
=407.01 (10
3
mm
3
)
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 6, Spec. Number: I.B.1.a Solution
Subject: Loads  1
An electric motor drives a saltwater circulating pump through a coupling connecting their
shafts. The motor delivers 150 horsepower at 900 RPM. The steady state torque transmitted
(footpounds) by the shaft coupling is most nearly:
A) 1750
B) 875
C) 91.7
D) 15.1
Solution:
Power =Torque * Angular Velocity
1 Horsepower =550 ftlbs/second or 33,000 ftlbs/minute
Angular Velocity =2 t RPM radians/minute
Therefore, Torque =33,000 SHP/2t RPM =5252 SHP/RPM
Torque =33,000 * 150/2t*900 =875 ftlbs
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 7, Spec. Number: I.B.1.b Solution
Subject: Loads  2
A longitudinally stiffened Tween deck is to be designed to carry a live load of 1200 pounds
per square foot. The supporting arrangement of the deck consists of a set of longitudinal
girders (spaced at 25 feet) and maintransverse webframes (spaced at 30 feet). At the
intersection of each longitudinal girder and maintransverse webframe, a pillar (or stanchion)
is placed to support the load. The longitudinal stiffener spacing is 30 inches. Neglecting the
dead load of the structure, the axial load on a pipesection stanchion (Long Tons) and the
longitudinal stiffener design load (Pounds per foot) are most nearly:
A) 450, 1.5
B) 450, 300
C) 400, 1200
D) 400, 3000
As the longitudinal girder spacing is 25 feet and the main transverse webframe spacing is 30
feet, the design load of the stanchion will include 12.5 feet to either side of the longitudinal
girder and 15 feet fore and aft of the main transverse webframe, or be 25 x 30 x 1200 =
900,000 pounds, or 401.8 Long Tons.
With a longitudinal stiffener spacing of 30 inches and a live loading of 1200 pounds per square
foot, the design load for the longitudinal will include 15 inches to either side of the longitudinal
and be 1200 x 30/12 =3,000 pounds per foot of length.
Thus the correct answer is D), 400 L.Tons, 3000 Lbs/foot,
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 8, Spec. Number: I.B.1.c Solution
Subject: Loads 3
A channel section (C 15x50) is loaded as shown below with the lateral loading in line with the
section center of gravity, the geometric center of the section. In addition to the vertical shear
and bending considerations, a twisting moment is generated (inchpounds per foot) that is most
nearly:
A) 1,700
B) 960
C) 700
D) 550
1200
lbs/ft
15 ft
1200
lbs/ft
Geometric
Center
Solution:
The AISC Manual of Steel Construction, Ninth Edition, 1991 lists the section properties and
dimensions of the C 15 x 50 American Standard Channel Pg 140. The section Centroid is
listed as 0.798 inches to the right of the back surface while the Shear Center location, e
o
is
indicated as 0.583 inches to the left of the back surface. Therefore, the twisting moment being
generated about the Shear Center will be T =(0.798 +0.583) x 1,200 =1.381 x 1,200 =1,657
inlbs/foot
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.9, Spec. Number: I.B.2.a Solution
Subject: Loads 3
A luffing and slewing crane, to be located on a vessels foredeck for anchor handling and other
miscellaneous work, is to have a capacity of 5 tons when extended horizontally to its maximum
length of 45 feet. Crane luffing is controlled by a hydraulic cylinder ram attached 6 feet below
the connection between the crane boom and the pedestal and 6 feet outboard of the connection.
In the fully extended position stated, the load (Tons) on the hydraulic ram is most nearly:
A) 40
B) 50
C) 200
D) 300
Taking moments about the joint connecting the Boom heel and the Crane post, the moments of
the 5ton load at boom end and the force in the hydraulic ram must be in equilibrium. Thus F
R
* 6 ft * cosine 45
o
=5 tons * 45 ft or,
F
R
=5 * 45/(6*cosine 45
o
)
F
R
=53.04 Tons
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.10, Spec. Number: I.B.2.b Solution
Subject: Loads 5
The transverse bulkhead of a singleshell saltwater ballast deep tank, extending from the deck
to the bottom, of a liquid cargo barge (20 feet deep) is horizontally stiffened. The stiffeners are
at a 24inch spacing and supported by vertical webs 12 feet apart. The tank vent extends to 36
inches above the deck. The design load on the bottommost stiffener (pounds per foot) is most
nearly:
A) 2700
C) 2300
D) 1300
E) 1100
Solution
The specific weight of seawater is generally taken as 64 pounds per cubic foot. The lowest
stiffener is located 24 inches above the bottom shell plating, or 18 feet below the deep tank top.
For the case when the tank is filled to overflow, the depth of water from the overflow level to
the lowest stiffener is 20 feet minus 2 feet plus 3 feet or 21 feet. The pressure at that depth is
64 x 21 =1344 pounds per square foot. With a stiffener spacing of 24 inches, the loading on
the lowest stiffener is 2 x 1344 or 2688 pounds per foot.
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.11, Spec. Number: I.B.3.a Solution
Subject: Loads 6
A container vessel proceeding in a seaway experiences pitch amplitudes of 12 degrees with a
pitch period of 7 seconds. The vessel is 870 feet long and the center of flotation is located 0.08
L aft of midships. The maximum vertical acceleration (g) deck cargoes experience on the
foredeck at 0.05L aft of the Forward Perpendicular due to the pitching is most nearly:
A) 1.0
B) 2.4
C) 3.0
D) 3.4
Solution:
The pitch motion of the vessel can be described as u =A t/180 sin (2 t t/T) where:
A =12 degrees
T =7 seconds
Angular acceleration, o, will then be d
2
u/dt
2
= (A t/180) * (2t/T)
2
sin (2tt/T)
Substituting values, o =  (12 t/180) * (2 t / 7)
2
= 0.20944 radians* .80568 per second
squared =0.1687 radians per second squared.
Assuming the pitching motion takes place about the Center of Flotation, the pitching arm is
(0.08L +0.5L 0.05L) or (69.6 +435 43.5) feet =461.1 feet and the acceleration due to
pitching becomes 461.1 * 0.1687 =77.806 feet per second squared.
When the vessel is pitched down and pitching up, this acceleration adds to the gravitational
acceleration of 32.174 feet per second squared for a total acceleration of 109.98 feet per second
squared or 3.418 g.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.12, Spec. Number: I.C.1.a Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 1
A 150 H.P. electric motor is to drive a main circulating pump with a maximum speed of 900
RPM. The motor and pump shafts are connected by a flanged coupling having six, inch
diameter steel bolts. If the shear stress in the coupling bolts is not to exceed 13.5 ksi, with a
factor of safety of 4.0, the bolt circle diameter (inches) must be not less then:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Solution:
A 150 horsepower electric motor rotating at 900 RPM develops a torque T = 33,000 x H.P./(2
t x RPM) =33,000 x 150/(3.14159 x 1800) =1875 ftlbs =10,504 inchlbs.
The polar moment of inertia of the six coupling bolts =J =6 x r
2
x A =6 x r
2
x td
2
/4 =6 x r
2
x
3.14159 x 0.5
2
/4 = 1.178 r
2
The stress in the bolts t =T c/J =13,500/4 =3,375 psi =10,504 x r/1.178 r
2
. Solving for r
yields r = 2.2642 inches. Thus the bolt circle diameter must not be less than 5.284 inches.
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.13, Spec. Number: I.C.1.b Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 2
An Upper Engine Room hoisting winch for use in main engine overhaul work is to be mounted
on a removable Ibeam that spans the 20foot wide engine room casing. The hoist is to have a
5 S.Ton capacity, and the connection brackets at each end of the Ibeam are to be fitted with
bolts adequate to resist the shear force and bending moments generated when the hoist is
located at midspan with the maximum shearing force in the bolts not to exceed 13,500 psi.
The bracket bolts are to be six in number and in a single line with 3inch spacing. The diameter
of the bolts (eighths of an inch) need to be not less than:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
Solution:
When the hoist is at midspan, the vertical shear force acting on the bracket bolts is half of the 5
S.T. hoist capacity or F
d
=5,000 lbs and the direct shear stress in the six bolts will be t
d
=
F
d
/6A =5,000/6A =833/A.
Whether the bolts are aligned vertically or horizontally, the polar moment of inertia for the
array is J =E Ar
2
=2A(1.5
2
+4.5
2
+7.5
2
) =157.5 A. The bending moment on the array WL/8
=5 x 2,000 x 20 x 12/8 =300,000 inchpounds. For the horizontally arranged bolts, the stress
from direct shear load and from bending moment will directly superimpose. For the bending
moment, the shear stress t
b
=Tc/J = 300,000 x 7.5/157.50A =14,286/A.
A =14,286/13500 =1.058 in
2
=td
2
/4. d =(4 x 1.058 /t)
1/2
=1.1607 inches
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.14, Spec. Number: I.C.1.c Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure  3
The deck plating of a tank barge is selected as 12mm, with a material yield stress of 220.6 MPa
or 32 ksi. The selection of longitudinal deck plate stiffeners is decided to be on the basis that the
plate buckling stress is not to exceed 85% of the materials yield stress. If Poissons Ratio for
the steel is 0.30, and the Elastic Modulus (E) of the steel is 30 x 10
6
psi, or 206.8 GPa, the
maximum spacing of the longitudinal stiffeners (mm), assuming the plate panels may be
considered long, i.e., have an aspect ratio of 3.0 or greater, is most nearly:
A) 800
B) 750
C) 700
D) 650
Solution:
Using the relationship o
cr
=4 t
2
D/b
2
t, where D =E t
3
/12(1v
2
)
For the above case, b is to be determined while t =12 mm, E =206.8 GPa and o
All
=0.85 o
yp
=
0.85 * 32 ksi =27.2 ksi or 187.5 MPa.
1 Pascal =1 Pa =1 Newton per square meter
1 MPa =1 Mega Pascal =10
6
Pascals =1 Newton per square millimeter
1 GPa =1 Giga Pascal =10
9
Pascals =1000 Newtons per square millimeter
D =206,800 * 12
3
/12(10.3
2
) =32,724,395 Newtonmillimeters
b
2
=4t
2
D/o
All*
t =4*9.81*32,724,395/187.5*12 =570713 mm
2
Therefore b =(570,713)
1/2
=755 mm
The correct answer is C). The wider the stiffener spacing, the lower the buckling stress,
therefore the next smaller spacing must be selected.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.15, Spec. Number: I.C.2.a Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 4
A inch thick flanged bracket is to be used to transfer force and moment between the web of a
horizontal 8 x 4 x inverted angle deck longitudinal and the web of a vertical 8 x 4 x
bulkhead stiffener. The fitting of the bracket allows for a 5 x 10 rectangular fillet weld
configuration. If the shear force to be transmitted is estimated to be 3.5 L Tons and the
moment to be transferred is estimated to be 9.4 L TonFt., the minimum weld size (in 1/16
increments) needed to keep the maximum shear stress in the weld within the13,600 psi
allowable stress for the material is most nearly:
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Solution:
Let w
l
=the weld leg and t =0.707 w
l
=the weld throat. Then t
d
*t =direct force per inch of
weld in the weld throat, acting vertically downward.
The direct shear force per unit throat dimension, uniformly distributed over the weld is t
d
*t =
F
d
/(2*(5+10)) =3.5 * 2240/ 30 = 261.33 lbs per inch.
The torsional shear stress acting on the weld is t
T
=T*c/J which can be further broken down
into horizontal and vertical components as follows:
The torque is about the centroid of the weld configuration, i.e. 2.5 inches in one direction and 5
inches in the other.
The polar moment of inertia of the weld, J , is obtained as:
J =Sum (I
o
+A*d
2
) where I
o
=t*L
3
/12 +Lt
3
/12 for each weld segment and A =t*L for each
weld segment and d =the distance from the weldment segment centerline to the weldment
centroid. As the weldment depicted is simple and rectangular, we can extract a common t
and neglect the Lt
3
/12 component, computing J as follows:
J =Sum (L
3
/12 +Ld
2
) for each weld element, or
J =2*t(10
3
/12 +10*2.5
2
+5
3
/12 +5*5
2
) =2*t(83.3333 +62.5 +10. 4166 +125) =562.5*t
Then breaking up the shear flow into x and y components, we obtain T =9.4 * 2240 * 12 =
252,672 inlb, and
t
x
*t =T*y/(J /t) =252,672 * 5/562.5 =2,245.97 lb/in and
t
y
*t =T*x/(J /t) =252,672*2.5/562.5 =1,122.98 lb/in
Looking at the vertical or horizontal weldments, one can determine where the direct shear and
torsional shear add to yield a maximum value. Looking at the horizontal weldment at the upper
right corner, it is seen that the direct shear force and the 2245 add while the 1122 is at right
angles. Using vector resolution, we find that the resultant is
t*t =((2245.97 +261.33)
2
+1122.98
2
)
1/2
=(6,286,553 +1,261,084)
1/2
=2,747 lbs/inch
Therefore t =2747/13,500 =.2035. Dividing by .707 we obtain t=0.2878 inches.
Multiplying by 6 =4.6. Thus the weld leg should be 5/16 inches.
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.16, Spec. Number: I.C.2.b Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 5
A C15 x 50channel section is selected to act as a temporary (easily removable) beam in an
engine space. It is to be connected in position using a .375 inch thick gusset plate attached to
support structure. The channel section is to be connected to the gusset plate with eight (8) bolts
using a 3.0inch pitch and a 4.0inch back pitch. Assume the bolts have an allowable shear
stress of 13.6 ksi. The bolt shank size (inches) you would select to support an expected direct
joint load of 4.0 L. ton and a moment of 10 L.tonfeet is most nearly:
A) 3/4
B) 7/8
C) 1
D) 11/8
Solution:
The direct load on the eight bolts will be 4.0 x 2,240 =8,960 lbs, or a direct shear stress of t
d
=
8,960/8A =1120/A, acting downward, or in the ydirection.
With an array as described, the polar moment of inertia can be computed as follows:
J =8 A x 2
2
+4 A x 1.5
2
+4 A x 4.5
2
=A (32 +9 +81) =122 A inches
4
.
The torque is T =10 x 2240 x 12 =268,800 inchlbs.
The maximum stress will be at the corner bolt where
t
x
=Ty/J , and t
y
=Yx/J . Thus, t
x
=268800 x 4.5 / 122 A =9,915/A
and t
y
=268800 x 2 / 122 A =4407/A
Summing, the t
d
+t
y
=(1120 +4407)/A =5,527 /A, and t
x
=9915/A
Resolving, we obtain t =((5527/A)
2
+(9915/A)
2
)
1/2
= 11,351/A
A =11351/13600 =.83466 inches
2
A =td
2
/4 and therefore d =(4 x .83466/t)
1/2
=1.031 inches
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.17, Spec. Number: I.C.2.c Solution
Subject: Welds/Connections and Structure 6
Two mild steel 3in by 4in by 3/8in angles are to be welded to a 1/2 in thick gusset plate as
indicated in the sketch below with 5/16in welds. The yield strength of the material is 33 ksi
and the allowable shear stress through the weld throats is 13.6 ksi. The required length of weld
L
1
(inches) will be most nearly:
A) 28
B) 18
C) 14
D) 8
Solution:
From the AISC Steel Construction Manual we obtain the information that a 3in by 4in by 3/8
in angle has a crosssection area A =2.48 square inches. Thus, when the angle is stressed to its
yield strength, the total load on the welds is:
F =o
yp
*A , or F =33 ksi * 2.48 in
2
=81.84 kips
The weld throat is .707 times the weld leg or
t =0.707 * .3125 in, or 0.2209 inches.
The total length of weld then becomes
L*t * t
allowable
=F, or L =F/(t * t
allowable
)
L =81.84/(.2209 * 13.6) =27.24 inches
In order that the force in the angle and the resultant of the forces in the weld throats is balanced,
the centroid of the weldment forces must align with the centroid of the angle section.
From the AISC Steel Construction Manual we obtain the distance of the centroid from the
bottom of the extended flange as 1.28 inches. Therefore, we obtain:
L
1
*t*t
allowable
* (4.00 1.28)in =L
2
*t*t
allowable
* 1.28 in
Thus, L
1
=1.28 /(4.001.28)*L
2
=0.47059 L
2
, or L =1.47059 L2, L2 =27.24/1.47059 =
18.52 in. and L
1
=8.72 in
Alternatively, by taking moments about the bottom of the flange, we have
F * 1.28 =L
1
*t*t
allowable
* 4.0
L
1
=F * 1.28 /(t * t
allowable
* 4.0)
L
1
=81.24 * 1.28/0.2209 * 13.6 * 4.0) =8.65 in.
The correct answer is D)
Note that the answer A) is the total length of weld, the answer B) is the length of weld at the
angle heel and answer C) could be obtained if the total weld length is split equally between toe
and heel of the angle.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.18, Spec. Number: I.D.1.a Solution
Subject: Vibrations 1
A marine engineer is tasked to determine the vibration characteristics of a ships propeller and
propulsion shafting system. The 30 meter long, steel propeller shaft is hollow, having an
outside diameter of 0.6m and an inside diameter of 0.3 m. As part of a simple massspring
vibrating system, the effective spring constant, k
e
, (N/m) of the shafting acting with the
propeller mass is most nearly:
A) 5,800
B) 1940
C) 1850
D) 1460
Solution:
The axial deflection, o, of the shaft under the pulsating loading of the propeller is given by o =
PL/AE, where P in a unit load, L is the shaft length, A is the shafts crosssection area and E is
the elastic modulus of the steel.
The elastic modulus of Steel is 6,895 x 29.6 x 10
6
N/m
2
, or E =204.092 x 10
9
N/m
2
The effective spring constant, k
e
, is determined as k
e
=P/o, or k
e
=AE/L
Thus, k
e
=(t/4)(0.6
2
0.3
2
)(204.092 x 10
9
)/30 =1,442.6 N/m
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.19, Spec. Number: I.D.1.b Solution
Subject: Vibrations 2
A motor generator set, weighing 1,900 pounds, is mounted at midspan of a simplysupported
deck beam having a moment of inertia of 26.0 inches
4
, a section modulus of 8.7 inches
3
and a
length of 12 feet. The lowest motor rotating speed (RPM) capable of exciting the fundamental
mode of a simple massbeam system is most nearly:
A) 1,500
B) 1,000
C) 500
D) 250
Solution:
The deflection of a centrally loaded simple beam is defined by o =PL
3
/48 EI, and the mass
beam Spring Constant k
e
=P/o =48 EI/L
3
, or k
e
=48 x 29.6 x 10
6
x 26.0/(12 x 12)
3
lb/inch .
Thus, k
e
=12,371.399 lb/inch.
The lowest vibration frequency of the mass beam system is given by the relationship
Hz =(1/2t)(k
e
/m)
0.5
, where m =W/g. =(1,900/12*32.174) =1,900/386 =4.921
Hz =(1/2t)(12,371.399/4.921)
0.5
=(1/2t)50.13 =7.97987 Hz or 478.79 Cycles per
Minute or RPM
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.20, Spec. Number: I.D.1.c Solution
Subject: Vibrations3
A 20,000 ton displacement cargo vessel having a four bladed propeller is estimated to have
vertical vibration natural frequencies (Hertz), as follows: 2noded, 1.2, 3noded, 2.2, 4noded,
3.0 and 5noded, 4.0. The vertical mode of vibration most likely to be excited when the vessel
is in the maneuvering mode at 60 RPM is:
E) 2noded
F) 3noded
G) 4noded
H) 5noded
Solution:
The fourbladed propeller will have each blade pass through the unsteady wake of the vessel in
such a manner that there would be a pulse variation four times per propeller revolution, or 240
times per minute. A natural frequency of one Hertz is equal to 60 cycles per minute, and
equivalent to 60 RPM. Therefore, the fivenodded mode with a 4.0 Hertz or 240 cycles per
minute frequency would be most likely to be excited.
Note that 1.2 Hertz becomes 72 cycles per minute while 2.2 Hertz becomes 132 cycles per
minute and 3.0 Hertz becomes 180 cycles per minute. In this case, a 3bladed propeller at 60
RPM would be expected to excite the 4noded mode of vibration.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.21, Spec. Number: II.A.1.a Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  1
A vessel having the characteristics listed below has an Initial GM of 3.2 feet when all fuel and
water tanks are pressed up to 98% capacity.
Length Between Perpendiculars 580 feet
Beam 72 feet
Draft 24 feet
Double Bottom Depth 5 feet
Displacement 20,600 L.Tons
KM 31.6 feet
The vessel has four cargo deep tanks, each 35 feet long, 36 feet wide and 14 feet deep. A cargo
of molasses (specific gravity 1.4) is loaded into the deep tanks until the tanks are filled to a
depth of 10 feet. Assuming that KM remains the same, the apparent GM, with the deep tanks
partially filled with molasses, is (feet) most nearly:
A) 4.71
B) 4.16
C) 2.44
D) 2.23
Solution:
KM KG =GM =3.2 feet, therefore KG =31.6  3.2 =28.4 feet
Molasses weight =4 x 35 x 36 x 10 x 1.4 / 35.9 =1,965 L. Tons
New KG =(20,600 x 28.4 +1965 (5+10/2))/22,565 =25.927 feet
Free Surface Correction =(I x sp.gr.)/V =(4 x 35 x 36
3
/12)(1.4)/(35 x 22,565) =0.965
KM
app
=KM KG FSC = 31.6 25.927  0.965 =4.708
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.22, Spec. Number: II.A.1.b Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  2
A cargo ship having a rolling period of 14 seconds sustains an accident that causes the flooding
of one of its holds. After the accident, the rolling period is 21 seconds. The percent loss of
transverse GM is most nearly:
A) 35
E) 45
F) 55
G) 65
Solution:
The rolling period of a vessel is approximately defined as:
T

=2t K/(g GM
T
)
0.5
The ratio of periods is inversely proportional to the square roots of the transverse GM, other
factors remaining unchanged. Therefore,
T
2
/T
1
=21/14 =1.5 = (GM
T1
/GM
T2
)
0.5
Or, (GM
T1
/GM
T2
) =(T
2
/T
1
)
2
=(3/2)
2
=2.25
GM
T2
=GM
T1
/2.25 =0.4444GM
T1
The percent loss of GM
T
= (10.4444)*100 =55.55 %
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 23, Spec. Number: II.A.1.c
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  3
A vessel having the characteristics given below has 250 tonnes of fuel transferred from the No. 2
Center Double Bottom tank, located 32 meters aft of the F.P. to the No. 6 Center Double Bottom
tank, located 96 meters aft of the F.P., a distance of 64 meters.
Vessel characteristics:
LBP 165 meters
Beam 23.5 meters
Displacement 24,300 tonnes
Block Coefficient 0.72
Longitudinal Center of Flotation 6.2% of LBP (aft of midships)
TPcm 28.50
MTcm 557 tonnemeters
If the vessel is initially on an even keel with a mean draft of 8.5 meters, the draft forward
(meters) after completing the fuel transfer will be most nearly:
A) 8.213
B) 8.339
C) 8.356
D) 8.374
Solution
The trimming moment generated by the fuel transfer is: M
t
=250 x 64 =16,000 tonnemeters.
The change in trim is ot =M
t
/MTcm =16,000/557 =28.725 cm
The F.P. distance from the Longitudinal Center of Flotation is: 0.062 x 165 +165/2 =92.73 m
The draft reduction forward due to fuel transfer will be (92.73/165) x 28.725 =16.14 cm
The draft forward will be 8.5  0.1614 m =8.3386 m
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.24, Spec. Number: II.A.2.a Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  4
An oceangoing vessel has the following characteristics:
Length Between Perpendiculars 193 meters
Beam 26.066 meters
Draft 9.495 meters
Displacement 30,743 tonnes
Sea Water Density 1.025 tonnes per cubic meter
HalfBreadths of the vessel's Waterplane are as given in the tabulation below.
Using Simpsons First Rule, the vessels Tonnes per Centimeter immersion (TPcm) is most
nearly:
A) 19.5
B) 37.1
C) 39.0
D) 58.5
Station Half
Breadth
(m)
0 0.171
1.300
1 3.807
2 8.300
3 11.696
5 13.033
7 12.965
8 12.211
9 8.815
91/2 6.106
10 2.914
Solution:
The solution should be set up on an Excel Spreadsheet format as follows:
TPcm =A
wp
Sp.Gr./100
=
Solution Spreadsheet for Determining Waterplane Area
Station HalfBreadth Simpson HB x SM
Multiplier
0 0.171 0.5 0.0855
0.5 1.3 2 2.6
1 3.807 1.5 5.7105
2 8.3 4 33.2
3 11.696 3 35.088
5 13.033 8 104.264
7 12.965 3 38.895
8 12.211 4 48.844
9 8.815 1.5 13.2225
9.5 6.106 2 12.212
10 2.914 0.5 1.457
Total 295.5785
Waterplane Area =(2/3)*(L/10)(Total) = 3803.11 square meters
3803.11*1.025/100 = 38.98
Note that this is a more difficult problem than could be expected on an examination. If,
however, the examinee understands where the Simpsons Multipliers come from and how they
are used in this solution, the application to a simpler problem should be easily carried out.
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.25, Spec. Number: II.A.2.b Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  5
A coastal cargo vessel has the following particulars:
Displacement (Tons, Salt Water) 7,500
Length Between Perpendiculars (Ft.) 350
Beam (Ft.) 50
Draft (Ft.) 20
The vessels Block Coefficient (C
B
) is most nearly:
A) 0.73
B) 0.75
C) 0.77
D) 0.79
Solution:
The displaced volume in salt water of a vessel weighing 7,500 tons when the specific weight of
salt water is 64 pounds per cubic foot and the specific volume of salt water is thus 35 cubic feet
per long ton is 7,500 x 35 =262,500 cubic feet.
The displacement volume of the vessel V
D
=C
B
x L x B x T =C
B
x 350 x 50 x 20
Or, C
B
=V
D
/(L x B x T) =262,500 /(350 x 50 x 20) =0.75
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.26, Spec. Number: II.A.2.c Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  5
The structure and loadings of a rectangular tank barge having dimensions of 100m x
20m x 10mm requires reviewing. The barge has four (4) transverse bulkheads that
subdivide it longitudinally into five tank compartments, each 20m in length. It has a
double bottom structure of one (1) meter depth and a light displacement of 2,000 tonnes.
The basic structure is of single side shell construction and has the following nominal
plate thicknesses:
Deck 12mm
Side Shell 10mm
Innerbottom 10mm
Bottom Plate 14mm
The barge is loaded in its three middle tanks to a depth of 6m with a liquid cargo having a
specific gravity of 1.5 for transport on a coastwise voyage. The displaced weight (tonnes) and
draft (meters) of the barge in salt water are most nearly:
Displacement Draft
A) 5600 2.73
B) 9200 3.51
C) 12800 6.24
D) 18000 8.78
Solution:
The cargo weight is 3 x 20m x 20m x 6m x 1.5 tonnes per cubic meter = 10,800
The light ship weight is 2,000
So the total displaced weight is 12,800
The displaced volume of salt water having a density of 1.025 tonnes per cubic meter is:
T x L x B x = 12,800, or T =12,800/ L x B x
T =12,800/100 x 20 x 1.025 =6.2439 meters
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.27, Spec. Number: II.A.2.d
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  7
A yacht designer wishes to use an existing yacht as a prototype for a new 55 LOA design. The
parent vessel has the following particulars:
Length Over All 45 11
Waterline Length (LWL) 42 04
Displaced Weight (lbs) 25,500
Sail Area (Ft
2
) 975
Ballast (lbs) 11,000
The new, 55 design will have particulars most nearly:
Sail Area Ballast
A) 1,170 13,200
B) 1,240 15,800
C) 1,400 18,900
D) 1,645 24,100
Solution:
Scaling of the yacht particulars requires the ratio of lengths to be set first, or
L
new design
/L
prototype
=55/45.917 =1.1978
The displaced weight of the new design A
new design
=(1.1978)
3
* A
prototype
or, A
new design
=1.7186 * 25,500 =43,824 lbs.
The new design should also have the same ballast /displacement ratio, or 11,000/25,500 =.431
The ballast for the new design would then be 0.431 * 43824 = 18,904 lbs.
For sail power, the Sail Area /Displacement ratio should be the same.
For the prototype, this is S.A./ (Displaced volume of Sea Water)
2/3
in order to have a
dimensionless ratio. or, 975/ (25,500 * 35/2240)
2/3
=18.0066
and the new designs Sail Area should be 18 * (43,824* 35/2240)
2/3
=1,398
Therefore the correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.28, Spec. Number: II.A.3.a, Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  8
A longitudinally stiffened section of 20.4 pound deck plating, and having a yield strength of 36
ksi, is fitted with 8 x 4 x 9/16 inverted angles stiffeners, spaced on 30 inch centers. A naval
architect is tasked to check the buckling stress (ksi) and finds it to be most nearly:
A) 33
B) 30
C) 27
D) 24
Solution:
A longitudinally stiffened platewould be considered to be simply supported in its lowest mode
of buckling since the stiffeners do not provide but minimal rotational restraint along the plate
edges. The lowest mode would therefore be predicted by the relationship
o
cr
= 4 t
2
D/b
2
t
Where, for steel with E =30 x 10
6
psi and Poissons ratio = 0.3 reduces to o
cr
=3.62 E (t/b)
2
with t =0.5 inches since 20.4 lb. plate is 1/2 inch thick and b =30 inches. Thus the critical stress
will be 3.62 x 30 x 10
6
x (0.5/30)
2
= 30,167 psi.
The correct answer is thus B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.29, Spec. Number: II.A.3.b Solution
Subject: Stability, Flotation, Dynamic Stability and Vessel Response  9
A small catamaran harbor ferry has a hull form consisting of two tubular hulls 15 meters long
and 1.0 meter in diameter. The hull centerlines are spaced 8 meters apart. When loaded with
passengers until the vessel draft is 0.5 meters, the vessels metacenter is located above the
vessels keel (meters) most nearly:
A) 10.2
B) 10.4
C) 20.4
D) 20.8
Solution:
The catamaran ferry, when loaded to half depth of the cylindrical hulls has a displacement of: the
two hulls equal to:
2 (t/8) D
2
L where D =1.0 meters and L =15 meters = 2 (3.14159/8) 1
2
x 15 =11.78 meters
3
The moment of inertia of the catamarans waterplane, I
wp
, is:
2 ( bh
3
/12 + bh x (B/2)
2
), where b =15 meters, h =1 meter, B =8 meters,
I
wp
=2 x (15 x 1/12 +1 x 15x 16) =241.25 meters
4
The height of the metacenter above the vessels center of buoyancy is
BM =I
wp
/V =241.25/11.78 =20.4779 meters
The centroid of the vessels displaced volume is found from Mechanics to be located
(4/3)(D/2t) =0.2122 meters below the waterplane, or 0.5.2122 =0.2878m above the vessels
bottom.
Thus, the vessels metacenter is located 20.4779 +0.2878 =20.7657 meters above the vessels
bottom.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.30, Spec. Number: II.B.1.a Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 1
A monohull sailing yacht having a waterline length of 72 feet and a nominal hull speed of 11.4
knots is to be towingtank tested using a 12foot model. The towing tank carriage speed (feet per
second) for testing the 12foot model at the same Froude Number is most nearly:
A) 3.4
E) 3.9
F) 6.8
G) 7.8
Solution:
For a 12 foot model to be tested at the same Froude Number as the full scale yacht, the Froude
Number of the yacht must be determined as:
F
R
=V
Y
/(gL)
0.5
=11.4 * (6080/3600)/(32.174 * 72)
0.5
=0.400
0.400 =V
M
/(32.174*12)
0.5
; V
M
=0.400 (32.174*12)
0.5
=7.86 fps
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.31, Spec. Number: II.B.1.b Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 2
A fuel barge is scheduled to be towed by a harbor tug at an average speed of 6 knots, the barge
requiring a tow force at 6knots estimated to be 88 Tons. Four tugs are available, each having a
propulsive efficiency estimated to be 65%. The tug most nearly able to meet the tow power
requirements will have (horsepower) available for towing:
A) 2,500
E) 3,250
F) 5,000
G) 6,500
Solution:
Horse Power =Force (Pounds) * Velocity (Feet per Minute)/33,000 (Ft Lbf per Min./Hp)
Velocity =6 knots * 6080 Feet per Nautical Mile /60 Minutes per Hour
=608 feet per Minute
Force =88 Tons * 2,000 Pounds per Ton =176,000 Pounds
Towing Horse Power =176,000 * 608/33,000 =3,242.7
The Tug Horsepower must then be 3,242/0.65 =4,988
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.32, Spec. Number: II.B.2.a Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 3
Open water model tests of a ships propeller indicate that K
T
=0.225 and K
Q
=0.031 when the
advance ratio, J , is 0.6. The open water propeller efficiency, q
o
is most nearly:
A) 0.55
B) 0.60
C) 0.65
D) 0.70
Solution:
The open water propeller efficiency is defined as q
o
=(J /2t)(K
T
/K
Q
), or
q
o
= (0.6/(2 x 3.14159))(0.225/0.031) =0.693
See Principles of Naval Architecture, Vol. II, E.V. Lewis, Editor, SNAME 1988, Pg. 145
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.33, Spec. Number: II.B.3.a Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 4
A midsized passenger vessel is to be fitted with a set of port and starboard activatedfin
stabilizers.
The vessel, having a 75 foot beam and a displacement of 25,000 tons usually has a GM of 4 ft.
and is expected to be stabilized when operating at 20 knots in a wave system having a nominal
wave length of 1,000 feet and a wave height of 15 feet. If the distance from the vessels center
of gravity to the midlength of the activated fin is approximately 50 feet, the projected area
(square feet) of each activated fin should be most nearly:
A) 55
B) 70
C) 85
D) 90
Solution:
Referring to Marine Engineering edited by Harrington, 1992, Chapter 18, Section 6, Ship
Roll Stabilization, pp708709.
The rolling moment induced by the seaway is M
u
= 2240  A  GM *sin u, Equation (5)
Where u =arcsin th/ and h =15 feet and =1,000 feet; u =arcsin 3.14159 * 15/1000 =2.701
degrees. Therefore, M
u
=2240 * 25000 * 4 * 0.047123 = 10,555,751 ftlb.
The stabilizing moment developed by the fin stabilizers is M
s
=N * a * L , Equation (6)
Where M
s
=fin stabilizing moment , ft. lbs.
N =number of fins
a = lever arm between resultant lift force and ships center of gravity, ft.
M
s
=2 * 50 * L; L = 10,555,751/100 =105,557.5 lb.
The lift force developed, L =C
L
* A V
2
/2 , Equation (7), where
C
L
=a nondimensional lift coefficient, 1.1 for nonarticulated fins and 1.4 for flapped fins.
= water mass density, lbsec/ft
4
A = area of one fin, ft
2
V =water velocity used in fin design, fps. V
fps
=1.689 V
knots
A =105,557.5/ (1.1* 64* (1.689 * 20)
2
)/64.34 = 84.54 square feet
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.34, Spec. Number: II.B.4.a
Subject: Hydrodynamics 5
A naval architect is tasked to select a propeller for a vessel designed to have a sea speed of 23
knots. Model tests show that the Block 0.60 hull form of interest has a Taylor Wake Fraction of
0.24. The selection of a suitable propeller would be based upon a Speed of Advance (Knots)
most nearly:
E) 17.5
F) 18.9
G) 19.5
H) 20.9
Solution:
The Taylor Wake Fraction is defined as w
T
=(VV
A
)/V
Thus the Speed of advance V
A
=V(1w
T
) =23 x (10.24) =17.48
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.35, Spec. Number: II.B.5.a Solution
Subject: Hydrodynamics 6
A naval architect is tasked to make an evaluation of the performance of one of his companys
vessels on the companys trade route and plan for appropriate drydocking. Log book analysis
shows that the ships propeller, which has a pitch of 31 feet, turns at 90 RPM, when steaming at
full power. The vessel log also notes that the vessel had a distance made good of 650 nautical
miles in 24 hours of fair weather travel. Analysis shows that the vessels apparent slip (%) is
most nearly:
A) 0.8
B) 1.7
C) 11
D) 16
Solution:
The distance traveled by the propeller is:
Distance =(Propeller Pitch x RPM x 60min/hr x 24hr/day)/6076 nautical miles
Distance the vessel traveled =650 nautical miles
Apparent Propeller Slip =(Propeller distance Navigation distance)/propeller distance
=((31 x 90 x 60 x 24)/6076) 650)/ ((31 x 90 x 60 x 24)/6076)
=1.6975%
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 36, Spec. Number: II.C.1.a Solution
Subject: Wind and Waves  1
The speed (Feet per Second) and Period (Seconds) of a harmonic deepsea wave 800 feet long is
most nearly:
A) 64, 12.5
B) 91, 12.5
C) 64, 8.8
D) 91, 8.8
Solution:
The period of a wave, T
w
, is given by the expression T
w
=L
w
/V
c
where L
w
is the wave length and
V
c
is the wave velocity, or celerity. This may also be expressed as:
T
w
=(2tL
w
/g)
1/2
,
where g is acceleration due to gravity, 32.174 feet per second squared or 9.81
meters per second squared. The circular frequency e =2t/T
w
.
Thus, the wave period is T
w
=(2 t 800/32.174)
1/2
= 12.5 seconds, and the wave velocity is V
c
=
L
w
/T
w
=800/12.5 =64 feet per second
Reference: PNA, Vol III, Chapter VIII, Section 2, Ocean Waves, by authors Beck, Cummins,
Dalzell, Mandel and Webster
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 37, Spec. Number: II.C.4.a
Subject: Wind and Waves  2
A naval architect is tasked to evaluate fore deck structural loadings of a container vessel having a
length between perpendiculars of 230 meters traveling into head seas at 24 knots, and
experiencing a nominal period of encounter of 7 seconds with a pitch amplitude of 10 degrees.
The forward most containers are secured in position 0.05 L aft of the forward perpendicular. If
the waterplane centroid is located 0.08L aft of midships, the range of vertical acceleration (g),
augmented by vessel pitching, and thereby inducing loads on the hull structure, experienced by
the forwardmost container will be most nearly:
A) 1.75g to +1.75g
B) 2.75g to +0.75g
C) .75g to +2.75g
D) 2.75g to +1.75g
Solution:
The pitching motion of a ship can be approximated by the expression:
u = A sin (2tt/T), where A is the amplitude, 10 degrees, or (10/180) t radians and T is the pitch
period of 7 seconds.
The picthing acceleration =d
2
u/dt
2
= (10/180)t x (2t/T)
2
sin(2tt/T)
The foremost container is located forward of the waterplane centroid, the center of pitching
motion a distance of (L/2)  0.05 L +0.08L =(0.5  0.05 +0.08)L = 0.53L =121.9 meters.
And the amplitude of linear acceleration at the location of the foremost container would be
(10/180)t x 121.9m x (2t/T)
2
= 21.27556m x 0.80568/sec
2
= 17.14 m/sec
2
This acceleration equals 17.14/9.81 g =1.747g which is superimposed upon the acceleration due
to 1g gravitational attraction
The superposition of 1.75g accelerations due to pitching motion on the 1.0g acceleration due to
gravity will result in structural loadings on the fore deck structure equivalent to 1.0 +1.75 =
2.75g, while pitched down and accelerating upwards and 1.0  1.75 =0.75g while pitched up and
accelerating downward.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.38, Spec. Number: II.C.5.a Solution
Subject: Wind & Waves 3
The American Bureau of Shipping (ABS) in the Mobile Offshore Drilling Units rules defines the
wind force on vessels as:
P =0.00338 V
k
2
C
h
C
s
lbf/ft
2
;
F =P A lbf
P =wind pressure
V
k
=wind velocity in knots
C
h
=height coefficient
C
s
=shape coefficient
F =wind force
A =projected area in ft
2
of all exposed surfaces in either the upright or heeled condition
A 500foot long vessel with a mean draft of 20 feet has a lateral area of the above water portion
of 7,500 ft
2
. Assuming a shape coefficient of 1.0 and an average height coefficient of 1.10. The
wind force (in long tons) and heeling moment (in long tonfeet) on the vessel in a beam wind of
55 miles/hour is most nearly:
A) 8.5 285
B) 8.5 500
C) 28.5 285
D) 28.5 500
Solution:
The Wind pressure is determined to be P =0.00338 (55 x 5280/6076)
2
x 1.1 x 1.0 =8.493
lbf/Ft.
2
. Thus the force =8.493 x 7,500/2240 =28.436 L.Tons.
Assuming the center of effort of the underwater body is at about middraft and the center of
effort of the above water wind force is at about midheight of the freeboard profile, or
7,500/(500*2) =7.5 ft., the heeling moment would be about (10 +7.5) * 28.436 =497.6 long
tonfeet.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 39, Spec. Number: II.C.5.b Solution
Subject: Wind & Waves  4
A tanker of 250m LWL steams ahead at 17 knots. It encounters a train of deepwater waves
having a period of 7 seconds advancing towards the tanker from 50 degrees off the tankers
starboard stern. The tankers period of encounter (Seconds) is most nearly:
A) 3.05
B) 6.28
C) 14.4
D) 16.0
Solution:
The vessel velocity U
O
=(17 nm/hr x 6076 ft/nm)/3600 sec/hr =28.69 fps
The length of a Wave whose period is 7 seconds =L
W
=T
2
g/2 t = 250.9 ft.
The frequency of the waves e =(2 t g /L
W
)
1/2
=2 t / T
W
=0.8976 radians/sec
The Frequency of Encounter e
e
=e (e
2
U
O
cos )/g where =50 degrees off the tankers
stern.
e
e
= 0.8976 (0.80568 x 28.69 x 0.642787)/32.174 = 0.8976 0.4618 =0.43579 radians per
second.
The period of Encounter therefore becomes T
e
=2 t/ e
e
= 14.418 seconds
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.40, Spec. Number: II.D.1.a Solution
Subject: Hull Forms  1
The structure and loadings of a rectangular tank barge having nominal dimensions of
100m x 20m x 10m requires reviewing. The barge is subdivided longitudinally into five
tank compartments, each 20m in length. It has a double bottom structure of one (1)
meter depth and a light displacement of 1,000 tonnes. The basic structure has the
following nominal thicknesses:
Deck 12mm
Side Shell 10mm
Innerbottom 10mm
Bottom Plate 14mm
The barge is loaded in the three middle tanks to a depth of 6m with a liquid cargo having a
specific gravity of 1.5. The barge is to be used to transport the cargo on a coastwise voyage.
The midship section moment of inertia (meters
4
) is most nearly:
A) 14
B) 17
C) 29
D) 31
Solution:
Ignoring the moment of inertia of the deck, inner bottom and bottom plates about their own
centroidal axes we compute as follows, using the base line as the reference plane:
Dimensions A y Ay Ay
2
Io
Bottom plate .014 x 20 .28 0 0 0 0
Inner Bottom .010 x 20 .2 1.0 0.2 .2 0
Deck .012 x 20 .24 10 2.4 24 0
Side Shell (2) .020 x 10 .2 5 1.0 5. 1.67
Totals .92 3.6 29.2 1.67
E(Ay
2
+I
o
) =30.87 meters
4
yBar =EAy/EA =3.6/.92 =3.91 meters above the base line
I
NA
=30.87 0.92 x 3.91
2
=16.78 meters
4
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.41, Spec. Number: II.D.2.a, Solution
Subject: Hull Forms  2
A longitudinally stiffened section of deck plating is composed of 20mm plate fitted with 200mm
x 100mm x 13mm inverted angles, spaced on 750mm centers. The stiffened plate Section
Modulus (10
3
mm
3
) is most nearly:
A) 190
B) 200
C) 380
D) 400
Solution:
Setting up a tabular solution, with the origin at the interface of the plate and the stiffener
Item Area y
Bar
Ay
Bar
A(y
Bar
)
2
I
O
Plate 20 x 750 15,000 10 150,000 1,500,000 500,000
Web 13 x 187 2,431 93.5 227,298.5 21,252,409.75 7,084,136.58
Flange 13 x 100 1,300 193.5 251,550 48,674,925. 18,308.33
E 18,731 328,848.5 71,427,334.75 7,602,444.91
y
Bar
=Ay
Bar
/A = 328,848.5/18,731 =17.5617 mm from the plate stiffener interface
I =EA(yBar)
2
+E I
O
 A (yBar)
2
= 71,427,334.75 +7,602,444.91  18,731 x (17.5617)
2
=
73,252,890
The Section Modulus =I/c where c=the distance from the neutral axis, yBar, to the extreme
fiber, in this case of the flange
Section Modulus =73,252,890./(20017.5617) =401.52 x 10
3
mm
3
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.42, Spec. Number: II.D.2.b, Solution
Subject: Hull Forms  3
A ship having a beam of 32.2 meters and a design draft of 12.2 meters has a bilge radius of 4.5
meters and a Dead Rise of 0.5 meters. The ships midship section coefficient (C
m
) is most
nearly:
A) 0.987
B) 0.978
C) 0.956
D) 0.912
Solution:
A dead rise of 0.5 meters in a half beam of 16.1 meters given the vessel an angle of deadrise of
arcsin(0.5/16.1) =1.779658 degrees.
The lost section area due to Dead Rise becomes 2 x 16.1 x 0.5/2 =8.05 meter
2
The turn of bilge area with a radius of 4.5 meters minus 1.779658 degrees can be approximated
as
90  1.779658 =88.2203 degrees thus the 4.5
2
 ((88.2203/90)t/4)R
2
= 20.25 15.5989 =4.66
m
2
The section area would then be reduced by 2 x (4.025 +4.66) =2 x 8.685 m
2
=17.37m
2
The net section area is thus (32.2 x 12.2)  2(8.685) = 375.47 m
2
The Midship Section Coefficient becomes C
m
=375.47/(32.2 x 12.2) =0.956
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.43, Spec. Number: II.D.3.a Solution
Subject: Hull Forms  4
A small vessel for ocean service is to be inclined to determine its GM. The vessel dimensions
are as follows:
LBP =75 meters
Beam =12.5 meters
Draft = 4.5 meters
The vessels Block Coefficient, C
B
=0.72
A 7.5 metric tonne weight is moved transversely a distance of 5.2 meters, causing the vessel to
heel 2.6 degrees.
The vessels GM (meters) is most nearly:
A) 0.15
B) 0.30
C) 0.45
D) 0.66
Solution:
The vessels displacement is equal to C
B
x LBP x B x T =0.72 x 75 x 12.5 x 4.5 x 1.025 =
3,113.4 tonnes
Heeling Moment =7.5 x 5.2 tonne meters =39 tonnemeters
Heeling moment =Displacement x GM x tan O
39 =3113.4 x GM x 0.0454
GM =0.276 meters
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.44, Spec. Number: II.D.4.a Solution
Subject: Hull Forms  5
A vessel about to be drydocked in a graving dock has characteristics as listed below:
LBP 150 meters
Beam 20 meters
Draft 4.52 meters Forward
5.36 meters Aft
TPcm 22.14
MTcm 125
LCF 0.08L aft of midships
Landing Point 0.45L aft of midships
The keel loading at the landing point just prior to being fully landed of the docking blocks is most
nearly:
A) 130
B) 140
C) 155
D) 190
Solution:
In order to land on the docking blocks of a graving, the vessel must be trimmed to an even keel. As
the MTcm is given as 125 tonne meters per centimeter, the change in trim will be 5.364.52 meters =
0.84 mewters =84 centimeters.
The moment to change trim is thus 84 x 125 =10,500 tonne meters
The vessel will trim about the center of flotation, i.e., the centroid of the waterplane, LCF.
The distance from the LCF to the landing point is 0.45 L 0.08 L =0.37 L =0.37 x 150 =55.5
meters
The landing force will be 10,500/55.5 =189.19 tonnes
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.45, Spec. Number: III.A.1.a Solution
Subject: Thermodynamics  1
A 250 hp auxillary turbine is supplied superheated steam at 600 psia and 750
o
F. The turbine
exhausts to an auxillary exhaust line at 30 psia at saturated conditions. If the turbine has an
overall efficiency of 60 %, the steam mass flow rate of the turbine (lbs per hour) is most nearly:
A) 500
B) 3,000
C) 5,000
D) 10,000
Solution
The relationship between the power developed and the steam mass flow rate is expressed as:
BHP =mass rate (h
in
h
out
) q
ot
/2545 btu/hphr
Where BHP =250
q
ot
= 0.60
h
in
= 1,380
h
out
= 1,164
From steam tables, such as Modern Marine Engineers Manual, Vol. I, Third Edition, 1999
mass rate =2545 BHP/(0.6 (13801164)) =636250/129.6 =4,909 Lbm/Hr
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.46, Spec. Number: III.A.2.a Solution
Subject: Thermodynamics  2
A marine engineer is tasked to check the design of a singlepass, counterflow heat exchanger
used to cool lube oil. The oil enters the heat exchanger at 190
o
F and is cooled to 150
o
F while
the sea water enters at 85
o
F and leaves at 120
o
F. The log mean temperature difference for the
heat exchanger is most nearly;
A) 30
B) 60
C) 67
D) 105
Solution:
The Log Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) for a singlepass, counterflow heat exchanger
is defined as:
LMTD =(AT
max
AT
min
)/Ln(AT
max
/AT
min
)
LMTD =((T
oilin
T
swout
) (T
oilout
T
swin
))/Ln((T
oilin
T
swout
)/( T
oilout
T
swin
))
LMTD =((190 120) (150 85))/Ln((190 120)/(150 85))
LMTD =(70 65)/Ln (70/65) =70/0.0741 =67.469
o
F
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.47, Spec. Number: III.A.2.b Solution
Subject: Thermodynamics  3
A consulting marine engineer is tasked by a client to evaluate the performance of a ships
ventillation system in order to assess maintenance requirements. After installation of a mounted
pitot tube into an inspection port of a 24 inch by 36 inch ventillation fan outlet duct, a measurement
indicates a velocity pressure of 0.45 inches of water. The marine engineer calculated that the air
flow rate (CFM) was most nearly:
A) 900
B) 10,800
C) 16,100
D) 51,000
Solution:
Assuming a standard air density of 0.075 lbs/ft
3
, the air velocity pressure head, inches of water, h
v
=
(V/4005)
2
, equation 30, page 884, Harrington, Marine Engineering, SNAME, 1992, where V =fluid
velocity, fpm, and h
v
=(V/4005)
2
V =4005 h
v
1/2
=4005 x 0.45
1/2
=0.6708 x 4005 =2686 fpm.
The air flow in the duct is thus 2 x 3 x 2,686 =16,120 cfm
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 48, Spec. Number: III.B.1.a Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 1
A ships fire main supplies two fire hoses located on the flying bridge level with a seawater
flow rate of 300 gpm. The flying bridge hydrants are located 85 feet vertically above the
elevation of the fire pump discharge. The piping system between the fire pump discharge and
the hydrant outlets consists of 200 linear feet of 4inch, Schedule 40 welded steel pipe, six (6),
long radius 90 degree elbows, two (2) gate valves and one (1) angle valve, all valves being in
the open position when providing service. The pressure drop (psi) between the pump discharge
and the hydrant outlets is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 37
C) 45
D) 100
Solution:
The inside diameter of the 4 inch, Schedule 40 pipe is 4.026 in. =4.026/12 =0.3355 ft. This can
be determined from tables giving the Physical Properties of Pipe, such as may be found in
Standard Handbook for Mechanical Engineer, edited by Baumeister and Marks
The pipe cross section A =td
2
/4 =12.73 in
2
=0.0884 ft
2
The flow rate of 300 gpm =300 gpm x 231 in
3
/gal /1728 in
3
/ft
3
=40.104 ft
3
/min =
40.104 ft
3
/min/60 sec/min =0.06684 ft
3
/sec.
The flow velocity V =Q/A =0.06684 ft
3
/sec/0.0884 ft
2
=7.5607 ft/sec
The Reynolds Number R
e
=VD/v, where v =1.1883 x 10
6
m
2
/sec or 1.2791 x 10
5
ft
2
/sec.
These values for sea water at 59 degreess F may be found in p 59, PNA, Vol II, 1988, Lewis, or
p336, PNA, 1967 Comstock.
Thus, Re =7.5607 x (4.026/12)/1.2791 x 10
5
=1.983 x 10
5
Refering to the Moody (Stanton) Diagram, with the relative roughness
c/D =0.00015 ft/(4.026/12) =0.0004471, and the R
e
above, it is determined that the Frication
Factor f = approximately 0.0185
The head loss in the piping and valve system can then be determined. Note that the various
Equivalent Pipe Diameters of the valves (L/D) can be found in the Handbook or from Crane Co.
Technical Paper 410 as follows:
90
o
long radius elbow20
Gate Valve13
Angle Valve145
The head loss can be determined as:
h =f(200/0.3355 +6 x 20 +2 x 13 +1 x 145) V
2
/2g =
=0.0185(596.1 +120 +26 +145)7.5607
2
/64.34 =14.581 psi
Adding this value to the change in head due to elevation, the total head loss becomes
h
total
=14.581 +85 =99.581 ft.
This value can be converted into pressure loss as h
press
=h
total
x 64 lbs/ft
3
/144in
2
/ft
2
Total pressure loss = 99.581 x 64/144 =44.25 psi
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.49, Spec. Number: III.B.2.a Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 2
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch firehoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
The pumping capacity (gallons per minute) required in order to supply the two fire nozzles with
the pitot tube pressure stated is most nearly:
A) 150
B) 300
C) 450
D) 600
Solution:
Use Bernoulli's Equation,
At the nozzle,
z
1
+v
1
2
/2g +p
1
/ =z
2
+v
2
2
/2g +p
2
/
z
1
=z
2
,
Assume that the fluid velocity in the 21/2 inch diameter hose is sufficiently small in relation to
the fluid velocity thru the 0.75inch nozzle that it may be safely ignored. Then,
p
2
=atmospheric pressure =0.0 psig,
v
1
=0.0,
Therefore, p
1
/ =v
2
2
/2g
p
1
=75 lbf/in.
2
x 144 in.
2
/ft.
2
=10,800 lbf/ft.
2
g =32.174 ft./sec.
2
=64 lbm/ft.
3
(for sea water)
v
2
=(2gp
1
/)
1/2
=(2 x 32.174 x 75 x 144/64)
1/2
=104.2 fps
A
2
=(t/4)(0.75)
2
/144 =0.441786 in.
2
/144 in
2
/ft
2
=0.00306796 ft
2
Q =A
2
v
2
=(0.00306796 ft.
2
) x 104.2 ft./sec.
=0.319697ft
3
/sec.
Q=0.3197 ft.
3
/sec. x 60 sec./min. x 1728 in.
3
/ft.
3
/231 in.
3
/gal. =143.49 gal./ min.
For two fire hose nozzles, the pumping capacity would have to be 286.98 gal. / min.
The correct answer is therefore B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.50, Spec. Number: III.B.2.b Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 3
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch firehoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
Assuming the pressure drop in the fire main due to fluid flow losses between the pump discharge
and the Flying Bridge nozzles is 25 psi, and ignoring the fluid flow velocity head at the pump
discharge, the pump discharge pressure (psi) while supplying the two fire hoses is most nearly:
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 175
Solution:
Assume the specific weight of seawater can be taken as 64 lbm/ft
3
. The vertical head loss from
pump discharge to fire hose location =1158 =107 ft. which is equivalent to a pressure drop of
107ft. x 64lbsf/ft.
3
/ 144in.
2
/ft.
2
=47.55 lbsf/in.
2
Thus, the fire and sanitary pump discharge pressure,
p
d
=25 +47.55 +75 =147.55 psig.
The correct answer is therefore C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 51, Spec. Number: III.B.3.a Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow  4
100 gpm of water at 68 degree F. flows through 500 feet of a 2 inch schedule 40 steel pipe,
having a nominal surface roughness of 150 x 10
6
ft. The pressure drop (pounds per square inch)
over this length is most nearly:
A) 8
B) 15
C) 75
D) 150
Solution:
100 gpm =100 *( 231 in
3
/gal)/1728 in
3
/ft
3
=13.368 ft
3
per minute
2 inch Schedule 40 steel pipe has an inside diameter of 2.067 inches =2.067/12 =.17225 feet
The steel has a roughness, e =150 x 10
6
feet. Therefore the e/D =150x10
6
/0.17225 =
0.0008708
Referring to the Moody Diagram we find a friction factor, f, of about 0.019
The fluid velocity in the pipe is V =Q/A =(13.368ft
3
/min)/ ((t/4)D
2
) = 573.66 Ft/min
Or (573.66 ft/min)/(60 sec/min) =9.56 ft/sec
Checking the Reynolds number as Re =VD/ = 1.937  9.56  (2.067/12) /20.9610
6
=1.522
x 10
5
We see the flow is almost fully turbulent and the friction factor, f, should be about 0.02, or just a
bit more
Head Loss Ah =kV
2
/2g where k =f L/D = 0.02*500/(2.067/12) =58.055
Ah =58.055 * (9.56
2
ft
2
/sec
2
)
/2*32.174 ft/sec
2
= 82.45 ft.
But a 1ft head is equivalent to 62.4/144 =0.4333 psi. Thus the pressure drop over the 500ft
becomes
0.4333 * 82.45 =35.7 psi
Exam answers are usually more closely defined than in this sample question.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.52, Spec. Number: III.B.4.a Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 5
An electrically driven circulating pump delivers 800 gpm of sea water to a lubricating oil cooler.
The total head of 45 feet is developed by the pump. If the pump efficiency is 75%, the brake
horsepower (hp) required to drive the pump is most nearly:
A) 10
B) 12.5
C) 15
D) 20
Solution
The required electric motor horsepower can be determined from the expression:
P
req
=H (Q) sg
3960 (q
p
)
Where: H =45 feet
Q =800 gpm
Sg =1.025
q
p
=0.75
Power required =45 (800) 1.025/3960 (0.75) =12.4 hp
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.53, Spec. Number: III.B.4.b Solution
Subject: Internal Fluid Flow 6
A ship having a mean draft of 28 feet has a 300 gpm centrifugal pump that has its suction eight
(8) feet above the ships baseline. The pump suction is connected to a 4 schedule 40 pipe and
delivers 60
o
F sea water to a heat exchanger. The Net Positive Suction Head Available (psi) at
the pump inlet is most nearly:
A) 20
B) 34
C) 53
D) 61
Solution
The diameter of a 4 schedule 40 steel pipe is 4.026 inches therefore the cross section area of the
inlet pipe is A
i
=tD
2
/4 =12.73 in
2
=0.0884 ft
2
The fluid flow is 300 gpm =300 x 231in
3
/gal/1728 in
3
/ft
3
= 40.1 ft
3
/min =0.6684 ft
3
/sec
The inlet velocity is thus V
i
=Q/A
i
=0.6684/0.0884 =7.56 ft/sec
The inlet water head =28 ft 8 ft =20 ft
Atmospheric pressure is taken at 14.7 psi, =P
s
=14.7
The vapor pressure of 60
o
F sea water, P
v
=0.2561 psi, the same as for fresh water
Specific Gravity (sg) for sea water is taken at 1.025
Z
s
=28 ft 8 ft =20 ft
Z
fs
=0.0 as we are looking at the conditions at the pump suction, ignoring inlet friction loss
NPSHA =(P
s
P
v
)/(0.433 (sg)) +V
2
/2g +Z
s
 Z
fs
=(14.7  .2561)/0.433 (1.025) +7.56
2
/2(32.174) +(20) 0.0
=32.52 +0.888 +20 =53.408 ft.
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 54, Spec. Number: III.C.1.a Solution
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  1
A ship's fire and sanitary pump, its discharge located 8feet above the ship's Base Line,
discharges seawater into a 6inch I.D. fire main. For fire protection, the fire main system
supplies two, handheld, 21/2 inch fire hoses fitted with 0.75inch diameter nozzles located on
the ship's Flying Bridge, 115 feet above the Base Line, with a 75 psi nozzle pitot tube pressure.
Assuming the pump has a suction head of 12 feet, an 85 percent pumping efficiency, q
p,
and
discharges 300 gpm at a discharge pressure of 150 psig, the pumps required input shaft
horsepower is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
Solution:
Q =300 gpm,
p
d
=150 psig;
p
s
=12ft. x 64 lbsf/ft.
3
/144in.
2
/ft.
2
=5.33 psi
Bhp =Q x (p
d
 p
s
)/(1714 x q
p
)
Bhp =300 x ( 150  (12 x 64/144) / (1714 x q
p
)
=29.79 hp
Or, alternatively:
Q =300 gpm x 231 in.
3
/gal. x (64 lbm/ft.
3
/1728 in.
3
/ft.
3
) =2,566.66 lbm/min.
H =150 lbf/in.
2
x 144 in.
2
/ft.
2
/ 64 lbm/ft.
3
 12 =325.5 ft.
Bhp =Q x H / (33,000 ftlb/min. x q
p
)
=2,566.66 x 325.5/ (33,000 x 0.85)=29.79 hp
The correct answer is therefore D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 55, Spec. Number: III.C.1.b Solution
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  2
A WaterJ et propulsion installation for a small, seagoing vessel moving at 40 knots has an
intake area of 3.5 square feet and a discharge nozzle diameter of 8 inches. Neglecting flow
losses, the delivered thrust and horsepower of the WaterJ et is most nearly:
A) 140,000 2,872
B) 160,000 2,955
C) 280,000 585
D) 320,000 654
Solution:
Q
1
=Q
2
A
1
V
1
=A
2
V
2
where
A
1
=3.5 ft
2
and V
1
=6076 ft/kt mi x 40kts/hr/3600 sec./hr =67.51 feet/sec.
A
2
=tD
2
/4 =t x 8
2
/4 =50.26 in
2
=0.349 ft
2
V
2
=67.51 x 3.5/0.349 =677 feet/sec.
Thrust F = A
2
V
2
(V
2
V
1
) where =1.989 pound seconds
2
per foot
4
, A
2
=.349 feet
2
V
2
=677 feet/second; V
1
=67.51 feet /second
Thrust F =AV
2
(V
2
V
1
) (Hydrodynamics in Ship Design, Saunders Vol. I, Sect 34.13)
Thus, F =1.989 x 0.349 x 677 (677 67.61) =286,428 pounds
The power being delivered =HP =(F x V
1
)/33,000 =286,428 x 67.51 / 33,000
HP =586 Horsepower
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 56, Spec. Number: III.C.1.c Solution
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation 3
A preliminary design is being developed for a 26knot containership. Model tests have resulted
in a predicted propulsion thrust requirement of 330,000 pounds. If the vessel form has an
estimated propulsion efficiency of 72 % and the line shafting incurs losses of 2 %, the required
shaft horsepower to be delivered by the main engine is most nearly:
E) 37,000
F) 35,000
G) 27,000
H) 25,000
Solution:
Power is simply defined as force x velocity. A 26knot velocity translates to 26 x 6080/3600 =
43.91 feet/second and the thrust power of the vessel would then be P =330,000 x 43.91/550 =
14,490,000/550 horsepower =26,346.
Given a propulsive efficiency of 72 %, and line shafting losses of 2 %, the engine would have to
deliver 26346/(.72 x .98) =37,339 H.P.
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 57, Spec. Number: III.C.2.a Solution
Subject: Propulsion and Power Generation  4
A marine engineer is tasked to estimate the required fuel capacity for a new 24 knot vessel
planned for operation between ports on the North American continent and Australia. It is
expected that a roundtrip voyage would cover 22,000 nautical miles with stops at eight (8) ports.
The vessel is to be powered by a 45,000 SHP diesel main engine having a specific fuel
consumption of 0.35 lbs. per shaft horsepowerhour. It is planned that the fuel to be used will be
lowsulfur Bunker C residual, 13 degrees API gravity, bunkering in North American ports, with
an estimated heating value of 18,500 BTU/Lb. The required fuel capacity (L.Tons) is most
nearly:
A) 7,000
B) 6,000
C) 5,000
D) 4,000
Solution:
At 45,000 SHP x 0.39 lbs per SHPHr, fuel consumption =45,000 x 0.39 x 24 =421,200 lbs per
day =180.036 L.Tons per day
Distance traveled is 24 x 24 =576 nautical miles per day
Time at sea for 22,000 nautical miles =22,000/576 =38.19 days at sea
Fuel consumption becomes 38.19 x 180.036 =7,181.92 L.Tons
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.58, Spec. Number: III.D.1.a Solution
Subject: Machine Design 1
A set of spur gears is to transmit 35 horsepower with a pinion speed of 1750 RPM. The pitch
diameter of the pinion is 6 inches and the diametral pitch is 3. The pitch diameter of the driven
gear is 24 inches and its diametral pitch is 3. The contact force (pounds) at the line of contact is
most nearly:
E) 35
F) 105
G) 210
H) 420
Solution:
At 1750 RPM, the torque being transmitted is:
T =33,000 * 35/2t*RPM =33,000 * 35/2*3.14159*1750 =105.04 ftlbs.
The torque is developed as the pitch radius * contact force, or
F
C
=T/R; F
C
=105.04 ftlbs/(3/12) =420 lbs.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.58, Spec. Number: III.D.1.a Solution
Subject: Machine Design 1
A set of spur gears is to transmit 35 horsepower with a pinion speed of 1750 RPM. The pitch
diameter of the pinion is 6 inches and the diametral pitch is 3. The pitch diameter of the driven
gear is 24 inches and its diametral pitch is 3. The contact force (pounds) at the line of contact is
most nearly:
I) 35
J ) 105
K) 210
L) 420
Solution:
At 1750 RPM, the torque being transmitted is:
T =33,000 * 35/2t*RPM =33,000 * 35/2*3.14159*1750 =105.04 ftlbs.
The torque is developed as the pitch radius * contact force, or
F
C
=T/R; F
C
=105.04 ftlbs/(3/12) =420 lbs.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.59, Spec. Number: III.D.1.b Solution
Subject: Machine Design 2
A ships propeller tailshaft has been remover to the shipyards shop where it is to be fitted
with a bronze liner. The shaft diameter is 0.254m and the liner, which is 0.0127 m thick, is to
be shrinkfitted on to the shaft. The bronze material has a linear coefficient of thermal
expansion of o =21.24 x 10
6
m/m degree Celcius. If the liner is bored for an internal
diameter of 253.8 mm and heated to 165 degrees C. above the shops ambient temperature
of 22 degrees C., so as to facilitate its fitting onto the shaft, the liners clearance (mm) during
its fitting will be most nearly:
A) 0.31
B) 0.70
C) 0.89
D) 1.07
Solution:
Thermal expansion in a homogeneous material is equal in all directions. Therefore all
dimensions change proportionately. The liners internal diameter will expand to a dimension D
T
=D
O
(1 +o oT) =253.8 (1 +0.00002124 x 165) =253.8 (1.0035046) =254.689 mm. The shaft
liner clearance will therefore be 254.689254 =.689mm.
The correct answer is therefore B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.60,Spec. Number: III.D.2.a Solution
Subject: Machine Design 3
Fretting corrosion of main propulsion line shafting caused by minute movements between mating
parts may produce sites for fatigue crack initiation. Fatigue life of tailshafts subject to fretting can
be greatly improved by:
A) Case Hardening the tailshaft
B) Using High Strength steel
C) Cold Rolling the shaft surface
D) Normalizing and Tempering the tailshaft
Solution:
The use of Case Hardening is typically for increasing wear resistance.
The use of High Strength steel does not materially increase the corrosionfatigue life of a tailshaft as
the fatigue life of High Strength steel in not materially different from that of lower strength steels.
Propulsion shafting for merchant ships is usually made from annealed, normalized or normalized and
tempered plain carbon steel forgings.
Cold Rolling of tailshafts may not eliminate the formation of fatigue cracks; it does, however,
produce residual compressive stresses in the surface layer of the shaft, and this retards the
propagation of fatigue cracks if they do form.
The correct answer is C)
For a discussion on shafting, refer to section 6.9, Chapter XXII of Marine Engineering by
Harrington, SNAME 1992
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.61, Spec. Number: III.E.1.a Solution
Subject: HVAC/Refrigeration 1
Using the Psychrometric Chart below, and assuming the specific volume of dry air is
approximately fourteen cubic feet per pound, the moisture content (Lbs per hour) of an air flow
of 5,000 CFM when the dry bulb temperature is 75 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity
is 60 % is most nearly:
. A) 214
E) 235
F) 257
D) 278
Solution:
Assuming that the specific volume of air is 14 cubic per pound , the specific weight of air is
about 0.0714 pounds per cubic foot.. Thus, 5,000 CFM is 300,000 cubic feet per hour and
reading from the Chart, and it is seen that the moisture content is most nearly 0.0110 pounds of
moisture per pound of air.
The moisture content is therefore 300,000 x 0.011/14 = 235.7 pounds of moisture.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.62, Spec. Number: III.E.1.b Solution
Subject: HVAC/Refrigeration 2
The air conditioning system for a ships accommodation spaces delivers 4,800 cfm. If the system
takes in 15% outside air at a temperature of 90 degrees F and 80% relative humidity, the additional
thermal loading of the system (BTU/Hr.) in order to deliver the outside air at 68 degrees F and 50%
relative humidity is most nearly.
A) 20,000
B) 40,000
C) 60,000
D) 80,000
Solution:
Using the Psychrometric chart, it is found that the enthalpy of the outside air is approximately
49.8 BTU/Lb. and the enthalpy of the delivered air is approximately 24.6 BTU/Lb. Thus the
required reduction in enthalpy is 49.824.6 =25.2 BTU/Lb.
The outside air delivered =0.15 x 4,800 =720 cfm
With a nominal specific volume of air at 14 ft
3
per Lb, the outside air would weigh 720/14 =
51.42 lbs/minute
The enthalpy reduction would be 51.42 x 25.2 =1295.78 BTU/minute =77,747 BTU/Hr.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.63, Spec. Number: III.F.1.a Solution
Subject: Electrical Loads 1
A 3phase, 60 hz, 440V/120V stepdown transformer provides 25 KVA to a 0.8 power factor
load. The transformer is connected DeltaWye. The line current (Amps) feeding the transformer
is most nearly:
A) 56.8
B) 45.5
C) 32.8
D) 26.2
Solution:
As the phase 1 will have the same voltage as the line voltage, V
phase 1
=V
line 1
=440 V , the line
current will be I
line 1
=25KVA/ (3
1/2
)*440V = 32.8
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.64, Spec. Number: III.F.1.b Solution
Subject: Electrical Loads 2
An Electrical Power circuit provides service to 440 Volt, 60 Hz, 25 hp squirrel cage steering gear
motor. The motor has an efficiency of 90% and a power factor of 0.83. The 12 gauge feeder
line has a load center length of 175 feet and has a cross section of 6,530 circular mils. The
percent voltage drop for the circuit is most nearly:
A) 0.05
B) 0.3
C) 0.5
D) 3.0
Solution
The % Voltage Drop = (3
1/2
12* I* L* 100)/ CM* V, where
I =current
L =Load Center Length in feet
CM =circular mil wire size
V =Voltage
I =(25*0.746*KW)/(3
1/2
*440V*0.83) =0.02948 KVA =29.48 amps
Therefore, the percent voltage drop becomes;
%V.D. =(3
1/2
* 29.48*175*100)/(6,530*440) =3.11%
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.65, Spec. Number: III.F.2a Solution
Subject: Electrical Loads 3
A motorships main engine startingair compressor is driven by a 25 horsepower 230 volt three
phase AC motor having an 87% efficiency and a 0.8 power factor under normal operating
conditions. During engine maneuvering operations, when the vessel is entering and departing a
port, it is expected that the compressor will have a normal on/off cycle of 15 minutes on and 10
minutes off. The StartingAir Compressor electrical load that should be added to the load
analysis for the maneuvering condition is (kW) most nearly:
A) 7.4
B) 8.1
C) 9.3
D) 16.1
Solution:
The electric current in a threephase A.C. motor can be determined from:
I =(746 x Hp)/(1.73 x efficiency x Voltage x Power Factor)
I =(746 x 25)/(1.73 x 0.87 x 230 x 0.8) =67.34 Amp.
W =E x I =230 x 67.34 =15,488
The load factor is 15minutes/25 minutes =0.6
Thus the contribution to the vessels electrical load analysis for the maneuvering condition is:
kW =0.6 x 15.488 =9.29 kW
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.66, Spec. Number: III.F.2.b Solution
Subject: Electrical Loads 4
The compressors of a ships refrigeration system are driven by four (4) 25 hp, 1750 rpm electric
motors. The refrigeration compressors require an input torque of 66 footpounds at 1750 rpm
under normal, atsea operating conditions, on a 20minute per halfhour cycle. The motor
efficiency is approximately 80% at half rated load, 86% at 75% rated load and 90% at 100%
rated load. The contribution to the atsea electric power load analysis (kW) for the refrigeration
system is most nearly:
A) 12
E) 22
F) 50
G) 90
Solution:
Motor output Power required =Tft.lbsf x e rad/sec/550 ftlbf/sec =(66 x 1750 x 2 t / 60)/550 =
66 x 183 / 550 =21.99 hp
Motor Utilization =21.99/25 =0.8796
Motor Efficiency = ((0.87960.75)/0.25)(0.900.86) +0.86 =0.8807
Motor Input Power =21.99/0.8807 =24.967
Motor Use Factor =20/30, therefore nominal load =24.967 x 2/3 =16. 645 hp =16.645 x 746
=12.417 Watts
But for the 4 motors, the total Load will be 4 x 12.417 =49.668 kW
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.67, Spec. Number: III.F.2.c Solution
Subject: Electrical Loads  5
A marine engineer is tasked to perform an electrical load analysis for a machinery system design.
The machinery space ventillation system has port and starboard fans driven by 60 horsepower
squirrel cage induction motors operating on 240 volt, 60 Hz, 3 phase power. During atsea
operations, the service factor is 0.85 and the motor efficiency is 91%. The contribution to the at
sea electrical load analysis (kW) is most nearly:
A) 44.8
B) 49.2
C) 76.1
E) 83.6
Solution:
KW =2 * 60 * .746 * 0.85/0.91 =83.6kW
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.68, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.a Solution
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  1
A Standard IBeam section is to be used for support of a ships stores crane operating from a
vessels side port. The crane lifting capacity is to be 2 L.tons, and the beam is to extend 15 feet
outboard of the support located just inside the ships side, the inboard support being located 10
feet farther inboard. The lightest weight Standard IBeam section that will have a maximum
shear stress not to exceed 13.6 ksi and a maximum normal stress not to exceed 20 ksi is most
nearly
A) S20 x 66
B) S15 x 42.9
C) S12 x 40.8
D) S10 x 25.4
Solution:
The beam bending moment loading will be 2 x 15 =30 L. tonfeet =806,400 inchlbs. At the
outer support point while the beam shear force loading from the load point to the first support
will be 2 L. tons =4480 lbs, and from that point inboard to the inner end it will be 2 x 15/10 =3
L.tons or 6720 lbs..
.
For the cantilever beam, the required Section Modulus will be
I/c =M/o
All
=M/20,000 =806,400/20,000 =40.32 inches
3
The section S 12x40.8 is the lightest weight Standard Shape that meets the normal stress
requirement. Its properties show a web thickness of 7/16 inches, a flange width of 5.252 inches,
thickness of .659 inches and depth of 12 inches.
We can check the shear stress by t =VQ/It where
V =6720 lbs,
I =272 inches
4
, and
t =0.4375
Q =E (A
i
* y
i
) =5.252*0.659*( 6  0.659/2) +0.4375*( 6 0.659)
2
/2
=19.625 +6.097 =25.72 inches
3
Therefore the maximum shear stress =6720*25.72/(272*0.4375) =1452.4 psi, well below the
allowable shear stress.
The correct answer is therefore C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.69, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.b Solution
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  2
The deck plating of a tank barge is selected as 12mm, with a material yield stress of 220.6 Mpa
or 32 ksi. The selection of longitudinal deck plate stiffeners is decided to be on the basis that the
plate buckling stress is not to exceed 85% of the materials yield stress. If Poissons Ratio for
the steel is 0.30, and the Elastic Modulus (E) of the steel is 30 x 10
6
psi, or 206.8 GPa, the
maximum spacing of the longitudinal stiffeners (mm), assuming the plate panels may be
considered long, i.e., have an aspect ratio of 3.0 or greater, is most nearly:
A) 800
B) 750
C) 700
D) 650
Solution:
Using the relationship o
cr
= 4 t
2
D/b
2
t where D =E t
3
/12(1v
2
)
For the above case, b is to be determined while t =12 mm, E =206.8 GPa and o
All
=0.85 o
yp
=
0.85 * 32 ksi =27.2 ksi or 187.5 MPa.
1 Pascal =1 Pa =1 Newton per square meter
1 MPa =1 Mega Pascal =10
6
Pascals =1 Newton per square millimeter
1 GPa =1 Giga Pascal =10
9
Pascals =1000 Newtons per square millimeter
D =206,800 * 12
3
/12(10.3
2
) =32,724,395 Newtonmillimeters
b
2
=4t
2
D/o
All*
t =4*9.81*32,724,395/187.5*12 =570713 mm
2
Therefore b =(570,713)
1/2
=755 mm
The correct answer is C). The wider the stiffener spacing, the lower the buckling stress,
therefore the next smaller spacing must be selected.
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 70, Spec. Number: IV.A.1.c Solution
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  3
An insulated aluminum LNG tank having a diameter of 35 meters is to be cooled from 75
degrees Fahrenheit above zero to 260 degrees Fahrenheit below zero while the supporting steel
structure remains at ambient temperature. If the average coefficient of thermal expansion of
aluminum over that temperature range is o =11 x 10
6
, the relative vertical shrinkage (Inches) of
the tank with respect to the support structure will be most nearly:
A) 0.5
B) 2.5
C) 5.0
D) 25
Solution:
Thermal changes are homogeneous, i.e., as the material is considered to be homogeneous, so too
are the changes that take place due to temperature change.
The 35 meters diameter, D, is 35 m x 39.37 in/m =1377.95 inches.
The change in diameter is computed as:
oD =o oT D =11 x 10
6
x (75 (260)) x 1377.95
=5,077,745.75 x 10
6
inches =5.0777 inches
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.71, Spec. Number: IV.A.2.a Solution
Subject: Materials, Corrosion and Corrosion Control  4
Uncoated steel structure in a saltwater ballast tank has a nominal wastage of about 0.1 mm per
year. The surface wastage on a vessels ballast tank spaces over a 25 year service life will weigh
(kilograms per 1000 square meters) most nearly:
A) 20
B) 200
C) 2,000
D) 20,000
Solution
With a wastage of 0.1 mm per year, the wastage over 25 years will be 2.5 mm and on a surface
area of 1,000 square meters, it will amount to 2.5 mm x 1,000 m =2.5 cubic meters. The
specific gravity of steel is about 7.85 so a cubic meter of steel would weigh about 7.85 Tonnes or
7,850 kilograms. Thus, the wastage would weigh about 2.5 x 7,850 =19,625 kilograms.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No. 72, Spec. Number: IV.B.2.a Solution
Subject: Navigation and Vessel Control  1
A passenger ferry steaming at sixteen knots across the eight mile wide inlet channel of a bay to
its southern terminal encounters an incoming tide of 4.5 knots. If the pilot wishes to maintain a
course made good of 180 degrees and the tidal current flows due west, the course (degrees true)
to be steered is most nearly:
A) 186
B) 180
C) 164
D) 74
Solution:
By drawing a vector diagram showing the 180 degree course made good pointing downward,
with the 4.5 knot current velocity indicated horizontally to the right, the sixteen knot vessel
speed would be indicated as the hypotenuse of the right triangle, the base being the 4.5 knot
current velocity and the triangle altitude being the vessel speed made good on the 180 degree
course. It can be seen that 4.5 knots divided by 16 knots is the sin of the angle representing the
course change necessary to maintain the 180 degree course desired. That is, asin (4.5/16 ) =
16.3348 degrees. Thus, in order to maintain a course made good of 180 degrees when traveling
at sixteen knots in a 4.5 knot current, the pilot would have to steer a course of 180  16.3348 =
163.6652, or approximately 164 degrees.
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.73, Spec. Number: IV.C.1.a Solution
Subject: Hull Outfitting 1
An oceangoing supply vessel anchor windlass is to be driven by an electric motor. The vessel
has an anchor weighing 480 kg with 150 meters of 22 mm diameter anchor chain, weighing 13.5
kg per meter. It is required that the windlass be capable of weighing anchor when fully paidout
at a speed of 1 meters per second. If the friction coefficient for drawing the anchor chain
through the hawse pipe is 0.25, the required power (kw) of the windlass motor is most nearly:
A) 61.4
B) 53.4
C) 30.7
D) 26.7
Solution
The anchor chain has a weight of 13.5 kg per meter and it is150 meters long so that its weight is
W
C =
150 * 13.5 =2025 kg and the total weight of anchor and chain is 2505 kg.
With a hawse friction factor or 0.25, the effective weight of anchor and chain when being hoisted
will be (1.25)*2505 =3131,25 kg. However, the anchor and chain when fully payed out will be
assumed to be immersed in the seawater ( there is no information indicating how much of the
chain may be in air) and its effective weight will be reduced by the buoyancy of the displaced
seawater. As the steel anchor and chain have a specific gravity of about 7.85 and the seawater
has a specific gravity of about 1.025, the effective weight will be reduced by the factor (7.85
1.025)/7.85 =0.8694. The effective weight of immersed anchor and chain will therefore be
0.8694*3131.25 = 2722.4 kg.
Hoisting the anchor at a velocity of 1 meter per second requires 2722.4 kgfmeters/second. From
a power conversion table we find that 1 kgfmeter/sec =0.009807 kW. Therefore the windlass
motor power required will be 2722.4 *0.009807 =26.698 kW.
The correct answer is D)
Sample Exam Problem No.74, Spec. Number: IV.C.1.b Solution
Subject: Hull Outfitting 2
A ship owner is interested in modifying his ships steering system by adding an auxiliary
steering gear for emergency use with the ships speed at 19 knots and the rudder angle restricted
to 10 degrees. Sea trial data were used to establish a rudder torque of 23.4 x 10
6
poundinches
when the ships speed was 19 knots and its rudder angle was 45 degrees, based on the following
relationships:
Rudder Force =(4.6 K A V
2
Sin o)/(0.39 + 0.61 Sin o)
Where K = Constant
A =Rudder Area (Square Feet)
V =Ship Speed (Knots)
o =Rudder Angle (Degrees)
and,
Moment Arm =(0.195 +.305 Sin o ) x Rudder Width
The estimated rudder torque value (poundinches x 10
6
) at a ship speed of 19 knots and rudder
angle of 10 degrees is most nearly:
A) 15
B) 10
C) 6
D) 2
Solution
As the terms 4.6 K A V
2
and rudder width are constant, the torque at various rudder angles for a
constant 19 knot ship speed can be determined as follows:
Torque =Force x Arm or T
1
=F
1
x MA
1
and T
2
=F
2
x MA
2
Therefore, T
2
/T
1
=(F
2
xMA
2
)/(F
1
x MA
1
); T
2
=T
1
(F
2
x MA
2
)/F
1
x MA
1
)
The 4.6 KAV
2
terms cancel and the rudder width terms cancel
T
2
=23.4 x 10
6
((Sin o
2
)/(0.39 +0.61 Sin o
2
))(0.195 +0.305 Sin o
2
)
((Sin o
1
)/(0.39 +0.61 Sin o
1
))(0.195 +0.305 Sin o
1
)
where o
1
=45 degrees and o
2
=10 degrees
Substituting values we obtain:
T
2
=23.4 x 10
6
((0.173648)/(0.39 +0.61 x 0.173648))(0.195 +0.305 x 0.173648)
((0.707107)/(0.39 +0.61 x 0.707107))(0.195 +0.305 x 0.707107)
T2 =23.4 x 10
6
x ((0.086824/0.353553)) =0.2455756 =5.746469 x 10
6
The correct answer is C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.75, Spec. Number: IV.D.1.a Solution
Subject: Weight Engineering 1
A shipyard is planning to fabricate subassembly sections consisting of a longitudinally stiffened
9/16inch thick plate with inverted L8 x 4 x 9/16 angles welded to the plate. The stiffeners are
equally spaced at 30 inches. The plate is 108 inches wide and 45 feet long. The lifting and
transporting capacities (Short Tons) of the shipyard in order to transport this subassembly, will
be most nearly:
A) 5.0
B) 6.0
C) 7.5
D) 10.0
Solution:
With a plate width of 108 inches and a stiffener spacing of 30 inches, the maximum number of
stiffeners that can be fitted to the plate will be four (4). With a symmetrical spacing on the plate
the first stiffener would be 9 inches in from the plate edge and the subsequent stiffeners would be
placed at 39 inches, 69 inches and 99 inches, leaving 9 inches from the farthest edge.
The 9/16 inch thick plate has a weight per square foot 40.8 * 9/16 or 22.95 lbs/square foot. Thus
the total plate weight is (108/12) x 45 x 22.95 =9294.75 lbs.
The weight of a L8 x 4 x 9/16 is 21.9 lbs per foot of length (See the AISC Manual of Steel
Construction). The total weight of angle stiffeners is then 4 x 45 x 21.9 =3942 lbs.
Ignoring the weight of the weld metal, and any overhang of the stiffeners beyond the plate edges,
the approximate total weight of the stiffened plate is 9294.75 +3942 =13,236.75 lbs., or 6.61
Short Tons (5.909 Long Tons). Yard crane capacity is typically rated in Short Tons.
The correct answer is: C)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.76, Spec. Number: IV.D.1.b Solution
Subject: Weight Engineering 2
A welded plate/shape subassembly is to be produced in the plate shop. The fabrication will join
two 20millimeter thick plates each having a width of 3 meters and a length of 15 meters. They
will be longitudinally stiffened by 200mm x 100mm x 12mm inverted angles at 750 mm equal
spacing. Upon completing the fabrication, one of the shop cranes will be used to move it to
another location for further work. The minimum crane capacity (tonnes) required to safely make
this move is most nearly:
A) 15.0
B) 17.5
C) 20.0
D) 25.0
Steel has a specific gravity of about 7.85 or a specific weight of about 7.85 tonnes per cubic
meter in a standard gravitational field. Thus, the plate weight of the 20 mm plate is about 7850
kg x .020 =157 kg per square meter. The two plates therefore weigh about 2 x 3 x 15 x 157 =
14130 kg or 14.13 tonnes.
The angle stiffeners have a cross section area of about 3456 mm
2
while a rod of one (1) square
millimeter crosssection area and one (1) meter length weighs 7850 x 10
6
kg. Thus the angle
stiffener weighs 3456 x 7850 x 10
6
kg, or 27.13 kg per meter of length in a standard
gravitational field (9.81 m/sec
2
gravitational acceleration).
With the two plates joined, the width of 6 meters can have a maximum of 8 stiffeners fitted.
Note that there must be a reasonable distance from the plate edge to the first and from the last
stiffener. Thus the weight of the 8 stiffeners will be about 8 x 15 x 27.13 =3255.6 kg and the
total weight of the fabrication will be 3255.6 +14130 =17385.6 kg or 17.3856 tonnes.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.77, Spec. Number: IV.E.1.a Solution
Subject: Shipbuilding and Repair 1
A shipyard Plate Shop is tasked to plan for production of longitudinally stiffened 30.6 lb. shell
plates, each to be fitted with 4  8 x 4 x 19.6 lb inverted angles. The angles are to be 3/8
double fillet welded to the plate which is 9 feet wide and 45 feet long. A plate shop automatic
welding machine, capable of doublefillet welding has a 3/16 filler rod feed rate of 15 feet per
minute for each fillet weld. Neglecting setup time, production of each stiffened plate will take
(minutes) most nearly:
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Solution:
The fillet weld volume for the 4 inverted angles will be V
f
= 4 x 45x 12inches per foot x 3/8 x
3/8
V
f
= 303.75 cubic inches
The filler rod vulume V
r
= 2 x 15 x 12 x t D
2
/4 =9.94 cubic inches per minute.
The production time for one stiffened plate will be 303.75/9.94 =30.55 minutes.
The correct answer is B)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.78, Spec. Number: IV.E.1.b Solution
Subject: Shipbuilding and Repair 2
A shipyard plate shop planning production of stiffened plates requires adequate crane capacity
for handling the following fabrication. Four 225 mm x 100 mm x 15 mm inverted angles, double
fillet welded to a 3 m x 15 m x 25 mm plate. The required crane Safe Working Capacity
(tonnes) for handling this fabrication is most nearly:
A) 2.5
B) 5.0
C) 10
D) 15
Solution:
Neglecting the volume of the double fillet weld, the volume of the 4 225 x 100 x 15 inverted
angles is:
V
angles
=4 x (0.225 +.085) x .015 x 15 = 0.279 cubic meters
The volume of the 25 mm plate is: V
plate
= 3 x 15 x 0.025 =1.125 cubic meters
The total volume of the fabrication is thus 1.125 +0.279 =1.404 cubic meters.
The specific gravity of steel is about 7.835 so the total weight of the farbication is 10.99 to
11.02 tonnes.
The correct answer is D)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.79, Spec. Number: IV.F.1.a Solution
Subject: Economics 1
A shipyard engineer is tasked to carry out a Present Value investigation of an installation of a
proposed solarelectric generating system on the shipyards administration building roof as a
means of reducing the shipyards electric utility expenses and to take advantage of government
programs subsidizing such environmentally favorable installations to reduce greenhouse gas
production by electric utility power plants. The candidate system is designed to produce 750
kilowatts of electric power for 12 hours a day, on average, under normal environmental
conditions. The monthly maintenance expenses of the candidate system are estimated to be
$1.50 per kilowatt capacity per month, and remain essentially constant over its 20year
expected life. With a cost of utilitydelivered power at $0.10 per kilowatt hour, the cost of
investment capital at 6%, and a corporate policy to obtain a return on investment of 20%, the
installation of the system, based on a Present Value analysis, must not cost (Thousand $) more
than:
A) 3,010
B) 3,140
C) 3,410
D) 3,610
Solution:
The 750 kW solar power installation is expected to produce power for 12 hours per day or
750 x 12 =9,000 kWhr per day for 365 days per year.
Annual output becomes 9,000 x 365 =3,285,000 kWhr. per year having a value of
3,285,000 x $0.10 =$328,500 per year.
Monthly maintenance costs are $1.5 x 750 x 12 =$13,500 per year.
The net benefit becomes $328,500  $13,500 =$315,000 per year over the 20 year life of the
system.
The present value of the $315,000 annuity is obtained from
PV =(1 (1+i)
n
)/i , or (1 (1 +0.06)
20
)/0.06 =11.46992
Therefore the present value of $315,000 each year over a 20 year period becomes
11.46992 x 315,000 =$3,624,495.
If the company is to make a 20% return on its investment, then Investment Amount x 1.2 =
$3,624,495.
The Investment Amount should not exceed $3,624,495/1.2 =$3,020,412.
The correct answer is A)
Sample NAME Exam Problem No.80, Spec. Number: IV.F.1.b Solution
Subject: Economics 2
A new plate shop production facility is being planned that will have an estimated cost
$25,000,000 and an expected service life of 15 years. Operating and maintenance costs for the
facility are estimated to be $1,500,000 per year, and the facilitys scrap value is estimated to be
$1,200.000. It is planned to issue 7.5% industrial bonds for the acquisition and establish a
sinking fund for their redemption. The total annual budget (Million $) for support of this new
facility will amount to most nearly:
A) 3.17
B) 2.46
C) 2.17
D) 0.96
Solution:
Because the scrap value of the facility fifteen years hence is only an assumption, it should be
ignored in determining budget requirements. Therefore the elements of the budget should only
include the operating and maintenance costs and the budget for the sinking fund.
A sinking fund requires setting aside a certain amount at the end of each period which is then
invested in the issued bonds or an alternative investment that yields the same return. At the end
of the bond life, the sinking fund will then amount to that needed to redeem the bonds.
The amount of an annuity of 1 =((1 +i)
n
1)/I, where I is the interest per period. In this case,
i =7.5% =0.075 while n =15 . ((1 +0.075)
15
1)/0.075 =26.11836
If we want to have $25,000,000 at the end of 15 years, we need to deposit $25,000,000/26.11836
each period =$957,180
Giving consideration to the scrap value could only make a $46,000 difference in the required
budget even if the estimate should turn out to be a good one.
Thus the budget amount needs to be $957,189 +1,500,000 =$2,457,180 per year
The correct answer is B)
Frequently Asked Questions:
In addition to this Study Guide, is there a Professional Engineer Review Course (PERC) offered
that could be taken prior to the examination date to help candidates prepare for the examination?
The Society of Naval Architects and Marine Engineers (SNAME) offers each year an Online
PERC that may be taken by anyone wishing to prepare to take the NAME Examination in April.
The course registration fee is $600 for SNAME members and $800 for nonmembers.
Registration may be arranged online at http://www.SNAMeLearning.org, or by calling the
SNAME office at (201) 4995056.
The course typically starts the first or second week of J anuary and usually ends the last week of
March or the first week of April. There are Eleven Units, one starting each week, that cover the
broad Subject Areas of the examination specification. The instructors provide approximately
200 problems that are for selfstudy. The Instructors provide solutions and a review during 3
hour Online Sessions. Instructors are also available through email for special help in their areas
of expertise.
The NCEES Website at http://www.ncees.org provides much information on the P.E. Principles and
Practice examination and all are advised to visit the site and explore the information provided.
Summary Below is information regarding exam results, notification, and diagnostic reports. Please
select a link below and scroll through the page:
How and when will I be notified of my exam results?
Is it possible to access my exam score electronically or online?
How should I use the information furnished on the diagnostic
report sent to failing candidates?
May I review my exam and appeal my score?
How and when will I be notified of my exam results?
Typically, you will receive your results within 12 weeks following the exam date. Your licensing board will
contact you with your score, usually in writing:
If you pass the exam, you will receive a letter stating that you have passed. This means that you
earned a scaled score of 70 or higher (of a possible 100).
If you fail the exam, you will be provided with a diagnostic report showing your strengths and
weaknesses.
Please direct all questions about score notification to your licensing board. While NCEES compiles the
exam results, the individual licensing boards notify examinees of their scores.
What is the calculator policy? What calculators may I bring
to the exam?
Only models of calculators approved by NCEES are permitted in the exam room. No other
models of calculators are permitted in the exam room. The following are the only calculators that
will be permitted in the exam room for the 2009 exam administrations.
Casio: All fx115 models. Any Casio calculator must contain fx115 in its model name.
Hewlett Packard: The HP 33s and HP 35s models, but no others.
Texas Instruments: All TI30X and TI36X models. Any Texas Instruments calculator must contain
either TI30X or TI36X in its model name.
Each year, NCEES will review and revise the approved calculator list and then announce the
updated list by November 15.
Is it possible to access my exam score electronically or online?
In most cases, you must wait for a notification sent to you through the mail. Please contact your licensing
board regarding any alternative methods of score distribution.
How should I use the information furnished on the diagnostic report sent to failing
candidates?
Use the diagnostic report to determine how you need to concentrate your study for future exams. The
report lists the percentages of correctly answered questions in each knowledge area of the exam. A low
percentage in a content area contributed to your failing the exam. Substantial study of that content area is
recommended prior to retaking the exam. A marginal percentage in a content area indicates your
understanding may be improved by further study, thus improving your chances of passing the
examination. Further review of a content area with a high percentage may also improve your chances of
passing the examination. This is the best guide you will have for determining your strong and weak
subject areas.
May I review my exam and appeal my score?
In the interest of exam security, reviews and appeals are not permitted. This prevents
overexposure of the questions.
NCEES does offer hand scoring of examinee answer sheets to provide verification of
examination scores. A fee is assessed for each request for hand scoring, and requests will be
honored up to 60 days following the release of examination scores to Member Boards and testing
services. Examinees who took the exam for one of the following states must contact ELSES at
8775367729 to obtain a Hand Score Request Form: Florida, Hawaii, Kentucky, Michigan, New
Mexico, Ohio, Utah, Washington, West Virginia, and Wyoming. Examinees who took the exam
in a state not listed above, please contact your licensing board to obtain information about hand
scoring and the associated fees and deadlines.