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com Pharmacrystal Pharmacrystal NIPER JEE Model Paper - 2


1. Which of the following drug causes crystal urea? a) Sulphonamideb) Methanaminec) Thiabendazoled) All 2. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor is: a) Trimethoprimb) Methotrexate c) Pyrimethamined) All 3. Which of the following causes premature termination of peptide chain? a) Tetracyclineb) Erythromycinc) Puromycind) Chloramphenicol 4. Which of the following sulphonamide not causing crystal urea? a) Sulfurazoleb) Sulfadiazinec) Sulfathiazoled) Sulfasalazine 5. Cotrimoxazole is: a) Bacteriostaticb) Bactericidalc) Kinostaticd) Kinocidal 6. Side effect of methicillin:fect a) Hematureac) Interstitial nephritis b) Albuminuread) All 7. Oral cephalosporin causes side effect: a) Diarrheac) Bone marrow depression b) Convulsiond) Hair loss 8. Imipenam given with: b)a) Colistinc) Cilastind) Demeclocycline) All 9. _________causes fancony syndrome. a) Epihydrotetracyclinec) Peroxytetracycline b) 5-hydroxytetracyclinehydroxytetracyclined) All 10. _______________is an aminoglycoside, least ototoxic. a) Neomycinb) Gentamycinc) Netilmycind) Streptomycin 11. Clindamycin causes Pseudomembranous colitis which is treated by: a) Vancomycin, orallyc) Neomycin b) Vancomycin, I.V.d) All 12. Benzyl penicillin I.V. used for: a) Tetanusb) Wills diseasec) Gangrened) All 13. Red Man syndrome caused by;me a) Vancomycin b) Chloramphenicolc) Neomycind) Streptomycin 14. for Gut sterilization, ______________is used. a) Polymyxina) Gatifloxacinb) Vancomycinc) Ethambutol 15. Retrobulbular neuritis is a side effect of: a) Rifampicinb) Pyrizinamidec) Ethambutold) Cycloserine
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16. Which anti tubercular drug causes gout? a) Rifampicinb) Pyrizinamidec) Ethambutold) Cycloserine 17. Chloroquine deposit in to: a) Hairb) Nailc) Cornea of eyed) All 18. Artemicin act by: a) Damage to parasite membrane by cagec-centred free radical b) Inhibit heam polymerase c) Inhibit mitochondrial electron transport chain d) All 19. Chloroquine causes: a) Palpebral oedemac) Pulmonary oedema b) Cerebral oedemad) Angineuritis 20. Common side effect of protease inhibitor: a) Hyperglycemiac) Breast enlargement b) Buffalo humpd) All 21. _______used for chagas diseasedisease. a) Primaquineb) Puromycinc) Nifurtimoxd) All 22. Optic atrophy is a side effect of: a) Quinineb) Ethambutolc) Amiodaroned) Suramine 23. _______________causes S John syndrome and crystal urea.St. a) Mebendazoleb) Albendazolec) Thiabendazoled) Pyrantel 24. Mechanism of diethyl carbamazine is: a) Inhibit arachidonate metabolismc) Inhibit carbohydrate metabolism b) Inhibit pyruvate metabolismd) All 25. _____________is active against InfluenInfluenza-A and B. a) Zanamavirb) RitRitmantadinec) Amantadined) All 26. Which of the following protease inhibitor causes kidney stone or highest CSF level? a) Sequinavirb) Nelfinavirc) Amprenavird) Indinavir 27. Alopecia is a side effect of: a) Doxorubicinb) Etoposidec) Fluocytosined) All 28. Cardiotoxicity is highest with: a) Doxorubicinb) Epirubicinc) Etoposided) All 29. ____________have weak MAO inhibitor action. a) Linezolideb) Doxorubicinc) Etoposided) Fluocytosine 30. _____________is used in colorectal carcinoma. a) Irinotecanb) Doxorubicinc) Etoposided) Fluocytosine

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31. In Hodgkins disease. ____________is used. a) Bleomycinb) Doxorubicinc) Procarbazined) All 32. For breast cancer,_________is used. a) Paclitaxelb) Docalatelc) Tamoxifend) All 33. Cardioprotective anticancer,____________is used.tive a) Paclitaxelb) Docalatelc) Tamoxifend) All 34. To reduce toxicity of methotrexate, __________is added. a) Mesnab) NN-acetyl cystinec) Leucoverind) All 35. To prevent side effect of cyclophosphamide metabolite that is acrolein causing hemorrhagic cystitis,___________is used. a) Cysteineb) NN-acetyl cystinec) Leucoverind) All 36. The minimal alveolar concentration of inhalational anesthetic is a measure of its: a) Potencyc) Diffusibility b) Therapeutic indexd) Oil/water partition coefficient 37.______________, general anesthetic selectively inhibit excitatory NMDA receptor. a) Nitrous oxideb) Halothanec) Desfluraned) Ketamine 38. Second Gas effect is exerted by _________when coadministered with halothane. a) Nitrogenb) Cyclopropanec) Nitrous oxided) Helium 39. ___________can be used by Open drop method. a) Etherb) Halothanec) Trichloroethylened) Isoflurane 40. __________has over muscle relaxant effect. a) Etherb) Halothanec) Nitrous oxided) Isoflurane 41. Dissociative anesthesia is produced by; a) Ketamineb) Fentenylc) Droperidold) Propofol 42. ______________is routinely used in preanesthetic medication for prolong operation. a) Atropineb) Morphinec) Promethazined) Ranitidine 43. Barbiturates have following action except: a) Anticonvulsantc) Antianxiety b) Analgesicd) Respiratory depression 44. Diazepam is indicated in the following condition except: a) Generalized tonic-clonic epilepsyclonicc) Febrile convulsion b) Tetanusd) Cardiac catheterization 45. __________is used to reverse the CNS depression produced by DDiazepam.
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a) Doxapramb) Nikethamidec) Physostigmined) Flumazenil 46. The primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is: a) Dopamine antagonism b) Adenosine antagonism c) Opening of neuronal chloride channel d) Facilitation of GABAGABA-mediated chloride influx 47. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as: a) Hypnoticc) Antiepileptic b) Sedatived) Preanaesthetic medication 48. The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia: a) Aspirinb) Imipraminec) Carbamazepined) Valproic acid 49. ____________displaces plasma protein bound phenytoin as well as decreases its metabolism: a) Carbamazepinec) Cimetidine b) Sodium valproated) Chloramphenicol 50. ________________is a narrow spectrum antiepileptic drug effective only in the absence seizures: a) Phenacemidec) Sodium valproatealproate b) Ethosuccimided) Primidone 51. Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: a) Hypnoticb) Muscle relaxantc) Anxiolyticd) Antiepileptic 52. Gabapentin acts as: a) GABAA agonistc) Enhancing GABA release b) Precursor of GABAd) GABA independent mechanism 53. Preffered drug for suppressing Febrile convulsion is: a) I.M. phenobarbitonec) Rectal diazepam b) I.V. phenytoind) Oral sodium valproate 54. The most effective single drug in ParkiParkinsonism is: a)Bromocriptineb) Selegilinec) Levodopad) Biperiden 55. Loss or alteration in taste sensation can occur as a side effect of: a) Levodopab) Captoprilc) Penicillamined) All 56. Use of carbidopa along with levodopa in the treatment of ParkinsonismParkinsonism: a) Inhibits development of involuntary movements b) Minimizes on-off effectoff c) Inhibits occurrence of behavioral abnormalities d) Accentuates nausea and vomiting

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57. __________is a GABA transaminase inhibitor. a) Gabapentinb) Vigabetrinc) Lamotrigined) Clobazam 58. Which of the following adverse effect of levodopa is not minimized by combining it with carbidopa? a) Involuntary movementsc) Cardiac arrhythmia b) Nausea and vomitingingd) on-off effect 59. ___________is a non-sedative Anxiolytic.sedative a) Meprobamateb) Buspironec) Hydroxyzined) Alprazolam 60. The antipsychotic drug most likely to cause ocular toxicity on long term use is: a) Thioridazineb) Haloperidolc) Flupenthiazoled) Pimozide 61. Select the drug which inhibits COX irreversibly: a) Aspirinb) Mephenamic acidc) Piroxicamd) Nimesulide 62. The following NSAID is a relatively selective COX inhibitor:COX-2 a) Tenoxicamc) Diclofenac sodium b) Meloxicamd) Ketoprofen 63. For a patient of peptic ulcer, the safest non opioid analgesic is:pticnon-opioid a) Ketorolacc) Paracetamol b) Diclofenac sodiumd) Ibuprofen 64. ______________does not produce hyperuricaemia. a) Ethambutolc) Sulfinpyrazone b) Pyrazinamided) Hydrochlorthiazide 65. The most important dose limiting adverse effect of colchicine is:dose-limiting a) Sedationc) Diarrhoea b) Kidney damaged) Muscle paralysis 66. Probenecid has following action: a) Uricosuricc) Anti-inflammatoryinflammatory b) Analgesicd) All 67. Allopurinol decreases the plasma concentration of: a) Hypoxanthineb) Xanthinec) Uric acidd) All 68. The drug of choice for Hyperkinetic children is: a) Methylphenidatec) Caffeine b) Nikethamided) Clonazepam 69. Generally the earliest manifestation of salicylism is: a) Visual disturbancec) Hyperventilation b) Excitementd) Tinnitus 70. Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone?phine a) Analgesiac) Sedation
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b) Respiratory dispersiond) Miosis 71. The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CCHF is: a) Polythiazideb) Furosemidec) Metalozoned) Amiloride 72. _________________is a most suitable antiarrythmatic drug for counter acting ventricular extra systole due to Digoxin toxicity. a) Lidocaineb) Quinidinec) Verapamild) Amiodarone 73. _____________drug given concurrently can enhance cardiac toxicity of Digoxin. a) Phenobarbitoneb) Metoclopromide c) Isoprenalined) Magnesium hydroxide 74. Digoxin is contraindicated in: a) Angina pectorisc) Hypertensive patient b) Ventricular tachycardiad) Complete heart block 75. ____________vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction. a) Calcium channel blockerc) Nitrate b) ACE inhibitord) Hydralazine 76. The principle action common to all class I Antiarrythmic drug is; a) Sodium channel blockerc) Sodium channel openeopener b) Potassium channel openerd) Potassium channel blocker 77. Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolong therapy with: a) Procainamideb) Mexiletinc) Sotalold) Amiodarone 78. ___________________has most prominent anticholinergic action. a) Quinidineb) Procainamidec) Dysopyramided) Lignocaine 79. _______________is preferred for termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. a) Digoxinb) Quinidinec) Propranolold) Verapamil 80. _______________is most likely to accentuate variant (prinzmental) angina.prinzmental) a) Propranololb) Atenololc) Verapamild) Dipyridamol 81. Dihydropyridine blocks________ type of calcium channel blocker.blocks________--type a) Lb) Tc) Nd) R 82. ______________is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor. a) Diazoxideb) Cromakallinc) Minoxidild) Nicorandil 83. Coronary steal phenomenon has been noted most frequently with: a) Glyceryl trinitratec) Propranolol b) Dipyridamoled) Diltiazem 84. _____________is a potassium channel opener.

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a) Pinacidilb) Hydralazinec) Glibenclaimided) Amiloride 85. _______________antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect. a) Amlodipineb) Nifedipinec) Diltiazemd) Verapamil 86. Rebound hypertension is seen with: a) Clonidineb) Enalaprilc) Atenolold) Diltiazem 87. ________________has favorable effect on plasma lipid profile. a) Hydrochlorthiazidec) Prazosin b) Furosemided) Propranolol 88. Long term hydralazine therapy is causes: a) Gyanocomastiac) Hemolytic anemia b) Thrombocytopeniad) Lupus erythromatous syndrome 89. ACE inhibitor is contraindicated in: a) High renin hypertensivec) CHF patients b) Diabeticsd) Pregnant women 90. Loss of taste sensation is a side effect of:ensation a) Clonidineb) Captoprilc) Verapamild) Prazosin 91. Frequency dependant cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by: a) Verapamilb) Nifedipinec) Felodipined) Amlodipine 92. _____________is used to reduce frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate acute attack. a) Isosorbide dintriteb) Pentaerythritol c) Nifedipined) Dipyridamol 93. Quinidine can cause paradoxical tachycardia in a patient of: a) Sick sinus syndromec) Ventricular extrasystole b) Auricular fibrillationd) Auricular extra systole 94. _____________antiarrythmatic drug accumulate in the body for long time.body a) Procainamideb) Mexiletinc) Amiodaroned) Bretylium 95. Which of the following is an anticancer drug?5. a) Pentostatinb) Atorvastatinc) Rosuvastatind) None 96. ____________is used for short term control of emergency heart control but not for long term treatment of CHF. a) Digoxinb) Enalaprilc) Dobutamined) Theophylline 97. ______________which is an enodilator, beneficial in refractory CHF. a) Astimazoleb) Amiodaronec) Amrinoned) Amiloride
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98. ______________is believed to improve microcirculation in peripheral vascularmicrocirculation disease by promoting RBC flexibility. a) Cyclandelateb) Theophylline c) Pentoxyphyllined) Nicotinic acid 99. Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increase mortality has been noted with: a) Nifedipineb) Verapamilc) Lisinoprild) Diltiazem 100. _____________has been found to improve urine flow in elderly male with benign prostatic hypertrophy. a) Nifedipineb) Prazosinc) Disopyramided) Furosemide