O B Mcqs

Foundations of Individual Behavior http://groups.google.
com/group/vuZs
Ability
1. Which of the following statements is true about the term ability, as it is used in the field of organizational behavior? a. It refers to an individuals willingness to perform various tasks b. It is a current assessment of what an individual can do c. It refers exclusively to intellectual skills d. It refers exclusively to physical skills e. It is a prediction of future aptitude based on current attitudes (b; Moderate; p. 44)
2. Which one of the following words is the best synonym for ability, as the term is used in organizational behavior? a. motivation b. capacity c. experience d. intellect e. wisdom (b; Challenging; p. 44) 3. Which of the following is not a dimension of intellectual ability? a. number aptitude b. perceptual speed
c. spatial visualization d. dynamic flexibility e. social aptitude (d; Moderate; p. 45)
4. Research has found that tests that measure specific dimensions of intelligence are strong predictors of which of the following? a. job satisfaction b. turnover c. job performance d. ability to work with others e. absenteeism (c; Challenging; p. 48)
5. Recent evidence suggests that intelligence can be better understood by breaking it down into four sub-parts. Which one of the following is not one of those sub-parts? a. b. c. d. e. cognitive social emotional cultural physical
(e; Moderate; p. 47)
6. Which type of intelligence encompasses the aptitudes that have long been tapped by traditional intelligence tests? a. b. c. d. e. Cognitive intelligence Social intelligence Emotional intelligence Cultural intelligence Spiritual intelligence
(a; Easy; p. 47)
7. Although he scores well on traditional intelligence tests, James does not perform well in the workplace due to an inability to relate effectively with his colleagues. James would likely score below the median on a test that measures what subpart of intelligence? a. Cognitive
b. c. d. e.
Social Emotional Cultural Spiritual
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(b; Moderate; p. 47)
8. A company is looking for a manager to liaise between its home office in the United States, its manufacturing plants in Poland and Germany, and its suppliers in the Middle East and South Asia. A good candidate would be likely to score highly in what subpart of intelligence? a. b. Cognitive Social
c. d. e.
Emotional Cultural Spiritual
(d; Easy; p. 47)
9. Which subpart of intelligence is the ability to identify, understand, and manage affect? a. b. c. d. e. Cognitive Social Emotional Cultural Spiritual
(c; Easy; p. 47) http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs 10. What is the correlation between intelligence and job satisfaction? a. b. c. d. e. strongly negative slightly negative about zero slightly positive strongly positive
11. Which of the following is not one of the nine basic abilities involved in the performance of physical tasks?
a. stamina b. dynamic flexibility c. speed d. body coordination e. trunk strength (c; Challenging; p. 47)
12. An employee has abilities that far exceed the requirements of the job. Which of the following predictions about that employee is most likely to be true? a. The employees performance is likely to be inadequate b. The employees performance is likely to be far above what is required. c. The employees job satisfaction is likely to be low. d. The employees job satisfaction is likely to be high. e. The employees abilities will deteriorate until they match what is required for the job. (a; Moderate; p. 47)
Biographical Characteristics 13. What will be the largest demographic change in the U.S. workforce in the next decade? a. increasing ethnic diversity b. a fall in married workers c. increasing age of workers d. decreasing tenure of workers e. more women in the workforce than men
(c; Moderate; p. 49)
14. Which of the following is not a biographical characteristic? a. political affiliation b. age c. sex d. tenure e. race (a; Easy; p. 48-53)
15. Research shows that which of the following is likely to decrease as a worker grows older? a. productivity b. likelihood of quitting c. absenteeism d. vacation days taken e. work ethic (b; Moderate; p. 49)
16. Which of the following statements is true? a. Older employees have lower rates of avoidable absence than younger workers. b. Older employees have lower rates of unavoidable absence than younger workers. c. Older employees are more likely to quit their job than younger workers.
d. e.
Older employees are perceived to be more flexible than younger workers. Older employees generally have lower productivity than younger workers.
(a; Moderate, p. 49)
17. Which of the following is true concerning the relationship between age and job satisfaction? a. Most studies have found a negative association between age and satisfaction. b. Some studies have found a U-shaped relationship between age and satisfaction. c. d. e. Satisfaction decreases among professionals as they age. Satisfaction increases among nonprofessionals during middle age. Satisfaction decreases among nonprofessionals after middle age.
(b; Challenging; p. 49)
18. Research does not support which of the following statements about gender in the workplace? a. Women are more willing to conform to authority than men. b. Men are more aggressive than women. c. Women are more productive at work than men. d. Men have higher expectations of success. e. Women have lower turnover rates than men. (c; Moderate; p. 50)
19. Research supports which of the following statements about men and women in the workplace?
a. Men are more productive. b. Women are more productive. c. Men are the most receptive to socialization. d. Women are more likely to resign. e. Women have more absences. (e; Moderate; p. 50)
20. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the higher absentee rate of women in the workplace? a. Women tend to have more illnesses that keep them from work than do men. b. Traditionally, women have had the responsibility of caring for home and family. c. Women tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than men. d. Women generally have jobs for which a temporary replacement can be hired. e. Women tend to work in jobs that have less flexible schedules than men do. (b; Challenging; p. 50) 21. Which of the following statements concerning tenure is not true? a. Recent evidence demonstrates a positive relationship between seniority and job productivity. b. c. d. e. Tenure does not appear to be a good predictor of employee productivity. Tenure is a potent variable in explaining turnover. Tenure and satisfaction are positively related. Tenure and organizational investment are negatively related.
22. Studies indicate that which of the following tends to decrease with increased tenure? a. job satisfaction b. productivity c. absenteeism d. raises and promotion e. efficiency (c; Moderate; p. 52
23. Which of the following is a major problem in the use of ability tests for selection and promotion of personnel? a. the low reliability of the tests b. the tests fail to take into account the personality of the individual
c. some individuals with high intelligence are poor test takers d. the unfair advantage that women enjoy on these tests
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e. the adverse impact the tests may have on different racial and ethnic groups (e; Moderate; p. 52)
Learning 24. Which of the following indicates that learning has taken place? a. The ability to perform well on exams b. A change in motivation
c. A change in behavior d. A high I.Q. score e. An increase in experience (c; Easy; p. 53)
25. Learning has not taken place in which of the following cases? a. A farm worker makes sure that she always wears a hat after she was badly sunburned,. b. A salesman watches a training video and then uses some of the techniques in that video. c. An athlete trains rigorously, until he can run a mile in less than 4 minutes.
d. A warehouseman avoids working by staying in areas of the warehouse where he has observed that the foreman does not enter. e. A manager only completes an important project by working through the night. (e; Moderate; p. 53)
26. All of the following are true about learning except that it _____. a. involves change b. can have a very short duration c. requires a change in behavior d. requires some form of experience e. affects aptitude (b; Moderate; p. 53)
27. A cashier starts greeting her customers with a simple Hello rather than following the company policy of greeting them with the standard greeting Thank you for shopping with us, since she find saying the latter slightly embarrassing. In this case, what is the experience that has led to learning? a. The feeling of embarrassment when she uses the standard company greeting. b. The direction of the company to use the standard greeting. c. The decision not to use the company greeting. d. Her use of the informal greeting of Hello. e. The decision of the company to adopt the standard greeting. (a; Moderate; p. 53)
28. Experiments performed by Pavlov led to what theory? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. social learning d. method reproduction e. behavior shaping (a; Moderate; p 53-54)
29. What role did the meat play in Pavlovs experiment with dogs? a. b. c. d. e. an unconditioned response a conditioned stimulus a conditioned response a reconditioned stimulus an unconditioned stimulus
30. Classical conditioning would view which of the following as most likely to be a conditioned response? a. wincing when you stub your toe b. driving on the right side of the road c. flinching when startled by a loud noise d. looking for shelter when the sky turns gray e. mouth watering when you eat delicious food (d; Moderate; p. 54)
31. In Pavlovs experiment, the bell was a/an _____. a. b. c. d. e. unconditioned stimulus unconditioned response conditioned stimulus conditioned response none of the above
(c; Easy; p. 54) http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs 32. Which of the following is not true of classical conditioning? a. b. Classical conditioning is passive. Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors.
c. Learning a conditioned response involves building an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. d. A neutral stimulus takes on the properties of a conditioned stimulus.
e. Classical conditioning is different in many respects from operant conditioning. (d; Challenging; p. 54)
33. When Joe gets stressed he often drinks chamomile tea. This calms him since he associates chamomile tea drinking with happy visits with his grandmother in his childhood. The calm feeling brought on by the tea is an example of which of the following? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. sensory learning d. social learning e. shaping (a; Easy; p. 54)
34. Why does classical conditioning theory fail to adequately describe behavior in the workplace? a. Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is reflexive rather than voluntary. b. Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is emitted rather than elicited. c. Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is complex. d. It is very difficult to determine exactly which conditioned stimulus elicits which response in the workplace. e. Classical conditioning works well describing animal behavior but not human behavior. (b; Challenging; p. 55)
35. Operant conditioning argues that _____.
a. behavior is reflexive b. behavior is unlearned c. behavior is a function of its consequences d. the tendency to repeat a behavior is very strong e. the tendency to repeat a behavior is instinctual (c; Moderate; p. 55-56)
36. Which of the following researchers thought that reinforcement was the central factor involved in behavioral change? a. Pavlov b. Fayol c. Skinner d. Deming e. Surber (c; Moderate; p. 56)
37. Stella has been late to work often in the past. Stellas manager tries to change Stellas behavior by praising her whenever she is on time. However, Stella realizes that this is what he is doing, and resents his attempts to manipulate her behavior. This is an example of what problem with behaviorism and OB Mod? a. behaviorism and OB Mod assume that peoples thoughts and feelings in response to their environment are irrelevant b. behaviorism and OB Mod put undue emphasis on cognitive processes c. behaviorism and OB Mod only have an effect on human subjects when those subject are unaware that these techniques are being used. d. the best reinforcement to use and the schedule on which it should be used varies widely between individual subjects.
e. behaviorism and OB Mod are based upon simple models of stimulus and response that may not hold true in a complex, real world environment (a; Challenging; p. 56)
38. Your boss does not follow through on her promise to pay you double for overtime hours worked. When asked again to work overtime, you decline. This is an application of _____ conditioning. a. classical b. operant c. sensory d. association e. disappointment-weighted (b; Challenging; p. 56)
39. According to operant conditioning, when a behavior is not reinforced, what happens to the probability of that behavior occurring again? a. b. c. d. e. it increases it declines it remains unchanged it becomes zero it may increase or decrease based on other factors
(b; Easy; p. 56)
40. What do we call the view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience? a. situational learning theory
b. classical learning c. social learning theory d. hands-on learning experience e. the Pavlov principle (c; Easy; p. 56) 41. Social learning theory is an extension of _____.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
classical conditioning operant conditioning shaping Pavlovian theory continuous reinforcement principles (b; Challenging; p. 56) 42. Isadora observes that when her brother Mikey crosses the street without looking he is punished by their parents. Based on this, she is careful to look before she crosses the street. Isadora has learned through what principle? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. shaping d. extinction e. social learning theory (e; Challenging; p. 56)
43. Social learning theory would best describe the learning in the following situation?
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a. an employee works through lunch several days in a row after being told by her boss that she will receive extra pay. b. a man learns how to perform yoga by watching a videotape of a yoga teacher. c. a child always addresses his grandmother politely after he is given candy as a reward for his good manners. d. a man stops wearing brightly colored shirts to work after being teased for doing so by his co-workers. e. a postal workers pulse rate rises whenever she approaches a house where she has been bitten by a dog before. (b; Challenging; p. 58) 44. A manager in a workshop that reconditions used air conditioners finds that employees are avoiding cleaning the air conditioners properly, since this is a dirty and difficult task. The manager decides to alter this behavior by docking the pay of employees who do not clean the air conditioners properly. Which of the following isnot a probable outcome of attempting to change the behavior by using punishment rather than by using positive reinforcement? a. The employees will probably stop cleaning the air conditioners properly soon after they are not punished for it. b. Positively reinforcing the correct behavior will eliminate the undesired behavior more quickly than negative reinforcement c. The punished employees will have lowered morale. d. The punished employees will resent their manager. e. The punished employees will start to clean the air conditioners properly. (b; Moderate; p. 58) 45. Using operant conditioning, which of the following is not a method that can be used to change behavior? a. negative reinforcement b. punishment
c. counseling d. positive reinforcement e. shaping (c; Easy; p. 58)
46. Four processes have been found to determine the influence that a model will have on an individual. Which of the following is not one of those processes? a. attentional processes b. retention processes c. motor reproduction processes d. reinforcement processes e. consequential processes (e; Moderate; p. 58) 47. Which of the following processes deals with how well an individual remembers a models action after it is no longer readily available?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Attitudinal Retention Motor reproduction Reinforcement Attention (b; Easy; p. 57) 48. What do we call the practice of reinforcing closer and closer approximations of a desired behavior ? a. modeling b. shaping c. classical conditioning d. social learning
e. aping (b; Moderate; p. 57) 49. You want to increase the productivity of an employee. Your goal is to have him produce 10 units per day. On the first day he produces 5 units and you give him a reward. On the second day he produces 5 units and you dont give him a reward. On the third day he produces 6 units and you give him a reward. Which method of behavioral change are you using? a. modeling b. shaping c. classical conditioning d. social learning e. ego impairment (b; Challenging; p. 57) 50. Which of the following can be used in shaping behavior? a. positive reinforcement b. diminishment c. reaction d. manipulation e. unionization (a; Easy; p. 57) 51. What is it called when a desired response is followed by the termination or withdrawal of something unpleasant? a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. manipulation d. elimination
e. psychic withdrawal (a; Moderate; p. 57) 52. Suspending an employee for dishonest behavior is an example of which method of shaping behavior? a. extinction b. negative reinforcement c. punishment d. poor planning e. reaction (c; Moderate; p. 57) 53. Which of the following is an example of the use of extinction in shaping behavior? a. a teacher does not respond to any student who speaks before being called upon b. a workplace institutes a zero-tolerance policy for drug and alcohol use c. a manager docks the pay of all workers who arrive late d. a cat owner sprays his cat with water every time it tries to sit on the couch e. a soccer coach rewards his players with praise and small rewards if they prevent the other team from scoring (a; Moderate; p. 57) 54. Which of the following statements about positive and negative reinforcement is not true? a. They both result in learning. b. They both strengthen a response and increase the probability of repetition. c. They tend to weaken behavior and decrease its subsequent frequency. d. They are effective shaping tools.
e. They are often used in learning. (c; Challenging; p. 57) 55. An employee is frequently late for work. Every time he is not tardy the manager compliments him for being on time. What form of reinforcement is the manager using? a. continuous schedule b. negative c. intermittent schedule d. repetitious e. repetitious negative (a; Moderate; p. 57) 56. According to research, which of the following is a schedule of reinforcement that promotes the greatest resistance to extinction? a. continuous b. fixed interval c. variable interval d. fixed ratio e. negative (c; Moderate; p. 59-60) 57. In which reinforcement schedule is a reward provided after a given number of responses?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
variable-ratio fixed-ratio variable-interval fixed-interval viable (b; Moderate; p. 60)
58. In general, _____ reinforcement schedules tend to lead to higher performance than _____ reinforcement schedules. a. variable; fixed b. fixed; intermittent c. fixed; variable d. variable; ratio e. fixed; static (a; Moderate; p. 60) 59. The corporate audit staff makes a series of randomly timed, unannounced visits to a company office. On each visit they check the records to see that they are up to date and correct. These visits are an example of which of the following? a. positive reinforcement b. variable-interval reinforcement schedule c. continuous reinforcement schedule d. fixed reinforcement schedule e. static response method (b; Moderate; p. 60) 60. The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to as _____. a. classical conditioning b. self-management c. reengineering d. OB Mod e. social modeling (d; Moderate; p. 62)
61. Which of the following is one of the steps of the problem-solving model followed by the typical OB Mod program?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
identifying critical behaviors reinforcing behavior developing horizontally arrayed data developing vertically arrayed data identifying member barriers (a; Moderate; p. 62) 62. A manager wishes to use OB Mod in order to increase the friendliness of his staff towards customers. The manager starts by determining exactly what behaviors his sales staff needs to use in order to increase their friendliness towards customers. What is the next step that the manager should take? a. determine why employees are not friendly towards customers b. develop a strategy for increasing the friendliness of employees towards customers c. reward employees who are friendly towards customers d. record how often employees are friendly to customers at the present time e. establish what is needed to motivate employee friendliness towards customers (d; Moderate; p. 62)
63. Which of the following is not a means of achieving high levels of ability-job fit? a. an effective job selection process b. promotion and transfer decisions that reflect the abilities of candidates c. fine tuning the job to better fit the incumbents abilities d. designing self-analysis tools for high level managers e. being sensitive to employee needs (d; Moderate, p. 64) 64. Who said Give me a child at birth and I can make him into anything you want? a. B.F. Skinner
b. Ivan Pavlov c. Sigmund Freud d. James Emery e. Ben Franklin (a; Moderate; p. 65) Attitudes and Job Satisfaction http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs What are the main components of attitudes? 1. Which of the following answer choices is the best definition of attitude? a. Attitudes indicate how one will react to a given event. b. Attitudes are the yardstick by which one measures ones actions. c. Attitudes are the emotional part of an evaluation of some person, object or event. d. Attitudes are evaluative statements of what one believes about something or someone. e. Attitudes are a measure of how the worth of an object, person or event is evaluated. (d; Moderate; p. 74)
2. The belief that violence is wrong is a evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the _____ component of an attitude. a. cognitive b. affective c. reflective
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d. behavioral e. reactive (a; Moderate; p. 74)
3. The _____ component of an attitude is the emotional or feeling component of that attitude. a. b. c. d. e. affective cognitive behavioral evaluative reaffective
(a; Easy; p. 74)
4. Jan is a security officer. Jan believes that it is important to know exactly who is in the office at any given time. She notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they take lunch, which makes it impossible to keep track of who is actually in the office. Jan becomes frustrated with those employees. She makes note of them and reports them to their supervisors. In the above scenario, what is the behavioral component of Jans attitude to the employees who did not sign out of the office? a. Jan believes that it is important that she know exactly who is in the office at any given time. b. Jan notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they take lunch. c. Jan finds it impossible to keep track of who is actually in the office. d. Jan becomes frustrated with those employees who do not sign out of the office.
e. Jan notes which employees leave the office without signing out, and reports them to their supervisors. (e; Hard; p. 74)
5. Which of the following is an example of an attitude? a. Satisfaction with a job well done. b. The observation that most dogs have four legs. c. The opinion that it is never acceptable to steal. d. Anger at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing. e. The avoidance of a restaurant where one once received bad service. (d; Moderate; p.74)
6. The following are possible actions that an individual may take if they behave in a way that is inconsistent with an attitude that they hold: I: change the behavior II: change the attitude III: rationalize the behavior IV: ignore the inconstancy Which of these actions are the most likely to be taken? a. Either I, or II b. Either III or IV c. One of I, II or III d. One of I, III or IV e. One of II, III or IV
(c; Moderate; p. 77)
7. Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in _____. a. organizational dissonance b. cognitive dissonance c. attitudinal clarification d. values clarification e. affective reactance (b; Moderate; p. 76)
8. The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by _____. a. Maslow b. Festinger c. Hofstede d. Skinner e. Pavlov (b; Easy; p. 76) 9. Dan strongly believes that it is important that he spends time with his children on the weekends. Which of the following situations would most likely result in a very strong desire to reduce cognitive dissonance? a. Being made by his boss to work weekends or lose his job. b. Working over the weekend in order to cover for a sick friend. c. Working over the weekend in order to secure a large cash bonus.
d. Working over the weekend in order to free up time for a golf game later in the week. e. Working over the weekend in order to complete a project for a client vital to the company. (d; Hard; p. 76)
10. Dissonance means _____. a. reactance b. constance c. resistance d. consistency e. inconsistency (e; Moderate; p. 76)
11. Festinger argued that dissonance is _____. a. b. c. d. e. monotonous confounding physically painful exhausting unpleasant
(e; Challenging; p. 76)
12. Jo is a courier, delivering parcels throughout the metropolitan area. Although she considers herself law abiding, she often breaks the speed limit while making her deliveries. Which of the following statements does not reflect a likely response to the conflict between her attitude and her behavior?
a. Its not a problem that I speed a little bit, its not much over the limit, and everyone else speeds some. b. The speed limits are just too low around here; anyone driving at a reasonable speed will break them. c. This speeding is irresponsible. From now on I am observing the speed limits. d. Ive got to drive fast sometimes, otherwise I will not make all my deliveries and Ill lose clients. e. Its wrong to break even minor laws, but Ill probably keep speeding anyway. (e: Hard; p.77)
13. According to Festinger, people will seek a(an) _____. a. b. c. d. e. variable state with variable dissonance stable state with maximal dissonance unstable state with maximal dissonance unstable state with minimal dissonance stable state with minimal dissonance
14. Festinger proposed that the desire to reduce dissonance is determined by three factors including the _____. a. b. c. d. e. values of the elements creating the dissonance degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements degree of positive affect the person has toward the behavior fact that values and attitudes will vary over the short term awareness that dissonance exists
(b; Challenging; p. 77)
15. The primary organizational implication of cognitive dissonance theory is that it helps to predict _____. a. b. overall job satisfaction for employees the likelihood of a given employee engaging in impression management
c. the overall level to which the workforce will accept gender, racial or other types of bias d. e. the willingness of the workforce to accept company rules and work practices the inclination towards attitude and behavioral change of the workforce
16. Which of the following is not a moderating variable of the A-B relationship? a. b. c. d. e. direct experience consistency specificity accessibility importance
17. The attitude-behavior relationship is likely to be much stronger if the attitude_____. a. b. c. d. refers to something that the individual has direct personal experience with must be defended against the attitudes of society at large is perceived to be of little importance is related to organizational structure
e.
is not regularly discussed and examined
(a; Moderate; p. 78)
18. The theory that attitudes are used, after the fact, to make sense out of action that has already occurred is best explained by _____. a. cognitive dissonance b. escalation of commitment c. self perception theory d. uncertainty avoidance e. organizational commitment (c; Moderate; p. 78)
19. Which of the following statements are best explained by self-perception theory? a. I think its wrong to steal, so I never have taken as much as a paper-clip home from the office. b. I wouldnt want an office job, all my life Ive worked outdoors, even as a child growing up on a farm. c. I may have cut a few corners when I wrote that new contract, but it was more important to get it in on time than worry about a few typos. d. I am a deeply religious person, so I do not want to work on any of the holy days my faith holds dear. e. It is important to be truthful, but not so much that you cause unnecessary offense. (b; Hard; p. 78)
20. Which of the following is not true concerning diversity programs?
a. They almost always include a self-evaluation phase. b. They seek to change attitudes in response to shifts in perspective on diversity issues. c. Participants often take part in group discussions with representatives from diverse groups. d. They avoid making participants openly confront the stereotypes that they hold. e. The use of these programs is increasing. (d; Moderate; p. 84-85) 21. The E.M. Foster quote, How can I know what I think til I see what I say? reflects the notions captured by _____ theory. a. cognitive dissonance b. escalation of commitment c. self perception d. uncertainty avoidance e. social affirmation (c; Moderate; p. 78)
22. The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to selfworth is _____. a. job satisfaction b. job involvement c. job stability d. organizational commitment e. social embeddedness (b; Moderate; p. 79)
23. _____ refers to an individuals http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs general attitude toward his or her job.
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a. Job satisfaction b. Job involvement c. Job stability d. Organizational commitment e. Social investment (a; Moderate; p. 79)
24. Which of the following statements would have been most likely made by an employee with a high degree of job involvement? a. My skills make me exceptionally valuable to the company.
b. Im a harder worker than most of my colleagues, even to the degree I am carrying some of the lazier ones. c. It felt great to get promoted; I guess the guys upstairs really did appreciate the way I had been running things. d. I love my job, it is engaging, well-paid, and low pressure enough that I dont have to be always worrying about it in my time off. e. I enjoy working with my hands, so much so that on the days when my job requires me to actually physically build something time flies by without me even noticing it. (c; Hard; p. 79-80)
25. In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional, and immersed herself in the
task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Veras job attitudes best be described? a. low job satisfaction and low job involvement b. low job satisfaction and high job involvement c. high job satisfaction and low job involvement d. high job satisfaction and high job involvement e. low organizational commitment (b; Hard; p. 79-80)
26. The following answer choices are quotes from employees about their job at Healthy Eating, a chain of health food stores. Which quote most probably comes from an employee who has a great deal of organizational commitment? a. I am a great believer in the importance of a healthy diet, so Im glad I am working for a company that is trying to make simple, healthy food available to all. b. I like the fact that in my role as a buyer for Healthy Eating I get to make choices about which food is good enough for us to sell. c. Even though I only work in the produce department for now, its good to know that the suggestions I make about how the store could be improved are heard and considered by my managers. d. The challenging nature of the work and the thoughtful and generous way they treat their staff has made Healthy Eating the best place I have ever worked. e. With the benefits it provides, it is vital for me to keep my job. In fact, I will stay with Healthy Eating for as long as I possibly can. (a; Hard; p. 80)
27. Organizational commitment is defined as _____. a. the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization they work for and its goals b. an employees belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly c. the degree to which an employees sense of fulfillment and self worth is related to their job d. the amount of effort an employee will make in order to keep or advance their position in an organization e. the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization (a; Moderate; p. 80)
28. Of the following, the best predictor of turnover is _____. a. job satisfaction b. job involvement c. organizational commitment d. cognitive dissonance e. affective dissonance (c; Challenging; p. 79)
29. It is suggested that with a weakening of the loyalty of employers to employees (and vice-versa) in todays workplace, organizational commitment may be replaced with _____ commitment. a. b. c. family occupational hierarchical
d. e.
department socially stratified
30. Job satisfaction is best described as _____. a. a result b. a value c. an attitude d. causing high performance e. a valued discipline (c; Moderate; p. 85)
31. The following are methods of measuring employee attitudes: I. a one-question global rating II. a summation score made up of a number of job facets III. a 360 battery Which of these methods are the best to use in order to measure job satisfaction? a. I only b. II only c. III only d I and II are equally as good e. II or III are equally as good (d; Challenging; p. 85)
32. Which of the following statements is not a finding from independent studies conducted among workers in the U.S. and other developed countries over the past 30 years? a. b. c. d. e. most workers are satisfied with their jobs overall U.S. trends are generally applicable to other developed countries employees tend to be most satisfied by the work itself rate of pay is strongly correlated with job satisfaction for almost all workers employees tend to be least satisfied with pay and promotion opportunities
(d; Challenging; p. 86)
33. Which of the following is not generally true? a. Satisfied workers are productive workers. b. Productive workers are satisfied workers. c. Satisfaction is the major determinant of a workers OCB. d. Satisfaction comes down to fairness of outcomes, treatments or procedures. e. Enterprises with a greater percentage of satisfied workers are more effective than those with a smaller percentage of satisfied workers. (c; Moderate; p. 90)
34. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism? a. There is a consistent positive relationship between the two. b. There is a consistent negative relationship between the two. c. There is a curvilinear relationship between the two. d. When fairness is controlled for, there is a direct relationship between the two.
e. No relationship can be established between the two. (b; Moderate; p. 87)
35. Factors other than satisfaction that impact ones decision to leave a current job include all of the following except _____. a. labor market conditions b. length of tenure with the organization c. expectations about alternative job opportunities d. organizational citizenship behavior e. unionization (d; Challenging; p. 88)
36. The following statements are about the relationship between job satisfaction and customer satisfaction for frontline employees who have regular customer contact: I. employee satisfaction is positively correlated to customer satisfaction II. employee satisfaction has no correlation to customer satisfaction III. satisfied customers tend to raise employee satisfaction Which of these statements are true? a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and III e. II and III (d; Easy; p. 91)
37. There has been a marked decline in job satisfaction in the United States in recent years. Which of the following statements about this decline is correct?. a. b. c. d. e. The decline is greatest in the high income brackets The decline is greatest in the middle income brackets The decline is greatest in the lower income brackets The decline is confined to middle and lower incomes workers The decline is confined to middle and higher income earners
(a; Easy; p. 86)
38. Which of the following statements is not true about attitudes in the workplace? a. Changing employee attitudes is necessary if you are to manage dissonance. b. c. d. e. High pay alone is not likely to create a satisfying workplace. Generating positive job attitudes helps lower absenteeism and turnover. Attitudes help determine how well employees perform on the job Attitudes give warnings of potential problems
(a; Moderate; p. 86)
39. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the _____. a. b. c. d. employees level of performance organizations culture managements style employees values and attitudes
e.
employees level of workplace deviance
(a; Challenging; p. 88)
40. Attending union meetings as a response to dissatisfaction would be what type of response? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect e. reification (b; Moderate; p. 89)
41. Quietly continuing to do your work when you know things wont improve, is what type of response to dissatisfaction? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect e. social voice (d; Moderate; p. 89) 42. Maria is dissatisfied with the way that her manager treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with another firm. She has expressed her dissatisfaction through _____. a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect
e. social voice (a; Easy; p. 89)
43. Steve is unhappy with his job. He takes every possible vacation and sick day and sometimes shows up for work late. He is expressing his dissatisfaction through _____. a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. social voice e. neglect (d; Moderate; p. 89)
44. There is a high level of job dissatisfaction amongst the workers on a certain production line. This is mainly due to the perception that the foreman always sides with the line boss when there is a dispute, no matter what the other workers say. Which of the following statements would most likely be made by an employee reacting both passively and destructively to this job dissatisfaction? a. Take this job and shove it, I aint workin here no more! b. Look, this situation is not acceptablewe need a formal grievance procedure so we can appeal to management above the level of foreman when we cant agree. c. That line boss isnt going to be here forever, as long as I just do my job and wait it out, things will get better. d. The line boss is a fool and the manager is a fools dog. I just cant wait to see how they are going to screw things up in the future. e. If the foreman and line boss wont listen, weve got to go around them. Thats why we have a union, I guess. (d; Hard; p. 89) 45. Henry is dissatisfied with his job but believes that his supervisor is a good man who will do the right thing. Henry has decided that if he just waits, conditions will improve. Henrys approach to this problem is termed _____. a. exit b. voice
c. loyalty d. neglect e. reification (c; Moderate; p. 89)
46. Early studies of organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) assumed that it was closely linked with satisfaction. More recent evidence suggests that satisfaction influences OCB, but through perceptions of _____. a. fairness b. consistency c. productivity d. leadership ability e. out marketing (a; Challenging; p. 88)
47. Which of the following statements is not true? a. b. Satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employees job dissatisfaction.
c. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. d. Satisfied employees are likely to be more productive. e. The most effective way to improve job satisfaction is a raise in pay. (e; Moderate; p. 89) Chapter 5 Perception and Individual Decision Making
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Factors Influencing Perception 1. What are the three classes of factors that influence perception? a. factors in the setting, factors in the environment and factors in the motives b. factors in the perceiver, factors in the target and factors in the situation c. factors in the character, factors in knowledge and factors in experience d. factors in the personality, factors in the character and factors in the values e. factors in the senses, factors in the surroundings and factors in the lighting (b; Easy; p. 146) 2. What do we call the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment? a. interpretation b. environmental analysis c. social verification d. outlook e. perception (e; Easy; p. 146) 3. Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside? a. the perceivers b. the target c. the timing d. the context e. the situation (a; Moderate; p. 146) 4. What is the relationship between what one perceives and objective reality?
1.
They are the same.
2. 3. 4. 5.
They can be substantially different. They should be the same. They are rarely if ever the same. They cannot be the same. (b; Moderate; p. 147)
5. Which of the following is not a factor in the individual perceiver?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
attitude motive expectation location perception
(d; Moderate; p. 147) 6. David has the opinion that people who drive SUVs are dangerous drivers. He often perceives that people driving SUVs are doing so in a dangerous manner, even when other observers can see nothing wrong with the behavior of the SUV drivers. What factor in David is affecting his perception in this case? a. his interests b. his experiences c. his expectations d. his motives e. his background (c; Moderate; p. 147) 7. Which of the following is not true about our perceptions of a target? a. Objects that are close together will be perceived together rather than separately. b. Persons that are similar to each other tend to be grouped together. c. Targets are usually looked at in isolation. d. Motion, sounds, size, and other attributes of a target shape the way we see it. e. Objects that are distant from one another will be perceived separately rather than as a group.
(c; Challenging; p. 147) 8. The time at which an object or event is seen is an example of what type of factor influencing the perceptual process?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
perceiver target social reality situation
(e; Moderate; p. 147) 9. What is the name of the theory that deals with how we explain behavior differently depending on the meaning we assign to the actor? a. Behavioral Theory b. Judgment Theory c. Selective Perception Theory d. Attribution Theory e. Equality Theory (d; Moderate; p. 148) 10. What is the most relevant application of perception concepts to OB?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
the perceptions people form about each other. the perceptions people form about their employer the perceptions people form about their culture the perceptions people form about society the perceptions people form about external reality.
(a; Challenging; p. 148) 11. When individuals observe another persons behavior, they attempt to determine whether it is internally or externally caused. This phenomenon is most directly relevant to which of the following? a. the Pygmalion effect b. projection theory c. attribution theory
d. selective perception theory e. expectancy theory (c; Moderate; p. 148) 12. Which of the following is an internally caused behavior? a. working late in order to get a promotion b. arriving at work late because of oversleeping c. working weekends because of your employers orders d. driving under the speed limit so that you do not get a ticket e. running from an angry dog (a; Easy; p. 148) 13. In attribution theory, what is distinctiveness? a. whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in different situations b. whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations c. whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in similar situations d. whether an individual displays different behaviors in similar situations e. whether an individual displays different behavior from other people (b; Challenging; p. 148) 14. What sort of actions are most likely to be attributed to external causes? a. Actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus and high consistency. b. Actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus and low consistency. c. Actions that have high distinctiveness, low consensus and low consistency. d. Actions that have low distinctiveness, low consistency and high consensus e. Actions that have low distinctiveness, low consensus and low consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 148) 15. What does consensus refer to in attribution theory?
a. there is general agreement about a perception b. different people respond the same way in the same situation c. there is general agreement about how people desire to respond to the same situation d. different people perceive a situation similarly e. all people behave precisely the same way in certain situations (b; Challenging; p. 148) 16. Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
An employee is late because he was partying late and then overslept. An employee is late because of a flat tire. An employee was fired because he slept on the job.. An employee was promoted because he was hard working. An employee died from lung cancer after excessive tobacco use (b; Moderate; p. 148) 17. What term is used for the extent to which an individual displays different behaviors in different situations? a. continuity b. integrity c. stability d. flexibility e. distinctiveness (e; Moderate; p. 148) 18. If everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, attribution theory states that the behavior shows _____. a. consensus b. similarity c. reliability d. consistency e. stability
(a; Moderate; p. 148) 19. Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. How would Attribution Theory describe this behavior? a. It shows consensus b. It shows similarity c. It shows reliability d. It shows consistency e. It shows distinctiveness (d; Easy; p. 148) 20. The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to _____. a. attribute it to interpretation b. attribute it to internal causes c. attribute it to consensus d. attribute it to external causes e. attribute it to distinctiveness (b; Moderate; p. 148) 21. If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows _____. a. distinctiveness b. consensus c. consistency d. continuity e. stability (c; Moderate; p. 148) 22. What term is used for the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others? a. fundamental attribution error
b. self-serving bias c. selective perception d. consistency e. actor bias (a; Moderate; p. 149) 23. Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you were late back from lunch, he assumed that you had simply taken too much time. He never considered that the elevators were out and you had to walk up 10 flights of stairs. Your boss is guilty of _____. a. self-serving bias b. selective perception c. fundamental attribution error d. inconsistency e. stereotyping (c; Moderate; p. 149) 24. What name is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors? a. fundamental attribution error b. self-serving bias c. consistency d. selective perception e. stereotyping (b; Moderate; p. 149) 25. Whenever Jane is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or blames one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of _____. a. fundamental attribution error b. attribution bias c. the halo effect
d. distinctiveness e. self-serving bias (e; Moderate; p. 149) 26. Investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000 What sort of bias were these investors most probably guilty of? a. fundamental attribution error b. self-serving bias c. the halo effect d. distinctiveness e. selective perception (b; Moderate; p. 149) 27. Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following except _____. a. stereotyping b. halo effect c. projection d. self-serving bias e. the Pygmalion effect (d; Easy; p. 150-152) 28. Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we perceive, we engage in _____. a. selective perception b. memorization c. mental desensitization d. periodic listening e. linear clustering (a; Easy; p. 150)
29. What is the term used for a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance? a. the contrast effect b. personal bias c. prejudice d. the halo effect e. projection (d; Moderate; p. 150) 30. A committee is made up of 12 managers; three each from the sales, production, accounting and human resources departments. They read a comprehensive study of the company they work for, and are asked which of its recommendations are most important. In discussion they find that the managers perceive that the most important recommendations are those concerning their own department. This finding is most likely the result of what type of bias? a. selective perception b. halo effect c. Pygmalion effect d. self-serving bias e. projection (a; Challenging; p. 150-151) 31. Your rating in a job interview is high in contrast to the candidate who was interviewed directly before you, who was rated extremely low. Your own high rating might be partially attributed to which of the following? a. the halo effect. b. the contrast effect c. projection d. stereotyping e. prototyping (b; Moderate; p. 151-152)
32. One of the shortcuts used to judge others involves evaluating a person based on how he/she compares to other individuals on the same characteristic. What is this shortcut called? a. selective perception. b. the contrast effect c. the halo effect d. prejudice e. stereotyping (b; Moderate; p. 151) 33. What do we call the tendency to attribute ones own characteristics to other people? a. stereotyping b. self-serving bias c. selection d. projection e. prototyping (d; Moderate; p. 152) 34. Jo is an honest and straightforward person. She believes her employees are all similarly honest and straightforward, ignoring signs that they may be manipulating her. What perceptual shortcut is Jo most likely using?. a. prototyping b. contrast effect c. halo effect d. stereotyping e. projection (e; Challenging; p. 152) 35. Among people who engage in projection, their perception of others is influenced _____. a. more by what the observer is like than by what the person being observed is like b. more by the situation than by what the person being observed is like
c. by the environment d. more by dominant attributes of the person than by the general character of the person e. by one outstanding characteristic of the person being observed (a; Challenging; p. 152) 36. What do we call it when we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he/she belongs? a. grouping b. stereotyping c. categorizing d. assimilating e. prototyping (b; Easy; p. 152) 37. When F. Scott Fitzgerald said, The very rich are different from you and me and Hemingway replied, Yes, they have more money, Hemingway refused to engage in what shortcut to judge others?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
projection contrast effect halo effect stereotyping prototyping (d; Challenging; p. 152) 38. Which of the following statements is not an example of stereotyping? a. There is no need to offer child-care to him; men arent interested in child care. b. Dont hire an older worker; they cant learn new skills. c. She was good at her last job, so she will be good at this one. d. She wont relocate for a promotion, since women dont relocate. e. The new hire will be emotionally insensitive, since he is a man. (c; Easy; p. 153)
39. Which of the following is a strong indicator that interviewers often base their judgments on perception, rather than simply on the facts they are presented with?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
different interviewers often arrive at different conclusions about the same applicant applicants who do not have any negative traits are viewed more highly than those with a mix of negative and positive traits ethnic profiling is often needed to sort out large numbers of applicants interviewers do not have recourse to objective measures in many cases experience shows that in many cases the best person is not hired for the job (a; Easy; p. 153) 40. What applicants are usually considered best by interviewers?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
those those those those those
with the best qualifications who lack any unfavorable characteristics with the most relevant experience who are verbally adept whose interview lasts the longest
(b; Moderate; p. 153) 41. Which of the following is not true concerning interviewers?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Their perceptual judgments are often inaccurate. Interviewers vary in terms of what they are looking for in a candidate. Different interviewers generally see the same things in the same candidate. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. They often overestimate their interviewing skills (c; Challenging; p. 153) 42. Jenny is being interviewed for a position as an editor. At the start of the interview she is flustered and repeatedly mispronounces the name of the company she is applying to work for. She thinks the rest of the interview goes very well and she is confident about getting the job. Why might her confidence be misplaced?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Most employment decisions have been made before the interview is conducted. Most interviewers make their decision by the first 5 minutes of the interview. Employers gain most of their knowledge of a potential employees skill set through interviewing. Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate. Interviewers will use stereotypes to judge her, so what she says and does at the interview will be of little importance. (b; Moderate; p. 153)
43. Leone thinks that because her employee Josef went to an Ivy League college he is very knowledgeable, and always asks his opinion on the firms investments. In reality, Josef knows very little about investing, but makes sure he reads up on it so that he can give an informed opinion to Leone. What has occurred in this situation? a. profiling b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. a self-serving bias d. the fundamental attribution error e. a projection event (b; Challenging; p. 154) 44. What is another name for a self-fulfilling prophecy? a. Pygmalion effect b. projection c. self-selecting bias d. halo effect e. prototyping (a; Moderate; p. 154) 45. According to _____, what is expected of people helps determine their behavior. a. the fundamental attribution error b. projection c. self-selecting bias d. the halo effect e. the Pygmalion effect (e; Moderate; p. 154) 46. Which of the following is not true regarding performance evaluation? a. It is often difficult to use objective measures in analyzing an employees performance. b. It is dependent on the perceptual process.
c. Subjective measures are far more difficult to implement than objective measures. d. Subjective measures provide managers greater discretion. e. What the evaluator perceives to be good or bad employee characteristics or behaviors will greatly influence the appraisal. (c; Moderate; p. 155) The Link between Perception and Individual Decision Making 47. Why is decision making a perceptual issue?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Decisions must be made on how to move from the current state of affairs to some desired state. Middle and lower level managers may have different perceptions on how to solve a problem than their underlings or top level managers. Decision making is generally by consensus. There may be more than one way to solve a problem. Before a decision is made, a problem must be perceived to exist. (e; Moderate; p. 155) 48. Which of the following is not a challenge when making a decision? a. eliminating perceptual distortions b. making sure all decision makers have the same perceptions c. weighing up the alternative courses of action
d. ensuring that the perceptions of the decision maker reflect reality e. choosing the relevant data (b; Challenging; p. 156) How Should Decisions Be Made? 49. What is the first step in the Rational Decision-Making Model? a. developing alternatives b. defining the problem c. identifying the decision criteria d. weighing the decision criteria
e. collecting relevant data (b; Easy; p. 156) 50. Which of the following is not consistent with rational decision-making? a. consistency b. value-maximizing c. restraints d. intuitiveness e. ranking of criteria (c; Easy; p. 156) 51. Mel has exceeded her budget by at least $200 every month for the last three months. After recognizing that this is a problem, she decides to use the rational decision-making model to decide what to do. What might be the next step she takes if she follows this model?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
determine what she needs to take into account when making her decision choose a method to cut her expenses weighing the relative importance of each of her expenses coming up with different ways that would either reduce her expenses or increase her income evaluating different ways that she could use to either reduce her expenses or increase her income (a; Moderate; p. 156) 52. Which of the following is not an assumption of the rational decision-making model? a. The decision maker is constrained by time and costs. b. The decision criteria are constant and the weights assigned to them are stable over time. c. The decision maker can identify all the relevant criteria and can list all the viable alternatives. d. The decision maker is aware of all the possible consequences of each alternative. e. The decision maker is assumed to have complete information regarding the decision situation. (a; Challenging; p. 156) 53. Which is not one of the steps in the rational decision-making model?
1.
defining the problem
2. 3. 4. 5.
identifying the decision criteria rating the alternatives computing the decision alternatives selecting the best alternative (d; Moderate; p. 156-157) 54. MeltonCorp has installed a new email system, but many staff do not know of its features. Upper management decides to allocate a small portion of the companys budget to solving this problem. A team that uses rational decision making to arrive at a solution should be aware that this case deviates from the assumptions of the rational decision making model in what way? a. there are constraints on the options available to them b. there are cost constraints c. the options available to the team are not known d. the problem is not clearly defined e. there is a lack of strong leadership (b; Challenging; p. 157) 55. In the following steps in decision making, which would come first? a. Generate alternatives. b. Identify criteria. c. Make a choice. d. Implement the decision. e. Assess the outcome. (b; Easy; p. 157) 56. The factors an individual views as important in a decision are assessed in which step in the rational model? a. decision criteria b. developing alternatives c. evaluation of alternatives d. problem definition
e. reflection (a; Moderate; p. 157) 57. Which of the following is not an assumption of the rational decision-making model? a. problem clarity b. preferences change slowly c. no time or cost constraints d. maximum payoff e. clear payoff (b; Moderate; p. 157) 58. What trait does a decision maker need to have if they are to fully appraise a problem and even see problems that others are not aware of? a. creativity b. rationality c. conceptual style d. intuition e. individuality (a; Moderate; p. 158) 59. What is creativitys greatest value in decision making? a. identifying the problem b. computing the optimal decision c. allocating weights to the alternatives d. helping identify all viable alternatives e. generating consensus (d; Moderate; p. 158) 60. Gene is regarded by his peers as an extremely creative designer of watercraft. He attributes much of his success to his family: he was raised by a traditional boat builder and from a very
early age was surrounded by boats and the people who made them. To what element of the three-component model of creativity does Gene attribute his success? a. intuitiveness b. insight c. task motivation d. expertise e. creativity skills (d; Moderate; p. 158) 61. What is the segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for all creative work? a. expertise b. creative thinking skills c. intrinsic task motivation d. intuition e. realization (a; Moderate; p. 159) http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs 62. What segment of the three-component model of creativity encompasses personality characteristics that are associated with imagination? a. expertise b. creative thinking skills c. intrinsic task motivation d. intuition e. realization (b; Moderate; p. 160) 63. What is the segment in the three-component model of creativity that turns creative potential into actual creative ideas?
a. expertise b. creative thinking skills c. intrinsic task motivation d. intuition e. realization (c; Moderate; p. 160) How Are Decisions Actually Made In Organizations? 64. Decision makers construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. That is, they operate within the confines of _____.. a. optimal decision making b. intuitive decision making c. bounded rationality d. rationality e. common sense (c; Moderate; p. 161) 65. How is the satisficing decision maker best characterized? a. as using rationality b. as using bounded rationality c. as affected by anchoring bias d. as using creativity e. as relying on others to make decisions (b; Challenging; p. 161) 66. Why do people satisfice? a. resource restraints usually prevent people from entertaining all the options possible b. solutions that solve a problem, even if they are not the best solution, are generally satisfactory
c. any solution that solves a problem will be considered to be acceptable if the other possible options are not explored. d. in general, people lack the motivation to perform rational decision-making fully. e. the limited information-processing capability of human beings makes it impossible to assimilate and understand all the information necessary to optimize (e; Moderate; p. 162) 67. Where is overconfidence most likely to surface? a. outside your area of expertise b. in your area of expertise c. with more education and training d. among higher wage earners e. among older workers (a; Challenging; p. 163) 68. What do we call the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that they can easily obtain? a. representative bias b. availability bias c. confirmation bias d. anchoring bias e. principality (b; Moderate; p. 164) http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs 69. What sort of bias is the tendency to assess the likelihood of an occurrence by trying to match it with a preexisting category? a. representative b. confirmation c. randomness
d. hindsight e. refraction (a; Challenging; p. 164) 70. What is the term used for an increased commitment to a previous decision in spite of negative information? a. escalation of commitment b. hindsight. c. satisficing d. representative e. rose-colored-glasses (a; Moderate; p. 164) 71. A boy overestimates the likelihood of his playing in the NBA because he knows another boy who came from their neighborhood five years ago who is now playing professional basketball. What sort of bias in his perception does this boy have? a. confirmation b. escalation c. representative d. optimizing e. self-reflecting (c; Moderate; p. 164) 72. Avoiding making decisions on Friday the 13 can be an example of which bias? a. representative b. commitment c. randomness d. confirmation e. substitution
th
(c; Moderate; p. 165) What About Ethics in Decision Making? 73. Which of the following terms involves making decisions so as to provide the greatest good for the greatest number ? a. utilitarianism b. justice c. rights d. satisficing e. humanitarianism (a; Moderate; p. 172) 74. Which of the following conditions would probably not lead to intuitive decision making? a. Time is limited and there is pressure to come up with the right decision. b. Facts dont clearly point the way to go. c. There is a high level of certainty. d. There are several plausible solutions from which to choose. e. People are feeling pressured to make a decision. (c; Challenging; p. 168) TRUE/FALSE What Is Perception? 75. Perception refers to the way we organize and interpret the world around us. (True; Easy; p. 146) 76. The reality of a situation is what is behaviorally important. (False; Moderate; p. 146) 77. Individuals involved in the same situation will usually perceive that situation similarly. (False; Easy; p. 146)
Factors Influencing Perception 78. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. (True; Easy; p. 147) 79. Personal characteristics affecting perception include the time at which an object or event is seen. (False; Moderate; p. 147) 80. An individuals expectations have little effect on perception. (False; Easy; p. 147) 81. Expectations can distort your perceptions in that you will see what you did not expect. (False; Easy; p. 147) 82. The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception of that target. (True; Moderate; p. 147) 83. Elements in the surrounding environment are ignored in our perceptions. (False; Moderate; p. 147) Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 84. Attribution theory looks at the internal and external causes of behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 148) 85. Giving an attribution an external causation means you assume that the individual is responsible for his or her own behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 148) 86. In attribution theory, distinctiveness refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations. (True; Moderate; p. 148) 87. In attribution theory, consensus refers to whether an individual displays similar behaviors in similar situations.
(False; Moderate; p. 148) 88. The more consistent the behavior, the more the observer is inclined to attribute it to internal causes. (True; Moderate; p. 148) 89. The tendency for individuals to attribute their successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is called the fundamental attribution error. (False; Moderate; p. 149) 90. The self-serving bias explains why a sales manager is prone to attribute the poor performance of her sales agents to laziness rather than to the innovative product line introduced by a competitor. (False; Challenging; p. 149) 91. The self-serving bias suggests that feedback provided to employees in performance reviews is very likely to be distorted by recipients. (True; Moderate; p. 149) 92. Selective perception allows us to speed read others. (True; Moderate; p. 150) 93. The halo effect occurs because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see. (False; Moderate; p. 150) 94. An individuals place in the interview schedule may affect the interviewers evaluation of the applicant. This is an example of the halo effect. (False; Moderate; p. 150-151) 95. Projection is the idea that people selectively interpret what they see based on their interests, background, experience, and attitudes. (False; Moderate; p. 152) 96. When managers see their employees as more homogeneous than they really are, the managers are probably engaging in projection. (True; Moderate; p. 152) 97. When you are judging someone based upon your perception of a group to which he belongs, you are guilty of projection.
(False; Easy; p. 152) 98. Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are generally accurate during an employment interview. (False; Easy; p. 153) 99. Negative information revealed early in an interview tends to be more heavily weighted than if the same information were discovered later. (True; Moderate; p. 153) 100. If you expect to see that older workers cant learn a new job skill, you will probably experience that effect whether your opinion is valid or not. (True; Moderate; p. 153) 101. Another name for the self-serving bias is the Pygmalion effect. (False; Challenging; p. 154) 102. Brenda has been told that her students have been selected for her class because they are the most intelligent in their grade. She finds that they consistently perform above average work. This may be an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy. (True; Moderate; p. 154) 103. The judgment of the evaluator plays an important role in subjective criteria used in performance evaluations. (True; Moderate; p. 155) The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision Making 104. Managers are generally the only ones who make decisions in an organization. (False; Easy; p. 155) 105. Decision making occurs as a reaction to a problem. (True; Moderate; p. 156) How Should Decisions Be Made? http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs 106. Awareness that a problem exists and that a decision needs to be made is an analytical issue.
(False; Moderate; p. 156) 107. One persons problem may be considered by another person to be a satisfactory state of affairs. (True; Easy; p. 156) 108. If a decision maker chooses not to identify some factor as a decision criterion in step two of the decision making process, it is considered irrelevant to the process. (True; Challenging; p. 157) 109. Rationality assumes that the options and alternatives can be ranked according to their importance. (True; Moderate; p. 157) 110. The rational decision-making model assumes that the alternative that yields the highest real value will be chosen. (False; Moderate; p. 157) 111. The intuitive decision-making model assumes the problem is clear and unambiguous. (False; Challenging; p. 157) 112. All rational decision makers can be expected to identify and select the same problems to solve. (False; Challenging; p. 157) 113. All people are inherently creative. (False; Moderate; p. 158) 114. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. (True; Moderate; p. 159) 115. The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. (True; Moderate; p. 159-160) How Are Decisions Actually Made In Organizations? 116. Most decisions in the business world follow the rational model.
(False; Moderate; p. 160) 117. The bounded rationality model assumes that the decision maker will complicate the problem. (False; Moderate; p. 161) 118. The bounded rationality model uses previously tried-and-true solutions. (True; Moderate; p. 161) 119. To optimize an outcome, the bounded-rational decision-making process should be used. (False; Moderate; p. 161) 120. A satisficing solution is satisfactory but not sufficient. (False; Easy; p. 161) 121. Availability bias is the tendency for people to base judgments on information that is readily available to them. (True; Moderate; p. 164) 122. Jackson continues to put money into car repair even though he knows the car is a lemon. This is an example of the availability bias. (False; Moderate; p. 164) 123. It has been well documented that individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. (True; Moderate; p. 164) 124. Intuitive decision making is a conscious process created out of experience. (False; Challenging; p. 167) 125. Intuitive decision analysis must operate independently of rational analysis. (False; Moderate; p. 167) 126. Rational decision making is considered more socially desirable in the U.S. than intuitive decision making. (True; Moderate; p. 168) What About Ethics in Decision Making?
127. Utilitarianism dominates business decision making. (True; Easy; p. 172) 128. A focus on utilitarianism as an ethical decision criterion promotes efficiency and productivity as well as a focus on the rights of individuals. (False; Easy; p. 172) 129. The justice criterion for decision making requires that individuals impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. (True; Moderate; p. 172) 130. Ethical standards are less ambiguous in Asia than in the United States. (False; Challenging; p. 173) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Attribution Theory You are on a team with two individuals who are difficult. The work has been divided among the three of you and each time your team meets, Janet and Jim disagree about the progress of the team project. Janet is convinced that Jims lack of progress is because he is inherently lazy and not because of some overwhelming problem with the project itself. The truth seems to be that Janet is not doing her part of the work. 131. What might you use to try to understand Janet and Jims behavior? a. perception theory b. attribution theory c. decision-making theory d. satisficing theory e. Surbers theory (b; Easy; p. 148) 132. What error or bias does Janet seem to be making? a. selective perception b. an external bias
c. the fundamental attribution error d. self-serving bias e. the ultimate attribution error (c; Moderate; p. 149) 133. Janet may be attributing to Jim some of her own characteristics. What is this called? a. projection b. self-fulfilling prophecy c. contrast effect. d. stereotyping e. reflection (a; Moderate; p. 152) Application of Shortcuts in Judging Others The students in your class are presenting their oral presentations in front of the entire class. You have heard that there are several frequently used shortcuts to judging others and are wondering if any of these are being used by your teacher. 134. Jennifer has already presented two excellent reports. The report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case? a. the contrast effect b. the halo effect c. stereotyping d. projection e. assertion (b; Moderate; p. 150-151) 135. Allison has just presented her paper and has done a really good job. Why should you not want to present your own paper directly after she does? a. To avoid the stereotyping effect
b. To avoid the halo effect c. To avoid the contrast effect d. To avoid the projection effect e. To avoid the ultimate attribution error (c; Moderate; p. 151) 136. You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case? a. the halo effect b. the contrast effect c. projection d. stereotyping e. prototyping (d; Moderate; p. 152) Application of Rational Problem-Solving Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model. 137. The first step occurred when Sarahs manager informed her that the old computer system was not able to accommodate the expected customer load. What is this step?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
identifying decision criteria defining the problem rating each alternative on each criterion computing the optimal decision creating an agenda 6. http://groups.google.com/group/vuZs
(b; Moderate; p. 156) 138. What should Sara do in the third step of the rational decision-making process?
1. 2. 3.
find out who will be using the computer system, what they need it to be able to do, cost constraints and any other criteria that needs to be taken into account work out what criteria must be met by the new system, and which are simply preferences. find out which systems would fulfill the criteria identified
4. 5.
work out which computer system is the best of all the possible alternatives select the new computer system that best fits the weighted criteria.
(b; Moderate; p. 157) 139. What is Sara doing when she looks at all of the possible computer systems, sees how well that system meets the weighted criteria and then selects the alternative with the highest total score?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
identifying decision criteria defining the problem rating each alternative on each criterion computing the optimal decision modifying her decision criteria
(d; Moderate; p. 157) Application of Improving Creativity Susan is involved in making a very important decision for her university. The university is searching for a new president and Susan is a member of the selection committee. She wants to make certain that the best candidate is chosen. 140. Susan wants the committee to produce novel and useful ideas for identifying and selecting the candidate. She has decided she should stimulate _____. a. consensus b. creativity c. diversity d. clarity e. obedience (b; Easy; p. 158) 141. Creativity will probably be most important in doing which of the following? a. helping identify all viable alternatives b. selecting the best alternative c. allocating weights to criteria d. evaluating the alternatives
e. sorting very large group applications (a; Moderate; p. 158) 142. What should Susan avoid doing if she is to encourage creativity in the committee? a. encourage the flow of ideas b. judge ideas fairly and constructively c. sharply define the problem to be solved d. give rewards and recognition for creative work e. support the committee (c; Challenging; p. 159) Application of How Are Decisions Actually Made You are part of a group making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. 143. Your experience tells you that this project has merit. What form of decision making are you using if you decide to continue the project on this basis? a. compulsive b. intuitive c. rational d. satisficing e. compelling (b; Moderate; p. 167) 144. Well after you have started trying to make a decision, new information comes to light that implies that the drug may be able to be synthesized much more cheaply than was previously thought. What must you try to avoid when integrating this new information? a. anchoring bias b. overconfidence bias
c. confirmation bias d. availability bias e. representative bias (a; Moderate; p. 162) 145. The group decides to continue the project so that all the resources already spent on it will not have been wasted. In this case the group has done which of the following? a. used the availability bias b. used the anchoring bias c. made an escalation of commitment d. satisficed e. made the ultimate attribution error (c; Moderate; p. 164) Application of Ethical Decision Making You are the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. You have decided that it is important for your group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and you are designing a training program on the subject of ethics. You want to teach the decision criterion that currently dominates business decision-making. 146. Which decision criterion will you teach? a. utilitarian b. justice c. rights d. privilege e. assertion (a; Challenging; p. 172) 147. If you wish to emphasize the importance of making decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges, the focus of your teaching will also be on which of the following? a. utilitarianism
b. justice c. rights d. privilege e. service (c; Moderate; p. 172) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 148. Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias. When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort while putting the blame for failure on external factors such as bad luck or unproductive coworkers. This is called the self-serving bias. (Page 149) 149. Discuss some of the errors in perceptual judgment made by interviewers in job interviews. Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate. In addition, agreement among interviewers is often poor; that is, different interviewers see different things in the same candidate and thus arrive at different conclusions about the applicant. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. If negative information is exposed early in the interview, it tends to be more heavily weighted than if that same information comes out later. Studies indicate that most interviewers decisions change very little after the first four or five minutes of the interview. As a result, information elicited early in the interview carries greater weight than does information elicited later, and a good applicant is probably characterized more by the absence of unfavorable characteristics than by the presence of favorable characteristics. Perceptual factors influence who is hired and eventually the quality of an organizations labor force. (Pages 153-154) 150. What is the self-fulfilling prophecy? The self-fulfilling prophecy is also called the Pygmalion effect. It characterizes the fact that what is expected of people helps determine their behavior. In other words, if a manager expects big things from his people, theyre not likely to let him down. Similarly, if a manager expects people to perform minimally, theyll tend to behave so as to meet those low expectations. The result then is that the expectations become reality. (Page 154) 151. What assumptions are made by the rational decision-making model? There are six assumptions of the rational decision-making model:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
The problem is clear and unambiguous. The decision maker is assumed to have complete information regarding the decision situation. It is assumed the decision maker can identify all the relevant criteria and can list all the viable alternatives. Furthermore, the decision maker is aware of all the possible consequences of each alternative. Rationality assumes that the criteria and alternatives can be ranked and weighted to reflect their importance. It is assumed that the specific decision criteria are constant and that the weights assigned to them are stable over time. The rational decision maker can obtain full information about criteria and alternatives because it is assumed that there are no time or cost constraints. The rational decision maker will choose the alternative that yields the highest perceived value. (Pages 157)
152. How is bounded rationality related to decision making? Since the capacity of the human mind for formulating and solving complex problems is far too small to meet the requirements for full rationality, individuals operate within the confines of bounded rationality. They construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. Individuals can then behave rationally within the limits of the simple model. Once the limited set of alternatives is identified, the decision maker will begin reviewing it. But the review will not be comprehensive. Instead, the decision maker will begin with alternatives that differ only in a relatively small degree from the choice currently in effect. Following along familiar and well-worn paths, the decision maker proceeds to review alternatives only until he or she identifies an alternative that is good enough. The first alternative that meets the good enough criterion ends the search. So the final solution represents a satisficing choice rather than an optimum one. (Pages 161-162) 153. Define the term escalation of commitment. A bias that creeps into decisions is a tendency to escalate commitment when a decision stream represents a series of decisions. Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that it is wrong. Individuals tend to escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. (Pages 164) MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 154. Discuss five shortcuts used in judging others. Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, only certain stimuli can be taken in. Since we cannot observe everything going on about us, we engage in selective perception. This allows us to speed-read others. When we draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, a halo effect is operating. The contrast effect occurs when we dont evaluate a person in isolation; our reaction to one person is influenced by other people we have recently encountered. The tendency to attribute ones own characteristics to other people is projection. This occurs when we
perceive others according to what we ourselves are like rather than according to what the person being observed is really like. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut called stereotyping. (Pages 150-152) 155. Outline the six steps in the rational decision-making model. The rational decision-making model begins by defining the problem. Once a decision maker has defined the problem, he or she needs to identify the decision criteria that will be important in solving the problem. That is, the decision maker determines what is relevant in making the decision. The third step requires the decision maker to weight the previously identified criteria in order to give them the correct priority in the decision. The fourth step requires the decision maker to generate possible alternatives that could succeed in resolving the problem. Once the alternatives have been generated, the decision maker must critically analyze and evaluate each one. This is done by rating each alternative on each criterion. The final step requires computing the optimal decision. This is done by evaluating each alternative against the weighted criteria and selecting the alternative with the highest total score. (Page 157) 156. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.
There are three different criteria in making ethical choices. The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business decision making. Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. (Pages 172-173) COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 157. What factors that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception reside in the perceiver, what factors reside in the target being perceived, and what factors reside in the context of the situation? A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors. (Page 147)
158. Discuss the three-component model of creativity. The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. The potential for creativity is enhanced when individuals have abilities, knowledge, proficiencies, and similar expertise in their field of endeavor. The second component is creative-thinking skills. This encompasses personality characteristics associated with creativity, the ability to use analogies, as well as the talent to see the familiar in a different light. The final component is intrinsic task motivation. This is the desire to work on something because it is interesting, involving, exciting, satisfying, or personally challenging. This motivational component is what turns creativity potential into actual creative ideas. It determines the extent to which individuals fully engage their expertise and creative skills. (Pages 159) 159. Discuss some of the ways in which an organization constrains decision makers. Managers are strongly influenced in their decision making by the criteria by which they are evaluated. The organizations reward system influences decision makers by suggesting to them what choices are preferable in terms of personal payoff. Rules, policies, procedures, and other formalized regulations standardize behavior of organizational members. By programming decisions, organizations are able to get individuals to achieve high levels of performance without paying for the years of experience that would be necessary in the absence of regulations. Organizations impose deadlines on decisions. These conditions create time pressures on decision makers and often make it difficult, if not impossible, to gather all the information they might like to have before making a final choice. Decisions have a context. Decisions made in the past are ghosts which continually haunt current choices. Choices made today, therefore, are largely a result of choices made over the years. (Pages 169-170) 160. List and explain eight common decision biases or errors. Overconfidence Bias. When were given factual questions and asked to judge the probability that our answers are correct, we tend to be far too optimistic. Anchoring Bias. The anchoring bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information as a starting point. Once set, we then fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information. The anchoring bias occurs because our mind appears to give a disproportionate amount of emphasis to the first information it receives. So initial impressions, ideas, prices, and estimates carry undue weight relative to information received later. Confirmation Bias. The rational decision-making process assumes that we objectively gather information. But we dont. We selectively gather information. The confirmation bias represents a specific case of selective perception. We seek out information that reaffirms our past choices, and we discount information that contradicts past judgments. Availability Bias. This is the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. Events that evoke emotions, that are particularly vivid, or that have occurred more recently tend to be more available in our memory. As a result, we tend to be prone to overestimating unlikely events like an airplane crash. The availability bias can also explain why managers, when doing annual performance appraisals, tend to give more weight to recent behaviors of an employee than those behaviors of six or nine months ago.
Representative Bias. We are all guilty of falling into the representative bias at times. Managers, for example, frequently predict the performance of a new product by relating it to a previous products success. Or if three graduates from the same college were hired and turned out to be poor performers, managers may predict that a current job applicant from the same college will not be a good employee. Escalation of Commitment Error. This refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that its wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. Escalation of commitment is also congruent with evidence that people try to appear consistent in what they say and do. Increasing commitment to previous actions conveys consistency. Randomness Error. Human beings have a lot of difficulty dealing with chance. Most of us like to believe we have some control over our world and destiny. Although we undoubtedly can control a good part of our future by rational decision making, the truth is that the world will always contain random events. Decision making becomes impaired when we try to create meaning out of random events. Hindsight bias. The hindsight bias is the tendency for us to believe falsely that wed have accurately predicted the outcome of an event, after that outcome is actually known. When something happens and we have accurate feedback on the outcome, we seem to be pretty good at concluding that this outcome was relatively obvious. (Pages 162-167)

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Foundations of Individual Behavior http://groups.google.

c. spatial visualization d. dynamic flexibility e. social aptitude (d; Moderate; p. 45)

(e; Moderate; p. 47)

(a; Easy; p. 47)

Social Emotional Cultural Spiritual

(b; Moderate; p. 47)

Emotional Cultural Spiritual

(d; Easy; p. 47)

(e; Moderate; p. 47)

(c; Moderate; p. 49)

(a; Moderate, p. 49)

(b; Challenging; p. 49)

(b; Moderate; p. 52)

(e; Moderate; p. 54)

35. Operant conditioning argues that _____.

(b; Easy; p. 56)

c. counseling d. positive reinforcement e. shaping (c; Easy; p. 58)

variable-ratio fixed-ratio variable-interval fixed-interval viable (b; Moderate; p. 60)

d. behavioral e. reactive (a; Moderate; p. 74)

(a; Easy; p. 74)

(c; Moderate; p. 77)

(e; Challenging; p. 76)

(e; Moderate; p. 76)

(b; Challenging; p. 77)

(e; Moderate; p. 77)

(b; Moderate; p. 78)

is not regularly discussed and examined

(a; Moderate; p. 78)

20. Which of the following is not true concerning diversity programs?

department socially stratified

(b; Moderate; p. 80)

(d; Challenging; p. 86)

e. No relationship can be established between the two. (b; Moderate; p. 87)

(a; Easy; p. 86)

(a; Moderate; p. 86)

employees level of workplace deviance

(a; Challenging; p. 88)

e. social voice (a; Easy; p. 89)

c. loyalty d. neglect e. reification (c; Moderate; p. 89)

They are the same.

5. Which of the following is not a factor in the individual perceiver?

attitude motive expectation location perception

perceiver target social reality situation

those those those those those

defining the problem

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